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| 1 |  |  AN ACT concerning health.
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| 2 |  |  Be it enacted by the People of the State of Illinois,  | 
| 3 |  | represented in the General Assembly: 
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| 4 |  |  Section 5. The Mental Health and Developmental  | 
| 5 |  | Disabilities Administrative Act is amended by changing Section  | 
| 6 |  | 4 as follows:
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| 7 |  |  (20 ILCS 1705/4) (from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 100-4) | 
| 8 |  |  Sec. 4. Supervision of facilities and services; quarterly  | 
| 9 |  | reports.  | 
| 10 |  |  (a) To exercise executive and administrative supervision  | 
| 11 |  | over all facilities, divisions, programs and services now  | 
| 12 |  | existing or hereafter acquired or created under the  | 
| 13 |  | jurisdiction of the Department, including, but not limited to,  | 
| 14 |  | the following:  | 
| 15 |  |   The Alton Mental Health Center, at Alton  | 
| 16 |  |   The Clyde L. Choate Mental Health and Developmental  | 
| 17 |  |  Center, at Anna  | 
| 18 |  |   The Chester Mental Health Center, at Chester  | 
| 19 |  |   The Chicago-Read Mental Health Center, at Chicago  | 
| 20 |  |   The Elgin Mental Health Center, at Elgin  | 
| 21 |  |   The Metropolitan Children and Adolescents Center, at  | 
| 22 |  |  Chicago  | 
| 23 |  |   The Jacksonville Developmental Center, at Jacksonville  | 
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| 1 |  |   The Governor Samuel H. Shapiro Developmental Center,  | 
| 2 |  |  at Kankakee  | 
| 3 |  |   The Tinley Park Mental Health Center, at Tinley Park  | 
| 4 |  |   The Warren G. Murray Developmental Center, at  | 
| 5 |  |  Centralia  | 
| 6 |  |   The Jack Mabley Developmental Center, at Dixon  | 
| 7 |  |   The Lincoln Developmental Center, at Lincoln  | 
| 8 |  |   The H. Douglas Singer Mental Health and Developmental  | 
| 9 |  |  Center, at Rockford  | 
| 10 |  |   The John J. Madden Mental Health Center, at Chicago  | 
| 11 |  |   The George A. Zeller Mental Health Center, at Peoria  | 
| 12 |  |   The Elizabeth Parsons Ware Packard Andrew McFarland  | 
| 13 |  |  Mental Health Center, at Springfield  | 
| 14 |  |   The Adolf Meyer Mental Health Center, at Decatur  | 
| 15 |  |   The William W. Fox Developmental Center, at Dwight  | 
| 16 |  |   The Elisabeth Ludeman Developmental Center, at Park  | 
| 17 |  |  Forest  | 
| 18 |  |   The William A. Howe Developmental Center, at Tinley  | 
| 19 |  |  Park  | 
| 20 |  |   The Ann M. Kiley Developmental Center, at Waukegan.  | 
| 21 |  |  (b) Beginning not later than July 1, 1977, the Department  | 
| 22 |  | shall cause each of the facilities under its jurisdiction  | 
| 23 |  | which provide in-patient care to comply with standards, rules  | 
| 24 |  | and regulations of the Department of Public Health prescribed  | 
| 25 |  | under Section 6.05 of the Hospital Licensing Act.  | 
| 26 |  |  (b-5) The Department shall cause each of the facilities  | 
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| 1 |  | under its jurisdiction that provide in-patient care to comply  | 
| 2 |  | with Section 6.25 of the Hospital Licensing Act.  | 
| 3 |  |  (c) The Department shall issue quarterly electronic  | 
| 4 |  | reports to the General Assembly on admissions, deflections,  | 
| 5 |  | discharges, bed closures, staff-resident ratios, census,  | 
| 6 |  | average length of stay, and any adverse federal certification  | 
| 7 |  | or accreditation findings, if any, for each State-operated  | 
| 8 |  | facility for the mentally ill and for persons with  | 
| 9 |  | developmental disabilities. The quarterly reports shall be  | 
| 10 |  | issued by January 1, April 1, July 1, and October 1 of each  | 
| 11 |  | year. The quarterly reports shall include the following  | 
| 12 |  | information for each facility reflecting the period ending 15  | 
| 13 |  | days prior to the submission of the report: | 
| 14 |  |   (1) the number of employees; | 
| 15 |  |   (2) the number of workplace violence incidents that  | 
| 16 |  |  occurred, including the number that were a direct assault  | 
| 17 |  |  on employees by residents and the number that resulted  | 
| 18 |  |  from staff intervention in a resident altercation or other  | 
| 19 |  |  form of injurious behavior; | 
| 20 |  |   (3) the number of employees impacted in each incident;  | 
| 21 |  |  and | 
| 22 |  |   (4) the number of employee injuries resulting,  | 
| 23 |  |  descriptions of the nature of the injuries, the number of  | 
| 24 |  |  employee injuries requiring medical treatment at the  | 
| 25 |  |  facility, the number of employee injuries requiring  | 
| 26 |  |  outside medical treatment, and the number of days off work  | 
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| 1 |  |  per injury. | 
| 2 |  |  (d) The requirements in subsection (c) do not relieve the  | 
| 3 |  | Department from the recordkeeping requirements of the  | 
| 4 |  | Occupational Safety and Health Act. | 
| 5 |  |  (e) The Department shall: | 
| 6 |  |   (1) establish a reasonable procedure for employees to  | 
| 7 |  |  report work-related assaults and injuries. A procedure is  | 
| 8 |  |  not reasonable if it would deter or discourage a  | 
| 9 |  |  reasonable employee from accurately reporting a workplace  | 
| 10 |  |  assault or injury; | 
| 11 |  |   (2) inform each employee: | 
| 12 |  |    (A) of the procedure for reporting work-related  | 
| 13 |  |  assaults and injuries; | 
| 14 |  |    (B) of the right to report work-related assaults  | 
| 15 |  |  and injuries; and | 
| 16 |  |    (C) that the Department is prohibited from  | 
| 17 |  |  discharging or in any manner discriminating against  | 
| 18 |  |  employees for reporting work-related assaults and  | 
| 19 |  |  injuries; and | 
| 20 |  |   (3) not discharge, discipline, or in any manner  | 
| 21 |  |  discriminate against any employee for reporting a  | 
| 22 |  |  work-related assault or injury.  | 
| 23 |  | (Source: P.A. 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; 100-1075, eff. 1-1-19.)
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| 24 |  |  (405 ILCS 95/Act rep.) | 
| 25 |  |  Section 10. The Perinatal Mental Health Disorders  | 
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| 1 |  | Prevention and Treatment Act is repealed.
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| 2 |  |  Section 15. The Maternal Mental Health Conditions  | 
| 3 |  | Education, Early Diagnosis, and Treatment Act is amended by  | 
| 4 |  | changing Sections 5, 10, and 15 and by adding Sections 9 and 14  | 
| 5 |  | as follows:
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| 6 |  |  (405 ILCS 120/5) | 
| 7 |  |  Sec. 5. Findings. The General Assembly finds the  | 
| 8 |  | following: | 
| 9 |  |   (1) Maternal depression is a common complication of  | 
| 10 |  |  pregnancy. Maternal mental health disorders encompass a  | 
| 11 |  |  range of mental health conditions, such as depression,  | 
| 12 |  |  anxiety, and postpartum psychosis. | 
| 13 |  |   (2) Maternal mental health conditions affect one in 5  | 
| 14 |  |  women during or after pregnancy, but all women are at risk  | 
| 15 |  |  of suffering from maternal mental health conditions. | 
| 16 |  |   (3) Untreated maternal mental health conditions  | 
| 17 |  |  significantly and negatively impact the short-term and  | 
| 18 |  |  long-term health and well-being of affected women and  | 
| 19 |  |  their children. | 
| 20 |  |   (4) Untreated maternal mental health conditions cause  | 
| 21 |  |  adverse birth outcomes, impaired maternal-infant bonding,  | 
| 22 |  |  poor infant growth, childhood emotional and behavioral  | 
| 23 |  |  problems, and significant medical and economic costs,  | 
| 24 |  |  estimated to be $22,500 per mother. | 
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| 1 |  |   (5) Lack of understanding and social stigma of mental  | 
| 2 |  |  health conditions prevent women and families from  | 
| 3 |  |  understanding the signs, symptoms, and risks involved with  | 
| 4 |  |  maternal mental health conditions and disproportionately  | 
| 5 |  |  affect women who lack access to social support networks. | 
| 6 |  |   (6) It is the intent of the General Assembly to raise  | 
| 7 |  |  awareness of the risk factors, signs, symptoms, and  | 
| 8 |  |  treatment options for maternal mental health conditions  | 
| 9 |  |  among pregnant women and their families, the general  | 
| 10 |  |  public, primary health care providers, and health care  | 
| 11 |  |  providers who care for pregnant women, postpartum women,  | 
| 12 |  |  and newborn infants. | 
| 13 |  | (Source: P.A. 101-512, eff. 1-1-20.)
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| 14 |  |  (405 ILCS 120/9 new) | 
| 15 |  |  Sec. 9. Intent. It is the intent of the General Assembly: | 
| 16 |  |   (1) to raise awareness of the risk factors, signs,  | 
| 17 |  |  symptoms, and treatment options for maternal mental health  | 
| 18 |  |  conditions among pregnant women and their families, the  | 
| 19 |  |  general public, primary care providers, and health care  | 
| 20 |  |  providers who care for pregnant women, postpartum women,  | 
| 21 |  |  and newborn infants; | 
| 22 |  |   (2) to provide information to women and their families  | 
| 23 |  |  about maternal mental health conditions in order to lower  | 
| 24 |  |  the likelihood that new mothers will continue to suffer  | 
| 25 |  |  from this illness in silence; | 
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| 1 |  |   (3) to develop procedures for assessing women for  | 
| 2 |  |  maternal mental health conditions during prenatal and  | 
| 3 |  |  postnatal visits to licensed health care professionals;  | 
| 4 |  |  and | 
| 5 |  |   (4) to promote early detection of maternal mental  | 
| 6 |  |  health conditions to promote early care and treatment and,  | 
| 7 |  |  when medically appropriate, to avoid medication.
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| 8 |  |  (405 ILCS 120/10) | 
| 9 |  |  Sec. 10. Definitions. In this Act: | 
| 10 |  |  "Birthing hospital" means a hospital that has an approved  | 
| 11 |  | obstetric category of service and licensed beds by the Health  | 
| 12 |  | Facilities and Services Review Board. | 
| 13 |  |  "Department" means the Department of Human Services. | 
| 14 |  |  "Licensed health care professional" means a physician  | 
| 15 |  | licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, a licensed  | 
| 16 |  | advanced practice registered nurse, or a licensed physician  | 
| 17 |  | assistant.  | 
| 18 |  |  "Maternal mental health condition" means a mental health  | 
| 19 |  | condition that occurs during pregnancy or during the  | 
| 20 |  | postpartum period and includes, but is not limited to,  | 
| 21 |  | postpartum depression. | 
| 22 |  |  "Postnatal care" means an office visit to a licensed  | 
| 23 |  | health care professional occurring after birth, with reference  | 
| 24 |  | to the infant or mother. | 
| 25 |  |  "Prenatal care" means an office visit to a licensed health  | 
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| 1 |  | care professional for pregnancy-related care occurring before  | 
| 2 |  | the birth. | 
| 3 |  |  "Questionnaire" means an assessment tool administered by a  | 
| 4 |  | licensed health care professional to detect maternal mental  | 
| 5 |  | health conditions, such as the Edinburgh Postnatal Depression  | 
| 6 |  | Scale, the Postpartum Depression Screening Scale, the Beck  | 
| 7 |  | Depression Inventory, the Patient Health Questionnaire, or  | 
| 8 |  | other validated assessment methods.  | 
| 9 |  | (Source: P.A. 101-512, eff. 1-1-20.)
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| 10 |  |  (405 ILCS 120/14 new) | 
| 11 |  |  Sec. 14. Maternal mental health conditions prevention and  | 
| 12 |  | treatment. The Department of Human Services, in conjunction  | 
| 13 |  | with the Department of Healthcare and Family Services, the  | 
| 14 |  | Department of Public Health, and the Department of Financial  | 
| 15 |  | and Professional Regulation and the Medical Licensing Board,  | 
| 16 |  | shall work with birthing hospitals and licensed health care  | 
| 17 |  | professionals in this State to develop policies, procedures,  | 
| 18 |  | information, and educational materials to meet each of the  | 
| 19 |  | following requirements concerning maternal mental health  | 
| 20 |  | conditions: | 
| 21 |  |   (1) Licensed health care professionals providing  | 
| 22 |  |  prenatal care to women shall provide education to women  | 
| 23 |  |  and, if possible and with permission, to their families  | 
| 24 |  |  about maternal mental health conditions in accordance with  | 
| 25 |  |  the formal opinions and recommendations of the American  | 
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| 1 |  |  College of Obstetricians and Gynecologists. | 
| 2 |  |   (2) All birthing hospitals shall provide new mothers,  | 
| 3 |  |  prior to discharge following childbirth, and, if possible,  | 
| 4 |  |  shall provide fathers and other family members with  | 
| 5 |  |  complete information about maternal mental health  | 
| 6 |  |  conditions, including its symptoms, methods of coping with  | 
| 7 |  |  the illness, treatment resources, post-hospital treatment  | 
| 8 |  |  options, and community resources. The Department of Human  | 
| 9 |  |  Services shall provide written information that hospitals  | 
| 10 |  |  may use to satisfy this subsection (2). A birthing  | 
| 11 |  |  hospital shall supplement the materials provided by the  | 
| 12 |  |  Department to include relevant resources to the region or  | 
| 13 |  |  community in which the birthing hospital is located. | 
| 14 |  |   (3) Licensed health care professionals providing  | 
| 15 |  |  prenatal care at a prenatal visit shall invite each  | 
| 16 |  |  pregnant patient to complete a questionnaire and shall  | 
| 17 |  |  review the completed questionnaire in accordance with the  | 
| 18 |  |  formal opinions and recommendations of the American  | 
| 19 |  |  College of Obstetricians and Gynecologists. Assessment for  | 
| 20 |  |  maternal mental health conditions must be repeated when,  | 
| 21 |  |  in the professional judgment of the licensed health care  | 
| 22 |  |  professional, a reasonable possibility exists that the  | 
| 23 |  |  woman suffers from a maternal mental health condition. | 
| 24 |  |   (4) Licensed health care professionals providing  | 
| 25 |  |  postnatal care to women shall invite each patient to  | 
| 26 |  |  complete a questionnaire and shall review the completed  | 
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| 1 |  |  questionnaire in accordance with the formal opinions and  | 
| 2 |  |  recommendations of the American College of Obstetricians  | 
| 3 |  |  and Gynecologists. | 
| 4 |  |   (5) Licensed health care professionals providing  | 
| 5 |  |  pediatric care to an infant shall invite the infant's  | 
| 6 |  |  mother to complete a questionnaire at any well-baby  | 
| 7 |  |  check-up at which the mother is present prior to the  | 
| 8 |  |  infant's first birthday, and shall review the completed  | 
| 9 |  |  questionnaire in accordance with the formal opinions and  | 
| 10 |  |  recommendations of the American College of Obstetricians  | 
| 11 |  |  and Gynecologists, in order to ensure that the health and  | 
| 12 |  |  well-being of the infant are not compromised by an  | 
| 13 |  |  undiagnosed maternal mental health condition in the  | 
| 14 |  |  mother. In order to share results from an assessment with  | 
| 15 |  |  the mother's primary licensed health care professional,  | 
| 16 |  |  consent should be obtained from the mother in accordance  | 
| 17 |  |  with the Illinois Health Insurance Portability and  | 
| 18 |  |  Accountability Act. If the mother is determined to present  | 
| 19 |  |  an acute danger to herself or someone else, consent is not  | 
| 20 |  |  required.
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| 21 |  |  (405 ILCS 120/15) | 
| 22 |  |  Sec. 15. Educational materials about maternal mental  | 
| 23 |  | health conditions. The Department, in conjunction with the  | 
| 24 |  | Department of Healthcare and Family Services, the Department  | 
| 25 |  | of Public Health, and the Department of Financial and  | 
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| 1 |  | Professional Regulation and the Medical Licensing Board, shall  | 
| 2 |  | develop educational materials for health care professionals  | 
| 3 |  | and patients about maternal mental health conditions. A  | 
| 4 |  | birthing hospital shall, on or before January 1, 2021,  | 
| 5 |  | distribute these materials to employees regularly assigned to  | 
| 6 |  | work with pregnant or postpartum women and incorporate these  | 
| 7 |  | materials in any employee training that is related to patient  | 
| 8 |  | care of pregnant or postpartum women. A birthing hospital  | 
| 9 |  | shall supplement the materials provided by the Department to  | 
| 10 |  | include relevant resources to the region or community in which  | 
| 11 |  | the birthing hospital is located. The educational materials  | 
| 12 |  | developed under this Section shall include all of the  | 
| 13 |  | following: | 
| 14 |  |   (1) Information for postpartum women and families  | 
| 15 |  |  about maternal mental health conditions, post-hospital  | 
| 16 |  |  treatment options, and community resources. | 
| 17 |  |   (1) (2) Information for hospital employees regularly  | 
| 18 |  |  assigned to work in the perinatal unit, including, as  | 
| 19 |  |  appropriate, registered nurses and social workers, about  | 
| 20 |  |  maternal mental health conditions. | 
| 21 |  |   (2) (3) Any other service the birthing hospital  | 
| 22 |  |  determines should be included in the program to provide  | 
| 23 |  |  optimal patient care. | 
| 24 |  | (Source: P.A. 101-512, eff. 1-1-20.)
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| 25 |  |  Section 20. The Illinois Controlled Substances Act is  | 
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| 1 |  | amended by changing Sections 100, 102, 201, 203, 205, 207,  | 
| 2 |  | 208, 209, 210, 211, 216, 312, 313, 318, 320, 410, 411.2, 413,  | 
| 3 |  | 504, 508, and 509 as follows:
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| 4 |  |  (720 ILCS 570/100) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 1100) | 
| 5 |  |  Sec. 100. Legislative intent. It is the intent of the  | 
| 6 |  | General Assembly, recognizing the rising incidence in the  | 
| 7 |  | misuse abuse of drugs and other dangerous substances and its  | 
| 8 |  | resultant damage to the peace, health, and welfare of the  | 
| 9 |  | citizens of Illinois, to provide a system of control over the  | 
| 10 |  | distribution and use of controlled substances which will more  | 
| 11 |  | effectively: (1) limit access of such substances only to those  | 
| 12 |  | persons who have demonstrated an appropriate sense of  | 
| 13 |  | responsibility and have a lawful and legitimate reason to  | 
| 14 |  | possess them; (2) deter the unlawful and destructive misuse  | 
| 15 |  | abuse of controlled substances; (3) penalize most heavily the  | 
| 16 |  | illicit traffickers or profiteers of controlled substances,  | 
| 17 |  | who propagate and perpetuate the misuse abuse of such  | 
| 18 |  | substances with reckless disregard for its consumptive  | 
| 19 |  | consequences upon every element of society; (4) acknowledge  | 
| 20 |  | the functional and consequential differences between the  | 
| 21 |  | various types of controlled substances and provide for  | 
| 22 |  | correspondingly different degrees of control over each of the  | 
| 23 |  | various types; (5) unify where feasible and codify the efforts  | 
| 24 |  | of this State to conform with the regulatory systems of the  | 
| 25 |  | Federal government; and (6) provide law enforcement  | 
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| 1 |  | authorities with the necessary resources to make this system  | 
| 2 |  | efficacious. | 
| 3 |  |  It is not the intent of the General Assembly to treat the  | 
| 4 |  | unlawful user or occasional petty distributor of controlled  | 
| 5 |  | substances with the same severity as the large-scale, unlawful  | 
| 6 |  | purveyors and traffickers of controlled substances. However,  | 
| 7 |  | it is recognized that persons who violate this Act with  | 
| 8 |  | respect to the manufacture, delivery, possession with intent  | 
| 9 |  | to deliver, or possession of more than one type of controlled  | 
| 10 |  | substance listed herein may accordingly receive multiple  | 
| 11 |  | convictions and sentences under each Section of this Act. To  | 
| 12 |  | this end, guidelines have been provided, along with a wide  | 
| 13 |  | latitude in sentencing discretion, to enable the sentencing  | 
| 14 |  | court to order penalties in each case which are appropriate  | 
| 15 |  | for the purposes of this Act. | 
| 16 |  | (Source: P.A. 97-334, eff. 1-1-12.)
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| 17 |  |  (720 ILCS 570/102) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 1102) | 
| 18 |  |  Sec. 102. Definitions.  As used in this Act, unless the  | 
| 19 |  | context otherwise requires:  | 
| 20 |  |  (a) "Person with a substance use disorder Addict" means  | 
| 21 |  | any person who has a substance use disorder diagnosis defined  | 
| 22 |  | as a spectrum of persistent and recurring problematic behavior  | 
| 23 |  | that encompasses 10 separate classes of drugs: alcohol;  | 
| 24 |  | caffeine; cannabis; hallucinogens; inhalants; opioids;  | 
| 25 |  | sedatives, hypnotics and anxiolytics; stimulants; and tobacco;  | 
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| 1 |  | and other unknown substances leading to clinically significant  | 
| 2 |  | impairment or distress habitually uses any drug, chemical,  | 
| 3 |  | substance or dangerous drug other than alcohol so as to  | 
| 4 |  | endanger the public morals, health, safety or welfare or who  | 
| 5 |  | is so far addicted to the use of a dangerous drug or controlled  | 
| 6 |  | substance other than alcohol as to have lost the power of self  | 
| 7 |  | control with reference to his or her addiction.  | 
| 8 |  |  (b) "Administer" means the direct application of a  | 
| 9 |  | controlled substance, whether by injection, inhalation,  | 
| 10 |  | ingestion, or any other means, to the body of a patient,  | 
| 11 |  | research subject, or animal (as defined by the Humane  | 
| 12 |  | Euthanasia in Animal Shelters Act) by:  | 
| 13 |  |   (1) a practitioner (or, in his or her presence, by his  | 
| 14 |  |  or her authorized agent),  | 
| 15 |  |   (2) the patient or research subject pursuant to an  | 
| 16 |  |  order, or  | 
| 17 |  |   (3) a euthanasia technician as defined by the Humane  | 
| 18 |  |  Euthanasia in Animal Shelters Act.  | 
| 19 |  |  (c) "Agent" means an authorized person who acts on behalf  | 
| 20 |  | of or at the direction of a manufacturer, distributor,  | 
| 21 |  | dispenser, prescriber, or practitioner. It does not include a  | 
| 22 |  | common or contract carrier, public warehouseman or employee of  | 
| 23 |  | the carrier or warehouseman.  | 
| 24 |  |  (c-1) "Anabolic Steroids" means any drug or hormonal  | 
| 25 |  | substance, chemically and pharmacologically related to  | 
| 26 |  | testosterone (other than estrogens, progestins,  | 
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| 1 |  | corticosteroids, and dehydroepiandrosterone), and includes:  | 
| 2 |  |  (i) 3[beta],17-dihydroxy-5a-androstane,  | 
| 3 |  |  (ii) 3[alpha],17[beta]-dihydroxy-5a-androstane,  | 
| 4 |  |  (iii) 5[alpha]-androstan-3,17-dione,  | 
| 5 |  |  (iv) 1-androstenediol (3[beta],  | 
| 6 |  |   17[beta]-dihydroxy-5[alpha]-androst-1-ene),  | 
| 7 |  |  (v) 1-androstenediol (3[alpha],  | 
| 8 |  |   17[beta]-dihydroxy-5[alpha]-androst-1-ene),  | 
| 9 |  |  (vi) 4-androstenediol  | 
| 10 |  |   (3[beta],17[beta]-dihydroxy-androst-4-ene),  | 
| 11 |  |  (vii) 5-androstenediol  | 
| 12 |  |   (3[beta],17[beta]-dihydroxy-androst-5-ene),  | 
| 13 |  |  (viii) 1-androstenedione  | 
| 14 |  |   ([5alpha]-androst-1-en-3,17-dione),  | 
| 15 |  |  (ix) 4-androstenedione  | 
| 16 |  |   (androst-4-en-3,17-dione),  | 
| 17 |  |  (x) 5-androstenedione  | 
| 18 |  |   (androst-5-en-3,17-dione),  | 
| 19 |  |  (xi) bolasterone (7[alpha],17a-dimethyl-17[beta]-  | 
| 20 |  |   hydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one),  | 
| 21 |  |  (xii) boldenone (17[beta]-hydroxyandrost-  | 
| 22 |  |   1,4,-diene-3-one),  | 
| 23 |  |  (xiii) boldione (androsta-1,4-  | 
| 24 |  |   diene-3,17-dione),  | 
| 25 |  |  (xiv) calusterone (7[beta],17[alpha]-dimethyl-17  | 
| 26 |  |   [beta]-hydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one),  | 
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| 1 |  |  (xv) clostebol (4-chloro-17[beta]-  | 
| 2 |  |   hydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one),  | 
| 3 |  |  (xvi) dehydrochloromethyltestosterone (4-chloro-  | 
| 4 |  |   17[beta]-hydroxy-17[alpha]-methyl-  | 
| 5 |  |   androst-1,4-dien-3-one),  | 
| 6 |  |  (xvii) desoxymethyltestosterone  | 
| 7 |  |  (17[alpha]-methyl-5[alpha]  | 
| 8 |  |   -androst-2-en-17[beta]-ol)(a.k.a., madol),  | 
| 9 |  |  (xviii) [delta]1-dihydrotestosterone (a.k.a.  | 
| 10 |  |   '1-testosterone') (17[beta]-hydroxy-  | 
| 11 |  |   5[alpha]-androst-1-en-3-one),  | 
| 12 |  |  (xix) 4-dihydrotestosterone (17[beta]-hydroxy-  | 
| 13 |  |   androstan-3-one),  | 
| 14 |  |  (xx) drostanolone (17[beta]-hydroxy-2[alpha]-methyl-  | 
| 15 |  |   5[alpha]-androstan-3-one),  | 
| 16 |  |  (xxi) ethylestrenol (17[alpha]-ethyl-17[beta]-  | 
| 17 |  |   hydroxyestr-4-ene),  | 
| 18 |  |  (xxii) fluoxymesterone (9-fluoro-17[alpha]-methyl-  | 
| 19 |  |   1[beta],17[beta]-dihydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one),  | 
| 20 |  |  (xxiii) formebolone (2-formyl-17[alpha]-methyl-11[alpha],  | 
| 21 |  |   17[beta]-dihydroxyandrost-1,4-dien-3-one),  | 
| 22 |  |  (xxiv) furazabol (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-  | 
| 23 |  |   hydroxyandrostano[2,3-c]-furazan),  | 
| 24 |  |  (xxv) 13[beta]-ethyl-17[beta]-hydroxygon-4-en-3-one,  | 
| 25 |  |  (xxvi) 4-hydroxytestosterone (4,17[beta]-dihydroxy-  | 
| 26 |  |   androst-4-en-3-one),  | 
     | 
 |  | SB0647 Engrossed | - 17 - | LRB103 03100 RJT 48106 b |  
  | 
| 
 | 
| 1 |  |  (xxvii) 4-hydroxy-19-nortestosterone (4,17[beta]-  | 
| 2 |  |   dihydroxy-estr-4-en-3-one),  | 
| 3 |  |  (xxviii) mestanolone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-  | 
| 4 |  |   hydroxy-5-androstan-3-one),  | 
| 5 |  |  (xxix) mesterolone (1amethyl-17[beta]-hydroxy-  | 
| 6 |  |   [5a]-androstan-3-one),  | 
| 7 |  |  (xxx) methandienone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-  | 
| 8 |  |   hydroxyandrost-1,4-dien-3-one),  | 
| 9 |  |  (xxxi) methandriol (17[alpha]-methyl-3[beta],17[beta]-  | 
| 10 |  |   dihydroxyandrost-5-ene),  | 
| 11 |  |  (xxxii) methenolone (1-methyl-17[beta]-hydroxy-  | 
| 12 |  |   5[alpha]-androst-1-en-3-one),  | 
| 13 |  |  (xxxiii) 17[alpha]-methyl-3[beta], 17[beta]-  | 
| 14 |  |   dihydroxy-5a-androstane,  | 
| 15 |  |  (xxxiv) 17[alpha]-methyl-3[alpha],17[beta]-dihydroxy  | 
| 16 |  |   -5a-androstane,  | 
| 17 |  |  (xxxv) 17[alpha]-methyl-3[beta],17[beta]-  | 
| 18 |  |   dihydroxyandrost-4-ene),  | 
| 19 |  |  (xxxvi) 17[alpha]-methyl-4-hydroxynandrolone (17[alpha]-  | 
| 20 |  |   methyl-4-hydroxy-17[beta]-hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one),  | 
| 21 |  |  (xxxvii) methyldienolone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-  | 
| 22 |  |   hydroxyestra-4,9(10)-dien-3-one),  | 
| 23 |  |  (xxxviii) methyltrienolone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-  | 
| 24 |  |   hydroxyestra-4,9-11-trien-3-one),  | 
| 25 |  |  (xxxix) methyltestosterone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-  | 
| 26 |  |   hydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one),  | 
     | 
 |  | SB0647 Engrossed | - 18 - | LRB103 03100 RJT 48106 b |  
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| 
 | 
| 1 |  |  (xl) mibolerone (7[alpha],17a-dimethyl-17[beta]-  | 
| 2 |  |   hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one),  | 
| 3 |  |  (xli) 17[alpha]-methyl-[delta]1-dihydrotestosterone  | 
| 4 |  |   (17b[beta]-hydroxy-17[alpha]-methyl-5[alpha]-  | 
| 5 |  |   androst-1-en-3-one)(a.k.a. '17-[alpha]-methyl-  | 
| 6 |  |   1-testosterone'),  | 
| 7 |  |  (xlii) nandrolone (17[beta]-hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one),  | 
| 8 |  |  (xliii) 19-nor-4-androstenediol (3[beta], 17[beta]-  | 
| 9 |  |   dihydroxyestr-4-ene),  | 
| 10 |  |  (xliv) 19-nor-4-androstenediol (3[alpha], 17[beta]-  | 
| 11 |  |   dihydroxyestr-4-ene),  | 
| 12 |  |  (xlv) 19-nor-5-androstenediol (3[beta], 17[beta]-  | 
| 13 |  |   dihydroxyestr-5-ene),  | 
| 14 |  |  (xlvi) 19-nor-5-androstenediol (3[alpha], 17[beta]-  | 
| 15 |  |   dihydroxyestr-5-ene),  | 
| 16 |  |  (xlvii) 19-nor-4,9(10)-androstadienedione  | 
| 17 |  |   (estra-4,9(10)-diene-3,17-dione),  | 
| 18 |  |  (xlviii) 19-nor-4-androstenedione (estr-4-  | 
| 19 |  |   en-3,17-dione),  | 
| 20 |  |  (xlix) 19-nor-5-androstenedione (estr-5-  | 
| 21 |  |   en-3,17-dione),  | 
| 22 |  |  (l) norbolethone (13[beta], 17a-diethyl-17[beta]-  | 
| 23 |  |   hydroxygon-4-en-3-one),  | 
| 24 |  |  (li) norclostebol (4-chloro-17[beta]-  | 
| 25 |  |   hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one),  | 
| 26 |  |  (lii) norethandrolone (17[alpha]-ethyl-17[beta]-  | 
     | 
 |  | SB0647 Engrossed | - 19 - | LRB103 03100 RJT 48106 b |  
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| 
 | 
| 1 |  |   hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one),  | 
| 2 |  |  (liii) normethandrolone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-  | 
| 3 |  |   hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one),  | 
| 4 |  |  (liv) oxandrolone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-hydroxy-  | 
| 5 |  |   2-oxa-5[alpha]-androstan-3-one),  | 
| 6 |  |  (lv) oxymesterone (17[alpha]-methyl-4,17[beta]-  | 
| 7 |  |   dihydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one),  | 
| 8 |  |  (lvi) oxymetholone (17[alpha]-methyl-2-hydroxymethylene-  | 
| 9 |  |   17[beta]-hydroxy-(5[alpha]-androstan-3-one),  | 
| 10 |  |  (lvii) stanozolol (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-hydroxy-  | 
| 11 |  |   (5[alpha]-androst-2-eno[3,2-c]-pyrazole),  | 
| 12 |  |  (lviii) stenbolone (17[beta]-hydroxy-2-methyl-  | 
| 13 |  |   (5[alpha]-androst-1-en-3-one),  | 
| 14 |  |  (lix) testolactone (13-hydroxy-3-oxo-13,17-  | 
| 15 |  |   secoandrosta-1,4-dien-17-oic  | 
| 16 |  |   acid lactone),  | 
| 17 |  |  (lx) testosterone (17[beta]-hydroxyandrost-  | 
| 18 |  |   4-en-3-one),  | 
| 19 |  |  (lxi) tetrahydrogestrinone (13[beta], 17[alpha]-  | 
| 20 |  |   diethyl-17[beta]-hydroxygon-  | 
| 21 |  |   4,9,11-trien-3-one),  | 
| 22 |  |  (lxii) trenbolone (17[beta]-hydroxyestr-4,9,  | 
| 23 |  |   11-trien-3-one).  | 
| 24 |  |  Any person who is otherwise lawfully in possession of an  | 
| 25 |  | anabolic steroid, or who otherwise lawfully manufactures,  | 
| 26 |  | distributes, dispenses, delivers, or possesses with intent to  | 
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| 
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| 1 |  | deliver an anabolic steroid, which anabolic steroid is  | 
| 2 |  | expressly intended for and lawfully allowed to be administered  | 
| 3 |  | through implants to livestock or other nonhuman species, and  | 
| 4 |  | which is approved by the Secretary of Health and Human  | 
| 5 |  | Services for such administration, and which the person intends  | 
| 6 |  | to administer or have administered through such implants,  | 
| 7 |  | shall not be considered to be in unauthorized possession or to  | 
| 8 |  | unlawfully manufacture, distribute, dispense, deliver, or  | 
| 9 |  | possess with intent to deliver such anabolic steroid for  | 
| 10 |  | purposes of this Act.  | 
| 11 |  |  (d) "Administration" means the Drug Enforcement  | 
| 12 |  | Administration, United States Department of Justice, or its  | 
| 13 |  | successor agency.  | 
| 14 |  |  (d-5) "Clinical Director, Prescription Monitoring Program"  | 
| 15 |  | means a Department of Human Services administrative employee  | 
| 16 |  | licensed to either prescribe or dispense controlled substances  | 
| 17 |  | who shall run the clinical aspects of the Department of Human  | 
| 18 |  | Services Prescription Monitoring Program and its Prescription  | 
| 19 |  | Information Library. | 
| 20 |  |  (d-10) "Compounding" means the preparation and mixing of  | 
| 21 |  | components, excluding flavorings, (1) as the result of a  | 
| 22 |  | prescriber's prescription drug order or initiative based on  | 
| 23 |  | the prescriber-patient-pharmacist relationship in the course  | 
| 24 |  | of professional practice or (2) for the purpose of, or  | 
| 25 |  | incident to, research, teaching, or chemical analysis and not  | 
| 26 |  | for sale or dispensing. "Compounding" includes the preparation  | 
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| 1 |  | of drugs or devices in anticipation of receiving prescription  | 
| 2 |  | drug orders based on routine, regularly observed dispensing  | 
| 3 |  | patterns. Commercially available products may be compounded  | 
| 4 |  | for dispensing to individual patients only if both of the  | 
| 5 |  | following conditions are met: (i) the commercial product is  | 
| 6 |  | not reasonably available from normal distribution channels in  | 
| 7 |  | a timely manner to meet the patient's needs and (ii) the  | 
| 8 |  | prescribing practitioner has requested that the drug be  | 
| 9 |  | compounded.  | 
| 10 |  |  (e) "Control" means to add a drug or other substance, or  | 
| 11 |  | immediate precursor, to a Schedule whether by transfer from  | 
| 12 |  | another Schedule or otherwise.  | 
| 13 |  |  (f) "Controlled Substance" means (i) a drug, substance,  | 
| 14 |  | immediate precursor, or synthetic drug in the Schedules of  | 
| 15 |  | Article II of this Act or (ii) a drug or other substance, or  | 
| 16 |  | immediate precursor, designated as a controlled substance by  | 
| 17 |  | the Department through administrative rule. The term does not  | 
| 18 |  | include distilled spirits, wine, malt beverages, or tobacco,  | 
| 19 |  | as those terms are defined or used in the Liquor Control Act of  | 
| 20 |  | 1934 and the Tobacco Products Tax Act of 1995.  | 
| 21 |  |  (f-5) "Controlled substance analog" means a substance: | 
| 22 |  |   (1) the chemical structure of which is substantially  | 
| 23 |  |  similar to the chemical structure of a controlled  | 
| 24 |  |  substance in Schedule I or II; | 
| 25 |  |   (2) which has a stimulant, depressant, or  | 
| 26 |  |  hallucinogenic effect on the central nervous system that  | 
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| 1 |  |  is substantially similar to or greater than the stimulant,  | 
| 2 |  |  depressant, or hallucinogenic effect on the central  | 
| 3 |  |  nervous system of a controlled substance in Schedule I or  | 
| 4 |  |  II; or | 
| 5 |  |   (3) with respect to a particular person, which such  | 
| 6 |  |  person represents or intends to have a stimulant,  | 
| 7 |  |  depressant, or hallucinogenic effect on the central  | 
| 8 |  |  nervous system that is substantially similar to or greater  | 
| 9 |  |  than the stimulant, depressant, or hallucinogenic effect  | 
| 10 |  |  on the central nervous system of a controlled substance in  | 
| 11 |  |  Schedule I or II.  | 
| 12 |  |  (g) "Counterfeit substance" means a controlled substance,  | 
| 13 |  | which, or the container or labeling of which, without  | 
| 14 |  | authorization bears the trademark, trade name, or other  | 
| 15 |  | identifying mark, imprint, number or device, or any likeness  | 
| 16 |  | thereof, of a manufacturer, distributor, or dispenser other  | 
| 17 |  | than the person who in fact manufactured, distributed, or  | 
| 18 |  | dispensed the substance.  | 
| 19 |  |  (h) "Deliver" or "delivery" means the actual, constructive  | 
| 20 |  | or attempted transfer of possession of a controlled substance,  | 
| 21 |  | with or without consideration, whether or not there is an  | 
| 22 |  | agency relationship. "Deliver" or "delivery" does not include  | 
| 23 |  | the donation of drugs to the extent permitted under the  | 
| 24 |  | Illinois Drug Reuse Opportunity Program Act.  | 
| 25 |  |  (i) "Department" means the Illinois Department of Human  | 
| 26 |  | Services (as successor to the Department of Alcoholism and  | 
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| 
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| 1 |  | Substance Abuse) or its successor agency.  | 
| 2 |  |  (j) (Blank).  | 
| 3 |  |  (k) "Department of Corrections" means the Department of  | 
| 4 |  | Corrections of the State of Illinois or its successor agency.  | 
| 5 |  |  (l) "Department of Financial and Professional Regulation"  | 
| 6 |  | means the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation  | 
| 7 |  | of the State of Illinois or its successor agency.  | 
| 8 |  |  (m) "Depressant" means any drug that (i) causes an overall  | 
| 9 |  | depression of central nervous system functions, (ii) causes  | 
| 10 |  | impaired consciousness and awareness, and (iii) can be  | 
| 11 |  | habit-forming or lead to a substance misuse or substance use  | 
| 12 |  | disorder abuse problem, including, but not limited to,  | 
| 13 |  | alcohol, cannabis and its active principles and their analogs,  | 
| 14 |  | benzodiazepines and their analogs, barbiturates and their  | 
| 15 |  | analogs, opioids (natural and synthetic) and their analogs,  | 
| 16 |  | and chloral hydrate and similar sedative hypnotics.  | 
| 17 |  |  (n) (Blank).  | 
| 18 |  |  (o) "Director" means the Director of the Illinois State  | 
| 19 |  | Police or his or her designated agents.  | 
| 20 |  |  (p) "Dispense" means to deliver a controlled substance to  | 
| 21 |  | an ultimate user or research subject by or pursuant to the  | 
| 22 |  | lawful order of a prescriber, including the prescribing,  | 
| 23 |  | administering, packaging, labeling, or compounding necessary  | 
| 24 |  | to prepare the substance for that delivery.  | 
| 25 |  |  (q) "Dispenser" means a practitioner who dispenses.  | 
| 26 |  |  (r) "Distribute" means to deliver, other than by  | 
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 |  | SB0647 Engrossed | - 24 - | LRB103 03100 RJT 48106 b |  
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| 
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| 1 |  | administering or dispensing, a controlled substance.  | 
| 2 |  |  (s) "Distributor" means a person who distributes.  | 
| 3 |  |  (t) "Drug" means (1) substances recognized as drugs in the  | 
| 4 |  | official United States Pharmacopoeia, Official Homeopathic  | 
| 5 |  | Pharmacopoeia of the United States, or official National  | 
| 6 |  | Formulary, or any supplement to any of them; (2) substances  | 
| 7 |  | intended for use in diagnosis, cure, mitigation, treatment, or  | 
| 8 |  | prevention of disease in man or animals; (3) substances (other  | 
| 9 |  | than food) intended to affect the structure of any function of  | 
| 10 |  | the body of man or animals and (4) substances intended for use  | 
| 11 |  | as a component of any article specified in clause (1), (2), or  | 
| 12 |  | (3) of this subsection. It does not include devices or their  | 
| 13 |  | components, parts, or accessories.  | 
| 14 |  |  (t-3) "Electronic health record" or "EHR" means an  | 
| 15 |  | electronic record of health-related information on an  | 
| 16 |  | individual that is created, gathered, managed, and consulted  | 
| 17 |  | by authorized health care clinicians and staff.  | 
| 18 |  |  (t-3.5) "Electronic health record system" or "EHR system"  | 
| 19 |  | means any computer-based system or combination of federally  | 
| 20 |  | certified Health IT Modules (defined at 42 CFR 170.102 or its  | 
| 21 |  | successor) used as a repository for electronic health records  | 
| 22 |  | and accessed or updated by a prescriber or authorized  | 
| 23 |  | surrogate in the ordinary course of his or her medical  | 
| 24 |  | practice. For purposes of connecting to the Prescription  | 
| 25 |  | Information Library maintained by the Bureau of Pharmacy and  | 
| 26 |  | Clinical Support Systems or its successor, an EHR system may  | 
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 |  | SB0647 Engrossed | - 25 - | LRB103 03100 RJT 48106 b |  
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| 
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| 1 |  | connect to the Prescription Information Library directly or  | 
| 2 |  | through all or part of a computer program or system that is a  | 
| 3 |  | federally certified Health IT Module maintained by a third  | 
| 4 |  | party and used by the EHR system to secure access to the  | 
| 5 |  | database. | 
| 6 |  |  (t-4) "Emergency medical services personnel" has the  | 
| 7 |  | meaning ascribed to it in the Emergency Medical Services (EMS)  | 
| 8 |  | Systems Act. | 
| 9 |  |  (t-5) "Euthanasia agency" means an entity certified by the  | 
| 10 |  | Department of Financial and Professional Regulation for the  | 
| 11 |  | purpose of animal euthanasia that holds an animal control  | 
| 12 |  | facility license or animal shelter license under the Animal  | 
| 13 |  | Welfare Act. A euthanasia agency is authorized to purchase,  | 
| 14 |  | store, possess, and utilize Schedule II nonnarcotic and  | 
| 15 |  | Schedule III nonnarcotic drugs for the sole purpose of animal  | 
| 16 |  | euthanasia.  | 
| 17 |  |  (t-10) "Euthanasia drugs" means Schedule II or Schedule  | 
| 18 |  | III substances (nonnarcotic controlled substances) that are  | 
| 19 |  | used by a euthanasia agency for the purpose of animal  | 
| 20 |  | euthanasia.  | 
| 21 |  |  (u) "Good faith" means the prescribing or dispensing of a  | 
| 22 |  | controlled substance by a practitioner in the regular course  | 
| 23 |  | of professional treatment to or for any person who is under his  | 
| 24 |  | or her treatment for a pathology or condition other than that  | 
| 25 |  | individual's physical or psychological dependence upon or  | 
| 26 |  | addiction to a controlled substance, except as provided  | 
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| 1 |  | herein: and application of the term to a pharmacist shall mean  | 
| 2 |  | the dispensing of a controlled substance pursuant to the  | 
| 3 |  | prescriber's order which in the professional judgment of the  | 
| 4 |  | pharmacist is lawful. The pharmacist shall be guided by  | 
| 5 |  | accepted professional standards, including, but not limited  | 
| 6 |  | to, the following, in making the judgment:  | 
| 7 |  |   (1) lack of consistency of prescriber-patient  | 
| 8 |  |  relationship,  | 
| 9 |  |   (2) frequency of prescriptions for same drug by one  | 
| 10 |  |  prescriber for large numbers of patients,  | 
| 11 |  |   (3) quantities beyond those normally prescribed,  | 
| 12 |  |   (4) unusual dosages (recognizing that there may be  | 
| 13 |  |  clinical circumstances where more or less than the usual  | 
| 14 |  |  dose may be used legitimately),  | 
| 15 |  |   (5) unusual geographic distances between patient,  | 
| 16 |  |  pharmacist and prescriber,  | 
| 17 |  |   (6) consistent prescribing of habit-forming drugs.  | 
| 18 |  |  (u-0.5) "Hallucinogen" means a drug that causes markedly  | 
| 19 |  | altered sensory perception leading to hallucinations of any  | 
| 20 |  | type.  | 
| 21 |  |  (u-1) "Home infusion services" means services provided by  | 
| 22 |  | a pharmacy in compounding solutions for direct administration  | 
| 23 |  | to a patient in a private residence, long-term care facility,  | 
| 24 |  | or hospice setting by means of parenteral, intravenous,  | 
| 25 |  | intramuscular, subcutaneous, or intraspinal infusion.  | 
| 26 |  |  (u-5) "Illinois State Police" means the Illinois State  | 
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| 1 |  | Police or its successor agency.  | 
| 2 |  |  (v) "Immediate precursor" means a substance:  | 
| 3 |  |   (1) which the Department has found to be and by rule  | 
| 4 |  |  designated as being a principal compound used, or produced  | 
| 5 |  |  primarily for use, in the manufacture of a controlled  | 
| 6 |  |  substance;  | 
| 7 |  |   (2) which is an immediate chemical intermediary used  | 
| 8 |  |  or likely to be used in the manufacture of such controlled  | 
| 9 |  |  substance; and  | 
| 10 |  |   (3) the control of which is necessary to prevent,  | 
| 11 |  |  curtail or limit the manufacture of such controlled  | 
| 12 |  |  substance.  | 
| 13 |  |  (w) "Instructional activities" means the acts of teaching,  | 
| 14 |  | educating or instructing by practitioners using controlled  | 
| 15 |  | substances within educational facilities approved by the State  | 
| 16 |  | Board of Education or its successor agency.  | 
| 17 |  |  (x) "Local authorities" means a duly organized State,  | 
| 18 |  | County or Municipal peace unit or police force.  | 
| 19 |  |  (y) "Look-alike substance" means a substance, other than a  | 
| 20 |  | controlled substance which (1) by overall dosage unit  | 
| 21 |  | appearance, including shape, color, size, markings or lack  | 
| 22 |  | thereof, taste, consistency, or any other identifying physical  | 
| 23 |  | characteristic of the substance, would lead a reasonable  | 
| 24 |  | person to believe that the substance is a controlled  | 
| 25 |  | substance, or (2) is expressly or impliedly represented to be  | 
| 26 |  | a controlled substance or is distributed under circumstances  | 
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| 1 |  | which would lead a reasonable person to believe that the  | 
| 2 |  | substance is a controlled substance. For the purpose of  | 
| 3 |  | determining whether the representations made or the  | 
| 4 |  | circumstances of the distribution would lead a reasonable  | 
| 5 |  | person to believe the substance to be a controlled substance  | 
| 6 |  | under this clause (2) of subsection (y), the court or other  | 
| 7 |  | authority may consider the following factors in addition to  | 
| 8 |  | any other factor that may be relevant:  | 
| 9 |  |   (a) statements made by the owner or person in control  | 
| 10 |  |  of the substance concerning its nature, use or effect;  | 
| 11 |  |   (b) statements made to the buyer or recipient that the  | 
| 12 |  |  substance may be resold for profit;  | 
| 13 |  |   (c) whether the substance is packaged in a manner  | 
| 14 |  |  normally used for the illegal distribution of controlled  | 
| 15 |  |  substances;  | 
| 16 |  |   (d) whether the distribution or attempted distribution  | 
| 17 |  |  included an exchange of or demand for money or other  | 
| 18 |  |  property as consideration, and whether the amount of the  | 
| 19 |  |  consideration was substantially greater than the  | 
| 20 |  |  reasonable retail market value of the substance.  | 
| 21 |  |  Clause (1) of this subsection (y) shall not apply to a  | 
| 22 |  | noncontrolled substance in its finished dosage form that was  | 
| 23 |  | initially introduced into commerce prior to the initial  | 
| 24 |  | introduction into commerce of a controlled substance in its  | 
| 25 |  | finished dosage form which it may substantially resemble.  | 
| 26 |  |  Nothing in this subsection (y) prohibits the dispensing or  | 
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| 1 |  | distributing of noncontrolled substances by persons authorized  | 
| 2 |  | to dispense and distribute controlled substances under this  | 
| 3 |  | Act, provided that such action would be deemed to be carried  | 
| 4 |  | out in good faith under subsection (u) if the substances  | 
| 5 |  | involved were controlled substances.  | 
| 6 |  |  Nothing in this subsection (y) or in this Act prohibits  | 
| 7 |  | the manufacture, preparation, propagation, compounding,  | 
| 8 |  | processing, packaging, advertising or distribution of a drug  | 
| 9 |  | or drugs by any person registered pursuant to Section 510 of  | 
| 10 |  | the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. 360).  | 
| 11 |  |  (y-1) "Mail-order pharmacy" means a pharmacy that is  | 
| 12 |  | located in a state of the United States that delivers,  | 
| 13 |  | dispenses or distributes, through the United States Postal  | 
| 14 |  | Service or other common carrier, to Illinois residents, any  | 
| 15 |  | substance which requires a prescription.  | 
| 16 |  |  (z) "Manufacture" means the production, preparation,  | 
| 17 |  | propagation, compounding, conversion or processing of a  | 
| 18 |  | controlled substance other than methamphetamine, either  | 
| 19 |  | directly or indirectly, by extraction from substances of  | 
| 20 |  | natural origin, or independently by means of chemical  | 
| 21 |  | synthesis, or by a combination of extraction and chemical  | 
| 22 |  | synthesis, and includes any packaging or repackaging of the  | 
| 23 |  | substance or labeling of its container, except that this term  | 
| 24 |  | does not include:  | 
| 25 |  |   (1) by an ultimate user, the preparation or  | 
| 26 |  |  compounding of a controlled substance for his or her own  | 
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| 1 |  |  use;  | 
| 2 |  |   (2) by a practitioner, or his or her authorized agent  | 
| 3 |  |  under his or her supervision, the preparation,  | 
| 4 |  |  compounding, packaging, or labeling of a controlled  | 
| 5 |  |  substance:  | 
| 6 |  |    (a) as an incident to his or her administering or  | 
| 7 |  |  dispensing of a controlled substance in the course of  | 
| 8 |  |  his or her professional practice; or  | 
| 9 |  |    (b) as an incident to lawful research, teaching or  | 
| 10 |  |  chemical analysis and not for sale; or  | 
| 11 |  |   (3) the packaging, repackaging, or labeling of drugs  | 
| 12 |  |  only to the extent permitted under the Illinois Drug Reuse  | 
| 13 |  |  Opportunity Program Act.  | 
| 14 |  |  (z-1) (Blank).  | 
| 15 |  |  (z-5) "Medication shopping" means the conduct prohibited  | 
| 16 |  | under subsection (a) of Section 314.5 of this Act. | 
| 17 |  |  (z-10) "Mid-level practitioner" means (i) a physician  | 
| 18 |  | assistant who has been delegated authority to prescribe  | 
| 19 |  | through a written delegation of authority by a physician  | 
| 20 |  | licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches, in  | 
| 21 |  | accordance with Section 7.5 of the Physician Assistant  | 
| 22 |  | Practice Act of 1987, (ii) an advanced practice registered  | 
| 23 |  | nurse who has been delegated authority to prescribe through a  | 
| 24 |  | written delegation of authority by a physician licensed to  | 
| 25 |  | practice medicine in all of its branches or by a podiatric  | 
| 26 |  | physician, in accordance with Section 65-40 of the Nurse  | 
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| 
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| 1 |  | Practice Act, (iii) an advanced practice registered nurse  | 
| 2 |  | certified as a nurse practitioner, nurse midwife, or clinical  | 
| 3 |  | nurse specialist who has been granted authority to prescribe  | 
| 4 |  | by a hospital affiliate in accordance with Section 65-45 of  | 
| 5 |  | the Nurse Practice Act, (iv) an animal euthanasia agency, or  | 
| 6 |  | (v) a prescribing psychologist.  | 
| 7 |  |  (aa) "Narcotic drug" means any of the following, whether  | 
| 8 |  | produced directly or indirectly by extraction from substances  | 
| 9 |  | of vegetable origin, or independently by means of chemical  | 
| 10 |  | synthesis, or by a combination of extraction and chemical  | 
| 11 |  | synthesis:  | 
| 12 |  |   (1) opium, opiates, derivatives of opium and opiates,  | 
| 13 |  |  including their isomers, esters, ethers, salts, and salts  | 
| 14 |  |  of isomers, esters, and ethers, whenever the existence of  | 
| 15 |  |  such isomers, esters, ethers, and salts is possible within  | 
| 16 |  |  the specific chemical designation; however the term  | 
| 17 |  |  "narcotic drug" does not include the isoquinoline  | 
| 18 |  |  alkaloids of opium;  | 
| 19 |  |   (2) (blank);  | 
| 20 |  |   (3) opium poppy and poppy straw;  | 
| 21 |  |   (4) coca leaves, except coca leaves and extracts of  | 
| 22 |  |  coca leaves from which substantially all of the cocaine  | 
| 23 |  |  and ecgonine, and their isomers, derivatives and salts,  | 
| 24 |  |  have been removed;  | 
| 25 |  |   (5) cocaine, its salts, optical and geometric isomers,  | 
| 26 |  |  and salts of isomers; | 
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| 1 |  |   (6) ecgonine, its derivatives, their salts, isomers,  | 
| 2 |  |  and salts of isomers; | 
| 3 |  |   (7) any compound, mixture, or preparation which  | 
| 4 |  |  contains any quantity of any of the substances referred to  | 
| 5 |  |  in subparagraphs (1) through (6).  | 
| 6 |  |  (bb) "Nurse" means a registered nurse licensed under the  | 
| 7 |  | Nurse Practice Act.  | 
| 8 |  |  (cc) (Blank).  | 
| 9 |  |  (dd) "Opiate" means a drug derived from or related to  | 
| 10 |  | opium any substance having an addiction forming or addiction  | 
| 11 |  | sustaining liability similar to morphine or being capable of  | 
| 12 |  | conversion into a drug having addiction forming or addiction  | 
| 13 |  | sustaining liability.  | 
| 14 |  |  (ee) "Opium poppy" means the plant of the species Papaver  | 
| 15 |  | somniferum L., except its seeds.  | 
| 16 |  |  (ee-5) "Oral dosage" means a tablet, capsule, elixir, or  | 
| 17 |  | solution or other liquid form of medication intended for  | 
| 18 |  | administration by mouth, but the term does not include a form  | 
| 19 |  | of medication intended for buccal, sublingual, or transmucosal  | 
| 20 |  | administration.  | 
| 21 |  |  (ff) "Parole and Pardon Board" means the Parole and Pardon  | 
| 22 |  | Board of the State of Illinois or its successor agency.  | 
| 23 |  |  (gg) "Person" means any individual, corporation,  | 
| 24 |  | mail-order pharmacy, government or governmental subdivision or  | 
| 25 |  | agency, business trust, estate, trust, partnership or  | 
| 26 |  | association, or any other entity.  | 
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| 1 |  |  (hh) "Pharmacist" means any person who holds a license or  | 
| 2 |  | certificate of registration as a registered pharmacist, a  | 
| 3 |  | local registered pharmacist or a registered assistant  | 
| 4 |  | pharmacist under the Pharmacy Practice Act.  | 
| 5 |  |  (ii) "Pharmacy" means any store, ship or other place in  | 
| 6 |  | which pharmacy is authorized to be practiced under the  | 
| 7 |  | Pharmacy Practice Act.  | 
| 8 |  |  (ii-5) "Pharmacy shopping" means the conduct prohibited  | 
| 9 |  | under subsection (b) of Section 314.5 of this Act. | 
| 10 |  |  (ii-10) "Physician" (except when the context otherwise  | 
| 11 |  | requires) means a person licensed to practice medicine in all  | 
| 12 |  | of its branches.  | 
| 13 |  |  (jj) "Poppy straw" means all parts, except the seeds, of  | 
| 14 |  | the opium poppy, after mowing.  | 
| 15 |  |  (kk) "Practitioner" means a physician licensed to practice  | 
| 16 |  | medicine in all its branches, dentist, optometrist, podiatric  | 
| 17 |  | physician, veterinarian, scientific investigator, pharmacist,  | 
| 18 |  | physician assistant, advanced practice registered nurse,  | 
| 19 |  | licensed practical nurse, registered nurse, emergency medical  | 
| 20 |  | services personnel, hospital, laboratory, or pharmacy, or  | 
| 21 |  | other person licensed, registered, or otherwise lawfully  | 
| 22 |  | permitted by the United States or this State to distribute,  | 
| 23 |  | dispense, conduct research with respect to, administer or use  | 
| 24 |  | in teaching or chemical analysis, a controlled substance in  | 
| 25 |  | the course of professional practice or research.  | 
| 26 |  |  (ll) "Pre-printed prescription" means a written  | 
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| 
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| 1 |  | prescription upon which the designated drug has been indicated  | 
| 2 |  | prior to the time of issuance; the term does not mean a written  | 
| 3 |  | prescription that is individually generated by machine or  | 
| 4 |  | computer in the prescriber's office.  | 
| 5 |  |  (mm) "Prescriber" means a physician licensed to practice  | 
| 6 |  | medicine in all its branches, dentist, optometrist,  | 
| 7 |  | prescribing psychologist licensed under Section 4.2 of the  | 
| 8 |  | Clinical Psychologist Licensing Act with prescriptive  | 
| 9 |  | authority delegated under Section 4.3 of the Clinical  | 
| 10 |  | Psychologist Licensing Act, podiatric physician, or  | 
| 11 |  | veterinarian who issues a prescription, a physician assistant  | 
| 12 |  | who issues a prescription for a controlled substance in  | 
| 13 |  | accordance with Section 303.05, a written delegation, and a  | 
| 14 |  | written collaborative agreement required under Section 7.5 of  | 
| 15 |  | the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987, an advanced  | 
| 16 |  | practice registered nurse with prescriptive authority  | 
| 17 |  | delegated under Section 65-40 of the Nurse Practice Act and in  | 
| 18 |  | accordance with Section 303.05, a written delegation, and a  | 
| 19 |  | written collaborative agreement under Section 65-35 of the  | 
| 20 |  | Nurse Practice Act, an advanced practice registered nurse  | 
| 21 |  | certified as a nurse practitioner, nurse midwife, or clinical  | 
| 22 |  | nurse specialist who has been granted authority to prescribe  | 
| 23 |  | by a hospital affiliate in accordance with Section 65-45 of  | 
| 24 |  | the Nurse Practice Act and in accordance with Section 303.05,  | 
| 25 |  | or an advanced practice registered nurse certified as a nurse  | 
| 26 |  | practitioner, nurse midwife, or clinical nurse specialist who  | 
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| 1 |  | has full practice authority pursuant to Section 65-43 of the  | 
| 2 |  | Nurse Practice Act.  | 
| 3 |  |  (nn) "Prescription" means a written, facsimile, or oral  | 
| 4 |  | order, or an electronic order that complies with applicable  | 
| 5 |  | federal requirements, of a physician licensed to practice  | 
| 6 |  | medicine in all its branches, dentist, podiatric physician or  | 
| 7 |  | veterinarian for any controlled substance, of an optometrist  | 
| 8 |  | in accordance with Section 15.1 of the Illinois Optometric  | 
| 9 |  | Practice Act of 1987, of a prescribing psychologist licensed  | 
| 10 |  | under Section 4.2 of the Clinical Psychologist Licensing Act  | 
| 11 |  | with prescriptive authority delegated under Section 4.3 of the  | 
| 12 |  | Clinical Psychologist Licensing Act, of a physician assistant  | 
| 13 |  | for a controlled substance in accordance with Section 303.05,  | 
| 14 |  | a written delegation, and a written collaborative agreement  | 
| 15 |  | required under Section 7.5 of the Physician Assistant Practice  | 
| 16 |  | Act of 1987, of an advanced practice registered nurse with  | 
| 17 |  | prescriptive authority delegated under Section 65-40 of the  | 
| 18 |  | Nurse Practice Act who issues a prescription for a controlled  | 
| 19 |  | substance in accordance with Section 303.05, a written  | 
| 20 |  | delegation, and a written collaborative agreement under  | 
| 21 |  | Section 65-35 of the Nurse Practice Act, of an advanced  | 
| 22 |  | practice registered nurse certified as a nurse practitioner,  | 
| 23 |  | nurse midwife, or clinical nurse specialist who has been  | 
| 24 |  | granted authority to prescribe by a hospital affiliate in  | 
| 25 |  | accordance with Section 65-45 of the Nurse Practice Act and in  | 
| 26 |  | accordance with Section 303.05 when required by law, or of an  | 
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| 
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| 1 |  | advanced practice registered nurse certified as a nurse  | 
| 2 |  | practitioner, nurse midwife, or clinical nurse specialist who  | 
| 3 |  | has full practice authority pursuant to Section 65-43 of the  | 
| 4 |  | Nurse Practice Act.  | 
| 5 |  |  (nn-5) "Prescription Information Library" (PIL) means an  | 
| 6 |  | electronic library that contains reported controlled substance  | 
| 7 |  | data. | 
| 8 |  |  (nn-10) "Prescription Monitoring Program" (PMP) means the  | 
| 9 |  | entity that collects, tracks, and stores reported data on  | 
| 10 |  | controlled substances and select drugs pursuant to Section  | 
| 11 |  | 316.  | 
| 12 |  |  (oo) "Production" or "produce" means manufacture,  | 
| 13 |  | planting, cultivating, growing, or harvesting of a controlled  | 
| 14 |  | substance other than methamphetamine.  | 
| 15 |  |  (pp) "Registrant" means every person who is required to  | 
| 16 |  | register under Section 302 of this Act.  | 
| 17 |  |  (qq) "Registry number" means the number assigned to each  | 
| 18 |  | person authorized to handle controlled substances under the  | 
| 19 |  | laws of the United States and of this State.  | 
| 20 |  |  (qq-5) "Secretary" means, as the context requires, either  | 
| 21 |  | the Secretary of the Department or the Secretary of the  | 
| 22 |  | Department of Financial and Professional Regulation, and the  | 
| 23 |  | Secretary's designated agents.  | 
| 24 |  |  (rr) "State" includes the State of Illinois and any state,  | 
| 25 |  | district, commonwealth, territory, insular possession thereof,  | 
| 26 |  | and any area subject to the legal authority of the United  | 
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| 1 |  | States of America.  | 
| 2 |  |  (rr-5) "Stimulant" means any drug that (i) causes an  | 
| 3 |  | overall excitation of central nervous system functions, (ii)  | 
| 4 |  | causes impaired consciousness and awareness, and (iii) can be  | 
| 5 |  | habit-forming or lead to a substance use disorder abuse  | 
| 6 |  | problem, including, but not limited to, amphetamines and their  | 
| 7 |  | analogs, methylphenidate and its analogs, cocaine, and  | 
| 8 |  | phencyclidine and its analogs.  | 
| 9 |  |  (rr-10) "Synthetic drug" includes, but is not limited to,  | 
| 10 |  | any synthetic cannabinoids or piperazines or any synthetic  | 
| 11 |  | cathinones as provided for in Schedule I.  | 
| 12 |  |  (ss) "Ultimate user" means a person who lawfully possesses  | 
| 13 |  | a controlled substance for his or her own use or for the use of  | 
| 14 |  | a member of his or her household or for administering to an  | 
| 15 |  | animal owned by him or her or by a member of his or her  | 
| 16 |  | household.  | 
| 17 |  | (Source: P.A. 101-666, eff. 1-1-22; 102-389, eff. 1-1-22;  | 
| 18 |  | 102-538, eff. 8-20-21; 102-813, eff. 5-13-22.)
 | 
| 19 |  |  (720 ILCS 570/201) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 1201) | 
| 20 |  |  Sec. 201. (a) The Department shall carry out the  | 
| 21 |  | provisions of this Article. The Department or its successor  | 
| 22 |  | agency may, by administrative rule, add additional substances  | 
| 23 |  | to or delete or reschedule all controlled substances in the  | 
| 24 |  | Schedules of Sections 204, 206, 208, 210 and 212 of this Act.  | 
| 25 |  | In making a determination regarding the addition, deletion, or  | 
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| 1 |  | rescheduling of a substance, the Department shall consider the  | 
| 2 |  | following:  | 
| 3 |  |   (1) the actual or relative potential for misuse abuse;  | 
| 4 |  |   (2) the scientific evidence of its pharmacological  | 
| 5 |  |  effect, if known;  | 
| 6 |  |   (3) the state of current scientific knowledge  | 
| 7 |  |  regarding the substance;  | 
| 8 |  |   (4) the history and current pattern of misuse abuse;  | 
| 9 |  |   (5) the scope, duration, and significance of misuse  | 
| 10 |  |  abuse;  | 
| 11 |  |   (6) the risk to the public health;  | 
| 12 |  |   (7) the potential of the substance to produce  | 
| 13 |  |  psychological or physiological dependence or a substance  | 
| 14 |  |  use disorder;  | 
| 15 |  |   (8) whether the substance is an immediate precursor of  | 
| 16 |  |  a substance already controlled under this Article;  | 
| 17 |  |   (9) the immediate harmful effect in terms of  | 
| 18 |  |  potentially fatal dosage; and  | 
| 19 |  |   (10) the long-range effects in terms of permanent  | 
| 20 |  |  health impairment. | 
| 21 |  |  (b) (Blank).  | 
| 22 |  |  (c) (Blank).  | 
| 23 |  |  (d) If any substance is scheduled, rescheduled, or deleted  | 
| 24 |  | as a controlled substance under Federal law and notice thereof  | 
| 25 |  | is given to the Department, the Department shall similarly  | 
| 26 |  | control the substance under this Act after the expiration of  | 
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| 1 |  | 30 days from publication in the Federal Register of a final  | 
| 2 |  | order scheduling a substance as a controlled substance or  | 
| 3 |  | rescheduling or deleting a substance, unless within that 30  | 
| 4 |  | day period the Department objects, or a party adversely  | 
| 5 |  | affected files with the Department substantial written  | 
| 6 |  | objections objecting to inclusion, rescheduling, or deletion.  | 
| 7 |  | In that case, the Department shall publish the reasons for  | 
| 8 |  | objection or the substantial written objections and afford all  | 
| 9 |  | interested parties an opportunity to be heard. At the  | 
| 10 |  | conclusion of the hearing, the Department shall publish its  | 
| 11 |  | decision, by means of a rule, which shall be final unless  | 
| 12 |  | altered by statute. Upon publication of objections by the  | 
| 13 |  | Department, similar control under this Act whether by  | 
| 14 |  | inclusion, rescheduling or deletion is stayed until the  | 
| 15 |  | Department publishes its ruling. | 
| 16 |  |  (e) (Blank). | 
| 17 |  |  (f) (Blank). | 
| 18 |  |  (g) Authority to control under this Section does not  | 
| 19 |  | extend to distilled spirits, wine, malt beverages, or tobacco  | 
| 20 |  | as those terms are defined or used in the Liquor Control Act of  | 
| 21 |  | 1934 and the Tobacco Products Tax Act of 1995. | 
| 22 |  |  (h) Persons registered with the Drug Enforcement  | 
| 23 |  | Administration to manufacture or distribute controlled  | 
| 24 |  | substances shall maintain adequate security and provide  | 
| 25 |  | effective controls and procedures to guard against theft and  | 
| 26 |  | diversion, but shall not otherwise be required to meet the  | 
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| 1 |  | physical security control requirements (such as cage or vault)  | 
| 2 |  | for Schedule V controlled substances containing  | 
| 3 |  | pseudoephedrine or Schedule II controlled substances  | 
| 4 |  | containing dextromethorphan.  | 
| 5 |  | (Source: P.A. 97-334, eff. 1-1-12; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14.)
 | 
| 6 |  |  (720 ILCS 570/203) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 1203) | 
| 7 |  |  Sec. 203. The Department, taking into consideration the  | 
| 8 |  | recommendations of its Prescription Monitoring Program  | 
| 9 |  | Advisory Committee, may issue a rule scheduling a substance in  | 
| 10 |  | Schedule I if it finds that: | 
| 11 |  |   (1) the substance has high potential for misuse abuse;  | 
| 12 |  |  and | 
| 13 |  |   (2) the substance has no currently accepted medical  | 
| 14 |  |  use in treatment in the United States or lacks accepted  | 
| 15 |  |  safety for use in treatment under medical supervision. | 
| 16 |  | (Source: P.A. 97-334, eff. 1-1-12.)
 | 
| 17 |  |  (720 ILCS 570/205) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 1205) | 
| 18 |  |  Sec. 205. The Department, taking into consideration the  | 
| 19 |  | recommendations of its Prescription Monitoring Program  | 
| 20 |  | Advisory Committee, may issue a rule scheduling a substance in  | 
| 21 |  | Schedule II if it finds that: | 
| 22 |  |   (1) the substance has high potential for misuse abuse; | 
| 23 |  |   (2) the substance has currently accepted medical use  | 
| 24 |  |  in treatment in the United States, or currently accepted  | 
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| 1 |  |  medical use with severe restrictions; and | 
| 2 |  |   (3) the misuse abuse of the substance may lead to  | 
| 3 |  |  severe psychological or physiological dependence.  | 
| 4 |  | (Source: P.A. 97-334, eff. 1-1-12.)
 | 
| 5 |  |  (720 ILCS 570/207) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 1207) | 
| 6 |  |  Sec. 207. The Department, taking into consideration the  | 
| 7 |  | recommendations of its Prescription Monitoring Program  | 
| 8 |  | Advisory Committee, may issue a rule scheduling a substance in  | 
| 9 |  | Schedule III if it finds that: | 
| 10 |  |   (1) the substance has a potential for misuse abuse  | 
| 11 |  |  less than the substances listed in Schedule I and II; | 
| 12 |  |   (2) the substance has currently accepted medical use  | 
| 13 |  |  in treatment in the United States; and | 
| 14 |  |   (3) misuse abuse of the substance may lead to moderate  | 
| 15 |  |  or low physiological dependence or high psychological  | 
| 16 |  |  dependence.  | 
| 17 |  | (Source: P.A. 97-334, eff. 1-1-12.)
 | 
| 18 |  |  (720 ILCS 570/208) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 1208) | 
| 19 |  |  Sec. 208. (a) The controlled substances listed in this  | 
| 20 |  | Section are included in Schedule III. | 
| 21 |  |  (b) Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in  | 
| 22 |  | another schedule, any material, compound, mixture, or  | 
| 23 |  | preparation which contains any quantity of the following  | 
| 24 |  | substances having a stimulant effect on the central nervous  | 
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| 1 |  | system, including its salts, isomers (whether optical  | 
| 2 |  | position, or geometric), and salts of such isomers whenever  | 
| 3 |  | the existence of such salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is  | 
| 4 |  | possible within the specific chemical designation; | 
| 5 |  |   (1) Those compounds, mixtures, or preparations in  | 
| 6 |  |  dosage unit form containing any stimulant substances  | 
| 7 |  |  listed in Schedule II which compounds, mixtures, or  | 
| 8 |  |  preparations were listed on August 25, 1971, as excepted  | 
| 9 |  |  compounds under Title 21, Code of Federal Regulations,  | 
| 10 |  |  Section 308.32, and any other drug of the quantitative  | 
| 11 |  |  composition shown in that list for those drugs or which is  | 
| 12 |  |  the same except that it contains a lesser quantity of  | 
| 13 |  |  controlled substances; | 
| 14 |  |   (2) Benzphetamine; | 
| 15 |  |   (3) Chlorphentermine; | 
| 16 |  |   (4) Clortermine; | 
| 17 |  |   (5) Phendimetrazine. | 
| 18 |  |  (c) Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in  | 
| 19 |  | another schedule, any material, compound, mixture, or  | 
| 20 |  | preparation which contains any quantity of the following  | 
| 21 |  | substances having a potential for misuse abuse associated with  | 
| 22 |  | a depressant effect on the central nervous system: | 
| 23 |  |   (1) Any compound, mixture, or preparation containing  | 
| 24 |  |  amobarbital, secobarbital, pentobarbital or any salt  | 
| 25 |  |  thereof and one or more other active medicinal ingredients  | 
| 26 |  |  which are not listed in any schedule; | 
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| 1 |  |   (2) Any suppository dosage form containing  | 
| 2 |  |  amobarbital, secobarbital, pentobarbital or any salt of  | 
| 3 |  |  any of these drugs and approved by the Federal Food and  | 
| 4 |  |  Drug Administration for marketing only as a suppository; | 
| 5 |  |   (3) Any substance which contains any quantity of a  | 
| 6 |  |  derivative of barbituric acid, or any salt thereof: | 
| 7 |  |   (3.1) Aprobarbital; | 
| 8 |  |   (3.2) Butabarbital (secbutabarbital); | 
| 9 |  |   (3.3) Butalbital; | 
| 10 |  |   (3.4) Butobarbital (butethal);  | 
| 11 |  |   (4) Chlorhexadol; | 
| 12 |  |   (5) Methyprylon; | 
| 13 |  |   (6) Sulfondiethylmethane; | 
| 14 |  |   (7) Sulfonethylmethane; | 
| 15 |  |   (8) Sulfonmethane; | 
| 16 |  |   (9) Lysergic acid; | 
| 17 |  |   (10) Lysergic acid amide; | 
| 18 |  |   (10.1) Tiletamine or zolazepam or both, or any salt of  | 
| 19 |  |  either of them. | 
| 20 |  |  Some trade or other names for a tiletamine-zolazepam
 | 
| 21 |  |  combination product: Telazol.
 | 
| 22 |  |  Some trade or other names for Tiletamine:
 | 
| 23 |  |  2-(ethylamino)-2-(2-thienyl)-cyclohexanone.
 | 
| 24 |  |  Some trade or other names for zolazepam:
 | 
| 25 |  |  4-(2-fluorophenyl)-6,8-dihydro-1,3,8-trimethylpyrazolo-
 | 
| 26 |  |  [3,4-e], [1,4]-diazepin-7(1H)-one, and flupyrazapon. | 
     | 
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| 1 |  |   (11) Any material, compound, mixture or preparation  | 
| 2 |  |  containing not more than 12.5 milligrams of pentazocine or  | 
| 3 |  |  any of its salts, per 325 milligrams of aspirin; | 
| 4 |  |   (12) Any material, compound, mixture or preparation  | 
| 5 |  |  containing not more than 12.5 milligrams of pentazocine or  | 
| 6 |  |  any of its salts, per 325 milligrams of acetaminophen; | 
| 7 |  |   (13) Any material, compound, mixture or preparation  | 
| 8 |  |  containing not more than 50 milligrams of pentazocine or  | 
| 9 |  |  any of its salts plus naloxone HCl USP 0.5 milligrams, per  | 
| 10 |  |  dosage unit; | 
| 11 |  |   (14) Ketamine; | 
| 12 |  |   (15) Thiopental.  | 
| 13 |  |  (d) Nalorphine. | 
| 14 |  |  (d.5) Buprenorphine.  | 
| 15 |  |  (e) Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in  | 
| 16 |  | another schedule, any material, compound, mixture, or  | 
| 17 |  | preparation containing limited quantities of any of the  | 
| 18 |  | following narcotic drugs, or their salts calculated as the  | 
| 19 |  | free anhydrous base or alkaloid, as set forth below: | 
| 20 |  |   (1) not more than 1.8 grams of codeine per 100  | 
| 21 |  |  milliliters or not more than 90 milligrams per dosage  | 
| 22 |  |  unit, with an equal or greater quantity of an isoquinoline  | 
| 23 |  |  alkaloid of opium; | 
| 24 |  |   (2) not more than 1.8 grams of codeine per 100  | 
| 25 |  |  milliliters or not more than 90 milligrams per dosage  | 
| 26 |  |  unit, with one or more active non-narcotic ingredients in  | 
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| 1 |  |  recognized therapeutic amounts; | 
| 2 |  |   (3) (blank); | 
| 3 |  |   (4) (blank); | 
| 4 |  |   (5) not more than 1.8 grams of dihydrocodeine per 100  | 
| 5 |  |  milliliters or not more than 90 milligrams per dosage  | 
| 6 |  |  unit, with one or more active, non-narcotic ingredients in  | 
| 7 |  |  recognized therapeutic amounts; | 
| 8 |  |   (6) not more than 300 milligrams of ethylmorphine per  | 
| 9 |  |  100 milliliters or not more than 15 milligrams per dosage  | 
| 10 |  |  unit, with one or more active, non-narcotic ingredients in  | 
| 11 |  |  recognized therapeutic amounts; | 
| 12 |  |   (7) not more than 500 milligrams of opium per 100  | 
| 13 |  |  milliliters or per 100 grams, or not more than 25  | 
| 14 |  |  milligrams per dosage unit, with one or more active,  | 
| 15 |  |  non-narcotic ingredients in recognized therapeutic  | 
| 16 |  |  amounts; | 
| 17 |  |   (8) not more than 50 milligrams of morphine per 100  | 
| 18 |  |  milliliters or per 100 grams with one or more active,  | 
| 19 |  |  non-narcotic ingredients in recognized therapeutic  | 
| 20 |  |  amounts. | 
| 21 |  |  (f) Anabolic steroids, except the following anabolic  | 
| 22 |  | steroids that are exempt: | 
| 23 |  |   (1) Androgyn L.A.; | 
| 24 |  |   (2) Andro-Estro 90-4; | 
| 25 |  |   (3) depANDROGYN; | 
| 26 |  |   (4) DEPO-T.E.; | 
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| 
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| 1 |  |   (5) depTESTROGEN; | 
| 2 |  |   (6) Duomone; | 
| 3 |  |   (7) DURATESTRIN; | 
| 4 |  |   (8) DUO-SPAN II; | 
| 5 |  |   (9) Estratest; | 
| 6 |  |   (10) Estratest H.S.; | 
| 7 |  |   (11) PAN ESTRA TEST; | 
| 8 |  |   (12) Premarin with Methyltestosterone; | 
| 9 |  |   (13) TEST-ESTRO Cypionates; | 
| 10 |  |   (14) Testosterone Cyp 50 Estradiol Cyp 2; | 
| 11 |  |   (15) Testosterone Cypionate-Estradiol Cypionate  | 
| 12 |  |  injection; and | 
| 13 |  |   (16) Testosterone Enanthate-Estradiol Valerate  | 
| 14 |  |  injection. | 
| 15 |  |  (g) Hallucinogenic substances. | 
| 16 |  |   (1) Dronabinol (synthetic) in sesame oil and  | 
| 17 |  |  encapsulated in a soft gelatin capsule in a U.S. Food and  | 
| 18 |  |  Drug Administration approved product. Some other names for  | 
| 19 |  |  dronabinol: (6aR-trans)-6a,7,8,10a-tetrahydro-  | 
| 20 |  |  6,6,9-trimethyl-3-pentyl-6H-dibenzo (b,d) pyran-1-ol) or  | 
| 21 |  |  (-)-delta-9-(trans)-tetrahydrocannabinol. | 
| 22 |  |   (2) (Reserved). | 
| 23 |  |  (h) The Department may except by rule any compound,  | 
| 24 |  | mixture, or preparation containing any stimulant or depressant  | 
| 25 |  | substance listed in subsection (b) from the application of all  | 
| 26 |  | or any part of this Act if the compound, mixture, or  | 
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| 1 |  | preparation contains one or more active medicinal ingredients  | 
| 2 |  | not having a stimulant or depressant effect on the central  | 
| 3 |  | nervous system, and if the admixtures are included therein in  | 
| 4 |  | combinations, quantity, proportion, or concentration that  | 
| 5 |  | vitiate the potential for misuse abuse of the substances which  | 
| 6 |  | have a stimulant or depressant effect on the central nervous  | 
| 7 |  | system. | 
| 8 |  | (Source: P.A. 100-368, eff. 1-1-18.)
 | 
| 9 |  |  (720 ILCS 570/209) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 1209) | 
| 10 |  |  Sec. 209. The Department, taking into consideration the  | 
| 11 |  | recommendations of its Prescription Monitoring Program  | 
| 12 |  | Advisory Committee, may issue a rule scheduling a substance in  | 
| 13 |  | Schedule IV if it finds that: | 
| 14 |  |   (1) the substance has a low potential for misuse abuse  | 
| 15 |  |  relative to substances in Schedule III; | 
| 16 |  |   (2) the substance has currently accepted medical use  | 
| 17 |  |  in treatment in the United States; and | 
| 18 |  |   (3) misuse abuse of the substance may lead to limited  | 
| 19 |  |  physiological dependence or psychological dependence  | 
| 20 |  |  relative to the substances in Schedule III. | 
| 21 |  | (Source: P.A. 97-334, eff. 1-1-12.)
 | 
| 22 |  |  (720 ILCS 570/210) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 1210) | 
| 23 |  |  Sec. 210. (a) The controlled substances listed in this  | 
| 24 |  | Section are included in Schedule IV. | 
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| 1 |  |  (b) Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in  | 
| 2 |  | another schedule, any material, compound, mixture, or  | 
| 3 |  | preparation containing limited quantities of any of the  | 
| 4 |  | following narcotic drugs, or their salts calculated as the  | 
| 5 |  | free anhydrous base or alkaloid, as set forth below:  | 
| 6 |  |   (1) Not more than 1 milligram of difenoxin (DEA Drug  | 
| 7 |  |  Code No. 9618) and not less than 25 micrograms of atropine  | 
| 8 |  |  sulfate per dosage unit.  | 
| 9 |  |   (2) Dextropropoxyphene (Alpha-(+)-4-dimethylamino-1,  | 
| 10 |  |  2-diphenyl-3-methyl-2-propionoxybutane). | 
| 11 |  |  (c) Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in  | 
| 12 |  | another schedule, any material, compound, mixture, or  | 
| 13 |  | preparation which contains any quantity of the following  | 
| 14 |  | substances having a potential for misuse abuse associated with  | 
| 15 |  | a depressant effect on the central nervous system:  | 
| 16 |  |   (1) Alprazolam;  | 
| 17 |  |   (2) Barbital;  | 
| 18 |  |   (2.1) Bromazepam;  | 
| 19 |  |   (2.2) Camazepam; | 
| 20 |  |   (2.3) Carisoprodol;   | 
| 21 |  |   (3) Chloral Betaine;  | 
| 22 |  |   (4) Chloral Hydrate;  | 
| 23 |  |   (5) Chlordiazepoxide;  | 
| 24 |  |   (5.1) Clobazam;  | 
| 25 |  |   (6) Clonazepam;  | 
| 26 |  |   (7) Clorazepate;  | 
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| 1 |  |   (17.3) Nitrazepam;  | 
| 2 |  |   (17.4) Nordiazepam;  | 
| 3 |  |   (18) Oxazepam;  | 
| 4 |  |   (18.1) Oxazolam;  | 
| 5 |  |   (19) Paraldehyde;  | 
| 6 |  |   (20) Petrichloral;  | 
| 7 |  |   (21) Phenobarbital;  | 
| 8 |  |   (21.1) Pinazepam;  | 
| 9 |  |   (22) Prazepam;  | 
| 10 |  |   (22.1) Quazepam;  | 
| 11 |  |   (23) Temazepam;  | 
| 12 |  |   (23.1) Tetrazepam; | 
| 13 |  |   (23.2) Tramadol;   | 
| 14 |  |   (24) Triazolam;  | 
| 15 |  |   (24.5) Zaleplon;  | 
| 16 |  |   (25) Zolpidem; | 
| 17 |  |   (26) Zopiclone.  | 
| 18 |  |  (d) Any material, compound, mixture, or preparation which  | 
| 19 |  | contains any quantity of the following substances, including  | 
| 20 |  | its salts, isomers (whether optical, position, or geometric),  | 
| 21 |  | and salts of such isomers, whenever the existence of such  | 
| 22 |  | salts, isomers and salts of isomers is possible:  | 
| 23 |  |   (1) Fenfluramine. | 
| 24 |  |  (e) Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in  | 
| 25 |  | another schedule any material, compound, mixture, or  | 
| 26 |  | preparation which contains any quantity of the following  | 
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| 1 |  | substances having a stimulant effect on the central nervous  | 
| 2 |  | system, including its salts, isomers (whether optical,  | 
| 3 |  | position or geometric), and salts of such isomers whenever the  | 
| 4 |  | existence of such salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is  | 
| 5 |  | possible within the specific chemical designation:  | 
| 6 |  |   (1) Cathine ((+)-norpseudoephedrine);  | 
| 7 |  |   (1.1)   Diethylpropion;  | 
| 8 |  |   (1.2) Fencamfamin;  | 
| 9 |  |   (1.3) Fenproporex;  | 
| 10 |  |   (2) Mazindol;  | 
| 11 |  |   (2.1) Mefenorex;  | 
| 12 |  |   (3) Phentermine;  | 
| 13 |  |   (4) Pemoline (including organometallic complexes and  | 
| 14 |  |  chelates thereof);  | 
| 15 |  |   (5) Pipradrol;  | 
| 16 |  |   (6) SPA ((-)-1-dimethylamino-1, 2-diphenylethane);  | 
| 17 |  |   (7) Modafinil;  | 
| 18 |  |   (8) Sibutramine. | 
| 19 |  |  (f) Other Substances. Unless specifically excepted or  | 
| 20 |  | unless listed in another schedule, any material, compound,  | 
| 21 |  | mixture, or preparation that contains any quantity of the  | 
| 22 |  | following substance, including its salts:  | 
| 23 |  |   (1) Butorphanol (including its optical isomers). | 
| 24 |  |  (g) The Department may except by rule any compound,  | 
| 25 |  | mixture, or preparation containing any depressant substance  | 
| 26 |  | listed in subsection (b) from the application of all or any  | 
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| 1 |  | part of this Act if the compound, mixture, or preparation  | 
| 2 |  | contains one or more active medicinal ingredients not having a  | 
| 3 |  | depressant effect on the central nervous system, and if the  | 
| 4 |  | admixtures are included therein in combinations, quantity,  | 
| 5 |  | proportion, or concentration that vitiate the potential for  | 
| 6 |  | misuse abuse of the substances which have a depressant effect  | 
| 7 |  | on the central nervous system. | 
| 8 |  |  (h) Except as otherwise provided in Section 216, any  | 
| 9 |  | material, compound, mixture, or preparation that contains any  | 
| 10 |  | quantity of the following substance having a stimulant effect  | 
| 11 |  | on the central nervous system, including its salts,  | 
| 12 |  | enantiomers (optical isomers) and salts of enantiomers  | 
| 13 |  | (optical isomers):  | 
| 14 |  |   (1) Ephedrine, its salts, optical isomers and salts of  | 
| 15 |  |  optical isomers. | 
| 16 |  | (Source: P.A. 97-334, eff. 1-1-12.)
 | 
| 17 |  |  (720 ILCS 570/211) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 1211) | 
| 18 |  |  Sec. 211. The Department, taking into consideration the  | 
| 19 |  | recommendations of its Prescription Monitoring Program  | 
| 20 |  | Advisory Committee, may issue a rule scheduling a substance in  | 
| 21 |  | Schedule V if it finds that: | 
| 22 |  |   (1) the substance has low potential for misuse abuse  | 
| 23 |  |  relative to the controlled substances listed in Schedule  | 
| 24 |  |  IV; | 
| 25 |  |   (2) the substance has currently accepted medical use  | 
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| 1 |  |  in treatment in the United States; and | 
| 2 |  |   (3) misuse abuse of the substance may lead to limited  | 
| 3 |  |  physiological dependence or psychological dependence  | 
| 4 |  |  relative to the substances in Schedule IV, or the  | 
| 5 |  |  substance is a targeted methamphetamine precursor as  | 
| 6 |  |  defined in the Methamphetamine Precursor Control Act. | 
| 7 |  | (Source: P.A. 97-334, eff. 1-1-12.)
 | 
| 8 |  |  (720 ILCS 570/216) | 
| 9 |  |  Sec. 216. Ephedrine.  | 
| 10 |  |  (a) The following drug products containing ephedrine, its  | 
| 11 |  | salts, optical isomers and salts of optical isomers shall be  | 
| 12 |  | exempt from the application of Sections 312 and 313 of this Act  | 
| 13 |  | if they: (i) may lawfully be sold over-the-counter without a  | 
| 14 |  | prescription under the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act;  | 
| 15 |  | (ii) are labeled and marketed in a manner consistent with  | 
| 16 |  | Section 341.76 of Title 21 of the Code of Federal Regulations;  | 
| 17 |  | (iii) are manufactured and distributed for legitimate  | 
| 18 |  | medicinal use in a manner that reduces or eliminates the  | 
| 19 |  | likelihood of abuse; and (iv) are not marketed, advertised, or  | 
| 20 |  | labeled for the indications of stimulation, mental alertness,  | 
| 21 |  | weight loss, muscle enhancement, appetite control, or energy:  | 
| 22 |  |   (1) Solid oral dosage forms, including soft gelatin  | 
| 23 |  |  caplets, which are formulated pursuant to 21 CFR 341 or  | 
| 24 |  |  its successor, and packaged in blister packs of not more  | 
| 25 |  |  than 2 tablets per blister.  | 
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| 1 |  |   (2) Anorectal preparations containing not more than 5%  | 
| 2 |  |  ephedrine. | 
| 3 |  |  (b) The marketing, advertising, or labeling of any product  | 
| 4 |  | containing ephedrine, a salt of ephedrine, an optical isomer  | 
| 5 |  | of ephedrine, or a salt of an optical isomer of ephedrine, for  | 
| 6 |  | the indications of stimulation, mental alertness, weight loss,  | 
| 7 |  | appetite control, or energy, is prohibited. In determining  | 
| 8 |  | compliance with this requirement the Department may consider  | 
| 9 |  | the following factors:  | 
| 10 |  |   (1) The packaging of the drug product;  | 
| 11 |  |   (2) The name and labeling of the product;  | 
| 12 |  |   (3) The manner of distribution, advertising, and  | 
| 13 |  |  promotion of the product;  | 
| 14 |  |   (4) Verbal representations made concerning the  | 
| 15 |  |  product;  | 
| 16 |  |   (5) The duration, scope, and significance of abuse or  | 
| 17 |  |  misuse of the particular product. | 
| 18 |  |  (c) A violation of this Section is a Class A misdemeanor. A  | 
| 19 |  | second or subsequent violation of this Section is a Class 4  | 
| 20 |  | felony. | 
| 21 |  |  (d) This Section does not apply to dietary supplements,  | 
| 22 |  | herbs, or other natural products, including concentrates or  | 
| 23 |  | extracts, which:  | 
| 24 |  |   (1) are not otherwise prohibited by law; and  | 
| 25 |  |   (2) may contain naturally occurring ephedrine,  | 
| 26 |  |  ephedrine alkaloids, or pseudoephedrine, or their salts,  | 
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| 1 |  |  isomers, or salts of isomers, or a combination of these  | 
| 2 |  |  substances, that:  | 
| 3 |  |    (i) are contained in a matrix of organic material;  | 
| 4 |  |  and  | 
| 5 |  |    (ii) do not exceed 15% of the total weight of the  | 
| 6 |  |  natural product. | 
| 7 |  |  (e) Nothing in this Section limits the scope or terms of  | 
| 8 |  | the Methamphetamine Precursor Control Act.  | 
| 9 |  | (Source: P.A. 94-694, eff. 1-15-06.)
 | 
| 10 |  |  (720 ILCS 570/312) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 1312) | 
| 11 |  |  Sec. 312. Requirements for dispensing controlled  | 
| 12 |  | substances.  | 
| 13 |  |  (a) A practitioner, in good faith, may dispense a Schedule  | 
| 14 |  | II controlled substance, which is a narcotic drug listed in  | 
| 15 |  | Section 206 of this Act; or which contains any quantity of  | 
| 16 |  | amphetamine or methamphetamine, their salts, optical isomers  | 
| 17 |  | or salts of optical isomers; phenmetrazine and its salts; or  | 
| 18 |  | pentazocine; and Schedule III, IV, or V controlled substances  | 
| 19 |  | to any person upon a written or electronic prescription of any  | 
| 20 |  | prescriber, dated and signed by the person prescribing (or  | 
| 21 |  | electronically validated in compliance with Section 311.5) on  | 
| 22 |  | the day when issued and bearing the name and address of the  | 
| 23 |  | patient for whom, or the owner of the animal for which the  | 
| 24 |  | controlled substance is dispensed, and the full name, address  | 
| 25 |  | and registry number under the laws of the United States  | 
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| 1 |  | relating to controlled substances of the prescriber, if he or  | 
| 2 |  | she is required by those laws to be registered. If the  | 
| 3 |  | prescription is for an animal it shall state the species of  | 
| 4 |  | animal for which it is ordered. The practitioner filling the  | 
| 5 |  | prescription shall, unless otherwise permitted, write the date  | 
| 6 |  | of filling and his or her own signature on the face of the  | 
| 7 |  | written prescription or, alternatively, shall indicate such  | 
| 8 |  | filling using a unique identifier as defined in paragraph (v)  | 
| 9 |  | of Section 3 of the Pharmacy Practice Act. The written  | 
| 10 |  | prescription shall be retained on file by the practitioner who  | 
| 11 |  | filled it or pharmacy in which the prescription was filled for  | 
| 12 |  | a period of 2 years, so as to be readily accessible for  | 
| 13 |  | inspection or removal by any officer or employee engaged in  | 
| 14 |  | the enforcement of this Act. Whenever the practitioner's or  | 
| 15 |  | pharmacy's copy of any prescription is removed by an officer  | 
| 16 |  | or employee engaged in the enforcement of this Act, for the  | 
| 17 |  | purpose of investigation or as evidence, such officer or  | 
| 18 |  | employee shall give to the practitioner or pharmacy a receipt  | 
| 19 |  | in lieu thereof. If the specific prescription is machine or  | 
| 20 |  | computer generated and printed at the prescriber's office, the  | 
| 21 |  | date does not need to be handwritten. A prescription for a  | 
| 22 |  | Schedule II controlled substance shall not be issued for more  | 
| 23 |  | than a 30 day supply, except as provided in subsection (a-5),  | 
| 24 |  | and shall be valid for up to 90 days after the date of  | 
| 25 |  | issuance. A written prescription for Schedule III, IV or V  | 
| 26 |  | controlled substances shall not be filled or refilled more  | 
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| 1 |  | than 6 months after the date thereof or refilled more than 5  | 
| 2 |  | times unless renewed, in writing, by the prescriber. A  | 
| 3 |  | pharmacy shall maintain a policy regarding the type of  | 
| 4 |  | identification necessary, if any, to receive a prescription in  | 
| 5 |  | accordance with State and federal law. The pharmacy must post  | 
| 6 |  | such information where prescriptions are filled. | 
| 7 |  |  (a-5) Physicians may issue multiple prescriptions (3  | 
| 8 |  | sequential 30-day supplies) for the same Schedule II  | 
| 9 |  | controlled substance, authorizing up to a 90-day supply.  | 
| 10 |  | Before authorizing a 90-day supply of a Schedule II controlled  | 
| 11 |  | substance, the physician must meet the following conditions: | 
| 12 |  |   (1) Each separate prescription must be issued for a  | 
| 13 |  |  legitimate medical purpose by an individual physician  | 
| 14 |  |  acting in the usual course of professional practice. | 
| 15 |  |   (2) The individual physician must provide written  | 
| 16 |  |  instructions on each prescription (other than the first  | 
| 17 |  |  prescription, if the prescribing physician intends for the  | 
| 18 |  |  prescription to be filled immediately) indicating the  | 
| 19 |  |  earliest date on which a pharmacy may fill that  | 
| 20 |  |  prescription.  | 
| 21 |  |   (3) The physician shall document in the medical record  | 
| 22 |  |  of a patient the medical necessity for the amount and  | 
| 23 |  |  duration of the 3 sequential 30-day prescriptions for  | 
| 24 |  |  Schedule II narcotics.  | 
| 25 |  |  (a-10) Prescribers who issue a prescription for an opioid  | 
| 26 |  | shall inform the patient that opioids are addictive and that  | 
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| 1 |  | opioid antagonists are available by prescription or from a  | 
| 2 |  | pharmacy.  | 
| 3 |  |  (b) In lieu of a written prescription required by this  | 
| 4 |  | Section, a pharmacist, in good faith, may dispense Schedule  | 
| 5 |  | III, IV, or V substances to any person either upon receiving a  | 
| 6 |  | facsimile of a written, signed prescription transmitted by the  | 
| 7 |  | prescriber or the prescriber's agent or upon a lawful oral  | 
| 8 |  | prescription of a prescriber which oral prescription shall be  | 
| 9 |  | reduced promptly to writing by the pharmacist and such written  | 
| 10 |  | memorandum thereof shall be dated on the day when such oral  | 
| 11 |  | prescription is received by the pharmacist and shall bear the  | 
| 12 |  | full name and address of the ultimate user for whom, or of the  | 
| 13 |  | owner of the animal for which the controlled substance is  | 
| 14 |  | dispensed, and the full name, address, and registry number  | 
| 15 |  | under the law of the United States relating to controlled  | 
| 16 |  | substances of the prescriber prescribing if he or she is  | 
| 17 |  | required by those laws to be so registered, and the pharmacist  | 
| 18 |  | filling such oral prescription shall write the date of filling  | 
| 19 |  | and his or her own signature on the face of such written  | 
| 20 |  | memorandum thereof. The facsimile copy of the prescription or  | 
| 21 |  | written memorandum of the oral prescription shall be retained  | 
| 22 |  | on file by the proprietor of the pharmacy in which it is filled  | 
| 23 |  | for a period of not less than two years, so as to be readily  | 
| 24 |  | accessible for inspection by any officer or employee engaged  | 
| 25 |  | in the enforcement of this Act in the same manner as a written  | 
| 26 |  | prescription. The facsimile copy of the prescription or oral  | 
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| 1 |  | prescription and the written memorandum thereof shall not be  | 
| 2 |  | filled or refilled more than 6 months after the date thereof or  | 
| 3 |  | be refilled more than 5 times, unless renewed, in writing, by  | 
| 4 |  | the prescriber. | 
| 5 |  |  (c) Except for any non-prescription targeted  | 
| 6 |  | methamphetamine precursor regulated by the Methamphetamine  | 
| 7 |  | Precursor Control Act, a controlled substance included in  | 
| 8 |  | Schedule V shall not be distributed or dispensed other than  | 
| 9 |  | for a medical purpose and not for the purpose of evading this  | 
| 10 |  | Act, and then: | 
| 11 |  |   (1) only personally by a person registered to dispense  | 
| 12 |  |  a Schedule V controlled substance and then only to his or  | 
| 13 |  |  her patients, or | 
| 14 |  |   (2) only personally by a pharmacist, and then only to  | 
| 15 |  |  a person over 21 years of age who has identified himself or  | 
| 16 |  |  herself to the pharmacist by means of 2 positive documents  | 
| 17 |  |  of identification. | 
| 18 |  |  The dispenser shall record the name and address of the  | 
| 19 |  | purchaser, the name and quantity of the product, the date and  | 
| 20 |  | time of the sale, and the dispenser's signature. | 
| 21 |  |  No person shall purchase or be dispensed more than 120  | 
| 22 |  | milliliters or more than 120 grams of any Schedule V substance  | 
| 23 |  | which contains codeine, dihydrocodeine, or any salts thereof,  | 
| 24 |  | or ethylmorphine, or any salts thereof, in any 96-hour period.  | 
| 25 |  | The purchaser shall sign a form, approved by the Department of  | 
| 26 |  | Financial and Professional Regulation, attesting that he or  | 
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| 1 |  | she has not purchased any Schedule V controlled substances  | 
| 2 |  | within the immediately preceding 96 hours. | 
| 3 |  |  All records of purchases and sales shall be maintained for  | 
| 4 |  | not less than 2 years. | 
| 5 |  |  No person shall obtain or attempt to obtain within any  | 
| 6 |  | consecutive 96-hour period any Schedule V substances of more  | 
| 7 |  | than 120 milliliters or more than 120 grams containing  | 
| 8 |  | codeine, dihydrocodeine or any of its salts, or ethylmorphine  | 
| 9 |  | or any of its salts. Any person obtaining any such  | 
| 10 |  | preparations or combination of preparations in excess of this  | 
| 11 |  | limitation shall be in unlawful possession of such controlled  | 
| 12 |  | substance. | 
| 13 |  |  A person qualified to dispense controlled substances under  | 
| 14 |  | this Act and registered thereunder shall at no time maintain  | 
| 15 |  | or keep in stock a quantity of Schedule V controlled  | 
| 16 |  | substances in excess of 4.5 liters for each substance; a  | 
| 17 |  | pharmacy shall at no time maintain or keep in stock a quantity  | 
| 18 |  | of Schedule V controlled substances as defined in excess of  | 
| 19 |  | 4.5 liters for each substance, plus the additional quantity of  | 
| 20 |  | controlled substances necessary to fill the largest number of  | 
| 21 |  | prescription orders filled by that pharmacy for such  | 
| 22 |  | controlled substances in any one week in the previous year.  | 
| 23 |  | These limitations shall not apply to Schedule V controlled  | 
| 24 |  | substances which Federal law prohibits from being dispensed  | 
| 25 |  | without a prescription. | 
| 26 |  |  No person shall distribute or dispense butyl nitrite for  | 
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| 1 |  | inhalation or other introduction into the human body for  | 
| 2 |  | euphoric or physical effect. | 
| 3 |  |  (d) Every practitioner shall keep a record or log of  | 
| 4 |  | controlled substances received by him or her and a record of  | 
| 5 |  | all such controlled substances administered, dispensed or  | 
| 6 |  | professionally used by him or her otherwise than by  | 
| 7 |  | prescription. It shall, however, be sufficient compliance with  | 
| 8 |  | this paragraph if any practitioner utilizing controlled  | 
| 9 |  | substances listed in Schedules III, IV and V shall keep a  | 
| 10 |  | record of all those substances dispensed and distributed by  | 
| 11 |  | him or her other than those controlled substances which are  | 
| 12 |  | administered by the direct application of a controlled  | 
| 13 |  | substance, whether by injection, inhalation, ingestion, or any  | 
| 14 |  | other means to the body of a patient or research subject. A  | 
| 15 |  | practitioner who dispenses, other than by administering, a  | 
| 16 |  | controlled substance in Schedule II, which is a narcotic drug  | 
| 17 |  | listed in Section 206 of this Act, or which contains any  | 
| 18 |  | quantity of amphetamine or methamphetamine, their salts,  | 
| 19 |  | optical isomers or salts of optical isomers, pentazocine, or  | 
| 20 |  | methaqualone shall do so only upon the issuance of a written  | 
| 21 |  | prescription blank or electronic prescription issued by a  | 
| 22 |  | prescriber. | 
| 23 |  |  (e) Whenever a manufacturer distributes a controlled  | 
| 24 |  | substance in a package prepared by him or her, and whenever a  | 
| 25 |  | wholesale distributor distributes a controlled substance in a  | 
| 26 |  | package prepared by him or her or the manufacturer, he or she  | 
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| 1 |  | shall securely affix to each package in which that substance  | 
| 2 |  | is contained a label showing in legible English the name and  | 
| 3 |  | address of the manufacturer, the distributor and the quantity,  | 
| 4 |  | kind and form of controlled substance contained therein. No  | 
| 5 |  | person except a pharmacist and only for the purposes of  | 
| 6 |  | filling a prescription under this Act, shall alter, deface or  | 
| 7 |  | remove any label so affixed. | 
| 8 |  |  (f) Whenever a practitioner dispenses any controlled  | 
| 9 |  | substance except a non-prescription Schedule V product or a  | 
| 10 |  | non-prescription targeted methamphetamine precursor regulated  | 
| 11 |  | by the Methamphetamine Precursor Control Act, he or she shall  | 
| 12 |  | affix to the container in which such substance is sold or  | 
| 13 |  | dispensed, a label indicating the date of initial filling, the  | 
| 14 |  | practitioner's name and address, the name of the patient, the  | 
| 15 |  | name of the prescriber, the directions for use and cautionary  | 
| 16 |  | statements, if any, contained in any prescription or required  | 
| 17 |  | by law, the proprietary name or names or the established name  | 
| 18 |  | of the controlled substance, and the dosage and quantity,  | 
| 19 |  | except as otherwise authorized by regulation by the Department  | 
| 20 |  | of Financial and Professional Regulation. No person shall  | 
| 21 |  | alter, deface or remove any label so affixed as long as the  | 
| 22 |  | specific medication remains in the container. | 
| 23 |  |  (g) A person to whom or for whose use any controlled  | 
| 24 |  | substance has been prescribed or dispensed by a practitioner,  | 
| 25 |  | or other persons authorized under this Act, and the owner of  | 
| 26 |  | any animal for which such substance has been prescribed or  | 
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| 1 |  | dispensed by a veterinarian, may lawfully possess such  | 
| 2 |  | substance only in the container in which it was delivered to  | 
| 3 |  | him or her by the person dispensing such substance. | 
| 4 |  |  (h) The responsibility for the proper prescribing or  | 
| 5 |  | dispensing of controlled substances that are under the  | 
| 6 |  | prescriber's direct control is upon the prescriber. The  | 
| 7 |  | responsibility for the proper filling of a prescription for  | 
| 8 |  | controlled substance drugs rests with the pharmacist. An order  | 
| 9 |  | purporting to be a prescription issued to any individual,  | 
| 10 |  | which is not in the regular course of professional treatment  | 
| 11 |  | nor part of an authorized methadone maintenance program, nor  | 
| 12 |  | in legitimate and authorized research instituted by any  | 
| 13 |  | accredited hospital, educational institution, charitable  | 
| 14 |  | foundation, or federal, state or local governmental agency,  | 
| 15 |  | and which is intended to provide that individual with  | 
| 16 |  | controlled substances sufficient to maintain that individual's  | 
| 17 |  | or any other individual's physical or psychological addiction,  | 
| 18 |  | habitual or customary use, dependence, or diversion of that  | 
| 19 |  | controlled substance is not a prescription within the meaning  | 
| 20 |  | and intent of this Act; and the person issuing it, shall be  | 
| 21 |  | subject to the penalties provided for violations of the law  | 
| 22 |  | relating to controlled substances. | 
| 23 |  |  (i) A prescriber shall not pre-print or cause to be  | 
| 24 |  | pre-printed a prescription for any controlled substance; nor  | 
| 25 |  | shall any practitioner issue, fill or cause to be issued or  | 
| 26 |  | filled, a pre-printed prescription for any controlled  | 
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| 1 |  | substance. | 
| 2 |  |  (i-5) A prescriber may use a machine or electronic device  | 
| 3 |  | to individually generate a printed prescription, but the  | 
| 4 |  | prescriber is still required to affix his or her manual  | 
| 5 |  | signature.  | 
| 6 |  |  (j) No person shall manufacture, dispense, deliver,  | 
| 7 |  | possess with intent to deliver, prescribe, or administer or  | 
| 8 |  | cause to be administered under his or her direction any  | 
| 9 |  | anabolic steroid, for any use in humans other than the  | 
| 10 |  | treatment of disease in accordance with the order of a  | 
| 11 |  | physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches  | 
| 12 |  | for a valid medical purpose in the course of professional  | 
| 13 |  | practice. The use of anabolic steroids for the purpose of  | 
| 14 |  | hormonal manipulation that is intended to increase muscle  | 
| 15 |  | mass, strength or weight without a medical necessity to do so,  | 
| 16 |  | or for the intended purpose of improving physical appearance  | 
| 17 |  | or performance in any form of exercise, sport, or game, is not  | 
| 18 |  | a valid medical purpose or in the course of professional  | 
| 19 |  | practice. | 
| 20 |  |  (k) Controlled substances may be mailed if all of the  | 
| 21 |  | following conditions are met: | 
| 22 |  |   (1) The controlled substances are not outwardly  | 
| 23 |  |  dangerous and are not likely, of their own force, to cause  | 
| 24 |  |  injury to a person's life or health. | 
| 25 |  |   (2) The inner container of a parcel containing  | 
| 26 |  |  controlled substances must be marked and sealed as  | 
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| 1 |  |  required under this Act and its rules, and be placed in a  | 
| 2 |  |  plain outer container or securely wrapped in plain paper. | 
| 3 |  |   (3) If the controlled substances consist of  | 
| 4 |  |  prescription medicines, the inner container must be  | 
| 5 |  |  labeled to show the name and address of the pharmacy or  | 
| 6 |  |  practitioner dispensing the prescription. | 
| 7 |  |   (4) The outside wrapper or container must be free of  | 
| 8 |  |  markings that would indicate the nature of the contents.  | 
| 9 |  |  (l) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Act to the  | 
| 10 |  | contrary, emergency medical services personnel may administer  | 
| 11 |  | Schedule II, III, IV, or V controlled substances to a person in  | 
| 12 |  | the scope of their employment without a written, electronic,  | 
| 13 |  | or oral prescription of a prescriber.  | 
| 14 |  | (Source: P.A. 102-1040, eff. 1-1-23; 103-154, eff. 6-30-23.)
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| 15 |  |  (720 ILCS 570/313) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 1313) | 
| 16 |  |  Sec. 313. (a) Controlled substances which are lawfully  | 
| 17 |  | administered in hospitals or institutions licensed under the  | 
| 18 |  | Hospital Licensing Act shall be exempt from the requirements  | 
| 19 |  | of Sections 312, 315.6, and 316, except that the prescription  | 
| 20 |  | for the controlled substance shall be in writing on the  | 
| 21 |  | patient's record, signed by the prescriber, and dated, and  | 
| 22 |  | shall state the name and quantity of controlled substances  | 
| 23 |  | ordered and the quantity actually administered. The records of  | 
| 24 |  | such prescriptions shall be maintained for two years and shall  | 
| 25 |  | be available for inspection by officers and employees of the  | 
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| 1 |  | Illinois State Police and the Department of Financial and  | 
| 2 |  | Professional Regulation. | 
| 3 |  |  The exemption under this subsection (a) does not apply to  | 
| 4 |  | a prescription (including an outpatient prescription from an  | 
| 5 |  | emergency department or outpatient clinic) for more than a  | 
| 6 |  | 72-hour supply of a discharge medication to be consumed  | 
| 7 |  | outside of the hospital or institution. | 
| 8 |  |  (b) Controlled substances that can lawfully be  | 
| 9 |  | administered or dispensed directly to a patient in a long-term  | 
| 10 |  | care facility licensed by the Department of Public Health as a  | 
| 11 |  | skilled nursing facility, intermediate care facility, or  | 
| 12 |  | long-term care facility for residents under 22 years of age,  | 
| 13 |  | are exempt from the requirements of Section 312 except that a  | 
| 14 |  | prescription for a Schedule II controlled substance must be  | 
| 15 |  | either a prescription signed by the prescriber or a  | 
| 16 |  | prescription transmitted by the prescriber or prescriber's  | 
| 17 |  | agent to the dispensing pharmacy by facsimile. The facsimile  | 
| 18 |  | serves as the original prescription and must be maintained for  | 
| 19 |  | 2 years from the date of issue in the same manner as a written  | 
| 20 |  | prescription signed by the prescriber. | 
| 21 |  |  (c) A prescription that is generated for a Schedule II  | 
| 22 |  | controlled substance to be compounded for direct  | 
| 23 |  | administration to a patient in a private residence, long-term  | 
| 24 |  | care facility, or hospice program may be transmitted by  | 
| 25 |  | facsimile by the prescriber or the prescriber's agent to the  | 
| 26 |  | pharmacy providing the home infusion services. The facsimile  | 
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| 1 |  | serves as the original prescription for purposes of this  | 
| 2 |  | paragraph (c) and it shall be maintained in the same manner as  | 
| 3 |  | the original prescription. | 
| 4 |  |  (c-1) A prescription generated for a Schedule II  | 
| 5 |  | controlled substance for a patient residing in a hospice  | 
| 6 |  | certified by Medicare under Title XVIII of the Social Security  | 
| 7 |  | Act or licensed by the State may be transmitted by the  | 
| 8 |  | practitioner or the practitioner's agent to the dispensing  | 
| 9 |  | pharmacy by facsimile or electronically as provided in Section  | 
| 10 |  | 311.5. The practitioner or practitioner's agent must note on  | 
| 11 |  | the prescription that the patient is a hospice patient. The  | 
| 12 |  | facsimile or electronic record serves as the original  | 
| 13 |  | prescription for purposes of this paragraph (c-1) and it shall  | 
| 14 |  | be maintained in the same manner as the original prescription.  | 
| 15 |  |  (d) Controlled substances which are lawfully administered  | 
| 16 |  | and/or dispensed in substance use disorder drug abuse  | 
| 17 |  | treatment programs licensed by the Department shall be exempt  | 
| 18 |  | from the requirements of Sections 312 and 316, except that the  | 
| 19 |  | prescription for such controlled substances shall be issued  | 
| 20 |  | and authenticated on official prescription logs prepared and  | 
| 21 |  | maintained in accordance with 77 Ill. Adm. Code 2060:  | 
| 22 |  | Alcoholism and Substance Abuse Treatment and Intervention  | 
| 23 |  | Licenses, and in compliance with other applicable State and  | 
| 24 |  | federal laws. The Department-licensed drug treatment program  | 
| 25 |  | shall report applicable prescriptions via electronic record  | 
| 26 |  | keeping software approved by the Department. This software  | 
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| 1 |  | must be compatible with the specifications of the Department.  | 
| 2 |  | Substance use disorder Drug abuse treatment programs shall  | 
| 3 |  | report to the Department methadone prescriptions or  | 
| 4 |  | medications dispensed through the use of Department-approved  | 
| 5 |  | File Transfer Protocols (FTPs). Methadone prescription records  | 
| 6 |  | must be maintained in accordance with the applicable  | 
| 7 |  | requirements as set forth by the Department in accordance with  | 
| 8 |  | 77 Ill. Adm. Code 2060: Alcoholism and Substance Abuse  | 
| 9 |  | Treatment and Intervention Licenses, and in compliance with  | 
| 10 |  | other applicable State and federal laws.  | 
| 11 |  |  (e) Nothing in this Act shall be construed to limit the  | 
| 12 |  | authority of a hospital pursuant to Section 65-45 of the Nurse  | 
| 13 |  | Practice Act to grant hospital clinical privileges to an  | 
| 14 |  | individual advanced practice registered nurse to select, order  | 
| 15 |  | or administer medications, including controlled substances to  | 
| 16 |  | provide services within a hospital. Nothing in this Act shall  | 
| 17 |  | be construed to limit the authority of an ambulatory surgical  | 
| 18 |  | treatment center pursuant to Section 65-45 of the Nurse  | 
| 19 |  | Practice Act to grant ambulatory surgical treatment center  | 
| 20 |  | clinical privileges to an individual advanced practice  | 
| 21 |  | registered nurse to select, order or administer medications,  | 
| 22 |  | including controlled substances to provide services within an  | 
| 23 |  | ambulatory surgical treatment center. | 
| 24 |  | (Source: P.A. 102-608, eff. 8-27-21.)
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| 25 |  |  (720 ILCS 570/318) | 
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| 1 |  |  Sec. 318. Confidentiality of information.  | 
| 2 |  |  (a) Information received by the central repository under  | 
| 3 |  | Section 316 and former Section 321 is confidential. | 
| 4 |  |  (a-1) To ensure the federal Health Insurance Portability  | 
| 5 |  | and Accountability Act and confidentiality of substance use  | 
| 6 |  | disorder patient records rules that mandate the privacy of an  | 
| 7 |  | individual's prescription data reported to the Prescription  | 
| 8 |  | Monitoring Program received from a retail dispenser under this  | 
| 9 |  | Act, and in order to execute the duties and responsibilities  | 
| 10 |  | under Section 316 of this Act and rules for disclosure under  | 
| 11 |  | this Section, the Clinical Director of the Prescription  | 
| 12 |  | Monitoring Program or his or her designee shall maintain  | 
| 13 |  | direct access to all Prescription Monitoring Program data. Any  | 
| 14 |  | request for Prescription Monitoring Program data from any  | 
| 15 |  | other department or agency must be approved in writing by the  | 
| 16 |  | Clinical Director of the Prescription Monitoring Program or  | 
| 17 |  | his or her designee unless otherwise permitted by law.  | 
| 18 |  | Prescription Monitoring Program data shall only be disclosed  | 
| 19 |  | as permitted by law.  | 
| 20 |  |  (a-2) As an active step to address the current opioid  | 
| 21 |  | crisis in this State and to prevent and reduce substance use  | 
| 22 |  | disorders addiction resulting from a sports injury or an  | 
| 23 |  | accident, the Prescription Monitoring Program and the  | 
| 24 |  | Department of Public Health shall coordinate a continuous  | 
| 25 |  | review of the Prescription Monitoring Program and the  | 
| 26 |  | Department of Public Health data to determine if a patient may  | 
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| 1 |  | be at risk of opioid use disorder addiction. Each patient  | 
| 2 |  | discharged from any medical facility with an International  | 
| 3 |  | Classification of Disease, 10th edition code related to a  | 
| 4 |  | sport or accident injury shall be subject to the data review.  | 
| 5 |  | If the discharged patient is dispensed a controlled substance,  | 
| 6 |  | the Prescription Monitoring Program shall alert the patient's  | 
| 7 |  | prescriber as to the addiction risk of developing a substance  | 
| 8 |  | use disorder and urge each to follow the Centers for Disease  | 
| 9 |  | Control and Prevention guidelines or his or her respective  | 
| 10 |  | profession's treatment guidelines related to the patient's  | 
| 11 |  | injury. This subsection (a-2), other than this sentence, is  | 
| 12 |  | inoperative on or after January 1, 2024.  | 
| 13 |  |  (b) The Department must carry out a program to protect the  | 
| 14 |  | confidentiality of the information described in subsection  | 
| 15 |  | (a). The Department may disclose the information to another  | 
| 16 |  | person only under subsection (c), (d), or (f) and may charge a  | 
| 17 |  | fee not to exceed the actual cost of furnishing the  | 
| 18 |  | information. | 
| 19 |  |  (c) The Department may disclose confidential information  | 
| 20 |  | described in subsection (a) to any person who is engaged in  | 
| 21 |  | receiving, processing, or storing the information. | 
| 22 |  |  (d) The Department may release confidential information  | 
| 23 |  | described in subsection (a) to the following persons: | 
| 24 |  |   (1) A governing body that licenses practitioners and  | 
| 25 |  |  is engaged in an investigation, an adjudication, or a  | 
| 26 |  |  prosecution of a violation under any State or federal law  | 
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| 1 |  |  that involves a controlled substance. | 
| 2 |  |   (2) An investigator for the Consumer Protection  | 
| 3 |  |  Division of the office of the Attorney General, a  | 
| 4 |  |  prosecuting attorney, the Attorney General, a deputy  | 
| 5 |  |  Attorney General, or an investigator from the office of  | 
| 6 |  |  the Attorney General, who is engaged in any of the  | 
| 7 |  |  following activities involving controlled substances: | 
| 8 |  |    (A) an investigation; | 
| 9 |  |    (B) an adjudication; or | 
| 10 |  |    (C) a prosecution of a violation under any State  | 
| 11 |  |  or federal law that involves a controlled substance. | 
| 12 |  |   (3) A law enforcement officer who is: | 
| 13 |  |    (A) authorized by the Illinois State Police or the  | 
| 14 |  |  office of a county sheriff or State's Attorney or  | 
| 15 |  |  municipal police department of Illinois to receive  | 
| 16 |  |  information of the type requested for the purpose of  | 
| 17 |  |  investigations involving controlled substances; or | 
| 18 |  |    (B) approved by the Department to receive  | 
| 19 |  |  information of the type requested for the purpose of  | 
| 20 |  |  investigations involving controlled substances; and | 
| 21 |  |    (C) engaged in the investigation or prosecution of  | 
| 22 |  |  a violation under any State or federal law that  | 
| 23 |  |  involves a controlled substance. | 
| 24 |  |   (4) Select representatives of the Department of  | 
| 25 |  |  Children and Family Services through the indirect online  | 
| 26 |  |  request process. Access shall be established by an  | 
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| 1 |  |  intergovernmental agreement between the Department of  | 
| 2 |  |  Children and Family Services and the Department of Human  | 
| 3 |  |  Services.  | 
| 4 |  |  (e) Before the Department releases confidential  | 
| 5 |  | information under subsection (d), the applicant must  | 
| 6 |  | demonstrate in writing to the Department that: | 
| 7 |  |   (1) the applicant has reason to believe that a  | 
| 8 |  |  violation under any State or federal law that involves a  | 
| 9 |  |  controlled substance has occurred; and | 
| 10 |  |   (2) the requested information is reasonably related to  | 
| 11 |  |  the investigation, adjudication, or prosecution of the  | 
| 12 |  |  violation described in subdivision (1). | 
| 13 |  |  (f) The Department may receive and release prescription  | 
| 14 |  | record information under Section 316 and former Section 321  | 
| 15 |  | to: | 
| 16 |  |   (1) a governing body that licenses practitioners; | 
| 17 |  |   (2) an investigator for the Consumer Protection  | 
| 18 |  |  Division of the office of the Attorney General, a  | 
| 19 |  |  prosecuting attorney, the Attorney General, a deputy  | 
| 20 |  |  Attorney General, or an investigator from the office of  | 
| 21 |  |  the Attorney General;  | 
| 22 |  |   (3) any Illinois law enforcement officer who is: | 
| 23 |  |    (A) authorized to receive the type of information  | 
| 24 |  |  released; and | 
| 25 |  |    (B) approved by the Department to receive the type  | 
| 26 |  |  of information released; or  | 
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| 1 |  |   (4) prescription monitoring entities in other states  | 
| 2 |  |  per the provisions outlined in subsection (g) and (h)  | 
| 3 |  |  below;  | 
| 4 |  | confidential prescription record information collected under  | 
| 5 |  | Sections 316 and 321 (now repealed) that identifies vendors or  | 
| 6 |  | practitioners, or both, who are prescribing or dispensing  | 
| 7 |  | large quantities of Schedule II, III, IV, or V controlled  | 
| 8 |  | substances outside the scope of their practice, pharmacy, or  | 
| 9 |  | business, as determined by the Advisory Committee created by  | 
| 10 |  | Section 320. | 
| 11 |  |  (f-5) In accordance with a confidentiality agreement  | 
| 12 |  | entered into with the Department, a medical director, or a  | 
| 13 |  | public health administrator and their delegated analysts, of a  | 
| 14 |  | county or municipal health department or the Department of  | 
| 15 |  | Public Health shall have access to data from the system for any  | 
| 16 |  | of the following purposes: | 
| 17 |  |    (1) developing education programs or public health  | 
| 18 |  |  interventions relating to prescribing trends and  | 
| 19 |  |  controlled substance use; or | 
| 20 |  |    (2) conducting analyses and publish reports on  | 
| 21 |  |  prescribing trends in their respective jurisdictions. | 
| 22 |  |  At a minimum, the confidentiality agreement entered into  | 
| 23 |  | with the Department shall: | 
| 24 |  |   (i) prohibit analysis and reports produced under  | 
| 25 |  |  subparagraph (2) from including information that  | 
| 26 |  |  identifies, by name, license, or address, any  | 
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| 1 |  |  practitioner, dispenser, ultimate user, or other person  | 
| 2 |  |  administering a controlled substance; and | 
| 3 |  |   (ii) specify the appropriate technical and physical  | 
| 4 |  |  safeguards that the county or municipal health department  | 
| 5 |  |  must implement to ensure the privacy and security of data  | 
| 6 |  |  obtained from the system. The data from the system shall  | 
| 7 |  |  not be admissible as evidence, nor discoverable in any  | 
| 8 |  |  action of any kind in any court or before any tribunal,  | 
| 9 |  |  board, agency, or person. The disclosure of any such  | 
| 10 |  |  information or data, whether proper or improper, shall not  | 
| 11 |  |  waive or have any effect upon its confidentiality,  | 
| 12 |  |  non-discoverability, or non-admissibility.  | 
| 13 |  |  (g) The information described in subsection (f) may not be  | 
| 14 |  | released until it has been reviewed by an employee of the  | 
| 15 |  | Department who is licensed as a prescriber or a dispenser and  | 
| 16 |  | until that employee has certified that further investigation  | 
| 17 |  | is warranted. However, failure to comply with this subsection  | 
| 18 |  | (g) does not invalidate the use of any evidence that is  | 
| 19 |  | otherwise admissible in a proceeding described in subsection  | 
| 20 |  | (h). | 
| 21 |  |  (h) An investigator or a law enforcement officer receiving  | 
| 22 |  | confidential information under subsection (c), (d), or (f) may  | 
| 23 |  | disclose the information to a law enforcement officer or an  | 
| 24 |  | attorney for the office of the Attorney General for use as  | 
| 25 |  | evidence in the following: | 
| 26 |  |   (1) A proceeding under any State or federal law that  | 
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| 1 |  |  involves a controlled substance. | 
| 2 |  |   (2) A criminal proceeding or a proceeding in juvenile  | 
| 3 |  |  court that involves a controlled substance. | 
| 4 |  |  (i) The Department may compile statistical reports from  | 
| 5 |  | the information described in subsection (a). The reports must  | 
| 6 |  | not include information that identifies, by name, license or  | 
| 7 |  | address, any practitioner, dispenser, ultimate user, or other  | 
| 8 |  | person administering a controlled substance. | 
| 9 |  |  (j) Based upon federal, initial and maintenance funding, a  | 
| 10 |  | prescriber and dispenser inquiry system shall be developed to  | 
| 11 |  | assist the health care community in its goal of effective  | 
| 12 |  | clinical practice and to prevent patients from diverting or  | 
| 13 |  | abusing medications.  | 
| 14 |  |   (1) An inquirer shall have read-only access to a  | 
| 15 |  |  stand-alone database which shall contain records for the  | 
| 16 |  |  previous 12 months. | 
| 17 |  |   (2) Dispensers may, upon positive and secure  | 
| 18 |  |  identification, make an inquiry on a patient or customer  | 
| 19 |  |  solely for a medical purpose as delineated within the  | 
| 20 |  |  federal HIPAA law. | 
| 21 |  |   (3) The Department shall provide a one-to-one secure  | 
| 22 |  |  link and encrypted software necessary to establish the  | 
| 23 |  |  link between an inquirer and the Department. Technical  | 
| 24 |  |  assistance shall also be provided. | 
| 25 |  |   (4) Written inquiries are acceptable but must include  | 
| 26 |  |  the fee and the requester's Drug Enforcement  | 
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| 1 |  |  Administration license number and submitted upon the  | 
| 2 |  |  requester's business stationery. | 
| 3 |  |   (5) As directed by the Prescription Monitoring Program  | 
| 4 |  |  Advisory Committee and the Clinical Director for the  | 
| 5 |  |  Prescription Monitoring Program, aggregate data that does  | 
| 6 |  |  not indicate any prescriber, practitioner, dispenser, or  | 
| 7 |  |  patient may be used for clinical studies. | 
| 8 |  |   (6) Tracking analysis shall be established and used  | 
| 9 |  |  per administrative rule. | 
| 10 |  |   (7) Nothing in this Act or Illinois law shall be  | 
| 11 |  |  construed to require a prescriber or dispenser to make use  | 
| 12 |  |  of this inquiry system.  | 
| 13 |  |   (8) If there is an adverse outcome because of a  | 
| 14 |  |  prescriber or dispenser making an inquiry, which is  | 
| 15 |  |  initiated in good faith, the prescriber or dispenser shall  | 
| 16 |  |  be held harmless from any civil liability.  | 
| 17 |  |  (k) The Department shall establish, by rule, the process  | 
| 18 |  | by which to evaluate possible erroneous association of  | 
| 19 |  | prescriptions to any licensed prescriber or end user of the  | 
| 20 |  | Illinois Prescription Information Library (PIL). | 
| 21 |  |  (l) The Prescription Monitoring Program Advisory Committee  | 
| 22 |  | is authorized to evaluate the need for and method of  | 
| 23 |  | establishing a patient specific identifier. | 
| 24 |  |  (m) Patients who identify prescriptions attributed to them  | 
| 25 |  | that were not obtained by them shall be given access to their  | 
| 26 |  | personal prescription history pursuant to the validation  | 
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| 1 |  | process as set forth by administrative rule. | 
| 2 |  |  (n) The Prescription Monitoring Program is authorized to  | 
| 3 |  | develop operational push reports to entities with compatible  | 
| 4 |  | electronic medical records. The process shall be covered  | 
| 5 |  | within administrative rule established by the Department. | 
| 6 |  |  (o) Hospital emergency departments and freestanding  | 
| 7 |  | healthcare facilities providing healthcare to walk-in patients  | 
| 8 |  | may obtain, for the purpose of improving patient care, a  | 
| 9 |  | unique identifier for each shift to utilize the PIL system.  | 
| 10 |  |  (p) The Prescription Monitoring Program shall  | 
| 11 |  | automatically create a log-in to the inquiry system when a  | 
| 12 |  | prescriber or dispenser obtains or renews his or her  | 
| 13 |  | controlled substance license. The Department of Financial and  | 
| 14 |  | Professional Regulation must provide the Prescription  | 
| 15 |  | Monitoring Program with electronic access to the license  | 
| 16 |  | information of a prescriber or dispenser to facilitate the  | 
| 17 |  | creation of this profile. The Prescription Monitoring Program  | 
| 18 |  | shall send the prescriber or dispenser information regarding  | 
| 19 |  | the inquiry system, including instructions on how to log into  | 
| 20 |  | the system, instructions on how to use the system to promote  | 
| 21 |  | effective clinical practice, and opportunities for continuing  | 
| 22 |  | education for the prescribing of controlled substances. The  | 
| 23 |  | Prescription Monitoring Program shall also send to all  | 
| 24 |  | enrolled prescribers, dispensers, and designees information  | 
| 25 |  | regarding the unsolicited reports produced pursuant to Section  | 
| 26 |  | 314.5 of this Act.  | 
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| 1 |  |  (q) A prescriber or dispenser may authorize a designee to  | 
| 2 |  | consult the inquiry system established by the Department under  | 
| 3 |  | this subsection on his or her behalf, provided that all the  | 
| 4 |  | following conditions are met:  | 
| 5 |  |   (1) the designee so authorized is employed by the same  | 
| 6 |  |  hospital or health care system; is employed by the same  | 
| 7 |  |  professional practice; or is under contract with such  | 
| 8 |  |  practice, hospital, or health care system;  | 
| 9 |  |   (2) the prescriber or dispenser takes reasonable steps  | 
| 10 |  |  to ensure that such designee is sufficiently competent in  | 
| 11 |  |  the use of the inquiry system;  | 
| 12 |  |   (3) the prescriber or dispenser remains responsible  | 
| 13 |  |  for ensuring that access to the inquiry system by the  | 
| 14 |  |  designee is limited to authorized purposes and occurs in a  | 
| 15 |  |  manner that protects the confidentiality of the  | 
| 16 |  |  information obtained from the inquiry system, and remains  | 
| 17 |  |  responsible for any breach of confidentiality; and  | 
| 18 |  |   (4) the ultimate decision as to whether or not to  | 
| 19 |  |  prescribe or dispense a controlled substance remains with  | 
| 20 |  |  the prescriber or dispenser. | 
| 21 |  |  The Prescription Monitoring Program shall send to  | 
| 22 |  | registered designees information regarding the inquiry system,  | 
| 23 |  | including instructions on how to log onto the system.  | 
| 24 |  |  (r) The Prescription Monitoring Program shall maintain an  | 
| 25 |  | Internet website in conjunction with its prescriber and  | 
| 26 |  | dispenser inquiry system. This website shall include, at a  | 
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| 1 |  | minimum, the following information:  | 
| 2 |  |   (1) current clinical guidelines developed by health  | 
| 3 |  |  care professional organizations on the prescribing of  | 
| 4 |  |  opioids or other controlled substances as determined by  | 
| 5 |  |  the Advisory Committee; | 
| 6 |  |   (2) accredited continuing education programs related  | 
| 7 |  |  to prescribing of controlled substances;  | 
| 8 |  |   (3) programs or information developed by health care  | 
| 9 |  |  professionals that may be used to assess patients or help  | 
| 10 |  |  ensure compliance with prescriptions; | 
| 11 |  |   (4) updates from the Food and Drug Administration, the  | 
| 12 |  |  Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, and other  | 
| 13 |  |  public and private organizations which are relevant to  | 
| 14 |  |  prescribing; | 
| 15 |  |   (5) relevant medical studies related to prescribing; | 
| 16 |  |   (6) other information regarding the prescription of  | 
| 17 |  |  controlled substances; and | 
| 18 |  |   (7) information regarding prescription drug disposal  | 
| 19 |  |  events, including take-back programs or other disposal  | 
| 20 |  |  options or events.  | 
| 21 |  |  The content of the Internet website shall be periodically  | 
| 22 |  | reviewed by the Prescription Monitoring Program Advisory  | 
| 23 |  | Committee as set forth in Section 320 and updated in  | 
| 24 |  | accordance with the recommendation of the advisory committee.  | 
| 25 |  |  (s) The Prescription Monitoring Program shall regularly  | 
| 26 |  | send electronic updates to the registered users of the  | 
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| 1 |  | Program. The Prescription Monitoring Program Advisory  | 
| 2 |  | Committee shall review any communications sent to registered  | 
| 3 |  | users and also make recommendations for communications as set  | 
| 4 |  | forth in Section 320. These updates shall include the  | 
| 5 |  | following information:  | 
| 6 |  |   (1) opportunities for accredited continuing education  | 
| 7 |  |  programs related to prescribing of controlled substances; | 
| 8 |  |   (2) current clinical guidelines developed by health  | 
| 9 |  |  care professional organizations on the prescribing of  | 
| 10 |  |  opioids or other drugs as determined by the Advisory  | 
| 11 |  |  Committee; | 
| 12 |  |   (3) programs or information developed by health care  | 
| 13 |  |  professionals that may be used to assess patients or help  | 
| 14 |  |  ensure compliance with prescriptions; | 
| 15 |  |   (4) updates from the Food and Drug Administration, the  | 
| 16 |  |  Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, and other  | 
| 17 |  |  public and private organizations which are relevant to  | 
| 18 |  |  prescribing; | 
| 19 |  |   (5) relevant medical studies related to prescribing; | 
| 20 |  |   (6) other information regarding prescribing of  | 
| 21 |  |  controlled substances; | 
| 22 |  |   (7) information regarding prescription drug disposal  | 
| 23 |  |  events, including take-back programs or other disposal  | 
| 24 |  |  options or events; and | 
| 25 |  |   (8) reminders that the Prescription Monitoring Program  | 
| 26 |  |  is a useful clinical tool. | 
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| 1 |  |  (t) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Act,  | 
| 2 |  | neither the Prescription Monitoring Program nor any other  | 
| 3 |  | person shall disclose any information in violation of the  | 
| 4 |  | restrictions and requirements of paragraph (3.5) of subsection  | 
| 5 |  | (a) of Section 316 as implemented under Public Act 102-527.  | 
| 6 |  | (Source: P.A. 102-751, eff. 1-1-23.)
 | 
| 7 |  |  (720 ILCS 570/320) | 
| 8 |  |  Sec. 320. Advisory committee.  | 
| 9 |  |  (a) There is created a Prescription Monitoring Program  | 
| 10 |  | Advisory Committee to assist the Department of Human Services  | 
| 11 |  | and Department of Public Health in implementing the  | 
| 12 |  | Prescription Monitoring Program created by this Article and to  | 
| 13 |  | advise the Department on the professional performance of  | 
| 14 |  | prescribers and dispensers and other matters germane to the  | 
| 15 |  | advisory committee's field of competence. | 
| 16 |  |  (b) The Prescription Monitoring Program Advisory Committee  | 
| 17 |  | shall consist of 15 members appointed by the Clinical Director  | 
| 18 |  | of the Prescription Monitoring Program composed of prescribers  | 
| 19 |  | and dispensers licensed to practice medicine in his or her  | 
| 20 |  | respective profession as follows: one family or primary care  | 
| 21 |  | physician; one pain specialist physician; 4 other physicians,  | 
| 22 |  | one of whom may be an ophthalmologist; 2 advanced practice  | 
| 23 |  | registered nurses; one physician assistant; one optometrist;  | 
| 24 |  | one dentist; one clinical representative from a statewide  | 
| 25 |  | organization representing hospitals; and 3 pharmacists. The  | 
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| 1 |  | Advisory Committee members serving on August 26, 2018 (the  | 
| 2 |  | effective date of Public Act 100-1093) shall continue to serve  | 
| 3 |  | until January 1, 2019. Prescriber and dispenser nominations  | 
| 4 |  | for membership on the Committee shall be submitted by their  | 
| 5 |  | respective professional associations. If there are more  | 
| 6 |  | nominees than membership positions for a prescriber or  | 
| 7 |  | dispenser category, as provided in this subsection (b), the  | 
| 8 |  | Clinical Director of the Prescription Monitoring Program shall  | 
| 9 |  | appoint a member or members for each profession as provided in  | 
| 10 |  | this subsection (b), from the nominations to serve on the  | 
| 11 |  | advisory committee. At the first meeting of the Committee in  | 
| 12 |  | 2019 members shall draw lots for initial terms and 6 members  | 
| 13 |  | shall serve 3 years, 5 members shall serve 2 years, and 5  | 
| 14 |  | members shall serve one year. Thereafter, members shall serve  | 
| 15 |  | 3-year terms. Members may serve more than one term but no more  | 
| 16 |  | than 3 terms. The Clinical Director of the Prescription  | 
| 17 |  | Monitoring Program may appoint a representative of an  | 
| 18 |  | organization representing a profession required to be  | 
| 19 |  | appointed. The Clinical Director of the Prescription  | 
| 20 |  | Monitoring Program shall serve as the Secretary of the  | 
| 21 |  | committee. | 
| 22 |  |  (c) The advisory committee may appoint a chairperson and  | 
| 23 |  | other officers as it deems appropriate. | 
| 24 |  |  (d) The members of the advisory committee shall receive no  | 
| 25 |  | compensation for their services as members of the advisory  | 
| 26 |  | committee, unless appropriated by the General Assembly, but  | 
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| 1 |  | may be reimbursed for their actual expenses incurred in  | 
| 2 |  | serving on the advisory committee. | 
| 3 |  |  (e) The advisory committee shall: | 
| 4 |  |   (1) provide a uniform approach to reviewing this Act  | 
| 5 |  |  in order to determine whether changes should be  | 
| 6 |  |  recommended to the General Assembly; | 
| 7 |  |   (2) review current drug schedules in order to manage  | 
| 8 |  |  changes to the administrative rules pertaining to the  | 
| 9 |  |  utilization of this Act;  | 
| 10 |  |   (3) review the following: current clinical guidelines  | 
| 11 |  |  developed by health care professional organizations on the  | 
| 12 |  |  prescribing of opioids or other controlled substances;  | 
| 13 |  |  accredited continuing education programs related to  | 
| 14 |  |  prescribing and dispensing; programs or information  | 
| 15 |  |  developed by health care professional organizations that  | 
| 16 |  |  may be used to assess patients or help ensure compliance  | 
| 17 |  |  with prescriptions; updates from the Food and Drug  | 
| 18 |  |  Administration, the Centers for Disease Control and  | 
| 19 |  |  Prevention, and other public and private organizations  | 
| 20 |  |  which are relevant to prescribing and dispensing; relevant  | 
| 21 |  |  medical studies; and other publications which involve the  | 
| 22 |  |  prescription of controlled substances; | 
| 23 |  |   (4) make recommendations for inclusion of these  | 
| 24 |  |  materials or other studies which may be effective  | 
| 25 |  |  resources for prescribers and dispensers on the Internet  | 
| 26 |  |  website of the inquiry system established under Section  | 
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| 1 |  |  318; | 
| 2 |  |   (5) semi-annually review the content of the Internet  | 
| 3 |  |  website of the inquiry system established pursuant to  | 
| 4 |  |  Section 318 to ensure this Internet website has the most  | 
| 5 |  |  current available information; | 
| 6 |  |   (6) semi-annually review opportunities for federal  | 
| 7 |  |  grants and other forms of funding to support projects  | 
| 8 |  |  which will increase the number of pilot programs which  | 
| 9 |  |  integrate the inquiry system with electronic health  | 
| 10 |  |  records; and  | 
| 11 |  |   (7) semi-annually review communication to be sent to  | 
| 12 |  |  all registered users of the inquiry system established  | 
| 13 |  |  pursuant to Section 318, including recommendations for  | 
| 14 |  |  relevant accredited continuing education and information  | 
| 15 |  |  regarding prescribing and dispensing.  | 
| 16 |  |  (f) The Advisory Committee shall select from its members  | 
| 17 |  | 10 members of the Peer Review Committee composed of: | 
| 18 |  |   (1) 3 physicians;  | 
| 19 |  |   (2) 3 pharmacists;  | 
| 20 |  |   (3) one dentist;  | 
| 21 |  |   (4) one advanced practice registered nurse;  | 
| 22 |  |   (4.5) (blank);  | 
| 23 |  |   (5) one physician assistant; and  | 
| 24 |  |   (6) one optometrist.  | 
| 25 |  |  The purpose of the Peer Review Committee is to establish a  | 
| 26 |  | formal peer review of professional performance of prescribers  | 
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| 1 |  | and dispensers. The deliberations, information, and  | 
| 2 |  | communications of the Peer Review Committee are privileged and  | 
| 3 |  | confidential and shall not be disclosed in any manner except  | 
| 4 |  | in accordance with current law.  | 
| 5 |  |   (1) The Peer Review Committee shall periodically  | 
| 6 |  |  review the data contained within the prescription  | 
| 7 |  |  monitoring program to identify those prescribers or  | 
| 8 |  |  dispensers who may be prescribing or dispensing outside  | 
| 9 |  |  the currently accepted standard and practice of their  | 
| 10 |  |  profession. The Peer Review Committee member, whose  | 
| 11 |  |  profession is the same as the prescriber or dispenser  | 
| 12 |  |  being reviewed, shall prepare a preliminary report and  | 
| 13 |  |  recommendation for any non-action or action. The  | 
| 14 |  |  Prescription Monitoring Program Clinical Director and  | 
| 15 |  |  staff shall provide the necessary assistance and data as  | 
| 16 |  |  required.  | 
| 17 |  |   (2) The Peer Review Committee may identify prescribers  | 
| 18 |  |  or dispensers who may be prescribing outside the currently  | 
| 19 |  |  accepted medical standards in the course of their  | 
| 20 |  |  professional practice and send the identified prescriber  | 
| 21 |  |  or dispenser a request for information regarding their  | 
| 22 |  |  prescribing or dispensing practices. This request for  | 
| 23 |  |  information shall be sent via certified mail, return  | 
| 24 |  |  receipt requested. A prescriber or dispenser shall have 30  | 
| 25 |  |  days to respond to the request for information.  | 
| 26 |  |   (3) The Peer Review Committee shall refer a prescriber  | 
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| 1 |  |  or a dispenser to the Department of Financial and  | 
| 2 |  |  Professional Regulation in the following situations:  | 
| 3 |  |    (i) if a prescriber or dispenser does not respond  | 
| 4 |  |  to three successive requests for information; | 
| 5 |  |    (ii) in the opinion of a majority of members of the  | 
| 6 |  |  Peer Review Committee, the prescriber or dispenser  | 
| 7 |  |  does not have a satisfactory explanation for the  | 
| 8 |  |  practices identified by the Peer Review Committee in  | 
| 9 |  |  its request for information; or | 
| 10 |  |    (iii) following communications with the Peer  | 
| 11 |  |  Review Committee, the prescriber or dispenser does not  | 
| 12 |  |  sufficiently rectify the practices identified in the  | 
| 13 |  |  request for information in the opinion of a majority  | 
| 14 |  |  of the members of the Peer Review Committee.  | 
| 15 |  |   (4) The Department of Financial and Professional  | 
| 16 |  |  Regulation may initiate an investigation and discipline in  | 
| 17 |  |  accordance with current laws and rules for any prescriber  | 
| 18 |  |  or dispenser referred by the Peer Review Committee.  | 
| 19 |  |   (5) The Peer Review Committee shall prepare an annual  | 
| 20 |  |  report starting on July 1, 2017. This report shall contain  | 
| 21 |  |  the following information: the number of times the Peer  | 
| 22 |  |  Review Committee was convened; the number of prescribers  | 
| 23 |  |  or dispensers who were reviewed by the Peer Review  | 
| 24 |  |  Committee; the number of requests for information sent out  | 
| 25 |  |  by the Peer Review Committee; and the number of  | 
| 26 |  |  prescribers or dispensers referred to the Department of  | 
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| 1 |  |  Financial and Professional Regulation. The annual report  | 
| 2 |  |  shall be delivered electronically to the Department and to  | 
| 3 |  |  the General Assembly. The report to the General Assembly  | 
| 4 |  |  shall be filed with the Clerk of the House of  | 
| 5 |  |  Representatives and the Secretary of the Senate in  | 
| 6 |  |  electronic form only, in the manner that the Clerk and the  | 
| 7 |  |  Secretary shall direct. The report prepared by the Peer  | 
| 8 |  |  Review Committee shall not identify any prescriber,  | 
| 9 |  |  dispenser, or patient.  | 
| 10 |  | (Source: P.A. 100-513, eff. 1-1-18; 100-861, eff. 8-14-18;  | 
| 11 |  | 100-1093, eff. 8-26-18;101-81, eff. 7-12-19; 101-414, eff.  | 
| 12 |  | 8-16-19.)
 | 
| 13 |  |  (720 ILCS 570/410) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 1410) | 
| 14 |  |  Sec. 410. (a) Whenever any person who has not previously  | 
| 15 |  | been convicted of any felony offense under this Act or any law  | 
| 16 |  | of the United States or of any State relating to cannabis or  | 
| 17 |  | controlled substances, pleads guilty to or is found guilty of  | 
| 18 |  | possession of a controlled or counterfeit substance under  | 
| 19 |  | subsection (c) of Section 402 or of unauthorized possession of  | 
| 20 |  | prescription form under Section 406.2, the court, without  | 
| 21 |  | entering a judgment and with the consent of such person, may  | 
| 22 |  | sentence him or her to probation. | 
| 23 |  |  (b) When a person is placed on probation, the court shall  | 
| 24 |  | enter an order specifying a period of probation of 24 months  | 
| 25 |  | and shall defer further proceedings in the case until the  | 
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| 1 |  | conclusion of the period or until the filing of a petition  | 
| 2 |  | alleging violation of a term or condition of probation. | 
| 3 |  |  (c) The conditions of probation shall be that the person:  | 
| 4 |  | (1) not violate any criminal statute of any jurisdiction; (2)  | 
| 5 |  | refrain from possessing a firearm or other dangerous weapon;  | 
| 6 |  | (3) submit to periodic drug testing at a time and in a manner  | 
| 7 |  | as ordered by the court, but no less than 3 times during the  | 
| 8 |  | period of the probation, with the cost of the testing to be  | 
| 9 |  | paid by the probationer; and (4) perform no less than 30 hours  | 
| 10 |  | of community service, provided community service is available  | 
| 11 |  | in the jurisdiction and is funded and approved by the county  | 
| 12 |  | board. The court may give credit toward the fulfillment of  | 
| 13 |  | community service hours for participation in activities and  | 
| 14 |  | treatment as determined by court services.  | 
| 15 |  |  (d) The court may, in addition to other conditions,  | 
| 16 |  | require that the person: | 
| 17 |  |   (1) make a report to and appear in person before or  | 
| 18 |  |  participate with the court or such courts, person, or  | 
| 19 |  |  social service agency as directed by the court in the  | 
| 20 |  |  order of probation; | 
| 21 |  |   (2) pay a fine and costs; | 
| 22 |  |   (3) work or pursue a course of study or vocational  | 
| 23 |  |  training; | 
| 24 |  |   (4) undergo medical or psychiatric treatment; or  | 
| 25 |  |  treatment or rehabilitation approved by the Illinois  | 
| 26 |  |  Department of Human Services; | 
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| 1 |  |   (5) attend or reside in a facility established for the  | 
| 2 |  |  instruction or residence of defendants on probation; | 
| 3 |  |   (6) support his or her dependents; | 
| 4 |  |   (6-5) refrain from having in his or her body the  | 
| 5 |  |  presence of any illicit drug prohibited by the Cannabis  | 
| 6 |  |  Control Act, the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or  | 
| 7 |  |  the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act,  | 
| 8 |  |  unless prescribed by a physician, and submit samples of  | 
| 9 |  |  his or her blood or urine or both for tests to determine  | 
| 10 |  |  the presence of any illicit drug; | 
| 11 |  |   (7) and in addition, if a minor: | 
| 12 |  |    (i) reside with his or her parents or in a foster  | 
| 13 |  |  home; | 
| 14 |  |    (ii) attend school; | 
| 15 |  |    (iii) attend a non-residential program for youth; | 
| 16 |  |    (iv) contribute to his or her own support at home  | 
| 17 |  |  or in a foster home. | 
| 18 |  |  (e) Upon violation of a term or condition of probation,  | 
| 19 |  | the court may enter a judgment on its original finding of guilt  | 
| 20 |  | and proceed as otherwise provided. | 
| 21 |  |  (f) Upon fulfillment of the terms and conditions of  | 
| 22 |  | probation, the court shall discharge the person and dismiss  | 
| 23 |  | the proceedings against him or her. | 
| 24 |  |  (g) A disposition of probation is considered to be a  | 
| 25 |  | conviction for the purposes of imposing the conditions of  | 
| 26 |  | probation and for appeal, however, discharge and dismissal  | 
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| 1 |  | under this Section is not a conviction for purposes of this Act  | 
| 2 |  | or for purposes of disqualifications or disabilities imposed  | 
| 3 |  | by law upon conviction of a crime. | 
| 4 |  |  (h) A person may not have more than one discharge and  | 
| 5 |  | dismissal under this Section within a 4-year period. | 
| 6 |  |  (i) If a person is convicted of an offense under this Act,  | 
| 7 |  | the Cannabis Control Act, or the Methamphetamine Control and  | 
| 8 |  | Community Protection Act within 5 years subsequent to a  | 
| 9 |  | discharge and dismissal under this Section, the discharge and  | 
| 10 |  | dismissal under this Section shall be admissible in the  | 
| 11 |  | sentencing proceeding for that conviction as evidence in  | 
| 12 |  | aggravation. | 
| 13 |  |  (j) Notwithstanding subsection (a), before a person is  | 
| 14 |  | sentenced to probation under this Section, the court may refer  | 
| 15 |  | the person to the drug court established in that judicial  | 
| 16 |  | circuit pursuant to Section 15 of the Drug Court Treatment  | 
| 17 |  | Act. The drug court team shall evaluate the person's  | 
| 18 |  | likelihood of successfully completing a sentence of probation  | 
| 19 |  | under this Section and shall report the results of its  | 
| 20 |  | evaluation to the court. If the drug court team finds that the  | 
| 21 |  | person suffers from a substance use disorder abuse problem  | 
| 22 |  | that makes him or her substantially unlikely to successfully  | 
| 23 |  | complete a sentence of probation under this Section, then the  | 
| 24 |  | drug court shall set forth its findings in the form of a  | 
| 25 |  | written order, and the person shall not be sentenced to  | 
| 26 |  | probation under this Section, but shall be considered for the  | 
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| 1 |  | drug court program. | 
| 2 |  | (Source: P.A. 99-480, eff. 9-9-15; 100-3, eff. 1-1-18;  | 
| 3 |  | 100-575, eff. 1-8-18.)
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| 4 |  |  (720 ILCS 570/411.2) | 
| 5 |  |  Sec. 411.2. Drug Treatment Fund; drug treatment grants.  | 
| 6 |  |  (a) (Blank). | 
| 7 |  |  (b) (Blank). | 
| 8 |  |  (c) (Blank). | 
| 9 |  |  (d) (Blank). | 
| 10 |  |  (e) (Blank). | 
| 11 |  |  (f) (Blank). | 
| 12 |  |  (g) (Blank). | 
| 13 |  |  (h) The Drug Treatment Fund is hereby established as a  | 
| 14 |  | special fund within the State Treasury. The Department of  | 
| 15 |  | Human Services may make grants to persons licensed under  | 
| 16 |  | Section 15-10 of the Substance Use Disorder Act or to  | 
| 17 |  | municipalities or counties from funds appropriated to the  | 
| 18 |  | Department from the Drug Treatment Fund for the treatment of  | 
| 19 |  | pregnant women who have a substance use disorder are addicted  | 
| 20 |  | to alcohol, cannabis, or controlled substances and for the  | 
| 21 |  | needed care of minor, unemancipated children of women  | 
| 22 |  | undergoing residential drug treatment. If the Department of  | 
| 23 |  | Human Services grants funds to a municipality or a county that  | 
| 24 |  | the Department determines is not experiencing a healthcare  | 
| 25 |  | need of problem with pregnant women with a substance use  | 
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| 1 |  | disorder addicted to alcohol, cannabis, or controlled  | 
| 2 |  | substances, or with care for minor, unemancipated children of  | 
| 3 |  | women undergoing residential drug treatment, or intervention,  | 
| 4 |  | the funds shall be used for the treatment of any person with a  | 
| 5 |  | substance use disorder addicted to alcohol, cannabis, or  | 
| 6 |  | controlled substances. The Department may adopt such rules as  | 
| 7 |  | it deems appropriate for the administration of such grants. | 
| 8 |  |  (i) (Blank). | 
| 9 |  | (Source: P.A. 100-759, eff. 1-1-19; 100-987, eff. 7-1-19;  | 
| 10 |  | 101-81, eff. 7-12-19.)
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| 11 |  |  (720 ILCS 570/413) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 1413) | 
| 12 |  |  Sec. 413. (a) Twelve and one-half percent of all amounts  | 
| 13 |  | collected as fines pursuant to the provisions of this Article  | 
| 14 |  | shall be paid into the Youth Drug Abuse Prevention Fund, which  | 
| 15 |  | is hereby created in the State treasury, to be used by the  | 
| 16 |  | Department for the funding of programs and services for  | 
| 17 |  | substance use disorder drug-abuse treatment, and prevention  | 
| 18 |  | and education services, for juveniles. | 
| 19 |  |  (b) Eighty-seven and one-half percent of the proceeds of  | 
| 20 |  | all fines received under the provisions of this Article shall  | 
| 21 |  | be transmitted to and deposited in the treasurer's office at  | 
| 22 |  | the level of government as follows:  | 
| 23 |  |   (1) If such seizure was made by a combination of law  | 
| 24 |  |  enforcement personnel representing differing units of  | 
| 25 |  |  local government, the court levying the fine shall  | 
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| 1 |  |  equitably allocate 50% of the fine among these units of  | 
| 2 |  |  local government and shall allocate 37 1/2% to the county  | 
| 3 |  |  general corporate fund. In the event that the seizure was  | 
| 4 |  |  made by law enforcement personnel representing a unit of  | 
| 5 |  |  local government from a municipality where the number of  | 
| 6 |  |  inhabitants exceeds 2 million in population, the court  | 
| 7 |  |  levying the fine shall allocate 87 1/2% of the fine to that  | 
| 8 |  |  unit of local government. If the seizure was made by a  | 
| 9 |  |  combination of law enforcement personnel representing  | 
| 10 |  |  differing units of local government, and at least one of  | 
| 11 |  |  those units represents a municipality where the number of  | 
| 12 |  |  inhabitants exceeds 2 million in population, the court  | 
| 13 |  |  shall equitably allocate 87 1/2% of the proceeds of the  | 
| 14 |  |  fines received among the differing units of local  | 
| 15 |  |  government.  | 
| 16 |  |   (2) If such seizure was made by State law enforcement  | 
| 17 |  |  personnel, then the court shall allocate 37 1/2% to the  | 
| 18 |  |  State treasury and 50% to the county general corporate  | 
| 19 |  |  fund.  | 
| 20 |  |   (3) If a State law enforcement agency in combination  | 
| 21 |  |  with a law enforcement agency or agencies of a unit or  | 
| 22 |  |  units of local government conducted the seizure, the court  | 
| 23 |  |  shall equitably allocate 37 1/2% of the fines to or among  | 
| 24 |  |  the law enforcement agency or agencies of the unit or  | 
| 25 |  |  units of local government which conducted the seizure and  | 
| 26 |  |  shall allocate 50% to the county general corporate fund. | 
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| 1 |  |  (c) The proceeds of all fines allocated to the law  | 
| 2 |  | enforcement agency or agencies of the unit or units of local  | 
| 3 |  | government pursuant to subsection (b) shall be made available  | 
| 4 |  | to that law enforcement agency as expendable receipts for use  | 
| 5 |  | in the enforcement of laws regulating cannabis,  | 
| 6 |  | methamphetamine, and other controlled substances. The proceeds  | 
| 7 |  | of fines awarded to the State treasury shall be deposited in a  | 
| 8 |  | special fund known as the Drug Traffic Prevention Fund, except  | 
| 9 |  | that amounts distributed to the Secretary of State shall be  | 
| 10 |  | deposited into the Secretary of State Evidence Fund to be used  | 
| 11 |  | as provided in Section 2-115 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.  | 
| 12 |  | Monies from this fund may be used by the Illinois State Police  | 
| 13 |  | or use in the enforcement of laws regulating cannabis,  | 
| 14 |  | methamphetamine, and other controlled substances; to satisfy  | 
| 15 |  | funding provisions of the Intergovernmental Drug Laws  | 
| 16 |  | Enforcement Act; to defray costs and expenses associated with  | 
| 17 |  | returning violators of the Cannabis Control Act and this Act  | 
| 18 |  | only, as provided in those Acts, when punishment of the crime  | 
| 19 |  | shall be confinement of the criminal in the penitentiary; and  | 
| 20 |  | all other monies shall be paid into the general revenue fund in  | 
| 21 |  | the State treasury. | 
| 22 |  | (Source: P.A. 97-334, eff. 1-1-12.)
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| 23 |  |  (720 ILCS 570/504) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 1504) | 
| 24 |  |  Sec. 504. (a) The Director and the Secretary of the  | 
| 25 |  | Department of Financial and Professional Regulation shall each  | 
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| 1 |  | cooperate with Federal agencies and other State agencies in  | 
| 2 |  | discharging his or her responsibilities concerning traffic in  | 
| 3 |  | controlled substances and in suppressing the misuse and abuse  | 
| 4 |  | of controlled substances. To this end he or she may: | 
| 5 |  |   (1) arrange for the exchange of information among  | 
| 6 |  |  governmental officials concerning the use and misuse ,  | 
| 7 |  |  misuse and abuse of controlled substances; | 
| 8 |  |   (2) coordinate and cooperate in training programs  | 
| 9 |  |  concerning controlled substance law enforcement at local  | 
| 10 |  |  and State levels; | 
| 11 |  |   (3) cooperate with the federal Drug Enforcement  | 
| 12 |  |  Administration or its successor agency; and | 
| 13 |  |   (4) conduct programs of eradication aimed at  | 
| 14 |  |  destroying wild illicit growth of plant species from which  | 
| 15 |  |  controlled substances may be extracted. | 
| 16 |  |  (b) Results, information, and evidence received from the  | 
| 17 |  | Drug Enforcement Administration relating to the regulatory  | 
| 18 |  | functions of this Act, including results of inspections  | 
| 19 |  | conducted by it may be relied and acted upon by the Director  | 
| 20 |  | and the Secretary of the Department of Financial and  | 
| 21 |  | Professional Regulation in the exercise of their regulatory  | 
| 22 |  | functions under this Act. | 
| 23 |  | (Source: P.A. 97-334, eff. 1-1-12.)
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| 24 |  |  (720 ILCS 570/508) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 1508) | 
| 25 |  |  Sec. 508. (a) The Department shall encourage research on  | 
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| 1 |  | controlled substances. In connection with the research, and in  | 
| 2 |  | furtherance of the purposes of this Act, the Department may: | 
| 3 |  |   (1) establish methods to assess accurately the effect  | 
| 4 |  |  of controlled substances and identify and characterize  | 
| 5 |  |  those with potential for misuse abuse; | 
| 6 |  |   (2) make studies and undertake programs of research  | 
| 7 |  |  to: | 
| 8 |  |    (i) develop new or improved approaches,  | 
| 9 |  |  techniques, systems, equipment and devices to  | 
| 10 |  |  strengthen the enforcement of this Act; | 
| 11 |  |    (ii) determine patterns of use and misuse , misuse,  | 
| 12 |  |  and abuse of controlled substances and their social  | 
| 13 |  |  effects; and | 
| 14 |  |    (iii) improve methods for preventing, predicting,  | 
| 15 |  |  understanding, and dealing with the use and misuse ,  | 
| 16 |  |  misuse and abuse of controlled substances; and | 
| 17 |  |   (3) enter into contracts with public agencies,  | 
| 18 |  |  educational institutions, and private organizations or  | 
| 19 |  |  individuals for the purpose of conducting research,  | 
| 20 |  |  demonstrations, or special projects which relate to the  | 
| 21 |  |  use and misuse , misuse and abuse of controlled substances. | 
| 22 |  |  (b) Persons authorized to engage in research may be  | 
| 23 |  | authorized by the Department to protect the privacy of  | 
| 24 |  | individuals who are the subjects of such research by  | 
| 25 |  | withholding from all persons not connected with the conduct of  | 
| 26 |  | the research the names and other identifying characteristics  | 
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| 1 |  | of such individuals. Persons who are given this authorization  | 
| 2 |  | shall not be compelled in any civil, criminal, administrative,  | 
| 3 |  | legislative or other proceeding to identify the individuals  | 
| 4 |  | who are the subjects of research for which the authorization  | 
| 5 |  | was granted, except to the extent necessary to permit the  | 
| 6 |  | Department to determine whether the research is being  | 
| 7 |  | conducted in accordance with the authorization. | 
| 8 |  |  (c) The Department may authorize the possession and  | 
| 9 |  | dispensing of controlled substances by persons engaged in  | 
| 10 |  | research, upon such terms and conditions as may be consistent  | 
| 11 |  | with the public health and safety. The Department may also  | 
| 12 |  | approve research and treatment programs involving the  | 
| 13 |  | administration of Methadone. The use of Methadone, or any  | 
| 14 |  | similar controlled substance by any person is prohibited in  | 
| 15 |  | this State except as approved and authorized by the Department  | 
| 16 |  | in accordance with its rules and regulations. To the extent of  | 
| 17 |  | the applicable authorization, persons are exempt from  | 
| 18 |  | prosecution in this State for possession, manufacture or  | 
| 19 |  | delivery of controlled substances. | 
| 20 |  |  (d) Practitioners registered under Federal law to conduct  | 
| 21 |  | research with Schedule I substances may conduct research with  | 
| 22 |  | Schedule I substances within this State upon furnishing  | 
| 23 |  | evidence of that Federal registration and notification of the  | 
| 24 |  | scope and purpose of such research to the Department. | 
| 25 |  | (Source: P.A. 96-328, eff. 8-11-09.)
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| 1 |  |  (720 ILCS 570/509) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 1509) | 
| 2 |  |  Sec. 509. Whenever any court in this State grants  | 
| 3 |  | probation to any person that the court has reason to believe is  | 
| 4 |  | or has a substance use disorder been an addict or unlawful  | 
| 5 |  | possessor of controlled substances, the court shall require,  | 
| 6 |  | as a condition of probation, that the probationer submit to  | 
| 7 |  | periodic tests by the Department of Corrections to determine  | 
| 8 |  | by means of appropriate chemical detection tests whether the  | 
| 9 |  | probationer is using controlled substances. The court may  | 
| 10 |  | require as a condition of probation that the probationer enter  | 
| 11 |  | an approved treatment program, if the court determines that  | 
| 12 |  | the probationer has a substance use disorder of is addicted to  | 
| 13 |  | a controlled substance. Whenever the Prisoner Review Board  | 
| 14 |  | grants parole or the Department of Juvenile Justice grants  | 
| 15 |  | aftercare release to a person believed to have been an  | 
| 16 |  | unlawful possessor or person with a substance use disorder  | 
| 17 |  | addict of controlled substances, the Board or Department shall  | 
| 18 |  | require as a condition of parole or aftercare release that the  | 
| 19 |  | parolee or aftercare releasee submit to appropriate periodic  | 
| 20 |  | chemical tests by the Department of Corrections or the  | 
| 21 |  | Department of Juvenile Justice to determine whether the  | 
| 22 |  | parolee or aftercare releasee is using controlled substances. | 
| 23 |  | (Source: P.A. 98-558, eff. 1-1-14; 99-628, eff. 1-1-17.)
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