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1 | | (Source: P.A. 95-187, eff. 8-16-07; 95-235, eff. 8-17-07; |
2 | | 95-450, eff. 8-27-07; 95-465, eff. 8-27-07; 95-617, eff. |
3 | | 9-12-07; 95-639, eff. 10-5-07; 95-687, eff. 10-23-07; 95-689, |
4 | | eff. 10-29-07; 95-703, eff. 12-31-07; 95-876, eff. 8-21-08; |
5 | | 96-328, eff. 8-11-09.)
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6 | | (5 ILCS 80/4.38 new) |
7 | | Sec. 4.38. Act repealed on January 1, 2028. The following |
8 | | Act is repealed on January 1, 2028: |
9 | | The Nurse Practice Act.
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10 | | Section 10. The State Employees Group Insurance Act of 1971 |
11 | | is amended by changing Section 6.11A as follows:
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12 | | (5 ILCS 375/6.11A) |
13 | | Sec. 6.11A. Physical therapy and occupational therapy. |
14 | | (a) The program of health benefits provided under this Act |
15 | | shall provide coverage for medically necessary physical |
16 | | therapy and occupational therapy when that therapy is ordered |
17 | | for the treatment of autoimmune diseases or referred for the |
18 | | same purpose by (i) a physician licensed under the Medical |
19 | | Practice Act of 1987, (ii) a physician assistant licensed under |
20 | | the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987, or (iii) an |
21 | | advanced practice registered nurse licensed under the Nurse |
22 | | Practice Act. |
23 | | (b) For the purpose of this Section, "medically necessary" |
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1 | | means any care, treatment, intervention, service, or item that |
2 | | will or is reasonably expected to: |
3 | | (i) prevent the onset of an illness, condition, injury, |
4 | | disease, or disability; |
5 | | (ii) reduce or ameliorate the physical, mental, or |
6 | | developmental effects of an illness, condition, injury, |
7 | | disease, or disability; or |
8 | | (iii) assist the achievement or maintenance of maximum |
9 | | functional activity in performing daily activities. |
10 | | (c) The coverage required under this Section shall be |
11 | | subject to the same deductible, coinsurance, waiting period, |
12 | | cost sharing limitation, treatment limitation, calendar year |
13 | | maximum, or other limitations as provided for other physical or |
14 | | rehabilitative or occupational therapy benefits covered by the |
15 | | policy. |
16 | | (d) Upon request of the reimbursing insurer, the provider |
17 | | of the physical therapy or occupational therapy shall furnish |
18 | | medical records, clinical notes, or other necessary data that |
19 | | substantiate that initial or continued treatment is medically |
20 | | necessary. When treatment is anticipated to require continued |
21 | | services to achieve demonstrable progress, the insurer may |
22 | | request a treatment plan consisting of the diagnosis, proposed |
23 | | treatment by type, proposed frequency of treatment, |
24 | | anticipated duration of treatment, anticipated outcomes stated |
25 | | as goals, and proposed frequency of updating the treatment |
26 | | plan. |
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1 | | (e) When making a determination of medical necessity for |
2 | | treatment, an insurer must make the determination in a manner |
3 | | consistent with the manner in which that determination is made |
4 | | with respect to other diseases or illnesses covered under the |
5 | | policy, including an appeals process. During the appeals |
6 | | process, any challenge to medical necessity may be viewed as |
7 | | reasonable only if the review includes a licensed health care |
8 | | professional with the same category of license as the |
9 | | professional who ordered or referred the service in question |
10 | | and with expertise in the most current and effective treatment.
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11 | | (Source: P.A. 99-581, eff. 1-1-17 .)
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12 | | Section 15. The Election Code is amended by changing |
13 | | Sections 19-12.1 and 19-13 as follows:
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14 | | (10 ILCS 5/19-12.1) (from Ch. 46, par. 19-12.1)
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15 | | Sec. 19-12.1.
Any qualified elector who has secured an |
16 | | Illinois
Person with a Disability Identification Card in |
17 | | accordance with the Illinois
Identification Card Act, |
18 | | indicating that the person named thereon has a Class
1A or |
19 | | Class 2 disability or any qualified voter who has a permanent |
20 | | physical
incapacity of such a nature as to make it improbable |
21 | | that he will be
able to be present at the polls at any future |
22 | | election, or any
voter who is a resident of (i) a federally |
23 | | operated veterans' home, hospital, or facility located in |
24 | | Illinois or (ii) a facility licensed or certified pursuant to
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1 | | the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health |
2 | | Rehabilitation Act of 2013, the ID/DD Community Care Act, or |
3 | | the MC/DD Act and has a condition or disability of
such a |
4 | | nature as to make it improbable that he will be able to be |
5 | | present
at the polls at any future election, may secure a |
6 | | voter's identification card for persons with disabilities or a
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7 | | nursing home resident's identification card, which will enable |
8 | | him to vote
under this Article as a physically incapacitated or |
9 | | nursing home voter. For the purposes of this Section, |
10 | | "federally operated veterans' home, hospital, or facility" |
11 | | means the long-term care facilities at the Jesse Brown VA |
12 | | Medical Center, Illiana Health Care System, Edward Hines, Jr. |
13 | | VA Hospital, Marion VA Medical Center, and Captain James A. |
14 | | Lovell Federal Health Care Center.
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15 | | Application for a voter's identification card for persons |
16 | | with disabilities or a nursing home resident's
identification |
17 | | card shall be made either: (a) in writing, with voter's
sworn |
18 | | affidavit, to the county clerk or board of election |
19 | | commissioners, as
the case may be, and shall be accompanied
by |
20 | | the affidavit of the attending physician, advanced practice |
21 | | registered nurse, or a physician assistant specifically |
22 | | describing the
nature of the physical incapacity or the fact |
23 | | that the voter is a nursing
home resident and is physically |
24 | | unable to be present at the polls on election
days; or (b) by |
25 | | presenting, in writing or otherwise, to the county clerk
or |
26 | | board of election commissioners, as the case may be, proof that |
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1 | | the
applicant has secured an Illinois Person with a Disability |
2 | | Identification Card
indicating that the person named thereon |
3 | | has a Class 1A or Class 2 disability.
Upon the receipt of |
4 | | either the sworn-to
application and the physician's, advanced |
5 | | practice registered nurse's, or a physician assistant's |
6 | | affidavit or proof that the applicant has
secured an Illinois |
7 | | Person with a Disability Identification Card indicating that |
8 | | the
person named thereon has a Class 1A or Class 2 disability, |
9 | | the county clerk
or board of election commissioners shall issue |
10 | | a voter's identification card for persons with disabilities or |
11 | | a
nursing home resident's identification
card. Such |
12 | | identification cards shall be issued for a
period of 5 years, |
13 | | upon the expiration of which time the voter may
secure a new |
14 | | card by making application in the same manner as is
prescribed |
15 | | for the issuance of an original card, accompanied by a new
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16 | | affidavit of the attending physician, advanced practice |
17 | | registered nurse, or a physician assistant. The date of |
18 | | expiration of such
five-year period shall be made known to any |
19 | | interested person by the
election authority upon the request of |
20 | | such person. Applications for the
renewal of the identification |
21 | | cards shall be mailed to the voters holding
such cards not less |
22 | | than 3 months prior to the date of expiration of the cards.
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23 | | Each voter's identification card for persons with |
24 | | disabilities or nursing home resident's identification card
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25 | | shall bear an identification number, which shall be clearly |
26 | | noted on the voter's
original and duplicate registration record |
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1 | | cards. In the event the
holder becomes physically capable of |
2 | | resuming normal voting, he must
surrender his voter's |
3 | | identification card for persons with disabilities or nursing |
4 | | home resident's identification
card to the county clerk or |
5 | | board of election commissioners before the next election.
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6 | | The holder of a voter's identification card for persons |
7 | | with disabilities or a nursing home resident's
identification |
8 | | card may make application by mail for an official ballot
within |
9 | | the time prescribed by Section 19-2. Such application shall |
10 | | contain
the same information as is
included in the form of |
11 | | application for ballot by a physically
incapacitated elector |
12 | | prescribed in Section 19-3 except that it shall
also include |
13 | | the applicant's voter's identification card for persons with |
14 | | disabilities card number
and except that it need not be sworn |
15 | | to. If an examination of the records
discloses that the |
16 | | applicant is lawfully entitled to vote, he shall be
mailed a |
17 | | ballot as provided in Section 19-4. The ballot envelope shall
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18 | | be the same as that prescribed in Section 19-5 for voters with |
19 | | physical disabilities, and the manner of voting and returning |
20 | | the ballot shall be the
same as that provided in this Article |
21 | | for other vote by mail ballots, except
that a statement to be |
22 | | subscribed to by the voter but which need not be
sworn to shall |
23 | | be placed on the ballot envelope in lieu of the affidavit
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24 | | prescribed by Section 19-5.
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25 | | Any person who knowingly subscribes to a false statement in
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26 | | connection with voting under this Section shall be guilty of a |
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1 | | Class A
misdemeanor.
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2 | | For the purposes of this Section, "nursing home resident" |
3 | | includes a resident of (i) a federally operated veterans' home, |
4 | | hospital, or facility located in Illinois or (ii) a facility |
5 | | licensed under the ID/DD Community Care Act, the MC/DD Act, or |
6 | | the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013. For |
7 | | the purposes of this Section, "federally operated veterans' |
8 | | home, hospital, or facility" means the long-term care |
9 | | facilities at the Jesse Brown VA Medical Center, Illiana Health |
10 | | Care System, Edward Hines, Jr. VA Hospital, Marion VA Medical |
11 | | Center, and Captain James A. Lovell Federal Health Care Center. |
12 | | (Source: P.A. 98-104, eff. 7-22-13; 98-1171, eff. 6-1-15; |
13 | | 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; 99-180, eff. 7-29-15; 99-581, eff. |
14 | | 1-1-17; 99-642, eff. 6-28-16 .)
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15 | | (10 ILCS 5/19-13) (from Ch. 46, par. 19-13)
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16 | | Sec. 19-13. Any qualified voter who has been admitted to a |
17 | | hospital, nursing home, or rehabilitation center
due to an |
18 | | illness or physical injury not more than 14 days before an |
19 | | election
shall be entitled to personal delivery of a vote by |
20 | | mail ballot in the hospital, nursing home, or rehabilitation |
21 | | center
subject to the following conditions:
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22 | | (1) The voter completes the Application for Physically |
23 | | Incapacitated
Elector as provided in Section 19-3, stating as |
24 | | reasons therein that he is
a patient in ............... (name |
25 | | of hospital/home/center), ............... located
at, |
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1 | | ............... (address of hospital/home/center), |
2 | | ............... (county,
city/village), was admitted for |
3 | | ............... (nature of illness or
physical injury), on |
4 | | ............... (date of admission), and does not
expect to be |
5 | | released from the hospital/home/center on or before the day of |
6 | | election or, if released, is expected to be homebound on the |
7 | | day of the election and unable to travel to the polling place.
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8 | | (2) The voter's physician, advanced practice registered |
9 | | nurse, or physician assistant completes a Certificate of |
10 | | Attending Health Care Professional
in a form substantially as |
11 | | follows:
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12 | | CERTIFICATE OF ATTENDING HEALTH CARE PROFESSIONAL
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13 | | I state that I am a physician, advanced practice registered |
14 | | nurse, or physician assistant, duly licensed to practice in the |
15 | | State of
.........; that .......... is a patient in .......... |
16 | | (name of hospital/home/center),
located at ............. |
17 | | (address of hospital/home/center), ................. (county,
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18 | | city/village); that such individual was admitted for |
19 | | ............. (nature
of illness or physical injury), on |
20 | | ............ (date of admission); and
that I have examined such |
21 | | individual in the State in which I am licensed
to practice and |
22 | | do not expect such individual to be released from
the |
23 | | hospital/home/center on or before the day of election or, if |
24 | | released, to be able to travel to the polling place on election |
25 | | day.
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26 | | Under penalties as provided by law pursuant to Section |
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1 | | 29-10 of The Election
Code, the undersigned certifies that the |
2 | | statements set forth in this
certification are true and |
3 | | correct.
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4 | | (Signature) ...............
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5 | | (Date licensed) ............
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6 | | (3) Any person who is registered to vote in the same |
7 | | precinct as the admitted voter or any legal relative of the |
8 | | admitted voter may
present such voter's vote by mail ballot |
9 | | application, completed as prescribed
in paragraph 1, |
10 | | accompanied by the physician's, advanced practice registered |
11 | | nurse's, or a physician assistant's certificate, completed as
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12 | | prescribed in paragraph 2, to the election authority.
Such |
13 | | precinct voter or relative shall execute and sign an affidavit |
14 | | furnished
by the election authority attesting that he is a |
15 | | registered voter in the
same precinct as the admitted voter or |
16 | | that he is a legal relative of
the admitted voter and stating |
17 | | the nature of the
relationship. Such precinct voter or relative |
18 | | shall further attest that
he has been authorized by the |
19 | | admitted voter to obtain his or her vote by mail ballot
from |
20 | | the election authority and deliver such ballot to him in the |
21 | | hospital, home, or center.
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22 | | Upon receipt of the admitted voter's application, |
23 | | physician's, advanced practice registered nurse's, or a |
24 | | physician assistant's
certificate, and the affidavit of the |
25 | | precinct voter or the relative, the
election authority shall |
26 | | examine the registration records to determine if
the applicant |
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1 | | is qualified to vote and, if found to be qualified, shall
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2 | | provide the precinct voter or the relative the vote by mail |
3 | | ballot for delivery
to the applicant.
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4 | | Upon receipt of the vote by mail ballot, the admitted voter |
5 | | shall mark the
ballot in secret and subscribe to the |
6 | | certifications on the vote by mail ballot
return envelope. |
7 | | After depositing the ballot in the return envelope and
securely |
8 | | sealing the envelope, such voter shall give the envelope to the
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9 | | precinct voter or the relative who shall deliver it to the |
10 | | election authority
in sufficient time for the ballot to be |
11 | | delivered by the election authority
to the election authority's |
12 | | central ballot counting location
before 7 p.m. on election day.
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13 | | Upon receipt of the admitted voter's vote by mail ballot,
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14 | | the ballot shall be counted in the manner prescribed in this |
15 | | Article.
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16 | | (Source: P.A. 98-1171, eff. 6-1-15; 99-581, eff. 1-1-17 .)
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17 | | Section 20. The Illinois Identification Card Act is amended |
18 | | by changing Section 4 as follows:
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19 | | (15 ILCS 335/4) (from Ch. 124, par. 24)
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20 | | (Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 99-907 )
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21 | | Sec. 4. Identification card.
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22 | | (a) The Secretary of State shall issue a
standard Illinois |
23 | | Identification Card to any natural person who is a resident
of |
24 | | the State of Illinois who applies for such card, or renewal |
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1 | | thereof,
or who applies for a standard Illinois Identification |
2 | | Card upon release as a
committed person on parole, mandatory |
3 | | supervised release, aftercare release, final discharge, or
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4 | | pardon from the Department of Corrections or Department of |
5 | | Juvenile Justice by submitting an identification card
issued by |
6 | | the Department of Corrections or Department of Juvenile Justice |
7 | | under Section 3-14-1 or Section 3-2.5-70 of the Unified
Code of |
8 | | Corrections,
together with the prescribed fees. No |
9 | | identification card shall be issued to any person who holds a |
10 | | valid
foreign state
identification card, license, or permit |
11 | | unless the person first surrenders to
the Secretary of
State |
12 | | the valid foreign state identification card, license, or |
13 | | permit. The card shall be prepared and
supplied by the |
14 | | Secretary of State and shall include a photograph and signature |
15 | | or mark of the
applicant. However, the Secretary of State may |
16 | | provide by rule for the issuance of Illinois Identification |
17 | | Cards without photographs if the applicant has a bona fide |
18 | | religious objection to being photographed or to the display of |
19 | | his or her photograph. The Illinois Identification Card may be |
20 | | used for
identification purposes in any lawful situation only |
21 | | by the person to
whom it was issued.
As used in this Act, |
22 | | "photograph" means any color photograph or digitally
produced |
23 | | and captured image of an applicant for an identification card. |
24 | | As
used in this Act, "signature" means the name of a person as |
25 | | written by that
person and captured in a manner acceptable to |
26 | | the Secretary of State. |
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1 | | (a-5) If an applicant for an identification card has a |
2 | | current driver's license or instruction permit issued by the |
3 | | Secretary of State, the Secretary may require the applicant to |
4 | | utilize the same residence address and name on the |
5 | | identification card, driver's license, and instruction permit |
6 | | records maintained by the Secretary. The Secretary may |
7 | | promulgate rules to implement this provision.
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8 | | (a-10) If the applicant is a judicial officer as defined in |
9 | | Section 1-10 of the Judicial Privacy Act or a peace officer, |
10 | | the applicant may elect to have his or her office or work |
11 | | address listed on the card instead of the applicant's residence |
12 | | or mailing address. The Secretary may promulgate rules to |
13 | | implement this provision. For the purposes of this subsection |
14 | | (a-10), "peace officer" means any person who by virtue of his |
15 | | or her office or public employment is vested by law with a duty |
16 | | to maintain public order or to make arrests for a violation of |
17 | | any penal statute of this State, whether that duty extends to |
18 | | all violations or is limited to specific violations. |
19 | | (a-15) The Secretary of State may provide for an expedited |
20 | | process for the issuance of an Illinois Identification Card. |
21 | | The Secretary shall charge an additional fee for the expedited |
22 | | issuance of an Illinois Identification Card, to be set by rule, |
23 | | not to exceed $75. All fees collected by the Secretary for |
24 | | expedited Illinois Identification Card service shall be |
25 | | deposited into the Secretary of State Special Services Fund. |
26 | | The Secretary may adopt rules regarding the eligibility, |
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1 | | process, and fee for an expedited Illinois Identification Card. |
2 | | If the Secretary of State determines that the volume of |
3 | | expedited identification card requests received on a given day |
4 | | exceeds the ability of the Secretary to process those requests |
5 | | in an expedited manner, the Secretary may decline to provide |
6 | | expedited services, and the additional fee for the expedited |
7 | | service shall be refunded to the applicant. |
8 | | (b) The Secretary of State shall issue a special Illinois
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9 | | Identification Card, which shall be known as an Illinois Person |
10 | | with a Disability
Identification Card, to any natural person |
11 | | who is a resident of the State
of Illinois, who is a person |
12 | | with a disability as defined in Section 4A of this Act,
who |
13 | | applies for such card, or renewal thereof. No Illinois Person |
14 | | with a Disability Identification Card shall be issued to any |
15 | | person who
holds a valid
foreign state identification card, |
16 | | license, or permit unless the person first
surrenders to the
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17 | | Secretary of State the valid foreign state identification card, |
18 | | license, or
permit. The Secretary of State
shall charge no fee |
19 | | to issue such card. The card shall be prepared and
supplied by |
20 | | the Secretary of State, and shall include a photograph and |
21 | | signature or mark of the
applicant, a designation indicating |
22 | | that the card is an Illinois
Person with a Disability |
23 | | Identification Card, and shall include a comprehensible |
24 | | designation
of the type and classification of the applicant's |
25 | | disability as set out in
Section 4A of this Act. However, the |
26 | | Secretary of State may provide by rule for the issuance of |
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1 | | Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Cards without |
2 | | photographs if the applicant has a bona fide religious |
3 | | objection to being photographed or to the display of his or her |
4 | | photograph. If the applicant so requests, the card shall
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5 | | include a description of the applicant's disability and any |
6 | | information
about the applicant's disability or medical |
7 | | history which the Secretary
determines would be helpful to the |
8 | | applicant in securing emergency medical
care. If a mark is used |
9 | | in lieu of a signature, such mark
shall be affixed to the card |
10 | | in the presence of two witnesses who attest to
the authenticity |
11 | | of the mark. The Illinois
Person with a Disability |
12 | | Identification Card may be used for identification purposes
in |
13 | | any lawful situation by the person to whom it was issued.
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14 | | The Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card |
15 | | may be used as adequate
documentation of disability in lieu of |
16 | | a physician's determination of
disability, a determination of |
17 | | disability from a physician assistant, a determination of |
18 | | disability from an advanced practice registered
nurse, or any
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19 | | other documentation
of disability whenever
any
State law
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20 | | requires that a person with a disability provide such |
21 | | documentation of disability,
however an Illinois Person with a |
22 | | Disability Identification Card shall not qualify
the |
23 | | cardholder to participate in any program or to receive any |
24 | | benefit
which is not available to all persons with like |
25 | | disabilities.
Notwithstanding any other provisions of law, an |
26 | | Illinois Person with a Disability
Identification Card, or |
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1 | | evidence that the Secretary of State has issued an
Illinois |
2 | | Person with a Disability Identification Card, shall not be used |
3 | | by any
person other than the person named on such card to prove |
4 | | that the person
named on such card is a person with a |
5 | | disability or for any other purpose unless the
card is used for |
6 | | the benefit of the person named on such card, and the
person |
7 | | named on such card consents to such use at the time the card is |
8 | | so used.
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9 | | An optometrist's determination of a visual disability |
10 | | under Section 4A of this Act is acceptable as documentation for |
11 | | the purpose of issuing an Illinois Person with a Disability |
12 | | Identification Card. |
13 | | When medical information is contained on an Illinois Person |
14 | | with a Disability
Identification Card, the Office of the |
15 | | Secretary of State shall not be
liable for any actions taken |
16 | | based upon that medical information.
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17 | | (c) The Secretary of State shall provide
that each original |
18 | | or renewal Illinois Identification Card or Illinois
Person with |
19 | | a Disability Identification Card issued to a person under the |
20 | | age of 21
shall be of a distinct nature from those Illinois |
21 | | Identification Cards or
Illinois Person with a Disability |
22 | | Identification Cards issued to individuals 21
years of age or |
23 | | older. The color designated for Illinois Identification
Cards |
24 | | or Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Cards for |
25 | | persons under
the age of 21 shall be at the discretion of the |
26 | | Secretary of State.
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1 | | (c-1) Each original or renewal Illinois
Identification |
2 | | Card or Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card |
3 | | issued to
a person under the age of 21 shall display the date |
4 | | upon which the person
becomes 18 years of age and the date upon |
5 | | which the person becomes 21 years of
age.
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6 | | (c-3) The General Assembly recognizes the need to identify |
7 | | military veterans living in this State for the purpose of |
8 | | ensuring that they receive all of the services and benefits to |
9 | | which they are legally entitled, including healthcare, |
10 | | education assistance, and job placement. To assist the State in |
11 | | identifying these veterans and delivering these vital services |
12 | | and benefits, the Secretary of State is authorized to issue |
13 | | Illinois Identification Cards and Illinois Person with a |
14 | | Disability Identification Cards with the word "veteran" |
15 | | appearing on the face of the cards. This authorization is |
16 | | predicated on the unique status of veterans. The Secretary may |
17 | | not issue any other identification card which identifies an |
18 | | occupation, status, affiliation, hobby, or other unique |
19 | | characteristics of the identification card holder which is |
20 | | unrelated to the purpose of the identification card.
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21 | | (c-5) Beginning on or before July 1, 2015, the Secretary of |
22 | | State shall designate a space on each original or renewal |
23 | | identification card where, at the request of the applicant, the |
24 | | word "veteran" shall be placed. The veteran designation shall |
25 | | be available to a person identified as a veteran under |
26 | | subsection (b) of Section 5 of this Act who was discharged or |
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1 | | separated under honorable conditions. |
2 | | (d) The Secretary of State may issue a Senior Citizen
|
3 | | discount card, to any natural person who is a resident of the |
4 | | State of
Illinois who is 60 years of age or older and who |
5 | | applies for such a card or
renewal thereof. The Secretary of |
6 | | State shall charge no fee to issue such
card. The card shall be |
7 | | issued in every county and applications shall be
made available |
8 | | at, but not limited to, nutrition sites, senior citizen
centers |
9 | | and Area Agencies on Aging. The applicant, upon receipt of such
|
10 | | card and prior to its use for any purpose, shall have affixed |
11 | | thereon in
the space provided therefor his signature or mark.
|
12 | | (e) The Secretary of State, in his or her discretion, may |
13 | | designate on each Illinois
Identification Card or Illinois |
14 | | Person with a Disability Identification Card a space where the |
15 | | card holder may place a sticker or decal, issued by the |
16 | | Secretary of State, of uniform size as the Secretary may |
17 | | specify, that shall indicate in appropriate language that the |
18 | | card holder has renewed his or her Illinois
Identification Card |
19 | | or Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card. |
20 | | (Source: P.A. 98-323, eff. 1-1-14; 98-463, eff. 8-16-13; |
21 | | 98-558, eff. 1-1-14; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14; 99-143, eff. |
22 | | 7-27-15; 99-173, eff. 7-29-15; 99-305, eff. 1-1-16; 99-642, |
23 | | eff. 7-28-16.)
|
24 | | (Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 99-907 )
|
25 | | Sec. 4. Identification Card.
|
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| | HB0313 Engrossed | - 19 - | LRB100 04130 SMS 14135 b |
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1 | | (a) The Secretary of State shall issue a
standard Illinois |
2 | | Identification Card to any natural person who is a resident
of |
3 | | the State of Illinois who applies for such card, or renewal |
4 | | thereof. No identification card shall be issued to any person |
5 | | who holds a valid
foreign state
identification card, license, |
6 | | or permit unless the person first surrenders to
the Secretary |
7 | | of
State the valid foreign state identification card, license, |
8 | | or permit. The card shall be prepared and
supplied by the |
9 | | Secretary of State and shall include a photograph and signature |
10 | | or mark of the
applicant. However, the Secretary of State may |
11 | | provide by rule for the issuance of Illinois Identification |
12 | | Cards without photographs if the applicant has a bona fide |
13 | | religious objection to being photographed or to the display of |
14 | | his or her photograph. The Illinois Identification Card may be |
15 | | used for
identification purposes in any lawful situation only |
16 | | by the person to
whom it was issued.
As used in this Act, |
17 | | "photograph" means any color photograph or digitally
produced |
18 | | and captured image of an applicant for an identification card. |
19 | | As
used in this Act, "signature" means the name of a person as |
20 | | written by that
person and captured in a manner acceptable to |
21 | | the Secretary of State. |
22 | | (a-5) If an applicant for an identification card has a |
23 | | current driver's license or instruction permit issued by the |
24 | | Secretary of State, the Secretary may require the applicant to |
25 | | utilize the same residence address and name on the |
26 | | identification card, driver's license, and instruction permit |
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1 | | records maintained by the Secretary. The Secretary may |
2 | | promulgate rules to implement this provision.
|
3 | | (a-10) If the applicant is a judicial officer as defined in |
4 | | Section 1-10 of the Judicial Privacy Act or a peace officer, |
5 | | the applicant may elect to have his or her office or work |
6 | | address listed on the card instead of the applicant's residence |
7 | | or mailing address. The Secretary may promulgate rules to |
8 | | implement this provision. For the purposes of this subsection |
9 | | (a-10), "peace officer" means any person who by virtue of his |
10 | | or her office or public employment is vested by law with a duty |
11 | | to maintain public order or to make arrests for a violation of |
12 | | any penal statute of this State, whether that duty extends to |
13 | | all violations or is limited to specific violations. |
14 | | (a-15) The Secretary of State may provide for an expedited |
15 | | process for the issuance of an Illinois Identification Card. |
16 | | The Secretary shall charge an additional fee for the expedited |
17 | | issuance of an Illinois Identification Card, to be set by rule, |
18 | | not to exceed $75. All fees collected by the Secretary for |
19 | | expedited Illinois Identification Card service shall be |
20 | | deposited into the Secretary of State Special Services Fund. |
21 | | The Secretary may adopt rules regarding the eligibility, |
22 | | process, and fee for an expedited Illinois Identification Card. |
23 | | If the Secretary of State determines that the volume of |
24 | | expedited identification card requests received on a given day |
25 | | exceeds the ability of the Secretary to process those requests |
26 | | in an expedited manner, the Secretary may decline to provide |
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1 | | expedited services, and the additional fee for the expedited |
2 | | service shall be refunded to the applicant. |
3 | | (a-20) The Secretary of State shall issue a standard |
4 | | Illinois Identification Card to a committed person upon release |
5 | | on parole, mandatory supervised release, aftercare release, |
6 | | final discharge, or pardon from the Department of Corrections |
7 | | or Department of Juvenile Justice, if the released person |
8 | | presents a certified copy of his or her birth certificate, |
9 | | social security card or other documents authorized by the |
10 | | Secretary, and 2 documents proving his or her Illinois |
11 | | residence address. Documents proving residence address may |
12 | | include any official document of the Department of Corrections |
13 | | or the Department of Juvenile Justice showing the released |
14 | | person's address after release and a Secretary of State |
15 | | prescribed certificate of residency form, which may be executed |
16 | | by Department of Corrections or Department of Juvenile Justice |
17 | | personnel. |
18 | | (a-25) The Secretary of State shall issue a limited-term |
19 | | Illinois Identification Card valid for 90 days to a committed |
20 | | person upon release on parole, mandatory supervised release, |
21 | | aftercare release, final discharge, or pardon from the |
22 | | Department of Corrections or Department of Juvenile Justice, if |
23 | | the released person is unable to present a certified copy of |
24 | | his or her birth certificate and social security card or other |
25 | | documents authorized by the Secretary, but does present a |
26 | | Secretary of State prescribed verification form completed by |
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1 | | the Department of Corrections or Department of Juvenile |
2 | | Justice, verifying the released person's date of birth and |
3 | | social security number and 2 documents proving his or her |
4 | | Illinois residence address. The verification form must have |
5 | | been completed no more than 30 days prior to the date of |
6 | | application for the Illinois Identification Card. Documents |
7 | | proving residence address shall include any official document |
8 | | of the Department of Corrections or the Department of Juvenile |
9 | | Justice showing the person's address after release and a |
10 | | Secretary of State prescribed certificate of residency, which |
11 | | may be executed by Department of Corrections or Department of |
12 | | Juvenile Justice personnel. |
13 | | Prior to the expiration of the 90-day period of the |
14 | | limited-term Illinois Identification Card, if the released |
15 | | person submits to the Secretary of State a certified copy of |
16 | | his or her birth certificate and his or her social security |
17 | | card or other documents authorized by the Secretary, a standard |
18 | | Illinois Identification Card shall be issued. A limited-term |
19 | | Illinois Identification Card may not be renewed. |
20 | | (b) The Secretary of State shall issue a special Illinois
|
21 | | Identification Card, which shall be known as an Illinois Person |
22 | | with a Disability
Identification Card, to any natural person |
23 | | who is a resident of the State
of Illinois, who is a person |
24 | | with a disability as defined in Section 4A of this Act,
who |
25 | | applies for such card, or renewal thereof. No Illinois Person |
26 | | with a Disability Identification Card shall be issued to any |
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|
1 | | person who
holds a valid
foreign state identification card, |
2 | | license, or permit unless the person first
surrenders to the
|
3 | | Secretary of State the valid foreign state identification card, |
4 | | license, or
permit. The Secretary of State
shall charge no fee |
5 | | to issue such card. The card shall be prepared and
supplied by |
6 | | the Secretary of State, and shall include a photograph and |
7 | | signature or mark of the
applicant, a designation indicating |
8 | | that the card is an Illinois
Person with a Disability |
9 | | Identification Card, and shall include a comprehensible |
10 | | designation
of the type and classification of the applicant's |
11 | | disability as set out in
Section 4A of this Act. However, the |
12 | | Secretary of State may provide by rule for the issuance of |
13 | | Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Cards without |
14 | | photographs if the applicant has a bona fide religious |
15 | | objection to being photographed or to the display of his or her |
16 | | photograph. If the applicant so requests, the card shall
|
17 | | include a description of the applicant's disability and any |
18 | | information
about the applicant's disability or medical |
19 | | history which the Secretary
determines would be helpful to the |
20 | | applicant in securing emergency medical
care. If a mark is used |
21 | | in lieu of a signature, such mark
shall be affixed to the card |
22 | | in the presence of two witnesses who attest to
the authenticity |
23 | | of the mark. The Illinois
Person with a Disability |
24 | | Identification Card may be used for identification purposes
in |
25 | | any lawful situation by the person to whom it was issued.
|
26 | | The Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card |
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1 | | may be used as adequate
documentation of disability in lieu of |
2 | | a physician's determination of
disability, a determination of |
3 | | disability from a physician assistant, a determination of |
4 | | disability from an advanced practice registered
nurse, or any
|
5 | | other documentation
of disability whenever
any
State law
|
6 | | requires that a person with a disability provide such |
7 | | documentation of disability,
however an Illinois Person with a |
8 | | Disability Identification Card shall not qualify
the |
9 | | cardholder to participate in any program or to receive any |
10 | | benefit
which is not available to all persons with like |
11 | | disabilities.
Notwithstanding any other provisions of law, an |
12 | | Illinois Person with a Disability
Identification Card, or |
13 | | evidence that the Secretary of State has issued an
Illinois |
14 | | Person with a Disability Identification Card, shall not be used |
15 | | by any
person other than the person named on such card to prove |
16 | | that the person
named on such card is a person with a |
17 | | disability or for any other purpose unless the
card is used for |
18 | | the benefit of the person named on such card, and the
person |
19 | | named on such card consents to such use at the time the card is |
20 | | so used.
|
21 | | An optometrist's determination of a visual disability |
22 | | under Section 4A of this Act is acceptable as documentation for |
23 | | the purpose of issuing an Illinois Person with a Disability |
24 | | Identification Card. |
25 | | When medical information is contained on an Illinois Person |
26 | | with a Disability
Identification Card, the Office of the |
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1 | | Secretary of State shall not be
liable for any actions taken |
2 | | based upon that medical information.
|
3 | | (c) The Secretary of State shall provide
that each original |
4 | | or renewal Illinois Identification Card or Illinois
Person with |
5 | | a Disability Identification Card issued to a person under the |
6 | | age of 21
shall be of a distinct nature from those Illinois |
7 | | Identification Cards or
Illinois Person with a Disability |
8 | | Identification Cards issued to individuals 21
years of age or |
9 | | older. The color designated for Illinois Identification
Cards |
10 | | or Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Cards for |
11 | | persons under
the age of 21 shall be at the discretion of the |
12 | | Secretary of State.
|
13 | | (c-1) Each original or renewal Illinois
Identification |
14 | | Card or Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card |
15 | | issued to
a person under the age of 21 shall display the date |
16 | | upon which the person
becomes 18 years of age and the date upon |
17 | | which the person becomes 21 years of
age.
|
18 | | (c-3) The General Assembly recognizes the need to identify |
19 | | military veterans living in this State for the purpose of |
20 | | ensuring that they receive all of the services and benefits to |
21 | | which they are legally entitled, including healthcare, |
22 | | education assistance, and job placement. To assist the State in |
23 | | identifying these veterans and delivering these vital services |
24 | | and benefits, the Secretary of State is authorized to issue |
25 | | Illinois Identification Cards and Illinois Person with a |
26 | | Disability Identification Cards with the word "veteran" |
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1 | | appearing on the face of the cards. This authorization is |
2 | | predicated on the unique status of veterans. The Secretary may |
3 | | not issue any other identification card which identifies an |
4 | | occupation, status, affiliation, hobby, or other unique |
5 | | characteristics of the identification card holder which is |
6 | | unrelated to the purpose of the identification card.
|
7 | | (c-5) Beginning on or before July 1, 2015, the Secretary of |
8 | | State shall designate a space on each original or renewal |
9 | | identification card where, at the request of the applicant, the |
10 | | word "veteran" shall be placed. The veteran designation shall |
11 | | be available to a person identified as a veteran under |
12 | | subsection (b) of Section 5 of this Act who was discharged or |
13 | | separated under honorable conditions. |
14 | | (d) The Secretary of State may issue a Senior Citizen
|
15 | | discount card, to any natural person who is a resident of the |
16 | | State of
Illinois who is 60 years of age or older and who |
17 | | applies for such a card or
renewal thereof. The Secretary of |
18 | | State shall charge no fee to issue such
card. The card shall be |
19 | | issued in every county and applications shall be
made available |
20 | | at, but not limited to, nutrition sites, senior citizen
centers |
21 | | and Area Agencies on Aging. The applicant, upon receipt of such
|
22 | | card and prior to its use for any purpose, shall have affixed |
23 | | thereon in
the space provided therefor his signature or mark.
|
24 | | (e) The Secretary of State, in his or her discretion, may |
25 | | designate on each Illinois
Identification Card or Illinois |
26 | | Person with a Disability Identification Card a space where the |
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1 | | card holder may place a sticker or decal, issued by the |
2 | | Secretary of State, of uniform size as the Secretary may |
3 | | specify, that shall indicate in appropriate language that the |
4 | | card holder has renewed his or her Illinois
Identification Card |
5 | | or Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card. |
6 | | (Source: P.A. 98-323, eff. 1-1-14; 98-463, eff. 8-16-13; |
7 | | 98-558, eff. 1-1-14; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14; 99-143, eff. |
8 | | 7-27-15; 99-173, eff. 7-29-15; 99-305, eff. 1-1-16; 99-642, |
9 | | eff. 7-28-16; 99-907, eff. 7-1-17.)
|
10 | | Section 25. The Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and |
11 | | Dependency Act is amended by changing Section 5-23 as follows:
|
12 | | (20 ILCS 301/5-23) |
13 | | Sec. 5-23. Drug Overdose Prevention Program. |
14 | | (a) Reports of drug overdose. |
15 | | (1) The Director of the Division of Alcoholism and |
16 | | Substance Abuse shall publish annually a report on drug |
17 | | overdose trends statewide that reviews State death rates |
18 | | from available data to ascertain changes in the causes or |
19 | | rates of fatal and nonfatal drug overdose. The report shall |
20 | | also provide information on interventions that would be |
21 | | effective in reducing the rate of fatal or nonfatal drug |
22 | | overdose and shall include an analysis of drug overdose |
23 | | information reported to the Department of Public Health |
24 | | pursuant to subsection (e) of Section 3-3013 of the |
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1 | | Counties Code, Section 6.14g of the Hospital Licensing Act, |
2 | | and subsection (j) of Section 22-30 of the School Code. |
3 | | (2) The report may include: |
4 | | (A) Trends in drug overdose death rates. |
5 | | (B) Trends in emergency room utilization related |
6 | | to drug overdose and the cost impact of emergency room |
7 | | utilization. |
8 | | (C) Trends in utilization of pre-hospital and |
9 | | emergency services and the cost impact of emergency |
10 | | services utilization. |
11 | | (D) Suggested improvements in data collection. |
12 | | (E) A description of other interventions effective |
13 | | in reducing the rate of fatal or nonfatal drug |
14 | | overdose. |
15 | | (F) A description of efforts undertaken to educate |
16 | | the public about unused medication and about how to |
17 | | properly dispose of unused medication, including the |
18 | | number of registered collection receptacles in this |
19 | | State, mail-back programs, and drug take-back events. |
20 | | (b) Programs; drug overdose prevention. |
21 | | (1) The Director may establish a program to provide for |
22 | | the production and publication, in electronic and other |
23 | | formats, of drug overdose prevention, recognition, and |
24 | | response literature. The Director may develop and |
25 | | disseminate curricula for use by professionals, |
26 | | organizations, individuals, or committees interested in |
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1 | | the prevention of fatal and nonfatal drug overdose, |
2 | | including, but not limited to, drug users, jail and prison |
3 | | personnel, jail and prison inmates, drug treatment |
4 | | professionals, emergency medical personnel, hospital |
5 | | staff, families and associates of drug users, peace |
6 | | officers, firefighters, public safety officers, needle |
7 | | exchange program staff, and other persons. In addition to |
8 | | information regarding drug overdose prevention, |
9 | | recognition, and response, literature produced by the |
10 | | Department shall stress that drug use remains illegal and |
11 | | highly dangerous and that complete abstinence from illegal |
12 | | drug use is the healthiest choice. The literature shall |
13 | | provide information and resources for substance abuse |
14 | | treatment. |
15 | | The Director may establish or authorize programs for |
16 | | prescribing, dispensing, or distributing opioid |
17 | | antagonists for the treatment of drug overdose. Such |
18 | | programs may include the prescribing of opioid antagonists |
19 | | for the treatment of drug overdose to a person who is not |
20 | | at risk of opioid overdose but who, in the judgment of the |
21 | | health care professional, may be in a position to assist |
22 | | another individual during an opioid-related drug overdose |
23 | | and who has received basic instruction on how to administer |
24 | | an opioid antagonist. |
25 | | (2) The Director may provide advice to State and local |
26 | | officials on the growing drug overdose crisis, including |
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1 | | the prevalence of drug overdose incidents, programs |
2 | | promoting the disposal of unused prescription drugs, |
3 | | trends in drug overdose incidents, and solutions to the |
4 | | drug overdose crisis. |
5 | | (c) Grants. |
6 | | (1) The Director may award grants, in accordance with |
7 | | this subsection, to create or support local drug overdose |
8 | | prevention, recognition, and response projects. Local |
9 | | health departments, correctional institutions, hospitals, |
10 | | universities, community-based organizations, and |
11 | | faith-based organizations may apply to the Department for a |
12 | | grant under this subsection at the time and in the manner |
13 | | the Director prescribes. |
14 | | (2) In awarding grants, the Director shall consider the |
15 | | necessity for overdose prevention projects in various |
16 | | settings and shall encourage all grant applicants to |
17 | | develop interventions that will be effective and viable in |
18 | | their local areas. |
19 | | (3) The Director shall give preference for grants to |
20 | | proposals that, in addition to providing life-saving |
21 | | interventions and responses, provide information to drug |
22 | | users on how to access drug treatment or other strategies |
23 | | for abstaining from illegal drugs. The Director shall give |
24 | | preference to proposals that include one or more of the |
25 | | following elements: |
26 | | (A) Policies and projects to encourage persons, |
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1 | | including drug users, to call 911 when they witness a |
2 | | potentially fatal drug overdose. |
3 | | (B) Drug overdose prevention, recognition, and |
4 | | response education projects in drug treatment centers, |
5 | | outreach programs, and other organizations that work |
6 | | with, or have access to, drug users and their families |
7 | | and communities. |
8 | | (C) Drug overdose recognition and response |
9 | | training, including rescue breathing, in drug |
10 | | treatment centers and for other organizations that |
11 | | work with, or have access to, drug users and their |
12 | | families and communities. |
13 | | (D) The production and distribution of targeted or |
14 | | mass media materials on drug overdose prevention and |
15 | | response, the potential dangers of keeping unused |
16 | | prescription drugs in the home, and methods to properly |
17 | | dispose of unused prescription drugs. |
18 | | (E) Prescription and distribution of opioid |
19 | | antagonists. |
20 | | (F) The institution of education and training |
21 | | projects on drug overdose response and treatment for |
22 | | emergency services and law enforcement personnel. |
23 | | (G) A system of parent, family, and survivor |
24 | | education and mutual support groups. |
25 | | (4) In addition to moneys appropriated by the General |
26 | | Assembly, the Director may seek grants from private |
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1 | | foundations, the federal government, and other sources to |
2 | | fund the grants under this Section and to fund an |
3 | | evaluation of the programs supported by the grants. |
4 | | (d) Health care professional prescription of opioid |
5 | | antagonists. |
6 | | (1) A health care professional who, acting in good |
7 | | faith, directly or by standing order, prescribes or |
8 | | dispenses an opioid antagonist to: (a) a patient who, in |
9 | | the judgment of the health care professional, is capable of |
10 | | administering the drug in an emergency, or (b) a person who |
11 | | is not at risk of opioid overdose but who, in the judgment |
12 | | of the health care professional, may be in a position to |
13 | | assist another individual during an opioid-related drug |
14 | | overdose and who has received basic instruction on how to |
15 | | administer an opioid antagonist shall not, as a result of |
16 | | his or her acts or omissions, be subject to: (i) any |
17 | | disciplinary or other adverse action under the Medical |
18 | | Practice Act of 1987, the Physician Assistant Practice Act |
19 | | of 1987, the Nurse Practice Act, the Pharmacy Practice Act, |
20 | | or any other professional licensing statute or (ii) any |
21 | | criminal liability, except for willful and wanton |
22 | | misconduct. |
23 | | (2) A person who is not otherwise licensed to |
24 | | administer an opioid antagonist may in an emergency |
25 | | administer without fee an opioid antagonist if the person |
26 | | has received the patient information specified in |
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1 | | paragraph (4) of this subsection and believes in good faith |
2 | | that another person is experiencing a drug overdose. The |
3 | | person shall not, as a result of his or her acts or |
4 | | omissions, be (i) liable for any violation of the Medical |
5 | | Practice Act of 1987, the Physician Assistant Practice Act |
6 | | of 1987, the Nurse Practice Act, the Pharmacy Practice Act, |
7 | | or any other professional licensing statute, or (ii) |
8 | | subject to any criminal prosecution or civil liability, |
9 | | except for willful and wanton misconduct. |
10 | | (3) A health care professional prescribing an opioid |
11 | | antagonist to a patient shall ensure that the patient |
12 | | receives the patient information specified in paragraph |
13 | | (4) of this subsection. Patient information may be provided |
14 | | by the health care professional or a community-based |
15 | | organization, substance abuse program, or other |
16 | | organization with which the health care professional |
17 | | establishes a written agreement that includes a |
18 | | description of how the organization will provide patient |
19 | | information, how employees or volunteers providing |
20 | | information will be trained, and standards for documenting |
21 | | the provision of patient information to patients. |
22 | | Provision of patient information shall be documented in the |
23 | | patient's medical record or through similar means as |
24 | | determined by agreement between the health care |
25 | | professional and the organization. The Director of the |
26 | | Division of Alcoholism and Substance Abuse, in |
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1 | | consultation with statewide organizations representing |
2 | | physicians, pharmacists, advanced practice registered |
3 | | nurses, physician assistants, substance abuse programs, |
4 | | and other interested groups, shall develop and disseminate |
5 | | to health care professionals, community-based |
6 | | organizations, substance abuse programs, and other |
7 | | organizations training materials in video, electronic, or |
8 | | other formats to facilitate the provision of such patient |
9 | | information. |
10 | | (4) For the purposes of this subsection: |
11 | | "Opioid antagonist" means a drug that binds to opioid |
12 | | receptors and blocks or inhibits the effect of opioids |
13 | | acting on those receptors, including, but not limited to, |
14 | | naloxone hydrochloride or any other similarly acting drug |
15 | | approved by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration. |
16 | | "Health care professional" means a physician licensed |
17 | | to practice medicine in all its branches, a licensed |
18 | | physician assistant with prescriptive authority , a |
19 | | licensed advanced practice registered nurse with |
20 | | prescriptive authority , an advanced practice registered |
21 | | nurse or physician assistant who practices in a hospital, |
22 | | hospital affiliate, or ambulatory surgical treatment |
23 | | center and possesses appropriate clinical privileges in |
24 | | accordance with the Nurse Practice Act, or a pharmacist |
25 | | licensed to practice pharmacy under the Pharmacy Practice |
26 | | Act. |
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1 | | "Patient" includes a person who is not at risk of |
2 | | opioid overdose but who, in the judgment of the physician, |
3 | | advanced practice registered nurse, or physician |
4 | | assistant, may be in a position to assist another |
5 | | individual during an overdose and who has received patient |
6 | | information as required in paragraph (2) of this subsection |
7 | | on the indications for and administration of an opioid |
8 | | antagonist. |
9 | | "Patient information" includes information provided to |
10 | | the patient on drug overdose prevention and recognition; |
11 | | how to perform rescue breathing and resuscitation; opioid |
12 | | antagonist dosage and administration; the importance of |
13 | | calling 911; care for the overdose victim after |
14 | | administration of the overdose antagonist; and other |
15 | | issues as necessary.
|
16 | | (e) Drug overdose response policy. |
17 | | (1) Every State and local government agency that |
18 | | employs a law enforcement officer or fireman as those terms |
19 | | are defined in the Line of Duty Compensation Act must |
20 | | possess opioid antagonists and must establish a policy to |
21 | | control the acquisition, storage, transportation, and |
22 | | administration of such opioid antagonists and to provide |
23 | | training in the administration of opioid antagonists. A |
24 | | State or local government agency that employs a fireman as |
25 | | defined in the Line of Duty Compensation Act but does not |
26 | | respond to emergency medical calls or provide medical |
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| | HB0313 Engrossed | - 36 - | LRB100 04130 SMS 14135 b |
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1 | | services shall be exempt from this subsection. |
2 | | (2) Every publicly or privately owned ambulance, |
3 | | special emergency medical services vehicle, non-transport |
4 | | vehicle, or ambulance assist vehicle, as described in the |
5 | | Emergency Medical Services (EMS) Systems Act, which |
6 | | responds to requests for emergency services or transports |
7 | | patients between hospitals in emergency situations must |
8 | | possess opioid antagonists. |
9 | | (3) Entities that are required under paragraphs (1) and |
10 | | (2) to possess opioid antagonists may also apply to the |
11 | | Department for a grant to fund the acquisition of opioid |
12 | | antagonists and training programs on the administration of |
13 | | opioid antagonists. |
14 | | (Source: P.A. 99-173, eff. 7-29-15; 99-480, eff. 9-9-15; |
15 | | 99-581, eff. 1-1-17; 99-642, eff. 7-28-16; revised 9-19-16.)
|
16 | | Section 30. The Department of Central Management Services |
17 | | Law of the
Civil Administrative Code of Illinois is amended by |
18 | | changing Section 405-105 as follows:
|
19 | | (20 ILCS 405/405-105) (was 20 ILCS 405/64.1)
|
20 | | Sec. 405-105. Fidelity, surety, property, and casualty |
21 | | insurance. The Department
shall establish and implement a |
22 | | program to coordinate
the handling of all fidelity, surety, |
23 | | property, and casualty insurance
exposures of the State and the |
24 | | departments, divisions, agencies,
branches,
and universities |
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1 | | of the State. In performing this responsibility, the
Department |
2 | | shall have the power and duty to do the following:
|
3 | | (1) Develop and maintain loss and exposure data on all |
4 | | State
property.
|
5 | | (2) Study the feasibility of establishing a |
6 | | self-insurance plan
for
State property and prepare |
7 | | estimates of the costs of reinsurance for
risks beyond the |
8 | | realistic limits of the self-insurance.
|
9 | | (3) Prepare a plan for centralizing the purchase of |
10 | | property and
casualty insurance on State property under a |
11 | | master policy or policies
and purchase the insurance |
12 | | contracted for as provided in the
Illinois Purchasing Act.
|
13 | | (4) Evaluate existing provisions for fidelity bonds |
14 | | required of
State employees and recommend changes that are |
15 | | appropriate
commensurate with risk experience and the |
16 | | determinations respecting
self-insurance or reinsurance so |
17 | | as to permit reduction of costs without
loss of coverage.
|
18 | | (5) Investigate procedures for inclusion of school |
19 | | districts,
public community
college districts, and other |
20 | | units of local government in programs for
the centralized |
21 | | purchase of insurance.
|
22 | | (6) Implement recommendations of the State Property
|
23 | | Insurance
Study Commission that the Department finds |
24 | | necessary or desirable in
the
performance of its powers and |
25 | | duties under this Section to achieve
efficient and |
26 | | comprehensive risk management.
|
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1 | | (7) Prepare and, in the discretion of the Director, |
2 | | implement a plan providing for the purchase of public
|
3 | | liability insurance or for self-insurance for public |
4 | | liability or for a
combination of purchased insurance and |
5 | | self-insurance for public
liability (i) covering the State |
6 | | and drivers of motor vehicles
owned,
leased, or controlled |
7 | | by the State of Illinois pursuant to the provisions
and |
8 | | limitations contained in the Illinois Vehicle Code, (ii)
|
9 | | covering
other public liability exposures of the State and |
10 | | its employees within
the scope of their employment, and |
11 | | (iii) covering drivers of motor
vehicles not owned, leased, |
12 | | or controlled by the State but used by a
State employee on |
13 | | State business, in excess of liability covered by an
|
14 | | insurance policy obtained by the owner of the motor vehicle |
15 | | or in
excess of the dollar amounts that the Department |
16 | | shall
determine to be
reasonable. Any contract of insurance |
17 | | let under this Law shall be
by
bid in accordance with the |
18 | | procedure set forth in the Illinois
Purchasing Act. Any |
19 | | provisions for self-insurance shall conform to
subdivision |
20 | | (11).
|
21 | | The term "employee" as used in this subdivision (7) and |
22 | | in subdivision
(11)
means a person while in the employ of |
23 | | the State who is a member of the
staff or personnel of a |
24 | | State agency, bureau, board, commission,
committee, |
25 | | department, university, or college or who is a State |
26 | | officer,
elected official, commissioner, member of or ex |
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1 | | officio member of a
State agency, bureau, board, |
2 | | commission, committee, department,
university, or college, |
3 | | or a member of the National Guard while on active
duty |
4 | | pursuant to orders of the Governor of the State of |
5 | | Illinois, or any
other person while using a licensed motor |
6 | | vehicle owned, leased, or
controlled by the State of |
7 | | Illinois with the authorization of the State
of Illinois, |
8 | | provided the actual use of the motor vehicle is
within the |
9 | | scope of that
authorization and within the course of State |
10 | | service.
|
11 | | Subsequent to payment of a claim on behalf of an |
12 | | employee pursuant to this
Section and after reasonable |
13 | | advance written notice to the employee, the
Director may |
14 | | exclude the employee from future coverage or limit the
|
15 | | coverage under the plan if (i) the Director determines that |
16 | | the
claim
resulted from an incident in which the employee |
17 | | was grossly negligent or
had engaged in willful and wanton |
18 | | misconduct or (ii) the
Director
determines that the |
19 | | employee is no longer an acceptable risk based on a
review |
20 | | of prior accidents in which the employee was at fault and |
21 | | for which
payments were made pursuant to this Section.
|
22 | | The Director is authorized to
promulgate |
23 | | administrative rules that may be necessary to
establish and
|
24 | | administer the plan.
|
25 | | Appropriations from the Road Fund shall be used to pay |
26 | | auto liability claims
and related expenses involving |
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1 | | employees of the Department of Transportation,
the |
2 | | Illinois State Police, and the Secretary of State.
|
3 | | (8) Charge, collect, and receive from all other |
4 | | agencies of
the State
government fees or monies equivalent |
5 | | to the cost of purchasing the insurance.
|
6 | | (9) Establish, through the Director, charges for risk
|
7 | | management
services
rendered to State agencies by the |
8 | | Department.
The State agencies so charged shall reimburse |
9 | | the Department by vouchers drawn
against their respective
|
10 | | appropriations. The reimbursement shall be determined by |
11 | | the Director as
amounts sufficient to reimburse the |
12 | | Department
for expenditures incurred in rendering the |
13 | | service.
|
14 | | The Department shall charge the
employing State agency |
15 | | or university for workers' compensation payments for
|
16 | | temporary total disability paid to any employee after the |
17 | | employee has
received temporary total disability payments |
18 | | for 120 days if the employee's
treating physician, advanced |
19 | | practice registered nurse, or physician assistant has |
20 | | issued a release to return to work with restrictions
and |
21 | | the employee is able to perform modified duty work but the |
22 | | employing
State agency or
university does not return the |
23 | | employee to work at modified duty. Modified
duty shall be |
24 | | duties assigned that may or may not be delineated
as part |
25 | | of the duties regularly performed by the employee. Modified |
26 | | duties
shall be assigned within the prescribed |
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1 | | restrictions established by the
treating physician and the |
2 | | physician who performed the independent medical
|
3 | | examination. The amount of all reimbursements
shall be |
4 | | deposited into the Workers' Compensation Revolving Fund |
5 | | which is
hereby created as a revolving fund in the State |
6 | | treasury. In addition to any other purpose authorized by |
7 | | law, moneys in the Fund
shall be used, subject to |
8 | | appropriation, to pay these or other temporary
total |
9 | | disability claims of employees of State agencies and |
10 | | universities.
|
11 | | Beginning with fiscal year 1996, all amounts recovered |
12 | | by the
Department through subrogation in workers' |
13 | | compensation and workers'
occupational disease cases shall |
14 | | be
deposited into the Workers' Compensation Revolving Fund |
15 | | created under
this subdivision (9).
|
16 | | (10) Establish rules, procedures, and forms to be used |
17 | | by
State agencies
in the administration and payment of |
18 | | workers' compensation claims. For claims filed prior to |
19 | | July 1, 2013, the
Department shall initially evaluate and |
20 | | determine the compensability of
any injury that is
the |
21 | | subject of a workers' compensation claim and provide for |
22 | | the
administration and payment of such a claim for all |
23 | | State agencies. For claims filed on or after July 1, 2013, |
24 | | the Department shall retain responsibility for certain |
25 | | administrative payments including, but not limited to, |
26 | | payments to the private vendor contracted to perform |
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1 | | services under subdivision (10b) of this Section, payments |
2 | | related to travel expenses for employees of the Office of |
3 | | the Attorney General, and payments to internal Department |
4 | | staff responsible for the oversight and management of any |
5 | | contract awarded pursuant to subdivision (10b) of this |
6 | | Section. Through December 31, 2012, the
Director may |
7 | | delegate to any agency with the agreement of the agency |
8 | | head
the responsibility for evaluation, administration, |
9 | | and payment of that
agency's claims. Neither the Department |
10 | | nor the private vendor contracted to perform services under |
11 | | subdivision (10b) of this Section shall be responsible for |
12 | | providing workers' compensation services to the Illinois |
13 | | State Toll Highway Authority or to State universities that |
14 | | maintain self-funded workers' compensation liability |
15 | | programs.
|
16 | | (10a) By April 1 of each year prior to calendar year |
17 | | 2013, the Director must report and provide information to |
18 | | the State Workers' Compensation Program Advisory Board |
19 | | concerning the status of the State workers' compensation |
20 | | program for the next fiscal year. Information that the |
21 | | Director must provide to the State Workers' Compensation |
22 | | Program Advisory Board includes, but is not limited to, |
23 | | documents, reports of negotiations, bid invitations, |
24 | | requests for proposals, specifications, copies of proposed |
25 | | and final contracts or agreements, and any other materials |
26 | | concerning contracts or agreements for the program. By the |
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1 | | first of each month prior to calendar year 2013, the |
2 | | Director must provide updated, and any new, information to |
3 | | the State Workers' Compensation Program Advisory Board |
4 | | until the State workers' compensation program for the next |
5 | | fiscal year is determined. |
6 | | (10b) No later than January 1, 2013, the chief |
7 | | procurement officer appointed under paragraph (4) of |
8 | | subsection (a) of Section 10-20 of the Illinois Procurement |
9 | | Code (hereinafter "chief procurement officer"), in |
10 | | consultation with the Department of Central Management |
11 | | Services, shall procure one or more private vendors to |
12 | | administer the program providing payments for workers' |
13 | | compensation liability with respect to the employees of all |
14 | | State agencies. The chief procurement officer may procure a |
15 | | single contract applicable to all State agencies or |
16 | | multiple contracts applicable to one or more State |
17 | | agencies. If the chief procurement officer procures a |
18 | | single contract applicable to all State agencies, then the |
19 | | Department of Central Management Services shall be |
20 | | designated as the agency that enters into the contract and |
21 | | shall be responsible for the contract. If the chief |
22 | | procurement officer procures multiple contracts applicable |
23 | | to one or more State agencies, each agency to which the |
24 | | contract applies shall be designated as the agency that |
25 | | shall enter into the contract and shall be responsible for |
26 | | the contract. If the chief procurement officer procures |
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1 | | contracts applicable to an individual State agency, the |
2 | | agency subject to the contract shall be designated as the |
3 | | agency responsible for the contract. |
4 | | (10c) The procurement of private vendors for the |
5 | | administration of the workers' compensation program for |
6 | | State employees is subject to the provisions of the |
7 | | Illinois Procurement Code and administration by the chief |
8 | | procurement officer. |
9 | | (10d) Contracts for the procurement of private vendors |
10 | | for the administration of the workers' compensation |
11 | | program for State employees shall be based upon, but |
12 | | limited to, the following criteria: (i) administrative |
13 | | cost, (ii) service capabilities of the vendor, and (iii) |
14 | | the compensation (including premiums, fees, or other |
15 | | charges). A vendor for the administration of the workers' |
16 | | compensation program for State employees shall provide |
17 | | services, including, but not limited to: |
18 | | (A) providing a web-based case management system |
19 | | and provide access to the Office of the Attorney |
20 | | General; |
21 | | (B) ensuring claims adjusters are available to |
22 | | provide testimony or information as requested by the |
23 | | Office of the Attorney General; |
24 | | (C) establishing a preferred provider program for |
25 | | all State agencies and facilities; and |
26 | | (D) authorizing the payment of medical bills at the |
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1 | | preferred provider discount rate. |
2 | | (10e) By September 15, 2012, the Department of Central |
3 | | Management Services shall prepare a plan to effectuate the |
4 | | transfer of responsibility and administration of the |
5 | | workers' compensation program for State employees to the |
6 | | selected private vendors. The Department shall submit a |
7 | | copy of the plan to the General Assembly. |
8 | | (11) Any plan for public liability self-insurance |
9 | | implemented
under this
Section shall provide that (i) the |
10 | | Department
shall attempt to settle and may settle any |
11 | | public liability claim filed
against the State of Illinois |
12 | | or any public liability claim filed
against a State |
13 | | employee on the basis of an occurrence in the course of
the |
14 | | employee's State employment; (ii) any settlement of
such a |
15 | | claim is not subject to fiscal year limitations and must be
|
16 | | approved by the Director and, in cases of
settlements |
17 | | exceeding $100,000, by the Governor; and (iii) a
settlement |
18 | | of
any public liability claim against the State or a State |
19 | | employee shall
require an unqualified release of any right |
20 | | of action against the State
and the employee for acts |
21 | | within the scope of the employee's employment
giving rise |
22 | | to the claim.
|
23 | | Whenever and to the extent that a State
employee |
24 | | operates a motor vehicle or engages in other activity |
25 | | covered
by self-insurance under this Section, the State of |
26 | | Illinois shall
defend, indemnify, and hold harmless the |
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1 | | employee against any claim in
tort filed against the |
2 | | employee for acts or omissions within the scope
of the |
3 | | employee's employment in any proper judicial forum and not
|
4 | | settled pursuant
to this subdivision (11), provided that |
5 | | this obligation of
the State of
Illinois shall not exceed a |
6 | | maximum liability of $2,000,000 for any
single occurrence |
7 | | in connection with the operation of a motor vehicle or
|
8 | | $100,000 per person per occurrence for any other single |
9 | | occurrence,
or $500,000 for any single occurrence in |
10 | | connection with the provision of
medical care by a licensed |
11 | | physician, advanced practice registered nurse, or |
12 | | physician assistant employee.
|
13 | | Any
claims against the State of Illinois under a |
14 | | self-insurance plan that
are not settled pursuant to this |
15 | | subdivision (11) shall be
heard and
determined by the Court |
16 | | of Claims and may not be filed or adjudicated
in any other |
17 | | forum. The Attorney General of the State of Illinois or
the |
18 | | Attorney General's designee shall be the attorney with |
19 | | respect
to all public liability
self-insurance claims that |
20 | | are not settled pursuant to this
subdivision (11)
and |
21 | | therefore result in litigation. The payment of any award of |
22 | | the
Court of Claims entered against the State relating to |
23 | | any public
liability self-insurance claim shall act as a |
24 | | release against any State
employee involved in the |
25 | | occurrence.
|
26 | | (12) Administer a plan the purpose of which is to make |
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1 | | payments
on final
settlements or final judgments in |
2 | | accordance with the State Employee
Indemnification Act. |
3 | | The plan shall be funded through appropriations from the
|
4 | | General Revenue Fund specifically designated for that |
5 | | purpose, except that
indemnification expenses for |
6 | | employees of the Department of Transportation,
the |
7 | | Illinois State Police, and the Secretary of State
shall be |
8 | | paid
from the Road
Fund. The term "employee" as used in |
9 | | this subdivision (12) has the same
meaning as under |
10 | | subsection (b) of Section 1 of the State Employee
|
11 | | Indemnification Act. Subject to sufficient appropriation, |
12 | | the Director shall approve payment of any claim, without |
13 | | regard to fiscal year limitations, presented to
the |
14 | | Director
that is supported by a final settlement or final |
15 | | judgment when the Attorney
General and the chief officer of |
16 | | the public body against whose employee the
claim or cause |
17 | | of action is asserted certify to the Director that
the |
18 | | claim is in
accordance with the State Employee |
19 | | Indemnification Act and that they
approve
of the payment. |
20 | | In no event shall an amount in excess of $150,000 be paid |
21 | | from
this plan to or for the benefit of any claimant.
|
22 | | (13) Administer a plan the purpose of which is to make |
23 | | payments
on final
settlements or final judgments for |
24 | | employee wage claims in situations where
there was an |
25 | | appropriation relevant to the wage claim, the fiscal year
|
26 | | and lapse period have expired, and sufficient funds were |
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1 | | available
to
pay the claim. The plan shall be funded |
2 | | through
appropriations from the General Revenue Fund |
3 | | specifically designated for
that purpose.
|
4 | | Subject to sufficient appropriation, the Director is |
5 | | authorized to pay any wage claim presented to the
Director
|
6 | | that is supported by a final settlement or final judgment |
7 | | when the chief
officer of the State agency employing the |
8 | | claimant certifies to the
Director that
the claim is a |
9 | | valid wage claim and that the fiscal year and lapse period
|
10 | | have expired. Payment for claims that are properly |
11 | | submitted and certified
as valid by the Director
shall |
12 | | include interest accrued at the rate of 7% per annum from |
13 | | the
forty-fifth day after the claims are received by the |
14 | | Department or 45 days from the date on which the amount of |
15 | | payment
is agreed upon, whichever is later, until the date |
16 | | the claims are submitted
to the Comptroller for payment. |
17 | | When the Attorney General has filed an
appearance in any |
18 | | proceeding concerning a wage claim settlement or
judgment, |
19 | | the Attorney General shall certify to the Director that the |
20 | | wage claim is valid before any payment is
made. In no event |
21 | | shall an amount in excess of $150,000 be paid from this
|
22 | | plan to or for the benefit of any claimant.
|
23 | | Nothing in Public Act 84-961 shall be construed to |
24 | | affect in any manner the jurisdiction of the
Court of |
25 | | Claims concerning wage claims made against the State of |
26 | | Illinois.
|
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1 | | (14) Prepare and, in the discretion of the Director, |
2 | | implement a program for
self-insurance for official
|
3 | | fidelity and surety bonds for officers and employees as |
4 | | authorized by the
Official Bond Act.
|
5 | | (Source: P.A. 99-581, eff. 1-1-17 .)
|
6 | | Section 35. The Regional Integrated Behavioral Health |
7 | | Networks Act is amended by changing Section 20 as follows:
|
8 | | (20 ILCS 1340/20) |
9 | | Sec. 20. Steering Committee and Networks. |
10 | | (a) To achieve these goals, the Department of Human |
11 | | Services shall convene a Regional Integrated Behavioral Health |
12 | | Networks Steering Committee (hereinafter "Steering Committee") |
13 | | comprised of State agencies involved in the provision, |
14 | | regulation, or financing of health, mental health, substance |
15 | | abuse, rehabilitation, and other services. These include, but |
16 | | shall not be limited to, the following agencies: |
17 | | (1) The Department of Healthcare and Family Services. |
18 | | (2) The Department of Human Services and its Divisions |
19 | | of Mental Illness and Alcoholism and Substance Abuse |
20 | | Services. |
21 | | (3) The Department of Public Health, including its |
22 | | Center for Rural Health. |
23 | | The Steering Committee shall include a representative from |
24 | | each Network. The agencies of the Steering Committee are |
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1 | | directed to work collaboratively to provide consultation, |
2 | | advice, and leadership to the Networks in facilitating |
3 | | communication within and across multiple agencies and in |
4 | | removing regulatory barriers that may prevent Networks from |
5 | | accomplishing the goals. The Steering Committee collectively |
6 | | or through one of its member Agencies shall also provide |
7 | | technical assistance to the Networks. |
8 | | (b) There also shall be convened Networks in each of the |
9 | | Department of Human Services' regions comprised of |
10 | | representatives of community stakeholders represented in the |
11 | | Network, including when available, but not limited to, relevant |
12 | | trade and professional associations representing hospitals, |
13 | | community providers, public health care, hospice care, long |
14 | | term care, law enforcement, emergency medical service, |
15 | | physicians, advanced practice registered nurses, and physician |
16 | | assistants trained in psychiatry; an organization that |
17 | | advocates on behalf of federally qualified health centers, an |
18 | | organization that advocates on behalf of persons suffering with |
19 | | mental illness and substance abuse disorders, an organization |
20 | | that advocates on behalf of persons with disabilities, an |
21 | | organization that advocates on behalf of persons who live in |
22 | | rural areas, an organization that advocates on behalf of |
23 | | persons who live in medically underserved areas; and others |
24 | | designated by the Steering Committee or the Networks. A member |
25 | | from each Network may choose a representative who may serve on |
26 | | the Steering Committee.
|
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1 | | (Source: P.A. 99-581, eff. 1-1-17 .)
|
2 | | Section 40. The Mental Health and Developmental |
3 | | Disabilities Administrative Act is amended by changing |
4 | | Sections 5.1, 14, and 15.4 as follows:
|
5 | | (20 ILCS 1705/5.1) (from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 100-5.1)
|
6 | | Sec. 5.1.
The Department shall develop, by rule, the
|
7 | | procedures and standards by which it shall approve medications |
8 | | for
clinical use in its facilities. A list of those drugs |
9 | | approved pursuant to
these procedures shall be distributed to |
10 | | all Department facilities.
|
11 | | Drugs not listed by the Department may not be administered |
12 | | in facilities
under the jurisdiction of the Department, |
13 | | provided that an unlisted drug
may be administered as part of |
14 | | research with the prior written consent of
the Secretary |
15 | | specifying the nature of the permitted use and
the physicians |
16 | | authorized to prescribe the drug. Drugs, as used in this
|
17 | | Section, mean psychotropic and narcotic drugs.
|
18 | | No physician, advanced practice registered nurse, or |
19 | | physician assistant in the Department shall sign a prescription |
20 | | in blank, nor
permit blank prescription forms to circulate out |
21 | | of his possession or
control.
|
22 | | (Source: P.A. 99-581, eff. 1-1-17 .)
|
23 | | (20 ILCS 1705/14) (from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 100-14)
|
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1 | | Sec. 14. Chester Mental Health Center. To maintain and |
2 | | operate a
facility for the care, custody, and treatment of |
3 | | persons with mental
illness or habilitation of persons with |
4 | | developmental disabilities hereinafter
designated, to be known |
5 | | as the Chester Mental Health Center.
|
6 | | Within the Chester Mental Health Center there shall be |
7 | | confined the
following classes of persons, whose history, in |
8 | | the opinion of the
Department, discloses dangerous or violent |
9 | | tendencies and who, upon
examination under the direction of the |
10 | | Department, have been found a fit
subject for confinement in |
11 | | that facility:
|
12 | | (a) Any male person who is charged with the commission |
13 | | of a
crime but has been acquitted by reason of insanity as |
14 | | provided in Section
5-2-4 of the Unified Code of |
15 | | Corrections.
|
16 | | (b) Any male person who is charged with the commission |
17 | | of
a crime but has been found unfit under Article 104 of |
18 | | the Code of Criminal
Procedure of 1963.
|
19 | | (c) Any male person with mental illness or |
20 | | developmental disabilities or
person in need of mental |
21 | | treatment now confined under the supervision of the
|
22 | | Department or hereafter
admitted to any facility thereof or |
23 | | committed thereto by any court of competent
jurisdiction.
|
24 | | If and when it shall appear to the facility director of the |
25 | | Chester Mental
Health Center that it is necessary to confine |
26 | | persons in order to maintain
security or provide for the |
|
| | HB0313 Engrossed | - 53 - | LRB100 04130 SMS 14135 b |
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|
1 | | protection and safety of recipients and staff, the
Chester |
2 | | Mental Health Center may confine all persons on a unit to their |
3 | | rooms.
This period of confinement shall not exceed 10 hours in |
4 | | a 24 hour period,
including the recipient's scheduled hours of |
5 | | sleep, unless approved by the
Secretary of the Department. |
6 | | During the period of
confinement, the
persons confined shall be |
7 | | observed at least every 15 minutes. A record shall
be kept of |
8 | | the observations. This confinement shall not be considered
|
9 | | seclusion as defined in the Mental Health and Developmental |
10 | | Disabilities
Code.
|
11 | | The facility director of the Chester Mental Health Center |
12 | | may authorize
the temporary use of handcuffs on a recipient for |
13 | | a period not to exceed 10
minutes when necessary in the course |
14 | | of transport of the recipient within the
facility to maintain |
15 | | custody or security. Use of handcuffs is subject to the
|
16 | | provisions of Section 2-108 of the Mental Health and |
17 | | Developmental Disabilities
Code. The facility shall keep a |
18 | | monthly record listing each instance in which
handcuffs are |
19 | | used, circumstances indicating the need for use of handcuffs, |
20 | | and
time of application of handcuffs and time of release |
21 | | therefrom. The facility
director shall allow the Illinois |
22 | | Guardianship and Advocacy Commission, the
agency designated by |
23 | | the Governor under Section 1 of the Protection and
Advocacy for |
24 | | Persons with Developmental Disabilities Act, and the |
25 | | Department to
examine and copy such record upon request.
|
26 | | The facility director of the Chester Mental Health Center |
|
| | HB0313 Engrossed | - 54 - | LRB100 04130 SMS 14135 b |
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|
1 | | may authorize the temporary use of transport devices on a civil |
2 | | recipient when necessary in the course of transport of the |
3 | | civil recipient outside the facility to maintain custody or |
4 | | security. The decision whether to use any transport devices |
5 | | shall be reviewed and approved on an individualized basis by a |
6 | | physician, an advanced practice registered nurse, or a |
7 | | physician assistant based upon a determination of the civil |
8 | | recipient's: (1) history of violence, (2) history of violence |
9 | | during transports, (3) history of escapes and escape attempts, |
10 | | (4) history of trauma, (5) history of incidents of restraint or |
11 | | seclusion and use of involuntary medication, (6) current |
12 | | functioning level and medical status, and (7) prior experience |
13 | | during similar transports, and the length, duration, and |
14 | | purpose of the transport. The least restrictive transport |
15 | | device consistent with the individual's need shall be used. |
16 | | Staff transporting the individual shall be trained in the use |
17 | | of the transport devices, recognizing and responding to a |
18 | | person in distress, and shall observe and monitor the |
19 | | individual while being transported. The facility shall keep a |
20 | | monthly record listing all transports, including those |
21 | | transports for which use of transport devices was not sought, |
22 | | those for which use of transport devices was sought but denied, |
23 | | and each instance in which transport devices are used, |
24 | | circumstances indicating the need for use of transport devices, |
25 | | time of application of transport devices, time of release from |
26 | | those devices, and any adverse events. The facility director |
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| | HB0313 Engrossed | - 55 - | LRB100 04130 SMS 14135 b |
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|
1 | | shall allow the Illinois Guardianship and Advocacy Commission, |
2 | | the agency designated by the Governor under Section 1 of the |
3 | | Protection and Advocacy for Persons with Developmental |
4 | | Disabilities Act, and the Department to examine and copy the |
5 | | record upon request. This use of transport devices shall not be |
6 | | considered restraint as defined in the Mental Health and |
7 | | Developmental Disabilities Code. For the purpose of this |
8 | | Section "transport device" means ankle cuffs, handcuffs, waist |
9 | | chains or wrist-waist devices designed to restrict an |
10 | | individual's range of motion while being transported. These |
11 | | devices must be approved by the Division of Mental Health, used |
12 | | in accordance with the manufacturer's instructions, and used |
13 | | only by qualified staff members who have completed all training |
14 | | required to be eligible to transport patients and all other |
15 | | required training relating to the safe use and application of |
16 | | transport devices, including recognizing and responding to |
17 | | signs of distress in an individual whose movement is being |
18 | | restricted by a transport device. |
19 | | If and when it shall appear to the satisfaction of the |
20 | | Department that
any person confined in the Chester Mental |
21 | | Health Center is not or has
ceased to be such a source of |
22 | | danger to the public as to require his
subjection to the |
23 | | regimen of the center, the Department is hereby
authorized to |
24 | | transfer such person to any State facility for treatment of
|
25 | | persons with mental illness or habilitation of persons with |
26 | | developmental
disabilities, as the nature of the individual |
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| | HB0313 Engrossed | - 56 - | LRB100 04130 SMS 14135 b |
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|
1 | | case may require.
|
2 | | Subject to the provisions of this Section, the Department, |
3 | | except where
otherwise provided by law, shall, with respect to |
4 | | the management, conduct
and control of the Chester Mental |
5 | | Health Center and the discipline, custody
and treatment of the |
6 | | persons confined therein, have and exercise the same
rights and |
7 | | powers as are vested by law in the Department with respect to
|
8 | | any and all of the State facilities for treatment of persons |
9 | | with mental
illness or habilitation of persons with |
10 | | developmental disabilities, and the
recipients thereof, and |
11 | | shall be subject to the same duties as are imposed by
law upon |
12 | | the Department with respect to such facilities and the |
13 | | recipients
thereof. |
14 | | The Department may elect to place persons who have been |
15 | | ordered by the court to be detained under the Sexually Violent |
16 | | Persons Commitment Act in a distinct portion of the Chester |
17 | | Mental Health Center. The persons so placed shall be separated |
18 | | and shall not comingle with the recipients of the Chester |
19 | | Mental Health Center. The portion of Chester Mental Health |
20 | | Center that is used for the persons detained under the Sexually |
21 | | Violent Persons Commitment Act shall not be a part of the |
22 | | mental health facility for the enforcement and implementation |
23 | | of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code nor |
24 | | shall their care and treatment be subject to the provisions of |
25 | | the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code. The |
26 | | changes added to this Section by this amendatory Act of the |
|
| | HB0313 Engrossed | - 57 - | LRB100 04130 SMS 14135 b |
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|
1 | | 98th General Assembly are inoperative on and after June 30, |
2 | | 2015.
|
3 | | (Source: P.A. 98-79, eff. 7-15-13; 98-356, eff. 8-16-13; |
4 | | 98-756, eff. 7-16-14; 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; 99-581, eff. |
5 | | 1-1-17 .)
|
6 | | (20 ILCS 1705/15.4)
|
7 | | Sec. 15.4. Authorization for nursing delegation to permit |
8 | | direct care
staff to
administer medications. |
9 | | (a) This Section applies to (i) all programs for persons
|
10 | | with a
developmental disability in settings of 16 persons or |
11 | | fewer that are funded or
licensed by the Department of Human
|
12 | | Services and that distribute or administer medications and (ii) |
13 | | all
intermediate care
facilities for persons with |
14 | | developmental disabilities with 16 beds or fewer that are
|
15 | | licensed by the
Department of Public Health. The Department of |
16 | | Human Services shall develop a
training program for authorized |
17 | | direct care staff to administer
medications under the
|
18 | | supervision and monitoring of a registered professional nurse.
|
19 | | This training program shall be developed in consultation with |
20 | | professional
associations representing (i) physicians licensed |
21 | | to practice medicine in all
its branches, (ii) registered |
22 | | professional nurses, and (iii) pharmacists.
|
23 | | (b) For the purposes of this Section:
|
24 | | "Authorized direct care staff" means non-licensed persons |
25 | | who have
successfully completed a medication administration |
|
| | HB0313 Engrossed | - 58 - | LRB100 04130 SMS 14135 b |
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|
1 | | training program
approved by the Department of Human Services |
2 | | and conducted by a nurse-trainer.
This authorization is |
3 | | specific to an individual receiving service in
a
specific |
4 | | agency and does not transfer to another agency.
|
5 | | "Medications" means oral and topical medications, insulin |
6 | | in an injectable form, oxygen, epinephrine auto-injectors, and |
7 | | vaginal and rectal creams and suppositories. "Oral" includes |
8 | | inhalants and medications administered through enteral tubes, |
9 | | utilizing aseptic technique. "Topical" includes eye, ear, and |
10 | | nasal medications. Any controlled substances must be packaged |
11 | | specifically for an identified individual. |
12 | | "Insulin in an injectable form" means a subcutaneous |
13 | | injection via an insulin pen pre-filled by the manufacturer. |
14 | | Authorized direct care staff may administer insulin, as ordered |
15 | | by a physician, advanced practice registered nurse, or |
16 | | physician assistant, if: (i) the staff has successfully |
17 | | completed a Department-approved advanced training program |
18 | | specific to insulin administration developed in consultation |
19 | | with professional associations listed in subsection (a) of this |
20 | | Section, and (ii) the staff consults with the registered nurse, |
21 | | prior to administration, of any insulin dose that is determined |
22 | | based on a blood glucose test result. The authorized direct |
23 | | care staff shall not: (i) calculate the insulin dosage needed |
24 | | when the dose is dependent upon a blood glucose test result, or |
25 | | (ii) administer insulin to individuals who require blood |
26 | | glucose monitoring greater than 3 times daily, unless directed |
|
| | HB0313 Engrossed | - 59 - | LRB100 04130 SMS 14135 b |
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|
1 | | to do so by the registered nurse. |
2 | | "Nurse-trainer training program" means a standardized, |
3 | | competency-based
medication administration train-the-trainer |
4 | | program provided by the
Department of Human Services and |
5 | | conducted by a Department of Human
Services master |
6 | | nurse-trainer for the purpose of training nurse-trainers to
|
7 | | train persons employed or under contract to provide direct care |
8 | | or
treatment to individuals receiving services to administer
|
9 | | medications and provide self-administration of medication |
10 | | training to
individuals under the supervision and monitoring of |
11 | | the nurse-trainer. The
program incorporates adult learning |
12 | | styles, teaching strategies, classroom
management, and a |
13 | | curriculum overview, including the ethical and legal
aspects of |
14 | | supervising those administering medications.
|
15 | | "Self-administration of medications" means an individual |
16 | | administers
his or her own medications. To be considered |
17 | | capable to self-administer
their own medication, individuals |
18 | | must, at a minimum, be able to identify
their medication by |
19 | | size, shape, or color, know when they should take
the |
20 | | medication, and know the amount of medication to be taken each |
21 | | time.
|
22 | | "Training program" means a standardized medication |
23 | | administration
training program approved by the Department of |
24 | | Human Services and
conducted by a registered professional nurse |
25 | | for the purpose of training
persons employed or under contract |
26 | | to provide direct care or treatment to
individuals receiving |
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| | HB0313 Engrossed | - 60 - | LRB100 04130 SMS 14135 b |
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|
1 | | services to administer medications
and provide |
2 | | self-administration of medication training to individuals |
3 | | under
the delegation and supervision of a nurse-trainer. The |
4 | | program incorporates
adult learning styles, teaching |
5 | | strategies, classroom management,
curriculum overview, |
6 | | including ethical-legal aspects, and standardized
|
7 | | competency-based evaluations on administration of medications |
8 | | and
self-administration of medication training programs.
|
9 | | (c) Training and authorization of non-licensed direct care |
10 | | staff by
nurse-trainers must meet the requirements of this |
11 | | subsection.
|
12 | | (1) Prior to training non-licensed direct care staff to |
13 | | administer
medication, the nurse-trainer shall perform the |
14 | | following for each
individual to whom medication will be |
15 | | administered by non-licensed
direct care staff:
|
16 | | (A) An assessment of the individual's health |
17 | | history and
physical and mental status.
|
18 | | (B) An evaluation of the medications prescribed.
|
19 | | (2) Non-licensed authorized direct care staff shall |
20 | | meet the
following criteria:
|
21 | | (A) Be 18 years of age or older.
|
22 | | (B) Have completed high school or have a high |
23 | | school equivalency certificate.
|
24 | | (C) Have demonstrated functional literacy.
|
25 | | (D) Have satisfactorily completed the Health and |
26 | | Safety
component of a Department of Human Services |
|
| | HB0313 Engrossed | - 61 - | LRB100 04130 SMS 14135 b |
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|
1 | | authorized
direct care staff training program.
|
2 | | (E) Have successfully completed the training |
3 | | program,
pass the written portion of the comprehensive |
4 | | exam, and score
100% on the competency-based |
5 | | assessment specific to the
individual and his or her |
6 | | medications.
|
7 | | (F) Have received additional competency-based |
8 | | assessment
by the nurse-trainer as deemed necessary by |
9 | | the nurse-trainer
whenever a change of medication |
10 | | occurs or a new individual
that requires medication |
11 | | administration enters the program.
|
12 | | (3) Authorized direct care staff shall be re-evaluated |
13 | | by a
nurse-trainer at least annually or more frequently at |
14 | | the discretion of
the registered professional nurse. Any |
15 | | necessary retraining shall be
to the extent that is |
16 | | necessary to ensure competency of the authorized
direct |
17 | | care staff to administer medication.
|
18 | | (4) Authorization of direct care staff to administer |
19 | | medication
shall be revoked if, in the opinion of the |
20 | | registered professional nurse,
the authorized direct care |
21 | | staff is no longer competent to administer
medication.
|
22 | | (5) The registered professional nurse shall assess an
|
23 | | individual's health status at least annually or more |
24 | | frequently at the
discretion of the registered |
25 | | professional nurse.
|
26 | | (d) Medication self-administration shall meet the |
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| | HB0313 Engrossed | - 62 - | LRB100 04130 SMS 14135 b |
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|
1 | | following
requirements:
|
2 | | (1) As part of the normalization process, in order for |
3 | | each
individual to attain the highest possible level of |
4 | | independent
functioning, all individuals shall be |
5 | | permitted to participate in their
total health care |
6 | | program. This program shall include, but not be
limited to, |
7 | | individual training in preventive health and |
8 | | self-medication
procedures.
|
9 | | (A) Every program shall adopt written policies and
|
10 | | procedures for assisting individuals in obtaining |
11 | | preventative
health and self-medication skills in |
12 | | consultation with a
registered professional nurse, |
13 | | advanced practice registered nurse,
physician |
14 | | assistant, or physician licensed to practice medicine
|
15 | | in all its branches.
|
16 | | (B) Individuals shall be evaluated to determine |
17 | | their
ability to self-medicate by the nurse-trainer |
18 | | through the use of
the Department's required, |
19 | | standardized screening and assessment
instruments.
|
20 | | (C) When the results of the screening and |
21 | | assessment
indicate an individual not to be capable to |
22 | | self-administer his or her
own medications, programs |
23 | | shall be developed in consultation
with the Community |
24 | | Support Team or Interdisciplinary
Team to provide |
25 | | individuals with self-medication
administration.
|
26 | | (2) Each individual shall be presumed to be competent |
|
| | HB0313 Engrossed | - 63 - | LRB100 04130 SMS 14135 b |
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|
1 | | to self-administer
medications if:
|
2 | | (A) authorized by an order of a physician licensed |
3 | | to
practice medicine in all its branches, an advanced |
4 | | practice registered nurse, or a physician assistant; |
5 | | and
|
6 | | (B) approved to self-administer medication by the
|
7 | | individual's Community Support Team or
|
8 | | Interdisciplinary Team, which includes a registered
|
9 | | professional nurse or an advanced practice registered |
10 | | nurse.
|
11 | | (e) Quality Assurance.
|
12 | | (1) A registered professional nurse, advanced practice |
13 | | registered nurse,
licensed practical nurse, physician |
14 | | licensed to practice medicine in all
its branches, |
15 | | physician assistant, or pharmacist shall review the
|
16 | | following for all individuals:
|
17 | | (A) Medication orders.
|
18 | | (B) Medication labels, including medications |
19 | | listed on
the medication administration record for |
20 | | persons who are not
self-medicating to ensure the |
21 | | labels match the orders issued by
the physician |
22 | | licensed to practice medicine in all its branches,
|
23 | | advanced practice registered nurse, or physician |
24 | | assistant.
|
25 | | (C) Medication administration records for persons |
26 | | who
are not self-medicating to ensure that the records |
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| | HB0313 Engrossed | - 64 - | LRB100 04130 SMS 14135 b |
|
|
1 | | are completed
appropriately for:
|
2 | | (i) medication administered as prescribed;
|
3 | | (ii) refusal by the individual; and
|
4 | | (iii) full signatures provided for all |
5 | | initials used.
|
6 | | (2) Reviews shall occur at least quarterly, but may be |
7 | | done
more frequently at the discretion of the registered |
8 | | professional nurse
or advanced practice registered nurse.
|
9 | | (3) A quality assurance review of medication errors and |
10 | | data
collection for the purpose of monitoring and |
11 | | recommending
corrective action shall be conducted within 7 |
12 | | days and included in the
required annual review.
|
13 | | (f) Programs using authorized direct care
staff to |
14 | | administer medications are responsible for documenting and |
15 | | maintaining
records
on the training that is completed.
|
16 | | (g) The absence of this training program constitutes a |
17 | | threat to the
public interest,
safety, and welfare and |
18 | | necessitates emergency rulemaking by
the Departments of Human |
19 | | Services and
Public Health
under Section 5-45
of
the
Illinois |
20 | | Administrative Procedure Act.
|
21 | | (h) Direct care staff who fail to qualify for delegated |
22 | | authority to
administer medications pursuant to the provisions |
23 | | of this Section shall be
given
additional education and testing |
24 | | to meet criteria for
delegation authority to administer |
25 | | medications.
Any direct care staff person who fails to qualify |
26 | | as an authorized direct care
staff
after initial training and |
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| | HB0313 Engrossed | - 65 - | LRB100 04130 SMS 14135 b |
|
|
1 | | testing must within 3 months be given another
opportunity for |
2 | | retraining and retesting. A direct care staff person who fails
|
3 | | to
meet criteria for delegated authority to administer |
4 | | medication, including, but
not limited to, failure of the |
5 | | written test on 2 occasions shall be given
consideration for |
6 | | shift transfer or reassignment, if possible. No employee
shall |
7 | | be terminated for failure to qualify during the 3-month time |
8 | | period
following initial testing. Refusal to complete training |
9 | | and testing required
by this Section may be grounds for |
10 | | immediate dismissal.
|
11 | | (i) No authorized direct care staff person delegated to |
12 | | administer
medication shall be subject to suspension or |
13 | | discharge for errors
resulting from the staff
person's acts or |
14 | | omissions when performing the functions unless the staff
|
15 | | person's actions or omissions constitute willful and wanton |
16 | | conduct.
Nothing in this subsection is intended to supersede |
17 | | paragraph (4) of subsection
(c).
|
18 | | (j) A registered professional nurse, advanced practice |
19 | | registered nurse,
physician licensed to practice medicine in |
20 | | all its branches, or physician
assistant shall be on
duty or
on |
21 | | call at all times in any program covered by this Section.
|
22 | | (k) The employer shall be responsible for maintaining |
23 | | liability insurance
for any program covered by this Section.
|
24 | | (l) Any direct care staff person who qualifies as |
25 | | authorized direct care
staff pursuant to this Section shall be |
26 | | granted consideration for a one-time
additional
salary |
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| | HB0313 Engrossed | - 66 - | LRB100 04130 SMS 14135 b |
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|
1 | | differential. The Department shall determine and provide the |
2 | | necessary
funding for
the differential in the base. This |
3 | | subsection (l) is inoperative on and after
June 30, 2000.
|
4 | | (Source: P.A. 98-718, eff. 1-1-15; 98-901, eff. 8-15-14; 99-78, |
5 | | eff. 7-20-15; 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; 99-581, eff. 1-1-17 .)
|
6 | | Section 45. The Department of Professional Regulation Law |
7 | | of the
Civil Administrative Code of Illinois is amended by |
8 | | changing Section 2105-17 as follows:
|
9 | | (20 ILCS 2105/2105-17) |
10 | | Sec. 2105-17. Volunteer licenses. |
11 | | (a) For the purposes of this Section: |
12 | | "Health care professional" means a physician licensed |
13 | | under the Medical Practice Act of 1987, a dentist licensed |
14 | | under the Illinois Dental Practice Act, an optometrist licensed |
15 | | under the Illinois Optometric Practice Act of 1987, a physician |
16 | | assistant licensed under the Physician Assistant Practice Act |
17 | | of 1987, and a nurse or advanced practice registered nurse |
18 | | licensed under the Nurse Practice Act. The Department may |
19 | | expand this definition by rule. |
20 | | "Volunteer practice" means the practice of a licensed |
21 | | health care professional for the benefit of an individual or |
22 | | the public and without compensation for the health care |
23 | | services provided. |
24 | | (b) The Department may grant a volunteer license to a |
|
| | HB0313 Engrossed | - 67 - | LRB100 04130 SMS 14135 b |
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|
1 | | health care professional who: |
2 | | (1) meets all requirements of the State licensing Act |
3 | | that applies to his or her health care profession and the |
4 | | rules adopted under the Act; and |
5 | | (2) agrees to engage in the volunteer practice of his |
6 | | or her health care profession in a free medical clinic, as |
7 | | defined in the Good Samaritan Act, or in a public health |
8 | | clinic, as defined in Section 6-101 of the Local |
9 | | Governmental and Governmental Employees Tort Immunities |
10 | | Act, and to not practice for compensation. |
11 | | (c) A volunteer license shall be granted in accordance with |
12 | | the licensing Act that applies to the health care |
13 | | professional's given health care profession, and the licensure |
14 | | fee shall be set by rule in accordance with subsection (f). |
15 | | (d) No health care professional shall hold a non-volunteer |
16 | | license in a health care profession and a volunteer license in |
17 | | that profession at the same time. In the event that the health |
18 | | care professional obtains a volunteer license in the profession |
19 | | for which he or she holds a non-volunteer license, that |
20 | | non-volunteer license shall automatically be placed in |
21 | | inactive status. In the event that a health care professional |
22 | | obtains a non-volunteer license in the profession for which he |
23 | | or she holds a volunteer license, the volunteer license shall |
24 | | be placed in inactive status. Practicing on an expired |
25 | | volunteer license constitutes the unlicensed practice of the |
26 | | health care professional's profession. |
|
| | HB0313 Engrossed | - 68 - | LRB100 04130 SMS 14135 b |
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|
1 | | (e) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to waive or |
2 | | modify any statute, rule, or regulation concerning the |
3 | | licensure or practice of any health care profession. A health |
4 | | care professional who holds a volunteer license shall be |
5 | | subject to all statutes, rules, and regulations governing his |
6 | | or her profession. The Department shall waive the licensure fee |
7 | | for the first 500 volunteer licenses issued and may by rule |
8 | | provide for a fee waiver or fee reduction that shall apply to |
9 | | all licenses issued after the initial 500. |
10 | | (f) The Department shall determine by rule the total number |
11 | | of volunteer licenses to be issued. The Department shall file |
12 | | proposed rules implementing this Section within 6 months after |
13 | | the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 98th General |
14 | | Assembly.
|
15 | | (Source: P.A. 98-659, eff. 6-23-14.)
|
16 | | Section 50. The Department of Public Health Act is amended |
17 | | by changing Sections 7 and 8.2 as follows:
|
18 | | (20 ILCS 2305/7) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 22.05)
|
19 | | Sec. 7. The Illinois Department of Public Health shall |
20 | | adopt rules
requiring that upon death of a person who had or is |
21 | | suspected of having an
infectious or communicable disease that |
22 | | could be transmitted through
contact with the person's body or |
23 | | bodily fluids, the body shall be labeled
"Infection Hazard", or |
24 | | with an equivalent term to inform persons having
subsequent |
|
| | HB0313 Engrossed | - 69 - | LRB100 04130 SMS 14135 b |
|
|
1 | | contact with the body, including any funeral director or
|
2 | | embalmer, to take suitable precautions. Such rules shall |
3 | | require that the
label shall be prominently displayed on and |
4 | | affixed to the outer wrapping
or covering of the body if the |
5 | | body is wrapped or covered in any manner.
Responsibility for |
6 | | such labeling shall lie with the attending physician, advanced |
7 | | practice registered nurse, or physician assistant who
|
8 | | certifies death, or if the death occurs in a health care |
9 | | facility, with
such staff member as may be designated by the |
10 | | administrator of the facility. The Department may adopt rules |
11 | | providing for the safe disposal of human remains. To the extent |
12 | | feasible without endangering the public's health, the |
13 | | Department shall respect and accommodate the religious beliefs |
14 | | of individuals in implementing this Section.
|
15 | | (Source: P.A. 99-581, eff. 1-1-17 .)
|
16 | | (20 ILCS 2305/8.2)
|
17 | | Sec. 8.2. Osteoporosis Prevention and Education Program.
|
18 | | (a) The Department of Public Health, utilizing available |
19 | | federal funds,
State funds appropriated for that
purpose, or |
20 | | other available funding as provided for in this Section,
shall |
21 | | establish, promote, and maintain
an Osteoporosis Prevention |
22 | | and Education Program to promote public awareness of
the causes |
23 | | of osteoporosis, options for prevention, the value of early
|
24 | | detection, and possible treatments (including the benefits and |
25 | | risks of those
treatments). The Department may accept, for that |
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|
1 | | purpose, any special grant of
money, services, or property from |
2 | | the federal government or any of its agencies
or from any |
3 | | foundation, organization, or medical school.
|
4 | | (b) The program shall include the following:
|
5 | | (1) Development of a public education and outreach |
6 | | campaign to promote
osteoporosis prevention and education, |
7 | | including, but not limited to, the
following subjects:
|
8 | | (A) The cause and nature of the disease.
|
9 | | (B) Risk factors.
|
10 | | (C) The role of hysterectomy.
|
11 | | (D) Prevention of osteoporosis, including |
12 | | nutrition, diet, and physical
exercise.
|
13 | | (E) Diagnostic procedures and appropriate |
14 | | indications for their use.
|
15 | | (F) Hormone replacement, including benefits and |
16 | | risks.
|
17 | | (G) Environmental safety and injury prevention.
|
18 | | (H) Availability of osteoporosis diagnostic |
19 | | treatment services in the
community.
|
20 | | (2) Development of educational materials to be made |
21 | | available for
consumers, particularly targeted to |
22 | | high-risk groups, through local health
departments, local |
23 | | physicians, advanced practice registered nurses, or |
24 | | physician assistants, other providers (including, but not |
25 | | limited to,
health maintenance organizations, hospitals, |
26 | | and clinics), and women's
organizations.
|
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1 | | (3) Development of professional education programs for |
2 | | health care
providers to assist them in understanding |
3 | | research findings and the subjects
set forth in paragraph |
4 | | (1).
|
5 | | (4) Development and maintenance of a list of current |
6 | | providers of
specialized services for the prevention and |
7 | | treatment of osteoporosis.
Dissemination of the list shall |
8 | | be accompanied by a description of diagnostic
procedures, |
9 | | appropriate indications for their use, and a cautionary |
10 | | statement
about the current status of osteoporosis |
11 | | research, prevention, and treatment.
The statement shall |
12 | | also indicate that the Department does not license,
|
13 | | certify, or in any other way approve osteoporosis programs |
14 | | or centers in this
State.
|
15 | | (c) The State Board of Health shall serve as an advisory |
16 | | board to the
Department with specific respect to the prevention |
17 | | and education activities
related to osteoporosis described in |
18 | | this Section. The State Board of Health
shall assist the |
19 | | Department in implementing this Section.
|
20 | | (Source: P.A. 99-581, eff. 1-1-17 .)
|
21 | | Section 55. The Department of Public Health Powers and |
22 | | Duties Law of the
Civil Administrative Code of Illinois is |
23 | | amended by changing Sections 2310-145, 2310-397, 2310-410, |
24 | | 2310-600, 2310-677, and 2310-690 as follows:
|
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| | HB0313 Engrossed | - 72 - | LRB100 04130 SMS 14135 b |
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|
1 | | (20 ILCS 2310/2310-145)
|
2 | | Sec. 2310-145. Registry of health care professionals. The |
3 | | Department of Public Health shall
maintain a registry of all |
4 | | active-status health care professionals,
including nurses, |
5 | | nurse practitioners, advanced practice registered nurses, |
6 | | physicians,
physician assistants, psychologists,
professional |
7 | | counselors, clinical professional counselors, and pharmacists. |
8 | | The registry must consist of information shared between the |
9 | | Department of Public Health and the Department of Financial and |
10 | | Professional Regulation via a secure communication link. The |
11 | | registry must be updated on a quarterly basis. |
12 | | The
registry shall be accessed in the event of an act of |
13 | | bioterrorism or other
public health emergency or for the |
14 | | planning for the possibility of such an event.
|
15 | | (Source: P.A. 96-377, eff. 1-1-10.)
|
16 | | (20 ILCS 2310/2310-397) (was 20 ILCS 2310/55.90)
|
17 | | Sec. 2310-397. Prostate and testicular cancer program.
|
18 | | (a) The Department, subject to appropriation or other
|
19 | | available funding, shall conduct a program to promote awareness |
20 | | and early
detection of prostate and testicular cancer. The |
21 | | program may include, but
need not be limited to:
|
22 | | (1) Dissemination of information regarding the |
23 | | incidence of prostate and
testicular cancer, the risk |
24 | | factors associated with prostate and testicular
cancer, |
25 | | and the benefits of early detection and treatment.
|
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1 | | (2) Promotion of information and counseling about |
2 | | treatment options.
|
3 | | (3) Establishment and promotion of referral services |
4 | | and screening
programs.
|
5 | | Beginning July 1, 2004, the program must include the |
6 | | development and
dissemination, through print and broadcast |
7 | | media, of public service
announcements that publicize the |
8 | | importance of prostate cancer screening for
men over age 40.
|
9 | | (b) Subject to appropriation or other available funding,
a |
10 | | Prostate Cancer Screening Program shall be
established in the |
11 | | Department of Public Health.
|
12 | | (1) The Program shall apply to the following persons |
13 | | and entities:
|
14 | | (A) uninsured and underinsured men 50 years of age |
15 | | and older;
|
16 | | (B) uninsured and underinsured
men between 40 and |
17 | | 50 years of age who are at high
risk for prostate |
18 | | cancer, upon the advice of a physician, advanced |
19 | | practice registered nurse, or physician assistant or |
20 | | upon the
request of the patient; and
|
21 | | (C) non-profit organizations providing assistance |
22 | | to persons described
in subparagraphs (A) and (B).
|
23 | | (2) Any entity funded by the Program shall coordinate |
24 | | with other
local providers of prostate cancer screening, |
25 | | diagnostic, follow-up,
education, and advocacy services to |
26 | | avoid duplication of effort. Any
entity funded by the |
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|
1 | | Program shall comply with any applicable State
and federal |
2 | | standards regarding prostate cancer screening.
|
3 | | (3) Administrative costs of the Department shall not |
4 | | exceed 10%
of the funds allocated to the Program. Indirect |
5 | | costs of the
entities funded by this Program shall not |
6 | | exceed 12%. The
Department shall define "indirect costs" in |
7 | | accordance with
applicable State and federal law.
|
8 | | (4) Any entity funded by the Program shall collect data |
9 | | and
maintain records that are determined by the Department |
10 | | to be
necessary to facilitate the Department's ability to |
11 | | monitor and
evaluate the effectiveness of the entities and |
12 | | the Program.
Commencing with the Program's second year of |
13 | | operation, the
Department shall submit an Annual Report to |
14 | | the General Assembly and
the Governor. The report shall |
15 | | describe the activities
and effectiveness of the Program |
16 | | and shall include, but not be
limited to, the following |
17 | | types of information regarding those served
by the Program:
|
18 | | (A) the number; and
|
19 | | (B) the ethnic, geographic, and age breakdown.
|
20 | | (5) The Department or any entity funded by the Program |
21 | | shall
collect personal and medical information necessary |
22 | | to administer the
Program from any individual applying for |
23 | | services under the Program.
The information shall be |
24 | | confidential and shall not be disclosed
other than for |
25 | | purposes directly connected with the administration of
the |
26 | | Program or except as otherwise provided by law or pursuant |
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1 | | to
prior written consent of the subject of the information.
|
2 | | (6) The Department or any entity funded by the program |
3 | | may
disclose the confidential information to medical |
4 | | personnel and fiscal
intermediaries of the State to the |
5 | | extent necessary to administer
the Program, and to other |
6 | | State public health agencies or medical
researchers if the |
7 | | confidential information is necessary to carry out
the |
8 | | duties of those agencies or researchers in the |
9 | | investigation,
control, or surveillance of prostate |
10 | | cancer.
|
11 | | (c) The Department shall adopt rules to implement the |
12 | | Prostate Cancer
Screening Program in accordance with the |
13 | | Illinois Administrative
Procedure Act.
|
14 | | (Source: P.A. 98-87, eff. 1-1-14; 99-581, eff. 1-1-17 .)
|
15 | | (20 ILCS 2310/2310-410) (was 20 ILCS 2310/55.42)
|
16 | | Sec. 2310-410. Sickle cell disease. To conduct a public
|
17 | | information campaign for physicians, advanced practice |
18 | | registered nurses, physician assistants,
hospitals, health |
19 | | facilities, public health departments, and the general
public |
20 | | on sickle cell disease, methods of care, and treatment
|
21 | | modalities available; to identify and catalogue sickle cell |
22 | | resources in
this State for distribution and referral purposes; |
23 | | and to coordinate
services with the established programs, |
24 | | including State, federal, and
voluntary groups.
|
25 | | (Source: P.A. 99-581, eff. 1-1-17 .)
|
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|
1 | | (20 ILCS 2310/2310-600)
|
2 | | Sec. 2310-600. Advance directive information.
|
3 | | (a) The Department of Public Health shall prepare and |
4 | | publish the summary of
advance directives law, as required by |
5 | | the federal Patient
Self-Determination Act, and related forms. |
6 | | Publication may be limited to the World Wide Web. The summary |
7 | | required under this subsection (a) must include the Department |
8 | | of Public Health Uniform POLST form.
|
9 | | (b) The Department of Public Health shall publish
Spanish |
10 | | language
versions of the following:
|
11 | | (1) The statutory Living Will Declaration form.
|
12 | | (2) The Illinois Statutory Short Form Power of Attorney |
13 | | for Health Care.
|
14 | | (3) The statutory Declaration of Mental Health |
15 | | Treatment Form.
|
16 | | (4) The summary of advance directives law in Illinois.
|
17 | | (5) The Department of Public Health Uniform POLST form.
|
18 | | Publication may be limited to the World Wide Web.
|
19 | | (b-5) In consultation with a statewide professional |
20 | | organization
representing
physicians licensed to practice |
21 | | medicine in all its branches, statewide
organizations |
22 | | representing physician assistants, advanced practice |
23 | | registered nurses, nursing homes, registered professional |
24 | | nurses, and emergency medical systems, and a statewide
|
25 | | organization
representing hospitals, the Department of Public |
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1 | | Health shall develop and
publish a uniform
form for |
2 | | practitioner cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) or |
3 | | life-sustaining treatment orders that may be utilized in all
|
4 | | settings. The form shall meet the published minimum |
5 | | requirements to nationally be considered a practitioner orders |
6 | | for life-sustaining treatment form, or POLST, and
may be |
7 | | referred to as the Department of Public Health Uniform POLST |
8 | | form. This form does not replace a physician's or other |
9 | | practitioner's authority to make a do-not-resuscitate (DNR) |
10 | | order.
|
11 | | (c) (Blank). |
12 | | (d) The Department of Public Health shall publish the |
13 | | Department of Public Health Uniform POLST form reflecting the |
14 | | changes made by this amendatory Act of the 98th General |
15 | | Assembly no later than January 1, 2015.
|
16 | | (Source: P.A. 98-1110, eff. 8-26-14; 99-319, eff. 1-1-16; |
17 | | 99-581, eff. 1-1-17 .)
|
18 | | (20 ILCS 2310/2310-677) |
19 | | (Section scheduled to be repealed on June 30, 2019) |
20 | | Sec. 2310-677. Neonatal Abstinence Syndrome Advisory |
21 | | Committee. |
22 | | (a) As used in this Section: |
23 | | "Department" means the Department of Public Health. |
24 | | "Director" means the Director of Public Health. |
25 | | "Neonatal Abstinence Syndrome" or "NAS" means various |
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1 | | adverse conditions that occur in a newborn infant who was |
2 | | exposed to addictive or prescription drugs while in the |
3 | | mother's womb. |
4 | | (b) There is created the Advisory Committee on Neonatal |
5 | | Abstinence Syndrome. The Advisory Committee shall consist of up |
6 | | to 10 members appointed by the Director of Public Health. The |
7 | | Director shall make the appointments within 90 days after the |
8 | | effective date of this amendatory Act of the 99th General |
9 | | Assembly. Members shall receive no compensation for their |
10 | | services. The members of the Advisory Committee shall represent |
11 | | different racial, ethnic, and geographic backgrounds and |
12 | | consist of: |
13 | | (1) at least one member representing a statewide |
14 | | association of hospitals; |
15 | | (2) at least one member representing a statewide |
16 | | organization of pediatricians; |
17 | | (3) at least one member representing a statewide |
18 | | organization of obstetricians; |
19 | | (4) at least one member representing a statewide |
20 | | organization that advocates for the health of mothers and |
21 | | infants; |
22 | | (5) at least one member representing a statewide |
23 | | organization of licensed physicians; |
24 | | (6) at least one member who is a licensed practical |
25 | | nurse, registered professional nurse, or advanced practice |
26 | | registered nurse with expertise in the treatment of |
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1 | | newborns in neonatal intensive care units; |
2 | | (7) at least one member representing a local or |
3 | | regional public health agency; and |
4 | | (8) at least one member with expertise in the treatment |
5 | | of drug dependency and addiction. |
6 | | (c) In addition to the membership in subsection (a) of this |
7 | | Section, the following persons or their designees shall serve |
8 | | as ex officio members of the Advisory Committee: the Director |
9 | | of Public Health, the Secretary of Human Services, the Director |
10 | | of Healthcare and Family Services, and the Director of Children |
11 | | and Family Services. The Director of Public Health, or his or |
12 | | her designee, shall serve as Chair of the Committee. |
13 | | (d) The Advisory Committee shall meet at the call of the |
14 | | Chair. The Committee shall meet at least 3 times each year and |
15 | | its initial meeting shall take place within 120 days after the |
16 | | effective date of this Act. The Advisory Committee shall advise |
17 | | and assist the Department to: |
18 | | (1) develop an appropriate standard clinical |
19 | | definition of "NAS"; |
20 | | (2) develop a uniform process of identifying NAS; |
21 | | (3) develop protocols for training hospital personnel |
22 | | in implementing an appropriate and uniform process for |
23 | | identifying and treating NAS; |
24 | | (4) identify and develop options for reporting NAS data |
25 | | to the Department by using existing or new data reporting |
26 | | options; and |
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1 | | (5) make recommendations to the Department on |
2 | | evidence-based guidelines and programs to improve the |
3 | | outcomes of pregnancies with respect to NAS. |
4 | | (e) The Advisory Committee shall provide an annual report |
5 | | of its activities and recommendations to the Director, the |
6 | | General Assembly, and the Governor by March 31 of each year |
7 | | beginning in 2016. The final report of the Advisory Committee |
8 | | shall be submitted by March 31, 2019. |
9 | | (f) This Section is repealed on June 30, 2019.
|
10 | | (Source: P.A. 99-320, eff. 8-7-15.)
|
11 | | (20 ILCS 2310/2310-690) |
12 | | Sec. 2310-690. Cytomegalovirus public education. |
13 | | (a) In this Section: |
14 | | "CMV" means cytomegalovirus. |
15 | | "Health care professional and provider" means any |
16 | | physician, advanced practice registered nurse, physician |
17 | | assistant, hospital facility, or other
person that is |
18 | | licensed or otherwise authorized to deliver health care
|
19 | | services. |
20 | | (b) The Department shall develop or approve and publish |
21 | | informational materials for women who may become pregnant, |
22 | | expectant parents, and parents of infants regarding: |
23 | | (1) the incidence of CMV; |
24 | | (2) the transmission of CMV to pregnant women and women |
25 | | who may become pregnant; |
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1 | | (3) birth defects caused by congenital CMV; |
2 | | (4) methods of diagnosing congenital CMV; and |
3 | | (5) available preventive measures to avoid the |
4 | | infection of women who are pregnant or may become pregnant. |
5 | | (c) The Department shall publish the information required |
6 | | under subsection (b) on its Internet website. |
7 | | (d) The Department shall publish information to: |
8 | | (1) educate women who may become pregnant, expectant |
9 | | parents, and parents of infants about CMV; and |
10 | | (2) raise awareness of CMV among health care |
11 | | professionals and providers who provide care to expectant |
12 | | mothers or infants. |
13 | | (e) The Department may solicit and accept the assistance of |
14 | | any relevant health care professional associations or |
15 | | community resources, including faith-based resources, to |
16 | | promote education about CMV under this Section. |
17 | | (f) If a newborn infant fails the 2 initial hearing |
18 | | screenings in the hospital, then the hospital performing that |
19 | | screening shall provide to the parents of the newborn infant |
20 | | information regarding: (i) birth defects caused by congenital |
21 | | CMV; (ii) testing opportunities and options for CMV, including |
22 | | the opportunity to test for CMV before leaving the hospital; |
23 | | and (iii) early intervention services. Health care |
24 | | professionals and providers may, but are not required to, use |
25 | | the materials developed by the Department for distribution to |
26 | | parents of newborn infants.
|
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1 | | (Source: P.A. 99-424, eff. 1-1-16; 99-581, eff. 1-1-17; 99-642, |
2 | | eff. 7-28-26 .)
|
3 | | Section 60. The Community Health Worker Advisory Board Act |
4 | | is amended by changing Section 10 as follows:
|
5 | | (20 ILCS 2335/10) |
6 | | Sec. 10. Advisory Board. |
7 | | (a) There is created the Advisory Board on Community Health |
8 | | Workers. The Board shall consist of 16 members appointed by the |
9 | | Director of Public Health. The Director shall make the |
10 | | appointments to the Board within 90 days after the effective |
11 | | date of this Act. The members of the Board shall represent |
12 | | different racial and ethnic backgrounds and have the |
13 | | qualifications as follows: |
14 | | (1) four members who currently serve as community |
15 | | health workers in Cook County, one of whom shall have |
16 | | served as a health insurance marketplace navigator; |
17 | | (2) two members who currently serve as community health |
18 | | workers in DuPage, Kane, Lake, or Will County; |
19 | | (3) one member who currently serves as a community |
20 | | health worker in Bond, Calhoun, Clinton, Jersey, Macoupin, |
21 | | Madison, Monroe, Montgomery, Randolph, St. Clair, or |
22 | | Washington County; |
23 | | (4) one member who currently serves as a community |
24 | | health worker in any other county in the State; |
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1 | | (5) one member who is a physician licensed to practice |
2 | | medicine in Illinois; |
3 | | (6) one member who is a physician assistant; |
4 | | (7) one member who is a licensed nurse or advanced |
5 | | practice registered nurse; |
6 | | (8) one member who is a licensed social worker, |
7 | | counselor, or psychologist; |
8 | | (9) one member who currently employs community health |
9 | | workers; |
10 | | (10) one member who is a health policy advisor with |
11 | | experience in health workforce policy; |
12 | | (11) one member who is a public health professional |
13 | | with experience with community health policy; and |
14 | | (12) one representative of a community college, |
15 | | university, or educational institution that provides |
16 | | training to community health workers. |
17 | | (b) In addition, the following persons or their designees |
18 | | shall serve as ex officio, non-voting members of the Board: the |
19 | | Executive Director of the Illinois Community College Board, the |
20 | | Director of Children and Family Services, the Director of |
21 | | Aging, the Director of Public Health, the Director of |
22 | | Employment Security, the Director of Commerce and Economic |
23 | | Opportunity, the Secretary of Financial and Professional |
24 | | Regulation, the Director of Healthcare and Family Services, and |
25 | | the Secretary of Human Services. |
26 | | (c) The voting members of the Board shall select a |
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1 | | chairperson from the voting members of the Board. The Board |
2 | | shall consult with additional experts as needed. Members of the |
3 | | Board shall serve without compensation. The Department shall |
4 | | provide administrative and staff support to the Board. The |
5 | | meetings of the Board are subject to the provisions of the Open |
6 | | Meetings Act. |
7 | | (d) The Board shall consider the core competencies of a |
8 | | community health worker, including skills and areas of |
9 | | knowledge that are essential to bringing about expanded health |
10 | | and wellness in diverse communities and reducing health |
11 | | disparities. As relating to members of communities and health |
12 | | teams, the core competencies for effective community health |
13 | | workers may include, but are not limited to: |
14 | | (1) outreach methods and strategies; |
15 | | (2) client and community assessment; |
16 | | (3) effective community-based and participatory |
17 | | methods, including research; |
18 | | (4) culturally competent communication and care; |
19 | | (5) health education for behavior change; |
20 | | (6) support, advocacy, and health system navigation |
21 | | for clients; |
22 | | (7) application of public health concepts and |
23 | | approaches; |
24 | | (8) individual and community capacity building and |
25 | | mobilization; and |
26 | | (9) writing, oral, technical, and communication |
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1 | | skills.
|
2 | | (Source: P.A. 98-796, eff. 7-31-14; 99-581, eff. 1-1-17 .)
|
3 | | Section 65. The Illinois Housing Development Act is amended |
4 | | by changing Section 7.30 as follows:
|
5 | | (20 ILCS 3805/7.30) |
6 | | Sec. 7.30. Foreclosure Prevention Program. |
7 | | (a) The Authority shall establish and administer a |
8 | | Foreclosure Prevention Program. The Authority shall use moneys |
9 | | in the Foreclosure Prevention Program Fund, and any other funds |
10 | | appropriated for this purpose, to make grants to (i) approved |
11 | | counseling agencies for approved housing counseling and (ii) |
12 | | approved community-based organizations for approved |
13 | | foreclosure prevention outreach programs. The Authority shall |
14 | | promulgate rules to implement this Program and may adopt |
15 | | emergency rules as soon as practicable to begin implementation |
16 | | of the Program. |
17 | | (b) Subject to
appropriation and the annual receipt of |
18 | | funds, the Authority shall make grants from the Foreclosure |
19 | | Prevention Program Fund derived from fees paid as specified in |
20 | | subsection (a) of Section 15-1504.1 of the Code of Civil |
21 | | Procedure as follows: |
22 | | (1) 25% of the moneys in the Fund shall be used to make |
23 | | grants to approved counseling agencies that provide |
24 | | services in Illinois outside of the City of Chicago. Grants |
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1 | | shall be based upon the number of foreclosures filed in an |
2 | | approved counseling agency's service area, the capacity of |
3 | | the agency to provide foreclosure counseling services, and |
4 | | any other factors that the Authority deems appropriate. |
5 | | (2) 25% of the moneys in the Fund shall be distributed |
6 | | to the City of Chicago to make grants to approved |
7 | | counseling agencies located within the City of Chicago for |
8 | | approved housing counseling or to support foreclosure |
9 | | prevention counseling programs administered by the City of |
10 | | Chicago. |
11 | | (3) 25% of the moneys in the Fund shall be used to make |
12 | | grants to approved community-based organizations located |
13 | | outside of the City of Chicago for approved foreclosure |
14 | | prevention outreach programs. |
15 | | (4) 25% of the moneys in the Fund shall be used to make |
16 | | grants to approved community-based organizations located |
17 | | within the City of Chicago for approved foreclosure |
18 | | prevention outreach programs, with priority given to |
19 | | programs that provide door-to-door outreach. |
20 | | (b-1) Subject to appropriation and the annual receipt of |
21 | | funds, the Authority shall make grants from the Foreclosure |
22 | | Prevention Program Graduated Fund derived from fees paid as |
23 | | specified in paragraph (1) of subsection (a-5) of Section |
24 | | 15-1504.1 of the Code of Civil Procedure, as follows: |
25 | | (1) 30% shall be used to make grants for approved |
26 | | housing counseling in Cook County outside of the City of |
|
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1 | | Chicago; |
2 | | (2) 25% shall be used to make grants for approved |
3 | | housing counseling in the City of Chicago; |
4 | | (3) 30% shall be used to make grants for approved |
5 | | housing counseling in DuPage, Kane, Lake, McHenry, and Will |
6 | | Counties; and |
7 | | (4) 15% shall be used to make grants for approved |
8 | | housing counseling in Illinois in counties other than Cook, |
9 | | DuPage, Kane, Lake, McHenry, and Will Counties provided |
10 | | that grants to provide approved housing counseling to |
11 | | borrowers residing within these counties shall be based, to |
12 | | the extent practicable, (i) proportionately on the amount |
13 | | of fees paid to the respective clerks of the courts within |
14 | | these counties and (ii) on any other factors that the |
15 | | Authority deems appropriate. |
16 | | The percentages set forth in this subsection (b-1) shall be |
17 | | calculated after deduction of reimbursable administrative |
18 | | expenses incurred by the Authority, but shall not be greater |
19 | | than 4% of the annual appropriated amount. |
20 | | (b-5) As used in this Section: |
21 | | "Approved community-based organization" means a |
22 | | not-for-profit entity that provides educational and financial |
23 | | information to residents of a community through in-person |
24 | | contact. "Approved community-based organization" does not |
25 | | include a not-for-profit corporation or other entity or person |
26 | | that provides legal representation or advice in a civil |
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1 | | proceeding or court-sponsored mediation services, or a |
2 | | governmental agency. |
3 | | "Approved foreclosure prevention outreach program" means a |
4 | | program developed by an approved community-based organization |
5 | | that includes in-person contact with residents to provide (i) |
6 | | pre-purchase and post-purchase home ownership counseling, (ii) |
7 | | education about the foreclosure process and the options of a |
8 | | mortgagor in a foreclosure proceeding, and (iii) programs |
9 | | developed by an approved community-based organization in |
10 | | conjunction with a State or federally chartered financial |
11 | | institution. |
12 | | "Approved counseling agency" means a housing counseling |
13 | | agency approved by the U.S. Department of Housing and Urban |
14 | | Development. |
15 | | "Approved housing counseling" means in-person counseling |
16 | | provided by a counselor employed by an approved counseling |
17 | | agency to all borrowers, or documented telephone counseling |
18 | | where a hardship would be imposed on one or more borrowers. A |
19 | | hardship shall exist in instances in which the borrower is |
20 | | confined to his or her home due to a medical condition, as |
21 | | verified in writing by a physician, advanced practice |
22 | | registered nurse, or physician assistant, or the borrower |
23 | | resides 50 miles or more from the nearest approved counseling |
24 | | agency. In instances of telephone counseling, the borrower must |
25 | | supply all necessary documents to the counselor at least 72 |
26 | | hours prior to the scheduled telephone counseling session. |
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1 | | (c) (Blank).
|
2 | | (c-5) Where the jurisdiction of an approved counseling |
3 | | agency is included within more than one of the geographic areas |
4 | | set forth in this Section, the Authority may elect to fully |
5 | | fund the applicant from one of the relevant geographic areas. |
6 | | (Source: P.A. 98-20, eff. 6-11-13; 99-581, eff. 1-1-17 .)
|
7 | | Section 70. The Property Tax Code is amended by changing |
8 | | Sections 15-168 and 15-172 as follows:
|
9 | | (35 ILCS 200/15-168) |
10 | | Sec. 15-168. Homestead exemption for persons with |
11 | | disabilities. |
12 | | (a) Beginning with taxable year 2007, an
annual homestead |
13 | | exemption is granted to persons with disabilities in
the amount |
14 | | of $2,000, except as provided in subsection (c), to
be deducted |
15 | | from the property's value as equalized or assessed
by the |
16 | | Department of Revenue. The person with a disability shall |
17 | | receive
the homestead exemption upon meeting the following
|
18 | | requirements: |
19 | | (1) The property must be occupied as the primary |
20 | | residence by the person with a disability. |
21 | | (2) The person with a disability must be liable for |
22 | | paying the
real estate taxes on the property. |
23 | | (3) The person with a disability must be an owner of |
24 | | record of
the property or have a legal or equitable |
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1 | | interest in the
property as evidenced by a written |
2 | | instrument. In the case
of a leasehold interest in |
3 | | property, the lease must be for
a single family residence. |
4 | | A person who has a disability during the taxable year
is |
5 | | eligible to apply for this homestead exemption during that
|
6 | | taxable year. Application must be made during the
application |
7 | | period in effect for the county of residence. If a
homestead |
8 | | exemption has been granted under this Section and the
person |
9 | | awarded the exemption subsequently becomes a resident of
a |
10 | | facility licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act, the |
11 | | Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, the ID/DD |
12 | | Community Care Act, or the MC/DD Act, then the
exemption shall |
13 | | continue (i) so long as the residence continues
to be occupied |
14 | | by the qualifying person's spouse or (ii) if the
residence |
15 | | remains unoccupied but is still owned by the person
qualified |
16 | | for the homestead exemption. |
17 | | (b) For the purposes of this Section, "person with a |
18 | | disability"
means a person unable to engage in any substantial |
19 | | gainful activity by reason of a medically determinable physical |
20 | | or mental impairment which can be expected to result in death |
21 | | or has lasted or can be expected to last for a continuous |
22 | | period of not less than 12 months. Persons with disabilities |
23 | | filing claims under this Act shall submit proof of disability |
24 | | in such form and manner as the Department shall by rule and |
25 | | regulation prescribe. Proof that a claimant is eligible to |
26 | | receive disability benefits under the Federal Social Security |
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1 | | Act shall constitute proof of disability for purposes of this |
2 | | Act. Issuance of an Illinois Person with a Disability |
3 | | Identification Card stating that the claimant is under a Class |
4 | | 2 disability, as defined in Section 4A of the Illinois |
5 | | Identification Card Act, shall constitute proof that the person |
6 | | named thereon is a person with a disability for purposes of |
7 | | this Act. A person with a disability not covered under the |
8 | | Federal Social Security Act and not presenting an Illinois |
9 | | Person with a Disability Identification Card stating that the |
10 | | claimant is under a Class 2 disability shall be examined by a |
11 | | physician, advanced practice registered nurse, or physician |
12 | | assistant designated by the Department, and his status as a |
13 | | person with a disability determined using the same standards as |
14 | | used by the Social Security Administration. The costs of any |
15 | | required examination shall be borne by the claimant. |
16 | | (c) For land improved with (i) an apartment building owned
|
17 | | and operated as a cooperative or (ii) a life care facility as
|
18 | | defined under Section 2 of the Life Care Facilities Act that is
|
19 | | considered to be a cooperative, the maximum reduction from the
|
20 | | value of the property, as equalized or assessed by the
|
21 | | Department, shall be multiplied by the number of apartments or
|
22 | | units occupied by a person with a disability. The person with a |
23 | | disability shall
receive the homestead exemption upon meeting |
24 | | the following
requirements: |
25 | | (1) The property must be occupied as the primary |
26 | | residence by the
person with a disability. |
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1 | | (2) The person with a disability must be liable by |
2 | | contract with
the owner or owners of record for paying the |
3 | | apportioned
property taxes on the property of the |
4 | | cooperative or life
care facility. In the case of a life |
5 | | care facility, the
person with a disability must be liable |
6 | | for paying the apportioned
property taxes under a life care |
7 | | contract as defined in Section 2 of the Life Care |
8 | | Facilities Act. |
9 | | (3) The person with a disability must be an owner of |
10 | | record of a
legal or equitable interest in the cooperative |
11 | | apartment
building. A leasehold interest does not meet this
|
12 | | requirement.
|
13 | | If a homestead exemption is granted under this subsection, the
|
14 | | cooperative association or management firm shall credit the
|
15 | | savings resulting from the exemption to the apportioned tax
|
16 | | liability of the qualifying person with a disability. The chief |
17 | | county
assessment officer may request reasonable proof that the
|
18 | | association or firm has properly credited the exemption. A
|
19 | | person who willfully refuses to credit an exemption to the
|
20 | | qualified person with a disability is guilty of a Class B |
21 | | misdemeanor.
|
22 | | (d) The chief county assessment officer shall determine the
|
23 | | eligibility of property to receive the homestead exemption
|
24 | | according to guidelines established by the Department. After a
|
25 | | person has received an exemption under this Section, an annual
|
26 | | verification of eligibility for the exemption shall be mailed
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1 | | to the taxpayer. |
2 | | In counties with fewer than 3,000,000 inhabitants, the |
3 | | chief county assessment officer shall provide to each
person |
4 | | granted a homestead exemption under this Section a form
to |
5 | | designate any other person to receive a duplicate of any
notice |
6 | | of delinquency in the payment of taxes assessed and
levied |
7 | | under this Code on the person's qualifying property. The
|
8 | | duplicate notice shall be in addition to the notice required to
|
9 | | be provided to the person receiving the exemption and shall be |
10 | | given in the manner required by this Code. The person filing
|
11 | | the request for the duplicate notice shall pay an
|
12 | | administrative fee of $5 to the chief county assessment
|
13 | | officer. The assessment officer shall then file the executed
|
14 | | designation with the county collector, who shall issue the
|
15 | | duplicate notices as indicated by the designation. A
|
16 | | designation may be rescinded by the person with a disability in |
17 | | the
manner required by the chief county assessment officer. |
18 | | (e) A taxpayer who claims an exemption under Section 15-165 |
19 | | or 15-169 may not claim an exemption under this Section.
|
20 | | (Source: P.A. 98-104, eff. 7-22-13; 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; |
21 | | 99-180, eff. 7-29-15; 99-581, eff. 1-1-17; 99-642, eff. |
22 | | 7-28-16 .)
|
23 | | (35 ILCS 200/15-172)
|
24 | | Sec. 15-172. Senior Citizens Assessment Freeze Homestead |
25 | | Exemption.
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1 | | (a) This Section may be cited as the Senior Citizens |
2 | | Assessment
Freeze Homestead Exemption.
|
3 | | (b) As used in this Section:
|
4 | | "Applicant" means an individual who has filed an |
5 | | application under this
Section.
|
6 | | "Base amount" means the base year equalized assessed value |
7 | | of the residence
plus the first year's equalized assessed value |
8 | | of any added improvements which
increased the assessed value of |
9 | | the residence after the base year.
|
10 | | "Base year" means the taxable year prior to the taxable |
11 | | year for which the
applicant first qualifies and applies for |
12 | | the exemption provided that in the
prior taxable year the |
13 | | property was improved with a permanent structure that
was |
14 | | occupied as a residence by the applicant who was liable for |
15 | | paying real
property taxes on the property and who was either |
16 | | (i) an owner of record of the
property or had legal or |
17 | | equitable interest in the property as evidenced by a
written |
18 | | instrument or (ii) had a legal or equitable interest as a |
19 | | lessee in the
parcel of property that was single family |
20 | | residence.
If in any subsequent taxable year for which the |
21 | | applicant applies and
qualifies for the exemption the equalized |
22 | | assessed value of the residence is
less than the equalized |
23 | | assessed value in the existing base year
(provided that such |
24 | | equalized assessed value is not
based
on an
assessed value that |
25 | | results from a temporary irregularity in the property that
|
26 | | reduces the
assessed value for one or more taxable years), then |
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1 | | that
subsequent taxable year shall become the base year until a |
2 | | new base year is
established under the terms of this paragraph. |
3 | | For taxable year 1999 only, the
Chief County Assessment Officer |
4 | | shall review (i) all taxable years for which
the
applicant |
5 | | applied and qualified for the exemption and (ii) the existing |
6 | | base
year.
The assessment officer shall select as the new base |
7 | | year the year with the
lowest equalized assessed value.
An |
8 | | equalized assessed value that is based on an assessed value |
9 | | that results
from a
temporary irregularity in the property that |
10 | | reduces the assessed value for one
or more
taxable years shall |
11 | | not be considered the lowest equalized assessed value.
The |
12 | | selected year shall be the base year for
taxable year 1999 and |
13 | | thereafter until a new base year is established under the
terms |
14 | | of this paragraph.
|
15 | | "Chief County Assessment Officer" means the County |
16 | | Assessor or Supervisor of
Assessments of the county in which |
17 | | the property is located.
|
18 | | "Equalized assessed value" means the assessed value as |
19 | | equalized by the
Illinois Department of Revenue.
|
20 | | "Household" means the applicant, the spouse of the |
21 | | applicant, and all persons
using the residence of the applicant |
22 | | as their principal place of residence.
|
23 | | "Household income" means the combined income of the members |
24 | | of a household
for the calendar year preceding the taxable |
25 | | year.
|
26 | | "Income" has the same meaning as provided in Section 3.07 |
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1 | | of the Senior
Citizens and Persons with Disabilities Property |
2 | | Tax Relief
Act, except that, beginning in assessment year 2001, |
3 | | "income" does not
include veteran's benefits.
|
4 | | "Internal Revenue Code of 1986" means the United States |
5 | | Internal Revenue Code
of 1986 or any successor law or laws |
6 | | relating to federal income taxes in effect
for the year |
7 | | preceding the taxable year.
|
8 | | "Life care facility that qualifies as a cooperative" means |
9 | | a facility as
defined in Section 2 of the Life Care Facilities |
10 | | Act.
|
11 | | "Maximum income limitation" means: |
12 | | (1) $35,000 prior
to taxable year 1999; |
13 | | (2) $40,000 in taxable years 1999 through 2003; |
14 | | (3) $45,000 in taxable years 2004 through 2005; |
15 | | (4) $50,000 in taxable years 2006 and 2007; and |
16 | | (5) $55,000 in taxable year 2008 and thereafter.
|
17 | | "Residence" means the principal dwelling place and |
18 | | appurtenant structures
used for residential purposes in this |
19 | | State occupied on January 1 of the
taxable year by a household |
20 | | and so much of the surrounding land, constituting
the parcel |
21 | | upon which the dwelling place is situated, as is used for
|
22 | | residential purposes. If the Chief County Assessment Officer |
23 | | has established a
specific legal description for a portion of |
24 | | property constituting the
residence, then that portion of |
25 | | property shall be deemed the residence for the
purposes of this |
26 | | Section.
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1 | | "Taxable year" means the calendar year during which ad |
2 | | valorem property taxes
payable in the next succeeding year are |
3 | | levied.
|
4 | | (c) Beginning in taxable year 1994, a senior citizens |
5 | | assessment freeze
homestead exemption is granted for real |
6 | | property that is improved with a
permanent structure that is |
7 | | occupied as a residence by an applicant who (i) is
65 years of |
8 | | age or older during the taxable year, (ii) has a household |
9 | | income that does not exceed the maximum income limitation, |
10 | | (iii) is liable for paying real property taxes on
the
property, |
11 | | and (iv) is an owner of record of the property or has a legal or
|
12 | | equitable interest in the property as evidenced by a written |
13 | | instrument. This
homestead exemption shall also apply to a |
14 | | leasehold interest in a parcel of
property improved with a |
15 | | permanent structure that is a single family residence
that is |
16 | | occupied as a residence by a person who (i) is 65 years of age |
17 | | or older
during the taxable year, (ii) has a household income |
18 | | that does not exceed the maximum income limitation,
(iii)
has a |
19 | | legal or equitable ownership interest in the property as |
20 | | lessee, and (iv)
is liable for the payment of real property |
21 | | taxes on that property.
|
22 | | In counties of 3,000,000 or more inhabitants, the amount of |
23 | | the exemption for all taxable years is the equalized assessed |
24 | | value of the
residence in the taxable year for which |
25 | | application is made minus the base
amount. In all other |
26 | | counties, the amount of the exemption is as follows: (i) |
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1 | | through taxable year 2005 and for taxable year 2007 and |
2 | | thereafter, the amount of this exemption shall be the equalized |
3 | | assessed value of the
residence in the taxable year for which |
4 | | application is made minus the base
amount; and (ii) for
taxable |
5 | | year 2006, the amount of the exemption is as follows:
|
6 | | (1) For an applicant who has a household income of |
7 | | $45,000 or less, the amount of the exemption is the |
8 | | equalized assessed value of the
residence in the taxable |
9 | | year for which application is made minus the base
amount. |
10 | | (2) For an applicant who has a household income |
11 | | exceeding $45,000 but not exceeding $46,250, the amount of |
12 | | the exemption is (i) the equalized assessed value of the
|
13 | | residence in the taxable year for which application is made |
14 | | minus the base
amount (ii) multiplied by 0.8. |
15 | | (3) For an applicant who has a household income |
16 | | exceeding $46,250 but not exceeding $47,500, the amount of |
17 | | the exemption is (i) the equalized assessed value of the
|
18 | | residence in the taxable year for which application is made |
19 | | minus the base
amount (ii) multiplied by 0.6. |
20 | | (4) For an applicant who has a household income |
21 | | exceeding $47,500 but not exceeding $48,750, the amount of |
22 | | the exemption is (i) the equalized assessed value of the
|
23 | | residence in the taxable year for which application is made |
24 | | minus the base
amount (ii) multiplied by 0.4. |
25 | | (5) For an applicant who has a household income |
26 | | exceeding $48,750 but not exceeding $50,000, the amount of |
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1 | | the exemption is (i) the equalized assessed value of the
|
2 | | residence in the taxable year for which application is made |
3 | | minus the base
amount (ii) multiplied by 0.2.
|
4 | | When the applicant is a surviving spouse of an applicant |
5 | | for a prior year for
the same residence for which an exemption |
6 | | under this Section has been granted,
the base year and base |
7 | | amount for that residence are the same as for the
applicant for |
8 | | the prior year.
|
9 | | Each year at the time the assessment books are certified to |
10 | | the County Clerk,
the Board of Review or Board of Appeals shall |
11 | | give to the County Clerk a list
of the assessed values of |
12 | | improvements on each parcel qualifying for this
exemption that |
13 | | were added after the base year for this parcel and that
|
14 | | increased the assessed value of the property.
|
15 | | In the case of land improved with an apartment building |
16 | | owned and operated as
a cooperative or a building that is a |
17 | | life care facility that qualifies as a
cooperative, the maximum |
18 | | reduction from the equalized assessed value of the
property is |
19 | | limited to the sum of the reductions calculated for each unit
|
20 | | occupied as a residence by a person or persons (i) 65 years of |
21 | | age or older, (ii) with a
household income that does not exceed |
22 | | the maximum income limitation, (iii) who is liable, by contract |
23 | | with the
owner
or owners of record, for paying real property |
24 | | taxes on the property, and (iv) who is
an owner of record of a |
25 | | legal or equitable interest in the cooperative
apartment |
26 | | building, other than a leasehold interest. In the instance of a
|
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1 | | cooperative where a homestead exemption has been granted under |
2 | | this Section,
the cooperative association or its management |
3 | | firm shall credit the savings
resulting from that exemption |
4 | | only to the apportioned tax liability of the
owner who |
5 | | qualified for the exemption. Any person who willfully refuses |
6 | | to
credit that savings to an owner who qualifies for the |
7 | | exemption is guilty of a
Class B misdemeanor.
|
8 | | When a homestead exemption has been granted under this |
9 | | Section and an
applicant then becomes a resident of a facility |
10 | | licensed under the Assisted Living and Shared Housing Act, the |
11 | | Nursing Home
Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health |
12 | | Rehabilitation Act of 2013, the ID/DD Community Care Act, or |
13 | | the MC/DD Act, the exemption shall be granted in subsequent |
14 | | years so long as the
residence (i) continues to be occupied by |
15 | | the qualified applicant's spouse or
(ii) if remaining |
16 | | unoccupied, is still owned by the qualified applicant for the
|
17 | | homestead exemption.
|
18 | | Beginning January 1, 1997, when an individual dies who |
19 | | would have qualified
for an exemption under this Section, and |
20 | | the surviving spouse does not
independently qualify for this |
21 | | exemption because of age, the exemption under
this Section |
22 | | shall be granted to the surviving spouse for the taxable year
|
23 | | preceding and the taxable
year of the death, provided that, |
24 | | except for age, the surviving spouse meets
all
other |
25 | | qualifications for the granting of this exemption for those |
26 | | years.
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1 | | When married persons maintain separate residences, the |
2 | | exemption provided for
in this Section may be claimed by only |
3 | | one of such persons and for only one
residence.
|
4 | | For taxable year 1994 only, in counties having less than |
5 | | 3,000,000
inhabitants, to receive the exemption, a person shall |
6 | | submit an application by
February 15, 1995 to the Chief County |
7 | | Assessment Officer
of the county in which the property is |
8 | | located. In counties having 3,000,000
or more inhabitants, for |
9 | | taxable year 1994 and all subsequent taxable years, to
receive |
10 | | the exemption, a person
may submit an application to the Chief |
11 | | County
Assessment Officer of the county in which the property |
12 | | is located during such
period as may be specified by the Chief |
13 | | County Assessment Officer. The Chief
County Assessment Officer |
14 | | in counties of 3,000,000 or more inhabitants shall
annually |
15 | | give notice of the application period by mail or by |
16 | | publication. In
counties having less than 3,000,000 |
17 | | inhabitants, beginning with taxable year
1995 and thereafter, |
18 | | to receive the exemption, a person
shall
submit an
application |
19 | | by July 1 of each taxable year to the Chief County Assessment
|
20 | | Officer of the county in which the property is located. A |
21 | | county may, by
ordinance, establish a date for submission of |
22 | | applications that is
different than
July 1.
The applicant shall |
23 | | submit with the
application an affidavit of the applicant's |
24 | | total household income, age,
marital status (and if married the |
25 | | name and address of the applicant's spouse,
if known), and |
26 | | principal dwelling place of members of the household on January
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1 | | 1 of the taxable year. The Department shall establish, by rule, |
2 | | a method for
verifying the accuracy of affidavits filed by |
3 | | applicants under this Section, and the Chief County Assessment |
4 | | Officer may conduct audits of any taxpayer claiming an |
5 | | exemption under this Section to verify that the taxpayer is |
6 | | eligible to receive the exemption. Each application shall |
7 | | contain or be verified by a written declaration that it is made |
8 | | under the penalties of perjury. A taxpayer's signing a |
9 | | fraudulent application under this Act is perjury, as defined in |
10 | | Section 32-2 of the Criminal Code of 2012.
The applications |
11 | | shall be clearly marked as applications for the Senior
Citizens |
12 | | Assessment Freeze Homestead Exemption and must contain a notice |
13 | | that any taxpayer who receives the exemption is subject to an |
14 | | audit by the Chief County Assessment Officer.
|
15 | | Notwithstanding any other provision to the contrary, in |
16 | | counties having fewer
than 3,000,000 inhabitants, if an |
17 | | applicant fails
to file the application required by this |
18 | | Section in a timely manner and this
failure to file is due to a |
19 | | mental or physical condition sufficiently severe so
as to |
20 | | render the applicant incapable of filing the application in a |
21 | | timely
manner, the Chief County Assessment Officer may extend |
22 | | the filing deadline for
a period of 30 days after the applicant |
23 | | regains the capability to file the
application, but in no case |
24 | | may the filing deadline be extended beyond 3
months of the |
25 | | original filing deadline. In order to receive the extension
|
26 | | provided in this paragraph, the applicant shall provide the |
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1 | | Chief County
Assessment Officer with a signed statement from |
2 | | the applicant's physician, advanced practice registered nurse, |
3 | | or physician assistant
stating the nature and extent of the |
4 | | condition, that, in the
physician's, advanced practice |
5 | | registered nurse's, or physician assistant's opinion, the |
6 | | condition was so severe that it rendered the applicant
|
7 | | incapable of filing the application in a timely manner, and the |
8 | | date on which
the applicant regained the capability to file the |
9 | | application.
|
10 | | Beginning January 1, 1998, notwithstanding any other |
11 | | provision to the
contrary, in counties having fewer than |
12 | | 3,000,000 inhabitants, if an applicant
fails to file the |
13 | | application required by this Section in a timely manner and
|
14 | | this failure to file is due to a mental or physical condition |
15 | | sufficiently
severe so as to render the applicant incapable of |
16 | | filing the application in a
timely manner, the Chief County |
17 | | Assessment Officer may extend the filing
deadline for a period |
18 | | of 3 months. In order to receive the extension provided
in this |
19 | | paragraph, the applicant shall provide the Chief County |
20 | | Assessment
Officer with a signed statement from the applicant's |
21 | | physician, advanced practice registered nurse, or physician |
22 | | assistant stating the
nature and extent of the condition, and |
23 | | that, in the physician's, advanced practice registered |
24 | | nurse's, or physician assistant's opinion, the
condition was so |
25 | | severe that it rendered the applicant incapable of filing the
|
26 | | application in a timely manner.
|
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| | HB0313 Engrossed | - 104 - | LRB100 04130 SMS 14135 b |
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1 | | In counties having less than 3,000,000 inhabitants, if an |
2 | | applicant was
denied an exemption in taxable year 1994 and the |
3 | | denial occurred due to an
error on the part of an assessment
|
4 | | official, or his or her agent or employee, then beginning in |
5 | | taxable year 1997
the
applicant's base year, for purposes of |
6 | | determining the amount of the exemption,
shall be 1993 rather |
7 | | than 1994. In addition, in taxable year 1997, the
applicant's |
8 | | exemption shall also include an amount equal to (i) the amount |
9 | | of
any exemption denied to the applicant in taxable year 1995 |
10 | | as a result of using
1994, rather than 1993, as the base year, |
11 | | (ii) the amount of any exemption
denied to the applicant in |
12 | | taxable year 1996 as a result of using 1994, rather
than 1993, |
13 | | as the base year, and (iii) the amount of the exemption |
14 | | erroneously
denied for taxable year 1994.
|
15 | | For purposes of this Section, a person who will be 65 years |
16 | | of age during the
current taxable year shall be eligible to |
17 | | apply for the homestead exemption
during that taxable year. |
18 | | Application shall be made during the application
period in |
19 | | effect for the county of his or her residence.
|
20 | | The Chief County Assessment Officer may determine the |
21 | | eligibility of a life
care facility that qualifies as a |
22 | | cooperative to receive the benefits
provided by this Section by |
23 | | use of an affidavit, application, visual
inspection, |
24 | | questionnaire, or other reasonable method in order to insure |
25 | | that
the tax savings resulting from the exemption are credited |
26 | | by the management
firm to the apportioned tax liability of each |
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| | HB0313 Engrossed | - 105 - | LRB100 04130 SMS 14135 b |
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1 | | qualifying resident. The Chief
County Assessment Officer may |
2 | | request reasonable proof that the management firm
has so |
3 | | credited that exemption.
|
4 | | Except as provided in this Section, all information |
5 | | received by the chief
county assessment officer or the |
6 | | Department from applications filed under this
Section, or from |
7 | | any investigation conducted under the provisions of this
|
8 | | Section, shall be confidential, except for official purposes or
|
9 | | pursuant to official procedures for collection of any State or |
10 | | local tax or
enforcement of any civil or criminal penalty or |
11 | | sanction imposed by this Act or
by any statute or ordinance |
12 | | imposing a State or local tax. Any person who
divulges any such |
13 | | information in any manner, except in accordance with a proper
|
14 | | judicial order, is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.
|
15 | | Nothing contained in this Section shall prevent the |
16 | | Director or chief county
assessment officer from publishing or |
17 | | making available reasonable statistics
concerning the |
18 | | operation of the exemption contained in this Section in which
|
19 | | the contents of claims are grouped into aggregates in such a |
20 | | way that
information contained in any individual claim shall |
21 | | not be disclosed.
|
22 | | (d) Each Chief County Assessment Officer shall annually |
23 | | publish a notice
of availability of the exemption provided |
24 | | under this Section. The notice
shall be published at least 60 |
25 | | days but no more than 75 days prior to the date
on which the |
26 | | application must be submitted to the Chief County Assessment
|
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| | HB0313 Engrossed | - 106 - | LRB100 04130 SMS 14135 b |
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1 | | Officer of the county in which the property is located. The |
2 | | notice shall
appear in a newspaper of general circulation in |
3 | | the county.
|
4 | | Notwithstanding Sections 6 and 8 of the State Mandates Act, |
5 | | no reimbursement by the State is required for the |
6 | | implementation of any mandate created by this Section.
|
7 | | (Source: P.A. 98-104, eff. 7-22-13; 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; |
8 | | 99-180, eff. 7-29-15; 99-581, eff. 1-1-17; 99-642, eff. |
9 | | 7-28-16 .)
|
10 | | Section 75. The Counties Code is amended by changing |
11 | | Sections 3-14049, 3-15003.6, and 5-1069 as follows:
|
12 | | (55 ILCS 5/3-14049) (from Ch. 34, par. 3-14049)
|
13 | | Sec. 3-14049. Appointment of physicians and nurses for the |
14 | | poor
and mentally ill persons. The appointment, employment and |
15 | | removal by the
Board of Commissioners of Cook County of all |
16 | | physicians and surgeons, advanced practice registered nurses, |
17 | | physician assistants, and
nurses for the care and treatment of |
18 | | the sick, poor, mentally ill or
persons in need of mental |
19 | | treatment of said county shall be made only in
conformity with |
20 | | rules prescribed by the County Civil Service Commission to
|
21 | | accomplish the purposes of this Section.
|
22 | | The Board of Commissioners of Cook County may provide that |
23 | | all such
physicians and surgeons who serve without compensation |
24 | | shall be appointed
for a term to be fixed by the Board, and |
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1 | | that the physicians and surgeons
usually designated and known |
2 | | as interns shall be appointed for a term to
be fixed by the |
3 | | Board: Provided, that there may also, at the discretion of
the |
4 | | board, be a consulting staff of physicians and surgeons, which |
5 | | staff
may be appointed by the president, subject to the |
6 | | approval of the board,
and provided further, that the Board may |
7 | | contract with any recognized
training school or any program for |
8 | | health professionals for health care services of any or all of |
9 | | such sick or mentally ill
or persons in need of mental |
10 | | treatment.
|
11 | | (Source: P.A. 99-581, eff. 1-1-17 .)
|
12 | | (55 ILCS 5/3-15003.6)
|
13 | | Sec. 3-15003.6. Pregnant female prisoners. |
14 | | (a) Definitions. For the purpose of this Section: |
15 | | (1) "Restraints" means any physical restraint or |
16 | | mechanical device used to control the movement of a |
17 | | prisoner's body or limbs, or both, including, but not |
18 | | limited to, flex cuffs, soft restraints, hard metal |
19 | | handcuffs, a black box, Chubb cuffs, leg irons, belly |
20 | | chains, a security (tether) chain, or a convex shield, or |
21 | | shackles of any kind. |
22 | | (2) "Labor" means the period of time before a birth and |
23 | | shall include any medical condition in which a woman is |
24 | | sent or brought to the hospital for the purpose of |
25 | | delivering her baby. These situations include: induction |
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1 | | of labor, prodromal labor, pre-term labor, prelabor |
2 | | rupture of membranes, the 3 stages of active labor, uterine |
3 | | hemorrhage during the third trimester of pregnancy, and |
4 | | caesarian delivery including pre-operative preparation. |
5 | | (3) "Post-partum" means, as determined by her |
6 | | physician, advanced practice registered nurse, or |
7 | | physician assistant, the period immediately following |
8 | | delivery, including the entire period a woman is in the |
9 | | hospital or infirmary after birth. |
10 | | (4) "Correctional institution" means any entity under |
11 | | the authority of a county law enforcement division of a |
12 | | county of more than 3,000,000 inhabitants that has the |
13 | | power to detain or restrain, or both, a person under the |
14 | | laws of the State. |
15 | | (5) "Corrections official" means the official that is |
16 | | responsible for oversight of a correctional institution, |
17 | | or his or her designee. |
18 | | (6) "Prisoner" means any person incarcerated or |
19 | | detained in any facility who is accused of, convicted of, |
20 | | sentenced for, or adjudicated delinquent for, violations |
21 | | of criminal law or the terms and conditions of parole, |
22 | | probation, pretrial release, or diversionary program, and |
23 | | any person detained under the immigration laws of the |
24 | | United States at any correctional facility. |
25 | | (7) "Extraordinary circumstance" means an |
26 | | extraordinary medical or security circumstance, including |
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1 | | a substantial flight risk, that dictates restraints be used |
2 | | to ensure the safety and security of the prisoner, the |
3 | | staff of the correctional institution or medical facility, |
4 | | other prisoners, or the public. |
5 | | (b) A county department of corrections shall not apply |
6 | | security restraints to a prisoner that has been determined by a |
7 | | qualified medical professional to be pregnant and is known by |
8 | | the county department of corrections to be pregnant or in |
9 | | postpartum recovery, which is the entire period a woman is in |
10 | | the medical facility after birth, unless the corrections |
11 | | official makes an individualized determination that the |
12 | | prisoner presents a substantial flight risk or some other |
13 | | extraordinary circumstance that dictates security restraints |
14 | | be used to ensure the safety and security of the prisoner, her |
15 | | child or unborn child, the staff of the county department of |
16 | | corrections or medical facility, other prisoners, or the |
17 | | public. The protections set out in clauses (b)(3) and (b)(4) of |
18 | | this Section shall apply to security restraints used pursuant |
19 | | to this subsection. The corrections official shall immediately |
20 | | remove all restraints upon the written or oral request of |
21 | | medical personnel. Oral requests made by medical personnel |
22 | | shall be verified in writing as promptly as reasonably |
23 | | possible. |
24 | | (1) Qualified authorized health staff shall have the |
25 | | authority to order therapeutic restraints for a pregnant or |
26 | | postpartum prisoner who is a danger to herself, her child, |
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1 | | unborn child, or other persons due to a psychiatric or |
2 | | medical disorder. Therapeutic restraints may only be |
3 | | initiated, monitored and discontinued by qualified and |
4 | | authorized health staff and used to safely limit a |
5 | | prisoner's mobility for psychiatric or medical reasons. No |
6 | | order for therapeutic restraints shall be written unless |
7 | | medical or mental health personnel, after personally |
8 | | observing and examining the prisoner, are clinically |
9 | | satisfied that the use of therapeutic restraints is |
10 | | justified and permitted in accordance with hospital |
11 | | policies and applicable State law. Metal handcuffs or |
12 | | shackles are not considered therapeutic restraints. |
13 | | (2) Whenever therapeutic restraints are used by |
14 | | medical personnel, Section 2-108 of the Mental Health and |
15 | | Developmental Disabilities Code shall apply. |
16 | | (3) Leg irons, shackles or waist shackles shall not be |
17 | | used on any pregnant or postpartum prisoner regardless of |
18 | | security classification. Except for therapeutic restraints |
19 | | under clause (b)(2), no restraints of any kind may be |
20 | | applied to prisoners during labor. |
21 | | (4) When a pregnant or postpartum prisoner must be |
22 | | restrained, restraints used shall be the least restrictive |
23 | | restraints possible to ensure the safety and security of |
24 | | the prisoner, her child, unborn child, the staff of the |
25 | | county department of corrections or medical facility, |
26 | | other prisoners, or the public, and in no case shall |
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1 | | include leg irons, shackles or waist shackles. |
2 | | (5) Upon the pregnant prisoner's entry into a hospital |
3 | | room, and completion of initial room inspection, a |
4 | | corrections official shall be posted immediately outside |
5 | | the hospital room, unless requested to be in the room by |
6 | | medical personnel attending to the prisoner's medical |
7 | | needs. |
8 | | (6) The county department of corrections shall provide |
9 | | adequate corrections personnel to monitor the pregnant |
10 | | prisoner during her transport to and from the hospital and |
11 | | during her stay at the hospital. |
12 | | (7) Where the county department of corrections |
13 | | requires prisoner safety assessments, a corrections |
14 | | official may enter the hospital room to conduct periodic |
15 | | prisoner safety assessments, except during a medical |
16 | | examination or the delivery process. |
17 | | (8) Upon discharge from a medical facility, postpartum |
18 | | prisoners shall be restrained only with handcuffs in front |
19 | | of the body during transport to the county department of |
20 | | corrections. A corrections official shall immediately |
21 | | remove all security restraints upon written or oral request |
22 | | by medical personnel. Oral requests made by medical |
23 | | personnel shall be verified in writing as promptly as |
24 | | reasonably possible. |
25 | | (c) Enforcement.
No later than 30 days before the end of |
26 | | each fiscal year, the county sheriff or corrections official of |
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1 | | the correctional institution where a pregnant prisoner has been |
2 | | restrained during that previous fiscal year, shall submit a |
3 | | written report to the Illinois General Assembly and the Office |
4 | | of the Governor that includes an account of every instance of |
5 | | prisoner restraint pursuant to this Section. The written report |
6 | | shall state the date, time, location and rationale for each |
7 | | instance in which restraints are used. The written report shall |
8 | | not contain any individually identifying information of any |
9 | | prisoner. Such reports shall be made available for public |
10 | | inspection.
|
11 | | (Source: P.A. 99-581, eff. 1-1-17 .)
|
12 | | (55 ILCS 5/5-1069) (from Ch. 34, par. 5-1069)
|
13 | | Sec. 5-1069. Group life, health, accident, hospital, and |
14 | | medical
insurance. |
15 | | (a) The county board of any county may arrange to provide, |
16 | | for
the benefit of employees of the county, group life, health, |
17 | | accident, hospital,
and medical insurance, or any one or any |
18 | | combination of those types of
insurance, or the county board |
19 | | may self-insure, for the benefit of its
employees, all or a |
20 | | portion of the employees' group life, health, accident,
|
21 | | hospital, and medical insurance, or any one or any combination |
22 | | of those
types of insurance, including a combination of |
23 | | self-insurance and other
types of insurance authorized by this |
24 | | Section, provided that the county
board complies with all other |
25 | | requirements of this Section. The insurance
may include |
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1 | | provision for employees who rely on treatment by prayer or
|
2 | | spiritual means alone for healing in accordance with the tenets |
3 | | and
practice of a well recognized religious denomination. The |
4 | | county board may
provide for payment by the county of a portion |
5 | | or all of the premium or
charge for the insurance with the |
6 | | employee paying the balance of the
premium or charge, if any. |
7 | | If the county board undertakes a plan under
which the county |
8 | | pays only a portion of the premium or charge, the county
board |
9 | | shall provide for withholding and deducting from the |
10 | | compensation of
those employees who consent to join the plan |
11 | | the balance of the premium or
charge for the insurance.
|
12 | | (b) If the county board does not provide for self-insurance |
13 | | or for a plan
under which the county pays a portion or all of |
14 | | the premium or charge for a
group insurance plan, the county |
15 | | board may provide for withholding and
deducting from the |
16 | | compensation of those employees who consent thereto the
total |
17 | | premium or charge for any group life, health, accident, |
18 | | hospital, and
medical insurance.
|
19 | | (c) The county board may exercise the powers granted in |
20 | | this Section only if
it provides for self-insurance or, where |
21 | | it makes arrangements to provide
group insurance through an |
22 | | insurance carrier, if the kinds of group
insurance are obtained |
23 | | from an insurance company authorized to do business
in the |
24 | | State of Illinois. The county board may enact an ordinance
|
25 | | prescribing the method of operation of the insurance program.
|
26 | | (d) If a county, including a home rule county, is a |
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1 | | self-insurer for
purposes of providing health insurance |
2 | | coverage for its employees, the
insurance coverage shall |
3 | | include screening by low-dose mammography for all
women 35 |
4 | | years of age or older for the presence of occult breast cancer
|
5 | | unless the county elects to provide mammograms itself under |
6 | | Section
5-1069.1. The coverage shall be as follows:
|
7 | |
(1) A baseline mammogram for women 35 to 39 years of |
8 | | age.
|
9 | |
(2) An annual mammogram for women 40 years of age or |
10 | | older.
|
11 | | (3) A mammogram at the age and intervals considered |
12 | | medically necessary by the woman's health care provider for |
13 | | women under 40 years of age and having a family history of |
14 | | breast cancer, prior personal history of breast cancer, |
15 | | positive genetic testing, or other risk factors. |
16 | | (4) A comprehensive ultrasound screening of an entire |
17 | | breast or breasts if a mammogram demonstrates |
18 | | heterogeneous or dense breast tissue, when medically |
19 | | necessary as determined by a physician licensed to practice |
20 | | medicine in all of its branches, advanced practice |
21 | | registered nurse, or physician assistant. |
22 | | For purposes of this subsection, "low-dose mammography"
|
23 | | means the x-ray examination of the breast using equipment |
24 | | dedicated
specifically for mammography, including the x-ray |
25 | | tube, filter, compression
device, and image receptor, with an |
26 | | average radiation exposure
delivery of less than one rad per |
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1 | | breast for 2 views of an average size breast. The term also |
2 | | includes digital mammography. |
3 | | (d-5) Coverage as described by subsection (d) shall be |
4 | | provided at no cost to the insured and shall not be applied to |
5 | | an annual or lifetime maximum benefit. |
6 | | (d-10) When health care services are available through |
7 | | contracted providers and a person does not comply with plan |
8 | | provisions specific to the use of contracted providers, the |
9 | | requirements of subsection (d-5) are not applicable. When a |
10 | | person does not comply with plan provisions specific to the use |
11 | | of contracted providers, plan provisions specific to the use of |
12 | | non-contracted providers must be applied without distinction |
13 | | for coverage required by this Section and shall be at least as |
14 | | favorable as for other radiological examinations covered by the |
15 | | policy or contract. |
16 | | (d-15) If a county, including a home rule county, is a |
17 | | self-insurer for purposes of providing health insurance |
18 | | coverage for its employees, the insurance coverage shall |
19 | | include mastectomy coverage, which includes coverage for |
20 | | prosthetic devices or reconstructive surgery incident to the |
21 | | mastectomy. Coverage for breast reconstruction in connection |
22 | | with a mastectomy shall include: |
23 | | (1) reconstruction of the breast upon which the |
24 | | mastectomy has been performed; |
25 | | (2) surgery and reconstruction of the other breast to |
26 | | produce a symmetrical appearance; and |
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1 | | (3) prostheses and treatment for physical |
2 | | complications at all stages of mastectomy, including |
3 | | lymphedemas. |
4 | | Care shall be determined in consultation with the attending |
5 | | physician and the patient. The offered coverage for prosthetic |
6 | | devices and reconstructive surgery shall be subject to the |
7 | | deductible and coinsurance conditions applied to the |
8 | | mastectomy, and all other terms and conditions applicable to |
9 | | other benefits. When a mastectomy is performed and there is no |
10 | | evidence of malignancy then the offered coverage may be limited |
11 | | to the provision of prosthetic devices and reconstructive |
12 | | surgery to within 2 years after the date of the mastectomy. As |
13 | | used in this Section, "mastectomy" means the removal of all or |
14 | | part of the breast for medically necessary reasons, as |
15 | | determined by a licensed physician. |
16 | | A county, including a home rule county, that is a |
17 | | self-insurer for purposes of providing health insurance |
18 | | coverage for its employees, may not penalize or reduce or limit |
19 | | the reimbursement of an attending provider or provide |
20 | | incentives (monetary or otherwise) to an attending provider to |
21 | | induce the provider to provide care to an insured in a manner |
22 | | inconsistent with this Section. |
23 | | (d-20) The
requirement that mammograms be included in |
24 | | health insurance coverage as
provided in subsections (d) |
25 | | through (d-15) is an exclusive power and function of the
State |
26 | | and is a denial and limitation under Article VII, Section 6,
|
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1 | | subsection (h) of the Illinois Constitution of home rule county |
2 | | powers. A
home rule county to which subsections (d) through |
3 | | (d-15) apply must comply with every
provision of those |
4 | | subsections.
|
5 | | (e) The term "employees" as used in this Section includes |
6 | | elected or
appointed officials but does not include temporary |
7 | | employees.
|
8 | | (f) The county board may, by ordinance, arrange to provide |
9 | | group life,
health, accident, hospital, and medical insurance, |
10 | | or any one or a combination
of those types of insurance, under |
11 | | this Section to retired former employees and
retired former |
12 | | elected or appointed officials of the county.
|
13 | | (g) Rulemaking authority to implement this amendatory Act |
14 | | of the 95th General Assembly, if any, is conditioned on the |
15 | | rules being adopted in accordance with all provisions of the |
16 | | Illinois Administrative Procedure Act and all rules and |
17 | | procedures of the Joint Committee on Administrative Rules; any |
18 | | purported rule not so adopted, for whatever reason, is |
19 | | unauthorized. |
20 | | (Source: P.A. 99-581, eff. 1-1-17 .)
|
21 | | Section 80. The Illinois Municipal Code is amended by |
22 | | changing Sections 10-1-38.1 and 10-2.1-18 as follows:
|
23 | | (65 ILCS 5/10-1-38.1) (from Ch. 24, par. 10-1-38.1)
|
24 | | Sec. 10-1-38.1.
When the force of the Fire Department or of |
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1 | | the Police
Department is reduced, and positions displaced or |
2 | | abolished, seniority
shall prevail, and the officers and |
3 | | members so reduced in rank, or removed
from the service of the |
4 | | Fire Department or of the Police Department shall
be considered |
5 | | furloughed without pay from the positions from which they
were |
6 | | reduced or removed.
|
7 | | Such reductions and removals shall be in strict compliance |
8 | | with
seniority and in no event shall any officer or member be |
9 | | reduced more than
one rank in a reduction of force. Officers |
10 | | and members with the least
seniority in the position to be |
11 | | reduced shall be reduced to the next lower
rated position. For |
12 | | purposes of determining which officers and members
will be |
13 | | reduced in rank, seniority shall be determined by adding the |
14 | | time
spent at the rank or position from which the officer or |
15 | | member is to be
reduced and the time spent at any higher rank |
16 | | or position in the
Department. For purposes of determining |
17 | | which officers or members in the
lowest rank or position shall |
18 | | be removed from the Department in the event
of a layoff, length |
19 | | of service in the Department shall be the basis for
determining |
20 | | seniority, with the least senior such officer or member being
|
21 | | the first so removed and laid off. Such officers or members |
22 | | laid off shall
have their names placed on an appropriate |
23 | | reemployment list in the reverse
order of dates of layoff.
|
24 | | If any positions which have been vacated because of |
25 | | reduction in forces
or displacement and abolition of positions, |
26 | | are reinstated, such members
and officers of the Fire |
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1 | | Department or of the Police Department as are
furloughed from |
2 | | the said positions shall be notified by registered mail of
such |
3 | | reinstatement of positions and shall have prior right to such
|
4 | | positions if otherwise qualified, and in all cases seniority |
5 | | shall prevail.
Written application for such reinstated |
6 | | position must be made by the
furloughed person within 30 days |
7 | | after notification as above provided and
such person may be |
8 | | required to submit to examination by physicians, advanced |
9 | | practice registered nurses, or physician assistants of both
the |
10 | | commission and the appropriate pension board to determine his |
11 | | physical
fitness.
|
12 | | (Source: P.A. 99-581, eff. 1-1-17 .)
|
13 | | (65 ILCS 5/10-2.1-18) (from Ch. 24, par. 10-2.1-18)
|
14 | | Sec. 10-2.1-18. Fire or police departments - Reduction of |
15 | | force -
Reinstatement. When the force of the fire department or |
16 | | of the police
department is reduced, and positions displaced or |
17 | | abolished, seniority
shall prevail and the officers and members |
18 | | so reduced in rank, or removed
from the service of the fire |
19 | | department or of the police department shall
be considered |
20 | | furloughed without pay from the positions from which they
were |
21 | | reduced or removed.
|
22 | | Such reductions and removals shall be in strict compliance |
23 | | with
seniority and in no event shall any officer or member be |
24 | | reduced more than
one rank in a reduction of force. Officers |
25 | | and members with the least
seniority in the position to be |
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1 | | reduced shall be reduced to the next lower
rated position. For |
2 | | purposes of determining which officers and members
will be |
3 | | reduced in rank, seniority shall be determined by adding the |
4 | | time
spent at the rank or position from which the officer or |
5 | | member is to be
reduced and the time spent at any higher rank |
6 | | or position in the
Department. For purposes of determining |
7 | | which officers or members in the
lowest rank or position shall |
8 | | be removed from the Department in the event
of a layoff, length |
9 | | of service in the Department shall be the basis for
determining |
10 | | seniority, with the least senior such officer or member being
|
11 | | the first so removed and laid off. Such officers or members |
12 | | laid off shall
have their names placed on an appropriate |
13 | | reemployment list in the reverse
order of dates of layoff.
|
14 | | If any positions which have been vacated because of |
15 | | reduction in forces
or displacement and abolition of positions, |
16 | | are reinstated, such members
and officers of the fire |
17 | | department or of the police department as are
furloughed from |
18 | | the said positions shall be notified by the board by
registered |
19 | | mail of such reinstatement of positions and shall have prior
|
20 | | right to such positions if otherwise qualified, and in all |
21 | | cases seniority
shall prevail. Written application for such |
22 | | reinstated position must be
made by the furloughed person |
23 | | within 30 days after notification as above
provided and such |
24 | | person may be required to submit to examination by
physicians, |
25 | | advanced practice registered nurses, or physician assistants |
26 | | of both the board of fire and police commissioners and the
|
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1 | | appropriate pension board to determine his physical fitness.
|
2 | | (Source: P.A. 99-581, eff. 1-1-17 .)
|
3 | | Section 85. The School Code is amended by changing Sections |
4 | | 22-30, 22-80, 24-5, 24-6, 26-1, and 27-8.1 as follows:
|
5 | | (105 ILCS 5/22-30)
|
6 | | Sec. 22-30. Self-administration and self-carry of asthma |
7 | | medication and epinephrine auto-injectors; administration of |
8 | | undesignated epinephrine auto-injectors; administration of an |
9 | | opioid antagonist; asthma episode emergency response protocol.
|
10 | | (a) For the purpose of this Section only, the following |
11 | | terms shall have the meanings set forth below:
|
12 | | "Asthma action plan" means a written plan developed with a |
13 | | pupil's medical provider to help control the pupil's asthma. |
14 | | The goal of an asthma action plan is to reduce or prevent |
15 | | flare-ups and emergency department visits through day-to-day |
16 | | management and to serve as a student-specific document to be |
17 | | referenced in the event of an asthma episode. |
18 | | "Asthma episode emergency response protocol" means a |
19 | | procedure to provide assistance to a pupil experiencing |
20 | | symptoms of wheezing, coughing, shortness of breath, chest |
21 | | tightness, or breathing difficulty. |
22 | | "Asthma inhaler" means a quick reliever asthma inhaler. |
23 | | "Epinephrine auto-injector" means a single-use device used |
24 | | for the automatic injection of a pre-measured dose of |
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1 | | epinephrine into the human body.
|
2 | | "Asthma medication" means a medicine, prescribed by (i) a |
3 | | physician
licensed to practice medicine in all its branches,
|
4 | | (ii) a licensed physician assistant with prescriptive |
5 | | authority , or (iii) a licensed advanced practice registered
|
6 | | nurse with prescriptive authority
for a pupil that pertains to |
7 | | the pupil's
asthma and that has an individual prescription |
8 | | label.
|
9 | | "Opioid antagonist" means a drug that binds to opioid |
10 | | receptors and blocks or inhibits the effect of opioids acting |
11 | | on those receptors, including, but not limited to, naloxone |
12 | | hydrochloride or any other similarly acting drug approved by |
13 | | the U.S. Food and Drug Administration. |
14 | | "School nurse" means a registered nurse working in a school |
15 | | with or without licensure endorsed in school nursing. |
16 | | "Self-administration" means a pupil's discretionary use of |
17 | | his or
her prescribed asthma medication or epinephrine |
18 | | auto-injector.
|
19 | | "Self-carry" means a pupil's ability to carry his or her |
20 | | prescribed asthma medication or epinephrine auto-injector. |
21 | | "Standing protocol" may be issued by (i) a physician |
22 | | licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, (ii) a |
23 | | licensed physician assistant with prescriptive authority , or |
24 | | (iii) a licensed advanced practice registered nurse with |
25 | | prescriptive authority. |
26 | | "Trained personnel" means any school employee or volunteer |
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1 | | personnel authorized in Sections 10-22.34, 10-22.34a, and |
2 | | 10-22.34b of this Code who has completed training under |
3 | | subsection (g) of this Section to recognize and respond to |
4 | | anaphylaxis. |
5 | | "Undesignated epinephrine auto-injector" means an |
6 | | epinephrine auto-injector prescribed in the name of a school |
7 | | district, public school, or nonpublic school. |
8 | | (b) A school, whether public or nonpublic, must permit the
|
9 | | self-administration and self-carry of asthma
medication by a |
10 | | pupil with asthma or the self-administration and self-carry of |
11 | | an epinephrine auto-injector by a pupil, provided that:
|
12 | | (1) the parents or
guardians of the pupil provide to |
13 | | the school (i) written
authorization from the parents or |
14 | | guardians for (A) the self-administration and self-carry |
15 | | of asthma medication or (B) the self-carry of asthma |
16 | | medication or (ii) for (A) the self-administration and |
17 | | self-carry of an epinephrine auto-injector or (B) the |
18 | | self-carry of an epinephrine auto-injector, written |
19 | | authorization from the pupil's physician, physician |
20 | | assistant, or advanced practice registered nurse; and
|
21 | | (2) the
parents or guardians of the pupil provide to |
22 | | the school (i) the prescription label, which must contain |
23 | | the name of the asthma medication, the prescribed dosage, |
24 | | and the time at which or circumstances under which the |
25 | | asthma medication is to be administered, or (ii) for the |
26 | | self-administration or self-carry of an epinephrine |
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1 | | auto-injector, a
written
statement from the pupil's |
2 | | physician, physician assistant, or advanced practice |
3 | | registered
nurse containing
the following information:
|
4 | | (A) the name and purpose of the epinephrine |
5 | | auto-injector;
|
6 | | (B) the prescribed dosage; and
|
7 | | (C) the time or times at which or the special |
8 | | circumstances
under which the epinephrine |
9 | | auto-injector is to be administered.
|
10 | | The information provided shall be kept on file in the office of |
11 | | the school
nurse or,
in the absence of a school nurse, the |
12 | | school's administrator.
|
13 | | (b-5) A school district, public school, or nonpublic school |
14 | | may authorize the provision of a student-specific or |
15 | | undesignated epinephrine auto-injector to a student or any |
16 | | personnel authorized under a student's Individual Health Care |
17 | | Action Plan, Illinois Food Allergy Emergency Action Plan and |
18 | | Treatment Authorization Form, or plan pursuant to Section 504 |
19 | | of the federal Rehabilitation Act of 1973 to administer an |
20 | | epinephrine auto-injector to the student, that meets the |
21 | | student's prescription on file. |
22 | | (b-10) The school district, public school, or nonpublic |
23 | | school may authorize a school nurse or trained personnel to do |
24 | | the following: (i) provide an undesignated epinephrine |
25 | | auto-injector to a student for self-administration only or any |
26 | | personnel authorized under a student's Individual Health Care |
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1 | | Action Plan, Illinois Food Allergy Emergency Action Plan and |
2 | | Treatment Authorization Form, or plan pursuant to Section 504 |
3 | | of the federal Rehabilitation Act of 1973 to administer to the |
4 | | student, that meets the student's prescription on file; (ii) |
5 | | administer an undesignated epinephrine auto-injector that |
6 | | meets the prescription on file to any student who has an |
7 | | Individual Health Care Action Plan, Illinois Food Allergy |
8 | | Emergency Action Plan and Treatment Authorization Form, or plan |
9 | | pursuant to Section 504 of the federal Rehabilitation Act of |
10 | | 1973 that authorizes the use of an epinephrine auto-injector; |
11 | | (iii) administer an undesignated epinephrine auto-injector to |
12 | | any person that the school nurse or trained personnel in good |
13 | | faith believes is having an anaphylactic reaction; and (iv) |
14 | | administer an opioid antagonist to any person that the school |
15 | | nurse or trained personnel in good faith believes is having an |
16 | | opioid overdose. |
17 | | (c) The school district, public school, or nonpublic school |
18 | | must inform the parents or
guardians of the
pupil, in writing, |
19 | | that the school district, public school, or nonpublic school |
20 | | and its
employees and
agents, including a physician, physician |
21 | | assistant, or advanced practice registered nurse providing |
22 | | standing protocol or prescription for school epinephrine |
23 | | auto-injectors,
are to incur no liability or professional |
24 | | discipline, except for willful and wanton conduct, as a result
|
25 | | of any injury arising from the
administration of asthma |
26 | | medication, an epinephrine auto-injector, or an opioid |
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1 | | antagonist regardless of whether authorization was given by the |
2 | | pupil's parents or guardians or by the pupil's physician, |
3 | | physician assistant, or advanced practice registered nurse. |
4 | | The parents or guardians
of the pupil must sign a statement |
5 | | acknowledging that the school district, public school,
or |
6 | | nonpublic school and its employees and agents are to incur no |
7 | | liability, except for willful and wanton
conduct, as a result |
8 | | of any injury arising
from the
administration of asthma |
9 | | medication, an epinephrine auto-injector, or an opioid |
10 | | antagonist regardless of whether authorization was given by the |
11 | | pupil's parents or guardians or by the pupil's physician, |
12 | | physician assistant, or advanced practice registered nurse and |
13 | | that the parents or
guardians must indemnify and hold harmless |
14 | | the school district, public school, or nonpublic
school and
its
|
15 | | employees and agents against any claims, except a claim based |
16 | | on willful and
wanton conduct, arising out of the
|
17 | | administration of asthma medication, an epinephrine |
18 | | auto-injector, or an opioid antagonist regardless of whether |
19 | | authorization was given by the pupil's parents or guardians or |
20 | | by the pupil's physician, physician assistant, or advanced |
21 | | practice registered nurse. |
22 | | (c-5) When a school nurse or trained personnel administers |
23 | | an undesignated epinephrine auto-injector to a person whom the |
24 | | school nurse or trained personnel in good faith believes is |
25 | | having an anaphylactic reaction or administers an opioid |
26 | | antagonist to a person whom the school nurse or trained |
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1 | | personnel in good faith believes is having an opioid overdose, |
2 | | notwithstanding the lack of notice to the parents or guardians |
3 | | of the pupil or the absence of the parents or guardians signed |
4 | | statement acknowledging no liability, except for willful and |
5 | | wanton conduct, the school district, public school, or |
6 | | nonpublic school and its employees and agents, and a physician, |
7 | | a physician assistant, or an advanced practice registered nurse |
8 | | providing standing protocol or prescription for undesignated |
9 | | epinephrine auto-injectors, are to incur no liability or |
10 | | professional discipline, except for willful and wanton |
11 | | conduct, as a result of any injury arising from the use of an |
12 | | undesignated epinephrine auto-injector or the use of an opioid |
13 | | antagonist regardless of whether authorization was given by the |
14 | | pupil's parents or guardians or by the pupil's physician, |
15 | | physician assistant, or advanced practice registered nurse.
|
16 | | (d) The permission for self-administration and self-carry |
17 | | of asthma medication or the self-administration and self-carry |
18 | | of an epinephrine auto-injector is effective
for the school |
19 | | year for which it is granted and shall be renewed each
|
20 | | subsequent school year upon fulfillment of the requirements of |
21 | | this
Section.
|
22 | | (e) Provided that the requirements of this Section are |
23 | | fulfilled, a
pupil with asthma may self-administer and |
24 | | self-carry his or her asthma medication or a pupil may |
25 | | self-administer and self-carry an epinephrine auto-injector |
26 | | (i) while in
school, (ii) while at a school-sponsored activity, |
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1 | | (iii) while under the
supervision of
school personnel, or (iv) |
2 | | before or after normal school activities, such
as while in |
3 | | before-school or after-school care on school-operated
property |
4 | | or while being transported on a school bus.
|
5 | | (e-5) Provided that the requirements of this Section are |
6 | | fulfilled, a school nurse or trained personnel may administer |
7 | | an undesignated epinephrine auto-injector to any person whom |
8 | | the school nurse or trained personnel in good faith believes to |
9 | | be having an anaphylactic reaction (i) while in school, (ii) |
10 | | while at a school-sponsored activity, (iii) while under the |
11 | | supervision of school personnel, or (iv) before or after normal |
12 | | school activities, such
as while in before-school or |
13 | | after-school care on school-operated property or while being |
14 | | transported on a school bus. A school nurse or trained |
15 | | personnel may carry undesignated epinephrine auto-injectors on |
16 | | his or her person while in school or at a school-sponsored |
17 | | activity. |
18 | | (e-10) Provided that the requirements of this Section are |
19 | | fulfilled, a school nurse or trained personnel may administer |
20 | | an opioid antagonist to any person whom the school nurse or |
21 | | trained personnel in good faith believes to be having an opioid |
22 | | overdose (i) while in school, (ii) while at a school-sponsored |
23 | | activity, (iii) while under the supervision of school |
24 | | personnel, or (iv) before or after normal school activities, |
25 | | such as while in before-school or after-school care on |
26 | | school-operated property. A school nurse or trained personnel |
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1 | | may carry an opioid antagonist on their person while in school |
2 | | or at a school-sponsored activity. |
3 | | (f) The school district, public school, or nonpublic school |
4 | | may maintain a supply of undesignated epinephrine |
5 | | auto-injectors in any secure location that is accessible |
6 | | before, during, and after school where an allergic person is |
7 | | most at risk, including, but not limited to, classrooms and |
8 | | lunchrooms. A physician, a physician assistant who has been |
9 | | delegated prescriptive authority in accordance with Section |
10 | | 7.5 of the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987, or an |
11 | | advanced practice registered nurse who has been delegated |
12 | | prescriptive authority in accordance with Section 65-40 of the |
13 | | Nurse Practice Act may prescribe undesignated epinephrine |
14 | | auto-injectors in the name of the school district, public |
15 | | school, or nonpublic school to be maintained for use when |
16 | | necessary. Any supply of epinephrine auto-injectors shall be |
17 | | maintained in accordance with the manufacturer's instructions. |
18 | | The school district, public school, or nonpublic school may |
19 | | maintain a supply of an opioid antagonist in any secure |
20 | | location where an individual may have an opioid overdose. A |
21 | | health care professional who has been delegated prescriptive |
22 | | authority for opioid antagonists in accordance with Section |
23 | | 5-23 of the Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act |
24 | | may prescribe opioid antagonists in the name of the school |
25 | | district, public school, or nonpublic school, to be maintained |
26 | | for use when necessary. Any supply of opioid antagonists shall |
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1 | | be maintained in accordance with the manufacturer's |
2 | | instructions. |
3 | | (f-3) Whichever entity initiates the process of obtaining |
4 | | undesignated epinephrine auto-injectors and providing training |
5 | | to personnel for carrying and administering undesignated |
6 | | epinephrine auto-injectors shall pay for the costs of the |
7 | | undesignated epinephrine auto-injectors. |
8 | | (f-5) Upon any administration of an epinephrine |
9 | | auto-injector, a school district, public school, or nonpublic |
10 | | school must immediately activate the EMS system and notify the |
11 | | student's parent, guardian, or emergency contact, if known. |
12 | | Upon any administration of an opioid antagonist, a school |
13 | | district, public school, or nonpublic school must immediately |
14 | | activate the EMS system and notify the student's parent, |
15 | | guardian, or emergency contact, if known. |
16 | | (f-10) Within 24 hours of the administration of an |
17 | | undesignated epinephrine auto-injector, a school district, |
18 | | public school, or nonpublic school must notify the physician, |
19 | | physician assistant, or advanced practice registered nurse who |
20 | | provided the standing protocol or prescription for the |
21 | | undesignated epinephrine auto-injector of its use. |
22 | | Within 24 hours after the administration of an opioid |
23 | | antagonist, a school district, public school, or nonpublic |
24 | | school must notify the health care professional who provided |
25 | | the prescription for the opioid antagonist of its use. |
26 | | (g) Prior to the administration of an undesignated |
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1 | | epinephrine auto-injector, trained personnel must submit to |
2 | | their school's administration proof of completion of a training |
3 | | curriculum to recognize and respond to anaphylaxis that meets |
4 | | the requirements of subsection (h) of this Section. Training |
5 | | must be completed annually. their The school district, public |
6 | | school, or nonpublic school must maintain records related to |
7 | | the training curriculum and trained personnel. |
8 | | Prior to the administration of an opioid antagonist, |
9 | | trained personnel must submit to their school's administration |
10 | | proof of completion of a training curriculum to recognize and |
11 | | respond to an opioid overdose, which curriculum must meet the |
12 | | requirements of subsection (h-5) of this Section. Training must |
13 | | be completed annually. Trained personnel must also submit to |
14 | | the school's administration proof of cardiopulmonary |
15 | | resuscitation and automated external defibrillator |
16 | | certification. The school district, public school, or |
17 | | nonpublic school must maintain records relating to the training |
18 | | curriculum and the trained personnel. |
19 | | (h) A training curriculum to recognize and respond to |
20 | | anaphylaxis, including the administration of an undesignated |
21 | | epinephrine auto-injector, may be conducted online or in |
22 | | person. |
23 | | Training shall include, but is not limited to: |
24 | | (1) how to recognize signs and symptoms of an allergic |
25 | | reaction, including anaphylaxis; |
26 | | (2) how to administer an epinephrine auto-injector; |
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1 | | and |
2 | | (3) a test demonstrating competency of the knowledge |
3 | | required to recognize anaphylaxis and administer an |
4 | | epinephrine auto-injector. |
5 | | Training may also include, but is not limited to: |
6 | | (A) a review of high-risk areas within a school and its |
7 | | related facilities; |
8 | | (B) steps to take to prevent exposure to allergens; |
9 | | (C) emergency follow-up procedures; |
10 | | (D) how to respond to a student with a known allergy, |
11 | | as well as a student with a previously unknown allergy; and |
12 | | (E) other criteria as determined in rules adopted |
13 | | pursuant to this Section. |
14 | | In consultation with statewide professional organizations |
15 | | representing physicians licensed to practice medicine in all of |
16 | | its branches, registered nurses, and school nurses, the State |
17 | | Board of Education shall make available resource materials |
18 | | consistent with criteria in this subsection (h) for educating |
19 | | trained personnel to recognize and respond to anaphylaxis. The |
20 | | State Board may take into consideration the curriculum on this |
21 | | subject developed by other states, as well as any other |
22 | | curricular materials suggested by medical experts and other |
23 | | groups that work on life-threatening allergy issues. The State |
24 | | Board is not required to create new resource materials. The |
25 | | State Board shall make these resource materials available on |
26 | | its Internet website. |
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1 | | (h-5) A training curriculum to recognize and respond to an |
2 | | opioid overdose, including the administration of an opioid |
3 | | antagonist, may be conducted online or in person. The training |
4 | | must comply with any training requirements under Section 5-23 |
5 | | of the Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act and |
6 | | the corresponding rules. It must include, but is not limited |
7 | | to: |
8 | | (1) how to recognize symptoms of an opioid overdose; |
9 | | (2) information on drug overdose prevention and |
10 | | recognition; |
11 | | (3) how to perform rescue breathing and resuscitation; |
12 | | (4) how to respond to an emergency involving an opioid |
13 | | overdose; |
14 | | (5) opioid antagonist dosage and administration; |
15 | | (6) the importance of calling 911; |
16 | | (7) care for the overdose victim after administration |
17 | | of the overdose antagonist; |
18 | | (8) a test demonstrating competency of the knowledge |
19 | | required to recognize an opioid overdose and administer a |
20 | | dose of an opioid antagonist; and |
21 | | (9) other criteria as determined in rules adopted |
22 | | pursuant to this Section. |
23 | | (i) Within 3 days after the administration of an |
24 | | undesignated epinephrine auto-injector by a school nurse, |
25 | | trained personnel, or a student at a school or school-sponsored |
26 | | activity, the school must report to the State Board of |
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1 | | Education in a form and manner prescribed by the State Board |
2 | | the following information: |
3 | | (1) age and type of person receiving epinephrine |
4 | | (student, staff, visitor); |
5 | | (2) any previously known diagnosis of a severe allergy; |
6 | | (3) trigger that precipitated allergic episode; |
7 | | (4) location where symptoms developed; |
8 | | (5) number of doses administered; |
9 | | (6) type of person administering epinephrine (school |
10 | | nurse, trained personnel, student); and |
11 | | (7) any other information required by the State Board. |
12 | | If a school district, public school, or nonpublic school |
13 | | maintains or has an independent contractor providing |
14 | | transportation to students who maintains a supply of |
15 | | undesignated epinephrine auto-injectors, then the school |
16 | | district, public school, or nonpublic school must report that |
17 | | information to the State Board of Education upon adoption or |
18 | | change of the policy of the school district, public school, |
19 | | nonpublic school, or independent contractor, in a manner as |
20 | | prescribed by the State Board. The report must include the |
21 | | number of undesignated epinephrine auto-injectors in supply. |
22 | | (i-5) Within 3 days after the administration of an opioid |
23 | | antagonist by a school nurse or trained personnel, the school |
24 | | must report to the State Board of Education , in a form and |
25 | | manner prescribed by the State Board, the following |
26 | | information: |
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1 | | (1) the age and type of person receiving the opioid |
2 | | antagonist (student, staff, or visitor); |
3 | | (2) the location where symptoms developed; |
4 | | (3) the type of person administering the opioid |
5 | | antagonist (school nurse or trained personnel); and |
6 | | (4) any other information required by the State Board. |
7 | | (j) By October 1, 2015 and every year thereafter, the State |
8 | | Board of Education shall submit a report to the General |
9 | | Assembly identifying the frequency and circumstances of |
10 | | epinephrine administration during the preceding academic year. |
11 | | Beginning with the 2017 report, the report shall also contain |
12 | | information on which school districts, public schools, and |
13 | | nonpublic schools maintain or have independent contractors |
14 | | providing transportation to students who maintain a supply of |
15 | | undesignated epinephrine auto-injectors. This report shall be |
16 | | published on the State Board's Internet website on the date the |
17 | | report is delivered to the General Assembly. |
18 | | (j-5) Annually, each school district, public school, |
19 | | charter school, or nonpublic school shall request an asthma |
20 | | action plan from the parents or guardians of a pupil with |
21 | | asthma. If provided, the asthma action plan must be kept on |
22 | | file in the office of the school nurse or, in the absence of a |
23 | | school nurse, the school administrator. Copies of the asthma |
24 | | action plan may be distributed to appropriate school staff who |
25 | | interact with the pupil on a regular basis, and, if applicable, |
26 | | may be attached to the pupil's federal Section 504 plan or |
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1 | | individualized education program plan. |
2 | | (j-10) To assist schools with emergency response |
3 | | procedures for asthma, the State Board of Education, in |
4 | | consultation with statewide professional organizations with |
5 | | expertise in asthma management and a statewide organization |
6 | | representing school administrators, shall develop a model |
7 | | asthma episode emergency response protocol before September 1, |
8 | | 2016. Each school district, charter school, and nonpublic |
9 | | school shall adopt an asthma episode emergency response |
10 | | protocol before January 1, 2017 that includes all of the |
11 | | components of the State Board's model protocol. |
12 | | (j-15) Every 2 years, school personnel who work with pupils |
13 | | shall complete an in-person or online training program on the |
14 | | management of asthma, the prevention of asthma symptoms, and |
15 | | emergency response in the school setting. In consultation with |
16 | | statewide professional organizations with expertise in asthma |
17 | | management, the State Board of Education shall make available |
18 | | resource materials for educating school personnel about asthma |
19 | | and emergency response in the school setting. |
20 | | (j-20) On or before October 1, 2016 and every year |
21 | | thereafter, the State Board of Education shall submit a report |
22 | | to the General Assembly and the Department of Public Health |
23 | | identifying the frequency and circumstances of opioid |
24 | | antagonist administration during the preceding academic year. |
25 | | This report shall be published on the State Board's Internet |
26 | | website on the date the report is delivered to the General |
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1 | | Assembly. |
2 | | (k) The State Board of Education may adopt rules necessary |
3 | | to implement this Section. |
4 | | (l) Nothing in this Section shall limit the amount of |
5 | | epinephrine auto-injectors that any type of school or student |
6 | | may carry or maintain a supply of. |
7 | | (Source: P.A. 98-795, eff. 8-1-14; 99-173, eff. 7-29-15; |
8 | | 99-480, eff. 9-9-15; 99-642, eff. 7-28-16; 99-711, eff. 1-1-17; |
9 | | 99-843, eff. 8-19-16; revised 9-8-16.)
|
10 | | (105 ILCS 5/22-80) |
11 | | Sec. 22-80. Student athletes; concussions and head |
12 | | injuries. |
13 | | (a) The General Assembly recognizes all of the following: |
14 | | (1) Concussions are one of the most commonly reported |
15 | | injuries in children and adolescents who participate in |
16 | | sports and recreational activities. The Centers for |
17 | | Disease Control and Prevention estimates that as many as |
18 | | 3,900,000 sports-related and recreation-related |
19 | | concussions occur in the United States each year. A |
20 | | concussion is caused by a blow or motion to the head or |
21 | | body that causes the brain to move rapidly inside the |
22 | | skull. The risk of catastrophic injuries or death are |
23 | | significant when a concussion or head injury is not |
24 | | properly evaluated and managed. |
25 | | (2) Concussions are a type of brain injury that can |
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1 | | range from mild to severe and can disrupt the way the brain |
2 | | normally works. Concussions can occur in any organized or |
3 | | unorganized sport or recreational activity and can result |
4 | | from a fall or from players colliding with each other, the |
5 | | ground, or with obstacles. Concussions occur with or |
6 | | without loss of consciousness, but the vast majority of |
7 | | concussions occur without loss of consciousness. |
8 | | (3) Continuing to play with a concussion or symptoms of |
9 | | a head injury leaves a young athlete especially vulnerable |
10 | | to greater injury and even death. The General Assembly |
11 | | recognizes that, despite having generally recognized |
12 | | return-to-play standards for concussions and head |
13 | | injuries, some affected youth athletes are prematurely |
14 | | returned to play, resulting in actual or potential physical |
15 | | injury or death to youth athletes in this State. |
16 | | (4) Student athletes who have sustained a concussion |
17 | | may need informal or formal accommodations, modifications |
18 | | of curriculum, and monitoring by medical or academic staff |
19 | | until the student is fully recovered. To that end, all |
20 | | schools are encouraged to establish a return-to-learn |
21 | | protocol that is based on peer-reviewed scientific |
22 | | evidence consistent with Centers for Disease Control and |
23 | | Prevention guidelines and conduct baseline testing for |
24 | | student athletes. |
25 | | (b) In this Section: |
26 | | "Athletic trainer" means an athletic trainer licensed |
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1 | | under the Illinois Athletic Trainers Practice Act. |
2 | | "Coach" means any volunteer or employee of a school who is |
3 | | responsible for organizing and supervising students to teach |
4 | | them or train them in the fundamental skills of an |
5 | | interscholastic athletic activity. "Coach" refers to both head |
6 | | coaches and assistant coaches. |
7 | | "Concussion" means a complex pathophysiological process |
8 | | affecting the brain caused by a traumatic physical force or |
9 | | impact to the head or body, which may include temporary or |
10 | | prolonged altered brain function resulting in physical, |
11 | | cognitive, or emotional symptoms or altered sleep patterns and |
12 | | which may or may not involve a loss of consciousness. |
13 | | "Department" means the Department of Financial and |
14 | | Professional Regulation. |
15 | | "Game official" means a person who officiates at an |
16 | | interscholastic athletic activity, such as a referee or umpire, |
17 | | including, but not limited to, persons enrolled as game |
18 | | officials by the Illinois High School Association or Illinois |
19 | | Elementary School Association. |
20 | | "Interscholastic athletic activity" means any organized |
21 | | school-sponsored or school-sanctioned activity for students, |
22 | | generally outside of school instructional hours, under the |
23 | | direction of a coach, athletic director, or band leader, |
24 | | including, but not limited to, baseball, basketball, |
25 | | cheerleading, cross country track, fencing, field hockey, |
26 | | football, golf, gymnastics, ice hockey, lacrosse, marching |
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1 | | band, rugby, soccer, skating, softball, swimming and diving, |
2 | | tennis, track (indoor and outdoor), ultimate Frisbee, |
3 | | volleyball, water polo, and wrestling. All interscholastic |
4 | | athletics are deemed to be interscholastic activities. |
5 | | "Licensed healthcare professional" means a person who has |
6 | | experience with concussion management and who is a nurse, a |
7 | | psychologist who holds a license under the Clinical |
8 | | Psychologist Licensing Act and specializes in the practice of |
9 | | neuropsychology, a physical therapist licensed under the |
10 | | Illinois Physical Therapy Act, an occupational therapist |
11 | | licensed under the Illinois Occupational Therapy Practice Act. |
12 | | "Nurse" means a person who is employed by or volunteers at |
13 | | a school and is licensed under the Nurse Practice Act as a |
14 | | registered nurse, practical nurse, or advanced practice |
15 | | registered nurse. |
16 | | "Physician" means a physician licensed to practice |
17 | | medicine in all of its branches under the Medical Practice Act |
18 | | of 1987. |
19 | | "School" means any public or private elementary or |
20 | | secondary school, including a charter school. |
21 | | "Student" means an adolescent or child enrolled in a |
22 | | school. |
23 | | (c) This Section applies to any interscholastic athletic |
24 | | activity, including practice and competition, sponsored or |
25 | | sanctioned by a school, the Illinois Elementary School |
26 | | Association, or the Illinois High School Association. This |
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1 | | Section applies beginning with the 2016-2017 school year. |
2 | | (d) The governing body of each public or charter school and |
3 | | the appropriate administrative officer of a private school with |
4 | | students enrolled who participate in an interscholastic |
5 | | athletic activity shall appoint or approve a concussion |
6 | | oversight team. Each concussion oversight team shall establish |
7 | | a return-to-play protocol, based on peer-reviewed scientific |
8 | | evidence consistent with Centers for Disease Control and |
9 | | Prevention guidelines, for a student's return to |
10 | | interscholastic athletics practice or competition following a |
11 | | force or impact believed to have caused a concussion. Each |
12 | | concussion oversight team shall also establish a |
13 | | return-to-learn protocol, based on peer-reviewed scientific |
14 | | evidence consistent with Centers for Disease Control and |
15 | | Prevention guidelines, for a student's return to the classroom |
16 | | after that student is believed to have experienced a |
17 | | concussion, whether or not the concussion took place while the |
18 | | student was participating in an interscholastic athletic |
19 | | activity. |
20 | | Each concussion oversight team must include to the extent |
21 | | practicable at least one physician. If a school employs an |
22 | | athletic trainer, the athletic trainer must be a member of the |
23 | | school concussion oversight team to the extent practicable. If |
24 | | a school employs a nurse, the nurse must be a member of the |
25 | | school concussion oversight team to the extent practicable. At |
26 | | a minimum, a school shall appoint a person who is responsible |
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1 | | for implementing and complying with the return-to-play and |
2 | | return-to-learn protocols adopted by the concussion oversight |
3 | | team. A school may appoint other licensed healthcare |
4 | | professionals to serve on the concussion oversight team. |
5 | | (e) A student may not participate in an interscholastic |
6 | | athletic activity for a school year until the student and the |
7 | | student's parent or guardian or another person with legal |
8 | | authority to make medical decisions for the student have signed |
9 | | a form for that school year that acknowledges receiving and |
10 | | reading written information that explains concussion |
11 | | prevention, symptoms, treatment, and oversight and that |
12 | | includes guidelines for safely resuming participation in an |
13 | | athletic activity following a concussion. The form must be |
14 | | approved by the Illinois High School Association. |
15 | | (f) A student must be removed from an interscholastic |
16 | | athletics practice or competition immediately if one of the |
17 | | following persons believes the student might have sustained a |
18 | | concussion during the practice or competition: |
19 | | (1) a coach; |
20 | | (2) a physician; |
21 | | (3) a game official; |
22 | | (4) an athletic trainer; |
23 | | (5) the student's parent or guardian or another person |
24 | | with legal authority to make medical decisions for the |
25 | | student; |
26 | | (6) the student; or |
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1 | | (7) any other person deemed appropriate under the |
2 | | school's return-to-play protocol. |
3 | | (g) A student removed from an interscholastic athletics |
4 | | practice or competition under this Section may not be permitted |
5 | | to practice or compete again following the force or impact |
6 | | believed to have caused the concussion until: |
7 | | (1) the student has been evaluated, using established |
8 | | medical protocols based on peer-reviewed scientific |
9 | | evidence consistent with Centers for Disease Control and |
10 | | Prevention guidelines, by a treating physician (chosen by |
11 | | the student or the student's parent or guardian or another |
12 | | person with legal authority to make medical decisions for |
13 | | the student) or an athletic trainer working under the |
14 | | supervision of a physician; |
15 | | (2) the student has successfully completed each |
16 | | requirement of the return-to-play protocol established |
17 | | under this Section necessary for the student to return to |
18 | | play; |
19 | | (3) the student has successfully completed each |
20 | | requirement of the return-to-learn protocol established |
21 | | under this Section necessary for the student to return to |
22 | | learn; |
23 | | (4) the treating physician or athletic trainer working |
24 | | under the supervision of a physician has provided a written |
25 | | statement indicating that, in the physician's professional |
26 | | judgment, it is safe for the student to return to play and |
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1 | | return to learn; and |
2 | | (5) the student and the student's parent or guardian or |
3 | | another person with legal authority to make medical |
4 | | decisions for the student: |
5 | | (A) have acknowledged that the student has |
6 | | completed the requirements of the return-to-play and |
7 | | return-to-learn protocols necessary for the student to |
8 | | return to play; |
9 | | (B) have provided the treating physician's or |
10 | | athletic trainer's written statement under subdivision |
11 | | (4) of this subsection (g) to the person responsible |
12 | | for compliance with the return-to-play and |
13 | | return-to-learn protocols under this subsection (g) |
14 | | and the person who has supervisory responsibilities |
15 | | under this subsection (g); and |
16 | | (C) have signed a consent form indicating that the |
17 | | person signing: |
18 | | (i) has been informed concerning and consents |
19 | | to the student participating in returning to play |
20 | | in accordance with the return-to-play and |
21 | | return-to-learn protocols; |
22 | | (ii) understands the risks associated with the |
23 | | student returning to play and returning to learn |
24 | | and will comply with any ongoing requirements in |
25 | | the return-to-play and return-to-learn protocols; |
26 | | and |
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1 | | (iii) consents to the disclosure to |
2 | | appropriate persons, consistent with the federal |
3 | | Health Insurance Portability and Accountability |
4 | | Act of 1996 (Public Law 104-191), of the treating |
5 | | physician's or athletic trainer's written |
6 | | statement under subdivision (4) of this subsection |
7 | | (g) and, if any, the return-to-play and |
8 | | return-to-learn recommendations of the treating |
9 | | physician or the athletic trainer, as the case may |
10 | | be. |
11 | | A coach of an interscholastic athletics team may not |
12 | | authorize a student's return to play or return to learn. |
13 | | The district superintendent or the superintendent's |
14 | | designee in the case of a public elementary or secondary |
15 | | school, the chief school administrator or that person's |
16 | | designee in the case of a charter school, or the appropriate |
17 | | administrative officer or that person's designee in the case of |
18 | | a private school shall supervise an athletic trainer or other |
19 | | person responsible for compliance with the return-to-play |
20 | | protocol and shall supervise the person responsible for |
21 | | compliance with the return-to-learn protocol. The person who |
22 | | has supervisory responsibilities under this paragraph may not |
23 | | be a coach of an interscholastic athletics team. |
24 | | (h)(1) The Illinois High School Association shall approve, |
25 | | for coaches and game officials of interscholastic athletic |
26 | | activities, training courses that provide for not less than 2 |
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1 | | hours of training in the subject matter of concussions, |
2 | | including evaluation, prevention, symptoms, risks, and |
3 | | long-term effects. The Association shall maintain an updated |
4 | | list of individuals and organizations authorized by the |
5 | | Association to provide the training. |
6 | | (2) The following persons must take a training course in |
7 | | accordance with paragraph (4) of this subsection (h) from an |
8 | | authorized training provider at least once every 2 years: |
9 | | (A) a coach of an interscholastic athletic activity; |
10 | | (B) a nurse who serves as a member of a concussion |
11 | | oversight team and is an employee, representative, or agent |
12 | | of a school; |
13 | | (C) a game official of an interscholastic athletic |
14 | | activity; and |
15 | | (D) a nurse who serves on a volunteer basis as a member |
16 | | of a concussion oversight team for a school. |
17 | | (3) A physician who serves as a member of a concussion |
18 | | oversight team shall, to the greatest extent practicable, |
19 | | periodically take an appropriate continuing medical education |
20 | | course in the subject matter of concussions. |
21 | | (4) For purposes of paragraph (2) of this subsection (h): |
22 | | (A) a coach or game officials, as the case may be, must |
23 | | take a course described in paragraph (1) of this subsection |
24 | | (h). |
25 | | (B) an athletic trainer must take a concussion-related |
26 | | continuing education course from an athletic trainer |
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1 | | continuing education sponsor approved by the Department; |
2 | | and |
3 | | (C) a nurse must take a course concerning the subject |
4 | | matter of concussions that has been approved for continuing |
5 | | education credit by the Department. |
6 | | (5) Each person described in paragraph (2) of this |
7 | | subsection (h) must submit proof of timely completion of an |
8 | | approved course in compliance with paragraph (4) of this |
9 | | subsection (h) to the district superintendent or the |
10 | | superintendent's designee in the case of a public elementary or |
11 | | secondary school, the chief school administrator or that |
12 | | person's designee in the case of a charter school, or the |
13 | | appropriate administrative officer or that person's designee |
14 | | in the case of a private school. |
15 | | (6) A physician, athletic trainer, or nurse who is not in |
16 | | compliance with the training requirements under this |
17 | | subsection (h) may not serve on a concussion oversight team in |
18 | | any capacity. |
19 | | (7) A person required under this subsection (h) to take a |
20 | | training course in the subject of concussions must initially |
21 | | complete the training not later than September 1, 2016. |
22 | | (i) The governing body of each public or charter school and |
23 | | the appropriate administrative officer of a private school with |
24 | | students enrolled who participate in an interscholastic |
25 | | athletic activity shall develop a school-specific emergency |
26 | | action plan for interscholastic athletic activities to address |
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1 | | the serious injuries and acute medical conditions in which the |
2 | | condition of the student may deteriorate rapidly. The plan |
3 | | shall include a delineation of roles, methods of communication, |
4 | | available emergency equipment, and access to and a plan for |
5 | | emergency transport. This emergency action plan must be: |
6 | | (1) in writing; |
7 | | (2) reviewed by the concussion oversight team; |
8 | | (3) approved by the district superintendent or the |
9 | | superintendent's designee in the case of a public |
10 | | elementary or secondary school, the chief school |
11 | | administrator or that person's designee in the case of a |
12 | | charter school, or the appropriate administrative officer |
13 | | or that person's designee in the case of a private school; |
14 | | (4) distributed to all appropriate personnel; |
15 | | (5) posted conspicuously at all venues utilized by the |
16 | | school; and |
17 | | (6) reviewed annually by all athletic trainers, first |
18 | | responders, coaches, school nurses, athletic directors, |
19 | | and volunteers for interscholastic athletic activities. |
20 | | (j) The State Board of Education may adopt rules as |
21 | | necessary to administer this Section.
|
22 | | (Source: P.A. 99-245, eff. 8-3-15; 99-486, eff. 11-20-15; |
23 | | 99-642, eff. 7-28-16.)
|
24 | | (105 ILCS 5/24-5) (from Ch. 122, par. 24-5)
|
25 | | Sec. 24-5. Physical fitness and professional growth. |
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1 | | (a) In this Section, "employee" means any employee of a |
2 | | school district, a student teacher, an employee of a contractor |
3 | | that provides services to students or in schools, or any other |
4 | | individual subject to the requirements of Section 10-21.9 or |
5 | | 34-18.5 of this Code. |
6 | | (b) School boards shall require of new employees evidence |
7 | | of physical
fitness to perform duties assigned and freedom from |
8 | | communicable disease. Such evidence shall consist of a physical
|
9 | | examination
by a physician licensed in Illinois or any other |
10 | | state to practice medicine
and surgery in all its branches, a |
11 | | licensed advanced practice registered nurse, or a licensed |
12 | | physician assistant not more than 90 days preceding time of
|
13 | | presentation to the board, and the cost of such examination |
14 | | shall rest with the
employee. A new or existing employee may be |
15 | | subject to additional health examinations, including screening |
16 | | for tuberculosis, as required by rules adopted by the |
17 | | Department of Public Health or by order of a local public |
18 | | health official. The board may from time to time require an |
19 | | examination of any
employee by a physician licensed in Illinois |
20 | | to practice medicine and
surgery in all its branches, a |
21 | | licensed advanced practice registered nurse, or a licensed |
22 | | physician assistant and shall pay the expenses thereof from |
23 | | school
funds. |
24 | | (c) School boards may require teachers in their employ to |
25 | | furnish from
time to time evidence of continued professional |
26 | | growth.
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1 | | (Source: P.A. 98-716, eff. 7-16-14; 99-173, eff. 7-29-15.)
|
2 | | (105 ILCS 5/24-6)
|
3 | | Sec. 24-6. Sick leave. The school boards of all school |
4 | | districts, including special charter
districts, but not |
5 | | including school districts in municipalities of 500,000
or |
6 | | more, shall grant their full-time teachers, and also shall |
7 | | grant
such of their other employees as are eligible to |
8 | | participate in the
Illinois Municipal Retirement Fund under the |
9 | | "600-Hour Standard"
established, or under such other |
10 | | eligibility participation standard as may
from time to time be |
11 | | established, by rules and regulations now or hereafter
|
12 | | promulgated by the Board of that Fund under Section 7-198 of |
13 | | the Illinois
Pension Code, as now or hereafter amended, sick |
14 | | leave
provisions not less in amount than 10 days at full pay in |
15 | | each school year.
If any such teacher or employee does not use |
16 | | the full amount of annual leave
thus allowed, the unused amount |
17 | | shall be allowed to accumulate to a minimum
available leave of |
18 | | 180 days at full pay, including the leave of the current
year. |
19 | | Sick leave shall be interpreted to mean personal illness, |
20 | | quarantine
at home, serious illness or death in the immediate |
21 | | family or household, or
birth, adoption, or placement for |
22 | | adoption.
The school board may require a certificate from a |
23 | | physician licensed in Illinois to practice medicine and surgery |
24 | | in all its branches, a chiropractic physician licensed under |
25 | | the Medical Practice Act of 1987, a licensed advanced practice |
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1 | | registered nurse, a licensed physician assistant, or, if the |
2 | | treatment
is by prayer or spiritual means, a spiritual adviser |
3 | | or
practitioner of the teacher's or employee's faith as a basis |
4 | | for pay during leave after
an absence of 3 days for personal |
5 | | illness or 30 days for birth or as the school board may deem |
6 | | necessary in
other cases. If the school board does require a
|
7 | | certificate
as a basis for pay during leave of
less than 3 days |
8 | | for personal illness, the school board shall pay, from school |
9 | | funds, the
expenses incurred by the teachers or other employees |
10 | | in obtaining the certificate. For paid leave for adoption or |
11 | | placement for adoption, the school board may require that the |
12 | | teacher or other employee provide evidence that the formal |
13 | | adoption process is underway, and such leave is limited to 30 |
14 | | days unless a longer leave has been negotiated with the |
15 | | exclusive bargaining representative.
|
16 | | If, by reason of any change in the boundaries of school |
17 | | districts, or by
reason of the creation of a new school |
18 | | district, the employment of a
teacher is transferred to a new |
19 | | or different board, the accumulated sick
leave of such teacher |
20 | | is not thereby lost, but is transferred to such new
or |
21 | | different district.
|
22 | | For purposes of this Section, "immediate family" shall |
23 | | include parents,
spouse, brothers, sisters, children, |
24 | | grandparents, grandchildren,
parents-in-law, brothers-in-law, |
25 | | sisters-in-law, and legal guardians.
|
26 | | (Source: P.A. 99-173, eff. 7-29-15.)
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1 | | (105 ILCS 5/26-1) (from Ch. 122, par. 26-1)
|
2 | | Sec. 26-1. Compulsory school age-Exemptions. Whoever has |
3 | | custody or control of any child (i) between the ages of 7 and |
4 | | 17
years (unless the child has already graduated from high |
5 | | school) for school years before the 2014-2015 school year or |
6 | | (ii) between the ages
of 6 (on or before September 1) and 17 |
7 | | years (unless the child has already graduated from high school) |
8 | | beginning with the 2014-2015 school year
shall cause such child |
9 | | to attend some public school in the district
wherein the child |
10 | | resides the entire time it is in session during the
regular |
11 | | school term, except as provided in Section 10-19.1, and during |
12 | | a
required summer school program established under Section |
13 | | 10-22.33B; provided,
that
the following children shall not be |
14 | | required to attend the public schools:
|
15 | | 1. Any child attending a private or a parochial school |
16 | | where children
are taught the branches of education taught |
17 | | to children of corresponding
age and grade in the public |
18 | | schools, and where the instruction of the child
in the |
19 | | branches of education is in the English language;
|
20 | | 2. Any child who is physically or mentally unable to |
21 | | attend school, such
disability being certified to the |
22 | | county or district truant officer by a
competent physician |
23 | | licensed in Illinois to practice medicine and surgery in |
24 | | all its branches, a chiropractic physician licensed under |
25 | | the Medical Practice Act of 1987, a licensed advanced |
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1 | | practice registered nurse, a licensed physician assistant, |
2 | | or a Christian Science practitioner residing in this
State |
3 | | and listed in the Christian Science Journal; or who is |
4 | | excused for
temporary absence for cause by
the principal or |
5 | | teacher of the school which the child attends; the |
6 | | exemptions
in this paragraph (2) do not apply to any female |
7 | | who is pregnant or the
mother of one or more children, |
8 | | except where a female is unable to attend
school due to a |
9 | | complication arising from her pregnancy and the existence
|
10 | | of such complication is certified to the county or district |
11 | | truant officer
by a competent physician;
|
12 | | 3. Any child necessarily and lawfully employed |
13 | | according to the
provisions of the law regulating child |
14 | | labor may be excused from attendance
at school by the |
15 | | county superintendent of schools or the superintendent of
|
16 | | the public school which the child should be attending, on |
17 | | certification of
the facts by and the recommendation of the |
18 | | school board of the public
school district in which the |
19 | | child resides. In districts having part time
continuation |
20 | | schools, children so excused shall attend such schools at
|
21 | | least 8 hours each week;
|
22 | | 4. Any child over 12 and under 14 years of age while in |
23 | | attendance at
confirmation classes;
|
24 | | 5. Any child absent from a public school on a |
25 | | particular day or days
or at a particular time of day for |
26 | | the reason that he is unable to attend
classes or to |
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1 | | participate in any examination, study or work requirements |
2 | | on
a particular day or days or at a particular time of day, |
3 | | because the tenets
of his religion forbid secular activity |
4 | | on a particular day or days or at a
particular time of day. |
5 | | Each school board shall prescribe rules and
regulations |
6 | | relative to absences for religious holidays including, but |
7 | | not
limited to, a list of religious holidays on which it |
8 | | shall be mandatory to
excuse a child; but nothing in this |
9 | | paragraph 5 shall be construed to limit
the right of any |
10 | | school board, at its discretion, to excuse an absence on
|
11 | | any other day by reason of the observance of a religious |
12 | | holiday. A school
board may require the parent or guardian |
13 | | of a child who is to be excused
from attending school due |
14 | | to the observance of a religious holiday to give
notice, |
15 | | not exceeding 5 days, of the child's absence to the school
|
16 | | principal or other school personnel. Any child excused from |
17 | | attending
school under this paragraph 5 shall not be |
18 | | required to submit a written
excuse for such absence after |
19 | | returning to school; |
20 | | 6. Any child 16 years of age or older who (i) submits |
21 | | to a school district evidence of necessary and lawful |
22 | | employment pursuant to paragraph 3 of this Section and (ii) |
23 | | is enrolled in a graduation incentives program pursuant to |
24 | | Section 26-16 of this Code or an alternative learning |
25 | | opportunities program established pursuant to Article 13B |
26 | | of this Code; and
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1 | | 7. A child in any of grades 6 through 12 absent from a |
2 | | public school on a particular day or days or at a |
3 | | particular time of day for the purpose of sounding "Taps" |
4 | | at a military honors funeral held in this State for a |
5 | | deceased veteran. In order to be excused under this |
6 | | paragraph 7, the student shall notify the school's |
7 | | administration at least 2 days prior to the date of the |
8 | | absence and shall provide the school's administration with |
9 | | the date, time, and location of the military
honors |
10 | | funeral. The school's administration may waive this 2-day |
11 | | notification requirement if the student did not receive at |
12 | | least 2 days advance notice, but the student shall notify |
13 | | the school's administration as soon as possible of the |
14 | | absence. A student whose absence is excused under this |
15 | | paragraph 7 shall be counted as if the student attended |
16 | | school for purposes of calculating the average daily |
17 | | attendance of students in the school district. A student |
18 | | whose absence is excused under this paragraph 7 must be |
19 | | allowed a reasonable time to make up school work missed |
20 | | during the absence. If the student satisfactorily |
21 | | completes the school work, the day of absence shall be |
22 | | counted as a day of compulsory attendance and he or she may |
23 | | not be penalized for that absence. |
24 | | (Source: P.A. 98-544, eff. 7-1-14; 99-173, eff. 7-29-15; |
25 | | 99-804, eff. 1-1-17 .)
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1 | | (105 ILCS 5/27-8.1) (from Ch. 122, par. 27-8.1) |
2 | | (Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 99-927 ) |
3 | | Sec. 27-8.1. Health examinations and immunizations. |
4 | | (1) In compliance with rules and regulations which the |
5 | | Department of Public
Health shall promulgate, and except as |
6 | | hereinafter provided, all children in
Illinois shall have a |
7 | | health examination as follows: within one year prior to
|
8 | | entering kindergarten or the first grade of any public, |
9 | | private, or parochial
elementary school; upon entering the |
10 | | sixth and ninth grades of any public,
private, or parochial |
11 | | school; prior to entrance into any public, private, or
|
12 | | parochial nursery school; and, irrespective of grade, |
13 | | immediately prior to or
upon entrance into any public, private, |
14 | | or parochial school or nursery school,
each child shall present |
15 | | proof of having been examined in accordance with this
Section |
16 | | and the rules and regulations promulgated hereunder. Any child |
17 | | who received a health examination within one year prior to |
18 | | entering the fifth grade for the 2007-2008 school year is not |
19 | | required to receive an additional health examination in order |
20 | | to comply with the provisions of Public Act 95-422 when he or |
21 | | she attends school for the 2008-2009 school year, unless the |
22 | | child is attending school for the first time as provided in |
23 | | this paragraph. |
24 | | A tuberculosis skin test screening shall be included as a |
25 | | required part of
each health examination included under this |
26 | | Section if the child resides in an
area designated by the |
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1 | | Department of Public Health as having a high incidence
of |
2 | | tuberculosis. Additional health examinations of pupils, |
3 | | including eye examinations, may be required when deemed |
4 | | necessary by school
authorities. Parents are encouraged to have |
5 | | their children undergo eye examinations at the same points in |
6 | | time required for health
examinations. |
7 | | (1.5) In compliance with rules adopted by the Department of |
8 | | Public Health and except as otherwise provided in this Section, |
9 | | all children in kindergarten and the second and sixth grades of |
10 | | any public, private, or parochial school shall have a dental |
11 | | examination. Each of these children shall present proof of |
12 | | having been examined by a dentist in accordance with this |
13 | | Section and rules adopted under this Section before May 15th of |
14 | | the school year. If a child in the second or sixth grade fails |
15 | | to present proof by May 15th, the school may hold the child's |
16 | | report card until one of the following occurs: (i) the child |
17 | | presents proof of a completed dental examination or (ii) the |
18 | | child presents proof that a dental examination will take place |
19 | | within 60 days after May 15th. The Department of Public Health |
20 | | shall establish, by rule, a waiver for children who show an |
21 | | undue burden or a lack of access to a dentist. Each public, |
22 | | private, and parochial school must give notice of this dental |
23 | | examination requirement to the parents and guardians of |
24 | | students at least 60 days before May 15th of each school year.
|
25 | | (1.10) Except as otherwise provided in this Section, all |
26 | | children enrolling in kindergarten in a public, private, or |
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1 | | parochial school on or after the effective date of this |
2 | | amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly and any student |
3 | | enrolling for the first time in a public, private, or parochial |
4 | | school on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of |
5 | | the 95th General Assembly shall have an eye examination. Each |
6 | | of these children shall present proof of having been examined |
7 | | by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its |
8 | | branches or a licensed optometrist within the previous year, in |
9 | | accordance with this Section and rules adopted under this |
10 | | Section, before October 15th of the school year. If the child |
11 | | fails to present proof by October 15th, the school may hold the |
12 | | child's report card until one of the following occurs: (i) the |
13 | | child presents proof of a completed eye examination or (ii) the |
14 | | child presents proof that an eye examination will take place |
15 | | within 60 days after October 15th. The Department of Public |
16 | | Health shall establish, by rule, a waiver for children who show |
17 | | an undue burden or a lack of access to a physician licensed to |
18 | | practice medicine in all of its branches who provides eye |
19 | | examinations or to a licensed optometrist. Each public, |
20 | | private, and parochial school must give notice of this eye |
21 | | examination requirement to the parents and guardians of |
22 | | students in compliance with rules of the Department of Public |
23 | | Health. Nothing in this Section shall be construed to allow a |
24 | | school to exclude a child from attending because of a parent's |
25 | | or guardian's failure to obtain an eye examination for the |
26 | | child.
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1 | | (2) The Department of Public Health shall promulgate rules |
2 | | and regulations
specifying the examinations and procedures |
3 | | that constitute a health examination, which shall include the |
4 | | collection of data relating to obesity
(including at a minimum, |
5 | | date of birth, gender, height, weight, blood pressure, and date |
6 | | of exam),
and a dental examination and may recommend by rule |
7 | | that certain additional examinations be performed.
The rules |
8 | | and regulations of the Department of Public Health shall |
9 | | specify that
a tuberculosis skin test screening shall be |
10 | | included as a required part of each
health examination included |
11 | | under this Section if the child resides in an area
designated |
12 | | by the Department of Public Health as having a high incidence |
13 | | of
tuberculosis.
The Department of Public Health shall specify |
14 | | that a diabetes
screening as defined by rule shall be included |
15 | | as a required part of each
health examination.
Diabetes testing |
16 | | is not required. |
17 | | Physicians licensed to practice medicine in all of its |
18 | | branches, licensed advanced
practice registered nurses, or |
19 | | licensed physician assistants shall be
responsible for the |
20 | | performance of the health examinations, other than dental
|
21 | | examinations, eye examinations, and vision and hearing |
22 | | screening, and shall sign all report forms
required by |
23 | | subsection (4) of this Section that pertain to those portions |
24 | | of
the health examination for which the physician, advanced |
25 | | practice registered nurse, or
physician assistant is |
26 | | responsible.
If a registered
nurse performs any part of a |
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1 | | health examination, then a physician licensed to
practice |
2 | | medicine in all of its branches must review and sign all |
3 | | required
report forms. Licensed dentists shall perform all |
4 | | dental examinations and
shall sign all report forms required by |
5 | | subsection (4) of this Section that
pertain to the dental |
6 | | examinations. Physicians licensed to practice medicine
in all |
7 | | its branches or licensed optometrists shall perform all eye |
8 | | examinations
required by this Section and shall sign all report |
9 | | forms required by
subsection (4) of this Section that pertain |
10 | | to the eye examination. For purposes of this Section, an eye |
11 | | examination shall at a minimum include history, visual acuity, |
12 | | subjective refraction to best visual acuity near and far, |
13 | | internal and external examination, and a glaucoma evaluation, |
14 | | as well as any other tests or observations that in the |
15 | | professional judgment of the doctor are necessary. Vision and
|
16 | | hearing screening tests, which shall not be considered |
17 | | examinations as that
term is used in this Section, shall be |
18 | | conducted in accordance with rules and
regulations of the |
19 | | Department of Public Health, and by individuals whom the
|
20 | | Department of Public Health has certified.
In these rules and |
21 | | regulations, the Department of Public Health shall
require that |
22 | | individuals conducting vision screening tests give a child's
|
23 | | parent or guardian written notification, before the vision |
24 | | screening is
conducted, that states, "Vision screening is not a |
25 | | substitute for a
complete eye and vision evaluation by an eye |
26 | | doctor. Your child is not
required to undergo this vision |
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1 | | screening if an optometrist or
ophthalmologist has completed |
2 | | and signed a report form indicating that
an examination has |
3 | | been administered within the previous 12 months." |
4 | | (3) Every child shall, at or about the same time as he or |
5 | | she receives
a health examination required by subsection (1) of |
6 | | this Section, present
to the local school proof of having |
7 | | received such immunizations against
preventable communicable |
8 | | diseases as the Department of Public Health shall
require by |
9 | | rules and regulations promulgated pursuant to this Section and |
10 | | the
Communicable Disease Prevention Act. |
11 | | (4) The individuals conducting the health examination,
|
12 | | dental examination, or eye examination shall record the
fact of |
13 | | having conducted the examination, and such additional |
14 | | information as
required, including for a health examination
|
15 | | data relating to obesity
(including at a minimum, date of |
16 | | birth, gender, height, weight, blood pressure, and date of |
17 | | exam), on uniform forms which the Department of Public Health |
18 | | and the State
Board of Education shall prescribe for statewide |
19 | | use. The examiner shall
summarize on the report form any |
20 | | condition that he or she suspects indicates a
need for special |
21 | | services, including for a health examination factors relating |
22 | | to obesity. The individuals confirming the administration of
|
23 | | required immunizations shall record as indicated on the form |
24 | | that the
immunizations were administered. |
25 | | (5) If a child does not submit proof of having had either |
26 | | the health
examination or the immunization as required, then |
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1 | | the child shall be examined
or receive the immunization, as the |
2 | | case may be, and present proof by October
15 of the current |
3 | | school year, or by an earlier date of the current school year
|
4 | | established by a school district. To establish a date before |
5 | | October 15 of the
current school year for the health |
6 | | examination or immunization as required, a
school district must |
7 | | give notice of the requirements of this Section 60 days
prior |
8 | | to the earlier established date. If for medical reasons one or |
9 | | more of
the required immunizations must be given after October |
10 | | 15 of the current school
year, or after an earlier established |
11 | | date of the current school year, then
the child shall present, |
12 | | by October 15, or by the earlier established date, a
schedule |
13 | | for the administration of the immunizations and a statement of |
14 | | the
medical reasons causing the delay, both the schedule and |
15 | | the statement being
issued by the physician, advanced practice |
16 | | registered nurse, physician assistant,
registered nurse, or |
17 | | local health department that will
be responsible for |
18 | | administration of the remaining required immunizations. If
a |
19 | | child does not comply by October 15, or by the earlier |
20 | | established date of
the current school year, with the |
21 | | requirements of this subsection, then the
local school |
22 | | authority shall exclude that child from school until such time |
23 | | as
the child presents proof of having had the health |
24 | | examination as required and
presents proof of having received |
25 | | those required immunizations which are
medically possible to |
26 | | receive immediately. During a child's exclusion from
school for |
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1 | | noncompliance with this subsection, the child's parents or |
2 | | legal
guardian shall be considered in violation of Section 26-1 |
3 | | and subject to any
penalty imposed by Section 26-10. This |
4 | | subsection (5) does not apply to dental examinations and eye |
5 | | examinations. If the student is an out-of-state transfer |
6 | | student and does not have the proof required under this |
7 | | subsection (5) before October 15 of the current year or |
8 | | whatever date is set by the school district, then he or she may |
9 | | only attend classes (i) if he or she has proof that an |
10 | | appointment for the required vaccinations has been scheduled |
11 | | with a party authorized to submit proof of the required |
12 | | vaccinations. If the proof of vaccination required under this |
13 | | subsection (5) is not submitted within 30 days after the |
14 | | student is permitted to attend classes, then the student is not |
15 | | to be permitted to attend classes until proof of the |
16 | | vaccinations has been properly submitted. No school district or |
17 | | employee of a school district shall be held liable for any |
18 | | injury or illness to another person that results from admitting |
19 | | an out-of-state transfer student to class that has an |
20 | | appointment scheduled pursuant to this subsection (5). |
21 | | (6) Every school shall report to the State Board of |
22 | | Education by November
15, in the manner which that agency shall |
23 | | require, the number of children who
have received the necessary |
24 | | immunizations and the health examination (other than a dental |
25 | | examination or eye examination) as
required, indicating, of |
26 | | those who have not received the immunizations and
examination |
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1 | | as required, the number of children who are exempt from health
|
2 | | examination and immunization requirements on religious or |
3 | | medical grounds as
provided in subsection (8). On or before |
4 | | December 1 of each year, every public school district and |
5 | | registered nonpublic school shall make publicly available the |
6 | | immunization data they are required to submit to the State |
7 | | Board of Education by November 15. The immunization data made |
8 | | publicly available must be identical to the data the school |
9 | | district or school has reported to the State Board of |
10 | | Education. |
11 | | Every school shall report to the State Board of Education |
12 | | by June 30, in the manner that the State Board requires, the |
13 | | number of children who have received the required dental |
14 | | examination, indicating, of those who have not received the |
15 | | required dental examination, the number of children who are |
16 | | exempt from the dental examination on religious grounds as |
17 | | provided in subsection (8) of this Section and the number of |
18 | | children who have received a waiver under subsection (1.5) of |
19 | | this Section. |
20 | | Every school shall report to the State Board of Education |
21 | | by June 30, in the manner that the State Board requires, the |
22 | | number of children who have received the required eye |
23 | | examination, indicating, of those who have not received the |
24 | | required eye examination, the number of children who are exempt |
25 | | from the eye examination as provided in subsection (8) of this |
26 | | Section, the number of children who have received a waiver |
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1 | | under subsection (1.10) of this Section, and the total number |
2 | | of children in noncompliance with the eye examination |
3 | | requirement. |
4 | | The reported information under this subsection (6) shall be |
5 | | provided to the
Department of Public Health by the State Board |
6 | | of Education. |
7 | | (7) Upon determining that the number of pupils who are |
8 | | required to be in
compliance with subsection (5) of this |
9 | | Section is below 90% of the number of
pupils enrolled in the |
10 | | school district, 10% of each State aid payment made
pursuant to |
11 | | Section 18-8.05 to the school district for such year may be |
12 | | withheld
by the State Board of Education until the number of |
13 | | students in compliance with
subsection (5) is the applicable |
14 | | specified percentage or higher. |
15 | | (8) Children of parents or legal guardians who object to |
16 | | health, dental, or eye examinations or any part thereof, to |
17 | | immunizations, or to vision and hearing screening tests on |
18 | | religious grounds shall not be required to undergo the |
19 | | examinations, tests, or immunizations to which they so object |
20 | | if such parents or legal guardians present to the appropriate |
21 | | local school authority a signed Certificate of Religious |
22 | | Exemption detailing the grounds for objection and the specific |
23 | | immunizations, tests, or examinations to which they object. The |
24 | | grounds for objection must set forth the specific religious |
25 | | belief that conflicts with the examination, test, |
26 | | immunization, or other medical intervention. The signed |
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1 | | certificate shall also reflect the parent's or legal guardian's |
2 | | understanding of the school's exclusion policies in the case of |
3 | | a vaccine-preventable disease outbreak or exposure. The |
4 | | certificate must also be signed by the authorized examining |
5 | | health care provider responsible for the performance of the |
6 | | child's health examination confirming that the provider |
7 | | provided education to the parent or legal guardian on the |
8 | | benefits of immunization and the health risks to the student |
9 | | and to the community of the communicable diseases for which |
10 | | immunization is required in this State. However, the health |
11 | | care provider's signature on the certificate reflects only that |
12 | | education was provided and does not allow a health care |
13 | | provider grounds to determine a religious exemption. Those |
14 | | receiving immunizations required under this Code shall be |
15 | | provided with the relevant vaccine information statements that |
16 | | are required to be disseminated by the federal National |
17 | | Childhood Vaccine Injury Act of 1986, which may contain |
18 | | information on circumstances when a vaccine should not be |
19 | | administered, prior to administering a vaccine. A healthcare |
20 | | provider may consider including without limitation the |
21 | | nationally accepted recommendations from federal agencies such |
22 | | as the Advisory Committee on Immunization Practices, the |
23 | | information outlined in the relevant vaccine information |
24 | | statement, and vaccine package inserts, along with the |
25 | | healthcare provider's clinical judgment, to determine whether |
26 | | any child may be more susceptible to experiencing an adverse |
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1 | | vaccine reaction than the general population, and, if so, the |
2 | | healthcare provider may exempt the child from an immunization |
3 | | or adopt an individualized immunization schedule. The |
4 | | Certificate of Religious Exemption shall be created by the |
5 | | Department of Public Health and shall be made available and |
6 | | used by parents and legal guardians by the beginning of the |
7 | | 2015-2016 school year. Parents or legal guardians must submit |
8 | | the Certificate of Religious Exemption to their local school |
9 | | authority prior to entering kindergarten, sixth grade, and |
10 | | ninth grade for each child for which they are requesting an |
11 | | exemption. The religious objection stated need not be directed |
12 | | by the tenets of an established religious organization. |
13 | | However, general philosophical or moral reluctance to allow |
14 | | physical examinations, eye examinations, immunizations, vision |
15 | | and hearing screenings, or dental examinations does not provide |
16 | | a sufficient basis for an exception to statutory requirements. |
17 | | The local school authority is responsible for determining if
|
18 | | the content of the Certificate of Religious Exemption
|
19 | | constitutes a valid religious objection.
The local school |
20 | | authority shall inform the parent or legal guardian of |
21 | | exclusion procedures, in accordance with the Department's |
22 | | rules under Part 690 of Title 77 of the Illinois Administrative |
23 | | Code, at the time the objection is presented. |
24 | | If the physical condition
of the child is such that any one |
25 | | or more of the immunizing agents should not
be administered, |
26 | | the examining physician, advanced practice registered nurse, |
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1 | | or
physician assistant responsible for the performance of the
|
2 | | health examination shall endorse that fact upon the health |
3 | | examination form. |
4 | | Exempting a child from the health,
dental, or eye |
5 | | examination does not exempt the child from
participation in the |
6 | | program of physical education training provided in
Sections |
7 | | 27-5 through 27-7 of this Code. |
8 | | (9) For the purposes of this Section, "nursery schools" |
9 | | means those nursery
schools operated by elementary school |
10 | | systems or secondary level school units
or institutions of |
11 | | higher learning. |
12 | | (Source: P.A. 98-673, eff. 6-30-14; 99-173, eff. 7-29-15; |
13 | | 99-249, eff. 8-3-15; 99-642, eff. 7-28-16.)
|
14 | | (Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 99-927 ) |
15 | | Sec. 27-8.1. Health examinations and immunizations. |
16 | | (1) In compliance with rules and regulations which the |
17 | | Department of Public
Health shall promulgate, and except as |
18 | | hereinafter provided, all children in
Illinois shall have a |
19 | | health examination as follows: within one year prior to
|
20 | | entering kindergarten or the first grade of any public, |
21 | | private, or parochial
elementary school; upon entering the |
22 | | sixth and ninth grades of any public,
private, or parochial |
23 | | school; prior to entrance into any public, private, or
|
24 | | parochial nursery school; and, irrespective of grade, |
25 | | immediately prior to or
upon entrance into any public, private, |
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1 | | or parochial school or nursery school,
each child shall present |
2 | | proof of having been examined in accordance with this
Section |
3 | | and the rules and regulations promulgated hereunder. Any child |
4 | | who received a health examination within one year prior to |
5 | | entering the fifth grade for the 2007-2008 school year is not |
6 | | required to receive an additional health examination in order |
7 | | to comply with the provisions of Public Act 95-422 when he or |
8 | | she attends school for the 2008-2009 school year, unless the |
9 | | child is attending school for the first time as provided in |
10 | | this paragraph. |
11 | | A tuberculosis skin test screening shall be included as a |
12 | | required part of
each health examination included under this |
13 | | Section if the child resides in an
area designated by the |
14 | | Department of Public Health as having a high incidence
of |
15 | | tuberculosis. Additional health examinations of pupils, |
16 | | including eye examinations, may be required when deemed |
17 | | necessary by school
authorities. Parents are encouraged to have |
18 | | their children undergo eye examinations at the same points in |
19 | | time required for health
examinations. |
20 | | (1.5) In compliance with rules adopted by the Department of |
21 | | Public Health and except as otherwise provided in this Section, |
22 | | all children in kindergarten and the second and sixth grades of |
23 | | any public, private, or parochial school shall have a dental |
24 | | examination. Each of these children shall present proof of |
25 | | having been examined by a dentist in accordance with this |
26 | | Section and rules adopted under this Section before May 15th of |
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1 | | the school year. If a child in the second or sixth grade fails |
2 | | to present proof by May 15th, the school may hold the child's |
3 | | report card until one of the following occurs: (i) the child |
4 | | presents proof of a completed dental examination or (ii) the |
5 | | child presents proof that a dental examination will take place |
6 | | within 60 days after May 15th. The Department of Public Health |
7 | | shall establish, by rule, a waiver for children who show an |
8 | | undue burden or a lack of access to a dentist. Each public, |
9 | | private, and parochial school must give notice of this dental |
10 | | examination requirement to the parents and guardians of |
11 | | students at least 60 days before May 15th of each school year.
|
12 | | (1.10) Except as otherwise provided in this Section, all |
13 | | children enrolling in kindergarten in a public, private, or |
14 | | parochial school on or after the effective date of this |
15 | | amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly and any student |
16 | | enrolling for the first time in a public, private, or parochial |
17 | | school on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of |
18 | | the 95th General Assembly shall have an eye examination. Each |
19 | | of these children shall present proof of having been examined |
20 | | by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its |
21 | | branches or a licensed optometrist within the previous year, in |
22 | | accordance with this Section and rules adopted under this |
23 | | Section, before October 15th of the school year. If the child |
24 | | fails to present proof by October 15th, the school may hold the |
25 | | child's report card until one of the following occurs: (i) the |
26 | | child presents proof of a completed eye examination or (ii) the |
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1 | | child presents proof that an eye examination will take place |
2 | | within 60 days after October 15th. The Department of Public |
3 | | Health shall establish, by rule, a waiver for children who show |
4 | | an undue burden or a lack of access to a physician licensed to |
5 | | practice medicine in all of its branches who provides eye |
6 | | examinations or to a licensed optometrist. Each public, |
7 | | private, and parochial school must give notice of this eye |
8 | | examination requirement to the parents and guardians of |
9 | | students in compliance with rules of the Department of Public |
10 | | Health. Nothing in this Section shall be construed to allow a |
11 | | school to exclude a child from attending because of a parent's |
12 | | or guardian's failure to obtain an eye examination for the |
13 | | child.
|
14 | | (2) The Department of Public Health shall promulgate rules |
15 | | and regulations
specifying the examinations and procedures |
16 | | that constitute a health examination, which shall include an |
17 | | age-appropriate developmental screening, an age-appropriate |
18 | | social and emotional screening, and the collection of data |
19 | | relating to obesity
(including at a minimum, date of birth, |
20 | | gender, height, weight, blood pressure, and date of exam),
and |
21 | | a dental examination and may recommend by rule that certain |
22 | | additional examinations be performed.
The rules and |
23 | | regulations of the Department of Public Health shall specify |
24 | | that
a tuberculosis skin test screening shall be included as a |
25 | | required part of each
health examination included under this |
26 | | Section if the child resides in an area
designated by the |
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1 | | Department of Public Health as having a high incidence of
|
2 | | tuberculosis.
With respect to the developmental screening and |
3 | | the social and emotional screening, the Department of Public |
4 | | Health must develop rules and appropriate revisions to the |
5 | | Child Health Examination form in conjunction with a statewide |
6 | | organization representing school boards; a statewide |
7 | | organization representing pediatricians; statewide |
8 | | organizations representing individuals holding Illinois |
9 | | educator licenses with school support personnel endorsements, |
10 | | including school social workers, school psychologists, and |
11 | | school nurses; a statewide organization representing |
12 | | children's mental health experts; a statewide organization |
13 | | representing school principals; the Director of Healthcare and |
14 | | Family Services or his or her designee, the State |
15 | | Superintendent of Education or his or her designee; and |
16 | | representatives of other appropriate State agencies and, at a |
17 | | minimum, must recommend the use of validated screening tools |
18 | | appropriate to the child's age or grade, and, with regard to |
19 | | the social and emotional screening, require recording only |
20 | | whether or not the screening was completed. The rules shall |
21 | | take into consideration the screening recommendations of the |
22 | | American Academy of Pediatrics and must be consistent with the |
23 | | State Board of Education's social and emotional learning |
24 | | standards. The Department of Public Health shall specify that a |
25 | | diabetes
screening as defined by rule shall be included as a |
26 | | required part of each
health examination.
Diabetes testing is |
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1 | | not required. |
2 | | Physicians licensed to practice medicine in all of its |
3 | | branches, licensed advanced
practice registered nurses, or |
4 | | licensed physician assistants shall be
responsible for the |
5 | | performance of the health examinations, other than dental
|
6 | | examinations, eye examinations, and vision and hearing |
7 | | screening, and shall sign all report forms
required by |
8 | | subsection (4) of this Section that pertain to those portions |
9 | | of
the health examination for which the physician, advanced |
10 | | practice registered nurse, or
physician assistant is |
11 | | responsible.
If a registered
nurse performs any part of a |
12 | | health examination, then a physician licensed to
practice |
13 | | medicine in all of its branches must review and sign all |
14 | | required
report forms. Licensed dentists shall perform all |
15 | | dental examinations and
shall sign all report forms required by |
16 | | subsection (4) of this Section that
pertain to the dental |
17 | | examinations. Physicians licensed to practice medicine
in all |
18 | | its branches or licensed optometrists shall perform all eye |
19 | | examinations
required by this Section and shall sign all report |
20 | | forms required by
subsection (4) of this Section that pertain |
21 | | to the eye examination. For purposes of this Section, an eye |
22 | | examination shall at a minimum include history, visual acuity, |
23 | | subjective refraction to best visual acuity near and far, |
24 | | internal and external examination, and a glaucoma evaluation, |
25 | | as well as any other tests or observations that in the |
26 | | professional judgment of the doctor are necessary. Vision and
|
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1 | | hearing screening tests, which shall not be considered |
2 | | examinations as that
term is used in this Section, shall be |
3 | | conducted in accordance with rules and
regulations of the |
4 | | Department of Public Health, and by individuals whom the
|
5 | | Department of Public Health has certified.
In these rules and |
6 | | regulations, the Department of Public Health shall
require that |
7 | | individuals conducting vision screening tests give a child's
|
8 | | parent or guardian written notification, before the vision |
9 | | screening is
conducted, that states, "Vision screening is not a |
10 | | substitute for a
complete eye and vision evaluation by an eye |
11 | | doctor. Your child is not
required to undergo this vision |
12 | | screening if an optometrist or
ophthalmologist has completed |
13 | | and signed a report form indicating that
an examination has |
14 | | been administered within the previous 12 months." |
15 | | (2.5) With respect to the developmental screening and the |
16 | | social and emotional screening portion of the health |
17 | | examination, each child may present proof of having been |
18 | | screened in accordance with this Section and the rules adopted |
19 | | under this Section before October 15th of the school year. With |
20 | | regard to the social and emotional screening only, the |
21 | | examining health care provider shall only record whether or not |
22 | | the screening was completed. If the child fails to present |
23 | | proof of the developmental screening or the social and |
24 | | emotional screening portions of the health examination by |
25 | | October 15th of the school year, qualified school support |
26 | | personnel may, with a parent's or guardian's consent, offer the |
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1 | | developmental screening or the social and emotional screening |
2 | | to the child. Each public, private, and parochial school must |
3 | | give notice of the developmental screening and social and |
4 | | emotional screening requirements to the parents and guardians |
5 | | of students in compliance with the rules of the Department of |
6 | | Public Health. Nothing in this Section shall be construed to |
7 | | allow a school to exclude a child from attending because of a |
8 | | parent's or guardian's failure to obtain a developmental |
9 | | screening or a social and emotional screening for the child. |
10 | | Once a developmental screening or a social and emotional |
11 | | screening is completed and proof has been presented to the |
12 | | school, the school may, with a parent's or guardian's consent, |
13 | | make available appropriate school personnel to work with the |
14 | | parent or guardian, the child, and the provider who signed the |
15 | | screening form to obtain any appropriate evaluations and |
16 | | services as indicated on the form and in other information and |
17 | | documentation provided by the parents, guardians, or provider. |
18 | | (3) Every child shall, at or about the same time as he or |
19 | | she receives
a health examination required by subsection (1) of |
20 | | this Section, present
to the local school proof of having |
21 | | received such immunizations against
preventable communicable |
22 | | diseases as the Department of Public Health shall
require by |
23 | | rules and regulations promulgated pursuant to this Section and |
24 | | the
Communicable Disease Prevention Act. |
25 | | (4) The individuals conducting the health examination,
|
26 | | dental examination, or eye examination shall record the
fact of |
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1 | | having conducted the examination, and such additional |
2 | | information as
required, including for a health examination
|
3 | | data relating to obesity
(including at a minimum, date of |
4 | | birth, gender, height, weight, blood pressure, and date of |
5 | | exam), on uniform forms which the Department of Public Health |
6 | | and the State
Board of Education shall prescribe for statewide |
7 | | use. The examiner shall
summarize on the report form any |
8 | | condition that he or she suspects indicates a
need for special |
9 | | services, including for a health examination factors relating |
10 | | to obesity. The duty to summarize on the report form does not |
11 | | apply to social and emotional screenings. The confidentiality |
12 | | of the information and records relating to the developmental |
13 | | screening and the social and emotional screening shall be |
14 | | determined by the statutes, rules, and professional ethics |
15 | | governing the type of provider conducting the screening. The |
16 | | individuals confirming the administration of
required |
17 | | immunizations shall record as indicated on the form that the
|
18 | | immunizations were administered. |
19 | | (5) If a child does not submit proof of having had either |
20 | | the health
examination or the immunization as required, then |
21 | | the child shall be examined
or receive the immunization, as the |
22 | | case may be, and present proof by October
15 of the current |
23 | | school year, or by an earlier date of the current school year
|
24 | | established by a school district. To establish a date before |
25 | | October 15 of the
current school year for the health |
26 | | examination or immunization as required, a
school district must |
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1 | | give notice of the requirements of this Section 60 days
prior |
2 | | to the earlier established date. If for medical reasons one or |
3 | | more of
the required immunizations must be given after October |
4 | | 15 of the current school
year, or after an earlier established |
5 | | date of the current school year, then
the child shall present, |
6 | | by October 15, or by the earlier established date, a
schedule |
7 | | for the administration of the immunizations and a statement of |
8 | | the
medical reasons causing the delay, both the schedule and |
9 | | the statement being
issued by the physician, advanced practice |
10 | | registered nurse, physician assistant,
registered nurse, or |
11 | | local health department that will
be responsible for |
12 | | administration of the remaining required immunizations. If
a |
13 | | child does not comply by October 15, or by the earlier |
14 | | established date of
the current school year, with the |
15 | | requirements of this subsection, then the
local school |
16 | | authority shall exclude that child from school until such time |
17 | | as
the child presents proof of having had the health |
18 | | examination as required and
presents proof of having received |
19 | | those required immunizations which are
medically possible to |
20 | | receive immediately. During a child's exclusion from
school for |
21 | | noncompliance with this subsection, the child's parents or |
22 | | legal
guardian shall be considered in violation of Section 26-1 |
23 | | and subject to any
penalty imposed by Section 26-10. This |
24 | | subsection (5) does not apply to dental examinations, eye |
25 | | examinations, and the developmental screening and the social |
26 | | and emotional screening portions of the health examination. If |
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1 | | the student is an out-of-state transfer student and does not |
2 | | have the proof required under this subsection (5) before |
3 | | October 15 of the current year or whatever date is set by the |
4 | | school district, then he or she may only attend classes (i) if |
5 | | he or she has proof that an appointment for the required |
6 | | vaccinations has been scheduled with a party authorized to |
7 | | submit proof of the required vaccinations. If the proof of |
8 | | vaccination required under this subsection (5) is not submitted |
9 | | within 30 days after the student is permitted to attend |
10 | | classes, then the student is not to be permitted to attend |
11 | | classes until proof of the vaccinations has been properly |
12 | | submitted. No school district or employee of a school district |
13 | | shall be held liable for any injury or illness to another |
14 | | person that results from admitting an out-of-state transfer |
15 | | student to class that has an appointment scheduled pursuant to |
16 | | this subsection (5). |
17 | | (6) Every school shall report to the State Board of |
18 | | Education by November
15, in the manner which that agency shall |
19 | | require, the number of children who
have received the necessary |
20 | | immunizations and the health examination (other than a dental |
21 | | examination or eye examination) as
required, indicating, of |
22 | | those who have not received the immunizations and
examination |
23 | | as required, the number of children who are exempt from health
|
24 | | examination and immunization requirements on religious or |
25 | | medical grounds as
provided in subsection (8). On or before |
26 | | December 1 of each year, every public school district and |
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1 | | registered nonpublic school shall make publicly available the |
2 | | immunization data they are required to submit to the State |
3 | | Board of Education by November 15. The immunization data made |
4 | | publicly available must be identical to the data the school |
5 | | district or school has reported to the State Board of |
6 | | Education. |
7 | | Every school shall report to the State Board of Education |
8 | | by June 30, in the manner that the State Board requires, the |
9 | | number of children who have received the required dental |
10 | | examination, indicating, of those who have not received the |
11 | | required dental examination, the number of children who are |
12 | | exempt from the dental examination on religious grounds as |
13 | | provided in subsection (8) of this Section and the number of |
14 | | children who have received a waiver under subsection (1.5) of |
15 | | this Section. |
16 | | Every school shall report to the State Board of Education |
17 | | by June 30, in the manner that the State Board requires, the |
18 | | number of children who have received the required eye |
19 | | examination, indicating, of those who have not received the |
20 | | required eye examination, the number of children who are exempt |
21 | | from the eye examination as provided in subsection (8) of this |
22 | | Section, the number of children who have received a waiver |
23 | | under subsection (1.10) of this Section, and the total number |
24 | | of children in noncompliance with the eye examination |
25 | | requirement. |
26 | | The reported information under this subsection (6) shall be |
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1 | | provided to the
Department of Public Health by the State Board |
2 | | of Education. |
3 | | (7) Upon determining that the number of pupils who are |
4 | | required to be in
compliance with subsection (5) of this |
5 | | Section is below 90% of the number of
pupils enrolled in the |
6 | | school district, 10% of each State aid payment made
pursuant to |
7 | | Section 18-8.05 to the school district for such year may be |
8 | | withheld
by the State Board of Education until the number of |
9 | | students in compliance with
subsection (5) is the applicable |
10 | | specified percentage or higher. |
11 | | (8) Children of parents or legal guardians who object to |
12 | | health, dental, or eye examinations or any part thereof, to |
13 | | immunizations, or to vision and hearing screening tests on |
14 | | religious grounds shall not be required to undergo the |
15 | | examinations, tests, or immunizations to which they so object |
16 | | if such parents or legal guardians present to the appropriate |
17 | | local school authority a signed Certificate of Religious |
18 | | Exemption detailing the grounds for objection and the specific |
19 | | immunizations, tests, or examinations to which they object. The |
20 | | grounds for objection must set forth the specific religious |
21 | | belief that conflicts with the examination, test, |
22 | | immunization, or other medical intervention. The signed |
23 | | certificate shall also reflect the parent's or legal guardian's |
24 | | understanding of the school's exclusion policies in the case of |
25 | | a vaccine-preventable disease outbreak or exposure. The |
26 | | certificate must also be signed by the authorized examining |
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1 | | health care provider responsible for the performance of the |
2 | | child's health examination confirming that the provider |
3 | | provided education to the parent or legal guardian on the |
4 | | benefits of immunization and the health risks to the student |
5 | | and to the community of the communicable diseases for which |
6 | | immunization is required in this State. However, the health |
7 | | care provider's signature on the certificate reflects only that |
8 | | education was provided and does not allow a health care |
9 | | provider grounds to determine a religious exemption. Those |
10 | | receiving immunizations required under this Code shall be |
11 | | provided with the relevant vaccine information statements that |
12 | | are required to be disseminated by the federal National |
13 | | Childhood Vaccine Injury Act of 1986, which may contain |
14 | | information on circumstances when a vaccine should not be |
15 | | administered, prior to administering a vaccine. A healthcare |
16 | | provider may consider including without limitation the |
17 | | nationally accepted recommendations from federal agencies such |
18 | | as the Advisory Committee on Immunization Practices, the |
19 | | information outlined in the relevant vaccine information |
20 | | statement, and vaccine package inserts, along with the |
21 | | healthcare provider's clinical judgment, to determine whether |
22 | | any child may be more susceptible to experiencing an adverse |
23 | | vaccine reaction than the general population, and, if so, the |
24 | | healthcare provider may exempt the child from an immunization |
25 | | or adopt an individualized immunization schedule. The |
26 | | Certificate of Religious Exemption shall be created by the |
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1 | | Department of Public Health and shall be made available and |
2 | | used by parents and legal guardians by the beginning of the |
3 | | 2015-2016 school year. Parents or legal guardians must submit |
4 | | the Certificate of Religious Exemption to their local school |
5 | | authority prior to entering kindergarten, sixth grade, and |
6 | | ninth grade for each child for which they are requesting an |
7 | | exemption. The religious objection stated need not be directed |
8 | | by the tenets of an established religious organization. |
9 | | However, general philosophical or moral reluctance to allow |
10 | | physical examinations, eye examinations, immunizations, vision |
11 | | and hearing screenings, or dental examinations does not provide |
12 | | a sufficient basis for an exception to statutory requirements. |
13 | | The local school authority is responsible for determining if
|
14 | | the content of the Certificate of Religious Exemption
|
15 | | constitutes a valid religious objection.
The local school |
16 | | authority shall inform the parent or legal guardian of |
17 | | exclusion procedures, in accordance with the Department's |
18 | | rules under Part 690 of Title 77 of the Illinois Administrative |
19 | | Code, at the time the objection is presented. |
20 | | If the physical condition
of the child is such that any one |
21 | | or more of the immunizing agents should not
be administered, |
22 | | the examining physician, advanced practice registered nurse, |
23 | | or
physician assistant responsible for the performance of the
|
24 | | health examination shall endorse that fact upon the health |
25 | | examination form. |
26 | | Exempting a child from the health,
dental, or eye |
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1 | | examination does not exempt the child from
participation in the |
2 | | program of physical education training provided in
Sections |
3 | | 27-5 through 27-7 of this Code. |
4 | | (9) For the purposes of this Section, "nursery schools" |
5 | | means those nursery
schools operated by elementary school |
6 | | systems or secondary level school units
or institutions of |
7 | | higher learning. |
8 | | (Source: P.A. 98-673, eff. 6-30-14; 99-173, eff. 7-29-15; |
9 | | 99-249, eff. 8-3-15; 99-642, eff. 7-28-16; 99-927, eff. |
10 | | 6-1-17.)
|
11 | | Section 90. The Care of Students with Diabetes Act is |
12 | | amended by changing Section 10 as follows:
|
13 | | (105 ILCS 145/10)
|
14 | | Sec. 10. Definitions. As used in this Act:
|
15 | | "Delegated care aide" means a school employee who has |
16 | | agreed to receive training in diabetes care and to assist |
17 | | students in implementing their diabetes care plan and has |
18 | | entered into an agreement with a parent or guardian and the |
19 | | school district or private school.
|
20 | | "Diabetes care plan" means a document that specifies the |
21 | | diabetes-related services needed by a student at school and at |
22 | | school-sponsored activities and identifies the appropriate |
23 | | staff to provide and supervise these services.
|
24 | | "Health care provider" means a physician licensed to |
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1 | | practice medicine in all of its branches, advanced practice |
2 | | registered nurse who has a written agreement with a |
3 | | collaborating physician who authorizes the provision of |
4 | | diabetes care, or a physician assistant who has a written |
5 | | supervision agreement with a supervising physician who |
6 | | authorizes the provision of diabetes care. |
7 | | "Principal" means the principal of the school.
|
8 | | "School" means any primary or secondary public, charter, or |
9 | | private school located in this State.
|
10 | | "School employee" means a person who is employed by a |
11 | | public school district or private school, a person who is |
12 | | employed by a local health department and assigned to a school, |
13 | | or a person who contracts with a school or school district to |
14 | | perform services in connection with a student's diabetes care |
15 | | plan.
This definition must not be interpreted as requiring a |
16 | | school district or private school to hire additional personnel |
17 | | for the sole purpose of serving as a designated care aide.
|
18 | | (Source: P.A. 96-1485, eff. 12-1-10.)
|
19 | | Section 95. The Nursing Education Scholarship Law is |
20 | | amended by changing Sections 3, 5, and 6.5 as follows:
|
21 | | (110 ILCS 975/3) (from Ch. 144, par. 2753)
|
22 | | Sec. 3. Definitions.
|
23 | | The following terms, whenever used or referred to, have the |
24 | | following
meanings except where the context clearly indicates |
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1 | | otherwise:
|
2 | | (1) "Board" means the Board of Higher Education created by |
3 | | the Board
of Higher Education Act.
|
4 | | (2) "Department" means the Illinois Department of Public |
5 | | Health.
|
6 | | (3) "Approved institution" means a public community |
7 | | college, private
junior college, hospital-based diploma in |
8 | | nursing
program, or public or private
college or university |
9 | | located in this State that has approval by the Department of |
10 | | Professional
Regulation for an associate degree in nursing
|
11 | | program,
associate degree in applied
sciences in nursing |
12 | | program, hospital-based diploma in nursing
program,
|
13 | | baccalaureate degree in nursing program, graduate degree in |
14 | | nursing program, or
certificate in practical
nursing program.
|
15 | | (4) "Baccalaureate degree in nursing program" means a |
16 | | program offered by
an
approved institution and leading to a |
17 | | bachelor of science degree in nursing.
|
18 | | (5) "Enrollment" means the establishment and maintenance |
19 | | of an
individual's status as a student in an approved |
20 | | institution, regardless of
the terms used at the institution to |
21 | | describe such status.
|
22 | | (6) "Academic year" means the period of time from September |
23 | | 1 of one
year through August 31 of the next year or as |
24 | | otherwise defined by the
academic institution.
|
25 | | (7) "Associate degree in nursing program or hospital-based |
26 | | diploma in
nursing program" means a program
offered by an |
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1 | | approved institution and leading to an associate
degree in
|
2 | | nursing, associate degree in applied sciences in nursing, or
|
3 | | hospital-based diploma in nursing.
|
4 | | (8) "Graduate degree in nursing program" means a program |
5 | | offered by an approved institution and leading to a master of |
6 | | science degree in nursing or a doctorate of philosophy or |
7 | | doctorate of nursing degree in nursing.
|
8 | | (9) "Director" means the Director of the Illinois |
9 | | Department of Public
Health.
|
10 | | (10) "Accepted for admission" means a student has completed |
11 | | the
requirements for entry into an associate degree in nursing |
12 | | program,
associate degree in applied sciences in nursing |
13 | | program, hospital-based
diploma in nursing program,
|
14 | | baccalaureate degree in nursing program, graduate degree in |
15 | | nursing program, or
certificate in practical nursing program at |
16 | | an approved institution, as
documented by the
institution.
|
17 | | (11) "Fees" means those mandatory charges, in addition to |
18 | | tuition, that
all enrolled students must pay, including |
19 | | required course or lab fees.
|
20 | | (12) "Full-time student" means a student enrolled for at |
21 | | least 12 hours
per
term or as otherwise determined by the |
22 | | academic institution.
|
23 | | (13) "Law" means the Nursing Education Scholarship Law.
|
24 | | (14) "Nursing employment obligation" means employment in |
25 | | this State as a
registered
professional
nurse, licensed |
26 | | practical nurse, or advanced practice registered nurse in |
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1 | | direct patient care
for at least one year for each year of |
2 | | scholarship assistance received through
the Nursing
Education |
3 | | Scholarship Program.
|
4 | | (15) "Part-time student" means a person who is enrolled for |
5 | | at least
one-third of the number of hours required per term by |
6 | | a school for its
full-time students.
|
7 | | (16) "Practical nursing program" means a program offered by |
8 | | an approved
institution leading to a certificate in practical |
9 | | nursing.
|
10 | | (17) "Registered professional nurse" means a
person who is |
11 | | currently licensed as a registered professional nurse
by the |
12 | | Department of Professional
Regulation under the Nurse Practice |
13 | | Act.
|
14 | | (18) "Licensed practical nurse" means a
person who is |
15 | | currently licensed as a licensed practical nurse
by the |
16 | | Department of Professional
Regulation under the Nurse Practice |
17 | | Act.
|
18 | | (19) "School term" means an academic term, such as a |
19 | | semester, quarter,
trimester, or number of clock hours, as |
20 | | defined by an approved institution.
|
21 | | (20) "Student in good standing" means a student maintaining |
22 | | a cumulative
grade point average equivalent to at least the |
23 | | academic grade of a "C".
|
24 | | (21) "Total and permanent disability" means a physical or |
25 | | mental impairment,
disease, or loss of a permanent nature that |
26 | | prevents nursing employment with or
without reasonable |
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|
1 | | accommodation. Proof of disability shall be a declaration
from |
2 | | the social security administration, Illinois Workers' |
3 | | Compensation Commission,
Department of Defense, or an insurer |
4 | | authorized to transact business in
Illinois who is providing |
5 | | disability insurance coverage to a contractor.
|
6 | | (22) "Tuition" means the established charges of an |
7 | | institution of higher
learning for instruction at that |
8 | | institution.
|
9 | | (23) "Nurse educator" means a person who is currently |
10 | | licensed as a registered nurse by the Department of |
11 | | Professional Regulation under the Nurse Practice Act, who has a |
12 | | graduate degree in nursing, and who is employed by an approved |
13 | | academic institution to educate registered nursing students, |
14 | | licensed practical nursing students, and registered nurses |
15 | | pursuing graduate degrees.
|
16 | | (24) "Nurse educator employment obligation" means |
17 | | employment in this State as a nurse educator for at least 2 |
18 | | years for each year of scholarship assistance received under |
19 | | Section 6.5 of this Law. |
20 | | Rulemaking authority to implement this amendatory Act of |
21 | | the 96th General Assembly, if any, is conditioned on the rules |
22 | | being adopted in accordance with all provisions of the Illinois |
23 | | Administrative Procedure Act and all rules and procedures of |
24 | | the Joint Committee on Administrative Rules; any purported rule |
25 | | not so adopted, for whatever reason, is unauthorized. |
26 | | (Source: P.A. 95-331, eff. 8-21-07; 95-639, eff. 10-5-07; |
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| | HB0313 Engrossed | - 189 - | LRB100 04130 SMS 14135 b |
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|
1 | | 96-805, eff. 10-30-09.)
|
2 | | (110 ILCS 975/5) (from Ch. 144, par. 2755)
|
3 | | Sec. 5. Nursing education scholarships. Beginning with the |
4 | | fall term of the 2004-2005
academic year, the
Department, in |
5 | | accordance with rules and regulations promulgated by it for |
6 | | this
program, shall provide scholarships to individuals |
7 | | selected
from among those applicants who qualify for |
8 | | consideration by showing:
|
9 | | (1) that he or she has been a resident of this State |
10 | | for at least one
year prior to application, and is a |
11 | | citizen or a lawful permanent resident
alien of the United |
12 | | States;
|
13 | | (2) that he or she is enrolled in or accepted for |
14 | | admission to an associate degree in
nursing program, |
15 | | hospital-based
diploma in nursing program, baccalaureate |
16 | | degree
in nursing program, graduate degree in nursing |
17 | | program, or practical nursing program at an approved
|
18 | | institution; and
|
19 | | (3) that he or she agrees to meet the nursing |
20 | | employment obligation.
|
21 | | If in any year the number of qualified applicants exceeds |
22 | | the number of
scholarships to be awarded, the Department shall, |
23 | | in consultation with the Illinois Nursing Workforce Center for |
24 | | Nursing Advisory Board, consider the following factors in |
25 | | granting priority in awarding
scholarships: |
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|
1 | | (A) Financial need, as shown on a
standardized |
2 | | financial needs assessment form used by an approved
|
3 | | institution, of students who will pursue their |
4 | | education on a full-time or close to
full-time
basis |
5 | | and who already have a certificate in practical |
6 | | nursing, a diploma
in nursing, or an associate degree |
7 | | in nursing and are pursuing a higher
degree.
|
8 | | (B) A student's status as a registered nurse who is |
9 | | pursuing a graduate degree in nursing to pursue |
10 | | employment in an approved institution that educates |
11 | | licensed practical nurses and that educates registered |
12 | | nurses in undergraduate and graduate nursing programs.
|
13 | | (C) A student's merit, as shown through his or her |
14 | | grade point average, class rank, and other academic and |
15 | | extracurricular activities. The Department may add to |
16 | | and further define these merit criteria by rule.
|
17 | | Unless otherwise indicated, scholarships shall be awarded |
18 | | to
recipients at approved institutions for a period
of up to 2 |
19 | | years if the recipient is enrolled in an
associate degree in
|
20 | | nursing
program, up to 3 years if the recipient is enrolled in |
21 | | a hospital-based
diploma in nursing program, up to 4 years if |
22 | | the recipient is enrolled in a
baccalaureate degree in nursing |
23 | | program, up to 5 years if the recipient is enrolled in a |
24 | | graduate degree in nursing program, and up to one year if the
|
25 | | recipient is enrolled in a certificate in practical nursing |
26 | | program. At least
40% of the scholarships awarded shall be for |
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1 | | recipients who are
pursuing baccalaureate degrees in nursing, |
2 | | 30% of the scholarships
awarded shall be for recipients who are |
3 | | pursuing associate degrees in
nursing
or a diploma in nursing, |
4 | | 10% of the scholarships awarded
shall be for recipients who are |
5 | | pursuing a certificate in practical nursing, and 20% of the |
6 | | scholarships awarded shall be for recipients who are pursuing a |
7 | | graduate degree in nursing.
|
8 | | (Source: P.A. 93-879, eff. 1-1-05; 94-1020, eff. 7-11-06.)
|
9 | | (110 ILCS 975/6.5) |
10 | | Sec. 6.5. Nurse educator scholarships. |
11 | | (a) Beginning with the fall term of the 2009-2010 academic |
12 | | year, the Department shall provide scholarships to individuals |
13 | | selected from among those applicants who qualify for |
14 | | consideration by showing the following: |
15 | | (1) that he or she has been a resident of this State |
16 | | for at least one year prior to application and is a citizen |
17 | | or a lawful permanent resident alien of the United States; |
18 | | (2) that he or she is enrolled in or accepted for |
19 | | admission to a graduate degree in nursing program at an |
20 | | approved institution; and |
21 | | (3) that he or she agrees to meet the nurse educator |
22 | | employment obligation. |
23 | | (b) If in any year the number of qualified applicants |
24 | | exceeds the number of scholarships to be awarded under this |
25 | | Section, the Department shall, in consultation with the |
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1 | | Illinois Nursing Workforce Center for Nursing Advisory Board, |
2 | | consider the following factors in granting priority in awarding |
3 | | scholarships: |
4 | | (1) Financial need, as shown on a standardized |
5 | | financial needs assessment form used by an approved |
6 | | institution, of students who will pursue their education on |
7 | | a full-time or close to full-time basis and who already |
8 | | have a diploma in nursing and are pursuing a higher degree. |
9 | | (2) A student's status as a registered nurse who is |
10 | | pursuing a graduate degree in nursing to pursue employment |
11 | | in an approved institution that educates licensed |
12 | | practical nurses and that educates registered nurses in |
13 | | undergraduate and graduate nursing programs. |
14 | | (3) A student's merit, as shown through his or her |
15 | | grade point average, class rank, experience as a nurse, |
16 | | including supervisory experience, experience as a nurse in |
17 | | the United States military, and other academic and |
18 | | extracurricular activities. |
19 | | (c) Unless otherwise indicated, scholarships under this |
20 | | Section shall be awarded to recipients at approved institutions |
21 | | for a period of up to 3 years. |
22 | | (d) Within 12 months after graduation from a graduate |
23 | | degree in nursing program for nurse educators, any recipient |
24 | | who accepted a scholarship under this Section shall begin |
25 | | meeting the required nurse educator employment obligation. In |
26 | | order to defer his or her continuous employment obligation, a |
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1 | | recipient must request the deferment in writing from the |
2 | | Department. A recipient shall receive a deferment if he or she |
3 | | notifies the Department, within 30 days after enlisting, that |
4 | | he or she is spending up to 4 years in military service. A |
5 | | recipient shall receive a deferment if he or she notifies the |
6 | | Department, within 30 days after enrolling, that he or she is |
7 | | enrolled in an academic program leading to a graduate degree in |
8 | | nursing. The recipient must begin meeting the required nurse |
9 | | educator employment obligation no later than 6 months after the |
10 | | end of the deferment or deferments. |
11 | | Any person who fails to fulfill the nurse educator |
12 | | employment obligation shall pay to the Department an amount |
13 | | equal to the amount of scholarship funds received per year for |
14 | | each unfulfilled year of the nurse educator employment |
15 | | obligation, together with interest at 7% per year on the unpaid |
16 | | balance. Payment must begin within 6 months following the date |
17 | | of the occurrence initiating the repayment. All repayments must |
18 | | be completed within 6 years from the date of the occurrence |
19 | | initiating the repayment. However, this repayment obligation |
20 | | may be deferred and re-evaluated every 6 months when the |
21 | | failure to fulfill the nurse educator employment obligation |
22 | | results from involuntarily leaving the profession due to a |
23 | | decrease in the number of nurses employed in this State or when |
24 | | the failure to fulfill the nurse educator employment obligation |
25 | | results from total and permanent disability. The repayment |
26 | | obligation shall be excused if the failure to fulfill the nurse |
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1 | | educator employment obligation results from the death or |
2 | | adjudication as incompetent of the person holding the |
3 | | scholarship. No claim for repayment may be filed against the |
4 | | estate of such a decedent or incompetent. |
5 | | The Department may allow a nurse educator employment |
6 | | obligation fulfillment alternative if the nurse educator |
7 | | scholarship recipient is unsuccessful in finding work as a |
8 | | nurse educator. The Department shall maintain a database of all |
9 | | available nurse educator positions in this State. |
10 | | (e) Each person applying for a scholarship under this |
11 | | Section must be provided with a copy of this Section at the |
12 | | time of application for the benefits of this scholarship. |
13 | | (f) Rulemaking authority to implement this amendatory Act |
14 | | of the 96th General Assembly, if any, is conditioned on the |
15 | | rules being adopted in accordance with all provisions of the |
16 | | Illinois Administrative Procedure Act and all rules and |
17 | | procedures of the Joint Committee on Administrative Rules; any |
18 | | purported rule not so adopted, for whatever reason, is |
19 | | unauthorized.
|
20 | | (Source: P.A. 96-805, eff. 10-30-09.)
|
21 | | Section 100. The Ambulatory Surgical Treatment Center Act |
22 | | is amended by changing Section 6.5 as follows:
|
23 | | (210 ILCS 5/6.5)
|
24 | | Sec. 6.5. Clinical privileges; advanced practice |
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1 | | registered nurses. All ambulatory surgical treatment centers |
2 | | (ASTC) licensed under this Act
shall
comply with the following |
3 | | requirements:
|
4 | | (1) No ASTC policy, rule, regulation, or practice shall |
5 | | be inconsistent
with the provision of adequate |
6 | | collaboration and consultation in accordance with Section |
7 | | 54.5 of the Medical
Practice Act of 1987.
|
8 | | (2) Operative surgical procedures shall be performed |
9 | | only by a physician
licensed to
practice medicine in
all |
10 | | its branches under the Medical Practice Act of 1987, a |
11 | | dentist
licensed under the
Illinois Dental Practice Act, or |
12 | | a podiatric physician licensed under the Podiatric
Medical |
13 | | Practice Act of 1987,
with medical staff membership and |
14 | | surgical clinical privileges granted by the
consulting
|
15 | | committee of the ASTC. A licensed physician, dentist, or |
16 | | podiatric physician may
be assisted by
a physician licensed |
17 | | to practice medicine in all its branches, dentist, dental
|
18 | | assistant, podiatric physician, licensed
advanced practice |
19 | | registered nurse, licensed physician assistant, licensed
|
20 | | registered nurse, licensed practical nurse,
surgical
|
21 | | assistant, surgical technician, or other individuals |
22 | | granted clinical
privileges to assist in surgery
by the |
23 | | consulting committee of the ASTC.
Payment for services |
24 | | rendered by an assistant in surgery who is not an
|
25 | | ambulatory surgical treatment center employee shall be |
26 | | paid
at the appropriate non-physician modifier
rate if the |
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1 | | payor would have made payment had the same services been |
2 | | provided
by a physician.
|
3 | | (2.5) A registered nurse licensed under the Nurse |
4 | | Practice Act and qualified by training and experience in |
5 | | operating room nursing shall be present in the operating |
6 | | room and function as the circulating nurse during all |
7 | | invasive or operative procedures. For purposes of this |
8 | | paragraph (2.5), "circulating nurse" means a registered |
9 | | nurse who is responsible for coordinating all nursing care, |
10 | | patient safety needs, and the needs of the surgical team in |
11 | | the operating room during an invasive or operative |
12 | | procedure.
|
13 | | (3) An advanced practice registered nurse is not |
14 | | required to possess prescriptive authority or a written |
15 | | collaborative agreement meeting the requirements of the |
16 | | Nurse Practice Act to provide advanced practice registered |
17 | | nursing services in an ambulatory surgical treatment |
18 | | center. An advanced practice registered nurse must possess |
19 | | clinical privileges granted by the consulting medical |
20 | | staff committee and ambulatory surgical treatment center |
21 | | in order to provide services. Individual advanced practice |
22 | | registered nurses may also be granted clinical privileges |
23 | | to order, select, and administer medications, including |
24 | | controlled substances, to provide delineated care. The |
25 | | attending physician must determine the advanced practice |
26 | | registered nurse's role in providing care for his or her |
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1 | | patients, except as otherwise provided in the consulting |
2 | | staff policies. The consulting medical staff committee |
3 | | shall periodically review the services of advanced |
4 | | practice registered nurses granted privileges.
|
5 | | (4) The anesthesia service shall be under the direction |
6 | | of a physician
licensed to practice
medicine in all its |
7 | | branches who has had specialized preparation or experience
|
8 | | in the area
or who has completed a residency in |
9 | | anesthesiology. An anesthesiologist, Board
certified or
|
10 | | Board eligible, is recommended. Anesthesia services may
|
11 | | only be
administered pursuant to the order of a physician |
12 | | licensed to practice medicine
in all its
branches, licensed |
13 | | dentist, or licensed podiatric physician.
|
14 | | (A) The individuals who, with clinical privileges |
15 | | granted by the medical
staff and ASTC, may
administer |
16 | | anesthesia services are limited to the
following:
|
17 | | (i) an anesthesiologist; or
|
18 | | (ii) a physician licensed to practice medicine |
19 | | in all its branches; or
|
20 | | (iii) a dentist with authority to administer |
21 | | anesthesia under Section
8.1 of the
Illinois |
22 | | Dental Practice Act; or
|
23 | | (iv) a licensed certified registered nurse |
24 | | anesthetist; or |
25 | | (v) a podiatric physician licensed under the |
26 | | Podiatric Medical Practice Act of 1987.
|
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1 | | (B) For anesthesia services, an anesthesiologist
|
2 | | shall
participate through discussion of and agreement |
3 | | with the anesthesia plan and
shall remain physically |
4 | | present and be
available on
the premises during the |
5 | | delivery of anesthesia services for
diagnosis, |
6 | | consultation, and treatment of emergency medical
|
7 | | conditions.
In the absence of 24-hour availability of |
8 | | anesthesiologists with clinical
privileges, an |
9 | | alternate policy (requiring
participation, presence,
|
10 | | and availability of a
physician licensed to practice |
11 | | medicine in all its
branches) shall be
developed by the |
12 | | medical staff consulting committee in consultation |
13 | | with the
anesthesia service and included in the medical
|
14 | | staff
consulting committee policies.
|
15 | | (C) A certified registered nurse anesthetist is |
16 | | not required to possess
prescriptive authority or a |
17 | | written collaborative agreement meeting the
|
18 | | requirements of Section 65-35 of the Nurse Practice Act
|
19 | | to provide anesthesia services
ordered by a licensed |
20 | | physician, dentist, or podiatric physician. Licensed |
21 | | certified
registered nurse anesthetists are authorized |
22 | | to
select, order, and
administer drugs and apply the |
23 | | appropriate medical devices in the provision of
|
24 | | anesthesia
services under the anesthesia plan agreed |
25 | | with by the
anesthesiologist or, in the absence of an |
26 | | available anesthesiologist with
clinical privileges,
|
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1 | | agreed with by the
operating physician, operating |
2 | | dentist, or operating podiatric physician in |
3 | | accordance
with the medical
staff consulting committee |
4 | | policies of a licensed ambulatory surgical treatment
|
5 | | center.
|
6 | | (Source: P.A. 98-214, eff. 8-9-13; 99-642, eff. 7-28-16.)
|
7 | | Section 105. The Assisted Living and Shared Housing Act is |
8 | | amended by changing Section 10 as follows:
|
9 | | (210 ILCS 9/10) |
10 | | Sec. 10. Definitions. For purposes of this Act: |
11 | | "Activities of daily living" means eating, dressing, |
12 | | bathing, toileting,
transferring, or personal
hygiene. |
13 | | "Assisted living establishment" or "establishment" means a |
14 | | home, building,
residence, or any
other place where sleeping |
15 | | accommodations are provided for at least 3
unrelated adults,
at |
16 | | least 80% of whom are 55 years of age or older and where the |
17 | | following are
provided
consistent with the purposes of this |
18 | | Act: |
19 | | (1) services consistent with a social model that is |
20 | | based on the premise
that the
resident's unit in assisted |
21 | | living and shared housing is his or her own home; |
22 | | (2) community-based residential care for persons who |
23 | | need assistance with
activities of
daily living, including |
24 | | personal, supportive, and intermittent
health-related |
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1 | | services available 24 hours per day, if needed, to meet the
|
2 | | scheduled
and
unscheduled needs of a resident; |
3 | | (3) mandatory services, whether provided directly by |
4 | | the establishment or
by another
entity arranged for by the |
5 | | establishment, with the consent of the resident or
|
6 | | resident's
representative; and |
7 | | (4) a physical environment that is a homelike
setting |
8 | | that
includes the following and such other elements as |
9 | | established by the Department:
individual living units |
10 | | each of which shall accommodate small kitchen
appliances
|
11 | | and contain private bathing, washing, and toilet |
12 | | facilities, or private washing
and
toilet facilities with a |
13 | | common bathing room readily accessible to each
resident.
|
14 | | Units shall be maintained for single occupancy except in |
15 | | cases in which 2
residents
choose to share a unit. |
16 | | Sufficient common space shall exist to permit
individual |
17 | | and
group activities. |
18 | | "Assisted living establishment" or "establishment" does |
19 | | not mean any of the
following: |
20 | | (1) A home, institution, or similar place operated by |
21 | | the federal
government or the
State of Illinois. |
22 | | (2) A long term care facility licensed under the |
23 | | Nursing Home Care Act, a facility licensed under the |
24 | | Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, a |
25 | | facility licensed under the ID/DD Community Care Act, or a |
26 | | facility licensed under the MC/DD Act.
However, a
facility |
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|
1 | | licensed under any of those Acts may convert distinct parts |
2 | | of the facility to assisted
living. If
the facility elects |
3 | | to do so, the facility shall retain the
Certificate of
Need |
4 | | for its nursing and sheltered care beds that were |
5 | | converted. |
6 | | (3) A hospital, sanitarium, or other institution, the |
7 | | principal activity
or business of
which is the diagnosis, |
8 | | care, and treatment of human illness and that is
required |
9 | | to
be licensed under the Hospital Licensing Act. |
10 | | (4) A facility for child care as defined in the Child |
11 | | Care Act of 1969. |
12 | | (5) A community living facility as defined in the |
13 | | Community Living
Facilities
Licensing Act. |
14 | | (6) A nursing home or sanitarium operated solely by and |
15 | | for persons who
rely
exclusively upon treatment by |
16 | | spiritual means through prayer in accordance with
the creed |
17 | | or tenants of a well-recognized church or religious |
18 | | denomination. |
19 | | (7) A facility licensed by the Department of Human |
20 | | Services as a
community-integrated living arrangement as |
21 | | defined in the Community-Integrated
Living
Arrangements |
22 | | Licensure and Certification Act. |
23 | | (8) A supportive residence licensed under the |
24 | | Supportive Residences
Licensing Act. |
25 | | (9) The portion of a life care facility as defined in |
26 | | the Life Care Facilities Act not licensed as an assisted |
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1 | | living establishment under this Act; a
life care facility |
2 | | may
apply under this Act to convert sections of the |
3 | | community to assisted living. |
4 | | (10) A free-standing hospice facility licensed under |
5 | | the Hospice Program
Licensing Act. |
6 | | (11) A shared housing establishment. |
7 | | (12) A supportive living facility as described in |
8 | | Section 5-5.01a of the
Illinois Public Aid
Code. |
9 | | "Department" means the Department of Public Health. |
10 | | "Director" means the Director of Public Health. |
11 | | "Emergency situation" means imminent danger of death or |
12 | | serious physical
harm to a
resident of an establishment. |
13 | | "License" means any of the following types of licenses |
14 | | issued to an applicant
or licensee by the
Department: |
15 | | (1) "Probationary license" means a license issued to an |
16 | | applicant or
licensee
that has not
held a license under |
17 | | this Act prior to its application or pursuant to a license
|
18 | | transfer in accordance with Section 50 of this Act. |
19 | | (2) "Regular license" means a license issued by the |
20 | | Department to an
applicant or
licensee that is in
|
21 | | substantial compliance with this Act and any rules |
22 | | promulgated
under this Act. |
23 | | "Licensee" means a person, agency, association, |
24 | | corporation, partnership, or
organization that
has been issued |
25 | | a license to operate an assisted living or shared housing
|
26 | | establishment. |
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1 | | "Licensed health care professional" means a registered |
2 | | professional nurse,
an advanced practice registered nurse, a |
3 | | physician assistant, and a licensed practical
nurse. |
4 | | "Mandatory services" include the following: |
5 | | (1) 3 meals per day available to the residents prepared |
6 | | by the
establishment or an
outside contractor; |
7 | | (2) housekeeping services including, but not limited |
8 | | to, vacuuming,
dusting, and
cleaning the resident's unit; |
9 | | (3) personal laundry and linen services available to |
10 | | the residents
provided
or arranged
for by the |
11 | | establishment; |
12 | | (4) security provided 24 hours each day including, but |
13 | | not limited to,
locked entrances
or building or contract |
14 | | security personnel; |
15 | | (5) an emergency communication response system, which |
16 | | is a procedure in
place 24
hours each day by which a |
17 | | resident can notify building management, an emergency
|
18 | | response vendor, or others able to respond to his or her |
19 | | need for assistance;
and |
20 | | (6) assistance with activities of daily living as |
21 | | required by each
resident. |
22 | | "Negotiated risk" is the process by which a resident, or |
23 | | his or her
representative,
may formally
negotiate with |
24 | | providers what risks each are willing and unwilling to assume |
25 | | in
service provision
and the resident's living environment. The |
26 | | provider assures that the resident
and the
resident's |
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|
1 | | representative, if any, are informed of the risks of these |
2 | | decisions
and of
the potential
consequences of assuming these |
3 | | risks. |
4 | | "Owner" means the individual, partnership, corporation, |
5 | | association, or other
person who owns
an assisted living or |
6 | | shared housing establishment. In the event an assisted
living |
7 | | or shared
housing establishment is operated by a person who |
8 | | leases or manages the
physical plant, which is
owned by another |
9 | | person, "owner" means the person who operates the assisted
|
10 | | living or shared
housing establishment, except that if the |
11 | | person who owns the physical plant is
an affiliate of the
|
12 | | person who operates the assisted living or shared housing |
13 | | establishment and has
significant
control over the day to day |
14 | | operations of the assisted living or shared housing
|
15 | | establishment, the
person who owns the physical plant shall |
16 | | incur jointly and severally with the
owner all liabilities
|
17 | | imposed on an owner under this Act. |
18 | | "Physician" means a person licensed
under the Medical |
19 | | Practice Act of 1987
to practice medicine in all of its
|
20 | | branches. |
21 | | "Resident" means a person residing in an assisted living or |
22 | | shared housing
establishment. |
23 | | "Resident's representative" means a person, other than the |
24 | | owner, agent, or
employee of an
establishment or of the health |
25 | | care provider unless related to the resident,
designated in |
26 | | writing by a
resident to be his or her
representative. This |
|
| | HB0313 Engrossed | - 205 - | LRB100 04130 SMS 14135 b |
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1 | | designation may be accomplished through the Illinois
Power of |
2 | | Attorney Act, pursuant to the guardianship process under the |
3 | | Probate
Act of 1975, or pursuant to an executed designation of |
4 | | representative form
specified by the Department. |
5 | | "Self" means the individual or the individual's designated |
6 | | representative. |
7 | | "Shared housing establishment" or "establishment" means a |
8 | | publicly or
privately operated free-standing
residence for 16 |
9 | | or fewer persons, at least 80% of whom are 55
years of age or |
10 | | older
and who are unrelated to the owners and one manager of |
11 | | the residence, where
the following are provided: |
12 | | (1) services consistent with a social model that is |
13 | | based on the premise
that the resident's unit is his or her |
14 | | own home; |
15 | | (2) community-based residential care for persons who |
16 | | need assistance with
activities of daily living, including |
17 | | housing and personal, supportive, and
intermittent |
18 | | health-related services available 24 hours per day, if |
19 | | needed, to
meet the scheduled and unscheduled needs of a |
20 | | resident; and |
21 | | (3) mandatory services, whether provided directly by |
22 | | the establishment or
by another entity arranged for by the |
23 | | establishment, with the consent of the
resident or the |
24 | | resident's representative. |
25 | | "Shared housing establishment" or "establishment" does not |
26 | | mean any of the
following: |
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| | HB0313 Engrossed | - 206 - | LRB100 04130 SMS 14135 b |
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1 | | (1) A home, institution, or similar place operated by |
2 | | the federal
government or the State of Illinois. |
3 | | (2) A long term care facility licensed under the |
4 | | Nursing Home Care Act, a facility licensed under the |
5 | | Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, a |
6 | | facility licensed under the ID/DD Community Care Act, or a |
7 | | facility licensed under the MC/DD Act.
A facility licensed |
8 | | under any of those Acts may, however, convert sections of |
9 | | the facility to
assisted living. If the facility elects to |
10 | | do so, the facility
shall retain the Certificate of Need |
11 | | for its nursing beds that were
converted. |
12 | | (3) A hospital, sanitarium, or other institution, the |
13 | | principal activity
or business of which is the diagnosis, |
14 | | care, and treatment of human illness and
that is required |
15 | | to be licensed under the Hospital Licensing Act. |
16 | | (4) A facility for child care as defined in the Child |
17 | | Care Act of 1969. |
18 | | (5) A community living facility as defined in the |
19 | | Community Living
Facilities Licensing Act. |
20 | | (6) A nursing home or sanitarium operated solely by and |
21 | | for persons who
rely exclusively upon treatment by |
22 | | spiritual means through prayer in accordance
with the creed |
23 | | or tenants of a well-recognized church or religious
|
24 | | denomination. |
25 | | (7) A facility licensed by the Department of Human |
26 | | Services as a
community-integrated
living arrangement as |
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1 | | defined in the Community-Integrated
Living Arrangements |
2 | | Licensure and Certification Act. |
3 | | (8) A supportive residence licensed under the |
4 | | Supportive Residences
Licensing Act. |
5 | | (9) A life care facility as defined in the Life Care |
6 | | Facilities Act; a
life care facility may apply under this |
7 | | Act to convert sections of the
community to assisted |
8 | | living. |
9 | | (10) A free-standing hospice facility licensed under |
10 | | the Hospice Program
Licensing Act. |
11 | | (11) An assisted living establishment. |
12 | | (12) A supportive living facility as described in |
13 | | Section 5-5.01a of the
Illinois Public Aid Code. |
14 | | "Total assistance" means that staff or another individual |
15 | | performs the entire
activity of daily
living without |
16 | | participation by the resident. |
17 | | (Source: P.A. 98-104, eff. 7-22-13; 99-180, eff. 7-29-15.)
|
18 | | Section 110. The Illinois Clinical Laboratory and Blood |
19 | | Bank Act is amended by changing Section 7-101 as follows:
|
20 | | (210 ILCS 25/7-101) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 627-101)
|
21 | | Sec. 7-101. Examination of specimens. A clinical |
22 | | laboratory shall examine
specimens only at the request of (i) a |
23 | | licensed physician, (ii) a
licensed dentist, (iii) a licensed |
24 | | podiatric physician, (iv) a licensed
optometrist,
(v) a |
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1 | | licensed
physician assistant,
(v-A) a licensed advanced |
2 | | practice registered nurse,
(vi) an authorized law enforcement |
3 | | agency or, in the case of blood
alcohol, at the request of the |
4 | | individual for whom the test is to be performed
in compliance |
5 | | with Sections 11-501 and 11-501.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, |
6 | | or (vii) a genetic counselor with the specific authority from a |
7 | | referral to order a test or tests pursuant to subsection (b) of |
8 | | Section 20 of the Genetic Counselor Licensing Act.
If the |
9 | | request to a laboratory is oral, the physician or other |
10 | | authorized
person shall submit a written request to the |
11 | | laboratory within 48 hours. If
the laboratory does not receive |
12 | | the written request within that period, it
shall note that fact |
13 | | in its records. For purposes of this Section, a request
made by |
14 | | electronic mail or fax constitutes a written request.
|
15 | | (Source: P.A. 98-185, eff. 1-1-14; 98-214, eff. 8-9-13; 98-756, |
16 | | eff. 7-16-14; 98-767, eff. 1-1-15; 99-173, eff. 7-29-15.)
|
17 | | Section 115. The Nursing Home Care Act is amended by |
18 | | changing Section 3-206.05 as follows:
|
19 | | (210 ILCS 45/3-206.05) |
20 | | Sec. 3-206.05. Safe resident handling policy. |
21 | | (a) In this Section: |
22 | | "Health care worker" means an individual providing direct |
23 | | resident care services who may be required to lift, transfer, |
24 | | reposition, or move a resident. |
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1 | | "Nurse" means an advanced practice registered nurse, a |
2 | | registered nurse, or a licensed practical nurse licensed under |
3 | | the Nurse Practice Act. |
4 | | "Safe lifting equipment and accessories" means mechanical
|
5 | | equipment designed to lift, move, reposition, and transfer
|
6 | | residents, including, but not limited to, fixed and portable
|
7 | | ceiling lifts, sit-to-stand lifts, slide sheets and boards,
|
8 | | slings, and repositioning and turning sheets. |
9 | | "Safe lifting team" means at least 2 individuals who are
|
10 | | trained and proficient in the use of both safe lifting |
11 | | techniques and safe
lifting equipment and accessories. |
12 | | "Adjustable equipment" means products and devices that may |
13 | | be adapted for use by individuals with physical and other |
14 | | disabilities in order to optimize accessibility. Adjustable |
15 | | equipment includes, but is not limited to, the following: |
16 | | (1) Wheelchairs with adjustable footrest height and |
17 | | seat width and depth. |
18 | | (2) Height-adjustable, drop-arm commode chairs and |
19 | | height-adjustable shower gurneys or shower benches to |
20 | | enable individuals with mobility disabilities to use a |
21 | | toilet and to shower safely and with increased comfort. |
22 | | (3) Accessible weight scales that accommodate |
23 | | wheelchair users. |
24 | | (4) Height-adjustable beds that can be lowered to |
25 | | accommodate individuals with mobility disabilities in |
26 | | getting in and out of bed and that utilize drop-down side |
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1 | | railings for stability and positioning support. |
2 | | (5) Universally designed or adaptable call buttons and |
3 | | motorized bed position and height controls that can be |
4 | | operated by persons with limited or no reach range, fine |
5 | | motor ability, or vision. |
6 | | (6) Height-adjustable platform tables for physical |
7 | | therapy with drop-down side railings for stability and |
8 | | positioning support. |
9 | | (7) Therapeutic rehabilitation and exercise machines |
10 | | with foot straps to secure the user's feet to the pedals |
11 | | and with cuffs or splints to augment the user's grip |
12 | | strength on handles. |
13 | | (b) A facility must adopt and ensure implementation of a |
14 | | policy to identify, assess, and develop strategies to control |
15 | | risk of injury to residents and nurses and other health care |
16 | | workers associated with the lifting, transferring, |
17 | | repositioning, or movement of a resident. The policy shall |
18 | | establish a process that, at a minimum, includes all of the |
19 | | following: |
20 | | (1) Analysis of the risk of injury to residents and |
21 | | nurses and other health care workers taking into account |
22 | | the resident handling needs of the resident populations |
23 | | served by the facility and the physical environment in |
24 | | which the resident handling and movement occurs. |
25 | | (2) Education and training of nurses and other direct
|
26 | | resident care providers in the identification, assessment, |
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1 | | and control of risks of injury to residents and nurses and |
2 | | other health care workers during resident handling and on
|
3 | | safe lifting policies and techniques and current lifting
|
4 | | equipment. |
5 | | (3) Evaluation of alternative ways to reduce risks |
6 | | associated with resident handling, including evaluation of |
7 | | equipment and the environment. |
8 | | (4) Restriction, to the extent feasible with existing |
9 | | equipment and aids, of manual resident handling or movement |
10 | | of all or most of a resident's weight except for emergency, |
11 | | life-threatening, or otherwise exceptional circumstances. |
12 | | (5) Procedures for a nurse to refuse to perform or be |
13 | | involved in resident handling or movement that the nurse in |
14 | | good faith believes will expose a resident or nurse or |
15 | | other health care worker to an unacceptable risk of injury. |
16 | | (6) Development of strategies to control risk of injury |
17 | | to residents and nurses and other health care workers |
18 | | associated with the lifting, transferring, repositioning, |
19 | | or movement of a resident. |
20 | | (7) In developing architectural plans for construction |
21 | | or remodeling of a facility or unit of a facility in which |
22 | | resident handling and movement occurs, consideration of |
23 | | the feasibility of incorporating resident handling |
24 | | equipment or the physical space and construction design |
25 | | needed to incorporate that equipment.
|
26 | | (8) Fostering and maintaining resident safety, |
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1 | | dignity, self-determination, and choice, including the |
2 | | following policies, strategies, and procedures: |
3 | | (A) The existence and availability of a trained |
4 | | safe lifting team. |
5 | | (B) A policy of advising residents of a range of |
6 | | transfer and lift options, including adjustable |
7 | | diagnostic and treatment equipment, mechanical lifts, |
8 | | and provision of a trained safe lifting team. |
9 | | (C) The right of a competent resident, or the |
10 | | guardian of a resident adjudicated incompetent, to |
11 | | choose among the range of transfer and lift options |
12 | | consistent with the procedures set forth under |
13 | | subdivision (b)(5) and the policies set forth under |
14 | | this paragraph (8), subject to the provisions of |
15 | | subparagraph (E) of this paragraph (8). |
16 | | (D) Procedures for documenting, upon admission and |
17 | | as status changes, a mobility assessment and plan for |
18 | | lifting, transferring, repositioning, or movement of a |
19 | | resident, including the choice of the resident or the |
20 | | resident's guardian among the range of transfer and |
21 | | lift options. |
22 | | (E) Incorporation of such safe lifting procedures, |
23 | | techniques, and equipment as are consistent with |
24 | | applicable federal law. |
25 | | (c) Safe lifting teams must receive specialized, in-depth |
26 | | training that includes, but need not be limited to, the |
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1 | | following: |
2 | | (1) Types and operation of equipment. |
3 | | (2) Safe manual lifting and moving techniques. |
4 | | (3) Ergonomic principles in the assessment of risk both |
5 | | to nurses and other workers and to residents. |
6 | | (4) The selection, safe use, location, and condition of |
7 | | appropriate pieces of equipment individualized to each |
8 | | resident's medical and physical conditions and |
9 | | preferences. |
10 | | (5) Procedures for advising residents of the full range |
11 | | of transfer and lift options and for documenting |
12 | | individualized lifting plans that include resident choice. |
13 | | Specialized, in-depth training may rely on federal |
14 | | standards and guidelines such as the United States Department |
15 | | of Labor Guidelines for Nursing Homes, supplemented by federal |
16 | | requirements for barrier removal, independent access, and |
17 | | means of accommodation optimizing independent movement and |
18 | | transfer. |
19 | | (Source: P.A. 96-389, eff. 1-1-10; 97-866, eff. 1-1-13.)
|
20 | | Section 120. The Emergency Medical Services (EMS) Systems |
21 | | Act is amended by changing Sections 3.10 and 3.117 as follows:
|
22 | | (210 ILCS 50/3.10)
|
23 | | Sec. 3.10. Scope of Services.
|
24 | | (a) "Advanced Life Support (ALS) Services" means
an |
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1 | | advanced level of pre-hospital and inter-hospital emergency
|
2 | | care and non-emergency medical services that includes basic |
3 | | life
support care, cardiac monitoring, cardiac defibrillation,
|
4 | | electrocardiography, intravenous therapy, administration of
|
5 | | medications, drugs and solutions, use of adjunctive medical
|
6 | | devices, trauma care, and other authorized techniques and
|
7 | | procedures, as outlined in the provisions of the National EMS |
8 | | Education Standards relating to Advanced Life Support and any |
9 | | modifications to that curriculum
specified in rules adopted by |
10 | | the Department pursuant to
this Act.
|
11 | | That care shall be initiated as authorized by the EMS
|
12 | | Medical Director in a Department approved advanced life
support |
13 | | EMS System, under the written or verbal direction of
a |
14 | | physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its
branches |
15 | | or under the verbal direction of an Emergency
Communications |
16 | | Registered Nurse.
|
17 | | (b) "Intermediate Life Support (ILS) Services"
means an |
18 | | intermediate level of pre-hospital and inter-hospital
|
19 | | emergency care and non-emergency medical services that |
20 | | includes
basic life support care plus intravenous cannulation |
21 | | and
fluid therapy, invasive airway management, trauma care, and
|
22 | | other authorized techniques and procedures, as outlined in
the |
23 | | Intermediate Life Support national curriculum of the
United |
24 | | States Department of Transportation and any
modifications to |
25 | | that curriculum specified in rules adopted
by the Department |
26 | | pursuant to this Act.
|
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1 | | That care shall be initiated as authorized by the EMS
|
2 | | Medical Director in a Department approved intermediate or
|
3 | | advanced life support EMS System, under the written or
verbal |
4 | | direction of a physician licensed to practice
medicine in all |
5 | | of its branches or under the verbal
direction of an Emergency |
6 | | Communications Registered Nurse.
|
7 | | (c) "Basic Life Support (BLS) Services" means a
basic level |
8 | | of pre-hospital and inter-hospital emergency care and
|
9 | | non-emergency medical services that includes medical |
10 | | monitoring, clinical observation, airway management,
|
11 | | cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR), control of shock and
|
12 | | bleeding and splinting of fractures, as outlined in the |
13 | | provisions of the National EMS Education Standards relating to |
14 | | Basic Life Support and any modifications to that
curriculum |
15 | | specified in rules adopted by the Department
pursuant to this |
16 | | Act.
|
17 | | That care shall be initiated, where authorized by the
EMS |
18 | | Medical Director in a Department approved EMS System,
under the |
19 | | written or verbal direction of a physician
licensed to practice |
20 | | medicine in all of its branches or
under the verbal direction |
21 | | of an Emergency Communications
Registered Nurse.
|
22 | | (d) "Emergency Medical Responder Services" means a |
23 | | preliminary
level of pre-hospital emergency care that includes
|
24 | | cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR), monitoring vital signs
|
25 | | and control of bleeding, as outlined in the Emergency Medical |
26 | | Responder (EMR) curriculum of the National EMS Education |
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1 | | Standards
and any modifications to that curriculum specified in |
2 | | rules
adopted by the Department pursuant to this Act.
|
3 | | (e) "Pre-hospital care" means those
medical services |
4 | | rendered to patients for analytic,
resuscitative, stabilizing, |
5 | | or preventive purposes,
precedent to and during transportation |
6 | | of such patients to
health care facilities.
|
7 | | (f) "Inter-hospital care" means those
medical services |
8 | | rendered to patients for
analytic, resuscitative, stabilizing, |
9 | | or preventive
purposes, during transportation of such patients |
10 | | from one
hospital to another hospital.
|
11 | | (f-5) "Critical care transport" means the pre-hospital or |
12 | | inter-hospital transportation of a critically injured or ill |
13 | | patient by a vehicle service provider, including the provision |
14 | | of medically necessary supplies and services, at a level of |
15 | | service beyond the scope of the Paramedic. When medically |
16 | | indicated for a patient, as determined by a physician licensed |
17 | | to practice medicine in all of its branches, an advanced |
18 | | practice registered nurse, or a physician's assistant, in |
19 | | compliance with subsections (b) and (c) of Section 3.155 of |
20 | | this Act, critical care transport may be provided by: |
21 | | (1) Department-approved critical care transport |
22 | | providers, not owned or operated by a hospital, utilizing |
23 | | Paramedics with additional training, nurses, or other |
24 | | qualified health professionals; or |
25 | | (2) Hospitals, when utilizing any vehicle service |
26 | | provider or any hospital-owned or operated vehicle service |
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1 | | provider. Nothing in Public Act 96-1469 requires a hospital |
2 | | to use, or to be, a Department-approved critical care |
3 | | transport provider when transporting patients, including |
4 | | those critically injured or ill. Nothing in this Act shall |
5 | | restrict or prohibit a hospital from providing, or |
6 | | arranging for, the medically appropriate transport of any |
7 | | patient, as determined by a physician licensed to practice |
8 | | in all of its branches, an advanced practice registered |
9 | | nurse, or a physician's assistant. |
10 | | (g) "Non-emergency medical services" means medical care, |
11 | | clinical observation, or medical monitoring rendered to
|
12 | | patients whose conditions do not meet this Act's definition of |
13 | | emergency, before or
during transportation of such patients to |
14 | | or from health care facilities visited for the
purpose of |
15 | | obtaining medical or health care services which are not |
16 | | emergency in
nature, using a vehicle regulated by this Act.
|
17 | | (g-5) The Department shall have the authority to promulgate |
18 | | minimum standards for critical care transport providers |
19 | | through rules adopted pursuant to this Act. All critical care |
20 | | transport providers must function within a Department-approved |
21 | | EMS System. Nothing in Department rules shall restrict a |
22 | | hospital's ability to furnish personnel, equipment, and |
23 | | medical supplies to any vehicle service provider, including a |
24 | | critical care transport provider. Minimum critical care |
25 | | transport provider standards shall include, but are not limited |
26 | | to: |
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1 | | (1) Personnel staffing and licensure. |
2 | | (2) Education, certification, and experience. |
3 | | (3) Medical equipment and supplies. |
4 | | (4) Vehicular standards. |
5 | | (5) Treatment and transport protocols. |
6 | | (6) Quality assurance and data collection. |
7 | | (h)
The provisions of this Act shall not apply to
the use |
8 | | of an ambulance or SEMSV, unless and until
emergency or |
9 | | non-emergency medical services are needed
during the use of the |
10 | | ambulance or SEMSV.
|
11 | | (Source: P.A. 98-973, eff. 8-15-14; 99-661, eff. 1-1-17 .)
|
12 | | (210 ILCS 50/3.117) |
13 | | Sec. 3.117. Hospital Designations. |
14 | | (a) The Department shall attempt to designate Primary |
15 | | Stroke Centers in all areas of the State. |
16 | | (1) The Department shall designate as many certified
|
17 | | Primary Stroke Centers as apply for that designation |
18 | | provided they are certified by a nationally-recognized |
19 | | certifying body, approved by the Department, and |
20 | | certification criteria are consistent with the most |
21 | | current nationally-recognized, evidence-based stroke |
22 | | guidelines related to reducing the occurrence, |
23 | | disabilities, and death associated with stroke. |
24 | | (2) A hospital certified as a Primary Stroke Center by |
25 | | a nationally-recognized certifying body approved by the |
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1 | | Department, shall send a copy of the Certificate and annual |
2 | | fee to the Department and shall be deemed, within 30 |
3 | | business days of its receipt by the Department, to be a |
4 | | State-designated Primary Stroke Center. |
5 | | (3) A center designated as a Primary Stroke Center |
6 | | shall pay an annual fee as determined by the Department |
7 | | that shall be no less than $100 and no greater than $500. |
8 | | All fees shall be deposited into the Stroke Data Collection |
9 | | Fund. |
10 | | (3.5) With respect to a hospital that is a designated |
11 | | Primary Stroke Center, the Department shall have the |
12 | | authority and responsibility to do the following: |
13 | | (A) Suspend or revoke a hospital's Primary Stroke |
14 | | Center designation upon receiving notice that the |
15 | | hospital's Primary Stroke Center certification has |
16 | | lapsed or has been revoked by the State recognized |
17 | | certifying body. |
18 | | (B) Suspend a hospital's Primary Stroke Center |
19 | | designation, in extreme circumstances where patients |
20 | | may be at risk for immediate harm or death, until such |
21 | | time as the certifying body investigates and makes a |
22 | | final determination regarding certification. |
23 | | (C) Restore any previously suspended or revoked |
24 | | Department designation upon notice to the Department |
25 | | that the certifying body has confirmed or restored the |
26 | | Primary Stroke Center certification of that previously |
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1 | | designated hospital. |
2 | | (D) Suspend a hospital's Primary Stroke Center |
3 | | designation at the request of a hospital seeking to |
4 | | suspend its own Department designation. |
5 | | (4) Primary Stroke Center designation shall remain |
6 | | valid at all times while the hospital maintains its |
7 | | certification as a Primary Stroke Center, in good standing, |
8 | | with the certifying body. The duration of a Primary Stroke |
9 | | Center designation shall coincide with the duration of its |
10 | | Primary Stroke Center certification. Each designated |
11 | | Primary Stroke Center shall have its designation |
12 | | automatically renewed upon the Department's receipt of a |
13 | | copy of the accrediting body's certification renewal. |
14 | | (5) A hospital that no longer meets |
15 | | nationally-recognized, evidence-based standards for |
16 | | Primary Stroke Centers, or loses its Primary Stroke Center |
17 | | certification, shall notify the Department and the |
18 | | Regional EMS Advisory Committee within 5 business days. |
19 | | (a-5) The Department shall attempt to designate |
20 | | Comprehensive Stroke Centers in all areas of the State. |
21 | | (1) The Department shall designate as many certified |
22 | | Comprehensive Stroke Centers as apply for that |
23 | | designation, provided that the Comprehensive Stroke |
24 | | Centers are certified by a nationally-recognized |
25 | | certifying body approved by the Department, and provided |
26 | | that the certifying body's certification criteria are |
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| | HB0313 Engrossed | - 221 - | LRB100 04130 SMS 14135 b |
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1 | | consistent with the most current nationally-recognized and |
2 | | evidence-based stroke guidelines for reducing the |
3 | | occurrence of stroke and the disabilities and death |
4 | | associated with stroke. |
5 | | (2) A hospital certified as a Comprehensive Stroke |
6 | | Center shall send a copy of the Certificate and annual
fee |
7 | | to the Department and shall be deemed, within 30
business |
8 | | days of its receipt by the Department, to be a
|
9 | | State-designated Comprehensive Stroke Center. |
10 | | (3) A hospital designated as a Comprehensive Stroke |
11 | | Center shall pay an annual fee as determined by the |
12 | | Department that shall be no less than $100 and no greater |
13 | | than $500. All fees shall be deposited into the Stroke Data |
14 | | Collection Fund. |
15 | | (4) With respect to a hospital that is a designated |
16 | | Comprehensive Stroke Center, the Department shall have the |
17 | | authority and responsibility to do the following: |
18 | | (A) Suspend or revoke the hospital's Comprehensive |
19 | | Stroke Center designation upon receiving notice that |
20 | | the hospital's Comprehensive Stroke Center |
21 | | certification has lapsed or has been revoked by the |
22 | | State recognized certifying body. |
23 | | (B) Suspend the hospital's Comprehensive Stroke |
24 | | Center designation, in extreme circumstances in which |
25 | | patients may be at risk
for immediate harm or death, |
26 | | until such time as the certifying body investigates and |
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1 | | makes a final determination regarding certification. |
2 | | (C) Restore any previously suspended or revoked |
3 | | Department designation upon notice to the Department |
4 | | that the certifying body has confirmed or restored the |
5 | | Comprehensive Stroke Center certification of that |
6 | | previously designated hospital. |
7 | | (D) Suspend the hospital's Comprehensive Stroke |
8 | | Center designation at the request of a hospital seeking |
9 | | to suspend its own Department designation. |
10 | | (5) Comprehensive Stroke Center designation shall |
11 | | remain valid at all times while the hospital maintains its |
12 | | certification as a Comprehensive Stroke Center, in good |
13 | | standing, with the certifying body. The duration of a |
14 | | Comprehensive Stroke Center designation shall coincide |
15 | | with the duration of its Comprehensive Stroke Center |
16 | | certification. Each designated Comprehensive Stroke Center |
17 | | shall have its designation automatically renewed upon the |
18 | | Department's receipt of a copy of the certifying body's |
19 | | certification renewal. |
20 | | (6) A hospital that no longer meets |
21 | | nationally-recognized, evidence-based standards for |
22 | | Comprehensive Stroke Centers, or loses its Comprehensive |
23 | | Stroke Center certification, shall notify the Department |
24 | | and the Regional EMS Advisory Committee within 5 business |
25 | | days. |
26 | | (b) Beginning on the first day of the month that begins 12 |
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| | HB0313 Engrossed | - 223 - | LRB100 04130 SMS 14135 b |
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1 | | months after the adoption of rules authorized by this |
2 | | subsection, the Department shall attempt to designate |
3 | | hospitals as Acute Stroke-Ready Hospitals in all areas of the |
4 | | State. Designation may be approved by the Department after a |
5 | | hospital has been certified as an Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital |
6 | | or through application and designation by the Department. For |
7 | | any hospital that is designated as an Emergent Stroke Ready |
8 | | Hospital at the time that the Department begins the designation |
9 | | of Acute Stroke-Ready Hospitals, the Emergent Stroke Ready |
10 | | designation shall remain intact for the duration of the |
11 | | 12-month period until that designation expires. Until the |
12 | | Department begins the designation of hospitals as Acute |
13 | | Stroke-Ready Hospitals, hospitals may achieve Emergent Stroke |
14 | | Ready Hospital designation utilizing the processes and |
15 | | criteria provided in Public Act 96-514. |
16 | | (1) (Blank). |
17 | | (2) Hospitals may apply for, and receive, Acute |
18 | | Stroke-Ready Hospital designation from the Department, |
19 | | provided that the hospital attests, on a form developed by |
20 | | the Department in consultation with the State Stroke |
21 | | Advisory Subcommittee, that it meets, and will continue to |
22 | | meet, the criteria for Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital |
23 | | designation and pays an annual fee. |
24 | | A hospital designated as an Acute Stroke-Ready |
25 | | Hospital shall pay an annual fee as determined by the |
26 | | Department that shall be no less than $100 and no greater |
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| | HB0313 Engrossed | - 224 - | LRB100 04130 SMS 14135 b |
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1 | | than $500. All fees shall be deposited into the Stroke Data |
2 | | Collection Fund. |
3 | | (2.5) A hospital may apply for, and receive, Acute |
4 | | Stroke-Ready Hospital designation from the Department, |
5 | | provided that the hospital provides proof of current Acute |
6 | | Stroke-Ready Hospital certification and the hospital pays |
7 | | an annual fee. |
8 | | (A) Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital designation shall |
9 | | remain valid at all times while the hospital maintains |
10 | | its certification as an Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital, |
11 | | in good standing, with the certifying body. |
12 | | (B) The duration of an Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital |
13 | | designation shall coincide with the duration of its |
14 | | Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital certification. |
15 | | (C) Each designated Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital |
16 | | shall have its designation automatically renewed upon |
17 | | the Department's receipt of a copy of the certifying |
18 | | body's certification renewal and Application for |
19 | | Stroke Center Designation form. |
20 | | (D) A hospital must submit a copy of its |
21 | | certification renewal from the certifying body as soon |
22 | | as practical but no later than 30 business days after |
23 | | that certification is received by the hospital. Upon |
24 | | the Department's receipt of the renewal certification, |
25 | | the Department shall renew the hospital's Acute |
26 | | Stroke-Ready Hospital designation. |
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1 | | (E) A hospital designated as an Acute Stroke-Ready |
2 | | Hospital shall pay an annual fee as determined by the |
3 | | Department that shall be no less than $100 and no |
4 | | greater than $500. All fees shall be deposited into the |
5 | | Stroke Data Collection Fund. |
6 | | (3) Hospitals seeking Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital |
7 | | designation that do not have certification shall develop |
8 | | policies and procedures that are consistent with |
9 | | nationally-recognized, evidence-based protocols for the |
10 | | provision of emergent stroke care. Hospital policies |
11 | | relating to emergent stroke care and stroke patient |
12 | | outcomes shall be reviewed at least annually, or more often |
13 | | as needed, by a hospital committee that oversees quality |
14 | | improvement. Adjustments shall be made as necessary to |
15 | | advance the quality of stroke care delivered. Criteria for |
16 | | Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital designation of hospitals shall |
17 | | be limited to the ability of a hospital to: |
18 | | (A) create written acute care protocols related to |
19 | | emergent stroke care; |
20 | | (A-5) participate in the data collection system |
21 | | provided in Section 3.118, if available; |
22 | | (B) maintain a written transfer agreement with one |
23 | | or more hospitals that have neurosurgical expertise; |
24 | | (C) designate a Clinical Director of Stroke Care |
25 | | who shall be a clinical member of the hospital staff |
26 | | with training or experience, as defined by the |
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1 | | facility, in the care of patients with cerebrovascular |
2 | | disease. This training or experience may include, but |
3 | | is not limited to, completion of a fellowship or other |
4 | | specialized training in the area of cerebrovascular |
5 | | disease, attendance at national courses, or prior |
6 | | experience in neuroscience intensive care units. The |
7 | | Clinical Director of Stroke Care may be a neurologist, |
8 | | neurosurgeon, emergency medicine physician, internist, |
9 | | radiologist, advanced practice registered nurse, or |
10 | | physician's assistant; |
11 | | (C-5) provide rapid access to an acute stroke team, |
12 | | as defined by the facility, that considers and reflects |
13 | | nationally-recognized, evidenced-based protocols or |
14 | | guidelines; |
15 | | (D) administer thrombolytic therapy, or |
16 | | subsequently developed medical therapies that meet |
17 | | nationally-recognized, evidence-based stroke |
18 | | guidelines; |
19 | | (E) conduct brain image tests at all times; |
20 | | (F) conduct blood coagulation studies at all |
21 | | times; |
22 | | (G) maintain a log of stroke patients, which shall |
23 | | be available for review upon request by the Department |
24 | | or any hospital that has a written transfer agreement |
25 | | with the Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital; |
26 | | (H) admit stroke patients to a unit that can |
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1 | | provide appropriate care that considers and reflects |
2 | | nationally-recognized, evidence-based protocols or |
3 | | guidelines or transfer stroke patients to an Acute |
4 | | Stroke-Ready Hospital, Primary Stroke Center, or |
5 | | Comprehensive Stroke Center, or another facility that |
6 | | can provide the appropriate care that considers and |
7 | | reflects nationally-recognized, evidence-based |
8 | | protocols or guidelines; and |
9 | | (I) demonstrate compliance with |
10 | | nationally-recognized quality indicators. |
11 | | (4) With respect to Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital |
12 | | designation, the Department shall have the authority and |
13 | | responsibility to do the following: |
14 | | (A) Require hospitals applying for Acute |
15 | | Stroke-Ready Hospital designation to attest, on a form |
16 | | developed by the Department in consultation with the |
17 | | State Stroke Advisory Subcommittee, that the hospital |
18 | | meets, and will continue to meet, the criteria for an |
19 | | Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital. |
20 | | (A-5) Require hospitals applying for Acute |
21 | | Stroke-Ready Hospital designation via national Acute |
22 | | Stroke-Ready Hospital certification to provide proof |
23 | | of current Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital certification, |
24 | | in good standing. |
25 | | The Department shall require a hospital that is |
26 | | already certified as an Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital to |
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1 | | send a copy of the Certificate to the Department. |
2 | | Within 30 business days of the Department's |
3 | | receipt of a hospital's Acute Stroke-Ready Certificate |
4 | | and Application for Stroke Center Designation form |
5 | | that indicates that the hospital is a certified Acute |
6 | | Stroke-Ready Hospital, in good standing, the hospital |
7 | | shall be deemed a State-designated Acute Stroke-Ready |
8 | | Hospital. The Department shall send a designation |
9 | | notice to each hospital that it designates as an Acute |
10 | | Stroke-Ready Hospital and shall add the names of |
11 | | designated Acute Stroke-Ready Hospitals to the website |
12 | | listing immediately upon designation. The Department |
13 | | shall immediately remove the name of a hospital from |
14 | | the website listing when a hospital loses its |
15 | | designation after notice and, if requested by the |
16 | | hospital, a hearing. |
17 | | The Department shall develop an Application for |
18 | | Stroke Center Designation form that contains a |
19 | | statement that "The above named facility meets the |
20 | | requirements for Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital |
21 | | Designation as provided in Section 3.117 of the |
22 | | Emergency Medical Services (EMS) Systems Act" and |
23 | | shall instruct the applicant facility to provide: the |
24 | | hospital name and address; the hospital CEO or |
25 | | Administrator's typed name and signature; the hospital |
26 | | Clinical Director of Stroke Care's typed name and |
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1 | | signature; and a contact person's typed name, email |
2 | | address, and phone number. |
3 | | The Application for Stroke Center Designation form |
4 | | shall contain a statement that instructs the hospital |
5 | | to "Provide proof of current Acute Stroke-Ready |
6 | | Hospital certification from a nationally-recognized |
7 | | certifying body approved by the Department". |
8 | | (B) Designate a hospital as an Acute Stroke-Ready |
9 | | Hospital no more than 30 business days after receipt of |
10 | | an attestation that meets the requirements for |
11 | | attestation, unless the Department, within 30 days of |
12 | | receipt of the attestation, chooses to conduct an |
13 | | onsite survey prior to designation. If the Department |
14 | | chooses to conduct an onsite survey prior to |
15 | | designation, then the onsite survey shall be conducted |
16 | | within 90 days of receipt of the attestation. |
17 | | (C) Require annual written attestation, on a form |
18 | | developed by the Department in consultation with the |
19 | | State Stroke Advisory Subcommittee, by Acute |
20 | | Stroke-Ready Hospitals to indicate compliance with |
21 | | Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital criteria, as described in |
22 | | this Section, and automatically renew Acute |
23 | | Stroke-Ready Hospital designation of the hospital. |
24 | | (D) Issue an Emergency Suspension of Acute |
25 | | Stroke-Ready Hospital designation when the Director, |
26 | | or his or her designee, has determined that the |
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1 | | hospital no longer meets the Acute Stroke-Ready |
2 | | Hospital criteria and an immediate and serious danger |
3 | | to the public health, safety, and welfare exists. If |
4 | | the Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital fails to eliminate the |
5 | | violation immediately or within a fixed period of time, |
6 | | not exceeding 10 days, as determined by the Director, |
7 | | the Director may immediately revoke the Acute |
8 | | Stroke-Ready Hospital designation. The Acute |
9 | | Stroke-Ready Hospital may appeal the revocation within |
10 | | 15 business days after receiving the Director's |
11 | | revocation order, by requesting an administrative |
12 | | hearing. |
13 | | (E) After notice and an opportunity for an |
14 | | administrative hearing, suspend, revoke, or refuse to |
15 | | renew an Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital designation, when |
16 | | the Department finds the hospital is not in substantial |
17 | | compliance with current Acute Stroke-Ready Hospital |
18 | | criteria. |
19 | | (c) The Department shall consult with the State Stroke |
20 | | Advisory Subcommittee for developing the designation, |
21 | | re-designation, and de-designation processes for Comprehensive |
22 | | Stroke Centers, Primary Stroke Centers, and Acute Stroke-Ready |
23 | | Hospitals.
|
24 | | (d) The Department shall consult with the State Stroke |
25 | | Advisory Subcommittee as subject matter experts at least |
26 | | annually regarding stroke standards of care. |
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1 | | (Source: P.A. 98-756, eff. 7-16-14; 98-1001, eff. 1-1-15 .)
|
2 | | Section 125. The Home Health, Home Services, and Home |
3 | | Nursing Agency Licensing Act is amended by changing Sections |
4 | | 2.05 and 2.11 as follows:
|
5 | | (210 ILCS 55/2.05) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 2802.05)
|
6 | | Sec. 2.05.
"Home health services" means services provided
|
7 | | to a person at his residence according to a plan of treatment
|
8 | | for illness or infirmity
prescribed by a physician licensed to |
9 | | practice medicine in all its branches, a licensed physician |
10 | | assistant, or a licensed advanced practice registered nurse. |
11 | | Such services include part time and
intermittent nursing |
12 | | services and other therapeutic services
such as physical |
13 | | therapy, occupational therapy, speech therapy,
medical social |
14 | | services, or services provided by a home health aide.
|
15 | | (Source: P.A. 98-261, eff. 8-9-13; 99-173, eff. 7-29-15.)
|
16 | | (210 ILCS 55/2.11) |
17 | | Sec. 2.11. "Home nursing agency" means an agency that |
18 | | provides services directly, or acts as a placement agency, in |
19 | | order to deliver skilled nursing and home health aide services |
20 | | to persons in their personal residences. A home nursing agency |
21 | | provides services that would require a licensed nurse to |
22 | | perform. Home health aide services are provided under the |
23 | | direction of a registered professional nurse or advanced |
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1 | | practice registered Advanced Practice nurse. A home nursing |
2 | | agency does not require licensure as a home health agency under |
3 | | this Act. "Home nursing agency" does not include an |
4 | | individually licensed nurse acting as a private contractor or a |
5 | | person that provides or procures temporary employment in health |
6 | | care facilities, as defined in the Nurse Agency Licensing Act.
|
7 | | (Source: P.A. 94-379, eff. 1-1-06; 95-951, eff. 8-29-08.)
|
8 | | Section 130. The End Stage Renal Disease Facility Act is |
9 | | amended by changing Section 25 as follows:
|
10 | | (210 ILCS 62/25)
|
11 | | Sec. 25. Minimum staffing. An end stage renal disease |
12 | | facility shall be
under the medical direction of a physician
|
13 | | experienced in renal disease treatment, as required for |
14 | | licensure under this
Act. Additionally, at a minimum, every |
15 | | facility licensed
under this Act shall ensure that whenever |
16 | | patients are undergoing dialysis all
of the following are met:
|
17 | | (1) one currently licensed physician, registered |
18 | | nurse, physician
assistant, advanced practice registered |
19 | | nurse , or licensed practical
nurse experienced in |
20 | | rendering end stage
renal disease care is physically |
21 | | present on the premises to oversee patient
care; and
|
22 | | (2) adequate staff is present to meet the medical and |
23 | | non-medical needs of
each patient, as provided by this Act |
24 | | and the rules adopted pursuant to this
Act.
|
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1 | | (Source: P.A. 92-794, eff. 7-1-03.)
|
2 | | Section 135. The Hospital Licensing Act is amended by |
3 | | changing Sections 6.14g, 6.23a, 6.25, 10, 10.7, 10.8, and 10.9 |
4 | | as follows:
|
5 | | (210 ILCS 85/6.14g) |
6 | | Sec. 6.14g. Reports to the Department; opioid overdoses. |
7 | | (a) As used in this Section: |
8 | | "Overdose" has the same meaning as provided in Section 414 |
9 | | of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act. |
10 | | "Health care professional" includes a physician licensed |
11 | | to practice medicine in all its branches, a physician |
12 | | assistant, or an advanced practice registered nurse licensed in |
13 | | the State. |
14 | | (b) When treatment is provided in a hospital's emergency |
15 | | department, a health care professional who treats a drug |
16 | | overdose or hospital administrator or designee shall report the |
17 | | case to the Department of Public Health within 48 hours of |
18 | | providing treatment for the drug overdose or at such time the |
19 | | drug overdose is confirmed. The Department shall by rule create |
20 | | a form for this purpose which requires the following |
21 | | information, if known: (1) whether an opioid antagonist was |
22 | | administered; (2) the cause of the overdose; and (3) the |
23 | | demographic information of the person treated. The Department |
24 | | shall create the form with input from the statewide association |
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1 | | representing a majority of hospitals in Illinois. The person |
2 | | completing the form may not disclose the name, address, or any |
3 | | other personal information of the individual experiencing the |
4 | | overdose. |
5 | | (c) The identity of the person and entity reporting under |
6 | | this subsection shall not be disclosed to the subject of the |
7 | | report. For the purposes of this subsection, the health care |
8 | | professional, hospital administrator, or designee making the |
9 | | report and his or her employer shall not be held criminally, |
10 | | civilly, or professionally liable for reporting under this |
11 | | subsection, except for willful or wanton misconduct. |
12 | | (d) The Department shall provide a semiannual report to the |
13 | | General Assembly summarizing the reports received. The |
14 | | Department shall also provide on its website a monthly report |
15 | | of drug overdose figures. The figures shall be organized by the |
16 | | overdose location, the age of the victim, the cause of the |
17 | | overdose, and any other factors the Department deems |
18 | | appropriate.
|
19 | | (Source: P.A. 99-480, eff. 9-9-15.)
|
20 | | (210 ILCS 85/6.23a) |
21 | | Sec. 6.23a. Sepsis screening protocols. |
22 | | (a) Each hospital shall adopt, implement, and periodically |
23 | | update evidence-based protocols for the early recognition and |
24 | | treatment of patients with sepsis, severe sepsis, or septic |
25 | | shock (sepsis protocols) that are based on generally accepted |
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1 | | standards of care. Sepsis protocols must include components |
2 | | specific to the identification, care, and treatment of adults |
3 | | and of children, and must clearly identify where and when |
4 | | components will differ for adults and for children seeking |
5 | | treatment in the emergency department or as an inpatient. These |
6 | | protocols must also include the following components: |
7 | | (1) a process for the screening and early recognition |
8 | | of patients with sepsis, severe sepsis, or septic shock; |
9 | | (2) a process to identify and document individuals |
10 | | appropriate for treatment through sepsis protocols, |
11 | | including explicit criteria defining those patients who |
12 | | should be excluded from the protocols, such as patients |
13 | | with certain clinical conditions or who have elected |
14 | | palliative care; |
15 | | (3) guidelines for hemodynamic support with explicit |
16 | | physiologic and treatment goals, methodology for invasive |
17 | | or non-invasive hemodynamic monitoring, and timeframe |
18 | | goals; |
19 | | (4) for infants and children, guidelines for fluid |
20 | | resuscitation consistent with current, evidence-based |
21 | | guidelines for severe sepsis and septic shock with defined |
22 | | therapeutic goals for children; |
23 | | (5) identification of the infectious source and |
24 | | delivery of early broad spectrum antibiotics with timely |
25 | | re-evaluation to adjust to narrow spectrum antibiotics |
26 | | targeted to identified infectious sources; and |
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1 | | (6) criteria for use, based on accepted evidence of |
2 | | vasoactive agents. |
3 | | (b) Each hospital shall ensure that professional staff with |
4 | | direct patient care responsibilities and, as appropriate, |
5 | | staff with indirect patient care responsibilities, including, |
6 | | but not limited to, laboratory and pharmacy staff, are |
7 | | periodically trained to implement the sepsis protocols |
8 | | required under subsection (a). The hospital shall ensure |
9 | | updated training of staff if the hospital initiates substantive |
10 | | changes to the sepsis protocols. |
11 | | (c) Each hospital shall be responsible for the collection |
12 | | and utilization of quality measures related to the recognition |
13 | | and treatment of severe sepsis for purposes of internal quality |
14 | | improvement. |
15 | | (d) The evidence-based protocols adopted under this |
16 | | Section shall be provided to the Department upon the |
17 | | Department's request. |
18 | | (e) Hospitals submitting sepsis data as required by the |
19 | | Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services Hospital Inpatient |
20 | | Quality Reporting program as of fiscal year 2016 are presumed |
21 | | to meet the sepsis protocol requirements outlined in this |
22 | | Section. |
23 | | (f) Subject to appropriation, the Department shall: |
24 | | (1) recommend evidence-based sepsis definitions and |
25 | | metrics that incorporate evidence-based findings, |
26 | | including appropriate antibiotic stewardship, and that |
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1 | | align with the National Quality Forum, the Centers for |
2 | | Medicare and Medicaid Services, the Agency for Healthcare |
3 | | Research and Quality, and the Joint Commission; |
4 | | (2) establish and use a methodology for collecting, |
5 | | analyzing, and disclosing the information collected under |
6 | | this Section, including collection methods, formatting, |
7 | | and methods and means for aggregate data release and |
8 | | dissemination; |
9 | | (3) complete a digest of efforts and recommendations no |
10 | | later than 12 months after the effective date of this |
11 | | amendatory Act of the 99th General Assembly; the digest may |
12 | | include Illinois-specific data, trends, conditions, or |
13 | | other clinical factors; a summary shall be provided to the |
14 | | Governor and General Assembly and shall be publicly |
15 | | available on the Department's website; and |
16 | | (4) consult and seek input and feedback prior to the |
17 | | proposal, publication, or issuance of any guidance, |
18 | | methodologies, metrics, rulemaking, or any other |
19 | | information authorized under this Section from statewide |
20 | | organizations representing hospitals, physicians, advanced |
21 | | practice registered nurses, pharmacists, and long-term |
22 | | care facilities. Public and private hospitals, |
23 | | epidemiologists, infection prevention professionals, |
24 | | health care informatics and health care data |
25 | | professionals, and academic researchers may be consulted. |
26 | | If the Department receives an appropriation and carries out |
|
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|
|
1 | | the requirements of paragraphs (1), (2), (3), and (4), then the |
2 | | Department may adopt rules concerning the collection of data |
3 | | from hospitals regarding sepsis and requiring that each |
4 | | hospital shall be responsible for reporting to the Department. |
5 | | Any publicly released hospital-specific information under |
6 | | this Section is subject to data provisions specified in Section |
7 | | 25 of the Hospital Report Card Act.
|
8 | | (Source: P.A. 99-828, eff. 8-18-16.)
|
9 | | (210 ILCS 85/6.25) |
10 | | Sec. 6.25. Safe patient handling policy. |
11 | | (a) In this Section: |
12 | | "Health care worker" means an individual providing direct |
13 | | patient care services who may be required to lift, transfer, |
14 | | reposition, or move a patient. |
15 | | "Nurse" means an advanced practice registered nurse, a |
16 | | registered nurse, or a licensed practical nurse licensed under |
17 | | the Nurse Practice Act. |
18 | | "Safe lifting equipment and accessories" means mechanical |
19 | | equipment designed to lift, move, reposition, and transfer |
20 | | patients, including, but not limited to, fixed and portable |
21 | | ceiling lifts, sit-to-stand lifts, slide sheets and boards, |
22 | | slings, and repositioning and turning sheets. |
23 | | "Safe lifting team" means at least 2 individuals who are |
24 | | trained in the use of both safe lifting techniques and safe |
25 | | lifting equipment and accessories, including the |
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|
1 | | responsibility for knowing the location and condition of such |
2 | | equipment and accessories. |
3 | | (b) A hospital must adopt and ensure implementation of a |
4 | | policy to identify, assess, and develop strategies to control |
5 | | risk of injury to patients and nurses and other health care |
6 | | workers associated with the lifting, transferring, |
7 | | repositioning, or movement of a patient. The policy shall |
8 | | establish a process that, at a minimum, includes all of the |
9 | | following: |
10 | | (1) Analysis of the risk of injury to patients and |
11 | | nurses and other health care workers posted by the patient |
12 | | handling needs of the patient populations served by the |
13 | | hospital and the physical environment in which the patient |
14 | | handling and movement occurs. |
15 | | (2) Education and training of nurses and other direct |
16 | | patient care providers in the identification, assessment, |
17 | | and control of risks of injury to patients and nurses and |
18 | | other health care workers during patient handling and on |
19 | | safe lifting policies and techniques and current lifting |
20 | | equipment. |
21 | | (3) Evaluation of alternative ways to reduce risks |
22 | | associated with patient handling, including evaluation of |
23 | | equipment and the environment. |
24 | | (4) Restriction, to the extent feasible with existing |
25 | | equipment and aids, of manual patient handling or movement |
26 | | of all or most of a patient's weight except for emergency, |
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1 | | life-threatening, or otherwise exceptional circumstances. |
2 | | (5) Collaboration with and an annual report to the |
3 | | nurse staffing committee. |
4 | | (6) Procedures for a nurse to refuse to perform or be |
5 | | involved in patient handling or movement that the nurse in |
6 | | good faith believes will expose a patient or nurse or other |
7 | | health care worker to an unacceptable risk of injury. |
8 | | (7) Submission of an annual report to the hospital's |
9 | | governing body or quality assurance committee on |
10 | | activities related to the identification, assessment, and |
11 | | development of strategies to control risk of injury to |
12 | | patients and nurses and other health care workers |
13 | | associated with the lifting, transferring, repositioning, |
14 | | or movement of a patient. |
15 | | (8) In developing architectural plans for construction |
16 | | or remodeling of a hospital or unit of a hospital in which |
17 | | patient handling and movement occurs, consideration of the |
18 | | feasibility of incorporating patient handling equipment or |
19 | | the physical space and construction design needed to |
20 | | incorporate that equipment.
|
21 | | (9) Fostering and maintaining patient safety, dignity, |
22 | | self-determination, and choice, including the following |
23 | | policies, strategies, and procedures: |
24 | | (A) the existence and availability of a trained |
25 | | safe lifting team; |
26 | | (B) a policy of advising patients of a range of |
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1 | | transfer and lift options, including adjustable |
2 | | diagnostic and treatment equipment, mechanical lifts, |
3 | | and provision of a trained safe lifting team; |
4 | | (C) the right of a competent patient, or guardian |
5 | | of a patient adjudicated incompetent, to choose among |
6 | | the range of transfer and lift options, subject to the |
7 | | provisions of subparagraph (E) of this paragraph (9); |
8 | | (D) procedures for documenting, upon admission and |
9 | | as status changes, a mobility assessment and plan for |
10 | | lifting, transferring, repositioning, or movement of a |
11 | | patient, including the choice of the patient or |
12 | | patient's guardian among the range of transfer and lift |
13 | | options; and |
14 | | (E) incorporation of such safe lifting procedures, |
15 | | techniques, and equipment as are consistent with |
16 | | applicable federal law. |
17 | | (Source: P.A. 96-389, eff. 1-1-10; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; |
18 | | 97-122, eff. 1-1-12.)
|
19 | | (210 ILCS 85/10) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 151)
|
20 | | Sec. 10. Board creation; Department rules.
|
21 | | (a) The Governor shall appoint a Hospital Licensing Board |
22 | | composed
of 14 persons, which shall advise and consult with the |
23 | | Director
in the administration of this Act. The Secretary of |
24 | | Human Services (or his
or her designee) shall serve on the |
25 | | Board, along with one additional
representative of the |
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1 | | Department of Human Services to be designated by the
Secretary. |
2 | | Four appointive members shall represent
the general public and |
3 | | 2 of these shall be members of hospital governing
boards; one |
4 | | appointive member shall be a registered professional nurse or
|
5 | | advanced practice registered , nurse as
defined in the Nurse |
6 | | Practice Act, who is employed in a
hospital; 3 appointive
|
7 | | members shall be hospital administrators actively engaged in |
8 | | the supervision
or administration of hospitals; 2 appointive |
9 | | members shall be practicing
physicians, licensed in Illinois to |
10 | | practice medicine in all of its
branches; and one appointive |
11 | | member shall be a physician licensed to practice
podiatric |
12 | | medicine under the Podiatric Medical Practice Act of 1987;
and |
13 | | one appointive member shall be a
dentist licensed to practice |
14 | | dentistry under
the Illinois Dental Practice Act. In making |
15 | | Board appointments, the Governor shall give
consideration to |
16 | | recommendations made through the Director by professional
|
17 | | organizations concerned with hospital administration for the |
18 | | hospital
administrative and governing board appointments, |
19 | | registered professional
nurse organizations for the registered |
20 | | professional nurse appointment,
professional medical |
21 | | organizations for the physician appointments, and
professional |
22 | | dental organizations for the dentist appointment.
|
23 | | (b) Each appointive member shall hold office for a term of |
24 | | 3 years,
except that any member appointed to fill a vacancy |
25 | | occurring prior to the
expiration of the term for which his |
26 | | predecessor was appointed shall be
appointed for the remainder |
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1 | | of such term and the terms of office of the
members first |
2 | | taking office shall expire, as designated at the time of
|
3 | | appointment, 2 at the end of the first year, 2 at the end of the |
4 | | second
year, and 3 at the end of the third year, after the date |
5 | | of appointment.
The initial terms of office of the 2 additional |
6 | | members representing the
general public provided for in this |
7 | | Section shall expire at the end of the
third year after the |
8 | | date of appointment. The term of office of each
original |
9 | | appointee shall commence July 1, 1953; the term of office of |
10 | | the
original registered professional nurse appointee shall |
11 | | commence July 1,
1969; the term of office of the original |
12 | | licensed podiatric physician appointee shall
commence July 1, |
13 | | 1981; the term of office of the original dentist
appointee |
14 | | shall commence July 1, 1987; and the term of office of each
|
15 | | successor shall commence on July 1 of
the year in which his |
16 | | predecessor's term expires. Board members, while
serving on |
17 | | business of the Board, shall receive actual and necessary |
18 | | travel
and subsistence expenses while so serving away from |
19 | | their places of
residence. The Board shall meet as frequently |
20 | | as the Director deems
necessary, but not less than once a year. |
21 | | Upon request of 5 or more
members, the Director shall call a |
22 | | meeting of the Board.
|
23 | | (c) The Director shall prescribe rules, regulations, |
24 | | standards, and
statements of policy needed to implement, |
25 | | interpret, or make specific the
provisions and purposes of this |
26 | | Act. The Department shall adopt rules which
set forth standards |
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1 | | for determining when the public interest, safety
or welfare |
2 | | requires emergency action in relation to termination of a |
3 | | research
program or experimental procedure conducted by a |
4 | | hospital licensed under
this Act. No rule, regulation, or |
5 | | standard shall
be adopted by the Department concerning the |
6 | | operation of hospitals licensed
under this Act which has not |
7 | | had prior approval of the Hospital Licensing
Board, nor shall |
8 | | the Department adopt any rule, regulation or standard
relating |
9 | | to the establishment of a hospital without consultation with |
10 | | the
Hospital Licensing Board.
|
11 | | (d) Within one year after August 7, 1984 ( the effective |
12 | | date of Public Act 83-1248) this amendatory Act
of 1984 , all |
13 | | hospitals licensed under this Act and providing perinatal care
|
14 | | shall comply with standards of perinatal care promulgated by |
15 | | the Department.
The Director shall promulgate rules or |
16 | | regulations under this Act which
are consistent with the |
17 | | Developmental Disability Prevention Act "An Act relating to the |
18 | | prevention of developmental
disabilities", approved September |
19 | | 6, 1973, as amended .
|
20 | | (Source: P.A. 98-214, eff. 8-9-13; revised 10-26-16.)
|
21 | | (210 ILCS 85/10.7)
|
22 | | Sec. 10.7. Clinical privileges; advanced practice |
23 | | registered nurses.
All hospitals licensed under this Act shall |
24 | | comply with the following
requirements:
|
25 | | (1) No hospital policy, rule, regulation, or practice
|
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1 | | shall be inconsistent
with the provision of adequate |
2 | | collaboration and consultation in accordance with Section |
3 | | 54.5 of the
Medical Practice Act of 1987.
|
4 | | (2) Operative surgical procedures shall be performed |
5 | | only by a physician
licensed to practice medicine in all |
6 | | its branches under the Medical Practice
Act of 1987, a |
7 | | dentist licensed under the Illinois Dental Practice Act, or |
8 | | a podiatric physician
licensed under the Podiatric Medical |
9 | | Practice Act of 1987,
with medical staff membership and |
10 | | surgical clinical privileges granted at the
hospital. A |
11 | | licensed physician, dentist, or podiatric physician may be |
12 | | assisted by a
physician licensed to practice medicine in |
13 | | all its branches, dentist, dental
assistant, podiatric |
14 | | physician, licensed advanced practice registered nurse, |
15 | | licensed physician
assistant, licensed registered
nurse, |
16 | | licensed practical nurse, surgical
assistant, surgical |
17 | | technician, or other individuals granted clinical
|
18 | | privileges to assist in surgery
at the hospital.
Payment |
19 | | for services rendered by an assistant in surgery who is not |
20 | | a
hospital employee shall be paid
at the appropriate |
21 | | non-physician modifier rate if the payor would have
made |
22 | | payment had the same services been provided by a physician.
|
23 | | (2.5) A registered nurse licensed under the Nurse |
24 | | Practice Act and qualified by training and experience in |
25 | | operating room nursing shall be present in the operating |
26 | | room and function as the circulating nurse during all |
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1 | | invasive or operative procedures. For purposes of this |
2 | | paragraph (2.5), "circulating nurse" means a registered |
3 | | nurse who is responsible for coordinating all nursing care, |
4 | | patient safety needs, and the needs of the surgical team in |
5 | | the operating room during an invasive or operative |
6 | | procedure.
|
7 | | (3) An advanced practice registered nurse is not |
8 | | required to possess prescriptive authority or a written |
9 | | collaborative agreement meeting the requirements of the |
10 | | Nurse Practice Act to provide advanced practice registered |
11 | | nursing services in a hospital. An advanced practice |
12 | | registered nurse must possess clinical privileges |
13 | | recommended by the medical staff and granted by the |
14 | | hospital in order to provide services. Individual advanced |
15 | | practice registered nurses may also be granted clinical |
16 | | privileges to order, select, and administer medications, |
17 | | including controlled substances, to provide delineated |
18 | | care. The attending physician must determine the advanced |
19 | | practice registered nurse's role in providing care for his |
20 | | or her patients, except as otherwise provided in medical |
21 | | staff bylaws. The medical staff shall periodically review |
22 | | the services of advanced practice registered nurses |
23 | | granted privileges. This review shall be conducted in |
24 | | accordance with item (2) of subsection (a) of Section 10.8 |
25 | | of this Act for advanced practice registered nurses |
26 | | employed by the hospital.
|
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1 | | (4) The anesthesia service shall be under the direction |
2 | | of a physician
licensed to practice
medicine in all its |
3 | | branches who has had specialized preparation or
experience |
4 | | in the area
or who has completed a residency in |
5 | | anesthesiology. An anesthesiologist, Board
certified or |
6 | | Board eligible, is recommended. Anesthesia services may
|
7 | | only be administered pursuant to the order of a physician |
8 | | licensed to practice
medicine in all its branches, licensed |
9 | | dentist, or licensed podiatric physician.
|
10 | | (A) The individuals who, with clinical privileges |
11 | | granted at the hospital,
may administer anesthesia |
12 | | services are limited
to the following:
|
13 | | (i) an anesthesiologist; or
|
14 | | (ii) a physician licensed to practice medicine |
15 | | in all its branches; or
|
16 | | (iii) a dentist with authority to administer |
17 | | anesthesia under Section
8.1 of
the Illinois |
18 | | Dental Practice Act; or
|
19 | | (iv) a licensed certified registered nurse |
20 | | anesthetist; or |
21 | | (v) a podiatric physician licensed under the |
22 | | Podiatric Medical Practice Act of 1987.
|
23 | | (B) For anesthesia services, an anesthesiologist
|
24 | | shall
participate through discussion of and agreement |
25 | | with the anesthesia plan and
shall remain physically |
26 | | present and be
available on
the premises during the |
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1 | | delivery of anesthesia services for
diagnosis, |
2 | | consultation, and treatment of emergency medical |
3 | | conditions.
In the absence
of 24-hour availability of
|
4 | | anesthesiologists with medical staff privileges,
an |
5 | | alternate
policy (requiring participation, presence, |
6 | | and availability of a physician
licensed to practice
|
7 | | medicine in all its branches) shall be developed by the |
8 | | medical staff and
licensed
hospital in consultation |
9 | | with the anesthesia service.
|
10 | | (C) A certified registered nurse anesthetist is |
11 | | not required to possess
prescriptive authority or a |
12 | | written collaborative agreement meeting
the |
13 | | requirements of Section 65-35 of the Nurse Practice Act
|
14 | | to provide anesthesia services
ordered by a licensed |
15 | | physician, dentist, or podiatric physician. Licensed |
16 | | certified
registered nurse anesthetists are authorized |
17 | | to
select, order, and
administer drugs and apply the |
18 | | appropriate medical devices in the provision of
|
19 | | anesthesia
services under the anesthesia plan agreed |
20 | | with by the
anesthesiologist or, in the absence of an |
21 | | available anesthesiologist with
clinical privileges,
|
22 | | agreed with by the
operating physician, operating |
23 | | dentist, or operating podiatric physician in |
24 | | accordance
with the hospital's alternative policy.
|
25 | | (Source: P.A. 98-214, eff. 8-9-13; 99-642, eff. 7-28-16.)
|
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1 | | (210 ILCS 85/10.8)
|
2 | | Sec. 10.8. Requirements for employment of physicians.
|
3 | | (a) Physician employment by hospitals and hospital |
4 | | affiliates. Employing
entities may
employ physicians to |
5 | | practice medicine in all of its branches provided that the
|
6 | | following
requirements are met:
|
7 | | (1) The employed physician is a member of the medical |
8 | | staff of either the
hospital or hospital affiliate. If a |
9 | | hospital affiliate decides to have a
medical staff, its
|
10 | | medical staff shall be organized in accordance with written |
11 | | bylaws where the
affiliate
medical staff is responsible for |
12 | | making recommendations to the governing body
of
the |
13 | | affiliate regarding all quality assurance activities and |
14 | | safeguarding
professional
autonomy. The affiliate medical |
15 | | staff bylaws may not be unilaterally changed
by the
|
16 | | governing body of the affiliate. Nothing in this Section |
17 | | requires hospital
affiliates
to have a medical staff.
|
18 | | (2) Independent
physicians, who are not employed by an |
19 | | employing entity,
periodically review the quality of
the |
20 | | medical
services provided by the employed
physician to |
21 | | continuously improve patient care.
|
22 | | (3) The employing entity and the employed physician |
23 | | sign a statement
acknowledging
that the employer shall not |
24 | | unreasonably exercise control, direct, or
interfere with
|
25 | | the employed physician's exercise and execution of his or |
26 | | her professional
judgment in a manner that
adversely |
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1 | | affects the employed physician's ability to provide |
2 | | quality care to
patients. This signed statement shall take |
3 | | the form of a provision in the
physician's
employment |
4 | | contract or a separate signed document from the employing |
5 | | entity to
the
employed physician. This statement shall |
6 | | state: "As the employer of a
physician,
(employer's name) |
7 | | shall not unreasonably exercise control, direct, or
|
8 | | interfere with
the employed physician's exercise and |
9 | | execution of his or her professional
judgment in a manner |
10 | | that
adversely affects the employed physician's ability to |
11 | | provide quality care to
patients."
|
12 | | (4) The employing entity shall establish a
mutually |
13 | | agreed upon independent
review
process
with criteria
under |
14 | | which an employed physician
may seek review of the alleged |
15 | | violation
of this Section by physicians who are not |
16 | | employed by the employing
entity. The affiliate may arrange |
17 | | with the hospital medical
staff to conduct these reviews.
|
18 | | The independent physicians
shall make findings and |
19 | | recommendations to the employing entity and the
employed
|
20 | | physician within 30 days of the conclusion of the gathering |
21 | | of the relevant
information.
|
22 | | (b) Definitions. For the purpose of this Section:
|
23 | | "Employing entity" means a hospital licensed under the |
24 | | Hospital Licensing Act
or a hospital
affiliate.
|
25 | | "Employed physician" means a physician who receives an IRS |
26 | | W-2 form, or any
successor
federal income tax form, from an |
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1 | | employing entity.
|
2 | | "Hospital" means a hospital licensed under the Hospital |
3 | | Licensing Act, except
county hospitals as defined in subsection |
4 | | (c) of Section 15-1 of the Illinois Public Aid
Code.
|
5 | | "Hospital affiliate" means a corporation, partnership, |
6 | | joint venture, limited
liability company,
or similar |
7 | | organization, other than a hospital, that is devoted primarily |
8 | | to
the provision, management,
or support of health care |
9 | | services and that directly or indirectly controls, is
|
10 | | controlled by, or is under
common control of the hospital. |
11 | | "Control" means having at least an equal or a
majority |
12 | | ownership
or membership interest. A hospital affiliate shall be |
13 | | 100% owned or controlled
by any combination
of hospitals, their |
14 | | parent corporations, or physicians licensed to practice
|
15 | | medicine in all its branches
in Illinois.
"Hospital affiliate" |
16 | | does not include a health maintenance
organization regulated |
17 | | under the Health Maintenance
Organization Act.
|
18 | | "Physician" means an individual licensed to practice |
19 | | medicine in all its
branches in Illinois.
|
20 | | "Professional judgment" means the exercise of a |
21 | | physician's independent
clinical judgment
in providing |
22 | | medically appropriate diagnoses, care, and treatment to a
|
23 | | particular patient at a
particular time. Situations in which an |
24 | | employing entity does not interfere
with an employed
|
25 | | physician's professional judgment include, without limitation, |
26 | | the following:
|
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1 | | (1) practice restrictions based upon peer review of the |
2 | | physician's
clinical
practice to assess quality of care and |
3 | | utilization of resources in accordance
with
applicable |
4 | | bylaws;
|
5 | | (2) supervision of physicians by appropriately |
6 | | licensed medical
directors,
medical school faculty, |
7 | | department chairpersons or directors, or
supervising |
8 | | physicians;
|
9 | | (3) written statements of ethical or religious |
10 | | directives; and
|
11 | | (4) reasonable referral restrictions that do not, in |
12 | | the reasonable
professional
judgment of the physician, |
13 | | adversely affect the health or welfare of the
patient.
|
14 | | (c) Private enforcement. An employed physician aggrieved |
15 | | by a violation of
this Act may
seek to obtain an injunction or |
16 | | reinstatement of employment with the employing
entity as the |
17 | | court
may deem appropriate. Nothing in this Section limits or |
18 | | abrogates any common
law cause of action.
Nothing in this |
19 | | Section shall be deemed to alter the law of negligence.
|
20 | | (d) Department enforcement. The Department may enforce the |
21 | | provisions of
this Section,
but nothing in this Section shall |
22 | | require or permit the Department to license,
certify, or |
23 | | otherwise
investigate the activities of a
hospital affiliate |
24 | | not otherwise required to be licensed by the
Department.
|
25 | | (e) Retaliation prohibited. No employing entity shall |
26 | | retaliate against any
employed
physician for requesting a |
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1 | | hearing or review under this Section.
No action may be taken |
2 | | that
affects
the ability of a physician to practice during this |
3 | | review, except in
circumstances
where the medical staff bylaws |
4 | | authorize summary suspension.
|
5 | | (f) Physician collaboration. No employing entity shall |
6 | | adopt or enforce,
either formally or
informally, any policy, |
7 | | rule, regulation, or practice inconsistent with
the provision |
8 | | of adequate
collaboration, including medical direction of |
9 | | licensed advanced practice registered
nurses or supervision
of |
10 | | licensed physician assistants and delegation to other |
11 | | personnel under
Section 54.5 of the Medical
Practice Act of |
12 | | 1987.
|
13 | | (g) Physician disciplinary actions. Nothing in this |
14 | | Section shall be
construed to limit or
prohibit the governing |
15 | | body of an employing entity or its medical staff, if
any, from |
16 | | taking
disciplinary actions against a physician as permitted by |
17 | | law.
|
18 | | (h) Physician review. Nothing in this Section shall be |
19 | | construed to prohibit
a hospital or
hospital affiliate from |
20 | | making a determination not to pay for a particular
health care |
21 | | service or to
prohibit a medical group, independent practice |
22 | | association, hospital medical
staff, or hospital
governing |
23 | | body from enforcing reasonable peer review or utilization |
24 | | review
protocols or determining
whether the employed physician |
25 | | complied with those protocols.
|
26 | | (i) Review. Nothing in this Section may be used or |
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|
1 | | construed to establish
that any activity
of a hospital or |
2 | | hospital affiliate is subject to review under the Illinois
|
3 | | Health Facilities Planning Act.
|
4 | | (j) Rules. The Department shall adopt any
rules necessary |
5 | | to
implement this Section.
|
6 | | (Source: P.A. 92-455, eff. 9-30-01; revised 10-26-16.)
|
7 | | (210 ILCS 85/10.9) |
8 | | Sec. 10.9. Nurse mandated overtime prohibited. |
9 | | (a) Definitions. As used in this Section: |
10 | | "Mandated overtime" means work that is required by the |
11 | | hospital in excess
of an agreed-to, predetermined work shift. |
12 | | Time spent by nurses required to be available as a condition of |
13 | | employment in specialized units, such as surgical nursing |
14 | | services, shall not be counted or considered in calculating the |
15 | | amount of time worked for the purpose of applying the |
16 | | prohibition against mandated overtime under subsection (b). |
17 | | "Nurse" means any advanced practice registered nurse, |
18 | | registered
professional nurse, or licensed practical nurse, as |
19 | | defined in
the Nurse Practice Act, who receives an hourly wage |
20 | | and has direct responsibility to oversee or carry
out nursing |
21 | | care. For the purposes of this Section, "advanced practice |
22 | | registered nurse" does not include a certified registered nurse |
23 | | anesthetist who is primarily engaged in performing the duties |
24 | | of a nurse anesthetist. |
25 | | "Unforeseen emergent circumstance" means (i) any declared
|
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1 | | national, State, or municipal disaster or other catastrophic |
2 | | event, or any implementation of a hospital's disaster plan, |
3 | | that will substantially affect or increase the need for health
|
4 | | care services or (ii) any circumstance in which patient care |
5 | | needs require specialized nursing skills through the |
6 | | completion of a procedure. An "unforeseen emergent |
7 | | circumstance" does not include situations in which the hospital |
8 | | fails to have enough nursing staff to meet the usual and |
9 | | reasonably predictable nursing needs of its patients. |
10 | | (b) Mandated overtime prohibited. No nurse may be required
|
11 | | to work mandated overtime except in the case of an unforeseen |
12 | | emergent circumstance when such overtime is required only as a
|
13 | | last resort. Such mandated overtime shall not exceed 4 hours |
14 | | beyond an agreed-to, predetermined work shift. |
15 | | (c) Off-duty period. When a nurse is mandated to work up to |
16 | | 12 consecutive hours, the nurse must be allowed at least 8 |
17 | | consecutive hours of off-duty time immediately following the |
18 | | completion of a shift. |
19 | | (d) Retaliation prohibited. No hospital may discipline, |
20 | | discharge, or take any other adverse employment action against |
21 | | a nurse solely because the nurse refused to work mandated |
22 | | overtime as prohibited under subsection (b). |
23 | | (e) Violations. Any employee of a hospital that is subject
|
24 | | to this Act may file a complaint with the Department of Public |
25 | | Health regarding an alleged violation of this Section. The |
26 | | complaint must be filed within 45 days following the occurrence |
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1 | | of the incident giving rise to the alleged violation. The |
2 | | Department must forward notification of the alleged violation |
3 | | to the hospital in question within 3 business days after the |
4 | | complaint is filed. Upon receiving a complaint of a violation |
5 | | of this Section, the Department may take any action authorized |
6 | | under Section 7 or 9 of this Act. |
7 | | (f) Proof of violation. Any violation of this Section must
|
8 | | be proved by clear and convincing evidence that a nurse was |
9 | | required to work overtime against his or her will. The hospital |
10 | | may defeat the claim of a violation by presenting clear and |
11 | | convincing evidence that an unforeseen emergent circumstance, |
12 | | which required overtime work, existed at the time the employee |
13 | | was required or compelled to work.
|
14 | | (Source: P.A. 94-349, eff. 7-28-05; 95-639, eff. 10-5-07.)
|
15 | | Section 140. The Illinois Insurance Code is amended by |
16 | | changing Section 356g.5 as follows:
|
17 | | (215 ILCS 5/356g.5) |
18 | | Sec. 356g.5. Clinical breast exam. |
19 | | (a) The General Assembly finds that clinical breast |
20 | | examinations are a critical tool in the early detection of |
21 | | breast cancer, while the disease is in its earlier and |
22 | | potentially more treatable stages. Insurer reimbursement of |
23 | | clinical breast examinations is essential to the effort to |
24 | | reduce breast cancer deaths in Illinois. |
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1 | | (b) Every insurer shall provide, in each group or |
2 | | individual policy, contract, or certificate of accident or |
3 | | health insurance issued or renewed for persons who are |
4 | | residents of Illinois, coverage for complete and thorough |
5 | | clinical breast examinations as indicated by guidelines of |
6 | | practice, performed by a physician licensed to practice |
7 | | medicine in all its branches, a licensed advanced practice |
8 | | registered nurse, or a licensed physician assistant, to check |
9 | | for lumps and other changes for the purpose of early detection |
10 | | and prevention of breast cancer as follows: |
11 | | (1) at least every 3 years for women at least 20 years |
12 | | of age but less than 40 years of age; and |
13 | | (2) annually for women 40 years of age or older. |
14 | | (c) Upon approval of a nationally recognized separate and |
15 | | distinct clinical breast exam code that is compliant with all |
16 | | State and federal laws, rules, and regulations, public and |
17 | | private insurance plans shall take action to cover clinical |
18 | | breast exams on a separate and distinct basis.
|
19 | | (Source: P.A. 99-173, eff. 7-29-15.)
|
20 | | Section 145. The Illinois Dental Practice Act is amended by |
21 | | changing Sections 4 and 8.1 as follows:
|
22 | | (225 ILCS 25/4)
(from Ch. 111, par. 2304)
|
23 | | (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2026)
|
24 | | Sec. 4. Definitions. As used in this Act:
|
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| | HB0313 Engrossed | - 258 - | LRB100 04130 SMS 14135 b |
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1 | | "Address of record" means the designated address recorded |
2 | | by the Department in the applicant's or licensee's application |
3 | | file or license file as maintained by the Department's |
4 | | licensure maintenance unit. It is the duty of the applicant or |
5 | | licensee to inform the Department of any change of address and |
6 | | those changes must be made either through the Department's |
7 | | website or by contacting the Department. |
8 | | "Department" means the Department of Financial and |
9 | | Professional Regulation.
|
10 | | "Secretary" means the Secretary of Financial and |
11 | | Professional Regulation.
|
12 | | "Board" means the Board of Dentistry.
|
13 | | "Dentist" means a person who has received a general license |
14 | | pursuant
to paragraph (a) of Section 11 of this Act and who may |
15 | | perform any intraoral
and extraoral procedure required in the |
16 | | practice of dentistry and to whom is
reserved the |
17 | | responsibilities specified in Section 17.
|
18 | | "Dental hygienist" means a person who holds a license under |
19 | | this Act to
perform dental services as authorized by Section |
20 | | 18.
|
21 | | "Dental assistant" means an appropriately trained person
|
22 | | who, under the supervision of a dentist, provides dental |
23 | | services
as authorized by Section 17.
|
24 | | "Dental laboratory" means a person, firm or corporation |
25 | | which:
|
26 | | (i) engages in making, providing, repairing or |
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1 | | altering dental
prosthetic appliances and other artificial |
2 | | materials and devices which are
returned to a dentist for |
3 | | insertion into the human oral cavity or which
come in |
4 | | contact with its adjacent structures and tissues; and
|
5 | | (ii) utilizes or employs a dental technician to provide |
6 | | such services; and
|
7 | | (iii) performs such functions only for a dentist or |
8 | | dentists.
|
9 | | "Supervision" means supervision of a dental hygienist or a |
10 | | dental
assistant requiring that a dentist authorize the |
11 | | procedure, remain in the
dental facility while the procedure is |
12 | | performed, and approve the work
performed by the dental |
13 | | hygienist or dental assistant before dismissal of
the patient, |
14 | | but does not mean that the dentist must be present at all
times |
15 | | in the treatment room.
|
16 | | "General supervision" means supervision of a dental |
17 | | hygienist
requiring that the patient be a patient of record,
|
18 | | that the dentist
examine the patient in accordance with Section |
19 | | 18 prior to treatment by the
dental hygienist, and that the
|
20 | | dentist authorize the procedures which
are being carried
out by |
21 | | a notation in the patient's record, but not requiring that a |
22 | | dentist
be present when the authorized
procedures are being |
23 | | performed. The
issuance of a prescription to a dental |
24 | | laboratory by a
dentist does not constitute general |
25 | | supervision.
|
26 | | "Public member" means a person who is not a health |
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|
1 | | professional.
For purposes of board membership, any person with |
2 | | a significant financial
interest in a health service or |
3 | | profession is not a public member.
|
4 | | "Dentistry" means the healing art which is concerned with |
5 | | the
examination, diagnosis, treatment planning and care of |
6 | | conditions within
the human oral cavity and its adjacent |
7 | | tissues and structures, as further
specified in Section 17.
|
8 | | "Branches of dentistry" means the various specialties of |
9 | | dentistry
which, for purposes of this Act, shall be limited to |
10 | | the following:
endodontics, oral and maxillofacial surgery, |
11 | | orthodontics and dentofacial
orthopedics, pediatric dentistry,
|
12 | | periodontics, prosthodontics, and oral and maxillofacial
|
13 | | radiology.
|
14 | | "Specialist" means a dentist who has received a specialty |
15 | | license
pursuant to Section 11(b).
|
16 | | "Dental technician" means a person who owns, operates or is
|
17 | | employed by a dental laboratory and engages in making, |
18 | | providing, repairing
or altering dental prosthetic appliances |
19 | | and other artificial materials and
devices which are returned |
20 | | to a dentist for insertion into the human oral
cavity or which |
21 | | come in contact with its adjacent structures and tissues.
|
22 | | "Impaired dentist" or "impaired dental hygienist" means a |
23 | | dentist
or dental hygienist who is unable to practice with
|
24 | | reasonable skill and safety because of a physical or mental |
25 | | disability as
evidenced by a written determination or written |
26 | | consent based on clinical
evidence, including deterioration |
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1 | | through the aging process, loss of motor
skills, abuse of drugs |
2 | | or alcohol, or a psychiatric disorder, of sufficient
degree to |
3 | | diminish the person's ability to deliver competent patient |
4 | | care.
|
5 | | "Nurse" means a registered professional nurse, a certified |
6 | | registered
nurse anesthetist licensed as an advanced practice |
7 | | registered
nurse, or a licensed practical nurse licensed under |
8 | | the Nurse Practice Act.
|
9 | | "Patient of record" means a patient for whom the patient's |
10 | | most recent
dentist has obtained
a
relevant medical and dental |
11 | | history and on whom the dentist has performed an
examination |
12 | | and evaluated the condition to be treated.
|
13 | | "Dental responder" means a dentist or dental hygienist who |
14 | | is appropriately certified in disaster preparedness, |
15 | | immunizations, and dental humanitarian medical response |
16 | | consistent with the Society of Disaster Medicine and Public |
17 | | Health and training certified by the National Incident |
18 | | Management System or the National Disaster Life Support |
19 | | Foundation.
|
20 | | "Mobile dental van or portable dental unit" means any |
21 | | self-contained or portable dental unit in which dentistry is |
22 | | practiced that can be moved, towed, or transported from one |
23 | | location to another in order to establish a location where |
24 | | dental services can be provided. |
25 | | "Public health dental hygienist" means a hygienist who |
26 | | holds a valid license to practice in the State, has 2 years of |
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1 | | full-time clinical experience or an equivalent of 4,000 hours |
2 | | of clinical experience and has completed at least 42 clock |
3 | | hours of additional structured courses in dental education |
4 | | approved by rule by the Department in advanced areas specific |
5 | | to public health dentistry, including, but not limited to, |
6 | | emergency procedures for medically compromised patients, |
7 | | pharmacology, medical recordkeeping procedures, geriatric |
8 | | dentistry, pediatric dentistry, pathology, and other areas of |
9 | | study as determined by the Department, and works in a public |
10 | | health setting pursuant to a written public health supervision |
11 | | agreement as defined by rule by the Department with a dentist |
12 | | working in or contracted with a local or State government |
13 | | agency or institution or who is providing services as part of a |
14 | | certified school-based program or school-based oral health |
15 | | program. |
16 | | "Public health setting" means a federally qualified health |
17 | | center; a federal, State, or local public health facility; Head |
18 | | Start; a special supplemental nutrition program for Women, |
19 | | Infants, and Children (WIC) facility; or a certified |
20 | | school-based health center or school-based oral health |
21 | | program. |
22 | | "Public health supervision" means the supervision of a |
23 | | public health dental hygienist by a licensed dentist who has a |
24 | | written public health supervision agreement with that public |
25 | | health dental hygienist while working in an approved facility |
26 | | or program that allows the public health dental hygienist to |
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1 | | treat patients, without a dentist first examining the patient |
2 | | and being present in the facility during treatment, (1) who are |
3 | | eligible for Medicaid or (2) who are uninsured and whose |
4 | | household income is not greater than 200% of the federal |
5 | | poverty level. |
6 | | (Source: P.A. 99-25, eff. 1-1-16; 99-492, eff. 12-31-15; |
7 | | 99-680, eff. 1-1-17 .)
|
8 | | (225 ILCS 25/8.1) (from Ch. 111, par. 2308.1)
|
9 | | (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2026)
|
10 | | Sec. 8.1. Permit for the administration of anesthesia and |
11 | | sedation.
|
12 | | (a) No licensed dentist shall administer general |
13 | | anesthesia, deep sedation, or
conscious sedation without first |
14 | | applying for and obtaining a
permit for such purpose from the |
15 | | Department. The Department shall issue
such permit only after |
16 | | ascertaining that the applicant possesses the
minimum |
17 | | qualifications necessary to protect public safety. A person |
18 | | with a
dental degree who administers anesthesia, deep sedation,
|
19 | | or conscious sedation
in an
approved
hospital training program |
20 | | under the supervision of either a licensed
dentist holding such |
21 | | permit or a physician licensed to practice medicine in
all its |
22 | | branches shall not be required to obtain such permit.
|
23 | | (b) In determining the minimum permit qualifications that |
24 | | are necessary to protect public safety, the Department, by |
25 | | rule, shall: |
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1 | | (1) establish the minimum educational and training |
2 | | requirements necessary for a dentist to be issued an |
3 | | appropriate permit; |
4 | | (2) establish the standards for properly equipped |
5 | | dental facilities (other than licensed hospitals and |
6 | | ambulatory surgical treatment centers) in which general |
7 | | anesthesia, deep sedation, or conscious sedation is |
8 | | administered, as necessary to protect public safety; |
9 | | (3) establish minimum requirements for all persons who |
10 | | assist the dentist in the administration of general |
11 | | anesthesia, deep sedation, or conscious sedation, |
12 | | including minimum training requirements for each member of |
13 | | the dental team, monitoring requirements, recordkeeping |
14 | | requirements, and emergency procedures; and |
15 | | (4) ensure that the dentist and all persons assisting |
16 | | the dentist or monitoring the administration of general |
17 | | anesthesia, deep sedation, or conscious sedation maintain |
18 | | current certification in Basic Life Support (BLS) ; and . |
19 | | (5) establish continuing education requirements in |
20 | | sedation techniques for dentists who possess a permit under |
21 | | this Section. |
22 | | When establishing requirements under this Section, the |
23 | | Department shall consider the current American Dental |
24 | | Association guidelines on sedation and general anesthesia, the |
25 | | current "Guidelines for Monitoring and Management of Pediatric |
26 | | Patients During and After Sedation for Diagnostic and |
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1 | | Therapeutic Procedures" established by the American Academy of |
2 | | Pediatrics and the American Academy of Pediatric Dentistry, and |
3 | | the current parameters of care and Office Anesthesia Evaluation |
4 | | (OAE) Manual established by the American Association of Oral |
5 | | and Maxillofacial Surgeons. |
6 | | (c) A licensed dentist must hold an appropriate permit |
7 | | issued under this Section in order to perform dentistry while a |
8 | | nurse anesthetist administers conscious sedation, and a valid |
9 | | written collaborative agreement must exist between the dentist |
10 | | and the nurse anesthetist, in accordance with the Nurse
|
11 | | Practice Act. |
12 | | A licensed dentist must hold an appropriate permit issued |
13 | | under this Section in order to perform dentistry while a nurse |
14 | | anesthetist administers deep sedation or general anesthesia, |
15 | | and a valid written collaborative agreement must exist between |
16 | | the dentist and the nurse anesthetist, in accordance with the |
17 | | Nurse
Practice Act. |
18 | | For the purposes of this subsection (c), "nurse |
19 | | anesthetist" means a licensed certified registered nurse |
20 | | anesthetist who holds a license as an advanced practice |
21 | | registered nurse.
|
22 | | (Source: P.A. 95-399, eff. 1-1-08; 95-639, eff. 1-1-08; 96-328, |
23 | | eff. 8-11-09; revised 10-27-16.)
|
24 | | Section 150. The Health Care Worker Self-Referral Act is |
25 | | amended by changing Section 15 as follows:
|
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1 | | (225 ILCS 47/15)
|
2 | | Sec. 15. Definitions. In this Act:
|
3 | | (a) "Board" means the Health Facilities and Services Review |
4 | | Board.
|
5 | | (b) "Entity" means any individual, partnership, firm, |
6 | | corporation, or
other business that provides health services |
7 | | but does not include an
individual who is a health care worker |
8 | | who provides professional services
to an individual.
|
9 | | (c) "Group practice" means a group of 2 or more health care |
10 | | workers
legally organized as a partnership, professional |
11 | | corporation,
not-for-profit corporation, faculty
practice plan |
12 | | or a similar association in which:
|
13 | | (1) each health care worker who is a member or employee |
14 | | or an
independent contractor of the group provides
|
15 | | substantially the full range of services that the health |
16 | | care worker
routinely provides, including consultation, |
17 | | diagnosis, or treatment,
through the use of office space, |
18 | | facilities, equipment, or personnel of the
group;
|
19 | | (2) the services of the health care workers
are |
20 | | provided through the group, and payments received for |
21 | | health
services are treated as receipts of the group; and
|
22 | | (3) the overhead expenses and the income from the |
23 | | practice are
distributed by methods previously determined |
24 | | by the group.
|
25 | | (d) "Health care worker" means any individual licensed |
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1 | | under the laws of
this State to provide health services, |
2 | | including but not limited to:
dentists licensed under the |
3 | | Illinois Dental Practice Act; dental hygienists
licensed under |
4 | | the Illinois Dental Practice Act; nurses and advanced practice |
5 | | registered
nurses licensed under the Nurse Practice Act;
|
6 | | occupational therapists licensed under
the
Illinois |
7 | | Occupational Therapy Practice Act; optometrists licensed under |
8 | | the
Illinois Optometric Practice Act of 1987; pharmacists |
9 | | licensed under the
Pharmacy Practice Act; physical therapists |
10 | | licensed under the
Illinois Physical Therapy Act; physicians |
11 | | licensed under the Medical
Practice Act of 1987; physician |
12 | | assistants licensed under the Physician
Assistant Practice Act |
13 | | of 1987; podiatric physicians licensed under the Podiatric
|
14 | | Medical Practice Act of 1987; clinical psychologists licensed |
15 | | under the
Clinical Psychologist Licensing Act; clinical social |
16 | | workers licensed under
the Clinical Social Work and Social Work |
17 | | Practice Act; speech-language
pathologists and audiologists |
18 | | licensed under the Illinois Speech-Language
Pathology and |
19 | | Audiology Practice Act; or hearing instrument
dispensers |
20 | | licensed
under the Hearing Instrument Consumer Protection Act, |
21 | | or any of
their successor Acts.
|
22 | | (e) "Health services" means health care procedures and |
23 | | services
provided by or through a health care worker.
|
24 | | (f) "Immediate family member" means a health care worker's |
25 | | spouse,
child, child's spouse, or a parent.
|
26 | | (g) "Investment interest" means an equity or debt security |
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1 | | issued by an
entity, including, without limitation, shares of |
2 | | stock in a corporation,
units or other interests in a |
3 | | partnership, bonds, debentures, notes, or
other equity |
4 | | interests or debt instruments except that investment interest
|
5 | | for purposes of Section 20 does not include interest in a |
6 | | hospital licensed
under the laws of the State of Illinois.
|
7 | | (h) "Investor" means an individual or entity directly or |
8 | | indirectly
owning a legal or beneficial ownership or investment |
9 | | interest, (such as
through an immediate family member, trust, |
10 | | or another entity related to the investor).
|
11 | | (i) "Office practice" includes the facility or facilities |
12 | | at which a health
care worker, on an ongoing basis, provides or |
13 | | supervises the provision of
professional health services to |
14 | | individuals.
|
15 | | (j) "Referral" means any referral of a patient for health |
16 | | services,
including, without limitation:
|
17 | | (1) The forwarding of a patient by one health care |
18 | | worker to another
health care worker or to an entity |
19 | | outside the health care worker's office
practice or group |
20 | | practice that provides health services.
|
21 | | (2) The request or establishment by a health care
|
22 | | worker of a plan of care outside the health care worker's |
23 | | office practice
or group practice
that includes the |
24 | | provision of any health services.
|
25 | | (Source: P.A. 98-214, eff. 8-9-13.)
|
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1 | | Section 155. The Medical Practice Act of 1987 is amended by |
2 | | changing Sections 8.1, 22, 54.2, and 54.5 as follows:
|
3 | | (225 ILCS 60/8.1)
|
4 | | (Section scheduled to be repealed on December 31, 2017) |
5 | | Sec. 8.1. Matters concerning advanced practice registered |
6 | | nurses. Any proposed rules, amendments, second notice |
7 | | materials and adopted rule or amendment materials, and policy |
8 | | statements concerning advanced practice registered nurses |
9 | | shall be presented to the Licensing Board for review and |
10 | | comment. The recommendations of both the Board of Nursing and |
11 | | the Licensing Board shall be presented to the Secretary for |
12 | | consideration in making final decisions. Whenever the Board of |
13 | | Nursing and the Licensing Board disagree on a proposed rule or |
14 | | policy, the Secretary shall convene a joint meeting of the |
15 | | officers of each Board to discuss the resolution of any such |
16 | | disagreements.
|
17 | | (Source: P.A. 97-622, eff. 11-23-11 .)
|
18 | | (225 ILCS 60/22) (from Ch. 111, par. 4400-22)
|
19 | | (Section scheduled to be repealed on December 31, 2017)
|
20 | | Sec. 22. Disciplinary action.
|
21 | | (A) The Department may revoke, suspend, place on probation, |
22 | | reprimand, refuse to issue or renew, or take any other |
23 | | disciplinary or non-disciplinary action as the Department may |
24 | | deem proper
with regard to the license or permit of any person |
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1 | | issued
under this Act, including imposing fines not to exceed |
2 | | $10,000 for each violation, upon any of the following grounds:
|
3 | | (1) Performance of an elective abortion in any place, |
4 | | locale,
facility, or
institution other than:
|
5 | | (a) a facility licensed pursuant to the Ambulatory |
6 | | Surgical Treatment
Center Act;
|
7 | | (b) an institution licensed under the Hospital |
8 | | Licensing Act;
|
9 | | (c) an ambulatory surgical treatment center or |
10 | | hospitalization or care
facility maintained by the |
11 | | State or any agency thereof, where such department
or |
12 | | agency has authority under law to establish and enforce |
13 | | standards for the
ambulatory surgical treatment |
14 | | centers, hospitalization, or care facilities
under its |
15 | | management and control;
|
16 | | (d) ambulatory surgical treatment centers, |
17 | | hospitalization or care
facilities maintained by the |
18 | | Federal Government; or
|
19 | | (e) ambulatory surgical treatment centers, |
20 | | hospitalization or care
facilities maintained by any |
21 | | university or college established under the laws
of |
22 | | this State and supported principally by public funds |
23 | | raised by
taxation.
|
24 | | (2) Performance of an abortion procedure in a wilful |
25 | | and wanton
manner on a
woman who was not pregnant at the |
26 | | time the abortion procedure was
performed.
|
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1 | | (3) A plea of guilty or nolo contendere, finding of |
2 | | guilt, jury verdict, or entry of judgment or sentencing, |
3 | | including, but not limited to, convictions, preceding |
4 | | sentences of supervision, conditional discharge, or first |
5 | | offender probation, under the laws of any jurisdiction of |
6 | | the United States of any crime that is a felony.
|
7 | | (4) Gross negligence in practice under this Act.
|
8 | | (5) Engaging in dishonorable, unethical or |
9 | | unprofessional
conduct of a
character likely to deceive, |
10 | | defraud or harm the public.
|
11 | | (6) Obtaining any fee by fraud, deceit, or
|
12 | | misrepresentation.
|
13 | | (7) Habitual or excessive use or abuse of drugs defined |
14 | | in law
as
controlled substances, of alcohol, or of any |
15 | | other substances which results in
the inability to practice |
16 | | with reasonable judgment, skill or safety.
|
17 | | (8) Practicing under a false or, except as provided by |
18 | | law, an
assumed
name.
|
19 | | (9) Fraud or misrepresentation in applying for, or |
20 | | procuring, a
license
under this Act or in connection with |
21 | | applying for renewal of a license under
this Act.
|
22 | | (10) Making a false or misleading statement regarding |
23 | | their
skill or the
efficacy or value of the medicine, |
24 | | treatment, or remedy prescribed by them at
their direction |
25 | | in the treatment of any disease or other condition of the |
26 | | body
or mind.
|
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1 | | (11) Allowing another person or organization to use |
2 | | their
license, procured
under this Act, to practice.
|
3 | | (12) Adverse action taken by another state or |
4 | | jurisdiction
against a license
or other authorization to |
5 | | practice as a medical doctor, doctor of osteopathy,
doctor |
6 | | of osteopathic medicine or
doctor of chiropractic, a |
7 | | certified copy of the record of the action taken by
the |
8 | | other state or jurisdiction being prima facie evidence |
9 | | thereof. This includes any adverse action taken by a State |
10 | | or federal agency that prohibits a medical doctor, doctor |
11 | | of osteopathy, doctor of osteopathic medicine, or doctor of |
12 | | chiropractic from providing services to the agency's |
13 | | participants.
|
14 | | (13) Violation of any provision of this Act or of the |
15 | | Medical
Practice Act
prior to the repeal of that Act, or |
16 | | violation of the rules, or a final
administrative action of |
17 | | the Secretary, after consideration of the
recommendation |
18 | | of the Disciplinary Board.
|
19 | | (14) Violation of the prohibition against fee |
20 | | splitting in Section 22.2 of this Act.
|
21 | | (15) A finding by the Disciplinary Board that the
|
22 | | registrant after
having his or her license placed on |
23 | | probationary status or subjected to
conditions or |
24 | | restrictions violated the terms of the probation or failed |
25 | | to
comply with such terms or conditions.
|
26 | | (16) Abandonment of a patient.
|
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1 | | (17) Prescribing, selling, administering, |
2 | | distributing, giving
or
self-administering any drug |
3 | | classified as a controlled substance (designated
product) |
4 | | or narcotic for other than medically accepted therapeutic
|
5 | | purposes.
|
6 | | (18) Promotion of the sale of drugs, devices, |
7 | | appliances or
goods provided
for a patient in such manner |
8 | | as to exploit the patient for financial gain of
the |
9 | | physician.
|
10 | | (19) Offering, undertaking or agreeing to cure or treat
|
11 | | disease by a secret
method, procedure, treatment or |
12 | | medicine, or the treating, operating or
prescribing for any |
13 | | human condition by a method, means or procedure which the
|
14 | | licensee refuses to divulge upon demand of the Department.
|
15 | | (20) Immoral conduct in the commission of any act |
16 | | including,
but not limited to, commission of an act of |
17 | | sexual misconduct related to the
licensee's
practice.
|
18 | | (21) Wilfully making or filing false records or reports |
19 | | in his
or her
practice as a physician, including, but not |
20 | | limited to, false records to
support claims against the |
21 | | medical assistance program of the Department of Healthcare |
22 | | and Family Services (formerly Department of
Public Aid)
|
23 | | under the Illinois Public Aid Code.
|
24 | | (22) Wilful omission to file or record, or wilfully |
25 | | impeding
the filing or
recording, or inducing another |
26 | | person to omit to file or record, medical
reports as |
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|
1 | | required by law, or wilfully failing to report an instance |
2 | | of
suspected abuse or neglect as required by law.
|
3 | | (23) Being named as a perpetrator in an indicated |
4 | | report by
the Department
of Children and Family Services |
5 | | under the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting
Act, and |
6 | | upon proof by clear and convincing evidence that the |
7 | | licensee has
caused a child to be an abused child or |
8 | | neglected child as defined in the
Abused and Neglected |
9 | | Child Reporting Act.
|
10 | | (24) Solicitation of professional patronage by any
|
11 | | corporation, agents or
persons, or profiting from those |
12 | | representing themselves to be agents of the
licensee.
|
13 | | (25) Gross and wilful and continued overcharging for
|
14 | | professional services,
including filing false statements |
15 | | for collection of fees for which services are
not rendered, |
16 | | including, but not limited to, filing such false statements |
17 | | for
collection of monies for services not rendered from the |
18 | | medical assistance
program of the Department of Healthcare |
19 | | and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid)
|
20 | | under the Illinois Public Aid
Code.
|
21 | | (26) A pattern of practice or other behavior which
|
22 | | demonstrates
incapacity
or incompetence to practice under |
23 | | this Act.
|
24 | | (27) Mental illness or disability which results in the
|
25 | | inability to
practice under this Act with reasonable |
26 | | judgment, skill or safety.
|
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1 | | (28) Physical illness, including, but not limited to,
|
2 | | deterioration through
the aging process, or loss of motor |
3 | | skill which results in a physician's
inability to practice |
4 | | under this Act with reasonable judgment, skill or
safety.
|
5 | | (29) Cheating on or attempt to subvert the licensing
|
6 | | examinations
administered under this Act.
|
7 | | (30) Wilfully or negligently violating the |
8 | | confidentiality
between
physician and patient except as |
9 | | required by law.
|
10 | | (31) The use of any false, fraudulent, or deceptive |
11 | | statement
in any
document connected with practice under |
12 | | this Act.
|
13 | | (32) Aiding and abetting an individual not licensed |
14 | | under this
Act in the
practice of a profession licensed |
15 | | under this Act.
|
16 | | (33) Violating state or federal laws or regulations |
17 | | relating
to controlled
substances, legend
drugs, or |
18 | | ephedra as defined in the Ephedra Prohibition Act.
|
19 | | (34) Failure to report to the Department any adverse |
20 | | final
action taken
against them by another licensing |
21 | | jurisdiction (any other state or any
territory of the |
22 | | United States or any foreign state or country), by any peer
|
23 | | review body, by any health care institution, by any |
24 | | professional society or
association related to practice |
25 | | under this Act, by any governmental agency, by
any law |
26 | | enforcement agency, or by any court for acts or conduct |
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1 | | similar to acts
or conduct which would constitute grounds |
2 | | for action as defined in this
Section.
|
3 | | (35) Failure to report to the Department surrender of a
|
4 | | license or
authorization to practice as a medical doctor, a |
5 | | doctor of osteopathy, a
doctor of osteopathic medicine, or |
6 | | doctor
of chiropractic in another state or jurisdiction, or |
7 | | surrender of membership on
any medical staff or in any |
8 | | medical or professional association or society,
while |
9 | | under disciplinary investigation by any of those |
10 | | authorities or bodies,
for acts or conduct similar to acts |
11 | | or conduct which would constitute grounds
for action as |
12 | | defined in this Section.
|
13 | | (36) Failure to report to the Department any adverse |
14 | | judgment,
settlement,
or award arising from a liability |
15 | | claim related to acts or conduct similar to
acts or conduct |
16 | | which would constitute grounds for action as defined in |
17 | | this
Section.
|
18 | | (37) Failure to provide copies of medical records as |
19 | | required
by law.
|
20 | | (38) Failure to furnish the Department, its |
21 | | investigators or
representatives, relevant information, |
22 | | legally requested by the Department
after consultation |
23 | | with the Chief Medical Coordinator or the Deputy Medical
|
24 | | Coordinator.
|
25 | | (39) Violating the Health Care Worker Self-Referral
|
26 | | Act.
|
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1 | | (40) Willful failure to provide notice when notice is |
2 | | required
under the
Parental Notice of Abortion Act of 1995.
|
3 | | (41) Failure to establish and maintain records of |
4 | | patient care and
treatment as required by this law.
|
5 | | (42) Entering into an excessive number of written |
6 | | collaborative
agreements with licensed advanced practice |
7 | | registered nurses resulting in an inability to
adequately |
8 | | collaborate.
|
9 | | (43) Repeated failure to adequately collaborate with a |
10 | | licensed advanced practice registered nurse. |
11 | | (44) Violating the Compassionate Use of Medical |
12 | | Cannabis Pilot Program Act.
|
13 | | (45) Entering into an excessive number of written |
14 | | collaborative agreements with licensed prescribing |
15 | | psychologists resulting in an inability to adequately |
16 | | collaborate. |
17 | | (46) Repeated failure to adequately collaborate with a |
18 | | licensed prescribing psychologist. |
19 | | Except
for actions involving the ground numbered (26), all |
20 | | proceedings to suspend,
revoke, place on probationary status, |
21 | | or take any
other disciplinary action as the Department may |
22 | | deem proper, with regard to a
license on any of the foregoing |
23 | | grounds, must be commenced within 5 years next
after receipt by |
24 | | the Department of a complaint alleging the commission of or
|
25 | | notice of the conviction order for any of the acts described |
26 | | herein. Except
for the grounds numbered (8), (9), (26), and |
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1 | | (29), no action shall be commenced more
than 10 years after the |
2 | | date of the incident or act alleged to have violated
this |
3 | | Section. For actions involving the ground numbered (26), a |
4 | | pattern of practice or other behavior includes all incidents |
5 | | alleged to be part of the pattern of practice or other behavior |
6 | | that occurred, or a report pursuant to Section 23 of this Act |
7 | | received, within the 10-year period preceding the filing of the |
8 | | complaint. In the event of the settlement of any claim or cause |
9 | | of action
in favor of the claimant or the reduction to final |
10 | | judgment of any civil action
in favor of the plaintiff, such |
11 | | claim, cause of action or civil action being
grounded on the |
12 | | allegation that a person licensed under this Act was negligent
|
13 | | in providing care, the Department shall have an additional |
14 | | period of 2 years
from the date of notification to the |
15 | | Department under Section 23 of this Act
of such settlement or |
16 | | final judgment in which to investigate and
commence formal |
17 | | disciplinary proceedings under Section 36 of this Act, except
|
18 | | as otherwise provided by law. The time during which the holder |
19 | | of the license
was outside the State of Illinois shall not be |
20 | | included within any period of
time limiting the commencement of |
21 | | disciplinary action by the Department.
|
22 | | The entry of an order or judgment by any circuit court |
23 | | establishing that any
person holding a license under this Act |
24 | | is a person in need of mental treatment
operates as a |
25 | | suspension of that license. That person may resume their
|
26 | | practice only upon the entry of a Departmental order based upon |
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1 | | a finding by
the Disciplinary Board that they have been |
2 | | determined to be recovered
from mental illness by the court and |
3 | | upon the Disciplinary Board's
recommendation that they be |
4 | | permitted to resume their practice.
|
5 | | The Department may refuse to issue or take disciplinary |
6 | | action concerning the license of any person
who fails to file a |
7 | | return, or to pay the tax, penalty or interest shown in a
filed |
8 | | return, or to pay any final assessment of tax, penalty or |
9 | | interest, as
required by any tax Act administered by the |
10 | | Illinois Department of Revenue,
until such time as the |
11 | | requirements of any such tax Act are satisfied as
determined by |
12 | | the Illinois Department of Revenue.
|
13 | | The Department, upon the recommendation of the |
14 | | Disciplinary Board, shall
adopt rules which set forth standards |
15 | | to be used in determining:
|
16 | | (a) when a person will be deemed sufficiently |
17 | | rehabilitated to warrant the
public trust;
|
18 | | (b) what constitutes dishonorable, unethical or |
19 | | unprofessional conduct of
a character likely to deceive, |
20 | | defraud, or harm the public;
|
21 | | (c) what constitutes immoral conduct in the commission |
22 | | of any act,
including, but not limited to, commission of an |
23 | | act of sexual misconduct
related
to the licensee's |
24 | | practice; and
|
25 | | (d) what constitutes gross negligence in the practice |
26 | | of medicine.
|
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1 | | However, no such rule shall be admissible into evidence in |
2 | | any civil action
except for review of a licensing or other |
3 | | disciplinary action under this Act.
|
4 | | In enforcing this Section, the Disciplinary Board or the |
5 | | Licensing Board,
upon a showing of a possible violation, may |
6 | | compel, in the case of the Disciplinary Board, any individual |
7 | | who is licensed to
practice under this Act or holds a permit to |
8 | | practice under this Act, or, in the case of the Licensing |
9 | | Board, any individual who has applied for licensure or a permit
|
10 | | pursuant to this Act, to submit to a mental or physical |
11 | | examination and evaluation, or both,
which may include a |
12 | | substance abuse or sexual offender evaluation, as required by |
13 | | the Licensing Board or Disciplinary Board and at the expense of |
14 | | the Department. The Disciplinary Board or Licensing Board shall |
15 | | specifically designate the examining physician licensed to |
16 | | practice medicine in all of its branches or, if applicable, the |
17 | | multidisciplinary team involved in providing the mental or |
18 | | physical examination and evaluation, or both. The |
19 | | multidisciplinary team shall be led by a physician licensed to |
20 | | practice medicine in all of its branches and may consist of one |
21 | | or more or a combination of physicians licensed to practice |
22 | | medicine in all of its branches, licensed chiropractic |
23 | | physicians, licensed clinical psychologists, licensed clinical |
24 | | social workers, licensed clinical professional counselors, and |
25 | | other professional and administrative staff. Any examining |
26 | | physician or member of the multidisciplinary team may require |
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1 | | any person ordered to submit to an examination and evaluation |
2 | | pursuant to this Section to submit to any additional |
3 | | supplemental testing deemed necessary to complete any |
4 | | examination or evaluation process, including, but not limited |
5 | | to, blood testing, urinalysis, psychological testing, or |
6 | | neuropsychological testing.
The Disciplinary Board, the |
7 | | Licensing Board, or the Department may order the examining
|
8 | | physician or any member of the multidisciplinary team to |
9 | | provide to the Department, the Disciplinary Board, or the |
10 | | Licensing Board any and all records, including business |
11 | | records, that relate to the examination and evaluation, |
12 | | including any supplemental testing performed. The Disciplinary |
13 | | Board, the Licensing Board, or the Department may order the |
14 | | examining physician or any member of the multidisciplinary team |
15 | | to present testimony concerning this examination
and |
16 | | evaluation of the licensee, permit holder, or applicant, |
17 | | including testimony concerning any supplemental testing or |
18 | | documents relating to the examination and evaluation. No |
19 | | information, report, record, or other documents in any way |
20 | | related to the examination and evaluation shall be excluded by |
21 | | reason of
any common
law or statutory privilege relating to |
22 | | communication between the licensee, permit holder, or
|
23 | | applicant and
the examining physician or any member of the |
24 | | multidisciplinary team.
No authorization is necessary from the |
25 | | licensee, permit holder, or applicant ordered to undergo an |
26 | | evaluation and examination for the examining physician or any |
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1 | | member of the multidisciplinary team to provide information, |
2 | | reports, records, or other documents or to provide any |
3 | | testimony regarding the examination and evaluation. The |
4 | | individual to be examined may have, at his or her own expense, |
5 | | another
physician of his or her choice present during all |
6 | | aspects of the examination.
Failure of any individual to submit |
7 | | to mental or physical examination and evaluation, or both, when
|
8 | | directed, shall result in an automatic suspension, without |
9 | | hearing, until such time
as the individual submits to the |
10 | | examination. If the Disciplinary Board or Licensing Board finds |
11 | | a physician unable
to practice following an examination and |
12 | | evaluation because of the reasons set forth in this Section, |
13 | | the Disciplinary
Board or Licensing Board shall require such |
14 | | physician to submit to care, counseling, or treatment
by |
15 | | physicians, or other health care professionals, approved or |
16 | | designated by the Disciplinary Board, as a condition
for |
17 | | issued, continued, reinstated, or renewed licensure to |
18 | | practice. Any physician,
whose license was granted pursuant to |
19 | | Sections 9, 17, or 19 of this Act, or,
continued, reinstated, |
20 | | renewed, disciplined or supervised, subject to such
terms, |
21 | | conditions or restrictions who shall fail to comply with such |
22 | | terms,
conditions or restrictions, or to complete a required |
23 | | program of care,
counseling, or treatment, as determined by the |
24 | | Chief Medical Coordinator or
Deputy Medical Coordinators, |
25 | | shall be referred to the Secretary for a
determination as to |
26 | | whether the licensee shall have their license suspended
|
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1 | | immediately, pending a hearing by the Disciplinary Board. In |
2 | | instances in
which the Secretary immediately suspends a license |
3 | | under this Section, a hearing
upon such person's license must |
4 | | be convened by the Disciplinary Board within 15
days after such |
5 | | suspension and completed without appreciable delay. The
|
6 | | Disciplinary Board shall have the authority to review the |
7 | | subject physician's
record of treatment and counseling |
8 | | regarding the impairment, to the extent
permitted by applicable |
9 | | federal statutes and regulations safeguarding the
|
10 | | confidentiality of medical records.
|
11 | | An individual licensed under this Act, affected under this |
12 | | Section, shall be
afforded an opportunity to demonstrate to the |
13 | | Disciplinary Board that they can
resume practice in compliance |
14 | | with acceptable and prevailing standards under
the provisions |
15 | | of their license.
|
16 | | The Department may promulgate rules for the imposition of |
17 | | fines in
disciplinary cases, not to exceed
$10,000 for each |
18 | | violation of this Act. Fines
may be imposed in conjunction with |
19 | | other forms of disciplinary action, but
shall not be the |
20 | | exclusive disposition of any disciplinary action arising out
of |
21 | | conduct resulting in death or injury to a patient. Any funds |
22 | | collected from
such fines shall be deposited in the Illinois |
23 | | State Medical Disciplinary Fund.
|
24 | | All fines imposed under this Section shall be paid within |
25 | | 60 days after the effective date of the order imposing the fine |
26 | | or in accordance with the terms set forth in the order imposing |
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1 | | the fine. |
2 | | (B) The Department shall revoke the license or
permit |
3 | | issued under this Act to practice medicine or a chiropractic |
4 | | physician who
has been convicted a second time of committing |
5 | | any felony under the
Illinois Controlled Substances Act or the |
6 | | Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, or who |
7 | | has been convicted a second time of
committing a Class 1 felony |
8 | | under Sections 8A-3 and 8A-6 of the Illinois Public
Aid Code. A |
9 | | person whose license or permit is revoked
under
this subsection |
10 | | B shall be prohibited from practicing
medicine or treating |
11 | | human ailments without the use of drugs and without
operative |
12 | | surgery.
|
13 | | (C) The Department shall not revoke, suspend, place on |
14 | | probation, reprimand, refuse to issue or renew, or take any |
15 | | other disciplinary or non-disciplinary action against the |
16 | | license or permit issued under this Act to practice medicine to |
17 | | a physician based solely upon the recommendation of the |
18 | | physician to an eligible patient regarding, or prescription |
19 | | for, or treatment with, an investigational drug, biological |
20 | | product, or device. |
21 | | (D) The Disciplinary Board shall recommend to the
|
22 | | Department civil
penalties and any other appropriate |
23 | | discipline in disciplinary cases when the
Board finds that a |
24 | | physician willfully performed an abortion with actual
|
25 | | knowledge that the person upon whom the abortion has been |
26 | | performed is a minor
or an incompetent person without notice as |
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1 | | required under the Parental Notice
of Abortion Act of 1995. |
2 | | Upon the Board's recommendation, the Department shall
impose, |
3 | | for the first violation, a civil penalty of $1,000 and for a |
4 | | second or
subsequent violation, a civil penalty of $5,000.
|
5 | | (Source: P.A. 98-601, eff. 12-30-13; 98-668, eff. 6-25-14; |
6 | | 98-1140, eff. 12-30-14; 99-270, eff. 1-1-16; 99-933, eff. |
7 | | 1-27-17.)
|
8 | | (225 ILCS 60/54.2) |
9 | | (Section scheduled to be repealed on December 31, 2017) |
10 | | Sec. 54.2. Physician delegation of authority. |
11 | | (a) Nothing in this Act shall be construed to limit the |
12 | | delegation of patient care tasks or duties by a physician, to a |
13 | | licensed practical nurse, a registered professional nurse, or |
14 | | other licensed person practicing within the scope of his or her |
15 | | individual licensing Act. Delegation by a physician licensed to |
16 | | practice medicine in all its branches to physician assistants |
17 | | or advanced practice registered nurses is also addressed in |
18 | | Section 54.5 of this Act. No physician may delegate any patient |
19 | | care task or duty that is statutorily or by rule mandated to be |
20 | | performed by a physician. |
21 | | (b) In an office or practice setting and within a |
22 | | physician-patient relationship, a physician may delegate |
23 | | patient care tasks or duties to an unlicensed person who |
24 | | possesses appropriate training and experience provided a |
25 | | health care professional, who is practicing within the scope of |
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1 | | such licensed professional's individual licensing Act, is on |
2 | | site to provide assistance. |
3 | | (c) Any such patient care task or duty delegated to a |
4 | | licensed or unlicensed person must be within the scope of |
5 | | practice, education, training, or experience of the delegating |
6 | | physician and within the context of a physician-patient |
7 | | relationship. |
8 | | (d) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to affect |
9 | | referrals for professional services required by law. |
10 | | (e) The Department shall have the authority to promulgate |
11 | | rules concerning a physician's delegation, including but not |
12 | | limited to, the use of light emitting devices for patient care |
13 | | or treatment.
|
14 | | (f) Nothing in this Act shall be construed to limit the |
15 | | method of delegation that may be authorized by any means, |
16 | | including, but not limited to, oral, written, electronic, |
17 | | standing orders, protocols, guidelines, or verbal orders. |
18 | | (Source: P.A. 96-618, eff. 1-1-10; 97-622, eff. 11-23-11 .)
|
19 | | (225 ILCS 60/54.5)
|
20 | | (Section scheduled to be repealed on December 31, 2017)
|
21 | | Sec. 54.5. Physician delegation of authority to physician |
22 | | assistants, advanced practice registered nurses, and |
23 | | prescribing psychologists.
|
24 | | (a) Physicians licensed to practice medicine in all its
|
25 | | branches may delegate care and treatment responsibilities to a
|
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1 | | physician assistant under guidelines in accordance with the
|
2 | | requirements of the Physician Assistant Practice Act of
1987. A |
3 | | physician licensed to practice medicine in all its
branches may |
4 | | enter into supervising physician agreements with
no more than 5 |
5 | | physician assistants as set forth in subsection (a) of Section |
6 | | 7 of the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987.
|
7 | | (b) A physician licensed to practice medicine in all its
|
8 | | branches in active clinical practice may collaborate with an |
9 | | advanced practice registered
nurse in accordance with the |
10 | | requirements of the Nurse Practice Act. Collaboration
is for |
11 | | the purpose of providing medical consultation,
and no |
12 | | employment relationship is required. A
written collaborative |
13 | | agreement shall
conform to the requirements of Section 65-35 of |
14 | | the Nurse Practice Act. The written collaborative agreement |
15 | | shall
be for
services in the same area of practice or specialty |
16 | | as the collaborating physician in
his or her clinical medical |
17 | | practice.
A written collaborative agreement shall be adequate |
18 | | with respect to collaboration
with advanced practice |
19 | | registered nurses if all of the following apply:
|
20 | | (1) The agreement is written to promote the exercise of |
21 | | professional judgment by the advanced practice registered |
22 | | nurse commensurate with his or her education and |
23 | | experience.
|
24 | | (2) The advanced advance practice registered nurse |
25 | | provides services based upon a written collaborative |
26 | | agreement with the collaborating physician, except as set |
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1 | | forth in subsection (b-5) of this Section. With respect to |
2 | | labor and delivery, the collaborating physician must |
3 | | provide delivery services in order to participate with a |
4 | | certified nurse midwife. |
5 | | (3) Methods of communication are available with the |
6 | | collaborating physician in person or through |
7 | | telecommunications for consultation, collaboration, and |
8 | | referral as needed to address patient care needs.
|
9 | | (b-5) An anesthesiologist or physician licensed to |
10 | | practice medicine in
all its branches may collaborate with a |
11 | | certified registered nurse anesthetist
in accordance with |
12 | | Section 65-35 of the Nurse Practice Act for the provision of |
13 | | anesthesia services. With respect to the provision of |
14 | | anesthesia services, the collaborating anesthesiologist or |
15 | | physician shall have training and experience in the delivery of |
16 | | anesthesia services consistent with Department rules. |
17 | | Collaboration shall be
adequate if:
|
18 | | (1) an anesthesiologist or a physician
participates in |
19 | | the joint formulation and joint approval of orders or
|
20 | | guidelines and periodically reviews such orders and the |
21 | | services provided
patients under such orders; and
|
22 | | (2) for anesthesia services, the anesthesiologist
or |
23 | | physician participates through discussion of and agreement |
24 | | with the
anesthesia plan and is physically present and |
25 | | available on the premises during
the delivery of anesthesia |
26 | | services for
diagnosis, consultation, and treatment of |
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1 | | emergency medical conditions.
Anesthesia services in a |
2 | | hospital shall be conducted in accordance with
Section 10.7 |
3 | | of the Hospital Licensing Act and in an ambulatory surgical
|
4 | | treatment center in accordance with Section 6.5 of the |
5 | | Ambulatory Surgical
Treatment Center Act.
|
6 | | (b-10) The anesthesiologist or operating physician must |
7 | | agree with the
anesthesia plan prior to the delivery of |
8 | | services.
|
9 | | (c) The supervising physician shall have access to the
|
10 | | medical records of all patients attended by a physician
|
11 | | assistant. The collaborating physician shall have access to
the |
12 | | medical records of all patients attended to by an
advanced |
13 | | practice registered nurse.
|
14 | | (d) (Blank).
|
15 | | (e) A physician shall not be liable for the acts or
|
16 | | omissions of a prescribing psychologist, physician assistant, |
17 | | or advanced practice registered
nurse solely on the basis of |
18 | | having signed a
supervision agreement or guidelines or a |
19 | | collaborative
agreement, an order, a standing medical order, a
|
20 | | standing delegation order, or other order or guideline
|
21 | | authorizing a prescribing psychologist, physician assistant, |
22 | | or advanced practice registered
nurse to perform acts, unless |
23 | | the physician has
reason to believe the prescribing |
24 | | psychologist, physician assistant, or advanced
practice |
25 | | registered nurse lacked the competency to perform
the act or |
26 | | acts or commits willful and wanton misconduct.
|
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1 | | (f) A collaborating physician may, but is not required to, |
2 | | delegate prescriptive authority to an advanced practice |
3 | | registered nurse as part of a written collaborative agreement, |
4 | | and the delegation of prescriptive authority shall conform to |
5 | | the requirements of Section 65-40 of the Nurse Practice Act. |
6 | | (g) A supervising physician may, but is not required to, |
7 | | delegate prescriptive authority to a physician assistant as |
8 | | part of a written supervision agreement, and the delegation of |
9 | | prescriptive authority shall conform to the requirements of |
10 | | Section 7.5 of the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987. |
11 | | (h) (Blank). |
12 | | (i) A collaborating physician shall delegate prescriptive |
13 | | authority to a prescribing psychologist as part of a written |
14 | | collaborative agreement, and the delegation of prescriptive |
15 | | authority shall conform to the requirements of Section 4.3 of |
16 | | the Clinical Psychologist Licensing Act. |
17 | | (Source: P.A. 98-192, eff. 1-1-14; 98-668, eff. 6-25-14; |
18 | | 99-173, eff. 7-29-15 .)
|
19 | | Section 160. The Nurse Practice Act is amended by changing |
20 | | Sections 50-10, 50-15, 50-20, 50-50, 50-55, 50-60, 50-65, |
21 | | 50-70, 50-75, 55-10, 55-20, 55-30, 60-5, 60-10, 60-25, 60-35, |
22 | | 65-5, 65-10, 65-15, 65-20, 65-25, 65-30, 65-35, 65-35.1, 65-40, |
23 | | 65-45, 65-50, 65-55, 65-65, 70-5, 70-10, 70-20, 70-35, 70-40, |
24 | | 70-50, 70-60, 70-75, 70-80, 70-85, 70-100, 70-140, 70-145, |
25 | | 70-160, 75-10, 75-15, 75-20, 80-15, and 80-35 and the heading |
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|
1 | | of Articles 65 and 75 and by adding Sections 50-13, 50-26, |
2 | | 55-11, 60-11, 70-81, and 70-103 as follows:
|
3 | | (225 ILCS 65/50-10)
(was 225 ILCS 65/5-10)
|
4 | | (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)
|
5 | | Sec. 50-10. Definitions. Each of the following terms, when |
6 | | used
in this Act, shall have the meaning ascribed to it in this |
7 | | Section, except
where the context clearly indicates otherwise:
|
8 | | "Academic year" means the customary annual schedule of |
9 | | courses at a
college, university, or approved school, |
10 | | customarily regarded as the school
year as distinguished from |
11 | | the calendar year.
|
12 | | "Address of record" means the designated address recorded |
13 | | by the Department in the applicant's or licensee's application |
14 | | file or license file as maintained by the Department's |
15 | | licensure maintenance unit. |
16 | | "Advanced practice registered nurse" or "APRN" "APN" means |
17 | | a person who has met the qualifications for a (i) certified |
18 | | nurse midwife (CNM); (ii) certified nurse practitioner (CNP); |
19 | | (iii) certified registered nurse anesthetist (CRNA); or (iv) |
20 | | clinical nurse specialist (CNS) and has been licensed by the |
21 | | Department. All advanced practice registered nurses licensed |
22 | | and practicing in the State of Illinois shall use the title |
23 | | APRN APN and may use specialty credentials CNM, CNP, CRNA, or |
24 | | CNS after their name. All advanced practice registered nurses |
25 | | may only practice in accordance with national certification and |
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|
1 | | this Act.
|
2 | | "Advisory Board" means the Illinois Nursing Workforce |
3 | | Center Advisory Board. |
4 | | "Approved program of professional nursing education" and |
5 | | "approved
program of practical nursing education" are programs |
6 | | of professional or
practical nursing, respectively, approved |
7 | | by the Department under the
provisions of this Act.
|
8 | | "Board" means the Board of Nursing appointed by the |
9 | | Secretary. |
10 | | "Center" means the Illinois Nursing Workforce Center. |
11 | | "Collaboration" means a process involving 2 or more health |
12 | | care professionals working together, each contributing one's |
13 | | respective area of expertise to provide more comprehensive |
14 | | patient care. |
15 | | "Competence" means an expected and measurable level of |
16 | | performance that integrates knowledge, skills, abilities, and |
17 | | judgment based on established scientific knowledge and |
18 | | expectations for nursing practice. |
19 | | "Comprehensive nursing assessment" means the gathering of |
20 | | information about the patient's physiological, psychological, |
21 | | sociological, and spiritual status on an ongoing basis by a |
22 | | registered professional nurse and is the first step in |
23 | | implementing and guiding the nursing plan of care. |
24 | | "Consultation" means the process whereby an advanced |
25 | | practice registered nurse seeks the advice or opinion of |
26 | | another health care professional. |
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1 | | "Credentialed" means the process of assessing and |
2 | | validating the qualifications of a health care professional. |
3 | | "Current nursing practice update course" means a planned |
4 | | nursing education curriculum approved by the Department |
5 | | consisting of activities that have educational objectives, |
6 | | instructional methods, content or subject matter, clinical |
7 | | practice, and evaluation methods, related to basic review and |
8 | | updating content and specifically planned for those nurses |
9 | | previously licensed in the United States or its territories and |
10 | | preparing for reentry into nursing practice. |
11 | | "Dentist" means a person licensed to practice dentistry |
12 | | under the Illinois Dental Practice Act. |
13 | | "Department" means the Department of Financial and |
14 | | Professional Regulation. |
15 | | "Email address of record" means the designated email |
16 | | address recorded by the Department in the applicant's |
17 | | application file or the licensee's license file, as maintained |
18 | | by the Department's licensure maintenance unit. |
19 | | "Focused nursing assessment" means an appraisal of an |
20 | | individual's status and current situation, contributing to the |
21 | | comprehensive nursing assessment performed by the registered |
22 | | professional nurse or advanced practice registered nurse or the |
23 | | assessment by the physician assistant, physician, dentist, |
24 | | podiatric physician, or other licensed health care |
25 | | professional, as determined by the Department, supporting |
26 | | ongoing data collection, and deciding who needs to be informed |
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| | HB0313 Engrossed | - 294 - | LRB100 04130 SMS 14135 b |
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1 | | of the information and when to inform. |
2 | | "Hospital affiliate" means a corporation, partnership, |
3 | | joint venture, limited liability company, or similar |
4 | | organization, other than a hospital, that is devoted primarily |
5 | | to the provision, management, or support of health care |
6 | | services and that directly or indirectly controls, is |
7 | | controlled by, or is under common control of the hospital. For |
8 | | the purposes of this definition, "control" means having at |
9 | | least an equal or a majority ownership or membership interest. |
10 | | A hospital affiliate shall be 100% owned or controlled by any |
11 | | combination of hospitals, their parent corporations, or |
12 | | physicians licensed to practice medicine in all its branches in |
13 | | Illinois. "Hospital affiliate" does not include a health |
14 | | maintenance organization regulated under the Health |
15 | | Maintenance Organization Act. |
16 | | "Impaired nurse" means a nurse licensed under this Act who |
17 | | is unable to practice with reasonable skill and safety because |
18 | | of a physical or mental disability as evidenced by a written |
19 | | determination or written consent based on clinical evidence, |
20 | | including loss of motor skills, abuse of drugs or alcohol, or a |
21 | | psychiatric disorder, of sufficient degree to diminish his or |
22 | | her ability to deliver competent patient care. |
23 | | "License-pending advanced practice registered nurse" means |
24 | | a registered professional nurse who has completed all |
25 | | requirements for licensure as an advanced practice registered |
26 | | nurse except the certification examination and has applied to |
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1 | | take the next available certification exam and received a |
2 | | temporary permit license from the Department. |
3 | | "License-pending registered nurse" means a person who has |
4 | | passed the Department-approved registered nurse licensure exam |
5 | | and has applied for a license from the Department. A |
6 | | license-pending registered nurse shall use the title "RN lic |
7 | | pend" on all documentation related to nursing practice. |
8 | | "Nursing intervention" means any treatment based on |
9 | | clinical nursing judgment or knowledge that a nurse performs. |
10 | | An individual or entity shall not mandate that a registered |
11 | | professional nurse delegate nursing interventions if the |
12 | | registered professional nurse determines it is inappropriate |
13 | | to do so. A nurse shall not be subject to disciplinary or any |
14 | | other adverse action for refusing to delegate a nursing |
15 | | intervention based on patient safety. |
16 | | "Physician" means a person licensed to practice medicine in |
17 | | all its branches under the Medical Practice Act of 1987. |
18 | | "Podiatric physician" means a person licensed to practice |
19 | | podiatry under the Podiatric Medical Practice Act of 1987.
|
20 | | "Practical nurse" or "licensed practical nurse" means a |
21 | | person who is
licensed as a practical nurse under this Act and |
22 | | practices practical
nursing as defined in this Act. Only a |
23 | | practical nurse
licensed under this Act is entitled to use the |
24 | | title "licensed practical
nurse" and the abbreviation |
25 | | "L.P.N.".
|
26 | | "Practical nursing" means the performance of
nursing |
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1 | | interventions acts requiring the basic nursing knowledge, |
2 | | judgment, and skill
acquired by means of completion of an |
3 | | approved practical nursing education
program. Practical |
4 | | nursing includes assisting in the nursing process under the |
5 | | guidance of as
delegated by a registered professional nurse or |
6 | | an advanced practice registered nurse. The
practical nurse may |
7 | | work under the direction of a licensed physician, dentist, |
8 | | podiatric physician, or other health care professional |
9 | | determined by the Department.
|
10 | | "Privileged" means the authorization granted by the |
11 | | governing body of a healthcare facility, agency, or |
12 | | organization to provide specific patient care services within |
13 | | well-defined limits, based on qualifications reviewed in the |
14 | | credentialing process.
|
15 | | "Registered Nurse" or "Registered Professional Nurse" |
16 | | means a person
who is licensed as a professional nurse under |
17 | | this Act and practices
nursing as defined in
this Act. Only a |
18 | | registered
nurse licensed under this Act is entitled to use the
|
19 | | titles "registered nurse" and "registered professional nurse" |
20 | | and the
abbreviation, "R.N.".
|
21 | | "Registered professional nursing practice" means a |
22 | | scientific process founded on a professional body of knowledge |
23 | | that includes, but is not limited to, the protection, |
24 | | promotion, and optimization of health and abilities, |
25 | | prevention of illness and injury, development and |
26 | | implementation of the nursing plan of care, facilitation of |
|
| | HB0313 Engrossed | - 297 - | LRB100 04130 SMS 14135 b |
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|
1 | | nursing interventions to alleviate suffering, care |
2 | | coordination, and advocacy in the care of individuals, |
3 | | families, groups, communities, and populations. "Registered |
4 | | professional nursing practice" does not include the act of |
5 | | medical diagnosis or prescription of medical therapeutic or |
6 | | corrective measures. is a scientific process founded on a |
7 | | professional body of knowledge; it is a learned profession |
8 | | based on the understanding of the human condition across the |
9 | | life span and environment and
includes all
nursing
specialties |
10 | | and means the performance of any nursing act based upon
|
11 | | professional knowledge, judgment, and skills acquired by means |
12 | | of completion
of an approved professional nursing education |
13 | | program. A registered
professional nurse provides holistic |
14 | | nursing care through the nursing process
to individuals, |
15 | | groups, families, or communities, that includes but is not
|
16 | | limited to: (1) the assessment of healthcare needs, nursing |
17 | | diagnosis,
planning, implementation, and nursing evaluation; |
18 | | (2) the promotion,
maintenance, and restoration of health; (3) |
19 | | counseling, patient education,
health education, and patient |
20 | | advocacy; (4) the administration of medications
and treatments |
21 | | as prescribed by a physician licensed to practice medicine in
|
22 | | all of its branches, a licensed dentist, a licensed podiatric |
23 | | physician, or a licensed
optometrist or as prescribed by a |
24 | | physician assistant
or by an advanced practice nurse; (5) the
|
25 | | coordination and management of the nursing plan of care; (6) |
26 | | the delegation to
and supervision of individuals who assist the |
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1 | | registered professional nurse
implementing the plan of care; |
2 | | and (7) teaching nursing
students. The foregoing shall not be |
3 | | deemed to include
those acts of medical diagnosis or |
4 | | prescription of therapeutic or
corrective measures.
|
5 | | "Professional assistance program for nurses" means a |
6 | | professional
assistance program that meets criteria |
7 | | established by the Board of Nursing
and approved by the |
8 | | Secretary, which provides a non-disciplinary treatment
|
9 | | approach for nurses licensed under this Act whose ability to |
10 | | practice is
compromised by alcohol or chemical substance |
11 | | addiction.
|
12 | | "Secretary" means the Secretary of Financial and |
13 | | Professional Regulation. |
14 | | "Unencumbered license" means a license issued in good |
15 | | standing. |
16 | | "Written collaborative agreement" means a written |
17 | | agreement between an advanced practice registered nurse and a |
18 | | collaborating physician, dentist, or podiatric physician |
19 | | pursuant to Section 65-35.
|
20 | | (Source: P.A. 98-214, eff. 8-9-13; 99-173, eff. 7-29-15; |
21 | | 99-330, eff. 1-1-16; 99-642, eff. 7-28-16.)
|
22 | | (225 ILCS 65/50-13 new) |
23 | | Sec. 50-13. Address of record; email address of record. All |
24 | | applicants and licensees shall: |
25 | | (1) provide a valid address and email address to the |
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1 | | Department, which shall serve as the address of record and |
2 | | email address of record, respectively, at the time of |
3 | | application for licensure or renewal of a license; and |
4 | | (2) inform the Department of any change of address of |
5 | | record or email address of record within 14 days after such |
6 | | change either through the Department's website or by |
7 | | contacting the Department's licensure maintenance unit.
|
8 | | (225 ILCS 65/50-15)
(was 225 ILCS 65/5-15)
|
9 | | (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)
|
10 | | Sec. 50-15. Policy; application of Act. |
11 | | (a) For the protection of life and the
promotion of health, |
12 | | and the prevention of illness and communicable diseases,
any |
13 | | person practicing or offering to practice advanced,
|
14 | | professional, or practical
nursing in Illinois shall submit |
15 | | evidence that he or she is qualified to
practice, and shall be |
16 | | licensed as provided under this Act. No person shall
practice |
17 | | or offer to practice advanced, professional, or practical |
18 | | nursing in Illinois or
use any title, sign, card or device to |
19 | | indicate that such a person is
practicing professional or |
20 | | practical nursing unless such person has been
licensed under |
21 | | the provisions of this Act.
|
22 | | (b) This Act does not prohibit the following:
|
23 | | (1) The practice of nursing in Federal employment in |
24 | | the discharge of the
employee's duties by a person who is |
25 | | employed by the United States
government or any bureau, |
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|
1 | | division or agency thereof and is a legally
qualified and |
2 | | licensed nurse of another state or territory and not in
|
3 | | conflict with Sections 50-50, 55-10, 60-10, and 70-5 of |
4 | | this
Act.
|
5 | | (2) Nursing that is included in the program of study by
|
6 | | students
enrolled in programs of nursing or in current |
7 | | nurse practice update courses
approved by the Department.
|
8 | | (3) The furnishing of nursing assistance in an |
9 | | emergency.
|
10 | | (4) The practice of nursing by a nurse who holds an |
11 | | active license in
another state when providing services to |
12 | | patients in Illinois during a bonafide
emergency or in |
13 | | immediate preparation for or during interstate
transit.
|
14 | | (5) The incidental care of the sick by members of the |
15 | | family, domestic
servants or housekeepers, or care of the |
16 | | sick where treatment is by prayer
or spiritual means.
|
17 | | (6) Persons from being employed as unlicensed |
18 | | assistive personnel in private homes, long term care |
19 | | facilities,
nurseries, hospitals or other institutions.
|
20 | | (7) The practice of practical nursing by one who is a |
21 | | licensed practical
nurse under the laws of another U.S. |
22 | | jurisdiction and has applied in writing
to the Department, |
23 | | in form and substance satisfactory to the Department,
for a |
24 | | license as a licensed practical nurse and who is qualified |
25 | | to receive
such license under this Act, until (i) the |
26 | | expiration of 6 months after
the filing of such written |
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| | HB0313 Engrossed | - 301 - | LRB100 04130 SMS 14135 b |
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1 | | application, (ii) the withdrawal of such application,
or |
2 | | (iii) the denial of such application by the Department.
|
3 | | (8) The practice of advanced practice registered |
4 | | nursing by one who is an advanced practice registered nurse |
5 | | under the laws of another state, territory of the United |
6 | | States jurisdiction or a foreign jurisdiction , or country |
7 | | and has applied in writing to the Department, in form and |
8 | | substance satisfactory to the Department, for a license as |
9 | | an advanced practice registered nurse and who is qualified |
10 | | to receive such license under this Act, until (i) the |
11 | | expiration of 6 months after the filing of such written |
12 | | application, (ii) the withdrawal of such application, or |
13 | | (iii) the denial of such application by the Department.
|
14 | | (9) The practice of professional nursing by one who is |
15 | | a registered
professional nurse under the laws of another |
16 | | state, territory of the United
States jurisdiction or a |
17 | | foreign jurisdiction or country and has applied in writing |
18 | | to the Department, in form and
substance satisfactory to |
19 | | the Department, for a license as a registered
professional |
20 | | nurse and who is qualified to receive such license under
|
21 | | Section 55-10, until (1) the expiration of 6 months after |
22 | | the filing of
such written application, (2) the withdrawal |
23 | | of such application, or (3)
the denial of such application |
24 | | by the Department.
|
25 | | (10) The practice of professional nursing that is |
26 | | included in a program of
study by one who is a registered |
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|
1 | | professional nurse under the laws of
another state or |
2 | | territory of the United States jurisdiction or a foreign |
3 | | jurisdiction country,
territory or province and who is |
4 | | enrolled in a graduate nursing education
program or a |
5 | | program for the completion of a baccalaureate nursing |
6 | | degree in
this State, which includes clinical supervision |
7 | | by faculty as
determined by the educational institution |
8 | | offering the program and the
health care organization where |
9 | | the practice of nursing occurs.
|
10 | | (11) Any person licensed in this State under any other |
11 | | Act from engaging
in the practice for which she or he is |
12 | | licensed.
|
13 | | (12) Delegation to authorized direct care staff |
14 | | trained under Section 15.4
of the Mental Health and
|
15 | | Developmental Disabilities Administrative Act consistent |
16 | | with the policies of the Department.
|
17 | | (13) (Blank). The practice, services, or activities of |
18 | | persons practicing the specified occupations set forth in |
19 | | subsection (a) of, and pursuant to a licensing exemption |
20 | | granted in subsection (b) or (d) of, Section 2105-350 of |
21 | | the Department of Professional Regulation Law of the Civil |
22 | | Administrative Code of Illinois, but only for so long as |
23 | | the 2016 Olympic and Paralympic Games Professional |
24 | | Licensure Exemption Law is operable. |
25 | | (14) County correctional personnel from delivering |
26 | | prepackaged medication for self-administration to an |
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1 | | individual detainee in a correctional facility. |
2 | | Nothing in this Act shall be construed to limit the |
3 | | delegation of tasks or duties by a physician, dentist, or |
4 | | podiatric physician to a licensed practical nurse, a registered |
5 | | professional nurse, or other persons.
|
6 | | (Source: P.A. 98-214, eff. 8-9-13.)
|
7 | | (225 ILCS 65/50-20)
(was 225 ILCS 65/5-20)
|
8 | | (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)
|
9 | | Sec. 50-20. Unlicensed practice; violation; civil penalty.
|
10 | | (a) In addition to any other penalty provided by law, any |
11 | | Any person who practices, offers to practice, attempts to |
12 | | practice, or
holds oneself out to practice nursing without |
13 | | being licensed under this Act
shall , in
addition to any other |
14 | | penalty provided by law, pay a civil penalty to the
Department |
15 | | in an amount not to exceed $10,000 for each offense as |
16 | | determined by
the Department. The civil penalty shall be |
17 | | assessed by the Department after a
hearing is held in |
18 | | accordance with the provisions set forth in this Act
regarding |
19 | | the provision of a hearing for the discipline of a licensee.
|
20 | | (b) The Department has the authority and power to |
21 | | investigate any and all
unlicensed activity.
|
22 | | (c) The civil penalty shall be paid within 60 days after |
23 | | the effective date
of the order imposing the civil penalty. The |
24 | | order shall constitute a judgment
and may be filed and |
25 | | execution had thereon in the same manner as any judgment
from |
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1 | | any court of record.
|
2 | | (Source: P.A. 95-639, eff. 10-5-07.)
|
3 | | (225 ILCS 65/50-26 new) |
4 | | Sec. 50-26. Application for license. Applications for |
5 | | licenses shall be made to the Department on forms prescribed by |
6 | | the Department and accompanied by the required fee. All |
7 | | applications shall contain the information that, in the |
8 | | judgment of the Department, will enable the Department to pass |
9 | | on the qualifications of the applicant for a license under this |
10 | | Act. |
11 | | If an applicant fails to obtain a license under this Act |
12 | | within 3 years after filing his or her application, the |
13 | | application shall be denied. The applicant may make a new |
14 | | application, which shall be accompanied by the required |
15 | | nonrefundable fee. The applicant shall be required to meet the |
16 | | qualifications required for licensure at the time of |
17 | | reapplication.
|
18 | | (225 ILCS 65/50-50)
(was 225 ILCS 65/10-5)
|
19 | | (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)
|
20 | | Sec. 50-50. Prohibited acts.
|
21 | | (a) No person shall:
|
22 | | (1) Practice as an advanced practice registered nurse |
23 | | without a valid license as an advanced practice registered |
24 | | nurse, except as provided in Section 50-15 of this Act;
|
|
| | HB0313 Engrossed | - 305 - | LRB100 04130 SMS 14135 b |
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|
1 | | (2) Practice professional nursing without a valid |
2 | | license as a registered
professional nurse except as |
3 | | provided in Section
50-15 of
this Act;
|
4 | | (3) Practice practical nursing without a valid license |
5 | | as a licensed
practical nurse or practice practical |
6 | | nursing, except as provided in
Section 50-15 of this Act;
|
7 | | (4) Practice nursing under cover of any diploma, |
8 | | license, or record
illegally or fraudulently obtained or |
9 | | signed or issued unlawfully or under
fraudulent |
10 | | representation;
|
11 | | (5) Practice nursing during the time her or his license |
12 | | is suspended,
revoked, expired , or on inactive status;
|
13 | | (6) Use any words, abbreviations, figures, letters, |
14 | | title, sign, card, or
device tending to imply that she or |
15 | | he is a registered professional nurse,
including the titles |
16 | | or initials, "Nurse , " , "Registered Nurse , " , "Professional |
17 | | Nurse , " ,
"Registered Professional Nurse , " , "Certified |
18 | | Nurse , " , "Trained Nurse , " ,
"Graduate Nurse , " , "P.N. , " , or |
19 | | "R.N. , " , or "R.P.N." or similar titles or
initials with |
20 | | intention of indicating practice without a valid license as |
21 | | a
registered professional nurse;
|
22 | | (7) Use any words, abbreviations, figures, letters, |
23 | | titles, signs, cards, or devices tending to imply that she |
24 | | or he is an advanced practice registered nurse, including |
25 | | the titles or initials "Advanced Practice Registered |
26 | | Nurse", "A.P.R.N." "A.P.N." , or similar titles or |
|
| | HB0313 Engrossed | - 306 - | LRB100 04130 SMS 14135 b |
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|
1 | | initials, with the intention of indicating practice as an |
2 | | advanced practice registered nurse without a valid license |
3 | | as an advanced practice registered nurse under this Act. |
4 | | For purposes of this provision, the terms "advanced |
5 | | practice nurse" and "A.P.N." are considered to be similar |
6 | | titles or initials protected by this subsection (a).
|
7 | | (8) Use any words, abbreviations figures, letters, |
8 | | title, sign, card, or
device tending to imply that she or |
9 | | he is a licensed practical nurse
including the titles or |
10 | | initials "Practical Nurse , " , "Licensed Practical
Nurse , " , |
11 | | "P.N. , " , or "L.P.N. , " , or similar titles or initials with |
12 | | intention
of indicated practice as a licensed practical |
13 | | nurse without a valid license
as a licensed practical nurse |
14 | | under this Act;
|
15 | | (9) Advertise services regulated under this Act |
16 | | without including in
every
advertisement his or her title |
17 | | as it appears on the license or the initials
authorized |
18 | | under this Act;
|
19 | | (10) Obtain or furnish a license by or for money or any |
20 | | other thing of value
other than the fees required under |
21 | | this Act, or by any fraudulent
representation or act;
|
22 | | (11) Make any willfully wilfully false oath or |
23 | | affirmation required by this Act;
|
24 | | (12) Conduct a nursing education program preparing |
25 | | persons for licensure
that has not been approved by the |
26 | | Department;
|
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| | HB0313 Engrossed | - 307 - | LRB100 04130 SMS 14135 b |
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|
1 | | (13) Represent that any school or course is approved or |
2 | | accredited as a
school or course for the education of |
3 | | registered professional nurses or
licensed practical |
4 | | nurses unless such school or course is approved by the
|
5 | | Department under the provisions of this Act;
|
6 | | (14) Attempt or offer to do any of the acts enumerated |
7 | | in this Section, or
knowingly aid, abet, assist in the |
8 | | doing of any such acts or in the
attempt or offer to do any |
9 | | of such acts;
|
10 | | (15) Employ persons not licensed under this Act to |
11 | | practice
professional nursing or practical nursing; and
|
12 | | (16) (Blank); Otherwise intentionally violate any |
13 | | provision of this Act.
|
14 | | (17) Retaliate against any nurse who reports unsafe, |
15 | | unethical, or illegal health care practices or |
16 | | conditions ; . |
17 | | (18) Be deemed a supervisor when delegating nursing |
18 | | interventions or guiding the practice of a licensed |
19 | | practical nurse activities or tasks as authorized under |
20 | | this Act ; and |
21 | | (19) Discipline or take other adverse action against a |
22 | | nurse who refused to delegate a nursing intervention based |
23 | | on patient safety; and |
24 | | (20) Otherwise intentionally violate any provision of |
25 | | this Act .
|
26 | | (b) Any person, including a firm, association , or |
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1 | | corporation who violates any
provision of this Section shall be |
2 | | guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.
|
3 | | (Source: P.A. 95-639, eff. 10-5-07.)
|
4 | | (225 ILCS 65/50-55)
(was 225 ILCS 65/10-10)
|
5 | | (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)
|
6 | | Sec. 50-55. Department powers and duties. Subject to the |
7 | | provisions of this Act, the (a) The Department is authorized to |
8 | | shall exercise the following functions, powers , and duties :
|
9 | | prescribed by the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois for |
10 | | administration
of licensing acts and shall exercise other |
11 | | powers and duties necessary
for effectuating the purpose of |
12 | | this Act. None of the functions, powers, or
duties of the |
13 | | Department with respect to licensure and examination shall
be |
14 | | exercised by the Department except upon review by the Board. |
15 | | (1) Conduct or authorize examinations to ascertain the |
16 | | fitness and qualifications of applicants for all licenses |
17 | | governed by this Act, pass upon the qualifications of |
18 | | applicants for licenses, and issue licenses to applicants |
19 | | found to be fit and qualified. |
20 | | (2) Adopt The
Department shall adopt rules required for |
21 | | the administration to implement, interpret, or make |
22 | | specific
the provisions and purposes of this Act , in |
23 | | consultation with ; however no such rules shall
be adopted |
24 | | by the Department except upon review by the Board where |
25 | | necessary .
|
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1 | | (3) Prescribe rules for a method of examination of |
2 | | candidates. |
3 | | (4) Prescribe rules defining what constitutes an |
4 | | approved program, school, college, or department of a |
5 | | university, except that no program, school, college, or |
6 | | department of a university that refuses admittance to |
7 | | applicants solely on account of race, color, creed, sex, or |
8 | | national origin shall be approved. |
9 | | (5) Conduct hearings on proceedings to revoke or |
10 | | suspend licenses or on objection to the issuance of |
11 | | licenses and to revoke, suspend, or refuse to issue such |
12 | | licenses. |
13 | | (6) Prepare (b) The Department shall prepare and |
14 | | maintain a list of approved programs of professional
|
15 | | nursing education and programs of practical nursing |
16 | | education in this
State, whose graduates, if they have the |
17 | | other necessary qualifications
provided in this Act, shall |
18 | | be eligible to apply for a license to practice
nursing in |
19 | | this State.
|
20 | | (7) Act (c) The Department may act upon the |
21 | | recommendations of the Board of Nursing and the Illinois |
22 | | Nursing Workforce Center for Nursing Advisory Board.
|
23 | | (8) Exercise the powers and duties prescribed by the |
24 | | Civil Administrative Code of Illinois for the |
25 | | administration of licensing Acts. |
26 | | (Source: P.A. 94-1020, eff. 7-11-06; 95-639, eff. 10-5-07.)
|
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1 | | (225 ILCS 65/50-60)
(was 225 ILCS 65/10-15)
|
2 | | (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)
|
3 | | Sec. 50-60. Nursing Coordinator ; Assistant Nursing |
4 | | Coordinator . The
Secretary shall appoint, pursuant to the |
5 | | Personnel
Code, a Nursing
Coordinator and an Assistant Nursing |
6 | | Coordinator .
The Nursing Coordinator and Assistant Nursing |
7 | | Coordinator shall
be a registered professional nurse nurses |
8 | | licensed
in this State who has have graduated from an approved |
9 | | school of nursing and holds hold at least a
master's degree in |
10 | | nursing from an accredited college or university.
|
11 | | (Source: P.A. 95-639, eff. 10-5-07.)
|
12 | | (225 ILCS 65/50-65)
(was 225 ILCS 65/10-25)
|
13 | | (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)
|
14 | | Sec. 50-65. Board.
|
15 | | (a) The The term of each member of the Board of Nursing and |
16 | | the Advanced Practice Nursing Board serving before the |
17 | | effective date of this amendatory Act of the 95th General |
18 | | Assembly shall terminate on the effective date of this |
19 | | amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly. Beginning on the |
20 | | effective date of this amendatory Act of the 95th General |
21 | | Assembly, the Secretary shall solicit recommendations from |
22 | | nursing organizations and appoint the Board of Nursing, which |
23 | | shall consist of 13 members, one of whom shall be a practical |
24 | | nurse; one of whom shall be a practical nurse educator; one of |
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1 | | whom shall be a registered professional nurse in practice; one |
2 | | of whom shall be an associate degree nurse educator; one of |
3 | | whom shall be a baccalaureate degree nurse educator; one of |
4 | | whom shall be a nurse who is actively engaged in direct care; |
5 | | one of whom shall be a registered professional nurse actively |
6 | | engaged in direct care; one of whom shall be a nursing |
7 | | administrator; 4 of whom shall be advanced practice registered |
8 | | nurses representing CNS, CNP, CNM, and CRNA practice; and one |
9 | | of whom shall be a public member who is not employed in and has |
10 | | no material interest in any health care field. The Board shall |
11 | | receive actual and necessary expenses incurred in the |
12 | | performance of their duties. |
13 | | Members of the Board of Nursing and the Advanced Practice |
14 | | Nursing Board whose terms were terminated by this amendatory |
15 | | Act of the 95th General Assembly shall be considered for |
16 | | membership positions on the Board. |
17 | | All nursing members of the Board must be (i) residents of |
18 | | this State, (ii) licensed in good standing to practice nursing |
19 | | in this State, (iii) graduates of an approved nursing program, |
20 | | with a minimum of 5 years' years experience in the field of |
21 | | nursing, and (iv) at the time of appointment to the Board, |
22 | | actively engaged in nursing or work related to nursing. |
23 | | Membership terms shall be for 3 years, except that in |
24 | | making initial appointments, the Secretary shall appoint all |
25 | | members for initial terms of 2, 3, and 4 years and these terms |
26 | | shall be staggered as follows: 3 shall be appointed for terms |
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1 | | of 2 years; 4 shall be appointed for terms of 3 years; and 6 |
2 | | shall be appointed for terms of 4 years. No member shall be |
3 | | appointed to more than 2 consecutive terms. In the case of a |
4 | | vacated position, an individual may be appointed to serve the |
5 | | unexpired portion of that term; if the term is less than half |
6 | | of a full term, the individual is eligible to serve 2 full |
7 | | terms.
|
8 | | The Secretary may remove any member of the Board for
|
9 | | misconduct,
incapacity, or neglect of duty. The Secretary shall |
10 | | reduce to writing any
causes for removal.
|
11 | | The Board shall meet annually to elect a chairperson and
|
12 | | vice
chairperson. The Board shall hold regularly scheduled |
13 | | meetings during
the year. A simple majority of the
Board shall |
14 | | constitute a quorum at any meeting. Any action
taken by
the |
15 | | Board must be on the affirmative vote of a simple majority of |
16 | | members.
Voting by
proxy shall not be permitted. In the case of |
17 | | an emergency where all Board members cannot meet in person, the |
18 | | Board may convene a meeting via an electronic format in |
19 | | accordance with the Open Meetings Act.
|
20 | | (b) The Board may perform each of the following activities:
|
21 | | (1) Recommend to the Department the adoption and the |
22 | | revision of
rules necessary for the administration of this |
23 | | Act;
|
24 | | (2) Recommend the approval, denial of approval, |
25 | | withdrawal of approval,
or discipline of nursing education |
26 | | programs;
|
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1 | | (c) The Board shall participate in disciplinary |
2 | | conferences and hearings and make recommendations to the |
3 | | Department regarding disciplinary action taken against a |
4 | | licensee as provided under this Act. Disciplinary conference |
5 | | hearings and proceedings regarding scope of practice issues |
6 | | shall be conducted by a Board member at the same or higher |
7 | | licensure level as the respondent. Participation in an informal |
8 | | conference shall not bar members of the Board from future |
9 | | participation or decisions relating to that matter. |
10 | | (d) (Blank). With the exception of emergency rules, any |
11 | | proposed rules, amendments, second notice materials, and |
12 | | adopted rule or amendment materials or policy statements |
13 | | concerning advanced practice nurses shall be presented to the |
14 | | Medical Licensing Board for review and comment. The |
15 | | recommendations of both the Board of Nursing and the Medical |
16 | | Licensing Board shall be presented to the Secretary for |
17 | | consideration in making final decisions. Whenever the Board of |
18 | | Nursing and Medical Licensing Board disagree on a proposed rule |
19 | | or policy, the Secretary shall convene a joint meeting of the |
20 | | officers of each Board to discuss resolution of any |
21 | | disagreements.
|
22 | | (Source: P.A. 95-639, eff. 10-5-07.)
|
23 | | (225 ILCS 65/50-70)
(was 225 ILCS 65/10-35)
|
24 | | (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)
|
25 | | Sec. 50-70. Concurrent theory and clinical practice |
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|
|
1 | | education
requirements of this Act. The educational |
2 | | requirements of Sections 55-10 and 60-10 of this Act relating |
3 | | to
registered professional nursing and licensed practical |
4 | | nursing
shall not be deemed to have been satisfied by the |
5 | | completion of any correspondence course or any program of |
6 | | nursing that does not
require coordinated or concurrent theory |
7 | | and clinical practice.
The Department may, upon recommendation |
8 | | of the Board, grant an Illinois
license to those applicants who |
9 | | have received advanced graduate degrees in
nursing from an |
10 | | approved program with concurrent theory and clinical
practice |
11 | | or to those applicants who are currently licensed in another
|
12 | | state and have been actively practicing clinical nursing for a |
13 | | minimum
of 2 years.
|
14 | | (Source: P.A. 95-639, eff. 10-5-07 .)
|
15 | | (225 ILCS 65/50-75) |
16 | | (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)
|
17 | | Sec. 50-75. Nursing delegation by a registered |
18 | | professional nurse . |
19 | | (a) For the purposes of this Section: |
20 | | "Delegation" means transferring to a specific an |
21 | | individual the authority to perform a specific nursing |
22 | | intervention in a specific selected nursing activity or task, |
23 | | in a selected situation. |
24 | | "Predictability of outcomes" means that a registered |
25 | | professional nurse or advanced practice registered nurse has |
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1 | | determined that the patient's or individual's clinical status |
2 | | is stable and expected to improve or the patient's or |
3 | | individual's deteriorating condition is expected to follow a |
4 | | known or expected course. |
5 | | "Stability" means a registered professional nurse or |
6 | | advanced practice registered nurse has determined that the |
7 | | individual's clinical status and nursing care needs are |
8 | | consistent. |
9 | | "Nursing activity" means any work requiring the use of |
10 | | knowledge acquired by completion of an approved program for |
11 | | licensure, including advanced education, continuing education, |
12 | | and experience as a licensed practical nurse or professional |
13 | | nurse, as defined by the Department by rule. |
14 | | "Task" means work not requiring nursing knowledge, |
15 | | judgment, or decision-making, as defined by the Department by |
16 | | rule. |
17 | | (b) This Section authorizes a registered professional |
18 | | nurse or advanced practice registered nurse to: |
19 | | (1) delegate nursing interventions to other registered |
20 | | professional nurses, licensed practical nurses, and other |
21 | | unlicensed personnel based on the comprehensive nursing |
22 | | assessment that includes, but is not limited to: |
23 | | (A) the stability and condition of the patient; |
24 | | (B) the potential for harm; |
25 | | (C) the complexity of the nursing intervention to |
26 | | be delegated; |
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1 | | (D) the predictability of outcomes; and |
2 | | (E) competency of the individual to whom the |
3 | | nursing intervention is delegated; |
4 | | (2) delegate medication administration to other |
5 | | licensed nurses; |
6 | | (3) in community-based or in-home care settings, |
7 | | delegate the administration of medication (limited to oral |
8 | | or subcutaneous dosage and topical or transdermal |
9 | | application) to unlicensed personnel, if all the |
10 | | conditions for delegation set forth in this Section are |
11 | | met; |
12 | | (4) refuse to delegate, stop, or rescind a previously |
13 | | authorized delegation; or Nursing shall be practiced by |
14 | | licensed practical nurses, registered professional nurses, |
15 | | and advanced practice nurses. In the delivery of nursing |
16 | | care, nurses work with many other licensed professionals |
17 | | and other persons. An advanced practice nurse may delegate |
18 | | to registered professional nurses, licensed practical |
19 | | nurses, and others persons. |
20 | | (5) in community-based or in-home care settings, |
21 | | delegate, guide, and evaluate the implementation of |
22 | | nursing interventions as a component of patient care |
23 | | coordination after completion of the comprehensive patient |
24 | | assessment based on analysis of the comprehensive nursing |
25 | | assessment data; care coordination in in-home care and |
26 | | school settings may occur in person, by telecommunication, |
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1 | | or by electronic communication. |
2 | | (c) This Section prohibits the following: |
3 | | (1) An individual or entity from mandating that a |
4 | | registered professional nurse delegate nursing |
5 | | interventions if the registered professional nurse |
6 | | determines it is inappropriate to do so. Nurses shall not |
7 | | be subject to disciplinary or any other adverse action for |
8 | | refusing to delegate a nursing intervention based on |
9 | | patient safety. |
10 | | (2) The delegation of medication administration to |
11 | | unlicensed personnel in any institutional or long-term |
12 | | facility, including, but not limited to, those facilities |
13 | | licensed by the Hospital Licensing Act, the University of |
14 | | Illinois Hospital Act, State-operated mental health |
15 | | hospitals, or State-operated developmental centers, except |
16 | | as authorized under Article 80 of this Act or otherwise |
17 | | specifically authorized by law. |
18 | | (3) A registered professional nurse from delegating |
19 | | nursing judgment, the comprehensive patient assessment, |
20 | | the development of a plan of care, and the evaluation of |
21 | | care to licensed or unlicensed personnel. |
22 | | (4) A licensed practical nurse or unlicensed personnel |
23 | | who has been delegated a nursing intervention from |
24 | | re-delegating a nursing intervention. A registered |
25 | | professional nurse shall not delegate any nursing activity |
26 | | requiring the specialized knowledge, judgment, and skill |
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1 | | of a licensed nurse to an unlicensed person, including |
2 | | medication administration. A registered professional nurse |
3 | | may delegate nursing activities to other registered |
4 | | professional nurses or licensed practical nurses. |
5 | | A registered nurse may delegate tasks to other licensed and |
6 | | unlicensed persons. A licensed practical nurse who has been |
7 | | delegated a nursing activity shall not re-delegate the nursing |
8 | | activity. A registered professional nurse or advanced practice |
9 | | nurse retains the right to refuse to delegate or to stop or |
10 | | rescind a previously authorized delegation.
|
11 | | (Source: P.A. 95-639, eff. 10-5-07.)
|
12 | | (225 ILCS 65/55-10)
(was 225 ILCS 65/10-30)
|
13 | | (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)
|
14 | | Sec. 55-10. LPN licensure by examination Qualifications |
15 | | for LPN licensure .
|
16 | | (a) Each applicant who successfully meets the requirements |
17 | | of this Section is eligible for
shall be entitled to licensure |
18 | | as a licensed practical nurse Licensed Practical
Nurse .
|
19 | | (b) An applicant for licensure by examination to practice |
20 | | as a practical nurse is eligible for licensure when the |
21 | | following requirements are met must do each of the following :
|
22 | | (1) the applicant has submitted Submit a completed |
23 | | written application , on forms provided by the
Department |
24 | | and fees as established by the Department ; .
|
25 | | (2) the applicant has Have graduated from a practical |
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1 | | nursing education program approved by the Department or has |
2 | | have been granted a certificate of completion of |
3 | | pre-licensure requirements from another United States |
4 | | jurisdiction ; . |
5 | | (3) the applicant has successfully completed |
6 | | Successfully complete a licensure examination approved by |
7 | | the Department ; .
|
8 | | (4) (blank); Have not violated the provisions of this |
9 | | Act concerning the grounds for disciplinary action. The
|
10 | | Department may take into consideration any felony |
11 | | conviction of the applicant,
but such a conviction shall |
12 | | not operate as an absolute bar to licensure.
|
13 | | (5) the applicant has submitted Submit to the criminal |
14 | | history records check required under Section 50-35 of this |
15 | | Act ; .
|
16 | | (6) the applicant has submitted Submit either to the |
17 | | Department or its designated testing service,
a fee |
18 | | covering the cost of providing the examination. Failure to |
19 | | appear for
the examination on the scheduled date at the |
20 | | time and place specified after the
applicant's application |
21 | | for examination has been received and acknowledged by
the |
22 | | Department or the designated testing service shall result |
23 | | in the forfeiture
of the examination fee ; and .
|
24 | | (7) the applicant has met Meet all other requirements |
25 | | established by rule. |
26 | | An applicant for licensure by examination may take the |
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1 | | Department-approved examination in another jurisdiction.
|
2 | | (b-5) If an applicant for licensure by examination
|
3 | | neglects, fails, or refuses to take an examination or fails
to |
4 | | pass an examination for a license under this Act within 3 years |
5 | | of the date of initial application after filing
the |
6 | | application , the application shall be denied. When an |
7 | | applicant's application is denied due to the failure to pass |
8 | | the examination within the 3-year period, that applicant must |
9 | | undertake an additional course of education as defined by rule |
10 | | prior to submitting a new application for licensure. Any new |
11 | | application must be accompanied by the required fee, evidence |
12 | | of meeting the requirements in force at the time of the new |
13 | | application, and evidence of completion of the additional |
14 | | course of education prescribed by rule. The applicant must |
15 | | enroll in and complete an approved practical nursing education |
16 | | program prior to submitting an additional application for the |
17 | | licensure exam.
|
18 | | An applicant may take and successfully complete a |
19 | | Department-approved
examination in another jurisdiction. |
20 | | However, an applicant who has never been
licensed previously in |
21 | | any jurisdiction that utilizes a Department-approved
|
22 | | examination and who has taken and failed to
pass the |
23 | | examination within 3 years after filing the application must |
24 | | submit
proof of successful completion of a |
25 | | Department-authorized nursing education
program or |
26 | | recompletion of an approved
licensed
practical nursing program |
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1 | | prior to re-application.
|
2 | | (c) An applicant for licensure by examination shall have |
3 | | one year from the date of notification of successful
completion |
4 | | of the examination to apply to the Department for a license. If |
5 | | an
applicant fails to apply within one year, the applicant |
6 | | shall be required to
retake and pass the examination unless |
7 | | licensed in another jurisdiction of
the United States.
|
8 | | (d) A licensed practical nurse applicant who passes the |
9 | | Department-approved licensure examination and has applied to |
10 | | the Department for licensure may obtain employment as a |
11 | | license-pending practical nurse and practice as delegated by a |
12 | | registered professional nurse or an advanced practice |
13 | | registered nurse or physician. An individual may be employed as |
14 | | a license-pending practical nurse if all of the following |
15 | | criteria are met: |
16 | | (1) He or she has completed and passed the |
17 | | Department-approved licensure exam and presents to the |
18 | | employer the official written notification indicating |
19 | | successful passage of the licensure examination. |
20 | | (2) He or she has completed and submitted to the |
21 | | Department an application for licensure under this Section |
22 | | as a practical nurse. |
23 | | (3) He or she has submitted the required licensure fee. |
24 | | (4) He or she has met all other requirements |
25 | | established by rule, including having submitted to a |
26 | | criminal history records check. |
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1 | | (e) The privilege to practice as a license-pending |
2 | | practical nurse shall terminate with the occurrence of any of |
3 | | the following: |
4 | | (1) Three months have passed since the official date of |
5 | | passing the licensure exam as inscribed on the formal |
6 | | written notification indicating passage of the exam. This |
7 | | 3-month period may be extended as determined by rule. |
8 | | (2) Receipt of the practical nurse license from the |
9 | | Department. |
10 | | (3) Notification from the Department that the |
11 | | application for licensure has been denied. |
12 | | (4) A request by the Department that the individual |
13 | | terminate practicing as a license-pending practical nurse |
14 | | until an official decision is made by the Department to |
15 | | grant or deny a practical nurse license.
|
16 | | (f) (Blank). An applicant for licensure by endorsement who |
17 | | is a licensed practical nurse licensed by examination
under the |
18 | | laws of another state or territory of the United States or a
|
19 | | foreign country, jurisdiction, territory, or province must do |
20 | | each of the following:
|
21 | | (1) Submit a completed written application, on forms |
22 | | supplied by the
Department, and fees as established by the |
23 | | Department.
|
24 | | (2) Have graduated from a practical nursing education |
25 | | program approved by the Department.
|
26 | | (3) Submit verification of licensure status directly |
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1 | | from the United
States jurisdiction of licensure, if |
2 | | applicable, as defined by rule.
|
3 | | (4) Submit to the criminal history records check |
4 | | required under Section 50-35 of this Act.
|
5 | | (5) Meet all other requirements as established by the |
6 | | Department by rule.
|
7 | | (g) All applicants for practical nurse licensure by |
8 | | examination or endorsement
who are graduates
of nursing |
9 | | educational programs in a country other than the United States |
10 | | or
its territories shall have their nursing education |
11 | | credentials evaluated by a Department-approved nursing |
12 | | credentialing evaluation service. No such applicant may be |
13 | | issued a license under this Act unless the applicant's program |
14 | | is deemed by the nursing credentialing evaluation service to be |
15 | | equivalent to a professional nursing education program |
16 | | approved by the Department. An applicant who has graduated from |
17 | | a nursing educational program outside of the United States or |
18 | | its territories and whose first language is not English shall |
19 | | submit evidence of English proficiency certification of |
20 | | passage of the Test of English as a Foreign Language (TOEFL) , |
21 | | as defined by rule. The Department may, upon recommendation |
22 | | from the nursing evaluation service, waive the requirement that |
23 | | the applicant pass the TOEFL examination if the applicant |
24 | | submits verification of the successful completion of a nursing |
25 | | education program conducted in English. The requirements of |
26 | | this subsection (d) may be satisfied by the showing of proof of |
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1 | | a certificate from the Certificate Program or the VisaScreen |
2 | | Program of the Commission on Graduates of Foreign Nursing |
3 | | Schools.
|
4 | | (h) (Blank). An applicant licensed in another state or |
5 | | territory who is applying for
licensure and has received her or |
6 | | his education in a country other than the
United States or its |
7 | | territories shall have her or his nursing education credentials |
8 | | evaluated by a Department-approved nursing credentialing |
9 | | evaluation service. No such applicant may be issued a license |
10 | | under this Act unless the applicant's program is deemed by the |
11 | | nursing credentialing evaluation service to be equivalent to a |
12 | | professional nursing education program approved by the |
13 | | Department. An applicant who has graduated from a nursing |
14 | | educational program outside of the United States or its |
15 | | territories and whose first language is not English shall |
16 | | submit certification of passage of the Test of English as a |
17 | | Foreign Language (TOEFL), as defined by rule. The Department |
18 | | may, upon recommendation from the nursing evaluation service, |
19 | | waive the requirement that the applicant pass the TOEFL |
20 | | examination if the applicant submits verification of the |
21 | | successful completion of a nursing education program conducted |
22 | | in English or the successful passage of an approved licensing |
23 | | examination given in English. The requirements of this |
24 | | subsection (d-5) may be satisfied by the showing of proof of a |
25 | | certificate from the Certificate Program or the VisaScreen |
26 | | Program of the Commission on Graduates of Foreign Nursing |
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1 | | Schools.
|
2 | | (i) (Blank). A licensed practical nurse who holds an
|
3 | | unencumbered license in good
standing in another United States
|
4 | | jurisdiction and who has applied for practical nurse licensure |
5 | | under this Act by endorsement may be issued a temporary |
6 | | license, if satisfactory proof of such licensure in another |
7 | | jurisdiction is presented to the Department. The
Department |
8 | | shall not issue an applicant a temporary practical nurse |
9 | | license until it is satisfied that
the applicant holds an |
10 | | active,
unencumbered license in good standing in another |
11 | | jurisdiction. If the applicant holds more than one current |
12 | | active license or one or more active temporary licenses from |
13 | | another jurisdiction, the Department may not issue a temporary |
14 | | license until the Department is satisfied that each current |
15 | | active license held by the applicant is unencumbered. The
|
16 | | temporary license, which shall be issued no later than 14 |
17 | | working days
following receipt by the Department of an |
18 | | application for the temporary
license, shall be granted upon |
19 | | the submission of all of the following to the
Department:
|
20 | | (1) A completed application for licensure as a |
21 | | practical nurse.
|
22 | | (2) Proof of a current, active license in at least one |
23 | | other jurisdiction
of the United States and proof that each |
24 | | current active license or temporary license held by the
|
25 | | applicant within the last 5 years is unencumbered.
|
26 | | (3) A signed and completed application for a temporary |
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1 | | license.
|
2 | | (4) The required temporary license fee.
|
3 | | (j) (Blank). The Department may refuse to issue an |
4 | | applicant a temporary
license authorized pursuant to this |
5 | | Section if, within 14 working days
following its receipt of an |
6 | | application for a temporary license, the
Department determines |
7 | | that:
|
8 | | (1) the applicant has been convicted of a crime under |
9 | | the laws of a
jurisdiction of the United States that is: |
10 | | (i) a felony; or (ii) a
misdemeanor directly related to the |
11 | | practice of the profession, within the last
5 years;
|
12 | | (2) the applicant has had a license or permit
related |
13 | | to the practice of practical
nursing revoked, suspended, or |
14 | | placed on probation
by
another jurisdiction within the last |
15 | | 5 years and at least one of the grounds for revoking, |
16 | | suspending,
or placing on probation is the same or |
17 | | substantially equivalent to grounds in
Illinois; or
|
18 | | (3) the Department intends to deny licensure by |
19 | | endorsement.
|
20 | | (k) (Blank). The Department may revoke a temporary license |
21 | | issued pursuant to this
Section if it determines any of the |
22 | | following:
|
23 | | (1) That the applicant has been convicted of a crime |
24 | | under
the law of any jurisdiction of the United States that |
25 | | is (i) a felony or
(ii) a misdemeanor directly related to |
26 | | the practice of the profession,
within the last 5 years.
|
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1 | | (2) That within the last 5 years the applicant has had |
2 | | a
license or permit related to the practice of nursing |
3 | | revoked, suspended, or
placed on probation by another |
4 | | jurisdiction, and at least one of the grounds for
revoking, |
5 | | suspending, or placing on probation is the same or |
6 | | substantially
equivalent to grounds for disciplinary |
7 | | action under this Act.
|
8 | | (3) That the Department intends to deny licensure by |
9 | | endorsement.
|
10 | | (l) (Blank). A temporary license shall expire 6 months from |
11 | | the date of issuance.
Further renewal may be granted by the |
12 | | Department in hardship cases, as defined
by rule and upon |
13 | | approval of the Secretary. However, a temporary license shall
|
14 | | automatically expire upon issuance of a valid
license under |
15 | | this Act or upon notification
that the Department intends to |
16 | | deny licensure, whichever occurs first.
|
17 | | (m) All applicants for practical nurse licensure have 3 |
18 | | years from the date of application to complete the
application |
19 | | process. If the process has not been completed within 3 years |
20 | | from
the date of application, the application shall be denied, |
21 | | the fee forfeited,
and the applicant must reapply and meet the |
22 | | requirements in effect at the time
of reapplication.
|
23 | | (Source: P.A. 94-352, eff. 7-28-05; 94-932, eff. 1-1-07; |
24 | | 95-639, eff. 10-5-07.)
|
25 | | (225 ILCS 65/55-11 new) |
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1 | | Sec. 55-11. LPN licensure by endorsement. |
2 | | (a) Each applicant who successfully meets the requirements |
3 | | of this Section is eligible for licensure as a licensed |
4 | | practical nurse. |
5 | | (b) An applicant for licensure by endorsement who is a |
6 | | licensed practical nurse licensed by examination under the laws |
7 | | of another United States jurisdiction or a foreign jurisdiction |
8 | | is eligible for licensure when the following requirements are |
9 | | met: |
10 | | (1) the applicant has submitted a completed written |
11 | | application on forms supplied by the Department and fees as |
12 | | established by the Department; |
13 | | (2) the applicant has graduated from a practical |
14 | | nursing education program approved by the Department; |
15 | | (2.5) the applicant has successfully completed a |
16 | | licensure examination approved by the Department; |
17 | | (3) the applicant has been issued a licensed practical |
18 | | nurse license by another United States or foreign |
19 | | jurisdiction, which shall be verified, as defined by rule; |
20 | | (4) the applicant has submitted to the criminal history |
21 | | records check required under Section 50-35 of this Act; and |
22 | | (5) the applicant has met all other requirements as |
23 | | established by the Department by rule. |
24 | | (c) An applicant licensed in another state or territory who |
25 | | is applying for licensure and has received her or his education |
26 | | in a country other than the United States or its territories |
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1 | | shall have her or his nursing education credentials evaluated |
2 | | by a Department-approved nursing credentialing evaluation |
3 | | service. No such applicant may be issued a license under this |
4 | | Act unless the applicant's program is deemed by the nursing |
5 | | credentialing evaluation service to be equivalent to a |
6 | | professional nursing education program approved by the |
7 | | Department. An applicant who has graduated from a nursing |
8 | | education program outside of the United States or its |
9 | | territories and whose first language is not English shall |
10 | | submit evidence of English proficiency, as defined by rule. |
11 | | (d) A licensed practical nurse who holds an unencumbered |
12 | | license in good standing in another United States jurisdiction |
13 | | and who has applied for practical nurse licensure under this |
14 | | Act by endorsement may be issued a temporary permit if |
15 | | satisfactory proof of such licensure in another jurisdiction is |
16 | | presented to the Department. The Department shall not issue an |
17 | | applicant a temporary practical nurse permit until it is |
18 | | satisfied that the applicant holds an active, unencumbered |
19 | | license in good standing in another jurisdiction. If the |
20 | | applicant holds more than one current active license or one or |
21 | | more active temporary permits from another jurisdiction, the |
22 | | Department may not issue a temporary permit until the |
23 | | Department is satisfied that each current active license held |
24 | | by the applicant is unencumbered. The temporary permit, which |
25 | | shall be issued no later than 14 working days following receipt |
26 | | by the Department of an application for the temporary permit, |
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1 | | shall be granted upon the submission of all of the following to |
2 | | the Department: |
3 | | (1) a completed application for licensure as a |
4 | | practical nurse; |
5 | | (2) proof of a current, active license in at least one |
6 | | other jurisdiction of the United States and proof that each |
7 | | current active license or temporary permit held by the |
8 | | applicant within the last 5 years is unencumbered; |
9 | | (3) a signed and completed application for a temporary |
10 | | permit; and |
11 | | (4) the required temporary permit fee. |
12 | | (e) The Department may refuse to issue an applicant a |
13 | | temporary permit authorized pursuant to this Section if, within |
14 | | 14 working days following its receipt of an application for a |
15 | | temporary permit, the Department determines that: |
16 | | (1) the applicant has been convicted of a crime under |
17 | | the laws of a jurisdiction of the United States that is: |
18 | | (i) a felony; or (ii) a misdemeanor directly related to the |
19 | | practice of the profession, within the last 5 years; |
20 | | (2) the applicant has had a license or permit related |
21 | | to the practice of practical nursing revoked, suspended, or |
22 | | placed on probation by another jurisdiction within the last |
23 | | 5 years and at least one of the grounds for revoking, |
24 | | suspending, or placing on probation is the same or |
25 | | substantially equivalent to grounds in Illinois; or |
26 | | (3) the Department intends to deny licensure by |
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1 | | endorsement. |
2 | | (f) The Department may revoke a temporary permit issued |
3 | | pursuant to this Section if it determines that: |
4 | | (1) the applicant has been convicted of a crime under |
5 | | the law of any jurisdiction of the United States that is |
6 | | (i) a felony or (ii) a misdemeanor directly related to the |
7 | | practice of the profession, within the last 5 years; |
8 | | (2) within the last 5 years the applicant has had a |
9 | | license or permit related to the practice of nursing |
10 | | revoked, suspended, or placed on probation by another |
11 | | jurisdiction, and at least one of the grounds for revoking, |
12 | | suspending, or placing on probation is the same or |
13 | | substantially equivalent to grounds for disciplinary |
14 | | action under this Act; or |
15 | | (3) the Department intends to deny licensure by |
16 | | endorsement. |
17 | | (g) A temporary permit shall expire 6 months after the date |
18 | | of issuance. Further renewal may be granted by the Department |
19 | | in hardship cases, as defined by rule and upon approval of the |
20 | | Secretary. However, a temporary permit shall automatically |
21 | | expire upon issuance of a valid license under this Act or upon |
22 | | notification that the Department intends to deny licensure, |
23 | | whichever occurs first. |
24 | | (h) All applicants for practical nurse licensure have 3 |
25 | | years after the date of application to complete the application |
26 | | process. If the process has not been completed within 3 years |
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1 | | after the date of application, the application shall be denied, |
2 | | the fee forfeited, and the applicant must reapply and meet the |
3 | | requirements in effect at the time of reapplication.
|
4 | | (225 ILCS 65/55-20) |
5 | | (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)
|
6 | | Sec. 55-20. Restoration of LPN license; temporary permit. |
7 | | (a) Any license to practice practical nursing issued under |
8 | | this Act that has expired or that is on inactive status may be |
9 | | restored by making application to the Department and filing |
10 | | proof of fitness acceptable to the Department, as specified by |
11 | | rule, to have the license restored, and by paying the required |
12 | | restoration fee. Such proof of fitness may include evidence |
13 | | certifying active lawful practice in another jurisdiction. |
14 | | (b) A practical nurse licensee seeking restoration of a |
15 | | license after it has expired or been placed on inactive status |
16 | | for more than 5 years shall file an application, on forms |
17 | | supplied by the Department, and submit the restoration or |
18 | | renewal fees set forth by the Department. The licensee must |
19 | | also submit proof of fitness to practice , as specified by rule. |
20 | | , including one of the following: |
21 | | (1) certification of active practice in another |
22 | | jurisdiction, which may include a statement from the |
23 | | appropriate board or licensing authority in the other |
24 | | jurisdiction that the licensee was authorized to practice |
25 | | during the term of said active practice; |
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1 | | (2) proof of the successful completion of a |
2 | | Department-approved licensure examination; or |
3 | | (3) an affidavit attesting to military service as |
4 | | provided in subsection (c) of this Section; however, if |
5 | | application is made within 2 years after discharge and if |
6 | | all other provisions of subsection (c) of this Section are |
7 | | satisfied, the applicant shall be required to pay the |
8 | | current renewal fee. |
9 | | (c) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Act, any |
10 | | license to practice practical nursing issued under this Act |
11 | | that expired while the licensee was (i) in federal service on |
12 | | active duty with the Armed Forces of the United States or in |
13 | | the State Militia and called into service or training or (ii) |
14 | | in training or education under the supervision of the United |
15 | | States preliminary to induction into the military service may |
16 | | have the license restored without paying any lapsed renewal |
17 | | fees if, within 2 years after honorable termination of such |
18 | | service, training, or education, the applicant furnishes the |
19 | | Department with satisfactory evidence to the effect that the |
20 | | applicant has been so engaged and that the individual's |
21 | | service, training, or education has been so terminated. |
22 | | (d) Any practical nurse licensee who shall engage in the |
23 | | practice of practical nursing with a lapsed license or while on |
24 | | inactive status shall be considered to be practicing without a |
25 | | license, which shall be grounds for discipline under Section |
26 | | 70-5 of this Act. |
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1 | | (e) Pending restoration of a license under this Section, |
2 | | the Department may grant an applicant a temporary permit to |
3 | | practice as a practical nurse if the Department is satisfied |
4 | | that the applicant holds an active, unencumbered license in |
5 | | good standing in another jurisdiction. If the applicant holds |
6 | | more than one current active license or one or more active |
7 | | temporary licenses from another jurisdiction, the Department |
8 | | shall not issue a temporary permit until it is satisfied that |
9 | | each current active license held by the applicant is |
10 | | unencumbered. The temporary permit, which shall be issued no |
11 | | later than 14 working days after receipt by the Department of |
12 | | an application for the permit, shall be granted upon the |
13 | | submission of all of the following to the Department: |
14 | | (1) A signed and completed application for restoration |
15 | | of licensure under this Section as a licensed practical |
16 | | nurse. |
17 | | (2) Proof of (i) a current, active license in at least |
18 | | one other jurisdiction and proof that each current, active |
19 | | license or temporary permit held by the applicant is |
20 | | unencumbered or (ii) fitness to practice nursing in this |
21 | | State, as specified by rule. |
22 | | (3) A signed and completed application for a temporary |
23 | | permit. |
24 | | (4) The required permit fee. |
25 | | (f) The Department may refuse to issue to an applicant a |
26 | | temporary permit authorized under this Section if, within 14 |
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1 | | working days after its receipt of an application for a |
2 | | temporary permit, the Department determines that: |
3 | | (1) the applicant has been convicted within the last 5 |
4 | | years of any crime under the laws of any jurisdiction of |
5 | | the United States that is (i) a felony or (ii) a |
6 | | misdemeanor directly related to the practice of the |
7 | | profession; |
8 | | (2) within the last 5 years, the applicant has had a |
9 | | license or permit related to the practice of nursing |
10 | | revoked, suspended, or placed on probation by another |
11 | | jurisdiction, if at least one of the grounds for revoking, |
12 | | suspending, or placing on probation is the same or |
13 | | substantially equivalent to grounds for disciplinary |
14 | | action under this Act; or |
15 | | (3) the Department intends to deny restoration of the |
16 | | license. |
17 | | (g) The Department may revoke a temporary permit issued |
18 | | under this Section if: |
19 | | (1) the Department determines that the applicant has |
20 | | been convicted within the last 5 years of any crime under |
21 | | the laws of any jurisdiction of the United States that is |
22 | | (i) a felony or (ii) a misdemeanor directly related to the |
23 | | practice of the profession; |
24 | | (2) within the last 5 years, the applicant had a |
25 | | license or permit related to the practice of nursing |
26 | | revoked, suspended, or placed on probation by another |
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1 | | jurisdiction and at least one of the grounds for revoking, |
2 | | suspending, or placing on probation is the same or |
3 | | substantially equivalent to grounds for disciplinary |
4 | | action under this Act; or |
5 | | (3) the Department intends to deny restoration of the |
6 | | license. |
7 | | (h) A temporary permit or renewed temporary permit shall |
8 | | expire (i) upon issuance of a valid license under this Act or |
9 | | (ii) upon notification that the Department intends to deny |
10 | | restoration of licensure. Except as otherwise provided in this |
11 | | Section, the temporary permit shall expire 6 months after the |
12 | | date of issuance. Further renewal may be granted by the |
13 | | Department in hardship cases that shall automatically expire |
14 | | upon issuance of a valid license under this Act or upon |
15 | | notification that the Department intends to deny licensure, |
16 | | whichever occurs first. No extensions shall be granted beyond |
17 | | the 6-month period, unless approved by the Secretary. |
18 | | Notification by the Department under this Section must be by |
19 | | certified or registered mail to the address of record or by |
20 | | email to the email address of record .
|
21 | | (Source: P.A. 95-639, eff. 10-5-07.)
|
22 | | (225 ILCS 65/55-30) |
23 | | (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)
|
24 | | Sec. 55-30. LPN scope of practice. |
25 | | (a) Practice as a licensed practical nurse means a scope of |
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1 | | basic nursing practice, with or without compensation, under the |
2 | | guidance of as delegated by a registered professional nurse or |
3 | | an advanced practice registered nurse , or as directed by a |
4 | | physician assistant, physician, dentist, or podiatric |
5 | | physician, or other health care professionals as determined by |
6 | | the Department, and includes, but is not limited to, all of the |
7 | | following: |
8 | | (1) Conducting a focused nursing assessment and |
9 | | contributing to the ongoing comprehensive nursing |
10 | | assessment of the patient performed by the registered |
11 | | professional nurse. Collecting data and collaborating in |
12 | | the assessment of the health status of a patient. |
13 | | (2) Collaborating in the development and modification |
14 | | of the registered professional nurse's or advanced |
15 | | practice registered nurse's comprehensive nursing plan of |
16 | | care for all types of patients. |
17 | | (3) Implementing aspects of the plan of care as |
18 | | delegated . |
19 | | (4) Participating in health teaching and counseling to |
20 | | promote, attain, and maintain the optimum health level of |
21 | | patients , as delegated . |
22 | | (5) Serving as an advocate for the patient by |
23 | | communicating and collaborating with other health service |
24 | | personnel , as delegated . |
25 | | (6) Participating in the evaluation of patient |
26 | | responses to interventions. |
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1 | | (7) Communicating and collaborating with other health |
2 | | care professionals as delegated . |
3 | | (8) Providing input into the development of policies |
4 | | and procedures to support patient safety.
|
5 | | (Source: P.A. 98-214, eff. 8-9-13.)
|
6 | | (225 ILCS 65/60-5) |
7 | | (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)
|
8 | | Sec. 60-5. RN education program requirements; out-of-State |
9 | | programs. |
10 | | (a) All registered professional nurse education programs |
11 | | must be reviewed by the Board and approved by the Department |
12 | | before the successful completion of such a program may be |
13 | | applied toward meeting the requirements for registered |
14 | | professional nurse licensure under this Act. Any program |
15 | | changing the level of educational preparation or the |
16 | | relationship with or to the parent institution or establishing |
17 | | an extension of an existing program must request a review by |
18 | | the Board and approval by the Department. The Board shall |
19 | | review and make a recommendation for the approval or |
20 | | disapproval of a program by the Department based on the |
21 | | following criteria: |
22 | | (1) a feasibility study that describes the need for the |
23 | | program and the facilities used, the potential of the |
24 | | program to recruit faculty and students, financial support |
25 | | for the program, and other criteria, as established by |
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1 | | rule; |
2 | | (2) program curriculum that meets all State |
3 | | requirements; |
4 | | (3) the administration of the program by a Nurse |
5 | | Administrator and the involvement of a Nurse Administrator |
6 | | in the development of the program; and |
7 | | (4) the occurrence of a site visit prior to approval ; |
8 | | and . |
9 | | (5) beginning December 31, 2022, obtaining and |
10 | | maintaining programmatic accreditation by a national |
11 | | accrediting body for nursing education recognized by the |
12 | | United States Department of Education and approved by the |
13 | | Department. |
14 | | The Department and Board of Nursing shall be notified |
15 | | within 30 days if the program loses its accreditation. The |
16 | | Department may adopt rules regarding a warning process and |
17 | | reaccreditation. |
18 | | (b) In order to obtain initial Department approval and to |
19 | | maintain Department approval, a registered professional |
20 | | nursing program must meet all of the following requirements: |
21 | | (1) The institution responsible for conducting the |
22 | | program and the Nurse Administrator must ensure that |
23 | | individual faculty members are academically and |
24 | | professionally competent. |
25 | | (2) The program curriculum must contain all applicable |
26 | | requirements established by rule, including both theory |
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1 | | and clinical components. |
2 | | (3) The passage rates of the program's graduating |
3 | | classes on the State-approved licensure exam must be deemed |
4 | | satisfactory by the Department. |
5 | | (c) Program site visits to an institution conducting or |
6 | | hosting a professional nursing program may be made at the |
7 | | discretion of the Nursing Coordinator or upon recommendation of |
8 | | the Board. Full routine site visits may shall be conducted by |
9 | | the Department for periodic evaluation. Such The visits shall |
10 | | be used to determine compliance with this Act. Full routine |
11 | | site visits must be announced and may be waived at the |
12 | | discretion of the Department if the program maintains |
13 | | accreditation with an accrediting body recognized by the United |
14 | | States Department of Education and approved by the Department |
15 | | the National League for Nursing Accrediting Commission (NLNAC) |
16 | | or the Commission on Collegiate Nursing Education (CCNE) . |
17 | | (d) Any institution conducting a registered professional |
18 | | nursing program that wishes to discontinue the program must do |
19 | | each of the following: |
20 | | (1) Notify the Department, in writing, of its intent to |
21 | | discontinue the program. |
22 | | (2) Continue to meet the requirements of this Act and |
23 | | the rules adopted thereunder until the official date of |
24 | | termination of the program. |
25 | | (3) Notify the Department of the date on which the last |
26 | | student shall graduate from the program and the program |
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1 | | shall terminate. |
2 | | (4) Assist remaining students in the continuation of |
3 | | their education in the event of program termination prior |
4 | | to the graduation of the program's final student. |
5 | | (5) Upon the closure of the program, notify the |
6 | | Department, in writing, of the location of student and |
7 | | graduate records' storage. |
8 | | (e) Out-of-State registered professional nursing education |
9 | | programs planning to offer clinical practice experiences in |
10 | | this State must meet the requirements set forth in this Section |
11 | | and must meet the clinical and faculty requirements for |
12 | | institutions outside of this State, as established by rule. The |
13 | | institution responsible for conducting an out-of-State |
14 | | registered professional nursing education program and the |
15 | | administrator of the program shall be responsible for ensuring |
16 | | that the individual faculty and preceptors overseeing the |
17 | | clinical experience are academically and professionally |
18 | | competent.
|
19 | | (Source: P.A. 95-639, eff. 10-5-07.)
|
20 | | (225 ILCS 65/60-10) |
21 | | (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)
|
22 | | Sec. 60-10. RN licensure by examination Qualifications for |
23 | | RN licensure . |
24 | | (a) Each applicant who successfully meets the requirements |
25 | | of this Section is eligible for shall be entitled to licensure |
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1 | | as a registered professional nurse. |
2 | | (b) An applicant for licensure by examination to practice |
3 | | as a registered professional nurse is eligible for licensure |
4 | | when the following requirements are met must do each of the |
5 | | following : |
6 | | (1) the applicant has submitted Submit a completed |
7 | | written application, on forms provided by the Department, |
8 | | and fees, as established by the Department ; . |
9 | | (2) the applicant has Have graduated from a |
10 | | professional nursing education program approved by the |
11 | | Department or has have been granted a certificate of |
12 | | completion of pre-licensure requirements from another |
13 | | United States jurisdiction ; . |
14 | | (3) the applicant has successfully completed |
15 | | Successfully complete a licensure examination approved by |
16 | | the Department ; . |
17 | | (4) (blank); Have not violated the provisions of this |
18 | | Act concerning the grounds for disciplinary action. The |
19 | | Department may take into consideration any felony |
20 | | conviction of the applicant, but such a conviction may not |
21 | | operate as an absolute bar to licensure. |
22 | | (5) the applicant has submitted Submit to the criminal |
23 | | history records check required under Section 50-35 of this |
24 | | Act ; . |
25 | | (6) the applicant has submitted Submit , either to the |
26 | | Department or its designated testing service, a fee |
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1 | | covering the cost of providing the examination ; failure . |
2 | | Failure to appear for the examination on the scheduled date |
3 | | at the time and place specified after the applicant's |
4 | | application for examination has been received and |
5 | | acknowledged by the Department or the designated testing |
6 | | service shall result in the forfeiture of the examination |
7 | | fee ; and . |
8 | | (7) the applicant has met Meet all other requirements |
9 | | established by the Department by rule.
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10 | | An applicant for licensure by examination may take the |
11 | | Department-approved examination in another jurisdiction. |
12 | | (b-5) If an applicant for licensure by examination |
13 | | neglects, fails, or refuses to take an examination or fails to |
14 | | pass an examination for a license within 3 years of the date of |
15 | | initial application after filing the application , the |
16 | | application shall be denied. When an applicant's application is |
17 | | denied due to the failure to pass the examination within the |
18 | | 3-year period, that applicant must undertake an additional |
19 | | course of education as defined by rule prior to submitting a |
20 | | new application for licensure. Any new application must be |
21 | | accompanied by the required fee, evidence of meeting the |
22 | | requirements in force at the time of the new application, and |
23 | | evidence of completion of the additional course of education |
24 | | prescribed by rule. The applicant may make a new application |
25 | | accompanied by the required fee, evidence of meeting the |
26 | | requirements in force at the time of the new application, and |
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1 | | proof of the successful completion of at least 2 additional |
2 | | years of professional nursing education. |
3 | | (c) An applicant for licensure by examination shall have |
4 | | one year after the date of notification of the successful |
5 | | completion of the examination to apply to the Department for a |
6 | | license. If an applicant fails to apply within one year, the |
7 | | applicant shall be required to retake and pass the examination |
8 | | unless licensed in another jurisdiction of the United States. |
9 | | (d) An applicant for licensure by examination who passes |
10 | | the Department-approved licensure examination for professional |
11 | | nursing may obtain employment as a license-pending registered |
12 | | nurse and practice under the direction of a registered |
13 | | professional nurse or an advanced practice registered nurse |
14 | | until such time as he or she receives his or her license to |
15 | | practice or until the license is denied. In no instance shall |
16 | | any such applicant practice or be employed in any management |
17 | | capacity. An individual may be employed as a license-pending |
18 | | registered nurse if all of the following criteria are met: |
19 | | (1) He or she has completed and passed the |
20 | | Department-approved licensure exam and presents to the |
21 | | employer the official written notification indicating |
22 | | successful passage of the licensure examination. |
23 | | (2) He or she has completed and submitted to the |
24 | | Department an application for licensure under this Section |
25 | | as a registered professional nurse. |
26 | | (3) He or she has submitted the required licensure fee. |
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1 | | (4) He or she has met all other requirements |
2 | | established by rule, including having submitted to a |
3 | | criminal history records check. |
4 | | (e) The privilege to practice as a license-pending |
5 | | registered nurse shall terminate with the occurrence of any of |
6 | | the following: |
7 | | (1) Three months have passed since the official date of |
8 | | passing the licensure exam as inscribed on the formal |
9 | | written notification indicating passage of the exam. The |
10 | | 3-month license pending period may be extended if more time |
11 | | is needed by the Department to process the licensure |
12 | | application. |
13 | | (2) Receipt of the registered professional nurse |
14 | | license from the Department. |
15 | | (3) Notification from the Department that the |
16 | | application for licensure has been refused. |
17 | | (4) A request by the Department that the individual |
18 | | terminate practicing as a license-pending registered nurse |
19 | | until an official decision is made by the Department to |
20 | | grant or deny a registered professional nurse license. |
21 | | (f) (Blank). An applicant for registered professional |
22 | | nurse licensure by endorsement who is a registered professional |
23 | | nurse licensed by examination under the laws of another state |
24 | | or territory of the United States must do each of the |
25 | | following: |
26 | | (1) Submit a completed written application, on forms |
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1 | | supplied by the Department, and fees as established by the |
2 | | Department. |
3 | | (2) Have graduated from a registered professional |
4 | | nursing education program approved by the Department. |
5 | | (3) Submit verification of licensure status directly |
6 | | from the United States jurisdiction of licensure, if |
7 | | applicable, as defined by rule. |
8 | | (4) Submit to the criminal history records check |
9 | | required under Section 50-35 of this Act. |
10 | | (5) Meet all other requirements as established by the |
11 | | Department by rule. |
12 | | (g) (Blank). Pending the issuance of a license under this |
13 | | Section, the Department may grant an applicant a temporary |
14 | | license to practice nursing as a registered professional nurse |
15 | | if the Department is satisfied that the applicant holds an |
16 | | active, unencumbered license in good standing in another U.S. |
17 | | jurisdiction. If the applicant holds more than one current |
18 | | active license or one or more active temporary licenses from |
19 | | another jurisdiction, the Department may not issue a temporary |
20 | | license until the Department is satisfied that each current |
21 | | active license held by the applicant is unencumbered. The |
22 | | temporary license, which shall be issued no later than 14 |
23 | | working days after receipt by the Department of an application |
24 | | for the temporary license, shall be granted upon the submission |
25 | | of all of the following to the Department: |
26 | | (1) A completed application for licensure as a |
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1 | | registered professional nurse. |
2 | | (2) Proof of a current, active license in at least one |
3 | | other jurisdiction of the United States and proof that each |
4 | | current active license or temporary license held by the |
5 | | applicant within the last 5 years is unencumbered. |
6 | | (3) A completed application for a temporary license. |
7 | | (4) The required temporary license fee. |
8 | | (h) (Blank). The Department may refuse to issue an |
9 | | applicant a temporary license authorized pursuant to this |
10 | | Section if, within 14 working days after its receipt of an |
11 | | application for a temporary license, the Department determines |
12 | | that: |
13 | | (1) the applicant has been convicted of a crime under |
14 | | the laws of a jurisdiction of the United States that is (i) |
15 | | a felony or (ii) a misdemeanor directly related to the |
16 | | practice of the profession, within the last 5 years; |
17 | | (2) the applicant has had a license or permit related |
18 | | to the practice of nursing revoked, suspended, or placed on |
19 | | probation by another jurisdiction within the last 5 years, |
20 | | if at least one of the grounds for revoking, suspending, or |
21 | | placing on probation is the same or substantially |
22 | | equivalent to grounds for disciplinary action under this |
23 | | Act; or
|
24 | | (3) the Department intends to deny licensure by |
25 | | endorsement. |
26 | | (i) (Blank). The Department may revoke a temporary license |
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1 | | issued pursuant to this Section if it determines any of the |
2 | | following: |
3 | | (1) That the applicant has been convicted of a crime |
4 | | under the laws of any jurisdiction of the United States |
5 | | that is (i) a felony or (ii) a misdemeanor directly related |
6 | | to the practice of the profession, within the last 5 years. |
7 | | (2) That within the last 5 years, the applicant has had |
8 | | a license or permit related to the practice of nursing |
9 | | revoked, suspended, or placed on probation by another |
10 | | jurisdiction, if at least one of the grounds for revoking, |
11 | | suspending, or placing on probation is the same or |
12 | | substantially equivalent to grounds for disciplinary |
13 | | action under this Act. |
14 | | (3) That it intends to deny licensure by endorsement. |
15 | | (j) (Blank). A temporary license issued under this Section |
16 | | shall expire 6 months after the date of issuance. Further |
17 | | renewal may be granted by the Department in hardship cases, as |
18 | | defined by rule and upon approval of the Secretary. However, a |
19 | | temporary license shall automatically expire upon issuance of |
20 | | the Illinois license or upon notification that the Department |
21 | | intends to deny licensure, whichever occurs first. |
22 | | (k) All applicants for registered professional nurse |
23 | | licensure have 3 years after the date of application to |
24 | | complete the application process. If the process has not been |
25 | | completed within 3 years after the date of application, the |
26 | | application shall be denied, the fee forfeited, and the |
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1 | | applicant must reapply and meet the requirements in effect at |
2 | | the time of reapplication. |
3 | | (l) All applicants for registered nurse licensure by |
4 | | examination or endorsement who are graduates of practical |
5 | | nursing educational programs in a country other than the United |
6 | | States and its territories shall have their nursing education |
7 | | credentials evaluated by a Department-approved nursing |
8 | | credentialing evaluation service. No such applicant may be |
9 | | issued a license under this Act unless the applicant's program |
10 | | is deemed by the nursing credentialing evaluation service to be |
11 | | equivalent to a professional nursing education program |
12 | | approved by the Department. An applicant who has graduated from |
13 | | a nursing educational program outside of the United States or |
14 | | its territories and whose first language is not English shall |
15 | | submit evidence of English proficiency certification of |
16 | | passage of the Test of English as a Foreign Language (TOEFL) , |
17 | | as defined by rule. The Department may, upon recommendation |
18 | | from the nursing evaluation service, waive the requirement that |
19 | | the applicant pass the TOEFL examination if the applicant |
20 | | submits verification of the successful completion of a nursing |
21 | | education program conducted in English. The requirements of |
22 | | this subsection (l) may be satisfied by the showing of proof of |
23 | | a certificate from the Certificate Program or the VisaScreen |
24 | | Program of the Commission on Graduates of Foreign Nursing |
25 | | Schools. |
26 | | (m) (Blank). An applicant licensed in another state or |
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1 | | territory who is applying for licensure and has received her or |
2 | | his education in a country other than the United States or its |
3 | | territories shall have her or his nursing education credentials |
4 | | evaluated by a Department-approved nursing credentialing |
5 | | evaluation service. No such applicant may be issued a license |
6 | | under this Act unless the applicant's program is deemed by the |
7 | | nursing credentialing evaluation service to be equivalent to a |
8 | | professional nursing education program approved by the |
9 | | Department. An applicant who has graduated from a nursing |
10 | | educational program outside of the United States or its |
11 | | territories and whose first language is not English shall |
12 | | submit certification of passage of the Test of English as a |
13 | | Foreign Language (TOEFL), as defined by rule. The Department |
14 | | may, upon recommendation from the nursing evaluation service, |
15 | | waive the requirement that the applicant pass the TOEFL |
16 | | examination if the applicant submits verification of the |
17 | | successful completion of a nursing education program conducted |
18 | | in English or the successful passage of an approved licensing |
19 | | examination given in English. The requirements of this |
20 | | subsection (m) may be satisfied by the showing of proof of a |
21 | | certificate from the Certificate Program or the VisaScreen |
22 | | Program of the Commission on Graduates of Foreign Nursing |
23 | | Schools.
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24 | | (Source: P.A. 95-639, eff. 10-5-07.)
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25 | | (225 ILCS 65/60-11 new) |
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1 | | Sec. 60-11. RN licensure by endorsement. |
2 | | (a) Each applicant who successfully meets the requirements |
3 | | of this Section is eligible for licensure as a registered |
4 | | professional nurse. |
5 | | (b) An applicant for registered professional nurse |
6 | | licensure by endorsement who is a registered professional nurse |
7 | | licensed by examination under the laws of another United States |
8 | | jurisdiction or a foreign jurisdiction is eligible for |
9 | | licensure when the following requirements are met: |
10 | | (1) the applicant has submitted a completed written |
11 | | application, on forms supplied by the Department, and fees |
12 | | as established by the Department; |
13 | | (2) the applicant has graduated from a registered |
14 | | professional nursing education program approved by the |
15 | | Department; |
16 | | (2.5) the applicant has successfully completed a |
17 | | licensure examination approved by the Department; |
18 | | (3) the applicant has been issued a registered |
19 | | professional nurse license by another United States or |
20 | | foreign jurisdiction, which shall be verified, as defined |
21 | | by rule; |
22 | | (4) the applicant has submitted to the criminal history |
23 | | records check required under Section 50-35 of this Act; and |
24 | | (5) the applicant has met all other requirements as |
25 | | established by the Department by rule. |
26 | | (c) Pending the issuance of a license under this Section, |
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1 | | the Department may grant an applicant a temporary permit to |
2 | | practice nursing as a registered professional nurse if the |
3 | | Department is satisfied that the applicant holds an active, |
4 | | unencumbered license in good standing in another United States |
5 | | jurisdiction. If the applicant holds more than one current |
6 | | active license or one or more active temporary licenses from |
7 | | another jurisdiction, the Department may not issue a temporary |
8 | | permit until the Department is satisfied that each current |
9 | | active license held by the applicant is unencumbered. The |
10 | | temporary permit, which shall be issued no later than 14 |
11 | | working days after receipt by the Department of an application |
12 | | for the temporary permit, shall be granted upon the submission |
13 | | of all of the following to the Department: |
14 | | (1) a completed application for licensure as a |
15 | | registered professional nurse; |
16 | | (2) proof of a current, active license in at least one |
17 | | other jurisdiction of the United States and proof that each |
18 | | current active license or temporary license held by the |
19 | | applicant within the last 5 years is unencumbered; |
20 | | (3) a completed application for a temporary permit; and |
21 | | (4) the required temporary permit fee. |
22 | | (d) The Department may refuse to issue an applicant a |
23 | | temporary permit authorized pursuant to this Section if, within |
24 | | 14 working days after its receipt of an application for a |
25 | | temporary permit, the Department determines that: |
26 | | (1) the applicant has been convicted of a crime under |
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1 | | the laws of a jurisdiction of the United States that is (i) |
2 | | a felony or (ii) a misdemeanor directly related to the |
3 | | practice of the profession, within the last 5 years; |
4 | | (2) the applicant has had a license or permit related |
5 | | to the practice of nursing revoked, suspended, or placed on |
6 | | probation by another jurisdiction within the last 5 years, |
7 | | if at least one of the grounds for revoking, suspending, or |
8 | | placing on probation is the same or substantially |
9 | | equivalent to grounds for disciplinary action under this |
10 | | Act; or |
11 | | (3) the Department intends to deny licensure by |
12 | | endorsement. |
13 | | (e) The Department may revoke a temporary permit issued |
14 | | pursuant to this Section if it determines that: |
15 | | (1) the applicant has been convicted of a crime under |
16 | | the laws of any jurisdiction of the United States that is |
17 | | (i) a felony or (ii) a misdemeanor directly related to the |
18 | | practice of the profession, within the last 5 years; |
19 | | (2) within the last 5 years, the applicant has had a |
20 | | license or permit related to the practice of nursing |
21 | | revoked, suspended, or placed on probation by another |
22 | | jurisdiction, if at least one of the grounds for revoking, |
23 | | suspending, or placing on probation is the same or |
24 | | substantially equivalent to grounds for disciplinary |
25 | | action under this Act; or |
26 | | (3) the Department intends to deny licensure by |
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1 | | endorsement. |
2 | | (f) A temporary permit issued under this Section shall |
3 | | expire 6 months after the date of issuance. Further renewal may |
4 | | be granted by the Department in hardship cases, as defined by |
5 | | rule and upon approval of the Secretary. However, a temporary |
6 | | permit shall automatically expire upon issuance of the Illinois |
7 | | license or upon notification that the Department intends to |
8 | | deny licensure, whichever occurs first. |
9 | | (g) All applicants for registered professional nurse |
10 | | licensure have 3 years after the date of application to |
11 | | complete the application process. If the process has not been |
12 | | completed within 3 years after the date of application, the |
13 | | application shall be denied, the fee forfeited, and the |
14 | | applicant must reapply and meet the requirements in effect at |
15 | | the time of reapplication. |
16 | | (h) An applicant licensed in another state or territory who |
17 | | is applying for licensure and has received her or his education |
18 | | in a country other than the United States or its territories |
19 | | shall have her or his nursing education credentials evaluated |
20 | | by a Department-approved nursing credentialing evaluation |
21 | | service. No such applicant may be issued a license under this |
22 | | Act unless the applicant's program is deemed by the nursing |
23 | | credentialing evaluation service to be equivalent to a |
24 | | professional nursing education program approved by the |
25 | | Department. An applicant who has graduated from a nursing |
26 | | education program outside of the United States or its |
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1 | | territories and whose first language is not English shall |
2 | | submit evidence of English proficiency, as defined by rule.
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3 | | (225 ILCS 65/60-25) |
4 | | (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)
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5 | | Sec. 60-25. Restoration of RN license; temporary permit.
|
6 | | (a) Any license to practice professional nursing issued |
7 | | under this Act that has expired or that is on inactive status |
8 | | may be restored by making application to the Department and |
9 | | filing proof of fitness acceptable to the Department as |
10 | | specified by rule to have the license restored and by paying |
11 | | the required restoration fee. Such proof of fitness may include |
12 | | evidence certifying active lawful practice in another |
13 | | jurisdiction. |
14 | | (b) A licensee seeking restoration of a license after it |
15 | | has expired or been placed on inactive status for more than 5 |
16 | | years shall file an application, on forms supplied by the |
17 | | Department, and submit the restoration or renewal fees set |
18 | | forth by the Department. The licensee shall also submit proof |
19 | | of fitness to practice as specified by rule. , including one of |
20 | | the following: |
21 | | (1) Certification of active practice in another |
22 | | jurisdiction, which may include a statement from the |
23 | | appropriate board or licensing authority in the other |
24 | | jurisdiction that the licensee was authorized to practice |
25 | | during the term of said active practice. |
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1 | | (2) Proof of the successful completion of a |
2 | | Department-approved licensure examination. |
3 | | (3) An affidavit attesting to military service as |
4 | | provided in subsection (c) of this Section; however, if |
5 | | application is made within 2 years after discharge and if |
6 | | all other provisions of subsection (c) of this Section are |
7 | | satisfied, the applicant shall be required to pay the |
8 | | current renewal fee. |
9 | | (c) Any registered professional nurse license issued under |
10 | | this Act that expired while the licensee was (1) in federal |
11 | | service on active duty with the Armed Forces of the United |
12 | | States or in the State Militia called into service or training |
13 | | or (2) in training or education under the supervision of the |
14 | | United States preliminary to induction into the military |
15 | | service may have the license restored without paying any lapsed |
16 | | renewal fees if, within 2 years after honorable termination of |
17 | | such service, training, or education, the applicant furnishes |
18 | | the Department with satisfactory evidence to the effect that |
19 | | the applicant has been so engaged and that the individual's |
20 | | service, training, or education has been so terminated. |
21 | | (d) Any licensee who engages in the practice of |
22 | | professional nursing with a lapsed license or while on inactive |
23 | | status shall be considered to be practicing without a license, |
24 | | which shall be grounds for discipline under Section 70-5 of |
25 | | this Act. |
26 | | (e) Pending restoration of a registered professional nurse |
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1 | | license under this Section, the Department may grant an |
2 | | applicant a temporary permit to practice as a registered |
3 | | professional nurse if the Department is satisfied that the |
4 | | applicant holds an active, unencumbered license in good |
5 | | standing in another jurisdiction. If the applicant holds more |
6 | | than one current active license or one or more active temporary |
7 | | licenses from another jurisdiction, the Department shall not |
8 | | issue a temporary permit until it is satisfied that each |
9 | | current active license held by the applicant is unencumbered. |
10 | | The temporary permit, which shall be issued no later than 14 |
11 | | working days after receipt by the Department of an application |
12 | | for the permit, shall be granted upon the submission of all of |
13 | | the following to the Department: |
14 | | (1) A signed and completed application for restoration |
15 | | of licensure under this Section as a registered |
16 | | professional nurse. |
17 | | (2) Proof of (i) a current, active license in at least |
18 | | one other jurisdiction and proof that each current, active |
19 | | license or temporary permit held by the applicant is |
20 | | unencumbered or (ii) fitness to practice nursing in |
21 | | Illinois, as specified by rule. |
22 | | (3) A signed and completed application for a temporary |
23 | | permit. |
24 | | (4) The required permit fee. |
25 | | (f) The Department may refuse to issue to an applicant a |
26 | | temporary permit authorized under this Section if, within 14 |
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1 | | working days after its receipt of an application for a |
2 | | temporary permit, the Department determines that: |
3 | | (1) the applicant has been convicted within the last 5 |
4 | | years of any crime under the laws of any jurisdiction of |
5 | | the United States that is (i) a felony or (ii) a |
6 | | misdemeanor directly related to the practice of the |
7 | | profession; |
8 | | (2) within the last 5 years the applicant had a license |
9 | | or permit related to the practice of nursing revoked, |
10 | | suspended, or placed on probation by another jurisdiction |
11 | | if at least one of the grounds for revoking, suspending, or |
12 | | placing on probation is the same or substantially |
13 | | equivalent to grounds for disciplinary action under this |
14 | | Act; or |
15 | | (3) the Department intends to deny restoration of the |
16 | | license. |
17 | | (g) The Department may revoke a temporary permit issued |
18 | | under this Section if: |
19 | | (1) the Department determines that the applicant has |
20 | | been convicted within the last 5 years of any crime under |
21 | | the laws of any jurisdiction of the United States that is |
22 | | (i) a felony or (ii) a misdemeanor directly related to the |
23 | | practice of the profession; |
24 | | (2) within the last 5 years, the applicant had a |
25 | | license or permit related to the practice of nursing |
26 | | revoked, suspended, or placed on probation by another |
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1 | | jurisdiction, if at least one of the grounds for revoking, |
2 | | suspending, or placing on probation is the same or |
3 | | substantially equivalent to grounds in Illinois; or |
4 | | (3) the Department intends to deny restoration of the |
5 | | license. |
6 | | (h) A temporary permit or renewed temporary permit shall |
7 | | expire (i) upon issuance of an Illinois license or (ii) upon |
8 | | notification that the Department intends to deny restoration of |
9 | | licensure. A temporary permit shall expire 6 months from the |
10 | | date of issuance. Further renewal may be granted by the |
11 | | Department, in hardship cases, that shall automatically expire |
12 | | upon issuance of the Illinois license or upon notification that |
13 | | the Department intends to deny licensure, whichever occurs |
14 | | first. No extensions shall be granted beyond the 6-month period |
15 | | unless approved by the Secretary. Notification by the |
16 | | Department under this Section must be by certified or |
17 | | registered mail to the address of record or by email to the |
18 | | email address of record .
|
19 | | (Source: P.A. 95-639, eff. 10-5-07.)
|
20 | | (225 ILCS 65/60-35) |
21 | | (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)
|
22 | | Sec. 60-35. RN scope of practice. The RN scope of nursing |
23 | | practice is the protection, promotion, and optimization of |
24 | | health and abilities, the prevention of illness and injury, the |
25 | | development and implementation of the nursing plan of care, the |
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1 | | facilitation of nursing interventions to alleviate suffering, |
2 | | care coordination, and advocacy in the care of individuals, |
3 | | families, groups, communities, and populations. Practice as a |
4 | | registered professional nurse means this full scope of nursing, |
5 | | with or without compensation, that incorporates caring for all |
6 | | patients in all settings, through nursing standards of practice |
7 | | and professional performance for coordination of care, and may |
8 | | include, but is not limited to, all of the following: |
9 | | (1) Collecting pertinent data and information relative |
10 | | to the patient's health or the situation on an ongoing |
11 | | basis through the comprehensive nursing assessment. |
12 | | (2) Analyzing comprehensive nursing assessment data to |
13 | | determine actual or potential diagnoses, problems, and |
14 | | issues. |
15 | | (3) Identifying expected outcomes for a plan |
16 | | individualized to the patient or the situation that |
17 | | prescribes strategies to attain expected, measurable |
18 | | outcomes. |
19 | | (4) Implementing the identified plan, coordinating |
20 | | care delivery, employing strategies to promote healthy and |
21 | | safe environments, and administering or delegating |
22 | | medication administration according to Section 50-75 of |
23 | | this Act. |
24 | | (5) Evaluating patient progress toward attainment of |
25 | | goals and outcomes. |
26 | | (6) Delegating nursing interventions to implement the |
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1 | | plan of care. |
2 | | (7) Providing health education and counseling. |
3 | | (7.5) Advocating for the patient. |
4 | | (8) Practicing ethically according to the American |
5 | | Nurses Association Code of Ethics. |
6 | | (9) Practicing in a manner that recognizes cultural |
7 | | diversity. |
8 | | (10) Communicating effectively in all areas of |
9 | | practice. |
10 | | (11) Collaborating with patients and other key |
11 | | stakeholders in the conduct of nursing practice. |
12 | | (12) Participating in continuous professional |
13 | | development. |
14 | | (13) Teaching the theory and practice of nursing to |
15 | | student nurses. |
16 | | (14) Leading within the professional practice setting |
17 | | and the profession. |
18 | | (15) Contributing to quality nursing practice. |
19 | | (16) Integrating evidence and research findings into |
20 | | practice. |
21 | | (17) Utilizing appropriate resources to plan, provide, |
22 | | and sustain evidence-based nursing services that are safe |
23 | | and effective. |
24 | | (a) Practice as a registered professional nurse means the |
25 | | full scope of nursing, with or without compensation, that |
26 | | incorporates caring for all patients in all settings, through |
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1 | | nursing standards recognized by the Department, and includes, |
2 | | but is not limited to, all of the following: |
3 | | (1) The comprehensive nursing assessment of the health |
4 | | status of patients that addresses changes to patient |
5 | | conditions. |
6 | | (2) The development of a plan of nursing care to be |
7 | | integrated within the patient-centered health care plan |
8 | | that establishes nursing diagnoses, and setting goals to |
9 | | meet identified health care needs, determining nursing |
10 | | interventions, and implementation of nursing care through |
11 | | the execution of nursing strategies and regimens ordered or |
12 | | prescribed by authorized healthcare professionals. |
13 | | (3) The administration of medication or delegation of |
14 | | medication administration to licensed practical nurses. |
15 | | (4) Delegation of nursing interventions to implement |
16 | | the plan of care. |
17 | | (5) The provision for the maintenance of safe and |
18 | | effective nursing care rendered directly or through |
19 | | delegation. |
20 | | (6) Advocating for patients. |
21 | | (7) The evaluation of responses to interventions and |
22 | | the effectiveness of the plan of care. |
23 | | (8) Communicating and collaborating with other health |
24 | | care professionals. |
25 | | (9) The procurement and application of new knowledge |
26 | | and technologies. |
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1 | | (10) The provision of health education and counseling. |
2 | | (11) Participating in development of policies, |
3 | | procedures, and systems to support patient safety.
|
4 | | (Source: P.A. 95-639, eff. 10-5-07.)
|
5 | | (225 ILCS 65/Art. 65 heading) |
6 | | ARTICLE 65. ADVANCED PRACTICE REGISTERED NURSES
|
7 | | (Article scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018) |
8 | | (Source: P.A. 95-639, eff. 10-5-07 .)
|
9 | | (225 ILCS 65/65-5)
(was 225 ILCS 65/15-10)
|
10 | | (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)
|
11 | | Sec. 65-5. Qualifications for APRN APN licensure.
|
12 | | (a) Each applicant who successfully meets the requirements |
13 | | of this Section is eligible for shall be entitled to licensure |
14 | | as an advanced practice registered nurse. |
15 | | (b) An applicant for licensure to practice as an advanced |
16 | | practice registered nurse is eligible for licensure when the |
17 | | following requirements are met must do each of the following :
|
18 | | (1) the applicant has submitted Submit a completed |
19 | | application and any fees as established by the Department ; .
|
20 | | (2) the applicant holds Hold a current license to |
21 | | practice as a
registered professional nurse under this |
22 | | Act ; .
|
23 | | (3) the applicant has Have successfully completed |
24 | | requirements to practice as, and holds and maintains
|
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1 | | current, national certification as, a nurse midwife, |
2 | | clinical nurse specialist,
nurse practitioner, or |
3 | | certified registered nurse anesthetist from the
|
4 | | appropriate national certifying body as determined by rule |
5 | | of the Department ; .
|
6 | | (4) the applicant has Have obtained a graduate degree |
7 | | appropriate for national certification in a clinical |
8 | | advanced practice registered nursing specialty or a |
9 | | graduate degree or post-master's certificate from a |
10 | | graduate level program in a clinical advanced practice |
11 | | registered nursing specialty ; .
|
12 | | (5) (blank); Have not violated the provisions of this |
13 | | Act concerning the grounds for disciplinary action. The |
14 | | Department may take into consideration any felony |
15 | | conviction of the applicant, but such a conviction may not |
16 | | operate as an absolute bar to licensure. |
17 | | (6) the applicant has submitted Submit to the criminal |
18 | | history records check required under Section 50-35 of this |
19 | | Act ; and .
|
20 | | (7) if applicable, the applicant has submitted |
21 | | verification of licensure status in another jurisdiction, |
22 | | as provided by rule. |
23 | | (b-5) A registered professional nurse seeking licensure as |
24 | | an advanced practice registered nurse in the category of |
25 | | certified registered nurse anesthetist who does not have a |
26 | | graduate degree as described in subsection (b) of this Section |
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1 | | shall be qualified for licensure if that person: |
2 | | (1) submits evidence of having successfully completed |
3 | | a nurse anesthesia program described in item (4) of |
4 | | subsection (b) of this Section prior to January 1, 1999; |
5 | | (2) submits evidence of certification as a registered |
6 | | nurse anesthetist by an appropriate national certifying |
7 | | body; and |
8 | | (3) has continually maintained active, up-to-date |
9 | | recertification status as a certified registered nurse |
10 | | anesthetist by an appropriate national recertifying body. |
11 | | (b-10) The Department may shall issue a certified |
12 | | registered nurse anesthetist license to an APRN APN who (i) |
13 | | does not have a graduate degree, (ii) applies for licensure |
14 | | before July 1, 2018, and (iii) submits all of the following to |
15 | | the Department: |
16 | | (1) His or her current State registered nurse license |
17 | | number. |
18 | | (2) Proof of current national certification, which |
19 | | includes the completion of an examination from either of |
20 | | the following: |
21 | | (A) the Council on Certification of the American |
22 | | Association of Nurse Anesthetists; or |
23 | | (B) the Council on Recertification of the American |
24 | | Association of Nurse Anesthetists. |
25 | | (3) Proof of the successful completion of a post-basic |
26 | | advanced practice formal education program in the area of |
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1 | | nurse anesthesia prior to January 1, 1999. |
2 | | (4) His or her complete work history for the 5-year |
3 | | period immediately preceding the date of his or her |
4 | | application. |
5 | | (5) Verification of licensure as an advanced practice |
6 | | registered nurse from the state in which he or she was |
7 | | originally licensed, current state of licensure, and any |
8 | | other state in which he or she has been actively practicing |
9 | | as an advanced practice registered nurse within the 5-year |
10 | | period immediately preceding the date of his or her |
11 | | application. If applicable, this verification must state: |
12 | | (A) the time during which he or she was licensed in |
13 | | each state, including the date of the original issuance |
14 | | of each license; and |
15 | | (B) any disciplinary action taken or pending |
16 | | concerning any nursing license held, currently or in |
17 | | the past, by the applicant. |
18 | | (6) The required fee. |
19 | | (c) Those applicants seeking licensure in more than one |
20 | | advanced practice registered nursing specialty need not |
21 | | possess multiple graduate degrees. Applicants may be eligible |
22 | | for licenses for multiple advanced practice registered nurse |
23 | | licensure specialties, provided that the applicant (i) has met |
24 | | the requirements for at least one advanced practice registered |
25 | | nursing specialty under paragraphs (3) and (5) of subsection |
26 | | (a) of this Section, (ii) possesses an additional graduate |
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1 | | education that results in a certificate for another clinical |
2 | | advanced practice registered nurse specialty and that meets the |
3 | | requirements for the national certification from the |
4 | | appropriate nursing specialty, and (iii) holds a current |
5 | | national certification from the appropriate national |
6 | | certifying body for that additional advanced practice |
7 | | registered nursing specialty.
|
8 | | (Source: P.A. 98-837, eff. 1-1-15 .)
|
9 | | (225 ILCS 65/65-10)
(was 225 ILCS 65/15-13)
|
10 | | (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)
|
11 | | Sec. 65-10. APRN APN license pending status.
|
12 | | (a) A graduate of an advanced practice registered nursing |
13 | | program may practice in the
State
of Illinois in the role of |
14 | | certified clinical nurse specialist, certified nurse
midwife,
|
15 | | certified nurse practitioner, or certified registered nurse |
16 | | anesthetist for not
longer than 6
months provided he or she |
17 | | submits all of the following:
|
18 | | (1) An application for licensure as an advanced |
19 | | practice registered nurse in
Illinois and all fees |
20 | | established by rule.
|
21 | | (2) Proof of an application to take the national |
22 | | certification examination
in
the specialty.
|
23 | | (3) Proof of completion of a graduate advanced practice
|
24 | | education program that allows the applicant to be eligible |
25 | | for national
certification in a clinical advanced practice |
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1 | | registered nursing specialty and that
allows the applicant |
2 | | to be eligible for licensure in Illinois in the area of
his |
3 | | or her specialty.
|
4 | | (4) Proof that he or she is licensed in Illinois as a |
5 | | registered
professional
nurse.
|
6 | | (b) License pending status shall preclude delegation of |
7 | | prescriptive
authority.
|
8 | | (c) A graduate practicing in accordance with this Section |
9 | | must use the
title
"license pending certified clinical nurse |
10 | | specialist", "license pending
certified nurse
midwife", |
11 | | "license pending certified nurse practitioner", or "license |
12 | | pending
certified
registered nurse anesthetist", whichever is |
13 | | applicable.
|
14 | | (Source: P.A. 97-813, eff. 7-13-12.)
|
15 | | (225 ILCS 65/65-15) |
16 | | (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)
|
17 | | Sec. 65-15. Expiration of APRN APN license; renewal. |
18 | | (a) The expiration date and renewal period for each |
19 | | advanced practice registered nurse license issued under this |
20 | | Act shall be set by rule. The holder of a license may renew the |
21 | | license during the month preceding the expiration date of the |
22 | | license by paying the required fee. It is the responsibility of |
23 | | the licensee to notify the Department in writing of a change of |
24 | | address. |
25 | | (b) On and after May 30, 2020, except as provided in |
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1 | | subsections (c) and (d) of this Section, each advanced practice |
2 | | registered nurse is required to show proof of continued, |
3 | | current national certification in the specialty.
|
4 | | (c) An advanced practice registered nurse who does not meet |
5 | | the educational requirements necessary to obtain national |
6 | | certification but has continuously held an unencumbered |
7 | | license under this Act since 2001 shall not be required to show |
8 | | proof of national certification in the specialty to renew his |
9 | | or her advanced practice registered nurse license. |
10 | | (d) The Department may renew the license of an advanced |
11 | | practice registered nurse who applies for renewal of his or her |
12 | | license on or before May 30, 2016 and is unable to provide |
13 | | proof of continued, current national certification in the |
14 | | specialty but complies with all other renewal requirements. |
15 | | (e) Any advanced practice registered nurse license renewed |
16 | | on and after May 31, 2016 based on the changes made to this |
17 | | Section by this amendatory Act of the 99th General Assembly |
18 | | shall be retroactive to the expiration date. |
19 | | (Source: P.A. 99-505, eff. 5-27-16.)
|
20 | | (225 ILCS 65/65-20) |
21 | | (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)
|
22 | | Sec. 65-20. Restoration of APRN APN license; temporary |
23 | | permit. |
24 | | (a) Any license issued under this Act that has expired or |
25 | | that is on inactive status may be restored by making |
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1 | | application to the Department and filing proof of fitness |
2 | | acceptable to the Department as specified by rule to have the |
3 | | license restored and by paying the required restoration fee. |
4 | | Such proof of fitness may include evidence certifying active |
5 | | lawful practice in another jurisdiction. |
6 | | (b) A licensee seeking restoration of a license after it |
7 | | has expired or been placed on inactive status for more than 5 |
8 | | years shall file an application, on forms supplied by the |
9 | | Department, and submit the restoration or renewal fees set |
10 | | forth by the Department. The licensee shall also submit proof |
11 | | of fitness to practice as specified by rule. , including one of |
12 | | the following: |
13 | | (1) Certification of active practice in another |
14 | | jurisdiction, which may include a statement from the |
15 | | appropriate board or licensing authority in the other |
16 | | jurisdiction in which the licensee was authorized to |
17 | | practice during the term of said active practice. |
18 | | (2) Proof of the successful completion of a |
19 | | Department-approved licensure examination. |
20 | | (3) An affidavit attesting to military service as |
21 | | provided in subsection (c) of this Section; however, if |
22 | | application is made within 2 years after discharge and if |
23 | | all other provisions of subsection (c) of this Section are |
24 | | satisfied, the applicant shall be required to pay the |
25 | | current renewal fee. |
26 | | (4) Other proof as established by rule. |
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1 | | (c) Any advanced practice registered nurse license issued |
2 | | under this Act that expired while the licensee was (1) in |
3 | | federal service on active duty with the Armed Forces of the |
4 | | United States or in the State Militia called into service or |
5 | | training or (2) in training or education under the supervision |
6 | | of the United States preliminary to induction into the military |
7 | | service may have the license restored without paying any lapsed |
8 | | renewal fees if, within 2 years after honorable termination of |
9 | | such service, training, or education, the applicant furnishes |
10 | | the Department with satisfactory evidence to the effect that |
11 | | the applicant has been so engaged and that the individual's |
12 | | service, training, or education has been so terminated. |
13 | | (d) Any licensee who engages in the practice of advanced |
14 | | practice registered nursing with a lapsed license or while on |
15 | | inactive status shall be considered to be practicing without a |
16 | | license, which shall be grounds for discipline under Section |
17 | | 70-5 of this Act. |
18 | | (e) Pending restoration of an advanced practice registered |
19 | | nurse license under this Section, the Department may grant an |
20 | | applicant a temporary permit to practice as an advanced |
21 | | practice registered nurse if the Department is satisfied that |
22 | | the applicant holds an active, unencumbered license in good |
23 | | standing in another jurisdiction. If the applicant holds more |
24 | | than one current , active license or one or more active |
25 | | temporary licenses from another jurisdiction, the Department |
26 | | shall not issue a temporary permit until it is satisfied that |
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1 | | each current active license held by the applicant is |
2 | | unencumbered. The temporary permit, which shall be issued no |
3 | | later than 14 working days after receipt by the Department of |
4 | | an application for the permit, shall be granted upon the |
5 | | submission of all of the following to the Department: |
6 | | (1) A signed and completed application for restoration |
7 | | of licensure under this Section as an advanced practice |
8 | | registered nurse. |
9 | | (2) Proof of (i) a current, active license in at least |
10 | | one other jurisdiction and proof that each current, active |
11 | | license or temporary permit held by the applicant is |
12 | | unencumbered or (ii) fitness to practice nursing in |
13 | | Illinois, as specified by rule. |
14 | | (3) A signed and completed application for a temporary |
15 | | permit. |
16 | | (4) The required permit fee. |
17 | | (5) Other proof as established by rule. |
18 | | (f) The Department may refuse to issue to an applicant a |
19 | | temporary permit authorized under this Section if, within 14 |
20 | | working days after its receipt of an application for a |
21 | | temporary permit, the Department determines that: |
22 | | (1) the applicant has been convicted within the last 5 |
23 | | years of any crime under the laws of any jurisdiction of |
24 | | the United States that is (i) a felony or (ii) a |
25 | | misdemeanor directly related to the practice of the |
26 | | profession; |
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1 | | (2) within the last 5 years, the applicant had a |
2 | | license or permit related to the practice of nursing |
3 | | revoked, suspended, or placed on probation by another |
4 | | jurisdiction if at least one of the grounds for revoking, |
5 | | suspending, or placing on probation is the same or |
6 | | substantially equivalent to grounds for disciplinary |
7 | | action under this Act; or |
8 | | (3) the Department intends to deny restoration of the |
9 | | license. |
10 | | (g) The Department may revoke a temporary permit issued |
11 | | under this Section if: |
12 | | (1) the Department determines that the applicant has |
13 | | been convicted within the last 5 years of any crime under |
14 | | the laws of any jurisdiction of the United States that is |
15 | | (i) a felony or (ii) a misdemeanor directly related to the |
16 | | practice of the profession; |
17 | | (2) within the last 5 years, the applicant had a |
18 | | license or permit related to the practice of nursing |
19 | | revoked, suspended, or placed on probation by another |
20 | | jurisdiction, if at least one of the grounds for revoking, |
21 | | suspending, or placing on probation is the same or |
22 | | substantially equivalent to grounds in Illinois; or |
23 | | (3) the Department intends to deny restoration of the |
24 | | license. |
25 | | (h) A temporary permit or renewed temporary permit shall |
26 | | expire (i) upon issuance of an Illinois license or (ii) upon |
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1 | | notification that the Department intends to deny restoration of |
2 | | licensure. Except as otherwise provided in this Section, a |
3 | | temporary permit shall expire 6 months from the date of |
4 | | issuance. Further renewal may be granted by the Department in |
5 | | hardship cases that shall automatically expire upon issuance of |
6 | | the Illinois license or upon notification that the Department |
7 | | intends to deny licensure, whichever occurs first. No |
8 | | extensions shall be granted beyond the 6-month period unless |
9 | | approved by the Secretary. Notification by the Department under |
10 | | this Section must be by certified or registered mail to the |
11 | | address of record or by email to the email address of record .
|
12 | | (Source: P.A. 95-639, eff. 10-5-07.)
|
13 | | (225 ILCS 65/65-25) |
14 | | (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)
|
15 | | Sec. 65-25. Inactive status of a APRN APN license. Any |
16 | | advanced practice registered nurse who notifies the Department |
17 | | in writing on forms prescribed by the Department may elect to |
18 | | place his or her license on inactive status and shall, subject |
19 | | to rules of the Department, be excused from payment of renewal |
20 | | fees until notice is given to the Department in writing of his |
21 | | or her intent to restore the license. |
22 | | Any advanced practice registered nurse requesting |
23 | | restoration from inactive status shall be required to pay the |
24 | | current renewal fee and shall be required to restore his or her |
25 | | license, as provided by rule of the Department. |
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1 | | Any advanced practice registered nurse whose license is on |
2 | | inactive status shall not practice advanced practice |
3 | | registered nursing, as defined by this Act in the State of |
4 | | Illinois.
|
5 | | (Source: P.A. 95-639, eff. 10-5-07.)
|
6 | | (225 ILCS 65/65-30) |
7 | | (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)
|
8 | | Sec. 65-30. APRN APN scope of practice.
|
9 | | (a) Advanced practice registered nursing by certified |
10 | | nurse practitioners, certified nurse anesthetists, certified |
11 | | nurse midwives, or clinical nurse specialists is based on |
12 | | knowledge and skills acquired throughout an advanced practice |
13 | | registered nurse's nursing education, training, and |
14 | | experience. |
15 | | (b) Practice as an advanced practice registered nurse means |
16 | | a scope of nursing practice, with or without compensation, and |
17 | | includes the registered nurse scope of practice. |
18 | | (c) The scope of practice of an advanced practice |
19 | | registered nurse includes, but is not limited to, each of the |
20 | | following: |
21 | | (1) Advanced nursing patient assessment and diagnosis. |
22 | | (2) Ordering diagnostic and therapeutic tests and |
23 | | procedures, performing those tests and procedures when using |
24 | | health care equipment, and interpreting and using the results |
25 | | of diagnostic and therapeutic tests and procedures ordered by |
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1 | | the advanced practice registered nurse or another health care |
2 | | professional. |
3 | | (3) Ordering treatments, ordering or applying |
4 | | appropriate medical devices, and using nursing medical, |
5 | | therapeutic, and corrective measures to treat illness and |
6 | | improve health status. |
7 | | (4) Providing palliative and end-of-life care. |
8 | | (5) Providing advanced counseling, patient education, |
9 | | health education, and patient advocacy. |
10 | | (6) Prescriptive authority as defined in Section 65-40 |
11 | | of this Act. |
12 | | (7) Delegating selected nursing interventions |
13 | | activities or tasks to a licensed practical nurse, a registered |
14 | | professional nurse, or other personnel.
|
15 | | (Source: P.A. 95-639, eff. 10-5-07.)
|
16 | | (225 ILCS 65/65-35)
(was 225 ILCS 65/15-15)
|
17 | | (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)
|
18 | | Sec. 65-35. Written collaborative
agreements. |
19 | | (a) A written collaborative agreement is required for all |
20 | | advanced practice registered nurses engaged in clinical |
21 | | practice, except for advanced practice registered nurses who |
22 | | are authorized to practice in a hospital, hospital affiliate, |
23 | | or ambulatory surgical treatment center. |
24 | | (a-5) If an advanced practice registered nurse engages in |
25 | | clinical practice outside of a hospital, hospital affiliate, or |
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1 | | ambulatory surgical treatment center in which he or she is |
2 | | authorized to practice, the advanced practice registered nurse |
3 | | must have a written collaborative agreement.
|
4 | | (b) A written collaborative
agreement shall describe the |
5 | | relationship of the
advanced practice registered nurse with the |
6 | | collaborating
physician or podiatric physician and shall |
7 | | describe the categories of
care, treatment, or procedures to be |
8 | | provided by the advanced
practice registered nurse. A |
9 | | collaborative agreement with a dentist must be in accordance |
10 | | with subsection (c-10) of this Section. Collaboration does not |
11 | | require an
employment relationship between the collaborating |
12 | | physician
or podiatric physician and advanced practice |
13 | | registered nurse.
|
14 | | The collaborative
relationship under an agreement shall |
15 | | not be
construed to require the personal presence of a |
16 | | physician or podiatric physician at the place where services |
17 | | are rendered.
Methods of communication shall
be available for |
18 | | consultation with the collaborating
physician or podiatric |
19 | | physician in person or by telecommunications or electronic |
20 | | communications as set forth in the written
agreement.
|
21 | | (b-5) Absent an employment relationship, a written |
22 | | collaborative agreement may not (1) restrict the categories of |
23 | | patients of an advanced practice registered nurse within the |
24 | | scope of the advanced practice registered nurses training and |
25 | | experience, (2) limit third party payors or government health |
26 | | programs, such as the medical assistance program or Medicare |
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1 | | with which the advanced practice registered nurse contracts, or |
2 | | (3) limit the geographic area or practice location of the |
3 | | advanced practice registered nurse in this State. |
4 | | (c)
In the case of anesthesia services provided by a |
5 | | certified registered nurse anesthetist, an anesthesiologist, a |
6 | | physician, a dentist, or a podiatric physician must participate |
7 | | through discussion of and agreement with the anesthesia plan |
8 | | and remain physically present and available on the premises |
9 | | during the delivery of anesthesia services for diagnosis, |
10 | | consultation, and treatment of emergency medical conditions.
|
11 | | (c-5) A certified registered nurse anesthetist, who |
12 | | provides anesthesia services outside of a hospital or |
13 | | ambulatory surgical treatment center shall enter into a written |
14 | | collaborative agreement with an anesthesiologist or the |
15 | | physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches or |
16 | | the podiatric physician performing the procedure. Outside of a |
17 | | hospital or ambulatory surgical treatment center, the |
18 | | certified registered nurse anesthetist may provide only those |
19 | | services that the collaborating podiatric physician is |
20 | | authorized to provide pursuant to the Podiatric Medical |
21 | | Practice Act of 1987 and rules adopted thereunder. A certified |
22 | | registered nurse anesthetist may select, order, and administer |
23 | | medication, including controlled substances, and apply |
24 | | appropriate medical devices for delivery of anesthesia |
25 | | services under the anesthesia plan agreed with by the |
26 | | anesthesiologist or the operating physician or operating |
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1 | | podiatric physician. |
2 | | (c-10) A certified registered nurse anesthetist who |
3 | | provides anesthesia services in a dental office shall enter |
4 | | into a written collaborative agreement with an |
5 | | anesthesiologist or the physician licensed to practice |
6 | | medicine in all its branches or the operating dentist |
7 | | performing the procedure. The agreement shall describe the |
8 | | working relationship of the certified registered nurse |
9 | | anesthetist and dentist and shall authorize the categories of |
10 | | care, treatment, or procedures to be performed by the certified |
11 | | registered nurse anesthetist. In a collaborating dentist's |
12 | | office, the certified registered nurse anesthetist may only |
13 | | provide those services that the operating dentist with the |
14 | | appropriate permit is authorized to provide pursuant to the |
15 | | Illinois Dental Practice Act and rules adopted thereunder. For |
16 | | anesthesia services, an anesthesiologist, physician, or |
17 | | operating dentist shall participate through discussion of and |
18 | | agreement with the anesthesia plan and shall remain physically |
19 | | present and be available on the premises during the delivery of |
20 | | anesthesia services for diagnosis, consultation, and treatment |
21 | | of emergency medical conditions. A certified registered nurse |
22 | | anesthetist may select, order, and administer medication, |
23 | | including controlled substances, and apply appropriate medical |
24 | | devices for delivery of anesthesia services under the |
25 | | anesthesia plan agreed with by the operating dentist. |
26 | | (d) A copy of the signed, written collaborative agreement |
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1 | | must be available
to the Department upon request from both the |
2 | | advanced practice registered nurse
and the collaborating |
3 | | physician, dentist, or podiatric physician. |
4 | | (e) Nothing in this Act shall be construed to limit the |
5 | | delegation of tasks or duties by a physician to a licensed |
6 | | practical nurse, a registered professional nurse, or other |
7 | | persons in accordance with Section 54.2 of the Medical Practice |
8 | | Act of 1987. Nothing in this Act shall be construed to limit |
9 | | the method of delegation that may be authorized by any means, |
10 | | including, but not limited to, oral, written, electronic, |
11 | | standing orders, protocols, guidelines, or verbal orders. |
12 | | Nothing in this Act shall be construed to authorize an advanced |
13 | | practice registered nurse to provide health care services |
14 | | required by law or rule to be performed by a physician. |
15 | | (f) An advanced
practice registered nurse shall inform each |
16 | | collaborating physician, dentist, or podiatric physician of |
17 | | all collaborative
agreements he or she
has signed and provide a |
18 | | copy of these to any collaborating physician, dentist, or |
19 | | podiatric physician upon
request.
|
20 | | (g) (Blank). |
21 | | (Source: P.A. 98-192, eff. 1-1-14; 98-214, eff. 8-9-13; 98-756, |
22 | | eff. 7-16-14; 99-173, eff. 7-29-15.)
|
23 | | (225 ILCS 65/65-35.1) |
24 | | (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018) |
25 | | Sec. 65-35.1. Written collaborative agreement; temporary |
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1 | | practice. Any advanced practice registered nurse required to |
2 | | enter into a written collaborative agreement with a |
3 | | collaborating physician or collaborating podiatrist is |
4 | | authorized to continue to practice for up to 90 days after the |
5 | | termination of a collaborative agreement provided the advanced |
6 | | practice registered nurse seeks any needed collaboration at a |
7 | | local hospital and refers patients who require services beyond |
8 | | the training and experience of the advanced practice registered |
9 | | nurse to a physician or other health care provider.
|
10 | | (Source: P.A. 99-173, eff. 7-29-15.)
|
11 | | (225 ILCS 65/65-40)
(was 225 ILCS 65/15-20)
|
12 | | (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)
|
13 | | Sec. 65-40. Written collaborative agreement; prescriptive |
14 | | authority.
|
15 | | (a) A collaborating
physician or podiatric physician may, |
16 | | but is not required to, delegate
prescriptive authority to an |
17 | | advanced practice registered
nurse as part of a written |
18 | | collaborative agreement. This authority may, but is
not |
19 | | required to, include
prescription of, selection of, orders for, |
20 | | administration of, storage of, acceptance of samples of, and |
21 | | dispensing over the counter medications, legend drugs, medical |
22 | | gases, and controlled
substances categorized as
any Schedule |
23 | | III through V controlled substances, as defined in Article II |
24 | | of the
Illinois Controlled Substances Act, and other |
25 | | preparations, including, but not limited to, botanical and |
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1 | | herbal remedies. The collaborating physician or podiatric |
2 | | physician must have a valid current Illinois controlled |
3 | | substance license and federal registration to delegate |
4 | | authority to prescribe delegated controlled substances.
|
5 | | (b) To prescribe controlled
substances under this Section, |
6 | | an advanced practice registered
nurse must obtain a mid-level |
7 | | practitioner controlled substance license.
Medication orders |
8 | | shall be
reviewed
periodically by the collaborating physician |
9 | | or podiatric physician.
|
10 | | (c) The collaborating physician or podiatric physician |
11 | | shall file with the
Department notice of delegation of |
12 | | prescriptive authority
and
termination of such delegation, in |
13 | | accordance with rules of the Department.
Upon receipt of this |
14 | | notice delegating authority to prescribe any Schedule III |
15 | | through V controlled substances, the licensed advanced |
16 | | practice registered nurse shall be
eligible to register for a |
17 | | mid-level practitioner controlled substance license
under |
18 | | Section 303.05 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act.
|
19 | | (d) In addition to the requirements of subsections (a), |
20 | | (b), and (c) of this Section, a collaborating physician or |
21 | | podiatric physician may, but is not required to, delegate |
22 | | authority to an advanced practice registered nurse to prescribe |
23 | | any Schedule II controlled substances, if all of the following |
24 | | conditions apply: |
25 | | (1) Specific Schedule II controlled substances by oral |
26 | | dosage or topical or transdermal application may be |
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1 | | delegated, provided that the delegated Schedule II |
2 | | controlled substances are routinely prescribed by the |
3 | | collaborating physician or podiatric physician. This |
4 | | delegation must identify the specific Schedule II |
5 | | controlled substances by either brand name or generic name. |
6 | | Schedule II controlled substances to be delivered by |
7 | | injection or other route of administration may not be |
8 | | delegated. |
9 | | (2) Any delegation must be controlled substances that |
10 | | the collaborating physician or podiatric physician |
11 | | prescribes. |
12 | | (3) Any prescription must be limited to no more than a |
13 | | 30-day supply, with any continuation authorized only after |
14 | | prior approval of the collaborating physician or podiatric |
15 | | physician. |
16 | | (4) The advanced practice registered nurse must |
17 | | discuss the condition of any patients for whom a controlled |
18 | | substance is prescribed monthly with the delegating |
19 | | physician. |
20 | | (5) The advanced practice registered nurse meets the |
21 | | education requirements of Section 303.05 of the Illinois |
22 | | Controlled Substances Act.
|
23 | | (e) Nothing in this Act shall be construed to limit the |
24 | | delegation of tasks
or duties by a physician to a licensed |
25 | | practical nurse, a registered
professional nurse, or other |
26 | | persons. Nothing in this Act shall be construed to limit the |
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1 | | method of delegation that may be authorized by any means, |
2 | | including, but not limited to, oral, written, electronic, |
3 | | standing orders, protocols, guidelines, or verbal orders.
|
4 | | (f) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to apply to |
5 | | any medication authority including Schedule II controlled |
6 | | substances of an advanced practice registered nurse for care |
7 | | provided in a hospital, hospital affiliate, or ambulatory |
8 | | surgical treatment center pursuant to Section 65-45. |
9 | | (g) Any advanced practice registered nurse who writes a |
10 | | prescription for a controlled substance without having a valid |
11 | | appropriate authority may be fined by the Department not more |
12 | | than $50 per prescription, and the Department may take any |
13 | | other disciplinary action provided for in this Act. |
14 | | (h) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to prohibit |
15 | | generic substitution. |
16 | | (Source: P.A. 97-358, eff. 8-12-11; 98-214, eff. 8-9-13.)
|
17 | | (225 ILCS 65/65-45)
(was 225 ILCS 65/15-25)
|
18 | | (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)
|
19 | | Sec. 65-45. Advanced practice registered nursing in |
20 | | hospitals, hospital affiliates, or ambulatory surgical |
21 | | treatment centers.
|
22 | | (a) An advanced practice registered nurse may provide
|
23 | | services in a hospital or a hospital affiliate as those terms |
24 | | are defined in the Hospital Licensing Act or the University of |
25 | | Illinois Hospital Act or a licensed ambulatory surgical
|
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1 | | treatment center without a written collaborative agreement |
2 | | pursuant to Section 65-35 of this Act. An advanced practice |
3 | | registered nurse must possess clinical privileges recommended |
4 | | by the hospital medical staff and granted by the hospital or |
5 | | the consulting medical staff committee and ambulatory surgical |
6 | | treatment center in order to provide services. The medical |
7 | | staff or consulting medical staff committee shall periodically |
8 | | review the services of advanced practice registered nurses |
9 | | granted clinical privileges, including any care provided in a |
10 | | hospital affiliate. Authority may also be granted when |
11 | | recommended by the hospital medical staff and granted by the |
12 | | hospital or recommended by the consulting medical staff |
13 | | committee and ambulatory surgical treatment center to |
14 | | individual advanced practice registered nurses to select, |
15 | | order, and administer medications, including controlled |
16 | | substances, to provide delineated care. In a hospital, hospital |
17 | | affiliate, or ambulatory surgical treatment center, the |
18 | | attending physician shall determine an advanced practice |
19 | | registered nurse's role in providing care for his or her |
20 | | patients, except as otherwise provided in the medical staff |
21 | | bylaws or consulting committee policies.
|
22 | | (a-2) An advanced practice registered nurse granted |
23 | | authority to order medications including controlled substances |
24 | | may complete discharge prescriptions provided the prescription |
25 | | is in the name of the advanced practice registered nurse and |
26 | | the attending or discharging physician. |
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1 | | (a-3) Advanced practice registered nurses practicing in a |
2 | | hospital or an ambulatory surgical treatment center are not |
3 | | required to obtain a mid-level controlled substance license to |
4 | | order controlled substances under Section 303.05 of the |
5 | | Illinois Controlled Substances Act. |
6 | | (a-5) For
anesthesia services provided by a certified |
7 | | registered nurse anesthetist, an anesthesiologist,
physician, |
8 | | dentist,
or podiatric physician shall participate through |
9 | | discussion of and agreement with the
anesthesia plan and shall
|
10 | | remain
physically present
and be available on the premises |
11 | | during the delivery of anesthesia services for
diagnosis, |
12 | | consultation, and treatment of
emergency medical conditions, |
13 | | unless hospital policy adopted pursuant to
clause (B) of |
14 | | subdivision (3) of Section 10.7 of the Hospital Licensing Act
|
15 | | or ambulatory surgical treatment center policy adopted |
16 | | pursuant to
clause (B) of subdivision (3) of Section 6.5 of the |
17 | | Ambulatory Surgical
Treatment Center Act
provides otherwise. A |
18 | | certified registered nurse anesthetist may select, order, and |
19 | | administer medication for anesthesia services under the |
20 | | anesthesia plan agreed to by the anesthesiologist or the |
21 | | physician, in accordance with hospital alternative policy or |
22 | | the medical staff consulting committee policies of a licensed |
23 | | ambulatory surgical treatment center.
|
24 | | (b) An advanced practice registered nurse who provides
|
25 | | services in a hospital shall do so in accordance with Section |
26 | | 10.7 of the
Hospital
Licensing Act and, in an
ambulatory |
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1 | | surgical treatment center, in accordance with Section 6.5 of |
2 | | the
Ambulatory
Surgical Treatment Center Act.
|
3 | | (c) Advanced practice registered nurses certified as nurse |
4 | | practitioners, nurse midwives, or clinical nurse specialists |
5 | | practicing in a hospital affiliate may be, but are not required |
6 | | to be, granted authority to prescribe Schedule II through V |
7 | | controlled substances when such authority is recommended by the |
8 | | appropriate physician committee of the hospital affiliate and |
9 | | granted by the hospital affiliate. This authority may, but is |
10 | | not required to, include prescription of, selection of, orders |
11 | | for, administration of, storage of, acceptance of samples of, |
12 | | and dispensing over-the-counter medications, legend drugs, |
13 | | medical gases, and controlled substances categorized as |
14 | | Schedule II through V controlled substances, as defined in |
15 | | Article II of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, and other |
16 | | preparations, including, but not limited to, botanical and |
17 | | herbal remedies. |
18 | | To prescribe controlled substances under this subsection |
19 | | (c), an advanced practice registered nurse certified as a nurse |
20 | | practitioner, nurse midwife, or clinical nurse specialist must |
21 | | obtain a mid-level practitioner controlled substance license. |
22 | | Medication orders shall be reviewed periodically by the |
23 | | appropriate hospital affiliate physicians committee or its |
24 | | physician designee. |
25 | | The hospital affiliate shall file with the Department |
26 | | notice of a grant of prescriptive authority consistent with |
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1 | | this subsection (c) and termination of such a grant of |
2 | | authority, in accordance with rules of the Department. Upon |
3 | | receipt of this notice of grant of authority to prescribe any |
4 | | Schedule II through V controlled substances, the licensed |
5 | | advanced practice registered nurse certified as a nurse |
6 | | practitioner, nurse midwife, or clinical nurse specialist may |
7 | | register for a mid-level practitioner controlled substance |
8 | | license under Section 303.05 of the Illinois Controlled |
9 | | Substances Act. |
10 | | In addition, a hospital affiliate may, but is not required |
11 | | to, grant authority to an advanced practice registered nurse |
12 | | certified as a nurse practitioner, nurse midwife, or clinical |
13 | | nurse specialist to prescribe any Schedule II controlled |
14 | | substances, if all of the following conditions apply: |
15 | | (1) specific Schedule II controlled substances by oral |
16 | | dosage or topical or transdermal application may be |
17 | | designated, provided that the designated Schedule II |
18 | | controlled substances are routinely prescribed by advanced |
19 | | practice registered nurses in their area of certification; |
20 | | this grant of authority must identify the specific Schedule |
21 | | II controlled substances by either brand name or generic |
22 | | name; authority to prescribe or dispense Schedule II |
23 | | controlled substances to be delivered by injection or other |
24 | | route of administration may not be granted; |
25 | | (2) any grant of authority must be controlled |
26 | | substances limited to the practice of the advanced practice |
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1 | | registered nurse; |
2 | | (3) any prescription must be limited to no more than a |
3 | | 30-day supply; |
4 | | (4) the advanced practice registered nurse must |
5 | | discuss the condition of any patients for whom a controlled |
6 | | substance is prescribed monthly with the appropriate |
7 | | physician committee of the hospital affiliate or its |
8 | | physician designee; and |
9 | | (5) the advanced practice registered nurse must meet |
10 | | the education requirements of Section 303.05 of the |
11 | | Illinois Controlled Substances Act. |
12 | | (Source: P.A. 98-214, eff. 8-9-13; 99-173, eff. 7-29-15.)
|
13 | | (225 ILCS 65/65-50)
(was 225 ILCS 65/15-30)
|
14 | | (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)
|
15 | | Sec. 65-50. APRN APN title.
|
16 | | (a) No person shall use any words, abbreviations, figures,
|
17 | | letters, title, sign, card, or device tending to imply that
he |
18 | | or she is an advanced practice registered nurse, including ,
but |
19 | | not limited to , using the titles or initials "Advanced
Practice |
20 | | Registered Nurse", "Certified Nurse Midwife", "Certified Nurse |
21 | | Practitioner",
"Certified Registered Nurse Anesthetist", |
22 | | "Clinical Nurse Specialist", "A.P.R.N."
"A.P.N." , "C.N.M.", |
23 | | "C.N.P.",
"C.R.N.A.", "C.N.S.", or similar titles or initials, |
24 | | with the
intention of indicating practice as an advanced |
25 | | practice registered
nurse without meeting the requirements of |
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1 | | this
Act. For purposes of this provision, the terms "advanced |
2 | | practice nurse" and "A.P.N." are considered to be similar |
3 | | titles or initials protected by this subsection (a).
|
4 | | (b) No advanced practice registered nurse shall indicate to |
5 | | other persons that he or she is qualified to engage in the |
6 | | practice of medicine.
|
7 | | (c) An advanced practice registered nurse shall verbally
|
8 | | identify himself or herself as an advanced practice registered
|
9 | | nurse, including specialty certification, to each
patient.
|
10 | | (d) Nothing in this Act shall be construed to relieve
an |
11 | | advanced practice registered nurse of the
professional or legal |
12 | | responsibility for the care and
treatment of persons attended |
13 | | by him or her.
|
14 | | (Source: P.A. 95-639, eff. 10-5-07.)
|
15 | | (225 ILCS 65/65-55)
(was 225 ILCS 65/15-40)
|
16 | | (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)
|
17 | | Sec. 65-55. Advertising as an APRN APN .
|
18 | | (a) A person licensed under this Act as an advanced |
19 | | practice registered nurse
may advertise the availability of |
20 | | professional services in
the public media or on the premises |
21 | | where the professional
services are rendered. The advertising |
22 | | shall be limited to
the following information:
|
23 | | (1) publication of the person's name, title, office
|
24 | | hours, address, and telephone number;
|
25 | | (2) information pertaining to the person's areas of
|
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1 | | specialization, including , but not limited to , appropriate |
2 | | board certification
or limitation of professional |
3 | | practice;
|
4 | | (3) publication of the person's collaborating
|
5 | | physician's, dentist's, or podiatric physician's name, |
6 | | title, and areas of specialization;
|
7 | | (4) information on usual and customary fees for
routine |
8 | | professional services offered, which shall include |
9 | | notification that
fees may be
adjusted due to complications |
10 | | or unforeseen circumstances;
|
11 | | (5) announcements of the opening of, change of,
absence |
12 | | from, or return to business;
|
13 | | (6) announcement of additions to or deletions from
|
14 | | professional licensed staff; and
|
15 | | (7) the issuance of business or appointment cards.
|
16 | | (b) It is unlawful for a person licensed under this Act as |
17 | | an advanced practice registered nurse to use testimonials or |
18 | | claims of superior quality of
care to entice the public. It |
19 | | shall be unlawful to advertise
fee comparisons of available |
20 | | services with those of other
licensed persons.
|
21 | | (c) This Article does not authorize the advertising of
|
22 | | professional services that the offeror of the services is
not |
23 | | licensed or authorized to render. Nor shall the
advertiser use |
24 | | statements that contain false, fraudulent,
deceptive, or |
25 | | misleading material or guarantees of success,
statements that |
26 | | play upon the vanity or fears of the public,
or statements that |
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1 | | promote or produce unfair competition.
|
2 | | (d) It is unlawful and punishable under the penalty
|
3 | | provisions of this Act for a person licensed under this Article |
4 | | to
knowingly advertise that the licensee will accept as payment
|
5 | | for services rendered by assignment from any third party
payor |
6 | | the amount the third party payor covers as payment in
full, if |
7 | | the effect is to give the impression of eliminating
the need of |
8 | | payment by the patient of any required deductible
or copayment |
9 | | applicable in the patient's health benefit plan.
|
10 | | (e) A licensee shall include in every advertisement for |
11 | | services
regulated under this Act his or her title as it |
12 | | appears on the license or the
initials authorized under this |
13 | | Act.
|
14 | | (f) As used in this Section, "advertise" means
solicitation |
15 | | by the licensee or through another person or entity by means of
|
16 | | handbills, posters, circulars, motion pictures, radio,
|
17 | | newspapers, or television or any other manner.
|
18 | | (Source: P.A. 98-214, eff. 8-9-13.)
|
19 | | (225 ILCS 65/65-65)
(was 225 ILCS 65/15-55)
|
20 | | (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)
|
21 | | Sec. 65-65. Reports relating to APRN APN professional |
22 | | conduct and
capacity. |
23 | | (a) Entities Required to Report.
|
24 | | (1) Health Care Institutions. The chief
administrator |
25 | | or executive officer of a health care
institution licensed |
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|
1 | | by the Department of Public
Health, which provides the |
2 | | minimum due process set forth
in Section 10.4 of the |
3 | | Hospital Licensing Act, shall
report to the Board when an |
4 | | advanced practice registered nurse's organized |
5 | | professional staff
clinical
privileges are terminated or |
6 | | are restricted based on a
final determination, in |
7 | | accordance with that
institution's bylaws or rules and |
8 | | regulations, that (i) a
person has either committed an act |
9 | | or acts that may
directly threaten patient care and that |
10 | | are not of an
administrative nature or (ii) that a person |
11 | | may have a mental or physical disability that may endanger
|
12 | | patients under that person's care. The chief administrator |
13 | | or officer
shall also report if an advanced practice |
14 | | registered nurse accepts voluntary termination or
|
15 | | restriction of clinical privileges in lieu of formal
action |
16 | | based upon conduct related directly to patient
care and not |
17 | | of an administrative nature, or in lieu of
formal action |
18 | | seeking to determine whether a person may
have a mental or |
19 | | physical disability that may
endanger patients under that |
20 | | person's care. The Department
Board shall provide by rule |
21 | | for the reporting to it of
all instances in which a person |
22 | | licensed under this Article, who is impaired by reason of |
23 | | age, drug, or
alcohol abuse or physical or mental |
24 | | impairment, is under
supervision and, where appropriate, |
25 | | is in a program of
rehabilitation. Reports submitted under |
26 | | this subsection shall be strictly
confidential and may be |
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|
1 | | reviewed and considered only by
the members of the Board or |
2 | | authorized staff as
provided by rule of the Department |
3 | | Board . Provisions shall be
made for the periodic report of |
4 | | the status of any such reported
person not less than twice |
5 | | annually in order that the
Board shall have current |
6 | | information upon which to
determine the status of that |
7 | | person. Initial
and periodic reports of impaired advanced |
8 | | practice registered
nurses shall not be considered records |
9 | | within
the meaning of the State Records Act and shall be
|
10 | | disposed of, following a determination by the
Board
that |
11 | | such reports are no longer required, in a manner and
at an |
12 | | appropriate time as the Board shall determine by rule.
The |
13 | | filing of reports submitted under this subsection shall be |
14 | | construed as the
filing of a report for purposes of |
15 | | subsection (c) of this
Section.
|
16 | | (2) Professional Associations. The President or
chief |
17 | | executive officer of an association or society of
persons |
18 | | licensed under this Article, operating within
this State, |
19 | | shall report to the Board when the
association or society |
20 | | renders a final determination that
a person licensed under |
21 | | this Article has committed unprofessional conduct
related
|
22 | | directly to patient care or that a person may have a mental |
23 | | or physical disability that may endanger
patients under the |
24 | | person's care.
|
25 | | (3) Professional Liability Insurers. Every
insurance |
26 | | company that offers policies of professional
liability |
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|
1 | | insurance to persons licensed under this
Article, or any |
2 | | other entity that seeks to indemnify the
professional |
3 | | liability of a person licensed under this
Article, shall |
4 | | report to the Board the settlement of
any claim or cause of |
5 | | action, or final judgment rendered
in any cause of action, |
6 | | that alleged negligence in the
furnishing of patient care |
7 | | by the licensee when
the settlement or final judgment is in |
8 | | favor of the
plaintiff.
|
9 | | (4) State's Attorneys. The State's Attorney of each
|
10 | | county shall report to the Board all instances in
which a |
11 | | person licensed under this Article is convicted
or |
12 | | otherwise found guilty of the commission of a
felony.
|
13 | | (5) State Agencies. All agencies, boards,
commissions, |
14 | | departments, or other instrumentalities of
the government |
15 | | of this State shall report to
the Board any instance |
16 | | arising in connection with
the operations of the agency, |
17 | | including the
administration of any law by the agency, in |
18 | | which a
person licensed under this Article has either |
19 | | committed
an act or acts that may constitute a violation of |
20 | | this Article,
that may constitute unprofessional conduct |
21 | | related
directly to patient care, or that indicates that a |
22 | | person
licensed under this Article may have a mental or |
23 | | physical disability that may endanger patients under
that |
24 | | person's care.
|
25 | | (b) Mandatory Reporting. All reports required under items
|
26 | | (16) and (17) of subsection (a) of Section 70-5 shall
be |
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|
1 | | submitted to
the
Board in a timely fashion. The reports shall |
2 | | be filed in writing
within
60 days after a determination that a |
3 | | report is required
under this Article. All reports shall |
4 | | contain the following
information:
|
5 | | (1) The name, address, and telephone number of the
|
6 | | person making the report.
|
7 | | (2) The name, address, and telephone number of the
|
8 | | person who is the subject of the report.
|
9 | | (3) The name or other means of identification of any
|
10 | | patient or patients whose treatment is a subject of the
|
11 | | report, except that no medical records may be
revealed |
12 | | without the written consent of the patient or
patients.
|
13 | | (4) A brief description of the facts that gave rise
to |
14 | | the issuance of the report, including , but not limited to , |
15 | | the dates of any
occurrences deemed to necessitate the |
16 | | filing of the
report.
|
17 | | (5) If court action is involved, the identity of the
|
18 | | court in which the action is filed, the docket
number, and |
19 | | date of filing of the action.
|
20 | | (6) Any further pertinent information that the
|
21 | | reporting party deems to be an aid in the evaluation of
the |
22 | | report.
|
23 | | Nothing contained in this Section shall be construed
to in |
24 | | any way waive or modify the confidentiality of
medical reports |
25 | | and committee reports to the extent
provided by law. Any |
26 | | information reported or disclosed
shall be kept for the |
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1 | | confidential use of the Board,
the Board's attorneys, the |
2 | | investigative staff, and
authorized clerical staff and shall be |
3 | | afforded the
same status as is provided information concerning |
4 | | medical
studies in Part 21 of Article VIII of the Code of Civil
|
5 | | Procedure.
|
6 | | (c) Immunity from Prosecution. An individual or
|
7 | | organization acting in good faith, and not in a willful wilful |
8 | | and
wanton manner, in complying with this Section by providing
|
9 | | a report or other information to the Board, by
assisting in the |
10 | | investigation or preparation of a report or
information, by |
11 | | participating in proceedings of the
Board, or by serving as a |
12 | | member of the Board shall not, as
a result of such actions, be |
13 | | subject to criminal prosecution
or civil damages.
|
14 | | (d) Indemnification. Members of the Board, the
Board's |
15 | | attorneys, the investigative staff, advanced
practice |
16 | | registered nurses or physicians retained under
contract to |
17 | | assist and advise in the investigation, and
authorized clerical |
18 | | staff shall be indemnified by the State
for any actions (i) |
19 | | occurring within the scope of services on the
Board, (ii) |
20 | | performed in good faith, and (iii) not willful wilful and |
21 | | wanton in
nature. The Attorney General shall defend all actions |
22 | | taken against those
persons
unless he or she determines either |
23 | | that there would be a
conflict of interest in the |
24 | | representation or that the
actions complained of were not |
25 | | performed in good faith or were willful wilful
and wanton in |
26 | | nature. If the Attorney General declines
representation, the |
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1 | | member shall have the right to employ
counsel of his or her |
2 | | choice, whose fees shall be provided by
the State, after |
3 | | approval by the Attorney General, unless
there is a |
4 | | determination by a court that the member's actions
were not |
5 | | performed in good faith or were willful wilful and wanton in |
6 | | nature. The
member
shall notify the Attorney General within 7 |
7 | | days of receipt of
notice of the initiation of an action |
8 | | involving services of
the Board. Failure to so notify the |
9 | | Attorney General
shall constitute an absolute waiver of the |
10 | | right to a defense
and indemnification. The Attorney General |
11 | | shall determine
within 7 days after receiving the notice |
12 | | whether he or she
will undertake to represent the member.
|
13 | | (e) Deliberations of Board. Upon the receipt of a
report |
14 | | called for by this Section, other than those reports
of |
15 | | impaired persons licensed under this Article
required
pursuant |
16 | | to the rules of the Board, the Board shall
notify in writing by |
17 | | certified or registered mail or by email to the email address |
18 | | of record the person who is the
subject of the report. The |
19 | | notification shall be made
within 30 days of receipt by the |
20 | | Board of the report.
The notification shall include a written |
21 | | notice setting forth
the person's right to examine the report. |
22 | | Included in the
notification shall be the address at which the |
23 | | file is
maintained, the name of the custodian of the reports, |
24 | | and the
telephone number at which the custodian may be reached. |
25 | | The
person who is the subject of the report shall submit a
|
26 | | written statement responding to, clarifying, adding to, or
|
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1 | | proposing to amend the report previously filed. The
statement |
2 | | shall become a permanent part of the file and shall
be received |
3 | | by the Board no more than 30 days after the
date on which the |
4 | | person was notified of the existence of the
original report. |
5 | | The
Board shall review all reports
received by it and any |
6 | | supporting information and
responding statements submitted by |
7 | | persons who are the
subject of reports. The review by the
Board |
8 | | shall be in
a timely manner but in no event shall the
Board's
|
9 | | initial review of the material contained in each disciplinary
|
10 | | file be less than 61 days nor more than 180 days after the
|
11 | | receipt of the initial report by the Board. When the
Board |
12 | | makes its initial review of the materials
contained within its |
13 | | disciplinary files, the Board
shall, in writing, make a |
14 | | determination as to whether there
are sufficient facts to |
15 | | warrant further investigation or
action. Failure to make that |
16 | | determination within the time
provided shall be deemed to be a |
17 | | determination that there are
not sufficient facts to warrant |
18 | | further investigation or
action. Should the Board find that |
19 | | there are not
sufficient facts to warrant further investigation |
20 | | or action,
the report shall be accepted for filing and the |
21 | | matter shall
be deemed closed and so reported. The individual |
22 | | or entity
filing the original report or complaint and the |
23 | | person who is
the subject of the report or complaint shall be |
24 | | notified in
writing by the
Board of any final action on their |
25 | | report
or complaint.
|
26 | | (f) (Blank). Summary Reports. The Board shall prepare, on a
|
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1 | | timely basis, but in no event less than one every other
month, |
2 | | a summary report of final actions taken upon
disciplinary files |
3 | | maintained by the Board. The summary
reports shall be made |
4 | | available to the public upon request and payment of the fees |
5 | | set by the Department. This publication may be made available |
6 | | to the public on the Department's Internet website.
|
7 | | (g) Any violation of this Section shall constitute a Class |
8 | | A
misdemeanor.
|
9 | | (h) If a person violates the provisions of this
Section, an |
10 | | action may be brought in the name of the People of
the State of |
11 | | Illinois, through the Attorney General of the
State of |
12 | | Illinois, for an order enjoining the violation or
for an order |
13 | | enforcing compliance with this Section. Upon
filing of a |
14 | | verified petition in court, the court may
issue a temporary |
15 | | restraining order without notice or bond
and may preliminarily |
16 | | or permanently enjoin the violation,
and if it is established |
17 | | that the person has violated or is
violating the injunction, |
18 | | the court may punish the offender
for contempt of court. |
19 | | Proceedings under this subsection
shall be in addition to, and |
20 | | not in lieu of, all other
remedies and penalties provided for |
21 | | by this Section.
|
22 | | (Source: P.A. 99-143, eff. 7-27-15.)
|
23 | | (225 ILCS 65/70-5)
(was 225 ILCS 65/10-45)
|
24 | | (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)
|
25 | | Sec. 70-5. Grounds for disciplinary action.
|
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1 | | (a) The Department may
refuse to issue or
to renew, or may |
2 | | revoke, suspend, place on
probation, reprimand, or take other |
3 | | disciplinary or non-disciplinary action as the Department
may |
4 | | deem appropriate, including fines not to exceed $10,000 per |
5 | | violation, with regard to a license for any one or combination
|
6 | | of the causes set forth in subsection (b) below.
All fines |
7 | | collected under this Section shall be deposited in the Nursing
|
8 | | Dedicated and Professional Fund.
|
9 | | (b) Grounds for disciplinary action include the following:
|
10 | | (1) Material deception in furnishing information to |
11 | | the
Department.
|
12 | | (2) Material violations of any provision of this Act or |
13 | | violation of the rules of or final administrative action of
|
14 | | the Secretary, after consideration of the recommendation |
15 | | of the Board.
|
16 | | (3) Conviction by plea of guilty or nolo contendere, |
17 | | finding of guilt, jury verdict, or entry of judgment or by |
18 | | sentencing of any crime, including, but not limited to, |
19 | | convictions, preceding sentences of supervision, |
20 | | conditional discharge, or first offender probation, under |
21 | | the laws of any jurisdiction
of the
United States: (i) that |
22 | | is a felony; or (ii) that is a misdemeanor, an
essential |
23 | | element of which is dishonesty, or that is
directly related |
24 | | to the practice of the profession.
|
25 | | (4) A pattern of practice or other behavior which |
26 | | demonstrates
incapacity
or incompetency to practice under |
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1 | | this Act.
|
2 | | (5) Knowingly aiding or assisting another person in |
3 | | violating
any
provision of this Act or rules.
|
4 | | (6) Failing, within 90 days, to provide a response to a |
5 | | request
for
information in response to a written request |
6 | | made by the Department by
certified or registered mail or |
7 | | by email to the email address of record .
|
8 | | (7) Engaging in dishonorable, unethical or |
9 | | unprofessional
conduct of a
character likely to deceive, |
10 | | defraud or harm the public, as defined by
rule.
|
11 | | (8) Unlawful taking, theft, selling, distributing, or |
12 | | manufacturing of any drug, narcotic, or
prescription
|
13 | | device.
|
14 | | (9) Habitual or excessive use or addiction to alcohol,
|
15 | | narcotics,
stimulants, or any other chemical agent or drug |
16 | | that could result in a licensee's
inability to practice |
17 | | with reasonable judgment, skill or safety.
|
18 | | (10) Discipline by another U.S. jurisdiction or |
19 | | foreign
nation, if at
least one of the grounds for the |
20 | | discipline is the same or substantially
equivalent to those |
21 | | set forth in this Section.
|
22 | | (11) A finding that the licensee, after having her or |
23 | | his
license placed on
probationary status or subject to |
24 | | conditions or restrictions, has violated the terms of |
25 | | probation or failed to comply with such terms or |
26 | | conditions.
|
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1 | | (12) Being named as a perpetrator in an indicated |
2 | | report by
the
Department of Children and Family Services |
3 | | and under the Abused and
Neglected Child Reporting Act, and |
4 | | upon proof by clear and
convincing evidence that the |
5 | | licensee has caused a child to be an abused
child or |
6 | | neglected child as defined in the Abused and Neglected |
7 | | Child
Reporting Act.
|
8 | | (13) Willful omission to file or record, or willfully |
9 | | impeding
the
filing or recording or inducing another person |
10 | | to omit to file or record
medical reports as required by |
11 | | law . |
12 | | (13.5) Willfully or willfully failing to report an
|
13 | | instance of suspected child abuse or neglect as required by |
14 | | the Abused and
Neglected Child Reporting Act.
|
15 | | (14) Gross negligence in the practice of practical, |
16 | | professional, or advanced practice registered nursing.
|
17 | | (15) Holding oneself out to be practicing nursing under |
18 | | any
name other
than one's own.
|
19 | | (16) Failure of a licensee to report to the Department |
20 | | any adverse final action taken against him or her by |
21 | | another licensing jurisdiction of the United States or any |
22 | | foreign state or country, any peer review body, any health |
23 | | care institution, any professional or nursing society or |
24 | | association, any governmental agency, any law enforcement |
25 | | agency, or any court or a nursing liability claim related |
26 | | to acts or conduct similar to acts or conduct that would |
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1 | | constitute grounds for action as defined in this Section. |
2 | | (17) Failure of a licensee to report to the Department |
3 | | surrender by the licensee of a license or authorization to |
4 | | practice nursing or advanced practice registered nursing |
5 | | in another state or jurisdiction or current surrender by |
6 | | the licensee of membership on any nursing staff or in any |
7 | | nursing or advanced practice registered nursing or |
8 | | professional association or society while under |
9 | | disciplinary investigation by any of those authorities or |
10 | | bodies for acts or conduct similar to acts or conduct that |
11 | | would constitute grounds for action as defined by this |
12 | | Section. |
13 | | (18) Failing, within 60 days, to provide information in |
14 | | response to a written request made by the Department. |
15 | | (19) Failure to establish and maintain records of |
16 | | patient care and treatment as required by law. |
17 | | (20) Fraud, deceit or misrepresentation in applying |
18 | | for or
procuring
a license under this Act or in connection |
19 | | with applying for renewal of a
license under this Act.
|
20 | | (21) Allowing another person or organization to use the
|
21 | | licensees'
license to deceive the public.
|
22 | | (22) Willfully making or filing false records or |
23 | | reports in
the
licensee's practice, including but not |
24 | | limited to false
records to support claims against the |
25 | | medical assistance program of the
Department of Healthcare |
26 | | and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid)
|
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1 | | under the Illinois Public Aid Code.
|
2 | | (23) Attempting to subvert or cheat on a
licensing
|
3 | | examination
administered under this Act.
|
4 | | (24) Immoral conduct in the commission of an act, |
5 | | including, but not limited to, sexual abuse,
sexual |
6 | | misconduct, or sexual exploitation, related to the |
7 | | licensee's practice.
|
8 | | (25) Willfully or negligently violating the |
9 | | confidentiality
between nurse
and patient except as |
10 | | required by law.
|
11 | | (26) Practicing under a false or assumed name, except |
12 | | as provided by law.
|
13 | | (27) The use of any false, fraudulent, or deceptive |
14 | | statement
in any
document connected with the licensee's |
15 | | practice.
|
16 | | (28) Directly or indirectly giving to or receiving from |
17 | | a person, firm,
corporation, partnership, or association a |
18 | | fee, commission, rebate, or other
form of compensation for |
19 | | professional services not actually or personally
rendered. |
20 | | Nothing in this paragraph (28) affects any bona fide |
21 | | independent contractor or employment arrangements among |
22 | | health care professionals, health facilities, health care |
23 | | providers, or other entities, except as otherwise |
24 | | prohibited by law. Any employment arrangements may include |
25 | | provisions for compensation, health insurance, pension, or |
26 | | other employment benefits for the provision of services |
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1 | | within the scope of the licensee's practice under this Act. |
2 | | Nothing in this paragraph (28) shall be construed to |
3 | | require an employment arrangement to receive professional |
4 | | fees for services rendered.
|
5 | | (29) A violation of the Health Care Worker |
6 | | Self-Referral Act.
|
7 | | (30) Physical illness, including but not limited to |
8 | | deterioration
through
the aging process or loss of motor |
9 | | skill, mental illness, or disability that
results in the |
10 | | inability to practice the profession with reasonable |
11 | | judgment,
skill, or safety.
|
12 | | (31) Exceeding the terms of a collaborative agreement |
13 | | or the prescriptive authority delegated to a licensee by |
14 | | his or her collaborating physician or podiatric physician |
15 | | in guidelines established under a written collaborative |
16 | | agreement. |
17 | | (32) Making a false or misleading statement regarding a |
18 | | licensee's skill or the efficacy or value of the medicine, |
19 | | treatment, or remedy prescribed by him or her in the course |
20 | | of treatment. |
21 | | (33) Prescribing, selling, administering, |
22 | | distributing, giving, or self-administering a drug |
23 | | classified as a controlled substance (designated product) |
24 | | or narcotic for other than medically accepted therapeutic |
25 | | purposes. |
26 | | (34) Promotion of the sale of drugs, devices, |
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1 | | appliances, or goods provided for a patient in a manner to |
2 | | exploit the patient for financial gain. |
3 | | (35) Violating State or federal laws, rules, or |
4 | | regulations relating to controlled substances. |
5 | | (36) Willfully or negligently violating the |
6 | | confidentiality between an advanced practice registered |
7 | | nurse, collaborating physician, dentist, or podiatric |
8 | | physician and a patient, except as required by law. |
9 | | (37) Willfully failing to report an instance of |
10 | | suspected abuse, neglect, financial exploitation, or |
11 | | self-neglect of an eligible adult as defined in and |
12 | | required by the Adult Protective Services Act. |
13 | | (38) Being named as an abuser in a verified report by |
14 | | the Department on Aging and under the Adult Protective |
15 | | Services Act, and upon proof by clear and convincing |
16 | | evidence that the licensee abused, neglected, or |
17 | | financially exploited an eligible adult as defined in the |
18 | | Adult Protective Services Act. |
19 | | (39) (37) A violation of any provision of this Act or |
20 | | any rules adopted promulgated under this Act. |
21 | | (c) The determination by a circuit court that a licensee is
|
22 | | subject to
involuntary admission or judicial admission as |
23 | | provided in the Mental
Health and Developmental Disabilities |
24 | | Code, as amended, operates as an
automatic suspension. The |
25 | | suspension will end only upon a finding
by a
court that the |
26 | | patient is no longer subject to involuntary admission or
|
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1 | | judicial admission and issues an order so finding and |
2 | | discharging the
patient; and upon the recommendation of the |
3 | | Board to the
Secretary that
the licensee be allowed to resume |
4 | | his or her practice.
|
5 | | (d) The Department may refuse to issue or may suspend or |
6 | | otherwise discipline the
license of any
person who fails to |
7 | | file a return, or to pay the tax, penalty or interest
shown in |
8 | | a filed return, or to pay any final assessment of the tax,
|
9 | | penalty, or interest as required by any tax Act administered by |
10 | | the
Department of Revenue, until such time as the requirements |
11 | | of any
such tax Act are satisfied.
|
12 | | (e) In enforcing this Act, the Department or Board ,
upon a |
13 | | showing of a
possible
violation, may compel an individual |
14 | | licensed to practice under this Act or
who has applied for |
15 | | licensure under this Act, to submit
to a mental or physical |
16 | | examination, or both, as required by and at the expense
of the |
17 | | Department. The Department or Board may order the examining |
18 | | physician to
present
testimony concerning the mental or |
19 | | physical examination of the licensee or
applicant. No |
20 | | information shall be excluded by reason of any common law or
|
21 | | statutory privilege relating to communications between the |
22 | | licensee or
applicant and the examining physician. The |
23 | | examining
physicians
shall be specifically designated by the |
24 | | Board or Department.
The individual to be examined may have, at |
25 | | his or her own expense, another
physician of his or her choice |
26 | | present during all
aspects of this examination. Failure of an |
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1 | | individual to submit to a mental
or
physical examination, when |
2 | | directed, shall result in an automatic
suspension without |
3 | | hearing.
|
4 | | All substance-related violations shall mandate an |
5 | | automatic substance abuse assessment. Failure to submit to an |
6 | | assessment by a licensed physician who is certified as an |
7 | | addictionist or an advanced practice registered nurse with |
8 | | specialty certification in addictions may be grounds for an |
9 | | automatic suspension, as defined by rule.
|
10 | | If the Department or Board finds an individual unable to |
11 | | practice or unfit for duty because
of
the
reasons
set forth in |
12 | | this subsection (e) Section , the Department or Board may |
13 | | require that individual
to submit
to
a substance abuse |
14 | | evaluation or treatment by individuals or programs
approved
or |
15 | | designated by the Department or Board , as a condition, term, or |
16 | | restriction
for continued, restored
reinstated , or
renewed |
17 | | licensure to practice; or, in lieu of evaluation or treatment,
|
18 | | the Department may file, or
the Board may recommend to the |
19 | | Department to file, a complaint to immediately
suspend, revoke, |
20 | | or otherwise discipline the license of the individual.
An |
21 | | individual whose
license was granted, continued, restored |
22 | | reinstated , renewed, disciplined or supervised
subject to such |
23 | | terms, conditions, or restrictions, and who fails to comply
|
24 | | with
such terms, conditions, or restrictions, shall be referred |
25 | | to the Secretary for
a
determination as to whether the |
26 | | individual shall have his or her license
suspended immediately, |
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1 | | pending a hearing by the Department.
|
2 | | In instances in which the Secretary immediately suspends a |
3 | | person's license
under this subsection (e) Section , a hearing |
4 | | on that person's license must be convened by
the Department |
5 | | within 15 days after the suspension and completed without
|
6 | | appreciable
delay.
The Department and Board shall have the |
7 | | authority to review the subject
individual's record of
|
8 | | treatment and counseling regarding the impairment to the extent |
9 | | permitted by
applicable federal statutes and regulations |
10 | | safeguarding the confidentiality of
medical records.
|
11 | | An individual licensed under this Act and affected under |
12 | | this subsection (e) Section shall
be
afforded an opportunity to |
13 | | demonstrate to the Department that he or
she can resume
|
14 | | practice in compliance with nursing standards under the
|
15 | | provisions of his or her license.
|
16 | | (Source: P.A. 98-214, eff. 8-9-13.)
|
17 | | (225 ILCS 65/70-10)
(was 225 ILCS 65/10-50)
|
18 | | (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)
|
19 | | Sec. 70-10. Intoxication and drug abuse.
|
20 | | (a) Any nurse who is an administrator or officer
in any |
21 | | hospital, nursing home, other health care agency or facility, |
22 | | or nurse
agency and has knowledge of any action or condition |
23 | | which reasonably indicates
that a registered professional |
24 | | nurse or licensed practical nurse
is impaired due to the use of |
25 | | alcohol or mood altering drugs to the extent that such |
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1 | | impairment adversely affects such nurse's professional |
2 | | performance, or
unlawfully possesses, uses, distributes or |
3 | | converts mood altering drugs
belonging to the place of |
4 | | employment, shall promptly report
the individual to the |
5 | | Department or designee of the Department; provided however, an |
6 | | administrator or officer
need not file the report if the nurse |
7 | | participates in a course of remedial
professional counseling or |
8 | | medical treatment for substance abuse, as long
as such nurse |
9 | | actively pursues such treatment under monitoring by the
|
10 | | administrator or officer or by the hospital, nursing home, |
11 | | health care
agency or facility, or nurse agency and the nurse |
12 | | continues to be employed by
such hospital, nursing home, health |
13 | | care agency or facility, or nurse agency.
The Department shall |
14 | | review all reports received by it in a timely manner.
Its |
15 | | initial review shall be completed no later than 60 days after |
16 | | receipt of
the report. Within this 60 day period, the |
17 | | Department shall, in writing, make
a determination as to |
18 | | whether there are sufficient facts to warrant further
|
19 | | investigation or action. Any nurse participating in mandatory |
20 | | reporting to the Department under this Section or in good faith |
21 | | assisting another person in making such a report shall have |
22 | | immunity from any liability, either criminal or civil, that |
23 | | might result by reason of such action.
|
24 | | Should the Department find insufficient facts to warrant |
25 | | further
investigation, or action, the report shall be accepted |
26 | | for filing and the
matter shall be deemed closed and so |
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1 | | reported.
|
2 | | Should the Department find sufficient facts to warrant |
3 | | further
investigation, such investigation shall be completed |
4 | | within 60 days of the
date of the determination of sufficient |
5 | | facts to warrant further
investigation or action. Final action |
6 | | shall be determined no later than
30 days after the completion |
7 | | of the investigation. If there is a finding
which verifies |
8 | | habitual intoxication or drug addiction which adversely
|
9 | | affects professional performance or the unlawful possession, |
10 | | use,
distribution or conversion of habit-forming drugs by the |
11 | | reported nurse,
the Department may refuse to issue or renew or |
12 | | may suspend or revoke that
nurse's license as a registered |
13 | | professional nurse or a
licensed practical nurse.
|
14 | | Any of the aforementioned actions or a determination that |
15 | | there are
insufficient facts to warrant further investigation |
16 | | or action shall be
considered a final action. The nurse |
17 | | administrator or officer who filed
the original report or |
18 | | complaint, and the nurse who is the subject of the
report, |
19 | | shall be notified in writing by the Department within 15 days |
20 | | of
any final action taken by the Department.
|
21 | | (b) (Blank). Each year on March 1,
the Department shall |
22 | | submit a report to the General Assembly. The report
shall |
23 | | include the number of reports made under this Section to the
|
24 | | Department during the previous year, the number of reports |
25 | | reviewed and
found insufficient to warrant further |
26 | | investigation, the number of reports
not completed and the |
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1 | | reasons for incompletion. This report shall be made
available |
2 | | also to nurses requesting the report.
|
3 | | (c) Any person making a report under this Section or in |
4 | | good faith assisting
another person in making such a report |
5 | | shall have immunity from any
liability, either criminal or |
6 | | civil, that might result by reason of such
action. For the |
7 | | purpose of any legal proceeding, criminal or civil, there
shall |
8 | | be a rebuttable presumption that any person making a report |
9 | | under
this Section or assisting another person in making such |
10 | | report was acting
in good faith. All such reports and any |
11 | | information disclosed to or
collected by the Department |
12 | | pursuant to this Section shall remain
confidential records of |
13 | | the Department and shall not be disclosed nor be
subject to any |
14 | | law or rule regulation of this State relating to freedom of
|
15 | | information or public disclosure of records.
|
16 | | (Source: P.A. 95-639, eff. 10-5-07.)
|
17 | | (225 ILCS 65/70-20) (was 225 ILCS 65/20-13) |
18 | | (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018) |
19 | | Sec. 70-20. Suspension of license or registration for |
20 | | failure to pay restitution. The Department, without further |
21 | | process or hearing, shall suspend the license or other |
22 | | authorization to practice of any person issued under this Act |
23 | | who has been certified by court order as not having paid |
24 | | restitution to a person under Section 8A-3.5 of the Illinois |
25 | | Public Aid Code or under Section 17-10.5 or 46-1 of the |
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1 | | Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012. A person |
2 | | whose license or other authorization to practice is suspended |
3 | | under this Section is prohibited from practicing until the |
4 | | restitution is made in full.
|
5 | | (Source: P.A. 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13.)
|
6 | | (225 ILCS 65/70-35)
(was 225 ILCS 65/20-31)
|
7 | | (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)
|
8 | | Sec. 70-35. Licensure requirements; internet site. The |
9 | | Department shall
make available to the public the requirements |
10 | | for licensure in English and
Spanish on the internet through |
11 | | the Department's World Wide Web site. This
information shall |
12 | | include the requirements for licensure of individuals
|
13 | | currently residing in another state or territory of the United |
14 | | States or a
foreign country, territory, or province. The |
15 | | Department shall establish an
e-mail link to the Department for |
16 | | information on the requirements for
licensure , with replies |
17 | | available in English and Spanish .
|
18 | | (Source: P.A. 95-639, eff. 10-5-07.)
|
19 | | (225 ILCS 65/70-40)
(was 225 ILCS 65/20-32)
|
20 | | (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)
|
21 | | Sec. 70-40. Educational resources; internet link. The |
22 | | Department may shall
work with the Board, the Board of Higher |
23 | | Education,
the Illinois Student Assistance Commission, |
24 | | Statewide organizations, and
community-based organizations to |
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1 | | develop a list of Department-approved nursing
programs
and |
2 | | other educational resources related to the Test of English as a |
3 | | Foreign
Language and the Commission on Graduates of Foreign |
4 | | Nursing Schools
Examination. The Department shall provide a |
5 | | link to a list of these resources ,
in English and Spanish, on |
6 | | the Department's World Wide Web site.
|
7 | | (Source: P.A. 95-639, eff. 10-5-07.)
|
8 | | (225 ILCS 65/70-50)
(was 225 ILCS 65/20-40)
|
9 | | (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)
|
10 | | Sec. 70-50. Fund. |
11 | | (a) There is hereby created within the State Treasury the
|
12 | | Nursing Dedicated and Professional Fund. The monies in the Fund |
13 | | may be
used by and at the direction of the Department for the |
14 | | administration and
enforcement of this Act, including , but not |
15 | | limited to:
|
16 | | (1) Distribution and publication of this Act and rules.
|
17 | | (2) Employment of secretarial, nursing, |
18 | | administrative, enforcement, and
other staff for the |
19 | | administration of this Act.
|
20 | | (b) Disposition of fees:
|
21 | | (1) $5 of every licensure fee shall be placed in a fund |
22 | | for assistance to nurses enrolled in a diversionary program |
23 | | as approved by the Department.
|
24 | | (2) All of the fees, fines, and penalties
collected |
25 | | pursuant to
this Act shall be deposited in the Nursing |
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1 | | Dedicated and Professional Fund.
|
2 | | (3) Each fiscal year, the moneys deposited
in the |
3 | | Nursing Dedicated and Professional Fund shall be |
4 | | appropriated to the
Department for expenses of the |
5 | | Department and the Board in the
administration of this Act. |
6 | | All earnings received from investment of
moneys in the |
7 | | Nursing Dedicated and Professional Fund shall be
deposited |
8 | | in the Nursing Dedicated and Professional Fund and shall be |
9 | | used
for the same purposes as fees deposited in the Fund.
|
10 | | (4) For the fiscal year beginning July 1, 2009 and for
|
11 | | each fiscal
year thereafter, $2,000,000 of the moneys |
12 | | deposited in the
Nursing Dedicated
and Professional Fund |
13 | | each year shall be set aside and appropriated to the
|
14 | | Department of Public Health for nursing scholarships |
15 | | awarded pursuant to
the Nursing Education Scholarship Law.
|
16 | | Representatives
of the Department and the Nursing |
17 | | Education Scholarship Program Advisory
Council shall |
18 | | review this requirement and
the scholarship awards every 2 |
19 | | years.
|
20 | | (5) Moneys in the Fund may be transferred to the |
21 | | Professions
Indirect Cost Fund as authorized under Section |
22 | | 2105-300 of the
Department of Professional Regulation Law |
23 | | (20 ILCS 2105/2105-300).
|
24 | | (c)
Moneys set aside for nursing scholarships awarded |
25 | | pursuant to
the Nursing Education Scholarship Law as provided |
26 | | in item (4)
of subsection (b)
of this Section may not be |
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1 | | transferred under Section 8h of the State Finance Act. |
2 | | (Source: P.A. 95-331, eff. 8-21-07; 95-639, eff. 10-5-07; |
3 | | 96-328, eff. 8-11-09; 96-805, eff. 10-30-09.)
|
4 | | (225 ILCS 65/70-60)
(was 225 ILCS 65/20-55)
|
5 | | (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)
|
6 | | Sec. 70-60. Summary suspension;
imminent danger. The |
7 | | Secretary of the
Department may, upon receipt of a written
|
8 | | communication from the Secretary of Human Services, the |
9 | | Director of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Director |
10 | | of Public Aid),
or the Director of Public Health
that |
11 | | continuation of practice of a person licensed under this
Act |
12 | | constitutes an immediate danger to the public, immediately |
13 | | suspend the
license of such person without a hearing. In |
14 | | instances in which the
Secretary
immediately suspends a license |
15 | | under this Section, a hearing upon
such person's license must |
16 | | be convened by the Department within 30
days
after such |
17 | | suspension and completed without appreciable delay, such |
18 | | hearing
held to determine whether to recommend to the Secretary |
19 | | that the person's
license be revoked, suspended, placed on |
20 | | probationary status or restored reinstated ,
or such person be |
21 | | subject to other disciplinary action. In such hearing,
the |
22 | | written communication and any other evidence submitted |
23 | | therewith may be
introduced as evidence against such person; |
24 | | provided, however, the person,
or his or her counsel, shall |
25 | | have the opportunity to discredit or impeach
and
submit |
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1 | | evidence rebutting such evidence.
|
2 | | (Source: P.A. 95-331, eff. 8-21-07; 95-639, eff. 10-5-07.)
|
3 | | (225 ILCS 65/70-75)
(was 225 ILCS 65/20-75)
|
4 | | (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)
|
5 | | Sec. 70-75. Injunctive remedies.
|
6 | | (a) If any person violates the provision of this Act,
the
|
7 | | Secretary may, in the name of the People of the State of |
8 | | Illinois, through
the Attorney General of the State of |
9 | | Illinois, or the State's Attorney of
any county in which the |
10 | | action is brought, petition for an order enjoining
such |
11 | | violation or for an order enforcing compliance with this Act. |
12 | | Upon
the filing of a verified petition in court, the court may |
13 | | issue a temporary
restraining order, without notice or bond, |
14 | | and may preliminarily and
permanently enjoin such violation, |
15 | | and if it is established that such
person has violated or is |
16 | | violating the injunction, the court may punish
the offender for |
17 | | contempt of court. Proceedings under this Section shall
be in |
18 | | addition to, and not in lieu of, all other remedies and |
19 | | penalties
provided by this Act.
|
20 | | (b) If any person shall practice as a nurse or hold herself |
21 | | or himself
out as a nurse without being licensed under the |
22 | | provisions of this Act,
then any licensed nurse, any interested |
23 | | party, or any person injured
thereby may, in addition to the |
24 | | Secretary, petition for relief as provided
in subsection (a) of |
25 | | this Section.
|
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1 | | (b-5) Whoever knowingly practices or offers to practice |
2 | | nursing in this State
without a license for that purpose shall |
3 | | be guilty of a Class A misdemeanor
and for each subsequent |
4 | | conviction, shall be guilty of a Class 4 felony.
All criminal |
5 | | fines, monies, or other property collected or received by
the |
6 | | Department under this Section or any other State or federal |
7 | | statute,
including, but not limited to, property forfeited to |
8 | | the Department under
Section 505 of the Illinois Controlled |
9 | | Substances Act or Section 85 of the Methamphetamine Control and |
10 | | Community Protection Act, shall be deposited
into the |
11 | | Professional Regulation Evidence Fund.
|
12 | | (c) Whenever in the opinion of the Department any person |
13 | | violates any
provision of this Act, the Department may issue a |
14 | | rule to show cause why an
order to cease and desist should not |
15 | | be entered against him. The rule
shall clearly set forth the |
16 | | grounds relied upon by the Department and shall
provide a |
17 | | period of 7 days from the date of the rule to file an answer to
|
18 | | the satisfaction of the Department. Failure to answer to the |
19 | | satisfaction
of the Department shall cause an order to cease |
20 | | and desist to be issued
forthwith.
|
21 | | (Source: P.A. 94-556, eff. 9-11-05; 95-639, eff. 10-5-07.)
|
22 | | (225 ILCS 65/70-80)
(was 225 ILCS 65/20-80)
|
23 | | (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)
|
24 | | Sec. 70-80. Investigation; notice; hearing. |
25 | | (a) The Prior to bringing an
action before the Board, the
|
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1 | | Department may investigate the actions of any applicant or of |
2 | | any person
or persons holding or claiming to hold a license |
3 | | under this Act . |
4 | | (b) The Department shall,
before suspending, revoking, |
5 | | placing on probationary status, or taking any
other |
6 | | disciplinary action as the Department may deem proper with |
7 | | regard to
any license disciplining a license under this Section |
8 | | or refusing to issue a license , at least 30 days prior to the |
9 | | date set for the
hearing, (i) notify the accused in writing of |
10 | | any charges made and the time and
place for the a hearing of |
11 | | the charges before the Board , (ii) direct
her or him
to file a |
12 | | written answer to the charges thereto to the Board under oath
|
13 | | within 20 days
after the service ; of such notice and (iii) |
14 | | inform the applicant or licensee that failure if she or he
|
15 | | fails to file such answer will result in a default being |
16 | | entered default will be taken against the applicant or |
17 | | licensee . As a result of the default, and
such license may be |
18 | | suspended, revoked, placed on
probationary status, or have |
19 | | other disciplinary action, including limiting
the scope, |
20 | | nature or extent of her or his practice, as the Department may
|
21 | | deem proper taken with regard thereto. Such written notice may |
22 | | be served
by personal delivery or certified or registered mail |
23 | | to the respondent at
the address of her or his last |
24 | | notification to the Department. |
25 | | (c) At
the time
and place fixed in the notice, the |
26 | | Department shall proceed to hear the
charges and the parties or |
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1 | | their counsel shall be accorded ample
opportunity to present |
2 | | any pertinent such statements, testimony, evidence and |
3 | | arguments. argument as
may be pertinent to the charges or to |
4 | | the defense to the charges. The
Department may continue a |
5 | | hearing from time to time. In case the accused
person,
after |
6 | | receiving notice, fails to file an answer, her or his license |
7 | | may in the
discretion of the Secretary, having received first
|
8 | | the recommendation of the Board, be suspended,
revoked, placed |
9 | | on probationary status, or be subject to whatever disciplinary |
10 | | action the Secretary considers proper the Secretary may take |
11 | | whatever
disciplinary action as he or she may deem proper , |
12 | | including limiting the
scope,
nature, or extent of said |
13 | | person's practice or the imposition of a fine , without a |
14 | | hearing, if the act
or acts charged constitute sufficient |
15 | | grounds for such action under this Act.
|
16 | | (d) The written notice and any notice in the subsequent |
17 | | proceeding may be served by personal delivery or regular or |
18 | | certified mail to the respondent at the respondent's address of |
19 | | record or by email to the respondent's email address of record. |
20 | | (e) The Secretary has the authority to appoint any attorney |
21 | | licensed to practice law in the State of Illinois to serve as |
22 | | the hearing officer in any action for refusal to issue, |
23 | | restore, or renew a license or to discipline a licensee. The |
24 | | hearing officer has full authority to conduct the hearing. The |
25 | | Board may have a member or members present at any hearing. The |
26 | | Board members shall have equal or greater licensing |
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1 | | qualifications than those of the licensee being prosecuted. |
2 | | (Source: P.A. 95-639, eff. 10-5-07.)
|
3 | | (225 ILCS 65/70-81 new) |
4 | | Sec. 70-81. Confidentiality. All information collected by |
5 | | the Department in the course of an examination or investigation |
6 | | of a licensee or applicant, including, but not limited to, any |
7 | | complaint against a licensee filed with the Department and |
8 | | information collected to investigate any such complaint, shall |
9 | | be maintained for the confidential use of the Department and |
10 | | shall not be disclosed. The Department may not disclose the |
11 | | information to anyone other than law enforcement officials, |
12 | | other regulatory agencies that have an appropriate regulatory |
13 | | interest as determined by the Secretary of the Department, or a |
14 | | party presenting a lawful subpoena to the Department. |
15 | | Information and documents disclosed to a federal, State, |
16 | | county, or local law enforcement agency shall not be disclosed |
17 | | by the agency for any purpose to any other agency or person. A |
18 | | formal complaint filed by the Department against a licensee or |
19 | | applicant shall be a public record, except as otherwise |
20 | | prohibited by law.
|
21 | | (225 ILCS 65/70-85)
(was 225 ILCS 65/20-85)
|
22 | | (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)
|
23 | | Sec. 70-85. Stenographer; transcript. The Department, at |
24 | | its
expense, shall provide a stenographer
to take down the |
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1 | | testimony and preserve a record of all formal hearing |
2 | | proceedings if a license may be revoked, suspended, or placed |
3 | | on probationary status or other disciplinary action may be |
4 | | taken at the
hearing of any case wherein any disciplinary |
5 | | action is taken regarding a
license . Any licensee who is found |
6 | | to have violated this Act or who fails to appear for a hearing |
7 | | to refuse to issue, restore, or renew a license or to |
8 | | discipline a license may be required by the Department to pay |
9 | | for the costs of the proceeding. These costs are limited to |
10 | | costs for court reporters, transcripts, and witness attendance |
11 | | and mileage fees. The Secretary may waive payment of costs by a |
12 | | licensee in whole or in part where there is an undue financial |
13 | | hardship. The notice of hearing, complaint and all other |
14 | | documents in the
nature of pleadings and written motions filed |
15 | | in the proceedings, the
transcript of testimony, the report of |
16 | | the Board and the
orders of the
Department shall be the record |
17 | | of the proceedings. The
Department shall furnish a transcript |
18 | | of the record to any
person interested in the hearing upon |
19 | | payment of the fee
required under Section 2105-115 of the |
20 | | Department of Professional
Regulation Law (20 ILCS |
21 | | 2105/2105-115).
|
22 | | (Source: P.A. 95-639, eff. 10-5-07.)
|
23 | | (225 ILCS 65/70-100)
(was 225 ILCS 65/20-100)
|
24 | | (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)
|
25 | | Sec. 70-100. Hearing; findings and recommendations; |
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1 | | rehearing Board report . |
2 | | (a) The Board or the hearing officer authorized by the |
3 | | Department shall hear evidence in support of the formal charges |
4 | | and evidence produced by the licensee. At the conclusion of the |
5 | | hearing the
Board shall
present to the Secretary a written |
6 | | report of its findings of fact,
conclusions of law, and |
7 | | recommendations. The report shall contain a
finding whether or |
8 | | not the accused person violated this Act or failed to
comply |
9 | | with the conditions required in this Act. The report shall |
10 | | specify
the nature of the violation or failure to comply, and |
11 | | the Board shall
make its recommendations to the Secretary.
|
12 | | (b) At the conclusion of the hearing, a copy of the Board's |
13 | | or hearing officer's report shall be served upon the applicant |
14 | | or licensee by the Department, either personally or as provided |
15 | | in this Act for the service of a notice of hearing. Within 20 |
16 | | calendar days after service, the applicant or licensee may |
17 | | present to the Department a motion in writing for a rehearing, |
18 | | which shall specify the particular grounds for hearing. The |
19 | | Department shall respond to the motion for rehearing within 20 |
20 | | calendar days after its service on the Department. If no motion |
21 | | for rehearing is filed, then upon the expiration of the time |
22 | | specified for filing such a motion, or upon denial of a motion |
23 | | for rehearing, the Secretary may enter an order in accordance |
24 | | with the recommendations of the Board or hearing officer. If |
25 | | the applicant or licensee orders from the reporting service and |
26 | | pays for a transcript of the record within the time for filing |
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1 | | a motion for rehearing, the 20-day period within which a motion |
2 | | may be filed shall commence upon the delivery of the transcript |
3 | | to the applicant or licensee. |
4 | | (c) If the Secretary disagrees in any regard with the |
5 | | report of the Board, the Secretary may issue an order contrary |
6 | | to the report. The report of findings of fact, conclusions of |
7 | | law, and recommendation of
the Board shall be the basis for the |
8 | | Department's order of
refusal or
for the granting of a license |
9 | | or permit unless the Secretary shall determine
that the report |
10 | | is contrary to the manifest weight of the evidence, in which
|
11 | | case the Secretary may issue an order in contravention of the |
12 | | report. The
findings are not admissible in evidence against the |
13 | | person in a criminal
prosecution brought for the violation of |
14 | | this Act, but the hearing and
findings are not a bar to a |
15 | | criminal prosecution brought for the violation
of this Act.
|
16 | | (d) Whenever the Secretary is not satisfied that |
17 | | substantial justice has been done, the Secretary may order a |
18 | | rehearing by the same or another hearing officer. |
19 | | (e) All proceedings under this Section are matters of |
20 | | public record and shall be preserved. |
21 | | (f) Upon the suspension or revocation of a license, the |
22 | | licensee shall surrender the license to the Department, and, |
23 | | upon failure to do so, the Department shall seize the same. |
24 | | (Source: P.A. 95-639, eff. 10-5-07.)
|
25 | | (225 ILCS 65/70-103 new) |
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1 | | Sec. 70-103. Disposition by consent order. At any point in |
2 | | any investigation or disciplinary proceeding provided for in |
3 | | this Act, both parties may agree to a negotiated consent order. |
4 | | The consent order shall be final upon signature of the |
5 | | Secretary.
|
6 | | (225 ILCS 65/70-140)
(was 225 ILCS 65/20-140)
|
7 | | (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)
|
8 | | Sec. 70-140. Review under Administrative Review Law. All |
9 | | final
administrative decisions of the Department are
hereunder |
10 | | shall be subject to judicial review pursuant to the provisions |
11 | | revisions of
the Administrative Review Law, and all rules |
12 | | amendments and modifications
thereof, and the rule adopted |
13 | | under the Administrative Review Law pursuant thereto . The term |
14 | | "administrative
decision" is defined as in Section 3-101 of the |
15 | | Code of Civil Procedure.
|
16 | | Proceedings for judicial review shall be commenced in the |
17 | | circuit court of the county in which the party applying for |
18 | | review resides; however, if the party is not a resident of this |
19 | | State, the venue shall be Sangamon County. |
20 | | (Source: P.A. 95-639, eff. 10-5-07.)
|
21 | | (225 ILCS 65/70-145)
(was 225 ILCS 65/20-145)
|
22 | | (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)
|
23 | | Sec. 70-145. Certification of record. The Department shall |
24 | | not
be required to certify any record to
the court, Court or |
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1 | | file any answer in court , or otherwise appear in any court in a
|
2 | | judicial review proceeding, unless and until the Department has |
3 | | received from the plaintiff payment of the costs of furnishing |
4 | | and certifying the record, which costs shall be determined by |
5 | | the Department. Exhibits shall be certified without cost there |
6 | | is filed in the court, with the
complaint, a receipt from the |
7 | | Department acknowledging payment of the costs
of furnishing and |
8 | | certifying the record . Failure on the part of the
plaintiff to |
9 | | file such receipt in Court shall be grounds for dismissal of |
10 | | the
action.
|
11 | | (Source: P.A. 95-639, eff. 10-5-07.)
|
12 | | (225 ILCS 65/70-160)
(was 225 ILCS 65/20-160)
|
13 | | (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)
|
14 | | Sec. 70-160. Illinois Administrative Procedure Act. The
|
15 | | Illinois Administrative
Procedure Act is hereby expressly |
16 | | adopted and incorporated herein as if all of
the provisions of |
17 | | that Act were included in this Act, except that the provision
|
18 | | of subsection (d) of Section 10-65 of the Illinois |
19 | | Administrative Procedure Act
that provides that at hearings the |
20 | | licensee has the right to show compliance
with all lawful |
21 | | requirements for retention, continuation or renewal of the
|
22 | | license is specifically excluded. For the purposes of this Act, |
23 | | the notice
required under Section 10-25 of the Illinois |
24 | | Administrative Procedure Act
is deemed sufficient when mailed |
25 | | to the address of record last known address of a party .
|
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1 | | (Source: P.A. 95-639, eff. 10-5-07.)
|
2 | | (225 ILCS 65/Art. 75 heading) |
3 | | ARTICLE 75. ILLINOIS NURSING WORKFORCE CENTER FOR NURSING
|
4 | | (Article scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018) |
5 | | (Source: P.A. 94-1020, eff. 7-11-06; 95-639, eff. 10-5-07 .)
|
6 | | (225 ILCS 65/75-10) (was 225 ILCS 65/17-10) |
7 | | (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018) |
8 | | Sec. 75-10. Illinois Nursing Workforce Center for Nursing . |
9 | | The purpose of There is created the Illinois Nursing Workforce |
10 | | Center for Nursing to address issues of supply and demand in |
11 | | the nursing profession, including issues of recruitment, |
12 | | retention, and utilization of nurse manpower resources. The |
13 | | General Assembly finds that the Center will enhance the access |
14 | | to and delivery of quality health care services by providing an |
15 | | ongoing strategy for the allocation of the State's resources |
16 | | directed towards nursing. Each of the following objectives |
17 | | shall serve as the primary goals for the Center: |
18 | | (1) To develop a strategic plan for nursing manpower in |
19 | | Illinois by selecting priorities that must be addressed. |
20 | | (2) To convene various groups of representatives of |
21 | | nurses, other health care providers, businesses and |
22 | | industries, consumers, legislators, and educators to: |
23 | | (A) review and comment on data analysis prepared |
24 | | for the Center; and |
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| | HB0313 Engrossed | - 429 - | LRB100 04130 SMS 14135 b |
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1 | | (B) recommend systemic changes, including |
2 | | strategies for implementation of recommended changes . ; |
3 | | and |
4 | | (C) evaluate and report the results of the Advisory
|
5 | | Board's efforts to the General Assembly and others. |
6 | | (3) To enhance and promote recognition, reward, and |
7 | | renewal activities for nurses in Illinois by: |
8 | | (A) proposing and creating reward, recognition, |
9 | | and renewal activities for nursing; and |
10 | | (B) promoting media and positive image-building |
11 | | efforts for nursing.
|
12 | | (Source: P.A. 94-1020, eff. 7-11-06; 95-639, eff. 10-5-07.)
|
13 | | (225 ILCS 65/75-15) (was 225 ILCS 65/17-15) |
14 | | (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018) |
15 | | Sec. 75-15. Illinois Center for Nursing Workforce Center |
16 | | Advisory Board.
|
17 | | (a) There is created the Illinois Center for Nursing |
18 | | Workforce Center Advisory Board, which shall consist of 11 |
19 | | members appointed by the Secretary Governor , with 6 members of |
20 | | the Advisory Board being nurses representative of various |
21 | | nursing specialty areas. The other 5 members may include |
22 | | representatives of associations, health care providers, |
23 | | nursing educators, and consumers. |
24 | | (b) The membership of the Advisory Board shall reasonably |
25 | | reflect representation from the geographic areas in this State. |
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1 | | (c) Members of the Advisory Board appointed by the |
2 | | Secretary Governor shall serve for terms of 4 years, with no |
3 | | member serving more than 10 successive years , except that, |
4 | | initially, 4 members shall be appointed to the Advisory Board |
5 | | for terms that expire on June 30, 2009, 4 members shall be |
6 | | appointed to the Advisory
Board for terms that expire on June |
7 | | 30, 2008, and 3 members shall be appointed to the Advisory |
8 | | Board for terms that expire on June 30, 2007 . A member shall |
9 | | serve until his or her successor is appointed and has |
10 | | qualified. Vacancies shall be filled in the same manner as |
11 | | original appointments, and any member so appointed shall serve |
12 | | during the remainder of the term for which the vacancy |
13 | | occurred. |
14 | | (d) A quorum of the Advisory Board shall consist of a |
15 | | majority of Advisory Board members currently serving. A |
16 | | majority vote of the quorum is required for Advisory Board |
17 | | decisions. A vacancy in the membership of the Advisory Board |
18 | | shall not impair the right of a quorum to exercise all of the |
19 | | rights and perform all of the duties of the Advisory Board. |
20 | | (e) The Secretary Governor may remove any appointed member |
21 | | of the Advisory Board for misconduct, incapacity, or neglect of |
22 | | duty and shall be the sole judge of the sufficiency of the |
23 | | cause for removal. |
24 | | (f) Members of the Advisory Board are immune from suit in |
25 | | any action based upon any activities performed in good faith as |
26 | | members of the Advisory Board. |
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1 | | (g) Members of the Advisory Board shall not receive |
2 | | compensation, but shall be reimbursed for actual traveling, |
3 | | incidentals, and expenses necessarily incurred in carrying out |
4 | | their duties as members of the Advisory Board, as approved by |
5 | | the Department.
|
6 | | (h) The Advisory Board shall meet annually to elect a |
7 | | chairperson and vice chairperson. |
8 | | (Source: P.A. 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 98-247, eff. 8-9-13.)
|
9 | | (225 ILCS 65/75-20) (was 225 ILCS 65/17-20) |
10 | | (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018) |
11 | | Sec. 75-20. Powers and duties of the Advisory Board.
|
12 | | (a) The Advisory Board shall be advisory to the Department |
13 | | and shall possess and perform each of the following powers and |
14 | | duties: |
15 | | (1) determine operational policy; |
16 | | (2) (blank); administer grants, scholarships, |
17 | | internships, and other programs, as defined by rule, |
18 | | including the administration of programs, as determined by |
19 | | law, that further those goals set forth in Section 75-10 of |
20 | | this Article, in consultation with other State agencies, as |
21 | | provided by law; |
22 | | (3) establish committees of the Advisory Board as |
23 | | needed; |
24 | | (4) recommend the adoption and, from time to time, the |
25 | | revision of those rules that may be adopted and necessary |
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1 | | to carry out the provisions of this Act; |
2 | | (5) implement the major functions of the Center, as |
3 | | established in the goals set forth in Section 75-10
of this |
4 | | Article; and |
5 | | (6) seek and accept non-State funds for carrying out |
6 | | the policy of the Center. |
7 | | (b) The Center shall work in consultation with other State |
8 | | agencies as necessary.
|
9 | | (Source: P.A. 94-1020, eff. 7-11-06; 95-639, eff. 10-5-07.)
|
10 | | (225 ILCS 65/80-15) |
11 | | (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018) |
12 | | Sec. 80-15. Licensure requirement; exempt activities. |
13 | | (a) On and after January 1, 2015, no person shall
practice |
14 | | as a medication aide or hold himself or herself out as a |
15 | | licensed medication aide in this State
unless he or she is |
16 | | licensed under this Article. |
17 | | (b) Nothing in this Article shall be construed as |
18 | | preventing or restricting the practice, services, or
|
19 | | activities of: |
20 | | (1) any person licensed in this State by any other law |
21 | | from engaging in the profession or
occupation for which he |
22 | | or she is licensed; |
23 | | (2) any person employed as a medication aide by the |
24 | | government of the United States, if
such person practices |
25 | | as a medication aide solely under the direction or control |
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1 | | of the
organization by which he or she is employed; or |
2 | | (3) any person pursuing a course of study leading to a |
3 | | certificate in medication aide at an
accredited or approved |
4 | | educational program if such activities and services |
5 | | constitute a part of a
supervised course of study and if |
6 | | such person is designated by a title which clearly |
7 | | indicates his
or her status as a student or trainee. |
8 | | (c) Nothing in this Article shall be construed to limit the |
9 | | delegation of tasks or duties by a
physician, dentist, advanced |
10 | | practice registered nurse, or podiatric physician as |
11 | | authorized by law.
|
12 | | (Source: P.A. 98-990, eff. 8-18-14 .)
|
13 | | (225 ILCS 65/80-35) |
14 | | (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018) |
15 | | Sec. 80-35. Examinations. The Department shall authorize |
16 | | examinations of applicants for a license
under this Article at |
17 | | the times and place as it may designate. The examination shall |
18 | | be of a
character to give a fair test of the qualifications of |
19 | | the applicant to practice as a medication aide. |
20 | | Applicants for examination as a medication aide shall be |
21 | | required to pay, either to the
Department or the designated |
22 | | testing service, a fee covering the cost of providing the
|
23 | | examination. Failure to appear for the examination on the |
24 | | scheduled date, at the time and place
specified, after the |
25 | | applicant's application for examination has been received and |
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1 | | acknowledged
by the Department or the designated testing |
2 | | service, shall result in the forfeiture of the
examination fee. |
3 | | If an applicant fails to pass an examination for licensure |
4 | | registration under this Act within 3 years after
filing his or |
5 | | her application, the application shall be denied. The applicant |
6 | | may thereafter make a new
application accompanied by the |
7 | | required fee; however, the applicant shall meet all |
8 | | requirements
in effect at the time of subsequent application |
9 | | before obtaining licensure. The Department may
employ |
10 | | consultants for the purposes of preparing and conducting |
11 | | examinations.
|
12 | | (Source: P.A. 98-990, eff. 8-18-14 .)
|
13 | | (225 ILCS 65/60-15 rep.)
|
14 | | (225 ILCS 65/70-30 rep.)
|
15 | | (225 ILCS 65/70-65 rep.)
|
16 | | (225 ILCS 65/70-105 rep.)
|
17 | | (225 ILCS 65/70-110 rep.)
|
18 | | (225 ILCS 65/70-115 rep.)
|
19 | | (225 ILCS 65/75-5 rep.) |
20 | | Section 165. The Nurse Practice Act is amended by repealing |
21 | | Sections 60-15, 70-30, 70-65, 70-105, 70-110, 70-115, and 75-5.
|
22 | | Section 170. The Illinois Occupational Therapy Practice |
23 | | Act is amended by changing Sections 3.1 and 19 as follows:
|
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1 | | (225 ILCS 75/3.1)
|
2 | | (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2024)
|
3 | | Sec. 3.1. Referrals. |
4 | | (a) A licensed occupational therapist or licensed
|
5 | | occupational therapy assistant may consult with, educate, |
6 | | evaluate, and monitor
services for individuals, groups, and |
7 | | populations concerning occupational therapy needs. Except as |
8 | | indicated in subsections (b) and (c) of this Section, |
9 | | implementation
of direct occupational therapy treatment to |
10 | | individuals for their specific
health care conditions shall be |
11 | | based upon a referral from a licensed
physician, dentist, |
12 | | podiatric physician, advanced practice registered nurse, |
13 | | physician assistant, or optometrist.
|
14 | | (b) A referral is not required for the purpose of providing |
15 | | consultation, habilitation, screening, education, wellness, |
16 | | prevention, environmental assessments, and work-related |
17 | | ergonomic services to individuals, groups, or populations. |
18 | | (c) Referral from a physician or other health care provider |
19 | | is not required for evaluation or intervention for children and |
20 | | youths if an occupational therapist or occupational therapy |
21 | | assistant provides services in a school-based or educational |
22 | | environment, including the child's home. |
23 | | (d) An occupational therapist shall refer to a licensed |
24 | | physician, dentist,
optometrist, advanced practice registered |
25 | | nurse, physician assistant, or podiatric physician any patient |
26 | | whose medical condition should, at the
time of evaluation or |
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1 | | treatment, be determined to be beyond the scope of
practice of |
2 | | the occupational therapist.
|
3 | | (Source: P.A. 98-214, eff. 8-9-13; 98-264, eff. 12-31-13; |
4 | | 98-756, eff. 7-16-14; 99-173, eff. 7-29-15.)
|
5 | | (225 ILCS 75/19) (from Ch. 111, par. 3719)
|
6 | | (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2024)
|
7 | | Sec. 19. Grounds for discipline. |
8 | | (a) The Department may refuse to issue or renew, or may |
9 | | revoke,
suspend, place on probation, reprimand or take other |
10 | | disciplinary or non-disciplinary
action as the Department may |
11 | | deem proper, including imposing fines not to exceed
$10,000 for |
12 | | each violation and the assessment of costs as provided under |
13 | | Section 19.3 of this Act, with regard to any license for
any |
14 | | one or combination of the following:
|
15 | | (1) Material misstatement in furnishing information to |
16 | | the Department;
|
17 | | (2) Violations of this Act, or of the rules promulgated |
18 | | thereunder;
|
19 | | (3) Conviction by plea of guilty or nolo contendere, |
20 | | finding of guilt, jury verdict, or entry of judgment or |
21 | | sentencing of any crime, including, but not limited to, |
22 | | convictions, preceding sentences of supervision, |
23 | | conditional discharge, or first offender probation, under |
24 | | the laws of any jurisdiction of the United States that is |
25 | | (i) a felony or (ii) a misdemeanor, an essential element of |
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1 | | which is dishonesty, or that is directly related to the |
2 | | practice of the profession;
|
3 | | (4) Fraud or any misrepresentation in applying for or |
4 | | procuring a license under this Act, or in connection with |
5 | | applying for renewal of a license under this Act;
|
6 | | (5) Professional incompetence;
|
7 | | (6) Aiding or assisting another person, firm, |
8 | | partnership or
corporation in violating any provision of |
9 | | this Act or rules;
|
10 | | (7) Failing, within 60 days, to provide information in |
11 | | response to a
written request made by the Department;
|
12 | | (8) Engaging in dishonorable, unethical or |
13 | | unprofessional conduct of a
character likely to deceive, |
14 | | defraud or harm the public;
|
15 | | (9) Habitual or excessive use or abuse of drugs defined |
16 | | in law as controlled substances, alcohol, or any other |
17 | | substance that results in the inability to practice with |
18 | | reasonable judgment, skill, or safety;
|
19 | | (10) Discipline by another state, unit of government, |
20 | | government agency, the District of Columbia, a territory,
|
21 | | or foreign nation, if at least one of the grounds for the |
22 | | discipline is
the same or substantially equivalent to those |
23 | | set forth herein;
|
24 | | (11) Directly or indirectly giving to or receiving from |
25 | | any person, firm,
corporation, partnership, or association |
26 | | any fee, commission, rebate or other
form of compensation |
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1 | | for professional services not actually or personally
|
2 | | rendered. Nothing in this paragraph (11) affects any bona |
3 | | fide independent contractor or employment arrangements |
4 | | among health care professionals, health facilities, health |
5 | | care providers, or other entities, except as otherwise |
6 | | prohibited by law. Any employment arrangements may include |
7 | | provisions for compensation, health insurance, pension, or |
8 | | other employment benefits for the provision of services |
9 | | within the scope of the licensee's practice under this Act. |
10 | | Nothing in this paragraph (11) shall be construed to |
11 | | require an employment arrangement to receive professional |
12 | | fees for services rendered;
|
13 | | (12) A finding by the Department that the license |
14 | | holder, after having his
license disciplined, has violated |
15 | | the terms of the discipline;
|
16 | | (13) Wilfully making or filing false records or reports |
17 | | in the practice
of occupational therapy, including but not |
18 | | limited to false records filed
with the State agencies or |
19 | | departments;
|
20 | | (14) Physical illness, including but not limited to, |
21 | | deterioration through
the aging process, or loss of motor |
22 | | skill which results in the inability
to practice under this |
23 | | Act with reasonable judgment, skill, or safety;
|
24 | | (15) Solicitation of professional services other than |
25 | | by permitted
advertising;
|
26 | | (16) Allowing one's license under this Act to be used |
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1 | | by an unlicensed person in violation of this Act;
|
2 | | (17) Practicing under a false or, except as provided by |
3 | | law, assumed name;
|
4 | | (18) Professional incompetence or gross negligence;
|
5 | | (19) Malpractice;
|
6 | | (20) Promotion of the sale of drugs, devices, |
7 | | appliances, or goods provided for a patient in any manner |
8 | | to exploit the client for financial gain of the licensee;
|
9 | | (21) Gross, willful, or continued overcharging for |
10 | | professional services;
|
11 | | (22) Mental illness or disability that results in the |
12 | | inability to practice under this Act with reasonable |
13 | | judgment, skill, or safety;
|
14 | | (23) Violating the Health Care Worker Self-Referral |
15 | | Act;
|
16 | | (24) Having treated patients other than by the practice |
17 | | of occupational
therapy as defined in this Act, or having |
18 | | treated patients as a licensed
occupational therapist |
19 | | independent of a referral from a physician, advanced |
20 | | practice registered nurse or physician assistant in |
21 | | accordance with Section 3.1, dentist,
podiatric physician, |
22 | | or optometrist, or having failed to notify the physician,
|
23 | | advanced practice registered nurse, physician assistant,
|
24 | | dentist, podiatric physician, or optometrist who |
25 | | established a diagnosis that the
patient is
receiving |
26 | | occupational therapy pursuant to that diagnosis;
|
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1 | | (25) Cheating on or attempting to subvert the licensing |
2 | | examination administered under this Act; and |
3 | | (26) Charging for professional services not rendered, |
4 | | including filing false statements for the collection of |
5 | | fees for which services are not rendered. |
6 | | All fines imposed under this Section shall be paid within |
7 | | 60 days after the effective date of the order imposing the fine |
8 | | or in accordance with the terms set forth in the order imposing |
9 | | the fine. |
10 | | (b) The determination by a circuit court that a license |
11 | | holder is subject
to involuntary admission or judicial |
12 | | admission as provided in the Mental
Health and Developmental |
13 | | Disabilities Code, as now or hereafter amended,
operates as an |
14 | | automatic suspension. Such suspension will end only upon
a |
15 | | finding by a court that the patient is no longer subject to |
16 | | involuntary
admission or judicial admission and an order by the |
17 | | court so finding and
discharging the patient. In any case where |
18 | | a license is suspended under this provision, the licensee shall |
19 | | file a petition for restoration and shall include evidence |
20 | | acceptable to the Department that the licensee can resume |
21 | | practice in compliance with acceptable and prevailing |
22 | | standards of their profession.
|
23 | | (c) The Department may refuse to issue or may suspend |
24 | | without hearing, as provided for in the Code of Civil |
25 | | Procedure,
the license of any person who fails to file a |
26 | | return, to pay the tax, penalty,
or interest
shown in a filed |
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1 | | return, or to pay any final assessment of tax, penalty, or
|
2 | | interest as
required by any tax Act administered by the |
3 | | Illinois Department of Revenue, until such
time as
the |
4 | | requirements of any such tax Act are satisfied in accordance |
5 | | with subsection (a) of Section 2105-15 of the Department of |
6 | | Professional Regulation Law of the Civil Administrative Code of |
7 | | Illinois.
|
8 | | (d) In enforcing this Section, the Department, upon a |
9 | | showing of a possible violation, may compel any individual who |
10 | | is licensed under this Act or any individual who has applied |
11 | | for licensure to submit to a mental or physical examination or |
12 | | evaluation, or both, which may include a substance abuse or |
13 | | sexual offender evaluation, at the expense of the Department. |
14 | | The Department shall specifically designate the examining |
15 | | physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches |
16 | | or, if applicable, the multidisciplinary team involved in |
17 | | providing the mental or physical examination and evaluation. |
18 | | The multidisciplinary team shall be led by a physician licensed |
19 | | to practice medicine in all of its branches and may consist of |
20 | | one or more or a combination of physicians licensed to practice |
21 | | medicine in all of its branches, licensed chiropractic |
22 | | physicians, licensed clinical psychologists, licensed clinical |
23 | | social workers, licensed clinical professional counselors, and |
24 | | other professional and administrative staff. Any examining |
25 | | physician or member of the multidisciplinary team may require |
26 | | any person ordered to submit to an examination and evaluation |
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1 | | pursuant to this Section to submit to any additional |
2 | | supplemental testing deemed necessary to complete any |
3 | | examination or evaluation process, including, but not limited |
4 | | to, blood testing, urinalysis, psychological testing, or |
5 | | neuropsychological testing. |
6 | | The Department may order the examining physician or any |
7 | | member of the multidisciplinary team to provide to the |
8 | | Department any and all records, including business records, |
9 | | that relate to the examination and evaluation, including any |
10 | | supplemental testing performed. The Department may order the |
11 | | examining physician or any member of the multidisciplinary team |
12 | | to present testimony concerning this examination and |
13 | | evaluation of the licensee or applicant, including testimony |
14 | | concerning any supplemental testing or documents relating to |
15 | | the examination and evaluation. No information, report, |
16 | | record, or other documents in any way related to the |
17 | | examination and evaluation shall be excluded by reason of any |
18 | | common law or statutory privilege relating to communication |
19 | | between the licensee or applicant and the examining physician |
20 | | or any member of the multidisciplinary team. No authorization |
21 | | is necessary from the licensee or applicant ordered to undergo |
22 | | an evaluation and examination for the examining physician or |
23 | | any member of the multidisciplinary team to provide |
24 | | information, reports, records, or other documents or to provide |
25 | | any testimony regarding the examination and evaluation. The |
26 | | individual to be examined may have, at his or her own expense, |
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1 | | another physician of his or her choice present during all |
2 | | aspects of the examination. |
3 | | Failure of any individual to submit to mental or physical |
4 | | examination or evaluation, or both, when directed, shall result |
5 | | in an automatic suspension without hearing, until such time as |
6 | | the individual submits to the examination. If the Department |
7 | | finds a licensee unable to practice because of the reasons set |
8 | | forth in this Section, the Department shall require the |
9 | | licensee to submit to care, counseling, or treatment by |
10 | | physicians approved or designated by the Department as a |
11 | | condition for continued, reinstated, or renewed licensure. |
12 | | When the Secretary immediately suspends a license under |
13 | | this Section, a hearing upon such person's license must be |
14 | | convened by the Department within 15 days after the suspension |
15 | | and completed without appreciable delay. The Department shall |
16 | | have the authority to review the licensee's record of treatment |
17 | | and counseling regarding the impairment to the extent permitted |
18 | | by applicable federal statutes and regulations safeguarding |
19 | | the confidentiality of medical records. |
20 | | Individuals licensed under this Act that are affected under |
21 | | this Section, shall be afforded an opportunity to demonstrate |
22 | | to the Department that they can resume practice in compliance |
23 | | with acceptable and prevailing standards under the provisions |
24 | | of their license.
|
25 | | (e) The Department shall deny a license or renewal |
26 | | authorized by this Act to a person who has defaulted on an |
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1 | | educational loan or scholarship provided or guaranteed by the |
2 | | Illinois Student Assistance Commission or any governmental |
3 | | agency of this State in accordance with paragraph (5) of |
4 | | subsection (a) of Section 2105-15 of the Department of |
5 | | Professional Regulation Law of the Civil Administrative Code of |
6 | | Illinois. |
7 | | (f) In cases where the Department of Healthcare and Family |
8 | | Services has previously determined a licensee or a potential |
9 | | licensee is more than 30 days delinquent in the payment of |
10 | | child support and has subsequently certified the delinquency to |
11 | | the Department, the Department may refuse to issue or renew or |
12 | | may revoke or suspend that person's license or may take other |
13 | | disciplinary action against that person based solely upon the |
14 | | certification of delinquency made by the Department of |
15 | | Healthcare and Family Services in accordance with paragraph (5) |
16 | | of subsection (a) of Section 2105-15 of the Department of |
17 | | Professional Regulation Law of the Civil Administrative Code of |
18 | | Illinois. |
19 | | (Source: P.A. 98-214, eff. 8-9-13; 98-264, eff. 12-31-13; |
20 | | 98-756, eff. 7-16-14.)
|
21 | | Section 175. The Orthotics, Prosthetics, and Pedorthics |
22 | | Practice Act is amended by changing Sections 15 and 57 as |
23 | | follows:
|
24 | | (225 ILCS 84/15)
|
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1 | | (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2020)
|
2 | | Sec. 15. Exceptions. This Act shall not be construed to |
3 | | prohibit:
|
4 | | (1) a physician licensed in this State
from engaging in the |
5 | | practice for which he or she is licensed;
|
6 | | (2) a person licensed in this State under any other Act |
7 | | from engaging in the
practice for which he or she is licensed;
|
8 | | (3) the practice of orthotics, prosthetics, or pedorthics |
9 | | by a person who is
employed by the federal government or any |
10 | | bureau, division, or agency of the
federal
government while in |
11 | | the discharge of the employee's official duties;
|
12 | | (4) the practice of orthotics, prosthetics, or pedorthics |
13 | | by (i) a student
enrolled in a school of orthotics, |
14 | | prosthetics, or pedorthics, (ii) a
resident continuing
his or |
15 | | her clinical education in a residency accredited by the |
16 | | National
Commission on
Orthotic and Prosthetic Education, or |
17 | | (iii) a student in a qualified work
experience
program or |
18 | | internship in pedorthics;
|
19 | | (5) the practice of orthotics, prosthetics, or pedorthics |
20 | | by one who is an
orthotist, prosthetist, or pedorthist licensed |
21 | | under the laws of another state
or territory
of the United |
22 | | States or another country and has applied in writing to the
|
23 | | Department, in
a form and substance satisfactory to the |
24 | | Department, for a license as
orthotist,
prosthetist, or |
25 | | pedorthist and who is qualified to receive the license under
|
26 | | Section 40
until (i) the expiration of 6 months after the |
|
| | HB0313 Engrossed | - 446 - | LRB100 04130 SMS 14135 b |
|
|
1 | | filing of the written
application, (ii) the
withdrawal of the |
2 | | application, or (iii) the denial of the application by the
|
3 | | Department;
|
4 | | (6) a person licensed by this State as a physical |
5 | | therapist, occupational
therapist, or advanced practice |
6 | | registered nurse from engaging in his or her profession; or
|
7 | | (7) a physician licensed under the Podiatric Medical |
8 | | Practice Act of 1987
from engaging in his or her profession.
|
9 | | (Source: P.A. 96-682, eff. 8-25-09; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10.)
|
10 | | (225 ILCS 84/57)
|
11 | | (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2020)
|
12 | | Sec. 57. Limitation on provision of care and services. A
|
13 | | licensed orthotist, prosthetist, or pedorthist may provide |
14 | | care or services only if the care
or services are provided |
15 | | pursuant to an order from (i) a licensed physician, (ii) a |
16 | | licensed podiatric physician, (iii) a licensed advanced |
17 | | practice registered nurse, or (iv) a licensed physician |
18 | | assistant. A licensed podiatric physician or advanced practice |
19 | | registered nurse collaborating with a podiatric physician may |
20 | | only order care or services concerning the foot from a licensed |
21 | | prosthetist.
|
22 | | (Source: P.A. 98-214, eff. 8-9-13; 99-173, eff. 7-29-15.)
|
23 | | Section 180. The Pharmacy Practice Act is amended by |
24 | | changing Sections 3, 4, and 16b as follows:
|
|
| | HB0313 Engrossed | - 447 - | LRB100 04130 SMS 14135 b |
|
|
1 | | (225 ILCS 85/3)
|
2 | | (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)
|
3 | | Sec. 3. Definitions. For the purpose of this Act, except |
4 | | where otherwise
limited therein:
|
5 | | (a) "Pharmacy" or "drugstore" means and includes every |
6 | | store, shop,
pharmacy department, or other place where |
7 | | pharmacist
care is
provided
by a pharmacist (1) where drugs, |
8 | | medicines, or poisons are
dispensed, sold or
offered for sale |
9 | | at retail, or displayed for sale at retail; or
(2)
where
|
10 | | prescriptions of physicians, dentists, advanced practice |
11 | | registered nurses, physician assistants, veterinarians, |
12 | | podiatric physicians, or
optometrists, within the limits of |
13 | | their
licenses, are
compounded, filled, or dispensed; or (3) |
14 | | which has upon it or
displayed within
it, or affixed to or used |
15 | | in connection with it, a sign bearing the word or
words |
16 | | "Pharmacist", "Druggist", "Pharmacy", "Pharmaceutical
Care", |
17 | | "Apothecary", "Drugstore",
"Medicine Store", "Prescriptions", |
18 | | "Drugs", "Dispensary", "Medicines", or any word
or words of |
19 | | similar or like import, either in the English language
or any |
20 | | other language; or (4) where the characteristic prescription
|
21 | | sign (Rx) or similar design is exhibited; or (5) any store, or
|
22 | | shop,
or other place with respect to which any of the above |
23 | | words, objects,
signs or designs are used in any advertisement.
|
24 | | (b) "Drugs" means and includes (1) articles recognized
in |
25 | | the official United States Pharmacopoeia/National Formulary |
|
| | HB0313 Engrossed | - 448 - | LRB100 04130 SMS 14135 b |
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|
1 | | (USP/NF),
or any supplement thereto and being intended for and |
2 | | having for their
main use the diagnosis, cure, mitigation, |
3 | | treatment or prevention of
disease in man or other animals, as |
4 | | approved by the United States Food and
Drug Administration, but |
5 | | does not include devices or their components, parts,
or |
6 | | accessories; and (2) all other articles intended
for and having |
7 | | for their main use the diagnosis, cure, mitigation,
treatment |
8 | | or prevention of disease in man or other animals, as approved
|
9 | | by the United States Food and Drug Administration, but does not |
10 | | include
devices or their components, parts, or accessories; and |
11 | | (3) articles
(other than food) having for their main use and |
12 | | intended
to affect the structure or any function of the body of |
13 | | man or other
animals; and (4) articles having for their main |
14 | | use and intended
for use as a component or any articles |
15 | | specified in clause (1), (2)
or (3); but does not include |
16 | | devices or their components, parts or
accessories.
|
17 | | (c) "Medicines" means and includes all drugs intended for
|
18 | | human or veterinary use approved by the United States Food and |
19 | | Drug
Administration.
|
20 | | (d) "Practice of pharmacy" means (1) the interpretation and |
21 | | the provision of assistance in the monitoring, evaluation, and |
22 | | implementation of prescription drug orders; (2) the dispensing |
23 | | of prescription drug orders; (3) participation in drug and |
24 | | device selection; (4) drug administration limited to the |
25 | | administration of oral, topical, injectable, and inhalation as |
26 | | follows: in the context of patient education on the proper use |
|
| | HB0313 Engrossed | - 449 - | LRB100 04130 SMS 14135 b |
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|
1 | | or delivery of medications; vaccination of patients 14 years of |
2 | | age and older pursuant to a valid prescription or standing |
3 | | order, by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its |
4 | | branches, upon completion of appropriate training, including |
5 | | how to address contraindications and adverse reactions set |
6 | | forth by rule, with notification to the patient's physician and |
7 | | appropriate record retention, or pursuant to hospital pharmacy |
8 | | and therapeutics committee policies and procedures; (5) |
9 | | vaccination of patients ages 10 through 13 limited to the |
10 | | Influenza (inactivated influenza vaccine and live attenuated |
11 | | influenza intranasal vaccine) and Tdap (defined as tetanus, |
12 | | diphtheria, acellular pertussis) vaccines, pursuant to a valid |
13 | | prescription or standing order, by a physician licensed to |
14 | | practice medicine in all its branches, upon completion of |
15 | | appropriate training, including how to address |
16 | | contraindications and adverse reactions set forth by rule, with |
17 | | notification to the patient's physician and appropriate record |
18 | | retention, or pursuant to hospital pharmacy and therapeutics |
19 | | committee policies and procedures; (6) drug regimen review; (7) |
20 | | drug or drug-related research; (8) the provision of patient |
21 | | counseling; (9) the practice of telepharmacy; (10) the |
22 | | provision of those acts or services necessary to provide |
23 | | pharmacist care; (11) medication therapy management; and (12) |
24 | | the responsibility for compounding and labeling of drugs and |
25 | | devices (except labeling by a manufacturer, repackager, or |
26 | | distributor of non-prescription drugs and commercially |
|
| | HB0313 Engrossed | - 450 - | LRB100 04130 SMS 14135 b |
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|
1 | | packaged legend drugs and devices), proper and safe storage of |
2 | | drugs and devices, and maintenance of required records. A |
3 | | pharmacist who performs any of the acts defined as the practice |
4 | | of pharmacy in this State must be actively licensed as a |
5 | | pharmacist under this Act.
|
6 | | (e) "Prescription" means and includes any written, oral, |
7 | | facsimile, or
electronically transmitted order for drugs
or |
8 | | medical devices, issued by a physician licensed to practice |
9 | | medicine in
all its branches, dentist, veterinarian, podiatric |
10 | | physician, or
optometrist, within the
limits of their licenses, |
11 | | by a physician assistant in accordance with
subsection (f) of |
12 | | Section 4, or by an advanced practice registered nurse in
|
13 | | accordance with subsection (g) of Section 4, containing the
|
14 | | following: (1) name
of the patient; (2) date when prescription |
15 | | was issued; (3) name
and strength of drug or description of the |
16 | | medical device prescribed;
and (4) quantity; (5) directions for |
17 | | use; (6) prescriber's name,
address,
and signature; and (7) DEA |
18 | | number where required, for controlled
substances.
The |
19 | | prescription may, but is not required to, list the illness, |
20 | | disease, or condition for which the drug or device is being |
21 | | prescribed. DEA numbers shall not be required on inpatient drug |
22 | | orders.
|
23 | | (f) "Person" means and includes a natural person, |
24 | | copartnership,
association, corporation, government entity, or |
25 | | any other legal
entity.
|
26 | | (g) "Department" means the Department of Financial and
|
|
| | HB0313 Engrossed | - 451 - | LRB100 04130 SMS 14135 b |
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|
1 | | Professional Regulation.
|
2 | | (h) "Board of Pharmacy" or "Board" means the State Board
of |
3 | | Pharmacy of the Department of Financial and Professional |
4 | | Regulation.
|
5 | | (i) "Secretary"
means the Secretary
of Financial and |
6 | | Professional Regulation.
|
7 | | (j) "Drug product selection" means the interchange for a
|
8 | | prescribed pharmaceutical product in accordance with Section |
9 | | 25 of
this Act and Section 3.14 of the Illinois Food, Drug and |
10 | | Cosmetic Act.
|
11 | | (k) "Inpatient drug order" means an order issued by an |
12 | | authorized
prescriber for a resident or patient of a facility |
13 | | licensed under the
Nursing Home Care Act, the ID/DD Community |
14 | | Care Act, the MC/DD Act, the Specialized Mental Health |
15 | | Rehabilitation Act of 2013, or the Hospital Licensing Act, or |
16 | | "An Act in relation to
the founding and operation of the |
17 | | University of Illinois Hospital and the
conduct of University |
18 | | of Illinois health care programs", approved July 3, 1931,
as |
19 | | amended, or a facility which is operated by the Department of |
20 | | Human
Services (as successor to the Department of Mental Health
|
21 | | and Developmental Disabilities) or the Department of |
22 | | Corrections.
|
23 | | (k-5) "Pharmacist" means an individual health care |
24 | | professional and
provider currently licensed by this State to |
25 | | engage in the practice of
pharmacy.
|
26 | | (l) "Pharmacist in charge" means the licensed pharmacist |
|
| | HB0313 Engrossed | - 452 - | LRB100 04130 SMS 14135 b |
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|
1 | | whose name appears
on a pharmacy license and who is responsible |
2 | | for all aspects of the
operation related to the practice of |
3 | | pharmacy.
|
4 | | (m) "Dispense" or "dispensing" means the interpretation, |
5 | | evaluation, and implementation of a prescription drug order, |
6 | | including the preparation and delivery of a drug or device to a |
7 | | patient or patient's agent in a suitable container |
8 | | appropriately labeled for subsequent administration to or use |
9 | | by a patient in accordance with applicable State and federal |
10 | | laws and regulations.
"Dispense" or "dispensing" does not mean |
11 | | the physical delivery to a patient or a
patient's |
12 | | representative in a home or institution by a designee of a |
13 | | pharmacist
or by common carrier. "Dispense" or "dispensing" |
14 | | also does not mean the physical delivery
of a drug or medical |
15 | | device to a patient or patient's representative by a
|
16 | | pharmacist's designee within a pharmacy or drugstore while the |
17 | | pharmacist is
on duty and the pharmacy is open.
|
18 | | (n) "Nonresident pharmacy"
means a pharmacy that is located |
19 | | in a state, commonwealth, or territory
of the United States, |
20 | | other than Illinois, that delivers, dispenses, or
distributes, |
21 | | through the United States Postal Service, commercially |
22 | | acceptable parcel delivery service, or other common
carrier, to |
23 | | Illinois residents, any substance which requires a |
24 | | prescription.
|
25 | | (o) "Compounding" means the preparation and mixing of |
26 | | components, excluding flavorings, (1) as the result of a |
|
| | HB0313 Engrossed | - 453 - | LRB100 04130 SMS 14135 b |
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|
1 | | prescriber's prescription drug order or initiative based on the |
2 | | prescriber-patient-pharmacist relationship in the course of |
3 | | professional practice or (2) for the purpose of, or incident |
4 | | to, research, teaching, or chemical analysis and not for sale |
5 | | or dispensing. "Compounding" includes the preparation of drugs |
6 | | or devices in anticipation of receiving prescription drug |
7 | | orders based on routine, regularly observed dispensing |
8 | | patterns. Commercially available products may be compounded |
9 | | for dispensing to individual patients only if all of the |
10 | | following conditions are met: (i) the commercial product is not |
11 | | reasonably available from normal distribution channels in a |
12 | | timely manner to meet the patient's needs and (ii) the |
13 | | prescribing practitioner has requested that the drug be |
14 | | compounded.
|
15 | | (p) (Blank).
|
16 | | (q) (Blank).
|
17 | | (r) "Patient counseling" means the communication between a |
18 | | pharmacist or a student pharmacist under the supervision of a |
19 | | pharmacist and a patient or the patient's representative about |
20 | | the patient's medication or device for the purpose of |
21 | | optimizing proper use of prescription medications or devices. |
22 | | "Patient counseling" may include without limitation (1) |
23 | | obtaining a medication history; (2) acquiring a patient's |
24 | | allergies and health conditions; (3) facilitation of the |
25 | | patient's understanding of the intended use of the medication; |
26 | | (4) proper directions for use; (5) significant potential |
|
| | HB0313 Engrossed | - 454 - | LRB100 04130 SMS 14135 b |
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|
1 | | adverse events; (6) potential food-drug interactions; and (7) |
2 | | the need to be compliant with the medication therapy. A |
3 | | pharmacy technician may only participate in the following |
4 | | aspects of patient counseling under the supervision of a |
5 | | pharmacist: (1) obtaining medication history; (2) providing |
6 | | the offer for counseling by a pharmacist or student pharmacist; |
7 | | and (3) acquiring a patient's allergies and health conditions.
|
8 | | (s) "Patient profiles" or "patient drug therapy record" |
9 | | means the
obtaining, recording, and maintenance of patient |
10 | | prescription
information, including prescriptions for |
11 | | controlled substances, and
personal information.
|
12 | | (t) (Blank).
|
13 | | (u) "Medical device" means an instrument, apparatus, |
14 | | implement, machine,
contrivance, implant, in vitro reagent, or |
15 | | other similar or related article,
including any component part |
16 | | or accessory, required under federal law to
bear the label |
17 | | "Caution: Federal law requires dispensing by or on the order
of |
18 | | a physician". A seller of goods and services who, only for the |
19 | | purpose of
retail sales, compounds, sells, rents, or leases |
20 | | medical devices shall not,
by reasons thereof, be required to |
21 | | be a licensed pharmacy.
|
22 | | (v) "Unique identifier" means an electronic signature, |
23 | | handwritten
signature or initials, thumb print, or other |
24 | | acceptable biometric
or electronic identification process as |
25 | | approved by the Department.
|
26 | | (w) "Current usual and customary retail price" means the |
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| | HB0313 Engrossed | - 455 - | LRB100 04130 SMS 14135 b |
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|
1 | | price that a pharmacy charges to a non-third-party payor.
|
2 | | (x) "Automated pharmacy system" means a mechanical system |
3 | | located within the confines of the pharmacy or remote location |
4 | | that performs operations or activities, other than compounding |
5 | | or administration, relative to storage, packaging, dispensing, |
6 | | or distribution of medication, and which collects, controls, |
7 | | and maintains all transaction information. |
8 | | (y) "Drug regimen review" means and includes the evaluation |
9 | | of prescription drug orders and patient records for (1)
known |
10 | | allergies; (2) drug or potential therapy contraindications;
|
11 | | (3) reasonable dose, duration of use, and route of |
12 | | administration, taking into consideration factors such as age, |
13 | | gender, and contraindications; (4) reasonable directions for |
14 | | use; (5) potential or actual adverse drug reactions; (6) |
15 | | drug-drug interactions; (7) drug-food interactions; (8) |
16 | | drug-disease contraindications; (9) therapeutic duplication; |
17 | | (10) patient laboratory values when authorized and available; |
18 | | (11) proper utilization (including over or under utilization) |
19 | | and optimum therapeutic outcomes; and (12) abuse and misuse.
|
20 | | (z) "Electronic transmission prescription" means any |
21 | | prescription order for which a facsimile or electronic image of |
22 | | the order is electronically transmitted from a licensed |
23 | | prescriber to a pharmacy. "Electronic transmission |
24 | | prescription" includes both data and image prescriptions.
|
25 | | (aa) "Medication therapy management services" means a |
26 | | distinct service or group of services offered by licensed |
|
| | HB0313 Engrossed | - 456 - | LRB100 04130 SMS 14135 b |
|
|
1 | | pharmacists, physicians licensed to practice medicine in all |
2 | | its branches, advanced practice registered nurses authorized |
3 | | in a written agreement with a physician licensed to practice |
4 | | medicine in all its branches, or physician assistants |
5 | | authorized in guidelines by a supervising physician that |
6 | | optimize therapeutic outcomes for individual patients through |
7 | | improved medication use. In a retail or other non-hospital |
8 | | pharmacy, medication therapy management services shall consist |
9 | | of the evaluation of prescription drug orders and patient |
10 | | medication records to resolve conflicts with the following: |
11 | | (1) known allergies; |
12 | | (2) drug or potential therapy contraindications; |
13 | | (3) reasonable dose, duration of use, and route of |
14 | | administration, taking into consideration factors such as |
15 | | age, gender, and contraindications; |
16 | | (4) reasonable directions for use; |
17 | | (5) potential or actual adverse drug reactions; |
18 | | (6) drug-drug interactions; |
19 | | (7) drug-food interactions; |
20 | | (8) drug-disease contraindications; |
21 | | (9) identification of therapeutic duplication; |
22 | | (10) patient laboratory values when authorized and |
23 | | available; |
24 | | (11) proper utilization (including over or under |
25 | | utilization) and optimum therapeutic outcomes; and |
26 | | (12) drug abuse and misuse. |
|
| | HB0313 Engrossed | - 457 - | LRB100 04130 SMS 14135 b |
|
|
1 | | "Medication therapy management services" includes the |
2 | | following: |
3 | | (1) documenting the services delivered and |
4 | | communicating the information provided to patients' |
5 | | prescribers within an appropriate time frame, not to exceed |
6 | | 48 hours; |
7 | | (2) providing patient counseling designed to enhance a |
8 | | patient's understanding and the appropriate use of his or |
9 | | her medications; and |
10 | | (3) providing information, support services, and |
11 | | resources designed to enhance a patient's adherence with |
12 | | his or her prescribed therapeutic regimens. |
13 | | "Medication therapy management services" may also include |
14 | | patient care functions authorized by a physician licensed to |
15 | | practice medicine in all its branches for his or her identified |
16 | | patient or groups of patients under specified conditions or |
17 | | limitations in a standing order from the physician. |
18 | | "Medication therapy management services" in a licensed |
19 | | hospital may also include the following: |
20 | | (1) reviewing assessments of the patient's health |
21 | | status; and |
22 | | (2) following protocols of a hospital pharmacy and |
23 | | therapeutics committee with respect to the fulfillment of |
24 | | medication orders.
|
25 | | (bb) "Pharmacist care" means the provision by a pharmacist |
26 | | of medication therapy management services, with or without the |
|
| | HB0313 Engrossed | - 458 - | LRB100 04130 SMS 14135 b |
|
|
1 | | dispensing of drugs or devices, intended to achieve outcomes |
2 | | that improve patient health, quality of life, and comfort and |
3 | | enhance patient safety.
|
4 | | (cc) "Protected health information" means individually |
5 | | identifiable health information that, except as otherwise |
6 | | provided, is:
|
7 | | (1) transmitted by electronic media; |
8 | | (2) maintained in any medium set forth in the |
9 | | definition of "electronic media" in the federal Health |
10 | | Insurance Portability and Accountability Act; or |
11 | | (3) transmitted or maintained in any other form or |
12 | | medium. |
13 | | "Protected health information" does not include |
14 | | individually identifiable health information found in: |
15 | | (1) education records covered by the federal Family |
16 | | Educational Right and Privacy Act; or |
17 | | (2) employment records held by a licensee in its role |
18 | | as an employer. |
19 | | (dd) "Standing order" means a specific order for a patient |
20 | | or group of patients issued by a physician licensed to practice |
21 | | medicine in all its branches in Illinois. |
22 | | (ee) "Address of record" means the address recorded by the |
23 | | Department in the applicant's or licensee's application file or |
24 | | license file, as maintained by the Department's licensure |
25 | | maintenance unit. |
26 | | (ff) "Home pharmacy" means the location of a pharmacy's |
|
| | HB0313 Engrossed | - 459 - | LRB100 04130 SMS 14135 b |
|
|
1 | | primary operations.
|
2 | | (Source: P.A. 98-104, eff. 7-22-13; 98-214, eff. 8-9-13; |
3 | | 98-756, eff. 7-16-14; 99-180, eff. 7-29-15 .)
|
4 | | (225 ILCS 85/4) (from Ch. 111, par. 4124)
|
5 | | (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)
|
6 | | Sec. 4. Exemptions. Nothing contained in any Section of |
7 | | this Act shall
apply
to, or in any manner interfere with:
|
8 | | (a) the lawful practice of any physician licensed to |
9 | | practice medicine in
all of its branches, dentist, podiatric |
10 | | physician,
veterinarian, or therapeutically or diagnostically |
11 | | certified optometrist within
the limits of
his or her license, |
12 | | or prevent him or her from
supplying to his
or her
bona fide |
13 | | patients
such drugs, medicines, or poisons as may seem to him |
14 | | appropriate;
|
15 | | (b) the sale of compressed gases;
|
16 | | (c) the sale of patent or proprietary medicines and |
17 | | household remedies
when sold in original and unbroken packages |
18 | | only, if such patent or
proprietary medicines and household |
19 | | remedies be properly and adequately
labeled as to content and |
20 | | usage and generally considered and accepted
as harmless and |
21 | | nonpoisonous when used according to the directions
on the |
22 | | label, and also do not contain opium or coca leaves, or any
|
23 | | compound, salt or derivative thereof, or any drug which, |
24 | | according
to the latest editions of the following authoritative |
25 | | pharmaceutical
treatises and standards, namely, The United |
|
| | HB0313 Engrossed | - 460 - | LRB100 04130 SMS 14135 b |
|
|
1 | | States Pharmacopoeia/National
Formulary (USP/NF), the United |
2 | | States Dispensatory, and the Accepted
Dental Remedies of the |
3 | | Council of Dental Therapeutics of the American
Dental |
4 | | Association or any or either of them, in use on the effective
|
5 | | date of this Act, or according to the existing provisions of |
6 | | the Federal
Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and Regulations of the |
7 | | Department of Health
and Human Services, Food and Drug |
8 | | Administration, promulgated thereunder
now in effect, is |
9 | | designated, described or considered as a narcotic,
hypnotic, |
10 | | habit forming, dangerous, or poisonous drug;
|
11 | | (d) the sale of poultry and livestock remedies in original |
12 | | and unbroken
packages only, labeled for poultry and livestock |
13 | | medication;
|
14 | | (e) the sale of poisonous substances or mixture of |
15 | | poisonous substances,
in unbroken packages, for nonmedicinal |
16 | | use in the arts or industries
or for insecticide purposes; |
17 | | provided, they are properly and adequately
labeled as to |
18 | | content and such nonmedicinal usage, in conformity
with the |
19 | | provisions of all applicable federal, state and local laws
and |
20 | | regulations promulgated thereunder now in effect relating |
21 | | thereto
and governing the same, and those which are required |
22 | | under such applicable
laws and regulations to be labeled with |
23 | | the word "Poison", are also labeled
with the word "Poison" |
24 | | printed
thereon in prominent type and the name of a readily |
25 | | obtainable antidote
with directions for its administration;
|
26 | | (f) the delegation of limited prescriptive authority by a |
|
| | HB0313 Engrossed | - 461 - | LRB100 04130 SMS 14135 b |
|
|
1 | | physician
licensed to
practice medicine in all its branches to |
2 | | a physician assistant
under Section 7.5 of the Physician |
3 | | Assistant Practice Act of 1987. This
delegated authority under |
4 | | Section 7.5 of the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987 |
5 | | may, but is not required to, include prescription of
controlled |
6 | | substances, as defined in Article II of the
Illinois Controlled |
7 | | Substances Act, in accordance with a written supervision |
8 | | agreement; and
|
9 | | (g) the delegation of prescriptive authority by a physician
|
10 | | licensed to practice medicine in all its branches or a licensed |
11 | | podiatric physician to an advanced practice registered
nurse in |
12 | | accordance with a written collaborative
agreement under |
13 | | Sections 65-35 and 65-40 of the Nurse Practice Act.
|
14 | | (Source: P.A. 98-214, eff. 8-9-13.)
|
15 | | (225 ILCS 85/16b) |
16 | | (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)
|
17 | | Sec. 16b. Prescription pick up and drop off. Nothing |
18 | | contained in this Act shall prohibit a pharmacist or pharmacy, |
19 | | by means of its employee or by use of a common carrier or the |
20 | | U.S. mail, at the request of the patient, from picking up |
21 | | prescription orders from the prescriber or delivering |
22 | | prescription drugs to the patient or the patient's agent, |
23 | | including an advanced practice registered nurse, practical |
24 | | nurse, or registered nurse licensed under the Nurse Practice |
25 | | Act, or a physician assistant licensed under the Physician |
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1 | | Assistant Practice Act of 1987, who provides hospice services |
2 | | to a hospice patient or who provides home health services to a |
3 | | person, at the residence or place of employment of the person |
4 | | for whom the prescription was issued or at the hospital or |
5 | | medical care facility in which the patient is confined. |
6 | | Conversely, the patient or patient's agent may drop off |
7 | | prescriptions at a designated area. In this Section, "home |
8 | | health services" has the meaning ascribed to it in the Home |
9 | | Health, Home Services, and Home Nursing Agency Licensing Act; |
10 | | and "hospice patient" and "hospice services" have the meanings |
11 | | ascribed to them in the Hospice Program Licensing Act.
|
12 | | (Source: P.A. 99-163, eff. 1-1-16 .)
|
13 | | Section 185. The Illinois Physical Therapy Act is amended |
14 | | by changing Sections 1 and 17 as follows:
|
15 | | (225 ILCS 90/1) (from Ch. 111, par. 4251)
|
16 | | (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2026)
|
17 | | Sec. 1. Definitions. As used in this Act:
|
18 | | (1) "Physical therapy" means all of the following: |
19 | | (A) Examining, evaluating, and testing individuals who |
20 | | may have mechanical, physiological, or developmental |
21 | | impairments, functional limitations, disabilities, or |
22 | | other health and movement-related conditions, classifying |
23 | | these disorders, determining a rehabilitation prognosis |
24 | | and plan of therapeutic intervention, and assessing the |
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1 | | on-going effects of the interventions. |
2 | | (B) Alleviating impairments, functional limitations, |
3 | | or disabilities by designing, implementing, and modifying |
4 | | therapeutic interventions that may include, but are not |
5 | | limited to, the evaluation or treatment of a person through |
6 | | the use of the effective properties of physical measures |
7 | | and heat, cold, light, water, radiant energy, electricity, |
8 | | sound, and air and use of therapeutic massage, therapeutic |
9 | | exercise, mobilization, and rehabilitative procedures, |
10 | | with or without assistive devices, for the purposes of |
11 | | preventing, correcting, or alleviating a physical or |
12 | | mental impairment, functional limitation, or disability. |
13 | | (C) Reducing the risk of injury, impairment, |
14 | | functional limitation, or disability, including the |
15 | | promotion and maintenance of fitness, health, and |
16 | | wellness. |
17 | | (D) Engaging in administration, consultation, |
18 | | education, and research.
|
19 | | " Physical therapy "
includes, but is not limited to: (a) |
20 | | performance
of specialized tests and measurements, (b) |
21 | | administration of specialized
treatment procedures, (c) |
22 | | interpretation of referrals from physicians, dentists, |
23 | | advanced practice registered nurses, physician assistants,
and |
24 | | podiatric physicians, (d) establishment, and modification of |
25 | | physical therapy
treatment programs, (e) administration of |
26 | | topical medication used in generally
accepted physical therapy |
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1 | | procedures when such medication is either prescribed
by the |
2 | | patient's physician, licensed to practice medicine in all its |
3 | | branches,
the patient's physician licensed to practice |
4 | | podiatric medicine, the patient's advanced practice registered |
5 | | nurse, the patient's physician assistant, or the
patient's |
6 | | dentist or used following the physician's orders or written |
7 | | instructions, and (f) supervision or teaching of physical |
8 | | therapy.
Physical therapy does not include radiology, |
9 | | electrosurgery, chiropractic
technique or determination of a |
10 | | differential
diagnosis; provided, however,
the limitation on |
11 | | determining a differential diagnosis shall not in any
manner |
12 | | limit a physical therapist licensed under this Act from |
13 | | performing
an evaluation pursuant to such license. Nothing in |
14 | | this Section shall limit
a physical therapist from employing |
15 | | appropriate physical therapy techniques
that he or she is |
16 | | educated and licensed to perform. A physical therapist
shall |
17 | | refer to a licensed physician, advanced practice registered |
18 | | nurse, physician assistant, dentist, podiatric physician, |
19 | | other physical therapist, or other health care provider any |
20 | | patient
whose medical condition should, at the time of |
21 | | evaluation or treatment, be
determined to be beyond the scope |
22 | | of practice of the physical therapist.
|
23 | | (2) "Physical therapist" means a person who practices |
24 | | physical therapy
and who has met all requirements as provided |
25 | | in this Act.
|
26 | | (3) "Department" means the Department of Professional |
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1 | | Regulation.
|
2 | | (4) "Director" means the Director of Professional |
3 | | Regulation.
|
4 | | (5) "Board" means the Physical Therapy Licensing and |
5 | | Disciplinary Board approved
by the Director.
|
6 | | (6) "Referral" means a written or oral authorization for |
7 | | physical therapy services for a patient by a physician, |
8 | | dentist, advanced practice registered nurse, physician |
9 | | assistant, or podiatric physician who maintains medical |
10 | | supervision of the patient and makes a diagnosis or verifies |
11 | | that the patient's condition is such that it may be treated by |
12 | | a physical therapist.
|
13 | | (7) "Documented current and relevant diagnosis" for the |
14 | | purpose of
this Act means a diagnosis, substantiated by |
15 | | signature or oral verification
of a physician, dentist, |
16 | | advanced practice registered nurse, physician assistant, or |
17 | | podiatric physician, that a patient's condition is such
that it |
18 | | may be treated by physical therapy as defined in this Act, |
19 | | which
diagnosis shall remain in effect until changed by the |
20 | | physician, dentist, advanced practice registered nurse, |
21 | | physician assistant,
or podiatric physician.
|
22 | | (8) "State" includes:
|
23 | | (a) the states of the United States of America;
|
24 | | (b) the District of Columbia; and
|
25 | | (c) the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico.
|
26 | | (9) "Physical therapist assistant" means a person licensed |
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1 | | to assist a
physical therapist and who has met all requirements |
2 | | as provided in this Act
and who works under the supervision of |
3 | | a licensed physical therapist to assist
in implementing the |
4 | | physical therapy treatment program as established by the
|
5 | | licensed physical therapist. The patient care activities |
6 | | provided by the
physical therapist assistant shall not include |
7 | | the interpretation of referrals,
evaluation procedures, or the |
8 | | planning or major modification of patient programs.
|
9 | | (10) "Physical therapy aide" means a person who has |
10 | | received on
the job training, specific to the facility in which |
11 | | he is employed.
|
12 | | (11) "Advanced practice registered nurse" means a person |
13 | | licensed as an advanced practice registered nurse under the |
14 | | Nurse Practice Act. |
15 | | (12) "Physician assistant" means a person licensed under |
16 | | the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987.
|
17 | | (Source: P.A. 98-214, eff. 8-9-13; 99-173, eff. 7-29-15; |
18 | | 99-229, eff. 8-3-15; 99-642, eff. 7-28-16; revised 10-27-16.)
|
19 | | (225 ILCS 90/17) (from Ch. 111, par. 4267)
|
20 | | (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2026)
|
21 | | Sec. 17. (1) The Department may refuse to issue or to |
22 | | renew, or may
revoke, suspend, place on probation, reprimand, |
23 | | or
take other disciplinary action as the Department deems |
24 | | appropriate,
including the issuance of fines not to exceed |
25 | | $5000, with regard to a
license for any one or a combination of |
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1 | | the following:
|
2 | | A. Material misstatement in furnishing information to |
3 | | the Department
or otherwise making misleading, deceptive, |
4 | | untrue, or fraudulent
representations in violation of this |
5 | | Act or otherwise in the practice of
the profession;
|
6 | | B. Violations of this Act, or of
the rules or |
7 | | regulations promulgated hereunder;
|
8 | | C. Conviction of any crime under the laws of the United |
9 | | States or any
state or territory thereof which is a felony |
10 | | or which is a misdemeanor,
an essential element of which is |
11 | | dishonesty, or of any crime which is directly
related to |
12 | | the practice of the profession; conviction, as used in this
|
13 | | paragraph, shall include a finding or verdict of guilty, an |
14 | | admission of
guilt or a plea of nolo contendere;
|
15 | | D. Making any misrepresentation for the purpose of |
16 | | obtaining licenses,
or violating any provision of this Act |
17 | | or the rules promulgated thereunder
pertaining to |
18 | | advertising;
|
19 | | E. A pattern of practice or other behavior which |
20 | | demonstrates incapacity
or incompetency to practice under |
21 | | this Act;
|
22 | | F. Aiding or assisting another person in violating any
|
23 | | provision of this Act or Rules;
|
24 | | G. Failing, within 60 days, to provide information in |
25 | | response to a written
request made by the Department;
|
26 | | H. Engaging in dishonorable, unethical or |
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1 | | unprofessional conduct of a
character likely to deceive, |
2 | | defraud or harm the public. Unprofessional
conduct shall |
3 | | include any departure from or the failure to conform to the
|
4 | | minimal standards of acceptable and prevailing physical |
5 | | therapy practice,
in which proceeding actual injury to a |
6 | | patient need not be established;
|
7 | | I. Unlawful distribution of any drug or narcotic, or |
8 | | unlawful
conversion of any drug or narcotic not belonging |
9 | | to the person for such
person's own use or benefit or for |
10 | | other than medically accepted
therapeutic purposes;
|
11 | | J. Habitual or excessive use or addiction to alcohol, |
12 | | narcotics,
stimulants, or any other chemical agent or drug |
13 | | which results in a physical
therapist's or physical |
14 | | therapist assistant's
inability to practice with |
15 | | reasonable judgment, skill or safety;
|
16 | | K. Revocation or suspension of a license to practice |
17 | | physical therapy
as a physical therapist or physical |
18 | | therapist assistant or the taking
of other disciplinary |
19 | | action by the proper licensing authority of
another state, |
20 | | territory or country;
|
21 | | L. Directly or indirectly giving to or receiving from |
22 | | any person, firm,
corporation, partnership, or association |
23 | | any fee, commission, rebate or other
form of compensation |
24 | | for any professional services not actually or
personally |
25 | | rendered. Nothing contained in this paragraph prohibits |
26 | | persons holding valid and current licenses under this Act |
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1 | | from practicing physical therapy in partnership under a |
2 | | partnership agreement, including a limited liability |
3 | | partnership, a limited liability company, or a corporation |
4 | | under the Professional Service Corporation Act or from |
5 | | pooling, sharing, dividing, or apportioning the fees and |
6 | | monies received by them or by the partnership, company, or |
7 | | corporation in accordance with the partnership agreement |
8 | | or the policies of the company or professional corporation. |
9 | | Nothing in this paragraph (L) affects any bona fide |
10 | | independent contractor or employment arrangements among |
11 | | health care professionals, health facilities, health care |
12 | | providers, or other entities, except as otherwise |
13 | | prohibited by law. Any employment arrangements may include |
14 | | provisions for compensation, health insurance, pension, or |
15 | | other employment benefits for the provision of services |
16 | | within the scope of the licensee's practice under this Act. |
17 | | Nothing in this paragraph (L) shall be construed to require |
18 | | an employment arrangement to receive professional fees for |
19 | | services rendered;
|
20 | | M. A finding by the Board that the licensee after |
21 | | having his or
her license
placed on probationary status has |
22 | | violated the terms of probation;
|
23 | | N. Abandonment of a patient;
|
24 | | O. Willfully failing to report an instance of suspected |
25 | | child abuse or
neglect as required by the Abused and |
26 | | Neglected Child Reporting Act;
|
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1 | | P. Willfully failing to report an instance of suspected |
2 | | elder abuse or
neglect as required by the Elder Abuse |
3 | | Reporting Act;
|
4 | | Q. Physical illness, including but not limited to, |
5 | | deterioration through
the aging process, or loss of motor |
6 | | skill which results in the inability
to practice the |
7 | | profession with reasonable judgement, skill or safety;
|
8 | | R. The use of any words (such as physical therapy, |
9 | | physical therapist
physiotherapy or physiotherapist), |
10 | | abbreviations, figures or letters with
the intention of |
11 | | indicating practice as a licensed physical therapist
|
12 | | without a valid license as a physical therapist issued |
13 | | under this Act;
|
14 | | S. The use of the term physical therapist assistant, or |
15 | | abbreviations,
figures, or letters with the intention of |
16 | | indicating practice as a physical
therapist assistant |
17 | | without a valid license as a physical therapist
assistant |
18 | | issued under this Act;
|
19 | | T. Willfully violating or knowingly assisting in the |
20 | | violation of any
law of this State relating to the practice |
21 | | of abortion;
|
22 | | U. Continued practice by a person knowingly having an |
23 | | infectious,
communicable or contagious disease;
|
24 | | V. Having treated ailments of human beings otherwise |
25 | | than by
the practice of physical therapy as defined in this |
26 | | Act, or having treated
ailments of human beings as a |
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1 | | licensed physical therapist independent of a
documented |
2 | | referral or a documented current and relevant diagnosis |
3 | | from a
physician, dentist, advanced practice registered |
4 | | nurse, physician assistant, or podiatric physician, or |
5 | | having failed to notify the
physician, dentist, advanced |
6 | | practice registered nurse, physician assistant, or |
7 | | podiatric physician who established a documented current |
8 | | and
relevant diagnosis that the patient is receiving |
9 | | physical therapy pursuant
to that diagnosis;
|
10 | | W. Being named as a perpetrator in an indicated report |
11 | | by the
Department of Children and Family Services pursuant |
12 | | to the Abused and
Neglected Child Reporting Act, and upon |
13 | | proof by clear and convincing
evidence that the licensee |
14 | | has caused a child to be an abused child or
neglected child |
15 | | as defined in the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act;
|
16 | | X. Interpretation of referrals, performance of |
17 | | evaluation procedures,
planning or making major |
18 | | modifications of patient programs by a physical
therapist |
19 | | assistant;
|
20 | | Y. Failure by a physical therapist assistant and |
21 | | supervising physical
therapist to maintain continued |
22 | | contact, including periodic personal
supervision and |
23 | | instruction, to insure safety and welfare of patients;
|
24 | | Z. Violation of the Health Care Worker Self-Referral |
25 | | Act.
|
26 | | (2) The determination by a circuit court that a licensee is |
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1 | | subject to
involuntary admission or judicial admission as |
2 | | provided in the Mental Health
and Developmental Disabilities |
3 | | Code operates as an automatic suspension.
Such suspension will |
4 | | end only upon a finding by a court that the patient is
no |
5 | | longer subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission |
6 | | and the
issuance of an order so finding and discharging the |
7 | | patient; and upon the
recommendation of the Board to the |
8 | | Director that the licensee be
allowed to resume his practice.
|
9 | | (3) The Department may refuse to issue or may suspend the |
10 | | license of any
person who fails to file a return, or to pay the |
11 | | tax, penalty or interest
shown in a filed return, or to pay any |
12 | | final assessment of tax, penalty or
interest, as required by |
13 | | any tax Act administered by the Illinois
Department of Revenue, |
14 | | until such time as the requirements of any such tax
Act are |
15 | | satisfied.
|
16 | | (Source: P.A. 98-214, eff. 8-9-13 .)
|
17 | | Section 190. The Podiatric Medical Practice Act of 1987 is |
18 | | amended by changing Section 20.5 as follows:
|
19 | | (225 ILCS 100/20.5) |
20 | | (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)
|
21 | | Sec. 20.5. Delegation of authority to advanced practice |
22 | | registered nurses.
|
23 | | (a) A podiatric physician in active clinical practice may |
24 | | collaborate with an advanced practice registered nurse in |
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1 | | accordance with the requirements of the Nurse Practice Act. |
2 | | Collaboration shall be for the purpose of providing podiatric |
3 | | care and no employment relationship shall be required. A |
4 | | written collaborative agreement shall conform to the |
5 | | requirements of Section 65-35 of the Nurse Practice Act. A |
6 | | written collaborative agreement and podiatric physician |
7 | | collaboration and consultation shall be adequate with respect |
8 | | to advanced practice registered nurses if all of the following |
9 | | apply: |
10 | | (1) With respect to the provision of anesthesia |
11 | | services by a certified registered nurse anesthetist, the |
12 | | collaborating podiatric physician must have training and |
13 | | experience in the delivery of anesthesia consistent with |
14 | | Department rules. |
15 | | (2) Methods of communication are available with the |
16 | | collaborating podiatric physician in person or through |
17 | | telecommunications or electronic communications for |
18 | | consultation, collaboration, and referral as needed to |
19 | | address patient care needs. |
20 | | (3) With respect to the provision of anesthesia |
21 | | services by a certified registered nurse anesthetist, an |
22 | | anesthesiologist, physician, or podiatric physician shall |
23 | | participate through discussion of and agreement with the |
24 | | anesthesia plan and shall remain physically present and be |
25 | | available on the premises during the delivery of anesthesia |
26 | | services for diagnosis, consultation, and treatment of |
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1 | | emergency medical conditions. The anesthesiologist or |
2 | | operating podiatric physician must agree with the |
3 | | anesthesia plan prior to the delivery of services. |
4 | | (b) The collaborating podiatric physician shall have |
5 | | access to the records of all patients attended to by an |
6 | | advanced practice registered nurse. |
7 | | (c) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to limit the |
8 | | delegation of tasks or duties by a podiatric physician to a |
9 | | licensed practical nurse, a registered professional nurse, or |
10 | | other appropriately trained persons. |
11 | | (d) A podiatric physician shall not be liable for the acts |
12 | | or omissions of an advanced practice registered nurse solely on |
13 | | the basis of having signed guidelines or a collaborative |
14 | | agreement, an order, a standing order, a standing delegation |
15 | | order, or other order or guideline authorizing an advanced |
16 | | practice registered nurse to perform acts, unless the podiatric |
17 | | physician has reason to believe the advanced practice |
18 | | registered nurse lacked the competency to perform the act or |
19 | | acts or commits willful or wanton misconduct.
|
20 | | (e) A podiatric physician, may, but is not required to |
21 | | delegate prescriptive authority to an advanced practice |
22 | | registered nurse as part of a written collaborative agreement |
23 | | and the delegation of prescriptive authority shall conform to |
24 | | the requirements of Section 65-40 of the Nurse Practice Act. |
25 | | (Source: P.A. 98-214, eff. 8-9-13; 99-173, eff. 7-29-15.)
|
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1 | | Section 195. The Respiratory Care Practice Act is amended |
2 | | by changing Sections 10 and 15 as follows:
|
3 | | (225 ILCS 106/10)
|
4 | | (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2026)
|
5 | | Sec. 10. Definitions. In this Act:
|
6 | | "Address of record" means the designated address recorded |
7 | | by the Department in the applicant's or licensee's application |
8 | | file or license file as maintained by the Department's |
9 | | licensure maintenance unit. It is the duty of the applicant or |
10 | | licensee to inform the Department of any change of address and |
11 | | those changes must be made either through the Department's |
12 | | website or by contacting the Department. |
13 | | "Advanced practice registered nurse" means an advanced |
14 | | practice registered nurse licensed under the Nurse Practice |
15 | | Act.
|
16 | | "Board" means the Respiratory Care Board appointed by the |
17 | | Secretary. |
18 | | "Basic respiratory care activities" means and includes all |
19 | | of the following activities: |
20 | | (1) Cleaning, disinfecting, and sterilizing equipment |
21 | | used in the practice of respiratory care as delegated by a |
22 | | licensed health care professional or other authorized |
23 | | licensed personnel. |
24 | | (2) Assembling equipment used in the practice of |
25 | | respiratory care as delegated by a licensed health care |
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1 | | professional or other authorized licensed personnel. |
2 | | (3) Collecting and reviewing patient data through |
3 | | non-invasive means, provided that the collection and |
4 | | review does not include the individual's interpretation of |
5 | | the clinical significance of the data. Collecting and |
6 | | reviewing patient data includes the performance of pulse |
7 | | oximetry and non-invasive monitoring procedures in order |
8 | | to obtain vital signs and notification to licensed health |
9 | | care professionals and other authorized licensed personnel |
10 | | in a timely manner. |
11 | | (4) Maintaining a nasal cannula or face mask for oxygen |
12 | | therapy in the proper position on the patient's face. |
13 | | (5) Assembling a nasal cannula or face mask for oxygen |
14 | | therapy at patient bedside in preparation for use. |
15 | | (6) Maintaining a patient's natural airway by |
16 | | physically manipulating the jaw and neck, suctioning the |
17 | | oral cavity, or suctioning the mouth or nose with a bulb |
18 | | syringe. |
19 | | (7) Performing assisted ventilation during emergency |
20 | | resuscitation using a manual resuscitator. |
21 | | (8) Using a manual resuscitator at the direction of a |
22 | | licensed health care professional or other authorized |
23 | | licensed personnel who is present and performing routine |
24 | | airway suctioning. These activities do not include care of |
25 | | a patient's artificial airway or the adjustment of |
26 | | mechanical ventilator settings while a patient is |
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1 | | connected to the ventilator.
|
2 | | "Basic respiratory care activities" does not mean |
3 | | activities that involve any of the following:
|
4 | | (1) Specialized knowledge that results from a course of |
5 | | education or training in respiratory care. |
6 | | (2) An unreasonable risk of a negative outcome for the |
7 | | patient. |
8 | | (3) The assessment or making of a decision concerning |
9 | | patient care. |
10 | | (4) The administration of aerosol medication or |
11 | | medical gas. |
12 | | (5) The insertion and maintenance of an artificial |
13 | | airway. |
14 | | (6) Mechanical ventilatory support. |
15 | | (7) Patient assessment. |
16 | | (8) Patient education.
|
17 | | (9) The transferring of oxygen devices, for purposes of |
18 | | patient transport, with a liter flow greater than 6 liters |
19 | | per minute, and the transferring of oxygen devices at any |
20 | | liter flow being delivered to patients less than 12 years |
21 | | of age. |
22 | | "Department" means the Department of Financial and |
23 | | Professional Regulation.
|
24 | | "Licensed" means that which is required to hold oneself
out |
25 | | as
a respiratory care
practitioner as defined in this Act.
|
26 | | "Licensed health care professional" means a physician |
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1 | | licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, a licensed |
2 | | advanced practice registered nurse, or a licensed physician |
3 | | assistant.
|
4 | | "Order" means a written, oral, or telecommunicated |
5 | | authorization for respiratory care services for a patient by |
6 | | (i) a licensed health care professional who maintains medical |
7 | | supervision of the patient and makes a diagnosis or verifies |
8 | | that the patient's condition is such that it may be treated by |
9 | | a respiratory care practitioner or (ii) a certified registered |
10 | | nurse anesthetist in a licensed hospital or ambulatory surgical |
11 | | treatment center.
|
12 | | "Other authorized licensed personnel" means a licensed |
13 | | respiratory care practitioner, a licensed registered nurse, or |
14 | | a licensed practical nurse whose scope of practice authorizes |
15 | | the professional to supervise an individual who is not |
16 | | licensed, certified, or registered as a health professional. |
17 | | "Proximate supervision" means a situation in which an |
18 | | individual is
responsible for directing the actions of another |
19 | | individual in the facility and is physically close enough to be |
20 | | readily available, if needed, by the supervised individual.
|
21 | | "Respiratory care" and "cardiorespiratory care"
mean |
22 | | preventative services, evaluation and assessment services, |
23 | | therapeutic services, cardiopulmonary disease management, and |
24 | | rehabilitative services under the order of a licensed health |
25 | | care professional for an individual with a disorder, disease, |
26 | | or abnormality of the cardiopulmonary system. These terms |
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1 | | include, but are not limited to, measuring, observing, |
2 | | assessing, and monitoring signs and symptoms, reactions, |
3 | | general behavior, and general physical response of individuals |
4 | | to respiratory care services, including the determination of |
5 | | whether those signs, symptoms, reactions, behaviors, or |
6 | | general physical responses exhibit abnormal characteristics; |
7 | | the administration of pharmacological and therapeutic agents |
8 | | and procedures related to respiratory care services; the |
9 | | collection of blood specimens and other bodily fluids and |
10 | | tissues for, and the performance of, cardiopulmonary |
11 | | diagnostic testing procedures, including, but not limited to, |
12 | | blood gas analysis; development, implementation, and |
13 | | modification of respiratory care treatment plans based on |
14 | | assessed abnormalities of the cardiopulmonary system, |
15 | | respiratory care guidelines, referrals, and orders of a |
16 | | licensed health care professional; application, operation, and |
17 | | management of mechanical ventilatory support and other means of |
18 | | life support, including, but not limited to, hemodynamic |
19 | | cardiovascular support; and the initiation of emergency |
20 | | procedures under the rules promulgated by the Department. A |
21 | | respiratory care practitioner shall refer to a physician |
22 | | licensed to practice medicine in all its branches any patient |
23 | | whose condition, at the time of evaluation or treatment, is |
24 | | determined to be beyond the scope of practice of the |
25 | | respiratory care practitioner.
|
26 | | "Respiratory care education program" means a course of |
|
| | HB0313 Engrossed | - 480 - | LRB100 04130 SMS 14135 b |
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|
1 | | academic study leading
to eligibility for registry or |
2 | | certification in respiratory care. The training
is to be |
3 | | approved by an accrediting agency recognized by the Board and |
4 | | shall
include an evaluation of competence through a |
5 | | standardized testing mechanism
that is determined by the Board |
6 | | to be both valid and reliable.
|
7 | | "Respiratory care practitioner" means a person who is |
8 | | licensed by the
Department of Professional Regulation and meets |
9 | | all of the following
criteria:
|
10 | | (1) The person is engaged in the practice of |
11 | | cardiorespiratory care and
has the knowledge and skill |
12 | | necessary to administer respiratory care.
|
13 | | (2) The person is capable of serving as a resource to |
14 | | the
licensed
health care professional in
relation to the |
15 | | technical aspects of cardiorespiratory care and the safe |
16 | | and
effective methods for administering cardiorespiratory |
17 | | care modalities.
|
18 | | (3) The person is able to function in situations of |
19 | | unsupervised patient
contact requiring great individual |
20 | | judgment.
|
21 | | "Secretary" means the Secretary of Financial and |
22 | | Professional Regulation. |
23 | | (Source: P.A. 99-173, eff. 7-29-15; 99-230, eff. 8-3-15; |
24 | | 99-642, eff. 7-28-16.)
|
25 | | (225 ILCS 106/15)
|
|
| | HB0313 Engrossed | - 481 - | LRB100 04130 SMS 14135 b |
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|
1 | | (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2026)
|
2 | | Sec. 15. Exemptions.
|
3 | | (a) This Act does not prohibit a person legally regulated |
4 | | in this State by
any other Act from engaging in any practice |
5 | | for which he or she is authorized.
|
6 | | (b) Nothing in this Act shall prohibit the practice of |
7 | | respiratory care by a
person who is employed by the United |
8 | | States government or any bureau, division,
or agency thereof
|
9 | | while in the discharge of the employee's official duties.
|
10 | | (c) Nothing in this Act shall be construed to limit the |
11 | | activities and
services of a person enrolled in an approved |
12 | | course of study leading to a
degree or certificate of registry |
13 | | or certification eligibility in respiratory
care if these |
14 | | activities and services constitute a part of a supervised |
15 | | course
of study and if the person is designated by a title |
16 | | which clearly indicates his
or her status as a student or |
17 | | trainee. Status as a student or trainee shall
not exceed 3 |
18 | | years from the date of enrollment in an approved course.
|
19 | | (d) Nothing in this Act shall prohibit a person from |
20 | | treating ailments by
spiritual means through prayer alone in |
21 | | accordance with the tenets and
practices of a recognized church |
22 | | or religious denomination.
|
23 | | (e) Nothing in this Act shall be construed to prevent a |
24 | | person who is a
registered nurse, an advanced practice |
25 | | registered nurse, a licensed
practical nurse, a physician |
26 | | assistant, or a physician licensed to practice medicine in all |
|
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|
1 | | its branches from providing respiratory care.
|
2 | | (f) Nothing in this Act shall limit a person who is |
3 | | credentialed by the
National Society for Cardiopulmonary |
4 | | Technology or the National Board for
Respiratory Care from |
5 | | performing pulmonary function tests and
respiratory care |
6 | | procedures related to the pulmonary function test. Individuals |
7 | | who do not possess a license to practice respiratory care or a |
8 | | license in another health care field may perform basic |
9 | | screening spirometry limited to peak flow, forced vital |
10 | | capacity, slow vital capacity, and maximum voluntary |
11 | | ventilation if they possess spirometry certification from the |
12 | | National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health, an |
13 | | Office Spirometry Certificate from the American Association |
14 | | for Respiratory Care, or other similarly accepted |
15 | | certification training.
|
16 | | (g) Nothing in this Act shall prohibit the collection and |
17 | | analysis of blood
by clinical laboratory personnel meeting the |
18 | | personnel standards of the
Illinois Clinical Laboratory Act.
|
19 | | (h)
Nothing in this Act shall prohibit a polysomnographic |
20 | | technologist, technician, or trainee, as defined in the job |
21 | | descriptions jointly accepted by the American Academy of Sleep |
22 | | Medicine, the Association of Polysomnographic Technologists, |
23 | | the Board of Registered Polysomnographic Technologists, and |
24 | | the American Society of Electroneurodiagnostic Technologists, |
25 | | from performing activities within the scope of practice of |
26 | | polysomnographic technology while under the direction of a |
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1 | | physician licensed in this State.
|
2 | | (i)
Nothing in this Act shall prohibit a family member from |
3 | | providing respiratory care services to an ill person.
|
4 | | (j) Nothing in this Act shall be construed to limit an |
5 | | unlicensed practitioner in a licensed hospital who is working |
6 | | under the proximate supervision of a licensed health care |
7 | | professional or other authorized licensed personnel and |
8 | | providing direct patient care services from performing basic |
9 | | respiratory care activities if the unlicensed practitioner
(i) |
10 | | has been trained to perform the basic respiratory care |
11 | | activities at the facility that employs or contracts with the |
12 | | individual and (ii) at a minimum, has annually received an |
13 | | evaluation of the unlicensed practitioner's performance of |
14 | | basic respiratory care activities documented by the facility.
|
15 | | (k) Nothing in this Act shall be construed to prohibit a |
16 | | person enrolled in a respiratory care education program or an |
17 | | approved course of study leading to a degree or certification |
18 | | in a health care-related discipline that provides respiratory |
19 | | care activities within his or her scope of practice and |
20 | | employed in a licensed hospital in order to provide direct |
21 | | patient care services under the direction of other authorized |
22 | | licensed personnel from providing respiratory care activities. |
23 | | (l) Nothing in this Act prohibits a person licensed as a |
24 | | respiratory care practitioner in another jurisdiction from |
25 | | providing respiratory care: (i) in a declared emergency in this |
26 | | State; (ii) as a member of an organ procurement team; or (iii) |
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|
1 | | as part of a medical transport team that is transporting a |
2 | | patient into or out of this State.
|
3 | | (Source: P.A. 99-230, eff. 8-3-15.)
|
4 | | Section 200. The Sex Offender Evaluation and Treatment |
5 | | Provider Act is amended by changing Sections 35 and 40 as |
6 | | follows:
|
7 | | (225 ILCS 109/35)
|
8 | | Sec. 35. Qualifications for licensure. |
9 | | (a)(1) A person is qualified for licensure as a sex |
10 | | offender evaluator if that person: |
11 | | (A) has applied in writing on forms prepared and |
12 | | furnished by the Department; |
13 | | (B) has not engaged or is not engaged in any practice |
14 | | or conduct that would be grounds for disciplining a |
15 | | licensee under Section 75 of this Act; and |
16 | | (C) satisfies the licensure and experience |
17 | | requirements of paragraph (2) of this subsection (a). |
18 | | (2) A person who applies to the Department shall be issued |
19 | | a sex offender evaluator license by the Department if the |
20 | | person meets the qualifications set forth in paragraph (1) of |
21 | | this subsection (a) and provides evidence to the Department |
22 | | that the person: |
23 | | (A) is a physician licensed to practice medicine in all |
24 | | of its branches under the Medical Practice Act of 1987 or |
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1 | | licensed under the laws of another state; an advanced |
2 | | practice registered nurse with psychiatric specialty |
3 | | licensed under the Nurse Practice Act or licensed under the |
4 | | laws of another state; a clinical psychologist licensed |
5 | | under the Clinical Psychologist Licensing Act or licensed |
6 | | under the laws of another state; a licensed clinical social |
7 | | worker licensed under the Clinical Social Work and Social |
8 | | Work Practice Act or licensed under the laws of another |
9 | | state; a licensed clinical professional counselor licensed |
10 | | under the Professional Counselor and Clinical Professional |
11 | | Counselor Licensing and Practice Act or licensed under the |
12 | | laws of another state; or a licensed marriage and family |
13 | | therapist licensed under the Marriage and Family Therapy |
14 | | Therapist Licensing Act or licensed under the laws of |
15 | | another state; |
16 | | (B) has 400 hours of supervised experience in the |
17 | | treatment or evaluation of sex offenders in the last 4 |
18 | | years, at least 200 of which are face-to-face therapy or |
19 | | evaluation with sex offenders; |
20 | | (C) has completed at least 10 sex offender evaluations |
21 | | under supervision in the past 4 years; and |
22 | | (D) has at least 40 hours of documented training in the |
23 | | specialty of sex offender evaluation, treatment, or |
24 | | management. |
25 | | Until January 1, 2015, the requirements of subparagraphs |
26 | | (B) and (D) of paragraph (2) of this subsection (a) are |
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1 | | satisfied if the applicant has been listed on the Sex Offender |
2 | | Management Board's Approved Provider List for a minimum of 2 |
3 | | years before application for licensure. Until January 1, 2015, |
4 | | the requirements of subparagraph (C) of paragraph (2) of this |
5 | | subsection (a) are satisfied if the applicant has completed at |
6 | | least 10 sex offender evaluations within the 4 years before |
7 | | application for licensure. |
8 | | (b)(1) A person is qualified for licensure as a sex |
9 | | offender treatment provider if that person: |
10 | | (A) has applied in writing on forms prepared and |
11 | | furnished by the Department; |
12 | | (B) has not engaged or is not engaged in any practice |
13 | | or conduct that would be grounds for disciplining a |
14 | | licensee under Section 75 of this Act; and |
15 | | (C) satisfies the licensure and experience |
16 | | requirements of paragraph (2) of this subsection (b). |
17 | | (2) A person who applies to the Department shall be issued |
18 | | a sex offender treatment provider license by the Department if |
19 | | the person meets the qualifications set forth in paragraph (1) |
20 | | of this subsection (b) and provides evidence to the Department |
21 | | that the person: |
22 | | (A) is a physician licensed to practice medicine in all |
23 | | of its branches under the Medical Practice Act of 1987 or |
24 | | licensed under the laws of another state; an advanced |
25 | | practice registered nurse with psychiatric specialty |
26 | | licensed under the Nurse Practice Act or licensed under the |
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1 | | laws of another state; a clinical psychologist licensed |
2 | | under the Clinical Psychologist Licensing Act or licensed |
3 | | under the laws of another state; a licensed clinical social |
4 | | worker licensed under the Clinical Social Work and Social |
5 | | Work Practice Act or licensed under the laws of another |
6 | | state; a licensed clinical professional counselor licensed |
7 | | under the Professional Counselor and Clinical Professional |
8 | | Counselor Licensing and Practice Act or licensed under the |
9 | | laws of another state; or a licensed marriage and family |
10 | | therapist licensed under the Marriage and Family Therapy |
11 | | Therapist Licensing Act or licensed under the laws of |
12 | | another state; |
13 | | (B) has 400 hours of supervised experience in the |
14 | | treatment of sex offenders in the last 4 years, at least |
15 | | 200 of which are face-to-face therapy with sex offenders; |
16 | | and |
17 | | (C) has at least 40 hours documented training in the |
18 | | specialty of sex offender evaluation, treatment, or |
19 | | management. |
20 | | Until January 1, 2015, the requirements of subparagraphs |
21 | | (B) and (C) of paragraph (2) of this subsection (b) are |
22 | | satisfied if the applicant has been listed on the Sex Offender |
23 | | Management Board's Approved Provider List for a minimum of 2 |
24 | | years before application. |
25 | | (c)(1) A person is qualified for licensure as an associate |
26 | | sex offender provider if that person: |
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|
1 | | (A) has applied in writing on forms prepared and |
2 | | furnished by the Department; |
3 | | (B) has not engaged or is not engaged in any practice |
4 | | or conduct that would be grounds for disciplining a |
5 | | licensee under Section 75 of this Act; and |
6 | | (C) satisfies the education and experience |
7 | | requirements of paragraph (2) of this subsection (c).
|
8 | | (2) A person who applies to the Department shall be issued |
9 | | an associate sex offender provider license by the Department if |
10 | | the person meets the qualifications set forth in paragraph (1) |
11 | | of this subsection (c) and provides evidence to the Department |
12 | | that the person holds a master's degree or higher in social |
13 | | work, psychology, marriage and family therapy, counseling or |
14 | | closely related behavioral science degree, or psychiatry.
|
15 | | (Source: P.A. 97-1098, eff. 7-1-13; 98-612, eff. 12-27-13; |
16 | | revised 9-14-16.)
|
17 | | (225 ILCS 109/40)
|
18 | | Sec. 40. Application; exemptions. |
19 | | (a) No person may act as a sex offender evaluator, sex |
20 | | offender treatment provider, or associate sex offender |
21 | | provider as defined in this Act for the provision of sex |
22 | | offender evaluations or sex offender treatment pursuant to the |
23 | | Sex Offender Management Board Act, the Sexually Dangerous |
24 | | Persons Act, or the Sexually Violent Persons Commitment Act |
25 | | unless the person is licensed to do so by the Department. Any |
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1 | | evaluation or treatment services provided by a licensed health |
2 | | care professional not licensed under this Act shall not be |
3 | | valid under the Sex Offender Management Board Act, the Sexually |
4 | | Dangerous Persons Act, or the Sexually Violent Persons |
5 | | Commitment Act. No business shall provide, attempt to provide, |
6 | | or offer to provide sex offender evaluation services unless it |
7 | | is organized under the Professional Service Corporation Act, |
8 | | the Medical Corporation Act, or the Professional Limited |
9 | | Liability Company Act. |
10 | | (b) Nothing in this Act shall be construed to require any |
11 | | licensed physician, advanced practice registered nurse, |
12 | | physician assistant, or other health care professional to be |
13 | | licensed under this Act for the provision of services for which |
14 | | the person is otherwise licensed. This Act does not prohibit a
|
15 | | person licensed under any other Act in this State from engaging
|
16 | | in the practice for which he or she is licensed. This Act only |
17 | | applies to the provision of sex offender evaluations or sex |
18 | | offender treatment provided for the purposes of complying with |
19 | | the Sex Offender Management Board Act, the Sexually Dangerous |
20 | | Persons Act, or the Sexually Violent Persons Commitment Act.
|
21 | | (Source: P.A. 99-227, eff. 8-3-15.)
|
22 | | Section 205. The Registered Surgical Assistant and |
23 | | Registered Surgical
Technologist Title Protection Act is |
24 | | amended by changing Section 40 as follows:
|
|
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|
|
1 | | (225 ILCS 130/40)
|
2 | | (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2024)
|
3 | | Sec. 40. Application of Act. This Act shall not be |
4 | | construed to
prohibit
the following:
|
5 | | (1) A person licensed in this State under any other Act |
6 | | from engaging in
the practice for which he or she is |
7 | | licensed, including but not limited to a
physician licensed |
8 | | to practice medicine in all its branches, physician
|
9 | | assistant, advanced practice registered nurse, or nurse |
10 | | performing
surgery-related tasks within the scope
of his or |
11 | | her license, nor are these individuals required to be |
12 | | registered
under this Act.
|
13 | | (2) A person from engaging in practice as a surgical
|
14 | | assistant or surgical technologist in the
discharge of his |
15 | | or her official duties as an employee of the United
States |
16 | | government.
|
17 | | (3) One or more registered surgical assistants or |
18 | | surgical technologists from forming a
professional
service |
19 | | corporation in accordance with the Professional Service
|
20 | | Corporation Act and applying for licensure as a corporation |
21 | | providing
surgical assistant or surgical technologist |
22 | | services.
|
23 | | (4) A student engaging in practice as a surgical |
24 | | assistant or surgical
technologist under the
direct |
25 | | supervision of a physician licensed to practice medicine in |
26 | | all of its
branches as part of
his or her program of study |
|
| | HB0313 Engrossed | - 491 - | LRB100 04130 SMS 14135 b |
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|
1 | | at a school
approved by the Department or in preparation to |
2 | | qualify for the examination
as prescribed under Sections 45 |
3 | | and 50 of this
Act.
|
4 | | (5) A person from assisting in surgery at a
physician's |
5 | | discretion, including but not limited to medical students |
6 | | and
residents, nor are medical students and residents |
7 | | required to be registered
under this Act.
|
8 | | (6) A hospital, health system or network, ambulatory |
9 | | surgical treatment
center, physician licensed to practice |
10 | | medicine in all its branches,
physician medical group, or |
11 | | other entity that
provides surgery-related services from |
12 | | employing individuals that the
entity considers competent |
13 | | to assist in surgery. These entities are not
required to |
14 | | utilize registered surgical assistants or registered |
15 | | surgical
technologists when providing surgery-related |
16 | | services to patients.
Nothing in this subsection shall be |
17 | | construed to limit the ability of an
employer to utilize |
18 | | the services of any person to assist in surgery within the
|
19 | | employment setting consistent with the individual's skill |
20 | | and training.
|
21 | | (Source: P.A. 98-364, eff. 12-31-13.)
|
22 | | Section 210. The Genetic Counselor Licensing Act is amended |
23 | | by changing Sections 90 and 95 as follows:
|
24 | | (225 ILCS 135/90)
|
|
| | HB0313 Engrossed | - 492 - | LRB100 04130 SMS 14135 b |
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1 | | (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2025) |
2 | | Sec. 90. Privileged communications and exceptions.
|
3 | | (a) With the exception of disclosure to the physician |
4 | | performing or supervising a genetic test and to the referring |
5 | | physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, |
6 | | advanced practice registered nurse, or physician assistant, no |
7 | | licensed genetic counselor shall disclose any information |
8 | | acquired from persons consulting the counselor in a |
9 | | professional capacity, except that which may be voluntarily |
10 | | disclosed under any of the following circumstances:
|
11 | | (1) In the course of formally reporting, conferring, or |
12 | | consulting with administrative superiors, colleagues, or |
13 | | consultants who share professional responsibility, in |
14 | | which instance all recipients of the information are |
15 | | similarly bound to regard the communication as privileged.
|
16 | | (2) With the written consent of the person who provided |
17 | | the information and about whom the information concerns.
|
18 | | (3) In the case of death or disability, with the |
19 | | written consent of a personal representative. |
20 | | (4) When a communication reveals the intended |
21 | | commission of a crime or harmful act and such disclosure is |
22 | | judged necessary in the professional judgment of the |
23 | | licensed genetic counselor to protect any person from a |
24 | | clear risk of serious mental or physical harm or injury or |
25 | | to forestall a serious threat to the public safety. |
26 | | (5) When the person waives the privilege by bringing |
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|
1 | | any public charges or filing a lawsuit against the |
2 | | licensee. |
3 | | (b) Any person having access to records or anyone who |
4 | | participates in providing genetic counseling services, or in |
5 | | providing any human services, or is supervised by a licensed |
6 | | genetic counselor is similarly bound to regard all information |
7 | | and communications as privileged in accord with this Section.
|
8 | | (c) The Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities |
9 | | Confidentiality Act is incorporated herein as if all of its |
10 | | provisions were included in this Act. In the event of a |
11 | | conflict between the application of this Section and the Mental |
12 | | Health and Developmental Disabilities Confidentiality Act to a |
13 | | specific situation, the provisions of the Mental Health and |
14 | | Developmental Disabilities Confidentiality Act shall control.
|
15 | | (Source: P.A. 96-1313, eff. 7-27-10 .)
|
16 | | (225 ILCS 135/95) |
17 | | (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2025) |
18 | | Sec. 95. Grounds for discipline.
|
19 | | (a) The Department may refuse to issue, renew, or may |
20 | | revoke, suspend, place on probation, reprimand, or take other |
21 | | disciplinary or non-disciplinary action as the Department |
22 | | deems appropriate, including the issuance of fines not to |
23 | | exceed $10,000 for each violation, with regard to any license |
24 | | for any one or more of the following: |
25 | | (1) Material misstatement in furnishing information to |
|
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1 | | the Department or to any other State agency.
|
2 | | (2) Violations or negligent or intentional disregard |
3 | | of this Act, or any of its rules.
|
4 | | (3) Conviction by plea of guilty or nolo contendere, |
5 | | finding of guilt, jury verdict, or entry of judgment or |
6 | | sentencing, including, but not limited to, convictions, |
7 | | preceding sentences of supervision, conditional discharge, |
8 | | or first offender probation, under the laws of any |
9 | | jurisdiction of the United States: (i) that is a felony or |
10 | | (ii) that is a misdemeanor, an essential element of which |
11 | | is dishonesty, or that is directly related to the practice |
12 | | of genetic counseling.
|
13 | | (4) Making any misrepresentation for the purpose of |
14 | | obtaining a license, or violating any provision of this Act |
15 | | or its rules. |
16 | | (5) Negligence in the rendering of genetic counseling |
17 | | services.
|
18 | | (6) Failure to provide genetic testing results and any |
19 | | requested information to a referring physician licensed to |
20 | | practice medicine in all its branches, advanced practice |
21 | | registered nurse, or physician assistant.
|
22 | | (7) Aiding or assisting another person in violating any |
23 | | provision of this Act or any rules.
|
24 | | (8) Failing to provide information within 60 days in |
25 | | response to a written request made by the Department.
|
26 | | (9) Engaging in dishonorable, unethical, or |
|
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|
1 | | unprofessional conduct of a character likely to deceive, |
2 | | defraud, or harm the public and violating the rules of |
3 | | professional conduct adopted by the Department.
|
4 | | (10) Failing to maintain the confidentiality of any |
5 | | information received from a client, unless otherwise |
6 | | authorized or required by law.
|
7 | | (10.5) Failure to maintain client records of services |
8 | | provided and provide copies to clients upon request. |
9 | | (11) Exploiting a client for personal advantage, |
10 | | profit, or interest.
|
11 | | (12) Habitual or excessive use or addiction to alcohol, |
12 | | narcotics, stimulants, or any other chemical agent or drug |
13 | | which results in inability to practice with reasonable |
14 | | skill, judgment, or safety.
|
15 | | (13) Discipline by another governmental agency or unit |
16 | | of government, by any jurisdiction of the United States, or |
17 | | by a foreign nation, if at least one of the grounds for the |
18 | | discipline is the same or substantially equivalent to those |
19 | | set forth in this Section.
|
20 | | (14) Directly or indirectly giving to or receiving from |
21 | | any person, firm, corporation, partnership, or association |
22 | | any fee, commission, rebate, or other form of compensation |
23 | | for any professional service not actually rendered. |
24 | | Nothing in this paragraph (14) affects any bona fide |
25 | | independent contractor or employment arrangements among |
26 | | health care professionals, health facilities, health care |
|
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1 | | providers, or other entities, except as otherwise |
2 | | prohibited by law. Any employment arrangements may include |
3 | | provisions for compensation, health insurance, pension, or |
4 | | other employment benefits for the provision of services |
5 | | within the scope of the licensee's practice under this Act. |
6 | | Nothing in this paragraph (14) shall be construed to |
7 | | require an employment arrangement to receive professional |
8 | | fees for services rendered. |
9 | | (15) A finding by the Department that the licensee, |
10 | | after having the license placed on probationary status has |
11 | | violated the terms of probation.
|
12 | | (16) Failing to refer a client to other health care |
13 | | professionals when the licensee is unable or unwilling to |
14 | | adequately support or serve the client.
|
15 | | (17) Willfully filing false reports relating to a |
16 | | licensee's practice, including but not limited to false |
17 | | records filed with federal or State agencies or |
18 | | departments.
|
19 | | (18) Willfully failing to report an instance of |
20 | | suspected child abuse or neglect as required by the Abused |
21 | | and Neglected Child Reporting Act.
|
22 | | (19) Being named as a perpetrator in an indicated |
23 | | report by the Department of Children and Family Services |
24 | | pursuant to the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act, |
25 | | and upon proof by clear and convincing evidence that the |
26 | | licensee has caused a child to be an abused child or |
|
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|
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1 | | neglected child as defined in the Abused and Neglected |
2 | | Child Reporting Act.
|
3 | | (20) Physical or mental disability, including |
4 | | deterioration through the aging process or loss of |
5 | | abilities and skills which results in the inability to |
6 | | practice the profession with reasonable judgment, skill, |
7 | | or safety.
|
8 | | (21) Solicitation of professional services by using |
9 | | false or misleading advertising.
|
10 | | (22) Failure to file a return, or to pay the tax, |
11 | | penalty of interest shown in a filed return, or to pay any |
12 | | final assessment of tax, penalty or interest, as required |
13 | | by any tax Act administered by the Illinois Department of |
14 | | Revenue or any successor agency or the Internal Revenue |
15 | | Service or any successor agency.
|
16 | | (23) Fraud or making any misrepresentation in applying |
17 | | for or procuring a license under this Act or in connection |
18 | | with applying for renewal of a license under this Act.
|
19 | | (24) Practicing or attempting to practice under a name |
20 | | other than the full name as shown on the license or any |
21 | | other legally authorized name.
|
22 | | (25) Gross overcharging for professional services, |
23 | | including filing statements for collection of fees or |
24 | | monies for which services are not rendered.
|
25 | | (26) (Blank).
|
26 | | (27) Charging for professional services not rendered, |
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1 | | including filing false statements for the collection of |
2 | | fees for which services are not rendered. |
3 | | (28) Allowing one's license under this Act to be used |
4 | | by an unlicensed person in violation of this Act. |
5 | | (b) The Department shall deny, without hearing, any |
6 | | application or renewal for a license under this Act to any |
7 | | person who has defaulted on an educational loan guaranteed by |
8 | | the Illinois Student State Assistance Commission; however, the |
9 | | Department may issue a license or renewal if the person in |
10 | | default has established a satisfactory repayment record as |
11 | | determined by the Illinois Student Assistance Commission.
|
12 | | (c) The determination by a court that a licensee is subject |
13 | | to involuntary admission or judicial admission as provided in |
14 | | the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code will |
15 | | result in an automatic suspension of his or her license. The |
16 | | suspension will end upon a finding by a court that the licensee |
17 | | is no longer subject to involuntary admission or judicial |
18 | | admission, the issuance of an order so finding and discharging |
19 | | the patient, and the determination of the Secretary that the |
20 | | licensee be allowed to resume professional practice. |
21 | | (d) The Department may refuse to issue or renew or may |
22 | | suspend without hearing the license of any person who fails to |
23 | | file a return, to pay the tax penalty or interest shown in a |
24 | | filed return, or to pay any final assessment of the tax, |
25 | | penalty, or interest as required by any Act regarding the |
26 | | payment of taxes administered by the Illinois Department of |
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1 | | Revenue until the requirements of the Act are satisfied in |
2 | | accordance with subsection (g) of Section 2105-15 of the Civil |
3 | | Administrative Code of Illinois. |
4 | | (e) In cases where the Department of Healthcare and Family |
5 | | Services has previously determined that a licensee or a |
6 | | potential licensee is more than 30 days delinquent in the |
7 | | payment of child support and has subsequently certified the |
8 | | delinquency to the Department, the Department may refuse to |
9 | | issue or renew or may revoke or suspend that person's license |
10 | | or may take other disciplinary action against that person based |
11 | | solely upon the certification of delinquency made by the |
12 | | Department of Healthcare and Family Services in accordance with |
13 | | item (5) of subsection (a) of Section 2105-15 of the Department |
14 | | of Professional Regulation Law of the Civil Administrative Code |
15 | | of Illinois. |
16 | | (f) All fines or costs imposed under this Section shall be |
17 | | paid within 60 days after the effective date of the order |
18 | | imposing the fine or costs or in accordance with the terms set |
19 | | forth in the order imposing the fine.
|
20 | | (Source: P.A. 98-813, eff. 1-1-15; 99-173, eff. 7-29-15; |
21 | | 99-633, eff. 1-1-17; revised 10-27-16.)
|
22 | | Section 215. The Illinois Public Aid Code is amended by |
23 | | changing Sections 5-8 and 12-4.37 as follows:
|
24 | | (305 ILCS 5/5-8) (from Ch. 23, par. 5-8)
|
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1 | | Sec. 5-8. Practitioners. In supplying medical assistance, |
2 | | the Illinois
Department may provide for the legally authorized |
3 | | services of (i) persons
licensed under the Medical Practice Act |
4 | | of 1987, as amended, except as
hereafter in this Section |
5 | | stated, whether under a
general or limited license, (ii) |
6 | | persons licensed under the Nurse Practice Act as advanced |
7 | | practice registered nurses, regardless of whether or not the |
8 | | persons have written collaborative agreements, (iii) persons |
9 | | licensed or registered
under
other laws of this State to |
10 | | provide dental, medical, pharmaceutical,
optometric, |
11 | | podiatric, or nursing services, or other remedial care
|
12 | | recognized under State law, and (iv) persons licensed under |
13 | | other laws of
this State as a clinical social worker. The |
14 | | Department shall adopt rules, no later than 90 days after the |
15 | | effective date of this amendatory Act of the 99th General |
16 | | Assembly, for the legally authorized services of persons |
17 | | licensed under other laws of this State as a clinical social |
18 | | worker.
The Department may not provide for legally
authorized |
19 | | services of any physician who has been convicted of having |
20 | | performed
an abortion procedure in a wilful and wanton manner |
21 | | on a woman who was not
pregnant at the time such abortion |
22 | | procedure was performed. The
utilization of the services of |
23 | | persons engaged in the treatment or care of
the sick, which |
24 | | persons are not required to be licensed or registered under
the |
25 | | laws of this State, is not prohibited by this Section.
|
26 | | (Source: P.A. 99-173, eff. 7-29-15; 99-621, eff. 1-1-17 .)
|
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1 | | (305 ILCS 5/12-4.37) |
2 | | Sec. 12-4.37. Children's Healthcare Partnership Pilot |
3 | | Program. |
4 | | (a) The Department of Healthcare and Family Services, in |
5 | | cooperation with the Department of Human Services, shall |
6 | | establish a Children's Healthcare Partnership Pilot Program in |
7 | | Sangamon County to fund the provision of various health care |
8 | | services by a single provider, or a group of providers that |
9 | | have entered into an agreement for that purpose, at a single |
10 | | location in the county. Services covered under the pilot |
11 | | program shall include, but need not be limited to, family |
12 | | practice, pediatric, nursing (including advanced practice |
13 | | registered nursing), psychiatric, dental, and vision services. |
14 | | The Departments shall fund the provision of all services |
15 | | provided under the pilot program using a rate structure that is |
16 | | cost-based. To be selected by the Departments as the provider |
17 | | of health care services under the pilot program, a provider or |
18 | | group of providers must serve a disproportionate share of |
19 | | low-income or indigent patients, including recipients of |
20 | | medical assistance under Article V of this Code. The |
21 | | Departments shall adopt rules as necessary to implement this |
22 | | Section. |
23 | | (b) Implementation of this Section is contingent on federal |
24 | | approval. The Department of Healthcare and Family Services |
25 | | shall take appropriate action by January 1, 2010 to seek |
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1 | | federal approval. |
2 | | (c) This Section is inoperative if the provider of health |
3 | | care services under the pilot program receives designation as a |
4 | | Federally Qualified Health Center (FQHC) or FQHC Look-Alike.
|
5 | | (Source: P.A. 96-691, eff. 8-25-09; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10.)
|
6 | | Section 220. The Older Adult Services Act is amended by |
7 | | changing Section 35 as follows:
|
8 | | (320 ILCS 42/35)
|
9 | | Sec. 35. Older Adult Services Advisory Committee. |
10 | | (a) The Older Adult Services Advisory Committee is created |
11 | | to advise the directors of Aging, Healthcare and Family |
12 | | Services, and Public Health on all matters related to this Act |
13 | | and the delivery of services to older adults in general.
|
14 | | (b) The Advisory Committee shall be comprised of the |
15 | | following:
|
16 | | (1) The Director of Aging or his or her designee, who |
17 | | shall serve as chair and shall be an ex officio and |
18 | | nonvoting member.
|
19 | | (2) The Director of Healthcare and Family Services and |
20 | | the Director of Public Health or their designees, who shall |
21 | | serve as vice-chairs and shall be ex officio and nonvoting |
22 | | members.
|
23 | | (3) One representative each of the Governor's Office, |
24 | | the Department of Healthcare and Family Services, the |
|
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1 | | Department of Public Health, the Department of Veterans' |
2 | | Affairs, the Department of Human Services, the Department |
3 | | of Insurance, the Department of Commerce and Economic |
4 | | Opportunity, the Department on Aging, the Department on |
5 | | Aging's State Long Term Care Ombudsman, the Illinois |
6 | | Housing Finance Authority, and the Illinois Housing |
7 | | Development Authority, each of whom shall be selected by |
8 | | his or her respective director and shall be an ex officio |
9 | | and nonvoting member.
|
10 | | (4) Thirty members appointed by the Director of Aging |
11 | | in collaboration with the directors of Public Health and |
12 | | Healthcare and Family Services, and selected from the |
13 | | recommendations of statewide associations and |
14 | | organizations, as follows:
|
15 | | (A) One member representing the Area Agencies on |
16 | | Aging;
|
17 | | (B) Four members representing nursing homes or |
18 | | licensed assisted living establishments;
|
19 | | (C) One member representing home health agencies;
|
20 | | (D) One member representing case management |
21 | | services;
|
22 | | (E) One member representing statewide senior |
23 | | center associations;
|
24 | | (F) One member representing Community Care Program |
25 | | homemaker services;
|
26 | | (G) One member representing Community Care Program |
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1 | | adult day services;
|
2 | | (H) One member representing nutrition project |
3 | | directors;
|
4 | | (I) One member representing hospice programs;
|
5 | | (J) One member representing individuals with |
6 | | Alzheimer's disease and related dementias;
|
7 | | (K) Two members representing statewide trade or |
8 | | labor unions;
|
9 | | (L) One advanced practice registered nurse with |
10 | | experience in gerontological nursing;
|
11 | | (M) One physician specializing in gerontology;
|
12 | | (N) One member representing regional long-term |
13 | | care ombudsmen;
|
14 | | (O) One member representing municipal, township, |
15 | | or county officials;
|
16 | | (P) (Blank);
|
17 | | (Q) (Blank);
|
18 | | (R) One member representing the parish nurse |
19 | | movement;
|
20 | | (S) One member representing pharmacists;
|
21 | | (T) Two members representing statewide |
22 | | organizations engaging in advocacy or legal |
23 | | representation on behalf of the senior population;
|
24 | | (U) Two family caregivers;
|
25 | | (V) Two citizen members over the age of 60;
|
26 | | (W) One citizen with knowledge in the area of |
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1 | | gerontology research or health care law;
|
2 | | (X) One representative of health care facilities |
3 | | licensed under the Hospital Licensing Act; and
|
4 | | (Y) One representative of primary care service |
5 | | providers. |
6 | | The Director of Aging, in collaboration with the Directors |
7 | | of Public Health and Healthcare and Family Services, may |
8 | | appoint additional citizen members to the Older Adult Services |
9 | | Advisory Committee. Each such additional member must be either |
10 | | an individual age 60 or older or an uncompensated caregiver for |
11 | | a family member or friend who is age 60 or older.
|
12 | | (c) Voting members of the Advisory Committee shall serve |
13 | | for a term of 3 years or until a replacement is named. All |
14 | | members shall be appointed no later than January 1, 2005. Of |
15 | | the initial appointees, as determined by lot, 10 members shall |
16 | | serve a term of one year; 10 shall serve for a term of 2 years; |
17 | | and 12 shall serve for a term of 3 years. Any member appointed |
18 | | to fill a vacancy occurring prior to the expiration of the term |
19 | | for which his or her predecessor was appointed shall be |
20 | | appointed for the remainder of that term. The Advisory |
21 | | Committee shall meet at least quarterly and may meet more |
22 | | frequently at the call of the Chair. A simple majority of those |
23 | | appointed shall constitute a quorum. The affirmative vote of a |
24 | | majority of those present and voting shall be necessary for |
25 | | Advisory Committee action. Members of the Advisory Committee |
26 | | shall receive no compensation for their services.
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1 | | (d) The Advisory Committee shall have an Executive |
2 | | Committee comprised of the Chair, the Vice Chairs, and up to 15 |
3 | | members of the Advisory Committee appointed by the Chair who |
4 | | have demonstrated expertise in developing, implementing, or |
5 | | coordinating the system restructuring initiatives defined in |
6 | | Section 25. The Executive Committee shall have responsibility |
7 | | to oversee and structure the operations of the Advisory |
8 | | Committee and to create and appoint necessary subcommittees and |
9 | | subcommittee members.
|
10 | | (e) The Advisory Committee shall study and make |
11 | | recommendations related to the implementation of this Act, |
12 | | including but not limited to system restructuring initiatives |
13 | | as defined in Section 25 or otherwise related to this Act.
|
14 | | (Source: P.A. 95-331, eff. 8-21-07; 96-916, eff. 6-9-10.)
|
15 | | Section 225. The Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act |
16 | | is amended by changing Section 4 as follows:
|
17 | | (325 ILCS 5/4)
|
18 | | Sec. 4. Persons required to report; privileged |
19 | | communications;
transmitting false report. Any physician, |
20 | | resident, intern, hospital,
hospital administrator
and |
21 | | personnel engaged in examination, care and treatment of |
22 | | persons, surgeon,
dentist, dentist hygienist, osteopath, |
23 | | chiropractor, podiatric physician, physician
assistant, |
24 | | substance abuse treatment personnel, funeral home
director or |
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1 | | employee, coroner, medical examiner, emergency medical |
2 | | technician,
acupuncturist, crisis line or hotline personnel, |
3 | | school personnel (including administrators and both certified |
4 | | and non-certified school employees), personnel of institutions |
5 | | of higher education, educational
advocate assigned to a child |
6 | | pursuant to the School Code, member of a school board or the |
7 | | Chicago Board of Education or the governing body of a private |
8 | | school (but only to the extent required in accordance with |
9 | | other provisions of this Section expressly concerning the duty |
10 | | of school board members to report suspected child abuse), |
11 | | truant officers,
social worker, social services administrator,
|
12 | | domestic violence program personnel, registered nurse, |
13 | | licensed
practical nurse, genetic counselor,
respiratory care |
14 | | practitioner, advanced practice registered nurse, home
health |
15 | | aide, director or staff
assistant of a nursery school or a |
16 | | child day care center, recreational or athletic program
or |
17 | | facility personnel, early intervention provider as defined in |
18 | | the Early Intervention Services System Act, law enforcement |
19 | | officer, licensed professional
counselor, licensed clinical |
20 | | professional counselor, registered psychologist
and
assistants |
21 | | working under the direct supervision of a psychologist,
|
22 | | psychiatrist, or field personnel of the Department of |
23 | | Healthcare and Family Services,
Juvenile Justice, Public |
24 | | Health, Human Services (acting as successor to the Department |
25 | | of Mental
Health and Developmental Disabilities, |
26 | | Rehabilitation Services, or Public Aid),
Corrections, Human |
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1 | | Rights, or Children and Family Services, supervisor and
|
2 | | administrator of general assistance under the Illinois Public |
3 | | Aid Code,
probation officer, animal control officer or Illinois |
4 | | Department of Agriculture Bureau of Animal Health and Welfare |
5 | | field investigator, or any other foster parent, homemaker or |
6 | | child care worker
having reasonable cause to believe a child |
7 | | known to them in their professional
or official capacity may be |
8 | | an abused child or a neglected child shall
immediately report |
9 | | or cause a report to be made to the Department.
|
10 | | Any member of the clergy having reasonable cause to believe |
11 | | that a child
known to that member of the clergy in his or her |
12 | | professional capacity may be
an abused child as defined in item |
13 | | (c) of the definition of "abused child" in
Section 3 of this |
14 | | Act shall immediately report or cause a report to be made to
|
15 | | the Department.
|
16 | | Any physician, physician's assistant, registered nurse, |
17 | | licensed practical nurse, medical technician, certified |
18 | | nursing assistant, social worker, or licensed professional |
19 | | counselor of any office, clinic, or any other physical location |
20 | | that provides abortions, abortion referrals, or contraceptives |
21 | | having reasonable cause to believe a child known to him or her |
22 | | in his or her professional
or official capacity may be an |
23 | | abused child or a neglected child shall
immediately report or |
24 | | cause a report to be made to the Department. |
25 | | If an allegation is raised to a school board member during |
26 | | the course of an open or closed school board meeting that a |
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1 | | child who is enrolled in the school district of which he or she |
2 | | is a board member is an abused child as defined in Section 3 of |
3 | | this Act, the member shall direct or cause the school board to |
4 | | direct the superintendent of the school district or other |
5 | | equivalent school administrator to comply with the |
6 | | requirements of this Act concerning the reporting of child |
7 | | abuse. For purposes of this paragraph, a school board member is |
8 | | granted the authority in his or her individual capacity to |
9 | | direct the superintendent of the school district or other |
10 | | equivalent school administrator to comply with the |
11 | | requirements of this Act concerning the reporting of child |
12 | | abuse.
|
13 | | Notwithstanding any other provision of this Act, if an |
14 | | employee of a school district has made a report or caused a |
15 | | report to be made to the Department under this Act involving |
16 | | the conduct of a current or former employee of the school |
17 | | district and a request is made by another school district for |
18 | | the provision of information concerning the job performance or |
19 | | qualifications of the current or former employee because he or |
20 | | she is an applicant for employment with the requesting school |
21 | | district, the general superintendent of the school district to |
22 | | which the request is being made must disclose to the requesting |
23 | | school district the fact that an employee of the school |
24 | | district has made a report involving the conduct of the |
25 | | applicant or caused a report to be made to the Department, as |
26 | | required under this Act. Only the fact that an employee of the |
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1 | | school district has made a report involving the conduct of the |
2 | | applicant or caused a report to be made to the Department may |
3 | | be disclosed by the general superintendent of the school |
4 | | district to which the request for information concerning the |
5 | | applicant is made, and this fact may be disclosed only in cases |
6 | | where the employee and the general superintendent have not been |
7 | | informed by the Department that the allegations were unfounded. |
8 | | An employee of a school district who is or has been the subject |
9 | | of a report made pursuant to this Act during his or her |
10 | | employment with the school district must be informed by that |
11 | | school district that if he or she applies for employment with |
12 | | another school district, the general superintendent of the |
13 | | former school district, upon the request of the school district |
14 | | to which the employee applies, shall notify that requesting |
15 | | school district that the employee is or was the subject of such |
16 | | a report.
|
17 | | Whenever
such person is required to report under this Act |
18 | | in his capacity as a member of
the staff of a medical or other |
19 | | public or private institution, school, facility
or agency, or |
20 | | as a member of the clergy, he shall
make report immediately to |
21 | | the Department in accordance
with the provisions of this Act |
22 | | and may also notify the person in charge of
such institution, |
23 | | school, facility or agency, or church, synagogue, temple,
|
24 | | mosque, or other religious institution, or his
designated agent |
25 | | that such
report has been made. Under no circumstances shall |
26 | | any person in charge of
such institution, school, facility or |
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1 | | agency, or church, synagogue, temple,
mosque, or other |
2 | | religious institution, or his
designated agent to whom
such |
3 | | notification has been made, exercise any control, restraint, |
4 | | modification
or other change in the report or the forwarding of |
5 | | such report to the
Department.
|
6 | | The privileged quality of communication between any |
7 | | professional
person required to report
and his patient or |
8 | | client shall not apply to situations involving abused or
|
9 | | neglected children and shall not constitute grounds for failure |
10 | | to report
as required by this Act or constitute grounds for |
11 | | failure to share information or documents with the Department |
12 | | during the course of a child abuse or neglect investigation. If |
13 | | requested by the professional, the Department shall confirm in |
14 | | writing that the information or documents disclosed by the |
15 | | professional were gathered in the course of a child abuse or |
16 | | neglect investigation.
|
17 | | The reporting requirements of this Act shall not apply to |
18 | | the contents of a privileged communication between an attorney |
19 | | and his or her client or to confidential information within the |
20 | | meaning of Rule 1.6 of the Illinois Rules of Professional |
21 | | Conduct relating to the legal representation of an individual |
22 | | client. |
23 | | A member of the clergy may claim the privilege under |
24 | | Section 8-803 of the
Code of Civil Procedure.
|
25 | | Any office, clinic, or any other physical location that |
26 | | provides abortions, abortion referrals, or contraceptives |
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1 | | shall provide to all office personnel copies of written |
2 | | information and training materials about abuse and neglect and |
3 | | the requirements of this Act that are provided to employees of |
4 | | the office, clinic, or physical location who are required to |
5 | | make reports to the Department under this Act, and instruct |
6 | | such office personnel to bring to the attention of an employee |
7 | | of the office, clinic, or physical location who is required to |
8 | | make reports to the Department under this Act any reasonable |
9 | | suspicion that a child known to him or her in his or her |
10 | | professional or official capacity may be an abused child or a |
11 | | neglected child. In addition to the above persons required to
|
12 | | report suspected cases of abused or neglected children, any |
13 | | other person
may make a report if such person has reasonable |
14 | | cause to believe a child
may be an abused child or a neglected |
15 | | child.
|
16 | | Any person who enters into
employment on and after July 1, |
17 | | 1986 and is mandated by virtue of that
employment to report |
18 | | under this Act, shall sign a statement on a form
prescribed by |
19 | | the Department, to the effect that the employee has knowledge
|
20 | | and understanding of the reporting requirements of this Act. |
21 | | The statement
shall be signed prior to commencement of the |
22 | | employment. The signed
statement shall be retained by the |
23 | | employer. The cost of printing,
distribution, and filing of the |
24 | | statement shall be borne by the employer.
|
25 | | Within one year of initial employment and at least every 5 |
26 | | years thereafter, school personnel required to report child |
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1 | | abuse as provided under this Section must complete mandated |
2 | | reporter training by a provider or agency with expertise in |
3 | | recognizing and reporting child abuse. |
4 | | The Department shall provide copies of this Act, upon |
5 | | request, to all
employers employing persons who shall be |
6 | | required under the provisions of
this Section to report under |
7 | | this Act.
|
8 | | Any person who knowingly transmits a false report to the |
9 | | Department
commits the offense of disorderly conduct under |
10 | | subsection (a)(7) of
Section 26-1 of the Criminal Code of 2012. |
11 | | A violation of this provision is a Class 4 felony.
|
12 | | Any person who knowingly and willfully violates any |
13 | | provision of this
Section other than a second or subsequent |
14 | | violation of transmitting a
false report as described in the
|
15 | | preceding paragraph, is guilty of a
Class A misdemeanor for
a |
16 | | first violation and a Class
4 felony for a
second or subsequent |
17 | | violation; except that if the person acted as part
of a plan or |
18 | | scheme having as its object the
prevention of discovery of an |
19 | | abused or neglected child by lawful authorities
for the
purpose |
20 | | of protecting or insulating any person or entity from arrest or
|
21 | | prosecution, the
person is guilty of a Class 4 felony for a |
22 | | first offense and a Class 3 felony
for a second or
subsequent |
23 | | offense (regardless of whether the second or subsequent offense
|
24 | | involves any
of the same facts or persons as the first or other |
25 | | prior offense).
|
26 | | A child whose parent, guardian or custodian in good faith |
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1 | | selects and depends
upon spiritual means through prayer alone |
2 | | for the treatment or cure of
disease or remedial care may be |
3 | | considered neglected or abused, but not for
the sole reason |
4 | | that his parent, guardian or custodian accepts and
practices |
5 | | such beliefs.
|
6 | | A child shall not be considered neglected or abused solely |
7 | | because the
child is not attending school in accordance with |
8 | | the requirements of
Article 26 of the School Code, as amended.
|
9 | | Nothing in this Act prohibits a mandated reporter who |
10 | | reasonably believes that an animal is being abused or neglected |
11 | | in violation of the Humane Care for Animals Act from reporting |
12 | | animal abuse or neglect to the Department of Agriculture's |
13 | | Bureau of Animal Health and Welfare. |
14 | | A home rule unit may not regulate the reporting of child |
15 | | abuse or neglect in a manner inconsistent with the provisions |
16 | | of this Section. This Section is a limitation under subsection |
17 | | (i) of Section 6 of Article VII of the Illinois Constitution on |
18 | | the concurrent exercise by home rule units of powers and |
19 | | functions exercised by the State. |
20 | | For purposes of this Section "child abuse or neglect" |
21 | | includes abuse or neglect of an adult resident as defined in |
22 | | this Act. |
23 | | (Source: P.A. 97-189, eff. 7-22-11; 97-254, eff. 1-1-12; |
24 | | 97-387, eff. 8-15-11; 97-711, eff. 6-27-12; 97-813, eff. |
25 | | 7-13-12; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13; 98-67, eff. 7-15-13; 98-214, |
26 | | eff. 8-9-13; 98-408, eff. 7-1-14; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14.)
|
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| | HB0313 Engrossed | - 515 - | LRB100 04130 SMS 14135 b |
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|
1 | | Section 230. The Health Care Workplace Violence Prevention |
2 | | Act is amended by changing Section 10 as follows:
|
3 | | (405 ILCS 90/10)
|
4 | | Sec. 10. Definitions. In this Act: |
5 | | "Department" means (i) the Department of Human Services, in |
6 | | the case of a health care workplace that is operated or |
7 | | regulated by the Department of Human Services, or (ii) the |
8 | | Department of Public Health, in the case of a health care |
9 | | workplace that is operated or regulated by the Department of |
10 | | Public Health. |
11 | | "Director" means the Secretary of Human Services or the |
12 | | Director of Public Health, as appropriate. |
13 | | "Employee" means any individual who is employed on a |
14 | | full-time, part-time, or contractual basis by a health care |
15 | | workplace. |
16 | | "Health care workplace" means a mental health facility or |
17 | | developmental disability facility as defined in the Mental |
18 | | Health and Developmental Disabilities Code, other than a |
19 | | hospital or unit thereof licensed under the Hospital Licensing |
20 | | Act or operated under the University of Illinois Hospital Act. |
21 | | "Health care workplace" does not include, and shall not be |
22 | | construed to include, any office of a physician licensed to |
23 | | practice medicine in all its branches, an advanced practice |
24 | | registered nurse, or a physician assistant, regardless of the |
|
| | HB0313 Engrossed | - 516 - | LRB100 04130 SMS 14135 b |
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|
1 | | form of such office. |
2 | | "Imminent danger" means a preliminary determination of |
3 | | immediate, threatened, or impending risk of physical injury as |
4 | | determined by the employee. |
5 | | "Responsible agency" means the State agency that (i) |
6 | | licenses, certifies, registers, or otherwise regulates or |
7 | | exercises jurisdiction over a health care workplace or a health |
8 | | care workplace's activities or (ii) contracts with a health |
9 | | care workplace for the delivery of health care services.
|
10 | | "Violence" or "violent act" means any act by a patient or |
11 | | resident that causes or threatens to cause an injury to another |
12 | | person.
|
13 | | (Source: P.A. 94-347, eff. 7-28-05.)
|
14 | | Section 235. The Perinatal Mental Health Disorders |
15 | | Prevention and Treatment Act is amended by changing Section 10 |
16 | | as follows:
|
17 | | (405 ILCS 95/10)
|
18 | | Sec. 10. Definitions. In this Act: |
19 | | "Hospital" has the meaning given to that term in the |
20 | | Hospital Licensing Act. |
21 | | "Licensed health care professional" means a physician |
22 | | licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, a licensed |
23 | | advanced practice registered nurse, or a licensed physician |
24 | | assistant. |
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| | HB0313 Engrossed | - 517 - | LRB100 04130 SMS 14135 b |
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|
1 | | "Postnatal care" means an office visit to a licensed health |
2 | | care professional occurring after birth, with reference to the |
3 | | infant or mother. |
4 | | "Prenatal care" means an office visit to a licensed health |
5 | | care professional for pregnancy-related care occurring before |
6 | | birth. |
7 | | "Questionnaire" means an assessment tool administered by a |
8 | | licensed health care professional to detect perinatal mental |
9 | | health disorders, such as the Edinburgh Postnatal Depression |
10 | | Scale, the Postpartum Depression Screening Scale, the Beck |
11 | | Depression Inventory, the Patient Health Questionnaire, or |
12 | | other validated assessment methods.
|
13 | | (Source: P.A. 99-173, eff. 7-29-15.)
|
14 | | Section 240. The Epinephrine Auto-Injector Act is amended |
15 | | by changing Section 5 as follows:
|
16 | | (410 ILCS 27/5)
|
17 | | Sec. 5. Definitions. As used in this Act: |
18 | | "Administer" means to directly apply an epinephrine |
19 | | auto-injector to the body of an individual. |
20 | | "Authorized entity" means any entity or organization, |
21 | | other than a school covered under Section 22-30 of the School |
22 | | Code, in connection with or at which allergens capable of |
23 | | causing anaphylaxis may be present, including, but not limited |
24 | | to, independent contractors who provide student transportation |
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|
1 | | to schools, recreation camps, colleges and universities, day |
2 | | care facilities, youth sports leagues, amusement parks, |
3 | | restaurants, sports arenas, and places of employment. The |
4 | | Department shall, by rule, determine what constitutes a day |
5 | | care facility under this definition. |
6 | | "Department" means the Department of Public Health. |
7 | | "Epinephrine auto-injector" means a single-use device used |
8 | | for the automatic injection of a pre-measured dose of |
9 | | epinephrine into the human body. |
10 | | "Health care practitioner" means a physician licensed to |
11 | | practice medicine in all its branches under the Medical |
12 | | Practice Act of 1987, a physician assistant under the Physician |
13 | | Assistant Practice Act of 1987 with prescriptive authority, or |
14 | | an advanced practice registered nurse with prescribing |
15 | | authority under Article 65 of the Nurse Practice Act. |
16 | | "Pharmacist" has the meaning given to that term under |
17 | | subsection (k-5) of Section 3 of the Pharmacy Practice Act. |
18 | | "Undesignated epinephrine auto-injector" means an |
19 | | epinephrine auto-injector prescribed in the name of an |
20 | | authorized entity.
|
21 | | (Source: P.A. 99-711, eff. 1-1-17 .)
|
22 | | Section 245. The Lead Poisoning Prevention Act is amended |
23 | | by changing Section 6.2 as follows:
|
24 | | (410 ILCS 45/6.2) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 1306.2)
|
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|
1 | | Sec. 6.2. Testing children and pregnant persons.
|
2 | | (a) Any physician licensed to practice medicine in all its |
3 | | branches or health care provider who sees or treats children 6 |
4 | | years
of age or younger shall test those children for
lead |
5 | | poisoning when those children reside in an area defined as high |
6 | | risk
by the Department. Children residing in areas defined as |
7 | | low risk by the
Department shall be evaluated for risk by the |
8 | | Childhood Lead Risk Questionnaire developed
by the Department |
9 | | and tested if indicated. Children shall be evaluated in |
10 | | accordance with rules adopted by the Department.
|
11 | | (b) Each licensed, registered, or approved health care |
12 | | facility serving
children 6 years of age or younger, including, |
13 | | but not
limited to,
health departments, hospitals, clinics, and |
14 | | health maintenance
organizations approved, registered, or |
15 | | licensed by the Department, shall take
the appropriate steps to |
16 | | ensure that children 6 years of age or younger be evaluated for |
17 | | risk or tested for lead poisoning or both.
|
18 | | (c) Children 7 years and older and pregnant persons may |
19 | | also be tested by physicians or
health care providers, in |
20 | | accordance with rules adopted by the Department. Physicians and |
21 | | health care providers shall also evaluate
children for lead |
22 | | poisoning in conjunction with the school health
examination, as |
23 | | required under the School Code, when, in the medical judgment
|
24 | | of the physician, advanced practice registered nurse, or
|
25 | | physician
assistant, the child is potentially at high risk of |
26 | | lead poisoning.
|
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|
1 | | (d) (Blank).
|
2 | | (Source: P.A. 98-690, eff. 1-1-15; 99-78, eff. 7-20-15; 99-173, |
3 | | eff. 7-29-15.)
|
4 | | Section 250. The Medical Patient Rights Act is amended by |
5 | | changing Section 7 as follows:
|
6 | | (410 ILCS 50/7) |
7 | | Sec. 7. Patient examination. Any physician, medical |
8 | | student, resident, advanced practice registered nurse, |
9 | | registered nurse, or physician assistant who provides |
10 | | treatment or care to a patient shall inform the patient of his |
11 | | or her profession upon providing the treatment or care, which |
12 | | includes but is not limited to any physical examination, such |
13 | | as a pelvic examination. In the case of an unconscious patient, |
14 | | any care or treatment must be related to the patient's illness, |
15 | | condition, or disease.
|
16 | | (Source: P.A. 93-771, eff. 7-21-04.)
|
17 | | Section 255. The Sexual Assault Survivors Emergency |
18 | | Treatment Act is amended by changing Sections 1a, 2.2, 5, 5.5, |
19 | | and 6.5 as follows:
|
20 | | (410 ILCS 70/1a) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 87-1a)
|
21 | | Sec. 1a. Definitions. In this Act:
|
22 | | "Ambulance provider" means an individual or entity that |
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|
|
1 | | owns and operates a business or service using ambulances or |
2 | | emergency medical services vehicles to transport emergency |
3 | | patients.
|
4 | | "Areawide sexual assault treatment plan" means a plan, |
5 | | developed by the hospitals in the community or area to be |
6 | | served, which provides for hospital emergency services to |
7 | | sexual assault survivors that shall be made available by each |
8 | | of the participating hospitals.
|
9 | | "Department" means the Department of Public Health.
|
10 | | "Emergency contraception" means medication as approved by |
11 | | the federal Food and Drug Administration (FDA) that can |
12 | | significantly reduce the risk of pregnancy if taken within 72 |
13 | | hours after sexual assault.
|
14 | | "Follow-up healthcare" means healthcare services related |
15 | | to a sexual assault, including laboratory services and pharmacy |
16 | | services, rendered within 90 days of the initial visit for |
17 | | hospital emergency services.
|
18 | | "Forensic services" means the collection of evidence |
19 | | pursuant to a statewide sexual assault evidence collection |
20 | | program administered by the Department of State Police, using |
21 | | the Illinois State Police Sexual Assault Evidence Collection |
22 | | Kit.
|
23 | | "Health care professional" means a physician, a physician |
24 | | assistant, or an advanced practice registered nurse.
|
25 | | "Hospital" has the meaning given to that term in the |
26 | | Hospital Licensing Act.
|
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|
1 | | "Hospital emergency services" means healthcare delivered |
2 | | to outpatients within or under the care and supervision of |
3 | | personnel working in a designated emergency department of a |
4 | | hospital, including, but not limited to, care ordered by such |
5 | | personnel for a sexual assault survivor in the emergency |
6 | | department.
|
7 | | "Illinois State Police Sexual Assault Evidence Collection |
8 | | Kit" means a prepackaged set of materials and forms to be used |
9 | | for the collection of evidence relating to sexual assault. The |
10 | | standardized evidence collection kit for the State of Illinois |
11 | | shall be the Illinois State Police Sexual Assault Evidence |
12 | | Collection Kit.
|
13 | | "Law enforcement agency having jurisdiction" means the law |
14 | | enforcement agency in the jurisdiction where an alleged sexual |
15 | | assault or sexual abuse occurred. |
16 | | "Nurse" means a nurse licensed under the Nurse
Practice |
17 | | Act.
|
18 | | "Physician" means a person licensed to practice medicine in |
19 | | all its branches.
|
20 | | "Sexual assault" means an act of nonconsensual sexual |
21 | | conduct or sexual penetration, as defined in Section 11-0.1 of |
22 | | the Criminal Code of 2012, including, without limitation, acts |
23 | | prohibited under Sections 11-1.20 through 11-1.60 of the |
24 | | Criminal Code of 2012.
|
25 | | "Sexual assault survivor" means a person who presents for |
26 | | hospital emergency services in relation to injuries or trauma |
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| | HB0313 Engrossed | - 523 - | LRB100 04130 SMS 14135 b |
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1 | | resulting from a sexual assault.
|
2 | | "Sexual assault transfer plan" means a written plan |
3 | | developed by a hospital and approved by the Department, which |
4 | | describes the hospital's procedures for transferring sexual |
5 | | assault survivors to another hospital in order to receive |
6 | | emergency treatment.
|
7 | | "Sexual assault treatment plan" means a written plan |
8 | | developed by a hospital that describes the hospital's |
9 | | procedures and protocols for providing hospital emergency |
10 | | services and forensic services to sexual assault survivors who |
11 | | present themselves for such services, either directly or |
12 | | through transfer from another hospital.
|
13 | | "Transfer services" means the appropriate medical |
14 | | screening examination and necessary stabilizing treatment |
15 | | prior to the transfer of a sexual assault survivor to a |
16 | | hospital that provides hospital emergency services and |
17 | | forensic services to sexual assault survivors pursuant to a |
18 | | sexual assault treatment plan or areawide sexual assault |
19 | | treatment plan.
|
20 | | "Voucher" means a document generated by a hospital at the |
21 | | time the sexual assault survivor receives hospital emergency |
22 | | and forensic services that a sexual assault survivor may |
23 | | present to providers for follow-up healthcare. |
24 | | (Source: P.A. 99-454, eff. 1-1-16; 99-801, eff. 1-1-17 .)
|
25 | | (410 ILCS 70/2.2)
|
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1 | | Sec. 2.2. Emergency contraception.
|
2 | | (a) The General Assembly finds:
|
3 | | (1) Crimes of sexual assault and sexual abuse
cause |
4 | | significant physical, emotional, and
psychological trauma |
5 | | to the victims. This trauma is compounded by a victim's
|
6 | | fear of becoming pregnant and bearing a child as a result |
7 | | of the sexual
assault.
|
8 | | (2) Each year over 32,000 women become pregnant in the |
9 | | United States as
the result of rape and
approximately 50% |
10 | | of these pregnancies end in abortion.
|
11 | | (3) As approved for use by the Federal Food and Drug |
12 | | Administration (FDA),
emergency contraception can |
13 | | significantly reduce the risk of pregnancy if taken
within |
14 | | 72 hours after the sexual assault.
|
15 | | (4) By providing emergency contraception to rape |
16 | | victims in a timely
manner, the trauma of rape can be |
17 | | significantly reduced.
|
18 | | (b) Within 120 days after the effective date of this |
19 | | amendatory Act of the
92nd General Assembly, every hospital |
20 | | providing services to sexual
assault survivors in accordance |
21 | | with a plan approved under Section 2 must
develop a protocol |
22 | | that ensures that each survivor of sexual
assault will receive |
23 | | medically and factually accurate and written and oral
|
24 | | information about emergency contraception; the indications and
|
25 | | counter-indications and risks associated with the use of |
26 | | emergency
contraception;
and a description of how and when |
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|
|
1 | | victims may be provided emergency
contraception upon
the |
2 | | written order of a physician licensed to practice medicine
in |
3 | | all its branches, a licensed advanced practice registered |
4 | | nurse, or a licensed physician assistant. The Department shall |
5 | | approve the protocol if it finds
that the implementation of the |
6 | | protocol would provide sufficient protection
for survivors of |
7 | | sexual assault.
|
8 | | The hospital shall implement the protocol upon approval by |
9 | | the Department.
The Department shall adopt rules and |
10 | | regulations establishing one or more safe
harbor protocols and |
11 | | setting minimum acceptable protocol standards that
hospitals |
12 | | may develop and implement. The Department shall approve any |
13 | | protocol
that meets those standards. The Department may provide |
14 | | a sample acceptable
protocol upon request.
|
15 | | (Source: P.A. 99-173, eff. 7-29-15.)
|
16 | | (410 ILCS 70/5) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 87-5)
|
17 | | Sec. 5. Minimum requirements for hospitals providing |
18 | | hospital emergency services and forensic services
to sexual |
19 | | assault survivors.
|
20 | | (a) Every hospital providing hospital emergency services |
21 | | and forensic services to
sexual assault survivors under this |
22 | | Act
shall, as minimum requirements for such services, provide, |
23 | | with the consent
of the sexual assault survivor, and as ordered |
24 | | by the attending
physician, an advanced practice registered |
25 | | nurse, or a physician assistant, the following:
|
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| | HB0313 Engrossed | - 526 - | LRB100 04130 SMS 14135 b |
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|
1 | | (1) appropriate medical examinations and laboratory
|
2 | | tests required to ensure the health, safety, and welfare
of |
3 | | a sexual assault survivor or which may be
used as evidence |
4 | | in a criminal proceeding against a person accused of the
|
5 | | sexual assault, or both; and records of the results of such |
6 | | examinations
and tests shall be maintained by the hospital |
7 | | and made available to law
enforcement officials upon the |
8 | | request of the sexual assault survivor;
|
9 | | (2) appropriate oral and written information |
10 | | concerning the possibility
of infection, sexually |
11 | | transmitted disease and pregnancy
resulting from sexual |
12 | | assault;
|
13 | | (3) appropriate oral and written information |
14 | | concerning accepted medical
procedures, medication, and |
15 | | possible contraindications of such medication
available |
16 | | for the prevention or treatment of infection or disease |
17 | | resulting
from sexual assault;
|
18 | | (4) an amount of medication for treatment at the |
19 | | hospital and after discharge as is deemed appropriate by |
20 | | the attending physician, an advanced practice registered |
21 | | nurse, or a physician assistant and consistent with the |
22 | | hospital's current approved protocol for sexual assault |
23 | | survivors;
|
24 | | (5) an evaluation of the sexual assault survivor's risk |
25 | | of contracting human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) from the |
26 | | sexual assault;
|
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| | HB0313 Engrossed | - 527 - | LRB100 04130 SMS 14135 b |
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1 | | (6) written and oral instructions indicating the need |
2 | | for follow-up examinations and laboratory tests after the |
3 | | sexual assault to determine the presence or absence of
|
4 | | sexually transmitted disease;
|
5 | | (7) referral by hospital personnel for appropriate |
6 | | counseling; and
|
7 | | (8) when HIV prophylaxis is deemed appropriate, an |
8 | | initial dose or doses of HIV prophylaxis, along with |
9 | | written and oral instructions indicating the importance of
|
10 | | timely follow-up healthcare.
|
11 | | (b) Any person who is a sexual assault survivor who seeks |
12 | | emergency hospital services and forensic services or follow-up |
13 | | healthcare
under this Act shall be provided such services |
14 | | without the consent
of any parent, guardian, custodian, |
15 | | surrogate, or agent.
|
16 | | (b-5) Every treating hospital providing hospital emergency |
17 | | and forensic services to sexual assault survivors shall issue a |
18 | | voucher to any sexual assault survivor who is eligible to |
19 | | receive one. The hospital shall make a copy of the voucher and |
20 | | place it in the medical record of the sexual assault survivor. |
21 | | The hospital shall provide a copy of the voucher to the sexual |
22 | | assault survivor after discharge upon request. |
23 | | (c) Nothing in this Section creates a physician-patient |
24 | | relationship that extends beyond discharge from the hospital |
25 | | emergency department.
|
26 | | (Source: P.A. 99-173, eff. 7-29-15; 99-454, eff. 1-1-16; |
|
| | HB0313 Engrossed | - 528 - | LRB100 04130 SMS 14135 b |
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|
1 | | 99-642, eff. 7-28-16.)
|
2 | | (410 ILCS 70/5.5)
|
3 | | Sec. 5.5. Minimum reimbursement requirements for follow-up |
4 | | healthcare. |
5 | | (a) Every hospital, health care professional, laboratory, |
6 | | or pharmacy that provides follow-up healthcare to a sexual |
7 | | assault survivor, with the consent of the sexual assault |
8 | | survivor and as ordered by the attending physician, an advanced |
9 | | practice registered nurse, or physician assistant shall be |
10 | | reimbursed for the follow-up healthcare services provided. |
11 | | Follow-up healthcare services include, but are not limited to, |
12 | | the following: |
13 | | (1) a physical examination; |
14 | | (2) laboratory tests to determine the presence or |
15 | | absence of sexually transmitted disease; and |
16 | | (3) appropriate medications, including HIV |
17 | | prophylaxis. |
18 | | (b) Reimbursable follow-up healthcare is limited to office |
19 | | visits with a physician, advanced practice registered nurse, or |
20 | | physician assistant within 90 days after an initial visit for |
21 | | hospital emergency services. |
22 | | (c) Nothing in this Section requires a hospital, health |
23 | | care professional, laboratory, or pharmacy to provide |
24 | | follow-up healthcare to a sexual assault survivor.
|
25 | | (Source: P.A. 99-173, eff. 7-29-15.)
|
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| | HB0313 Engrossed | - 529 - | LRB100 04130 SMS 14135 b |
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|
1 | | (410 ILCS 70/6.5) |
2 | | Sec. 6.5. Written consent to the release of sexual assault |
3 | | evidence for testing. |
4 | | (a) Upon the completion of hospital emergency services and |
5 | | forensic services, the health care professional providing the |
6 | | forensic services shall provide the patient the opportunity to |
7 | | sign a written consent to allow law enforcement to submit the |
8 | | sexual assault evidence for testing. The written consent shall |
9 | | be on a form included in the sexual assault evidence collection |
10 | | kit and shall include whether the survivor consents to the |
11 | | release of information about the sexual assault to law |
12 | | enforcement. |
13 | | (1) A survivor 13 years of age or older may sign the |
14 | | written consent to release the evidence for testing. |
15 | | (2) If the survivor is a minor who is under 13 years of |
16 | | age, the written consent to release the sexual assault |
17 | | evidence for testing may be signed by the parent, guardian, |
18 | | investigating law enforcement officer, or Department of |
19 | | Children and Family Services. |
20 | | (3) If the survivor is an adult who has a guardian of |
21 | | the person, a health care surrogate, or an agent acting |
22 | | under a health care power of attorney, the consent of the |
23 | | guardian, surrogate, or agent is not required to release |
24 | | evidence and information concerning the sexual assault or |
25 | | sexual abuse. If the adult is unable to provide consent for |
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| | HB0313 Engrossed | - 530 - | LRB100 04130 SMS 14135 b |
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|
1 | | the release of evidence and information and a guardian, |
2 | | surrogate, or agent under a health care power of attorney |
3 | | is unavailable or unwilling to release the information, |
4 | | then an investigating law enforcement officer may |
5 | | authorize the release. |
6 | | (4) Any health care professional, including any |
7 | | physician, advanced practice registered nurse, physician |
8 | | assistant, or nurse, sexual assault nurse examiner, and any |
9 | | health care institution, including any hospital, who |
10 | | provides evidence or information to a law enforcement |
11 | | officer under a written consent as specified in this |
12 | | Section is immune from any civil or professional liability |
13 | | that might arise from those actions, with the exception of |
14 | | willful or wanton misconduct. The immunity provision |
15 | | applies only if all of the requirements of this Section are |
16 | | met. |
17 | | (b) The hospital shall keep a copy of a signed or unsigned |
18 | | written consent form in the patient's medical record. |
19 | | (c) If a written consent to allow law enforcement to test |
20 | | the sexual assault evidence is not signed at the completion of |
21 | | hospital emergency services and forensic services, the |
22 | | hospital shall include the following information in its |
23 | | discharge instructions: |
24 | | (1) the sexual assault evidence will be stored for 5 |
25 | | years from the completion of an Illinois State Police |
26 | | Sexual Assault Evidence Collection Kit, or 5 years from the |
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|
1 | | age of 18 years, whichever is longer; |
2 | | (2) a person authorized to consent to the testing of |
3 | | the sexual assault evidence may sign a written consent to |
4 | | allow law enforcement to test the sexual assault evidence |
5 | | at any time during that 5-year period for an adult victim, |
6 | | or until a minor victim turns 23 years of age by (A) |
7 | | contacting the law enforcement agency having jurisdiction, |
8 | | or if unknown, the law enforcement agency contacted by the |
9 | | hospital under Section 3.2 of the Criminal Identification |
10 | | Act; or (B) by working with an advocate at a rape crisis |
11 | | center; |
12 | | (3) the name, address, and phone number of the law |
13 | | enforcement agency having jurisdiction, or if unknown the |
14 | | name, address, and phone number of the law enforcement |
15 | | agency contacted by the hospital under Section 3.2 of the |
16 | | Criminal Identification Act; and |
17 | | (4) the name and phone number of a local rape crisis |
18 | | center.
|
19 | | (Source: P.A. 99-801, eff. 1-1-17 .)
|
20 | | Section 260. The Consent by Minors to Medical Procedures |
21 | | Act is amended by changing Sections 1, 1.5, 2, 3, and 5 as |
22 | | follows:
|
23 | | (410 ILCS 210/1) (from Ch. 111, par. 4501)
|
24 | | Sec. 1. Consent by minor. The consent to the performance of |
|
| | HB0313 Engrossed | - 532 - | LRB100 04130 SMS 14135 b |
|
|
1 | | a medical or
surgical procedure
by a physician licensed to |
2 | | practice medicine and surgery, a licensed advanced practice |
3 | | registered nurse, or a licensed physician assistant executed by |
4 | | a
married person who is a minor, by a parent who is a minor, by |
5 | | a pregnant
woman who is a minor, or by
any person 18 years of |
6 | | age or older, is not voidable because of such
minority, and, |
7 | | for such purpose, a married person who is a minor, a parent
who |
8 | | is a minor, a
pregnant woman who is a minor, or any person 18 |
9 | | years of age or older, is
deemed to have the same legal |
10 | | capacity to act and has the same powers and
obligations as has |
11 | | a person of legal age.
|
12 | | (Source: P.A. 99-173, eff. 7-29-15.)
|
13 | | (410 ILCS 210/1.5) |
14 | | Sec. 1.5. Consent by minor seeking care for primary care |
15 | | services. |
16 | | (a) The consent to the performance of primary care services |
17 | | by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its |
18 | | branches, a licensed advanced practice registered nurse, or a |
19 | | licensed physician assistant executed by a minor seeking care |
20 | | is not voidable because of such minority, and for such purpose, |
21 | | a minor seeking care is deemed to have the same legal capacity |
22 | | to act and has the same powers and obligations as has a person |
23 | | of legal age under the following circumstances: |
24 | | (1) the health care professional reasonably believes |
25 | | that the minor seeking care understands the benefits and |
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1 | | risks of any proposed primary care or services; and |
2 | | (2) the minor seeking care is identified in writing as |
3 | | a minor seeking care by: |
4 | | (A) an adult relative; |
5 | | (B) a representative of a homeless service agency |
6 | | that receives federal, State, county, or municipal |
7 | | funding to provide those services or that is otherwise |
8 | | sanctioned by a local continuum of care; |
9 | | (C) an attorney licensed to practice law in this |
10 | | State; |
11 | | (D) a public school homeless liaison or school |
12 | | social worker; |
13 | | (E) a social service agency providing services to |
14 | | at risk, homeless, or runaway youth; or |
15 | | (F) a representative of a religious organization. |
16 | | (b) A health care professional rendering primary care |
17 | | services under this Section shall not incur civil or criminal |
18 | | liability for failure to obtain valid consent or professional |
19 | | discipline for failure to obtain valid consent if he or she |
20 | | relied in good faith on the representations made by the minor |
21 | | or the information provided under paragraph (2) of subsection |
22 | | (a) of this Section. Under such circumstances, good faith shall |
23 | | be presumed. |
24 | | (c) The confidential nature of any communication between a |
25 | | health care professional described in Section 1 of this Act and |
26 | | a minor seeking care is not waived (1) by the presence, at the |
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1 | | time of communication, of any additional persons present at the |
2 | | request of the minor seeking care, (2) by the health care |
3 | | professional's disclosure of confidential information to the |
4 | | additional person with the consent of the minor seeking care, |
5 | | when reasonably necessary to accomplish the purpose for which |
6 | | the additional person is consulted, or (3) by the health care |
7 | | professional billing a health benefit insurance or plan under |
8 | | which the minor seeking care is insured, is enrolled, or has |
9 | | coverage for the services provided. |
10 | | (d) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to limit or |
11 | | expand a minor's existing powers and obligations under any |
12 | | federal, State, or local law. Nothing in this Section shall be |
13 | | construed to affect the Parental Notice of Abortion Act of |
14 | | 1995. Nothing in this Section affects the right or authority of |
15 | | a parent or legal guardian to verbally, in writing, or |
16 | | otherwise authorize health care services to be provided for a |
17 | | minor in their absence. |
18 | | (e) For the purposes of this Section: |
19 | | "Minor seeking care" means a person at least 14 years |
20 | | of age but less than 18 years of age who is living separate |
21 | | and apart from his or her parents or legal guardian, |
22 | | whether with or without the consent of a parent or legal |
23 | | guardian who is unable or unwilling to return to the |
24 | | residence of a parent, and managing his or her own personal |
25 | | affairs. "Minor seeking care" does not include minors who |
26 | | are under the protective custody, temporary custody, or |
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1 | | guardianship of the Department of Children and Family |
2 | | Services. |
3 | | "Primary care services" means health care services |
4 | | that include screening, counseling, immunizations, |
5 | | medication, and treatment of illness and conditions |
6 | | customarily provided by licensed health care professionals |
7 | | in an out-patient setting. "Primary care services" does not |
8 | | include invasive care, beyond standard injections, |
9 | | laceration care, or non-surgical fracture care.
|
10 | | (Source: P.A. 98-671, eff. 10-1-14; 99-173, eff. 7-29-15.)
|
11 | | (410 ILCS 210/2) (from Ch. 111, par. 4502)
|
12 | | Sec. 2. Any parent, including a parent who is a minor, may |
13 | | consent to the
performance upon his or her child of a medical |
14 | | or surgical procedure by a
physician licensed to practice |
15 | | medicine and surgery, a licensed advanced practice registered |
16 | | nurse, or a licensed physician assistant or a dental procedure
|
17 | | by a licensed dentist. The consent of a parent who is a minor |
18 | | shall not be
voidable because of such minority, but, for such |
19 | | purpose, a parent who is a
minor shall be deemed to have the |
20 | | same legal capacity to act and shall have
the same powers and |
21 | | obligations as has a person of legal age.
|
22 | | (Source: P.A. 99-173, eff. 7-29-15.)
|
23 | | (410 ILCS 210/3) (from Ch. 111, par. 4503)
|
24 | | Sec. 3. (a) Where a hospital, a physician licensed to |
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1 | | practice medicine
or surgery, a licensed advanced practice |
2 | | registered nurse, or a licensed physician assistant renders |
3 | | emergency treatment or first aid or a licensed dentist
renders |
4 | | emergency dental treatment to a minor, consent of the minor's |
5 | | parent
or legal guardian need not be obtained if, in the sole |
6 | | opinion of the
physician,
advanced practice registered nurse, |
7 | | physician assistant,
dentist, or hospital, the obtaining of |
8 | | consent is not reasonably feasible
under the circumstances |
9 | | without adversely affecting the condition of such
minor's |
10 | | health.
|
11 | | (b) Where a minor is the victim of a predatory criminal |
12 | | sexual assault of
a child, aggravated criminal sexual assault, |
13 | | criminal sexual assault,
aggravated criminal sexual abuse or |
14 | | criminal sexual abuse, as provided in
Sections 11-1.20 through |
15 | | 11-1.60 of the Criminal Code of 2012, the consent
of the |
16 | | minor's parent or legal guardian need not be obtained to |
17 | | authorize
a hospital, physician, advanced practice registered |
18 | | nurse, physician assistant, or other medical personnel to |
19 | | furnish medical care
or counseling related to the diagnosis or |
20 | | treatment of any disease or injury
arising from such offense. |
21 | | The minor may consent to such counseling, diagnosis
or |
22 | | treatment as if the minor had reached his or her age of |
23 | | majority. Such
consent shall not be voidable, nor subject to |
24 | | later disaffirmance, because
of minority.
|
25 | | (Source: P.A. 99-173, eff. 7-29-15.)
|
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1 | | (410 ILCS 210/5) (from Ch. 111, par. 4505)
|
2 | | Sec. 5. Counseling; informing parent or guardian. Any |
3 | | physician, advanced practice registered nurse, or physician |
4 | | assistant,
who
provides diagnosis or treatment or any
licensed |
5 | | clinical psychologist or professionally trained social worker
|
6 | | with a master's degree or any qualified person employed (i) by |
7 | | an
organization licensed or funded by the Department of Human
|
8 | | Services, (ii) by units of local
government, or (iii) by |
9 | | agencies or organizations operating drug abuse programs
funded |
10 | | or licensed by the Federal Government or the State of Illinois
|
11 | | or any qualified person employed by or associated with any |
12 | | public or private
alcoholism or drug abuse program licensed by |
13 | | the State of Illinois who
provides counseling to a minor |
14 | | patient who has come into contact with any
sexually transmitted |
15 | | disease referred to in Section 4 of this
Act may, but shall not |
16 | | be
obligated to, inform the parent, parents, or guardian of the |
17 | | minor as to
the treatment given or needed. Any person described |
18 | | in this Section who
provides counseling to a minor who abuses |
19 | | drugs or alcohol or has a family
member who abuses drugs or |
20 | | alcohol shall not inform the parent, parents,
guardian, or |
21 | | other responsible adult of the minor's condition or treatment
|
22 | | without the minor's consent unless that action is, in the |
23 | | person's
judgment, necessary to protect the safety of the |
24 | | minor, a family member, or
another individual.
|
25 | | Any such person shall, upon the minor's consent, make |
26 | | reasonable efforts
to involve the family of the minor in his or |
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1 | | her treatment, if the person
furnishing the treatment believes |
2 | | that the involvement of the family will
not be detrimental to |
3 | | the progress and care of the minor. Reasonable effort
shall be |
4 | | extended to assist the minor in accepting the involvement of |
5 | | his
or her family in the care and treatment being given.
|
6 | | (Source: P.A. 93-962, eff. 8-20-04.)
|
7 | | Section 265. The Early Hearing Detection and Intervention |
8 | | Act is amended by changing Section 10 as follows:
|
9 | | (410 ILCS 213/10)
|
10 | | Sec. 10. Reports to Department of Public Health. |
11 | | Physicians, advanced practice registered nurses, physician |
12 | | assistants, otolaryngologists, audiologists, ancillary health |
13 | | care providers, early intervention programs and providers, |
14 | | parent-to-parent support programs, the Department of Human |
15 | | Services, and the University of Illinois at Chicago Division of |
16 | | Specialized Care for Children shall report all hearing testing, |
17 | | medical treatment, and intervention outcomes related to |
18 | | newborn hearing screening or newly identified hearing loss for |
19 | | children birth through 6 years of age to the Department. |
20 | | Reporting shall be done within 7 days after the date of service |
21 | | or after an inquiry from the Department. Reports shall be in a |
22 | | format determined by the Department.
|
23 | | (Source: P.A. 99-834, eff. 8-19-16.)
|
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1 | | Section 270. The Prenatal and Newborn Care Act is amended |
2 | | by changing Sections 2 and 6 as follows:
|
3 | | (410 ILCS 225/2) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 7022)
|
4 | | Sec. 2. Definitions. As used in this Act, unless the |
5 | | context otherwise
requires:
|
6 | | "Advanced practice registered nurse" or "APRN" "APN" means |
7 | | an advanced practice registered nurse licensed under the Nurse |
8 | | Practice Act.
|
9 | | "Department" means the Illinois Department of Human |
10 | | Services.
|
11 | | "Early and Periodic Screening, Diagnosis and Treatment |
12 | | (EPSDT)" means
the provision of preventative health care under |
13 | | 42 C.F.R. 441.50 et seq.,
including medical and dental |
14 | | services, needed to assess growth and
development and detect |
15 | | and treat health problems.
|
16 | | "Hospital" means a hospital as defined under the Hospital |
17 | | Licensing Act.
|
18 | | "Local health authority" means the full-time official |
19 | | health
department or board of health, as recognized by the |
20 | | Illinois Department
of Public Health, having
jurisdiction over |
21 | | a particular area.
|
22 | | "Nurse" means a nurse licensed under the Nurse Practice |
23 | | Act.
|
24 | | "Physician" means a physician licensed to practice |
25 | | medicine in all of
its branches.
|
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1 | | "Physician assistant" means a physician assistant licensed |
2 | | under the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987.
|
3 | | "Postnatal visit" means a visit occurring after birth, with
|
4 | | reference to the newborn.
|
5 | | "Prenatal visit" means a visit occurring before birth.
|
6 | | "Program" means the Prenatal and Newborn Care Program |
7 | | established
pursuant to this Act.
|
8 | | (Source: P.A. 99-173, eff. 7-29-15.)
|
9 | | (410 ILCS 225/6) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 7026)
|
10 | | Sec. 6. Covered services.
|
11 | | (a) Covered services under the program may
include, but are |
12 | | not necessarily limited to, the following:
|
13 | | (1) Laboratory services related to a recipient's |
14 | | pregnancy, performed or
ordered by a physician, advanced |
15 | | practice registered nurse, or physician assistant.
|
16 | | (2) Screening and treatment for sexually transmitted
|
17 | | disease.
|
18 | | (3) Prenatal visits to a physician in the physician's |
19 | | office, an advanced practice registered nurse in the |
20 | | advanced practice registered nurse's office, a physician |
21 | | assistant in the physician assistant's office, or to a
|
22 | | hospital outpatient prenatal clinic, local health |
23 | | department maternity
clinic, or community health center.
|
24 | | (4) Radiology services which are directly related to |
25 | | the pregnancy, are
determined to be medically necessary and |
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1 | | are ordered by a physician, an advanced practice registered |
2 | | nurse, or a physician assistant.
|
3 | | (5) Pharmacy services related to the pregnancy.
|
4 | | (6) Other medical consultations related to the |
5 | | pregnancy.
|
6 | | (7) Physician, advanced practice registered nurse, |
7 | | physician assistant, or nurse services associated with |
8 | | delivery.
|
9 | | (8) One postnatal office visit within 60 days after |
10 | | delivery.
|
11 | | (9) Two EPSDT-equivalent screenings for the infant |
12 | | within 90 days after
birth.
|
13 | | (10) Social and support services.
|
14 | | (11) Nutrition services.
|
15 | | (12) Case management services.
|
16 | | (b) The following services shall not be covered under the |
17 | | program:
|
18 | | (1) Services determined by the Department not to be |
19 | | medically necessary.
|
20 | | (2) Services not directly related to the pregnancy, |
21 | | except for the 2
covered EPSDT-equivalent screenings.
|
22 | | (3) Hospital inpatient services.
|
23 | | (4) Anesthesiologist and radiologist services during a |
24 | | period of
hospital inpatient care.
|
25 | | (5) Physician, advanced practice registered nurse, and |
26 | | physician assistant hospital visits.
|
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1 | | (6) Services considered investigational or |
2 | | experimental.
|
3 | | (Source: P.A. 93-962, eff. 8-20-04.)
|
4 | | Section 275. The AIDS Confidentiality Act is amended by |
5 | | changing Section 3 as follows:
|
6 | | (410 ILCS 305/3) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 7303)
|
7 | | Sec. 3. Definitions. When used in this Act:
|
8 | | (a) "AIDS" means acquired immunodeficiency syndrome. |
9 | | (b) "Authority" means the Illinois Health Information |
10 | | Exchange Authority established pursuant to the Illinois Health |
11 | | Information Exchange and Technology Act. |
12 | | (c) "Business associate" has the meaning ascribed to it |
13 | | under HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 160.103. |
14 | | (d) "Covered entity" has the meaning ascribed to it under |
15 | | HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 160.103. |
16 | | (e) "De-identified information" means health information |
17 | | that is not individually identifiable as described under HIPAA, |
18 | | as specified in 45 CFR 164.514(b). |
19 | | (f) "Department" means the Illinois Department of Public |
20 | | Health or its designated agents.
|
21 | | (g) "Disclosure" has the meaning ascribed to it under |
22 | | HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 160.103. |
23 | | (h) "Health care operations" has the meaning ascribed to it |
24 | | under HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 164.501. |
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1 | | (i) "Health care professional" means (i) a licensed |
2 | | physician, (ii) a licensed
physician assistant, (iii) a |
3 | | licensed advanced practice registered nurse, (iv) an advanced |
4 | | practice registered nurse or physician assistant who practices |
5 | | in a hospital or ambulatory surgical treatment center and |
6 | | possesses appropriate clinical privileges, (v) a licensed |
7 | | dentist, (vi) a licensed podiatric physician, or (vii) an
|
8 | | individual certified to provide HIV testing and counseling by a |
9 | | state or local
public health
department. |
10 | | (j) "Health care provider" has the meaning ascribed to it |
11 | | under HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 160.103.
|
12 | | (k) "Health facility" means a hospital, nursing home, blood |
13 | | bank, blood
center, sperm bank, or other health care |
14 | | institution, including any "health
facility" as that term is |
15 | | defined in the Illinois Finance Authority
Act.
|
16 | | (l) "Health information exchange" or "HIE" means a health |
17 | | information exchange or health information organization that |
18 | | oversees and governs the electronic exchange of health |
19 | | information that (i) is established pursuant to the Illinois |
20 | | Health Information Exchange and Technology Act, or any |
21 | | subsequent amendments thereto, and any administrative rules |
22 | | adopted thereunder; (ii) has established a data sharing |
23 | | arrangement with the Authority; or (iii) as of August 16, 2013, |
24 | | was designated by the Authority Board as a member of, or was |
25 | | represented on, the Authority Board's Regional Health |
26 | | Information Exchange Workgroup; provided that such designation
|
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1 | | shall not require the establishment of a data sharing |
2 | | arrangement or other participation with the Illinois Health
|
3 | | Information Exchange or the payment of any fee. In certain |
4 | | circumstances, in accordance with HIPAA, an HIE will be a |
5 | | business associate. |
6 | | (m) "Health oversight agency" has the meaning ascribed to |
7 | | it under HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 164.501. |
8 | | (n) "HIPAA" means the Health Insurance Portability and |
9 | | Accountability Act of 1996, Public Law 104-191, as amended by |
10 | | the Health Information Technology for Economic and Clinical |
11 | | Health Act of 2009, Public Law 111-05, and any subsequent |
12 | | amendments thereto and any regulations promulgated thereunder. |
13 | | (o) "HIV" means the human immunodeficiency virus. |
14 | | (p) "HIV-related information" means the identity of a |
15 | | person upon whom an HIV test is performed, the results of an |
16 | | HIV test, as well as diagnosis, treatment, and prescription |
17 | | information that reveals a patient is HIV-positive, including |
18 | | such information contained in a limited data set. "HIV-related |
19 | | information" does not include information that has been |
20 | | de-identified in accordance with HIPAA. |
21 | | (q) "Informed consent" means: |
22 | | (1) where a health care provider, health care |
23 | | professional, or health facility has implemented opt-in |
24 | | testing, a process by which an individual or their legal |
25 | | representative receives pre-test information, has an |
26 | | opportunity to ask questions, and consents verbally or in |
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1 | | writing to the test without undue inducement or any element |
2 | | of force, fraud, deceit, duress, or other form of |
3 | | constraint or coercion; or |
4 | | (2) where a health care provider, health care |
5 | | professional, or health facility has implemented opt-out |
6 | | testing, the individual or their legal representative has |
7 | | been notified verbally or in writing that the test is |
8 | | planned, has received pre-test information, has been given |
9 | | the opportunity to ask questions and the opportunity to |
10 | | decline testing, and has not declined testing; where such |
11 | | notice is provided, consent for opt-out HIV testing may be |
12 | | incorporated into the patient's general consent for |
13 | | medical care on the same basis as are other screening or |
14 | | diagnostic tests; a separate consent for opt-out HIV |
15 | | testing is not required. |
16 | | In addition, where the person providing informed consent is |
17 | | a participant in an HIE, informed consent requires a fair |
18 | | explanation that the results of the patient's HIV test will be |
19 | | accessible through an HIE and meaningful disclosure of the |
20 | | patient's opt-out right under Section 9.6 of this Act. |
21 | | A health care provider, health care professional, or health |
22 | | facility undertaking an informed consent process for HIV |
23 | | testing under this subsection may combine a form used to obtain |
24 | | informed consent for HIV testing with forms used to obtain |
25 | | written consent for general medical care or any other medical |
26 | | test or procedure, provided that the forms make it clear that |
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1 | | the subject may consent to general medical care, tests, or |
2 | | procedures without being required to consent to HIV testing, |
3 | | and clearly explain how the subject may decline HIV testing. |
4 | | Health facility clerical staff or other staff responsible for |
5 | | the consent form for general medical care may obtain consent |
6 | | for HIV testing through a general consent form. |
7 | | (r) "Limited data set" has the meaning ascribed to it under |
8 | | HIPAA, as described in 45 CFR 164.514(e)(2). |
9 | | (s) "Minimum necessary" means the HIPAA standard for using, |
10 | | disclosing, and requesting protected health information found |
11 | | in 45 CFR 164.502(b) and 164.514(d). |
12 | | (s-1) "Opt-in testing" means an approach where an HIV test |
13 | | is presented by offering the test and the patient accepts or |
14 | | declines testing. |
15 | | (s-3) "Opt-out testing" means an approach where an HIV test |
16 | | is presented such that a patient is notified that HIV testing |
17 | | may occur unless the patient declines. |
18 | | (t) "Organized health care arrangement" has the meaning |
19 | | ascribed to it under HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 160.103. |
20 | | (u) "Patient safety activities" has the meaning ascribed to |
21 | | it under 42 CFR 3.20. |
22 | | (v) "Payment" has the meaning ascribed to it under HIPAA, |
23 | | as specified in 45 CFR 164.501. |
24 | | (w) "Person" includes any natural person, partnership, |
25 | | association, joint venture, trust, governmental entity, public |
26 | | or private corporation, health facility, or other legal entity. |
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1 | | (w-5) "Pre-test information" means: |
2 | | (1) a reasonable explanation of the test, including its |
3 | | purpose, potential uses, limitations, and the meaning of |
4 | | its results; and |
5 | | (2) a reasonable explanation of the procedures to be |
6 | | followed, including the voluntary nature of the test, the |
7 | | availability of a qualified person to answer questions, the |
8 | | right to withdraw consent to the testing process at any |
9 | | time, the right to anonymity to the extent provided by law |
10 | | with respect to participation in the test and disclosure of |
11 | | test results, and the right to confidential treatment of |
12 | | information identifying the subject of the test and the |
13 | | results of the test, to the extent provided by law. |
14 | | Pre-test information may be provided in writing, verbally, |
15 | | or by video, electronic, or other means and may be provided as |
16 | | designated by the supervising health care professional or the |
17 | | health facility. |
18 | | For the purposes of this definition, a qualified person to |
19 | | answer questions is a health care professional or, when acting |
20 | | under the supervision of a health care professional, a |
21 | | registered nurse, medical assistant, or other person |
22 | | determined to be sufficiently knowledgeable about HIV testing, |
23 | | its purpose, potential uses, limitations, the meaning of the |
24 | | test results, and the testing procedures in the professional |
25 | | judgment of a supervising health care professional or as |
26 | | designated by a health care facility. |
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1 | | (x) "Protected health information" has the meaning |
2 | | ascribed to it under HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 160.103. |
3 | | (y) "Research" has the meaning ascribed to it under HIPAA, |
4 | | as specified in 45 CFR 164.501. |
5 | | (z) "State agency" means an instrumentality of the State of |
6 | | Illinois and any instrumentality of another state that, |
7 | | pursuant to applicable law or a written undertaking with an |
8 | | instrumentality of the State of Illinois, is bound to protect |
9 | | the privacy of HIV-related information of Illinois persons.
|
10 | | (aa) "Test" or "HIV test" means a test to determine the |
11 | | presence of the
antibody or antigen to HIV, or of HIV |
12 | | infection.
|
13 | | (bb) "Treatment" has the meaning ascribed to it under |
14 | | HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 164.501. |
15 | | (cc) "Use" has the meaning ascribed to it under HIPAA, as |
16 | | specified in 45 CFR 160.103, where context dictates.
|
17 | | (Source: P.A. 98-214, eff. 8-9-13; 98-1046, eff. 1-1-15; 99-54, |
18 | | eff. 1-1-16; 99-173, eff. 7-29-15; 99-642, eff. 7-28-16.)
|
19 | | Section 280. The Illinois Sexually Transmissible Disease |
20 | | Control Act is amended by changing Sections 3, 4, and 5.5 as |
21 | | follows:
|
22 | | (410 ILCS 325/3) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 7403)
|
23 | | Sec. 3. Definitions. As used in this Act, unless the |
24 | | context clearly
requires otherwise:
|
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| | HB0313 Engrossed | - 549 - | LRB100 04130 SMS 14135 b |
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1 | | (1) "Department" means the Department of Public Health.
|
2 | | (2) "Local health authority" means the full-time official |
3 | | health
department of board of health, as recognized by the |
4 | | Department, having
jurisdiction over a particular area.
|
5 | | (3) "Sexually transmissible disease" means a bacterial, |
6 | | viral, fungal or
parasitic disease, determined by rule of the |
7 | | Department to be sexually
transmissible, to be a threat to the |
8 | | public health and welfare, and to be a
disease for which a |
9 | | legitimate public interest will be served by providing
for |
10 | | regulation and treatment. In considering which diseases are to |
11 | | be
designated sexually transmissible diseases, the Department |
12 | | shall consider
such diseases as chancroid, gonorrhea, |
13 | | granuloma inguinale, lymphogranuloma
venereum, genital herpes |
14 | | simplex, chlamydia, nongonococcal urethritis
(NGU), pelvic |
15 | | inflammatory disease (PID)/Acute
Salpingitis, syphilis, |
16 | | Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome (AIDS), and Human
|
17 | | Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV) for designation, and shall |
18 | | consider the
recommendations and classifications of the |
19 | | Centers for Disease Control and
other nationally recognized |
20 | | medical authorities. Not all diseases that are
sexually |
21 | | transmissible need be designated for purposes of this Act.
|
22 | | (4) "Health care professional" means a physician licensed |
23 | | to practice medicine in all its branches, a licensed physician |
24 | | assistant, or a licensed advanced practice registered nurse. |
25 | | (5) "Expedited partner therapy" means to prescribe, |
26 | | dispense, furnish, or otherwise provide prescription |
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1 | | antibiotic drugs to the partner or partners of persons |
2 | | clinically diagnosed as infected with a sexually transmissible |
3 | | disease, without physical examination of the partner or |
4 | | partners. |
5 | | (Source: P.A. 99-173, eff. 7-29-15.)
|
6 | | (410 ILCS 325/4) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 7404)
|
7 | | Sec. 4. Reporting required.
|
8 | | (a) A physician licensed under the provisions of the |
9 | | Medical Practice Act
of 1987, an advanced practice registered |
10 | | nurse licensed under the provisions of the Nurse Practice Act, |
11 | | or a physician assistant licensed under the provisions of the |
12 | | Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987
who makes a diagnosis |
13 | | of or treats a person with a sexually
transmissible disease and |
14 | | each laboratory that performs a test for a sexually
|
15 | | transmissible disease which concludes with a positive result |
16 | | shall report such
facts as may be required by the Department by |
17 | | rule, within such time period as
the Department may require by |
18 | | rule, but in no case to exceed 2 weeks.
|
19 | | (b) The Department shall adopt rules specifying the |
20 | | information
required in reporting a sexually transmissible |
21 | | disease, the method of
reporting and specifying a minimum time |
22 | | period for reporting. In adopting
such rules, the Department |
23 | | shall consider the need for information,
protections for the |
24 | | privacy and confidentiality of the patient, and the
practical |
25 | | abilities of persons and laboratories to report in a reasonable
|
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1 | | fashion.
|
2 | | (c) Any person who knowingly or maliciously disseminates |
3 | | any false
information or report concerning the existence of any |
4 | | sexually
transmissible disease under this Section is guilty of |
5 | | a Class A misdemeanor.
|
6 | | (d) Any person who violates the provisions of this Section |
7 | | or the rules
adopted hereunder may be fined by the Department |
8 | | up to $500 for each
violation. The Department shall report each |
9 | | violation of this Section to
the regulatory agency responsible |
10 | | for licensing a health care professional
or a laboratory to |
11 | | which these provisions apply.
|
12 | | (Source: P.A. 99-173, eff. 7-29-15.)
|
13 | | (410 ILCS 325/5.5) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 7405.5)
|
14 | | Sec. 5.5. Risk assessment.
|
15 | | (a) Whenever the Department receives a report of HIV |
16 | | infection or AIDS
pursuant to this Act and the Department |
17 | | determines that the subject of the
report may present or may |
18 | | have presented a possible risk of HIV
transmission, the |
19 | | Department shall, when medically appropriate, investigate
the |
20 | | subject of the report and that person's contacts as defined in
|
21 | | subsection (c), to assess the potential risks of transmission. |
22 | | Any
investigation and action shall be conducted in a timely |
23 | | fashion. All
contacts other than those defined in subsection |
24 | | (c) shall be investigated
in accordance with Section 5 of this |
25 | | Act.
|
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1 | | (b) If the Department determines that there is or may have |
2 | | been
potential risks of HIV transmission from the subject of |
3 | | the report to other
persons, the Department shall afford the |
4 | | subject the opportunity to submit
any information and comment |
5 | | on proposed actions the Department intends to
take with respect |
6 | | to the subject's contacts who are at potential risk of
|
7 | | transmission of HIV prior to notification of the subject's |
8 | | contacts. The
Department shall also afford the subject of the |
9 | | report the opportunity to
notify the subject's contacts in a |
10 | | timely fashion who are at potential risk
of transmission of HIV |
11 | | prior to the Department taking any steps to notify
such |
12 | | contacts. If the subject declines to notify such contacts or if |
13 | | the
Department determines the notices to be inadequate or |
14 | | incomplete, the
Department shall endeavor to notify such other |
15 | | persons of the potential
risk, and offer testing and counseling |
16 | | services to these individuals. When
the contacts are notified, |
17 | | they shall be informed of the disclosure
provisions of the AIDS |
18 | | Confidentiality Act and the penalties therein and
this Section.
|
19 | | (c) Contacts investigated under this Section shall in the |
20 | | case of HIV
infection include (i) individuals who have |
21 | | undergone invasive procedures
performed by an HIV infected |
22 | | health care provider and (ii)
health care providers who have |
23 | | performed invasive procedures for persons
infected with HIV, |
24 | | provided the Department has determined that there is or
may |
25 | | have been potential risk of HIV transmission from the health |
26 | | care
provider to those individuals or from infected persons to |
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1 | | health care
providers. The Department shall have access to the |
2 | | subject's records to
review for the identity of contacts. The |
3 | | subject's records shall not be
copied or seized by the |
4 | | Department.
|
5 | | For purposes of this subsection, the term "invasive |
6 | | procedures" means
those procedures termed invasive by the |
7 | | Centers for Disease Control in
current guidelines or |
8 | | recommendations for the prevention of HIV
transmission in |
9 | | health care settings, and the term "health care provider"
means |
10 | | any physician, dentist, podiatric physician, advanced practice |
11 | | registered nurse, physician assistant, nurse, or other person |
12 | | providing
health care services of any kind.
|
13 | | (d) All information and records held by the Department and |
14 | | local health
authorities pertaining to activities conducted |
15 | | pursuant to this Section
shall be strictly confidential and |
16 | | exempt from copying and inspection under
the Freedom of |
17 | | Information Act. Such information and records shall not be
|
18 | | released or made public by the Department or local health |
19 | | authorities, and
shall not be admissible as evidence, nor |
20 | | discoverable in any action of any
kind in any court or before |
21 | | any tribunal, board, agency or person and shall
be treated in |
22 | | the same manner as the information and those records subject
to |
23 | | the provisions of Part 21 of Article VIII of the Code of Civil |
24 | | Procedure except under
the following circumstances:
|
25 | | (1) When made with the written consent of all persons |
26 | | to whom this
information pertains;
|
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1 | | (2) When authorized under Section 8 to be released |
2 | | under court order
or subpoena pursuant to Section 12-5.01 |
3 | | or 12-16.2 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal |
4 | | Code of 2012; or
|
5 | | (3) When made by the Department for the purpose of |
6 | | seeking a warrant
authorized by Sections 6 and 7 of this |
7 | | Act. Such disclosure shall conform
to the requirements of |
8 | | subsection (a) of Section 8 of this Act.
|
9 | | (e) Any person who knowingly or maliciously disseminates |
10 | | any
information or report concerning the existence of any |
11 | | disease under this
Section is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.
|
12 | | (Source: P.A. 98-214, eff. 8-9-13; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14; |
13 | | 99-642, eff. 7-28-16.)
|
14 | | Section 285. The Perinatal HIV Prevention Act is amended by |
15 | | changing Section 5 as follows:
|
16 | | (410 ILCS 335/5)
|
17 | | Sec. 5. Definitions. In this Act:
|
18 | | "Department" means the Department of Public Health.
|
19 | | "Health care professional" means a physician licensed to |
20 | | practice
medicine in all its branches, a licensed physician |
21 | | assistant, or a licensed
advanced
practice registered nurse.
|
22 | | "Health care facility" or "facility" means any hospital or |
23 | | other
institution that is licensed or otherwise authorized to |
24 | | deliver health care
services.
|
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1 | | "Health care services" means any prenatal medical care or |
2 | | labor or
delivery services to a pregnant woman and her newborn |
3 | | infant, including
hospitalization.
|
4 | | (Source: P.A. 99-173, eff. 7-29-15.)
|
5 | | Section 290. The Genetic Information Privacy Act is amended |
6 | | by changing Section 10 as follows:
|
7 | | (410 ILCS 513/10)
|
8 | | Sec. 10. Definitions. As used in this Act:
|
9 | | "Authority" means the Illinois Health Information Exchange |
10 | | Authority established pursuant to the Illinois Health |
11 | | Information Exchange and Technology Act. |
12 | | "Business associate" has the meaning ascribed to it under |
13 | | HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 160.103. |
14 | | "Covered entity" has the meaning ascribed to it under |
15 | | HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 160.103. |
16 | | "De-identified information" means health information that |
17 | | is not individually identifiable as described under HIPAA, as |
18 | | specified in 45 CFR 164.514(b). |
19 | | "Disclosure" has the meaning ascribed to it under HIPAA, as |
20 | | specified in 45 CFR 160.103. |
21 | | "Employer" means the State of Illinois, any unit of local |
22 | | government, and any board, commission, department, |
23 | | institution, or school district, any party to a public |
24 | | contract, any joint apprenticeship or training committee |
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1 | | within the State, and every other person employing employees |
2 | | within the State. |
3 | | "Employment agency" means both public and private |
4 | | employment agencies and any person, labor organization, or |
5 | | labor union having a hiring hall or hiring office regularly |
6 | | undertaking, with or without compensation, to procure |
7 | | opportunities to work, or to procure, recruit, refer, or place |
8 | | employees. |
9 | | "Family member" means, with respect to an individual, (i) |
10 | | the spouse of the individual; (ii) a dependent child of the |
11 | | individual, including a child who is born to or placed for |
12 | | adoption with the individual; (iii) any other person qualifying |
13 | | as a covered dependent under a managed care plan; and (iv) all |
14 | | other individuals related by blood or law to the individual or |
15 | | the spouse or child described in subsections (i) through (iii) |
16 | | of this definition. |
17 | | "Genetic information" has the meaning ascribed to it under |
18 | | HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 160.103. |
19 | | "Genetic monitoring" means the periodic examination of |
20 | | employees to evaluate acquired modifications to their genetic |
21 | | material, such as chromosomal damage or evidence of increased |
22 | | occurrence of mutations that may have developed in the course |
23 | | of employment due to exposure to toxic substances in the |
24 | | workplace in order to identify, evaluate, and respond to |
25 | | effects of or control adverse environmental exposures in the |
26 | | workplace. |
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1 | | "Genetic services" has the meaning ascribed to it under |
2 | | HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 160.103. |
3 | | "Genetic testing" and "genetic test" have the meaning |
4 | | ascribed to "genetic test" under HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR |
5 | | 160.103. |
6 | | "Health care operations" has the meaning ascribed to it |
7 | | under HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 164.501. |
8 | | "Health care professional" means (i) a licensed physician, |
9 | | (ii) a licensed physician assistant, (iii) a licensed advanced |
10 | | practice registered nurse, (iv) a licensed dentist, (v) a |
11 | | licensed podiatrist, (vi) a licensed genetic counselor, or |
12 | | (vii) an individual certified to provide genetic testing by a |
13 | | state or local public health department. |
14 | | "Health care provider" has the meaning ascribed to it under |
15 | | HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 160.103. |
16 | | "Health facility" means a hospital, blood bank, blood |
17 | | center, sperm bank, or other health care institution, including |
18 | | any "health facility" as that term is defined in the Illinois |
19 | | Finance Authority Act. |
20 | | "Health information exchange" or "HIE" means a health |
21 | | information exchange or health information organization that |
22 | | exchanges health information electronically that (i) is |
23 | | established pursuant to the Illinois Health Information |
24 | | Exchange and Technology Act, or any subsequent amendments |
25 | | thereto, and any administrative rules promulgated thereunder; |
26 | | (ii) has established a data sharing arrangement with the |
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1 | | Authority; or (iii) as of August 16, 2013, was designated by |
2 | | the Authority Board as a member of, or was represented on, the |
3 | | Authority Board's Regional Health Information Exchange |
4 | | Workgroup; provided that such designation
shall not require the |
5 | | establishment of a data sharing arrangement or other |
6 | | participation with the Illinois Health
Information Exchange or |
7 | | the payment of any fee. In certain circumstances, in accordance |
8 | | with HIPAA, an HIE will be a business associate. |
9 | | "Health oversight agency" has the meaning ascribed to it |
10 | | under HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 164.501. |
11 | | "HIPAA" means the Health Insurance Portability and |
12 | | Accountability Act of 1996, Public Law 104-191, as amended by |
13 | | the Health Information Technology for Economic and Clinical |
14 | | Health Act of 2009, Public Law 111-05, and any subsequent |
15 | | amendments thereto and any regulations promulgated thereunder.
|
16 | | "Insurer" means (i) an entity that is subject to the |
17 | | jurisdiction of the Director of Insurance and (ii) a
managed |
18 | | care plan.
|
19 | | "Labor organization" includes any organization, labor |
20 | | union, craft union, or any voluntary unincorporated |
21 | | association designed to further the cause of the rights of |
22 | | union labor that is constituted for the purpose, in whole or in |
23 | | part, of collective bargaining or of dealing with employers |
24 | | concerning grievances, terms or conditions of employment, or |
25 | | apprenticeships or applications for apprenticeships, or of |
26 | | other mutual aid or protection in connection with employment, |
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1 | | including apprenticeships or applications for apprenticeships. |
2 | | "Licensing agency" means a board, commission, committee, |
3 | | council, department, or officers, except a judicial officer, in |
4 | | this State or any political subdivision authorized to grant, |
5 | | deny, renew, revoke, suspend, annul, withdraw, or amend a |
6 | | license or certificate of registration. |
7 | | "Limited data set" has the meaning ascribed to it under |
8 | | HIPAA, as described in 45 CFR 164.514(e)(2). |
9 | | "Managed care plan" means a plan that establishes, |
10 | | operates, or maintains a
network of health care providers that |
11 | | have entered into agreements with the
plan to provide health |
12 | | care services to enrollees where the plan has the
ultimate and |
13 | | direct contractual obligation to the enrollee to arrange for |
14 | | the
provision of or pay for services
through:
|
15 | | (1) organizational arrangements for ongoing quality |
16 | | assurance,
utilization review programs, or dispute |
17 | | resolution; or
|
18 | | (2) financial incentives for persons enrolled in the |
19 | | plan to use the
participating providers and procedures |
20 | | covered by the plan.
|
21 | | A managed care plan may be established or operated by any |
22 | | entity including
a licensed insurance company, hospital or |
23 | | medical service plan, health
maintenance organization, limited |
24 | | health service organization, preferred
provider organization, |
25 | | third party administrator, or an employer or employee
|
26 | | organization.
|
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1 | | "Minimum necessary" means HIPAA's standard for using, |
2 | | disclosing, and requesting protected health information found |
3 | | in 45 CFR 164.502(b) and 164.514(d). |
4 | | "Nontherapeutic purpose" means a purpose that is not |
5 | | intended to improve or preserve the life or health of the |
6 | | individual whom the information concerns. |
7 | | "Organized health care arrangement" has the meaning |
8 | | ascribed to it under HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 160.103. |
9 | | "Patient safety activities" has the meaning ascribed to it |
10 | | under 42 CFR 3.20. |
11 | | "Payment" has the meaning ascribed to it under HIPAA, as |
12 | | specified in 45 CFR 164.501. |
13 | | "Person" includes any natural person, partnership, |
14 | | association, joint venture, trust, governmental entity, public |
15 | | or private corporation, health facility, or other legal entity. |
16 | | "Protected health information" has the meaning ascribed to |
17 | | it under HIPAA, as specified in 45 CFR 164.103. |
18 | | "Research" has the meaning ascribed to it under HIPAA, as |
19 | | specified in 45 CFR 164.501. |
20 | | "State agency" means an instrumentality of the State of |
21 | | Illinois and any instrumentality of another state which |
22 | | pursuant to applicable law or a written undertaking with an |
23 | | instrumentality of the State of Illinois is bound to protect |
24 | | the privacy of genetic information of Illinois persons. |
25 | | "Treatment" has the meaning ascribed to it under HIPAA, as |
26 | | specified in 45 CFR 164.501. |
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1 | | "Use" has the meaning ascribed to it under HIPAA, as |
2 | | specified in 45 CFR 160.103, where context dictates. |
3 | | (Source: P.A. 98-1046, eff. 1-1-15; 99-173, eff. 7-29-15.)
|
4 | | Section 295. The Home Health and Hospice Drug Dispensation |
5 | | and Administration Act is amended by changing Section 10 as |
6 | | follows:
|
7 | | (410 ILCS 642/10)
|
8 | | Sec. 10. Definitions. In this Act: |
9 | | "Authorized nursing employee" means a registered nurse or |
10 | | advanced practice registered nurse, as defined in the Nurse |
11 | | Practice Act, who is employed by a home health agency or |
12 | | hospice licensed in this State. |
13 | | "Health care professional" means a physician licensed to |
14 | | practice medicine in all its branches, a licensed advanced |
15 | | practice registered nurse, or a licensed physician assistant. |
16 | | "Home health agency" has the meaning ascribed to it in |
17 | | Section 2.04 of the Home Health, Home Services, and Home |
18 | | Nursing Agency Licensing Act.
|
19 | | "Hospice" means a full hospice, as defined in Section 3 of |
20 | | the Hospice Program Licensing Act. |
21 | | "Physician" means a physician licensed under the Medical |
22 | | Practice Act of 1987 to practice medicine in all its branches.
|
23 | | (Source: P.A. 99-173, eff. 7-29-15.)
|
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1 | | Section 300. The Radiation Protection Act of 1990 is |
2 | | amended by changing Sections 5 and 6 as follows:
|
3 | | (420 ILCS 40/5) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 210-5)
|
4 | | (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2021)
|
5 | | Sec. 5. Limitations on application of radiation to human |
6 | | beings and
requirements for radiation installation operators |
7 | | providing mammography
services. |
8 | | (a) No person shall intentionally administer radiation to a |
9 | | human being
unless such person is licensed to practice a |
10 | | treatment of human ailments by
virtue of the Illinois Medical, |
11 | | Dental or Podiatric Medical Practice Acts,
or, as physician |
12 | | assistant, advanced practice registered nurse, technician, |
13 | | nurse,
or other assistant, is
acting under the
supervision, |
14 | | prescription or direction of such licensed person. However,
no |
15 | | such physician assistant, advanced practice registered nurse, |
16 | | technician,
nurse, or other assistant
acting under the |
17 | | supervision
of a person licensed under the Medical Practice Act |
18 | | of 1987, shall
administer radiation to human beings unless |
19 | | accredited by the Agency, except that persons enrolled in a |
20 | | course of education
approved by the Agency may apply ionizing |
21 | | radiation
to human beings as required by their course of study |
22 | | when under the direct
supervision of a person licensed under |
23 | | the Medical Practice Act of 1987.
No person authorized by this |
24 | | Section to apply ionizing radiation shall apply
such radiation |
25 | | except to those parts of the human body specified in the Act
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1 | | under which such person or his supervisor is licensed.
No |
2 | | person may operate a radiation installation where ionizing |
3 | | radiation is
administered to human beings unless all persons |
4 | | who administer ionizing
radiation in that radiation |
5 | | installation are licensed, accredited, or
exempted in |
6 | | accordance with this Section. Nothing in this Section shall be
|
7 | | deemed to relieve a person from complying with the provisions |
8 | | of Section 10.
|
9 | | (b) In addition, no person shall provide mammography |
10 | | services unless
all of the following requirements are met:
|
11 | | (1) the mammography procedures are performed using a |
12 | | radiation machine
that is specifically designed for |
13 | | mammography;
|
14 | | (2) the mammography procedures are performed using a |
15 | | radiation machine
that is used solely for performing |
16 | | mammography procedures;
|
17 | | (3) the mammography procedures are performed using |
18 | | equipment that has
been subjected to a quality assurance |
19 | | program that satisfies quality
assurance requirements |
20 | | which the Agency shall establish by rule;
|
21 | | (4) beginning one year after the effective date of this |
22 | | amendatory Act
of 1991, if the mammography procedure is |
23 | | performed by a radiologic
technologist, that technologist, |
24 | | in addition to being accredited by the
Agency to perform |
25 | | radiography, has satisfied training requirements
specific |
26 | | to mammography, which the Agency shall establish by rule.
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1 | | (c) Every operator of a radiation installation at which |
2 | | mammography
services are provided shall ensure and have |
3 | | confirmed by each mammography
patient that the patient is |
4 | | provided with a pamphlet which is orally reviewed
with the |
5 | | patient and which contains the following:
|
6 | | (1) how to perform breast self-examination;
|
7 | | (2) that early detection of breast cancer is maximized |
8 | | through a combined
approach, using monthly breast |
9 | | self-examination, a thorough physical
examination |
10 | | performed by a physician, and mammography performed at |
11 | | recommended
intervals;
|
12 | | (3) that mammography is the most accurate method for |
13 | | making an early
detection of breast cancer, however, no |
14 | | diagnostic tool is 100% effective;
|
15 | | (4) that if the patient is self-referred and does not |
16 | | have a primary care
physician, or if the patient is |
17 | | unfamiliar with the breast examination
procedures, that |
18 | | the patient has received information regarding public |
19 | | health
services where she can obtain a breast examination |
20 | | and instructions.
|
21 | | (Source: P.A. 93-149, eff. 7-10-03; 94-104, eff. 7-1-05 .)
|
22 | | (420 ILCS 40/6) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 210-6)
|
23 | | (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2021)
|
24 | | Sec. 6. Accreditation of administrators of radiation; |
25 | | Limited scope
accreditation; Rules and regulations; Education. |
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1 | | (a) The Agency shall promulgate such rules and regulations |
2 | | as are
necessary to establish accreditation standards and |
3 | | procedures, including a
minimum course of education and |
4 | | continuing education requirements in the
administration of |
5 | | radiation to human beings, which are appropriate to the
|
6 | | classification of accreditation and which are to be met by all |
7 | | physician
assistants, advanced practice registered nurses, |
8 | | nurses,
technicians, or other assistants who administer |
9 | | radiation to human beings
under the supervision of a person |
10 | | licensed under the Medical Practice Act
of 1987. Such rules and |
11 | | regulations may provide for different classes of
accreditation |
12 | | based on evidence of national certification, clinical
|
13 | | experience or community hardship as conditions of initial and |
14 | | continuing
accreditation. The rules and regulations of the |
15 | | Agency shall be
consistent with national standards in regard to |
16 | | the protection of the
health and safety of the general public.
|
17 | | (b) The rules and regulations shall also provide that
|
18 | | persons who have been accredited by the Agency, in accordance |
19 | | with the
Radiation Protection Act, without passing an |
20 | | examination, will remain
accredited as provided in Section 43 |
21 | | of this Act and that those persons may
be accredited, without |
22 | | passing an examination, to use other equipment,
procedures, or |
23 | | supervision within the original category of accreditation if
|
24 | | the Agency receives written assurances from a person licensed |
25 | | under the
Medical Practice Act of 1987, that the person |
26 | | accredited has
the necessary
skill and qualifications for such |
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1 | | additional equipment procedures or
supervision. The Agency |
2 | | shall, in accordance with subsection (c) of
this Section, |
3 | | provide for the accreditation of nurses, technicians, or
other |
4 | | assistants, unless exempted elsewhere in this Act, to perform a
|
5 | | limited scope of diagnostic radiography procedures of the |
6 | | chest, the
extremities, skull and sinuses, or the spine, while |
7 | | under the
supervision of a person licensed under the Medical |
8 | | Practice Act of 1987.
|
9 | | (c) The rules or regulations promulgated by the Agency |
10 | | pursuant to
subsection (a) shall establish standards and |
11 | | procedures for accrediting
persons to perform a limited scope |
12 | | of diagnostic radiography procedures.
The rules or regulations |
13 | | shall require persons seeking limited scope
accreditation to |
14 | | register with the Agency as a "student-in-training,"
and |
15 | | declare those procedures in which the student will be receiving
|
16 | | training. The student-in-training registration shall be valid |
17 | | for a period
of 16 months, during which the time the student |
18 | | may, under the supervision
of a person licensed under the |
19 | | Medical Practice Act of 1987, perform the
diagnostic |
20 | | radiography procedures listed on the student's registration.
|
21 | | The student-in-training registration shall be nonrenewable.
|
22 | | Upon expiration of the 16 month training period, the |
23 | | student shall be
prohibited from performing diagnostic |
24 | | radiography procedures unless
accredited by the Agency to |
25 | | perform such procedures. In order to be
accredited to perform a |
26 | | limited scope of diagnostic radiography procedures,
an |
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1 | | individual must pass an examination offered by the Agency. The
|
2 | | examination shall be consistent with national standards in |
3 | | regard to
protection of public health and safety. The |
4 | | examination shall consist of a
standardized component covering |
5 | | general principles applicable to diagnostic
radiography |
6 | | procedures and a clinical component specific to the types of
|
7 | | procedures for which accreditation is being sought. The Agency |
8 | | may
assess a reasonable fee for such examinations to cover the |
9 | | costs incurred
by the Agency in conjunction with offering the |
10 | | examinations.
|
11 | | (d) The Agency shall by rule or regulation exempt from |
12 | | accreditation
physician assistants, advanced practice |
13 | | registered nurses, nurses, technicians, or
other assistants |
14 | | who
administer radiation to human
beings under supervision of a |
15 | | person licensed to practice under the Medical
Practice Act of |
16 | | 1987 when the services are performed on employees of a
business |
17 | | at a medical facility owned and operated by the business. Such
|
18 | | exemption shall only apply to the equipment, procedures and |
19 | | supervision
specific to the medical facility owned and operated |
20 | | by the business.
|
21 | | (Source: P.A. 94-104, eff. 7-1-05; 95-777, eff. 8-4-08 .)
|
22 | | Section 305. The Illinois Vehicle Code is amended by |
23 | | changing Sections 1-159.1, 3-609, 3-616, 6-103, 6-106.1, |
24 | | 6-106.1a, 6-901, 11-501.01, 11-501.2, 11-501.6, 11-501.8, |
25 | | 11-1301.2, and 11-1301.5 as follows:
|
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1 | | (625 ILCS 5/1-159.1) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 1-159.1)
|
2 | | Sec. 1-159.1. Person with disabilities. A natural person |
3 | | who, as determined by a licensed physician, by a licensed |
4 | | physician
assistant, or by a licensed advanced practice |
5 | | registered nurse: (1) cannot walk
without the use of, or
|
6 | | assistance from, a brace, cane, crutch, another person, |
7 | | prosthetic device,
wheelchair, or other assistive device; (2) |
8 | | is restricted by lung
disease to
such an extent that his or her |
9 | | forced (respiratory) expiratory volume for one
second, when |
10 | | measured by spirometry, is less than one liter, or the arterial
|
11 | | oxygen tension is less than 60 mm/hg on room air at rest; (3) |
12 | | uses
portable
oxygen; (4) has a cardiac condition to the extent |
13 | | that the person's
functional
limitations are classified in |
14 | | severity as Class III or Class IV,
according to standards set |
15 | | by the American Heart Association; (5) is
severely limited in |
16 | | the person's ability to walk due to an arthritic,
neurological, |
17 | | oncological, or orthopedic condition; (6) cannot walk 200 feet |
18 | | without
stopping to rest because of one of the above 5 |
19 | | conditions; or (7) is missing a hand or arm or has permanently |
20 | | lost the use of a hand or arm.
|
21 | | (Source: P.A. 98-405, eff. 1-1-14; 99-173, eff. 7-29-15.)
|
22 | | (625 ILCS 5/3-609) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 3-609)
|
23 | | Sec. 3-609. Plates for Veterans with Disabilities. |
24 | | (a) Any veteran who holds proof of a service-connected |
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1 | | disability from the United States Department of Veterans |
2 | | Affairs, and who has obtained certification from a licensed |
3 | | physician, physician assistant, or advanced practice |
4 | | registered nurse that the service-connected disability |
5 | | qualifies the veteran for issuance of registration plates or |
6 | | decals to a person with disabilities in accordance with Section |
7 | | 3-616, may, without the payment of any registration fee, make |
8 | | application to the Secretary of State for license plates for |
9 | | veterans with disabilities displaying the international symbol |
10 | | of access, for the registration of one motor vehicle of the |
11 | | first division or one motor vehicle of the second division |
12 | | weighing not more than 8,000 pounds. |
13 | | (b) Any veteran who holds proof of a service-connected |
14 | | disability from the United States Department of Veterans |
15 | | Affairs, and whose degree of disability has been declared to be |
16 | | 50% or more, but whose disability does not qualify the veteran |
17 | | for a plate or decal for persons with disabilities under |
18 | | Section 3-616, may, without the payment of any registration |
19 | | fee, make application to the Secretary for a special |
20 | | registration plate without the international symbol of access |
21 | | for the registration of one motor vehicle of the first division |
22 | | or one motor vehicle of the second division weighing not more |
23 | | than 8,000 pounds.
|
24 | | (c) Renewal of such registration must be accompanied with |
25 | | documentation
for eligibility of registration without fee |
26 | | unless the applicant has a
permanent qualifying disability, and |
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1 | | such registration plates may not be
issued to any person not |
2 | | eligible therefor. The Illinois Department of Veterans' |
3 | | Affairs may assist in providing the
documentation of |
4 | | disability.
|
5 | | (d) The design and color of the plates shall be within the |
6 | | discretion of the Secretary, except that the plates issued |
7 | | under subsection (b) of this Section shall not contain the |
8 | | international symbol of access. The Secretary may, in his or |
9 | | her discretion, allow the plates to be issued as vanity or |
10 | | personalized plates in accordance with Section 3-405.1 of this |
11 | | Code. Registration shall be for a multi-year period and may be |
12 | | issued staggered registration. |
13 | | (e) Any person eligible to receive license plates under |
14 | | this Section who has been approved for benefits under the |
15 | | Senior Citizens and Persons with Disabilities Property Tax |
16 | | Relief Act, or who has claimed and received a grant under that |
17 | | Act, shall pay a fee of $24 instead of the fee otherwise |
18 | | provided in this Code for passenger cars displaying standard |
19 | | multi-year registration plates issued under Section 3-414.1, |
20 | | for motor vehicles registered at 8,000 pounds or less under |
21 | | Section 3-815(a), or for recreational vehicles registered at |
22 | | 8,000 pounds or less under Section 3-815(b), for a second set |
23 | | of plates under this Section.
|
24 | | (Source: P.A. 98-463, eff. 8-16-13; 99-143, eff. 7-27-15.)
|
25 | | (625 ILCS 5/3-616) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 3-616)
|
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1 | | Sec. 3-616. Disability license plates.
|
2 | | (a) Upon receiving an application for a certificate of |
3 | | registration for
a motor vehicle of the first division or for a |
4 | | motor vehicle of the second
division weighing no more than |
5 | | 8,000 pounds, accompanied with payment of the
registration fees |
6 | | required under this Code from a person with disabilities or
a |
7 | | person who is deaf or hard of hearing, the Secretary of State,
|
8 | | if so requested, shall issue to such person registration plates |
9 | | as provided for
in Section 3-611, provided that the person with |
10 | | disabilities or person who is
deaf or hard of hearing must not |
11 | | be disqualified from obtaining a driver's
license under |
12 | | subsection 8 of Section 6-103 of this Code, and further |
13 | | provided
that any person making such a request must submit a |
14 | | statement, certified by
a
licensed physician, by a licensed |
15 | | physician assistant, or by a licensed
advanced practice |
16 | | registered nurse, to
the effect that such person is a person |
17 | | with disabilities
as defined by Section 1-159.1 of this Code, |
18 | | or alternatively provide adequate
documentation that such |
19 | | person has a Class 1A, Class 2A or Type Four
disability under |
20 | | the provisions of Section 4A of the Illinois Identification
|
21 | | Card Act. For purposes of this Section, an Illinois Person
with |
22 | | a Disability Identification Card issued pursuant to the |
23 | | Illinois Identification Card Act
indicating that the person |
24 | | thereon named has a disability shall be adequate
documentation |
25 | | of such a disability.
|
26 | | (b) The Secretary shall issue plates under this Section to |
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1 | | a parent or
legal guardian of a person with disabilities if the |
2 | | person with disabilities
has a Class 1A or Class 2A disability |
3 | | as defined in Section 4A of the Illinois
Identification Card |
4 | | Act or is a person with disabilities as defined by Section
|
5 | | 1-159.1 of this Code, and does not possess a vehicle registered |
6 | | in his or her
name, provided that the person with disabilities |
7 | | relies frequently on the
parent or legal guardian for |
8 | | transportation. Only one vehicle per family
may be registered |
9 | | under this subsection, unless the applicant can justify in
|
10 | | writing the need for one additional set of plates. Any person |
11 | | requesting
special plates under this subsection shall submit |
12 | | such documentation or such
physician's, physician assistant's, |
13 | | or advanced practice registered nurse's
statement as is |
14 | | required in subsection
(a) and a statement
describing the |
15 | | circumstances qualifying for issuance of special plates under
|
16 | | this subsection. An optometrist may certify a Class 2A Visual |
17 | | Disability, as defined in Section 4A of the Illinois |
18 | | Identification Card Act, for the purpose of qualifying a person |
19 | | with disabilities for special plates under this subsection.
|
20 | | (c) The Secretary may issue a
parking decal or
device to a |
21 | | person with disabilities as defined by Section 1-159.1 without
|
22 | | regard to qualification of such person with disabilities for a |
23 | | driver's license
or registration of a vehicle by such person |
24 | | with disabilities or such person's
immediate family, provided |
25 | | such person with disabilities making such a request
has been |
26 | | issued an Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card |
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1 | | indicating that the
person named thereon has a Class 1A or |
2 | | Class 2A disability, or alternatively,
submits a statement |
3 | | certified by a licensed physician, or by a licensed physician
|
4 | | assistant or a licensed advanced practice registered nurse as |
5 | | provided in subsection (a), to
the effect that such
person is a |
6 | | person with disabilities as defined by Section 1-159.1. An |
7 | | optometrist may certify a Class 2A Visual Disability as defined |
8 | | in Section 4A of the Illinois Identification Card Act for the |
9 | | purpose of qualifying a person with disabilities for a parking |
10 | | decal or device under this subsection.
|
11 | | (d) The Secretary shall prescribe by rules and regulations |
12 | | procedures
to certify or re-certify as necessary the |
13 | | eligibility of persons whose
disabilities are other than |
14 | | permanent for special plates or
parking decals or devices |
15 | | issued under subsections (a), (b)
and (c). Except as provided |
16 | | under subsection (f) of this Section, no
such special plates, |
17 | | decals or devices shall be issued by the Secretary of
State to |
18 | | or on behalf of any person with disabilities unless such person |
19 | | is
certified as meeting the definition of a person with |
20 | | disabilities pursuant to
Section 1-159.1 or meeting the |
21 | | requirement of a Type Four disability as
provided under Section |
22 | | 4A of the Illinois Identification Card Act for the
period of |
23 | | time that the physician, or the physician assistant or advanced
|
24 | | practice registered nurse as provided in
subsection (a), |
25 | | determines the applicant will have the
disability, but not to |
26 | | exceed 6 months from the date of certification or
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1 | | recertification.
|
2 | | (e) Any person requesting special plates under this Section |
3 | | may also apply
to have the special plates personalized, as |
4 | | provided under Section 3-405.1.
|
5 | | (f) The Secretary of State, upon application, shall issue |
6 | | disability registration plates or a parking decal to
|
7 | | corporations, school districts, State or municipal agencies, |
8 | | limited liability
companies, nursing homes, convalescent |
9 | | homes, or special education cooperatives
which will transport |
10 | | persons with disabilities. The Secretary shall prescribe
by |
11 | | rule a means to certify or re-certify the eligibility of |
12 | | organizations to
receive disability plates or decals and to |
13 | | designate which of the
2 person with disabilities emblems shall |
14 | | be placed on qualifying
vehicles.
|
15 | | (g) The Secretary of State, or his designee, may enter into
|
16 | | agreements with other jurisdictions, including foreign |
17 | | jurisdictions, on
behalf of this State relating to the |
18 | | extension of parking privileges by
such jurisdictions to |
19 | | residents of this State with disabilities who
display a special |
20 | | license plate or parking device that contains the
International |
21 | | symbol of access on his or her motor vehicle, and to
recognize |
22 | | such plates or devices issued by such other jurisdictions. This
|
23 | | State shall grant the same parking privileges which are granted |
24 | | to
residents of this State with disabilities to any |
25 | | non-resident whose motor vehicle is licensed
in another state, |
26 | | district, territory or foreign country if such vehicle
displays |
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1 | | the international symbol of access or a distinguishing insignia |
2 | | on
license plates or parking device issued in accordance with |
3 | | the laws of the
non-resident's state, district, territory or |
4 | | foreign country.
|
5 | | (Source: P.A. 99-143, eff. 7-27-15; 99-173, eff. 7-29-15; |
6 | | 99-642, eff. 7-28-16.)
|
7 | | (625 ILCS 5/6-103) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 6-103)
|
8 | | Sec. 6-103. What persons shall not be licensed as drivers |
9 | | or granted
permits. The Secretary of State shall not issue, |
10 | | renew, or
allow the retention of any driver's
license nor issue |
11 | | any permit under this Code:
|
12 | | 1. To any person, as a driver, who is under the age of |
13 | | 18 years except
as provided in Section 6-107, and except |
14 | | that an instruction permit may be
issued under Section |
15 | | 6-107.1 to a child who
is not less than 15 years of age if |
16 | | the child is enrolled in an approved
driver education |
17 | | course as defined in Section 1-103 of this Code and
|
18 | | requires an instruction permit to participate therein, |
19 | | except that an
instruction permit may be issued under the |
20 | | provisions of Section 6-107.1
to a child who is 17 years |
21 | | and 3 months of age without the child having
enrolled in an
|
22 | | approved driver education course and except that an
|
23 | | instruction permit may be issued to a child who is at least |
24 | | 15 years and 3
months of age, is enrolled in school, meets |
25 | | the educational requirements of
the Driver Education Act, |
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1 | | and has passed examinations the Secretary of State in
his |
2 | | or her discretion may prescribe;
|
3 | | 1.5. To any person at least 18 years of age but less |
4 | | than 21 years of age unless the person has, in addition to |
5 | | any other requirements of this Code, successfully |
6 | | completed an adult driver education course as provided in |
7 | | Section 6-107.5 of this Code; |
8 | | 2. To any person who is under the age of 18 as an |
9 | | operator of a motorcycle
other than a motor driven cycle |
10 | | unless the person has, in addition to
meeting the |
11 | | provisions of Section 6-107 of this Code, successfully
|
12 | | completed a motorcycle
training course approved by the |
13 | | Illinois Department of Transportation and
successfully |
14 | | completes the required Secretary of State's motorcycle |
15 | | driver's
examination;
|
16 | | 3. To any person, as a driver, whose driver's license |
17 | | or permit has been
suspended, during the suspension, nor to |
18 | | any person whose driver's license or
permit has been |
19 | | revoked, except as provided in Sections 6-205, 6-206, and
|
20 | | 6-208;
|
21 | | 4. To any person, as a driver, who is a user of alcohol |
22 | | or any other
drug to a degree that renders the person |
23 | | incapable of safely driving a motor
vehicle;
|
24 | | 5. To any person, as a driver, who has previously been |
25 | | adjudged to be
afflicted with or suffering from any mental |
26 | | or physical disability or disease
and who has not at the |
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1 | | time of application been restored to competency by the
|
2 | | methods provided by law;
|
3 | | 6. To any person, as a driver, who is required by the |
4 | | Secretary of State
to submit an alcohol and drug evaluation |
5 | | or take an examination provided
for in this Code unless the |
6 | | person has
successfully passed the examination and |
7 | | submitted any required evaluation;
|
8 | | 7. To any person who is required under the provisions |
9 | | of the laws of
this State to deposit security or proof of |
10 | | financial responsibility and who
has not deposited the |
11 | | security or proof;
|
12 | | 8. To any person when the Secretary of State has good |
13 | | cause to believe
that the person by reason of physical or |
14 | | mental disability would not be
able to safely operate a |
15 | | motor vehicle upon the highways, unless the
person shall |
16 | | furnish to the Secretary of State a verified written
|
17 | | statement, acceptable to the Secretary of State, from a |
18 | | competent medical
specialist, a licensed physician |
19 | | assistant, or a licensed advanced practice registered |
20 | | nurse, to the effect that the operation of a motor vehicle |
21 | | by the
person would not be inimical to the public safety;
|
22 | | 9. To any person, as a driver, who is 69 years of age |
23 | | or older, unless
the person has successfully complied with |
24 | | the provisions of Section 6-109;
|
25 | | 10. To any person convicted, within 12 months of |
26 | | application for a
license, of any of the sexual offenses |
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1 | | enumerated in paragraph 2 of subsection
(b) of Section |
2 | | 6-205;
|
3 | | 11. To any person who is under the age of 21 years with |
4 | | a classification
prohibited in paragraph (b) of Section |
5 | | 6-104 and to any person who is under
the age of 18 years |
6 | | with a classification prohibited in paragraph (c) of
|
7 | | Section 6-104;
|
8 | | 12. To any person who has been either convicted of or |
9 | | adjudicated under
the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 based upon |
10 | | a violation of the Cannabis Control
Act, the Illinois |
11 | | Controlled Substances Act, or the Methamphetamine Control |
12 | | and Community Protection Act while that person was in |
13 | | actual
physical control of a motor vehicle. For purposes of |
14 | | this Section, any person
placed on probation under Section |
15 | | 10 of the Cannabis Control Act, Section 410
of the Illinois |
16 | | Controlled Substances Act, or Section 70 of the |
17 | | Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act shall |
18 | | not be considered convicted.
Any person found guilty of |
19 | | this offense, while in actual physical control of a
motor |
20 | | vehicle, shall have an entry made in the court record by |
21 | | the judge that
this offense did occur while the person was |
22 | | in actual physical control of a
motor vehicle and order the |
23 | | clerk of the court to report the violation to the
Secretary |
24 | | of State as such. The Secretary of State shall not issue a |
25 | | new
license or permit for a period of one year;
|
26 | | 13. To any person who is under the age of 18 years and |
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1 | | who has committed
the offense
of operating a motor vehicle |
2 | | without a valid license or permit in violation of
Section |
3 | | 6-101 or a similar out of state offense;
|
4 | | 14. To any person who is
90 days or more
delinquent in |
5 | | court ordered child support
payments or has been |
6 | | adjudicated in arrears
in an amount equal to 90 days' |
7 | | obligation or more
and who has been found in contempt
of
|
8 | | court for failure to pay the support, subject to the |
9 | | requirements and
procedures of Article VII of Chapter 7 of
|
10 | | the Illinois Vehicle Code;
|
11 | | 14.5. To any person certified by the Illinois |
12 | | Department of Healthcare and Family Services as being 90 |
13 | | days or more delinquent in payment of support under an |
14 | | order of support entered by a court or administrative body |
15 | | of this or any other State, subject to the requirements and |
16 | | procedures of Article VII of Chapter 7 of this Code |
17 | | regarding those certifications;
|
18 | | 15. To any person released from a term of imprisonment |
19 | | for violating
Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or |
20 | | the Criminal Code of 2012, or a similar provision of a law |
21 | | of another state relating to reckless homicide or for |
22 | | violating subparagraph (F) of paragraph (1) of subsection |
23 | | (d) of Section 11-501 of this Code relating to aggravated |
24 | | driving under the influence of alcohol, other drug or |
25 | | drugs, intoxicating compound or compounds, or any |
26 | | combination thereof, if the violation was the proximate |
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1 | | cause of a death, within
24 months of release from a term |
2 | | of imprisonment;
|
3 | | 16. To any person who, with intent to influence any act |
4 | | related to the issuance of any driver's license or permit, |
5 | | by an employee of the Secretary of State's Office, or the |
6 | | owner or employee of any commercial driver training school |
7 | | licensed by the Secretary of State, or any other individual |
8 | | authorized by the laws of this State to give driving |
9 | | instructions or administer all or part of a driver's |
10 | | license examination, promises or tenders to that person any |
11 | | property or personal advantage which that person is not |
12 | | authorized by law to accept. Any persons promising or |
13 | | tendering such property or personal advantage shall be |
14 | | disqualified from holding any class of driver's license or |
15 | | permit for 120 consecutive days. The Secretary of State |
16 | | shall establish by rule the procedures for implementing |
17 | | this period of disqualification and the procedures by which |
18 | | persons so disqualified may obtain administrative review |
19 | | of the decision to disqualify;
|
20 | | 17. To any person for whom the Secretary of State |
21 | | cannot verify the
accuracy of any information or |
22 | | documentation submitted in application for a
driver's |
23 | | license;
|
24 | | 18. To any person who has been adjudicated under the |
25 | | Juvenile Court Act of 1987 based upon an offense that is |
26 | | determined by the court to have been committed in |
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1 | | furtherance of the criminal activities of an organized |
2 | | gang, as provided in Section 5-710 of that Act, and that |
3 | | involved the operation or use of a motor vehicle or the use |
4 | | of a driver's license or permit. The person shall be denied |
5 | | a license or permit for the period determined by the court; |
6 | | or
|
7 | | 19. Beginning July 1, 2017, to any person who has been |
8 | | issued an identification card under the Illinois |
9 | | Identification Card Act. Any such person may, at his or her |
10 | | discretion, surrender the identification card in order to |
11 | | become eligible to obtain a driver's license. |
12 | | The Secretary of State shall retain all conviction
|
13 | | information, if the information is required to be held |
14 | | confidential under
the Juvenile Court Act of 1987. |
15 | | (Source: P.A. 98-167, eff. 7-1-14; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14; |
16 | | 99-173, eff. 7-29-15; 99-511, eff. 1-1-17 .)
|
17 | | (625 ILCS 5/6-106.1) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 6-106.1)
|
18 | | Sec. 6-106.1. School bus driver permit.
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19 | | (a) The Secretary of State shall issue a school bus driver
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20 | | permit to those applicants who have met all the requirements of |
21 | | the
application and screening process under this Section to |
22 | | insure the
welfare and safety of children who are transported |
23 | | on school buses
throughout the State of Illinois. Applicants |
24 | | shall obtain the
proper application required by the Secretary |
25 | | of State from their
prospective or current employer and submit |
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1 | | the completed
application to the prospective or current |
2 | | employer along
with the necessary fingerprint submission as |
3 | | required by the
Department of
State Police to conduct |
4 | | fingerprint based criminal background
checks on current and |
5 | | future information available in the state
system and current |
6 | | information available through the Federal Bureau
of |
7 | | Investigation's system. Applicants who have completed the
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8 | | fingerprinting requirements shall not be subjected to the
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9 | | fingerprinting process when applying for subsequent permits or
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10 | | submitting proof of successful completion of the annual |
11 | | refresher
course. Individuals who on July 1, 1995 (the |
12 | | effective date of Public Act 88-612) possess a valid
school bus |
13 | | driver permit that has been previously issued by the |
14 | | appropriate
Regional School Superintendent are not subject to |
15 | | the fingerprinting
provisions of this Section as long as the |
16 | | permit remains valid and does not
lapse. The applicant shall be |
17 | | required to pay all related
application and fingerprinting fees |
18 | | as established by rule
including, but not limited to, the |
19 | | amounts established by the Department of
State Police and the |
20 | | Federal Bureau of Investigation to process
fingerprint based |
21 | | criminal background investigations. All fees paid for
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22 | | fingerprint processing services under this Section shall be |
23 | | deposited into the
State Police Services Fund for the cost |
24 | | incurred in processing the fingerprint
based criminal |
25 | | background investigations. All other fees paid under this
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26 | | Section shall be deposited into the Road
Fund for the purpose |
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1 | | of defraying the costs of the Secretary of State in
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2 | | administering this Section. All applicants must:
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3 | | 1. be 21 years of age or older;
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4 | | 2. possess a valid and properly classified driver's |
5 | | license
issued by the Secretary of State;
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6 | | 3. possess a valid driver's license, which has not been
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7 | | revoked, suspended, or canceled for 3 years immediately |
8 | | prior to
the date of application, or have not had his or |
9 | | her commercial motor vehicle
driving privileges
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10 | | disqualified within the 3 years immediately prior to the |
11 | | date of application;
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12 | | 4. successfully pass a written test, administered by |
13 | | the
Secretary of State, on school bus operation, school bus |
14 | | safety, and
special traffic laws relating to school buses |
15 | | and submit to a review
of the applicant's driving habits by |
16 | | the Secretary of State at the time the
written test is |
17 | | given;
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18 | | 5. demonstrate ability to exercise reasonable care in |
19 | | the operation of
school buses in accordance with rules |
20 | | promulgated by the Secretary of State;
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21 | | 6. demonstrate physical fitness to operate school |
22 | | buses by
submitting the results of a medical examination, |
23 | | including tests for drug
use for each applicant not subject |
24 | | to such testing pursuant to
federal law, conducted by a |
25 | | licensed physician, a licensed advanced practice |
26 | | registered nurse, or a licensed physician assistant
within |
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1 | | 90 days of the date
of application according to standards |
2 | | promulgated by the Secretary of State;
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3 | | 7. affirm under penalties of perjury that he or she has |
4 | | not made a
false statement or knowingly concealed a |
5 | | material fact
in any application for permit;
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6 | | 8. have completed an initial classroom course, |
7 | | including first aid
procedures, in school bus driver safety |
8 | | as promulgated by the Secretary of
State; and after |
9 | | satisfactory completion of said initial course an annual
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10 | | refresher course; such courses and the agency or |
11 | | organization conducting such
courses shall be approved by |
12 | | the Secretary of State; failure to
complete the annual |
13 | | refresher course, shall result in
cancellation of the |
14 | | permit until such course is completed;
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15 | | 9. not have been under an order of court supervision |
16 | | for or convicted of 2 or more serious traffic offenses, as
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17 | | defined by rule, within one year prior to the date of |
18 | | application that may
endanger the life or safety of any of |
19 | | the driver's passengers within the
duration of the permit |
20 | | period;
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21 | | 10. not have been under an order of court supervision |
22 | | for or convicted of reckless driving, aggravated reckless |
23 | | driving, driving while under the influence of alcohol, |
24 | | other drug or drugs, intoxicating compound or compounds or |
25 | | any combination thereof, or reckless homicide resulting |
26 | | from the operation of a motor
vehicle within 3 years of the |
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1 | | date of application;
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2 | | 11. not have been convicted of committing or attempting
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3 | | to commit any
one or more of the following offenses: (i) |
4 | | those offenses defined in
Sections 8-1.2, 9-1, 9-1.2, 9-2, |
5 | | 9-2.1, 9-3, 9-3.2, 9-3.3, 10-1, 10-2, 10-3.1,
10-4,
10-5, |
6 | | 10-5.1, 10-6, 10-7, 10-9, 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, |
7 | | 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 11-6, 11-6.5, 11-6.6,
11-9, 11-9.1, |
8 | | 11-9.3, 11-9.4, 11-14, 11-14.1, 11-14.3, 11-14.4, 11-15, |
9 | | 11-15.1, 11-16, 11-17, 11-17.1, 11-18, 11-18.1, 11-19, |
10 | | 11-19.1,
11-19.2,
11-20, 11-20.1, 11-20.1B, 11-20.3, |
11 | | 11-21, 11-22, 11-23, 11-24, 11-25, 11-26, 11-30, 12-2.6, |
12 | | 12-3.1, 12-4, 12-4.1, 12-4.2, 12-4.2-5, 12-4.3, 12-4.4,
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13 | | 12-4.5, 12-4.6, 12-4.7, 12-4.9,
12-5.01, 12-6, 12-6.2, |
14 | | 12-7.1, 12-7.3, 12-7.4, 12-7.5, 12-11,
12-13, 12-14, |
15 | | 12-14.1, 12-15, 12-16, 12-16.2, 12-21.5, 12-21.6, 12-33, |
16 | | 12C-5, 12C-10, 12C-20, 12C-30, 12C-45, 16-16, 16-16.1,
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17 | | 18-1,
18-2,
18-3, 18-4, 18-5, 19-6,
20-1, 20-1.1, 20-1.2, |
18 | | 20-1.3, 20-2, 24-1, 24-1.1, 24-1.2, 24-1.2-5, 24-1.6, |
19 | | 24-1.7, 24-2.1, 24-3.3, 24-3.5, 24-3.8, 24-3.9, 31A-1, |
20 | | 31A-1.1,
33A-2, and 33D-1, and in subsection (b) of Section |
21 | | 8-1, and in subdivisions (a)(1), (a)(2), (b)(1), (e)(1), |
22 | | (e)(2), (e)(3), (e)(4), and (f)(1) of Section 12-3.05, and |
23 | | in subsection (a) and subsection (b), clause (1), of |
24 | | Section
12-4, and in subsection (A), clauses (a) and (b), |
25 | | of Section 24-3, and those offenses contained in Article |
26 | | 29D of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of |
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1 | | 2012; (ii) those offenses defined in the
Cannabis Control |
2 | | Act except those offenses defined in subsections (a) and
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3 | | (b) of Section 4, and subsection (a) of Section 5 of the |
4 | | Cannabis Control
Act; (iii) those offenses defined in the |
5 | | Illinois Controlled Substances
Act; (iv) those offenses |
6 | | defined in the Methamphetamine Control and Community |
7 | | Protection Act; (v) any offense committed or attempted in |
8 | | any other state or against
the laws of the United States, |
9 | | which if committed or attempted in this
State would be |
10 | | punishable as one or more of the foregoing offenses; (vi)
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11 | | the offenses defined in Section 4.1 and 5.1 of the Wrongs |
12 | | to Children Act or Section 11-9.1A of the Criminal Code of |
13 | | 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012; (vii) those offenses |
14 | | defined in Section 6-16 of the Liquor Control Act of
1934;
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15 | | and (viii) those offenses defined in the Methamphetamine |
16 | | Precursor Control Act;
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17 | | 12. not have been repeatedly involved as a driver in |
18 | | motor vehicle
collisions or been repeatedly convicted of |
19 | | offenses against
laws and ordinances regulating the |
20 | | movement of traffic, to a degree which
indicates lack of |
21 | | ability to exercise ordinary and reasonable care in the
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22 | | safe operation of a motor vehicle or disrespect for the |
23 | | traffic laws and
the safety of other persons upon the |
24 | | highway;
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25 | | 13. not have, through the unlawful operation of a motor
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26 | | vehicle, caused an accident resulting in the death of any |
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1 | | person;
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2 | | 14. not have, within the last 5 years, been adjudged to |
3 | | be
afflicted with or suffering from any mental disability |
4 | | or disease; and
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5 | | 15. consent, in writing, to the release of results of |
6 | | reasonable suspicion drug and alcohol testing under |
7 | | Section 6-106.1c of this Code by the employer of the |
8 | | applicant to the Secretary of State. |
9 | | (b) A school bus driver permit shall be valid for a period |
10 | | specified by
the Secretary of State as set forth by rule. It |
11 | | shall be renewable upon compliance with subsection (a) of this
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12 | | Section.
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13 | | (c) A school bus driver permit shall contain the holder's |
14 | | driver's
license number, legal name, residence address, zip |
15 | | code, and date
of birth, a brief description of the holder and |
16 | | a space for signature. The
Secretary of State may require a |
17 | | suitable photograph of the holder.
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18 | | (d) The employer shall be responsible for conducting a |
19 | | pre-employment
interview with prospective school bus driver |
20 | | candidates, distributing school
bus driver applications and |
21 | | medical forms to be completed by the applicant, and
submitting |
22 | | the applicant's fingerprint cards to the Department of State |
23 | | Police
that are required for the criminal background |
24 | | investigations. The employer
shall certify in writing to the |
25 | | Secretary of State that all pre-employment
conditions have been |
26 | | successfully completed including the successful completion
of |
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1 | | an Illinois specific criminal background investigation through |
2 | | the
Department of State Police and the submission of necessary
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3 | | fingerprints to the Federal Bureau of Investigation for |
4 | | criminal
history information available through the Federal |
5 | | Bureau of
Investigation system. The applicant shall present the
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6 | | certification to the Secretary of State at the time of |
7 | | submitting
the school bus driver permit application.
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8 | | (e) Permits shall initially be provisional upon receiving
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9 | | certification from the employer that all pre-employment |
10 | | conditions
have been successfully completed, and upon |
11 | | successful completion of
all training and examination |
12 | | requirements for the classification of
the vehicle to be |
13 | | operated, the Secretary of State shall
provisionally issue a |
14 | | School Bus Driver Permit. The permit shall
remain in a |
15 | | provisional status pending the completion of the
Federal Bureau |
16 | | of Investigation's criminal background investigation based
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17 | | upon fingerprinting specimens submitted to the Federal Bureau |
18 | | of
Investigation by the Department of State Police. The Federal |
19 | | Bureau of
Investigation shall report the findings directly to |
20 | | the Secretary
of State. The Secretary of State shall remove the |
21 | | bus driver
permit from provisional status upon the applicant's |
22 | | successful
completion of the Federal Bureau of Investigation's |
23 | | criminal
background investigation.
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24 | | (f) A school bus driver permit holder shall notify the
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25 | | employer and the Secretary of State if he or she is issued an |
26 | | order of court supervision for or convicted in
another state of |
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1 | | an offense that would make him or her ineligible
for a permit |
2 | | under subsection (a) of this Section. The
written notification |
3 | | shall be made within 5 days of the entry of
the order of court |
4 | | supervision or conviction. Failure of the permit holder to |
5 | | provide the
notification is punishable as a petty
offense for a |
6 | | first violation and a Class B misdemeanor for a
second or |
7 | | subsequent violation.
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8 | | (g) Cancellation; suspension; notice and procedure.
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9 | | (1) The Secretary of State shall cancel a school bus
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10 | | driver permit of an applicant whose criminal background |
11 | | investigation
discloses that he or she is not in compliance |
12 | | with the provisions of subsection
(a) of this Section.
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13 | | (2) The Secretary of State shall cancel a school
bus |
14 | | driver permit when he or she receives notice that the |
15 | | permit holder fails
to comply with any provision of this |
16 | | Section or any rule promulgated for the
administration of |
17 | | this Section.
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18 | | (3) The Secretary of State shall cancel a school bus
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19 | | driver permit if the permit holder's restricted commercial |
20 | | or
commercial driving privileges are withdrawn or |
21 | | otherwise
invalidated.
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22 | | (4) The Secretary of State may not issue a school bus
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23 | | driver permit for a period of 3 years to an applicant who |
24 | | fails to
obtain a negative result on a drug test as |
25 | | required in item 6 of
subsection (a) of this Section or |
26 | | under federal law.
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1 | | (5) The Secretary of State shall forthwith suspend
a |
2 | | school bus driver permit for a period of 3 years upon |
3 | | receiving
notice that the holder has failed to obtain a |
4 | | negative result on a
drug test as required in item 6 of |
5 | | subsection (a) of this Section
or under federal law.
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6 | | (6) The Secretary of State shall suspend a school bus |
7 | | driver permit for a period of 3 years upon receiving notice |
8 | | from the employer that the holder failed to perform the |
9 | | inspection procedure set forth in subsection (a) or (b) of |
10 | | Section 12-816 of this Code. |
11 | | (7) The Secretary of State shall suspend a school bus |
12 | | driver permit for a period of 3 years upon receiving notice |
13 | | from the employer that the holder refused to submit to an |
14 | | alcohol or drug test as required by Section 6-106.1c or has |
15 | | submitted to a test required by that Section which |
16 | | disclosed an alcohol concentration of more than 0.00 or |
17 | | disclosed a positive result on a National Institute on Drug |
18 | | Abuse five-drug panel, utilizing federal standards set |
19 | | forth in 49 CFR 40.87. |
20 | | The Secretary of State shall notify the State |
21 | | Superintendent
of Education and the permit holder's |
22 | | prospective or current
employer that the applicant has (1) has |
23 | | failed a criminal
background investigation or (2) is no
longer |
24 | | eligible for a school bus driver permit; and of the related
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25 | | cancellation of the applicant's provisional school bus driver |
26 | | permit. The
cancellation shall remain in effect pending the |
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1 | | outcome of a
hearing pursuant to Section 2-118 of this Code. |
2 | | The scope of the
hearing shall be limited to the issuance |
3 | | criteria contained in
subsection (a) of this Section. A |
4 | | petition requesting a
hearing shall be submitted to the |
5 | | Secretary of State and shall
contain the reason the individual |
6 | | feels he or she is entitled to a
school bus driver permit. The |
7 | | permit holder's
employer shall notify in writing to the |
8 | | Secretary of State
that the employer has certified the removal |
9 | | of the offending school
bus driver from service prior to the |
10 | | start of that school bus
driver's next workshift. An employing |
11 | | school board that fails to
remove the offending school bus |
12 | | driver from service is
subject to the penalties defined in |
13 | | Section 3-14.23 of the School Code. A
school bus
contractor who |
14 | | violates a provision of this Section is
subject to the |
15 | | penalties defined in Section 6-106.11.
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16 | | All valid school bus driver permits issued under this |
17 | | Section
prior to January 1, 1995, shall remain effective until |
18 | | their
expiration date unless otherwise invalidated.
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19 | | (h) When a school bus driver permit holder who is a service |
20 | | member is called to active duty, the employer of the permit |
21 | | holder shall notify the Secretary of State, within 30 days of |
22 | | notification from the permit holder, that the permit holder has |
23 | | been called to active duty. Upon notification pursuant to this |
24 | | subsection, (i) the Secretary of State shall characterize the |
25 | | permit as inactive until a permit holder renews the permit as |
26 | | provided in subsection (i) of this Section, and (ii) if a |
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1 | | permit holder fails to comply with the requirements of this |
2 | | Section while called to active duty, the Secretary of State |
3 | | shall not characterize the permit as invalid. |
4 | | (i) A school bus driver permit holder who is a service |
5 | | member returning from active duty must, within 90 days, renew a |
6 | | permit characterized as inactive pursuant to subsection (h) of |
7 | | this Section by complying with the renewal requirements of |
8 | | subsection (b) of this Section. |
9 | | (j) For purposes of subsections (h) and (i) of this |
10 | | Section: |
11 | | "Active duty" means active duty pursuant to an executive |
12 | | order of the President of the United States, an act of the |
13 | | Congress of the United States, or an order of the Governor. |
14 | | "Service member" means a member of the Armed Services or |
15 | | reserve forces of the United States or a member of the Illinois |
16 | | National Guard. |
17 | | (k) A private carrier employer of a school bus driver |
18 | | permit holder, having satisfied the employer requirements of |
19 | | this Section, shall be held to a standard of ordinary care for |
20 | | intentional acts committed in the course of employment by the |
21 | | bus driver permit holder. This subsection (k) shall in no way |
22 | | limit the liability of the private carrier employer for |
23 | | violation of any provision of this Section or for the negligent |
24 | | hiring or retention of a school bus driver permit holder. |
25 | | (Source: P.A. 99-148, eff. 1-1-16; 99-173, eff. 7-29-15; |
26 | | 99-642, eff. 7-28-16.)
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1 | | (625 ILCS 5/6-106.1a)
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2 | | Sec. 6-106.1a. Cancellation of school bus driver permit; |
3 | | trace of alcohol.
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4 | | (a) A person who has been issued a school bus driver permit |
5 | | by the Secretary
of State in accordance with Section 6-106.1 of |
6 | | this Code and who drives or is
in actual physical control of a |
7 | | school bus
or any other vehicle owned or operated by or for a |
8 | | public or private
school, or a school operated by a religious |
9 | | institution, when the vehicle is
being used over a regularly |
10 | | scheduled route for the transportation of persons
enrolled as |
11 | | students in grade 12 or below, in connection with any activity |
12 | | of
the entities listed, upon the public highways of this State |
13 | | shall be
deemed to have given consent to a chemical test or |
14 | | tests of blood, breath, other bodily substance, or
urine for |
15 | | the purpose of determining the alcohol content of the person's |
16 | | blood
if arrested, as evidenced
by the issuance of a Uniform |
17 | | Traffic Ticket for any violation of this
Code or a similar |
18 | | provision of a local ordinance, if a police officer
has |
19 | | probable cause to believe that the driver has consumed any |
20 | | amount of an
alcoholic beverage based upon evidence of the |
21 | | driver's physical condition
or other first hand knowledge of |
22 | | the police officer. The test or tests shall
be administered at |
23 | | the direction of the arresting officer. The law enforcement
|
24 | | agency employing the officer shall designate which of the |
25 | | aforesaid tests shall
be administered. A urine or other bodily |
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1 | | substance test may be administered even after a blood or breath
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2 | | test or both has been administered.
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3 | | (b) A person who is dead, unconscious, or who is otherwise |
4 | | in a condition
rendering that person incapable of refusal, |
5 | | shall be deemed not to have
withdrawn the consent provided by |
6 | | paragraph (a) of this Section and the test or
tests may be |
7 | | administered subject to the following provisions:
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8 | | (1) Chemical analysis of the person's blood, urine, |
9 | | breath, or
other bodily substance,
to be considered valid |
10 | | under the provisions of this Section, shall have been
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11 | | performed according to standards promulgated by the |
12 | | Department of State Police by an
individual
possessing a |
13 | | valid permit issued by the Department of State Police for |
14 | | this
purpose. The
Director of State Police is authorized to |
15 | | approve satisfactory techniques
or
methods, to ascertain |
16 | | the qualifications and competence of individuals to
|
17 | | conduct analyses, to issue
permits that shall be subject to |
18 | | termination or revocation at the direction of
the |
19 | | Department of State Police, and to certify the
accuracy of |
20 | | breath testing
equipment. The
Department of State Police |
21 | | shall prescribe rules as
necessary.
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22 | | (2) When a person submits to a blood test at the |
23 | | request of a law
enforcement officer under the provisions |
24 | | of this Section, only a physician
authorized to practice |
25 | | medicine, a licensed physician assistant, a licensed |
26 | | advanced practice registered nurse, a registered nurse, or |
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1 | | other qualified person
trained in venipuncture and acting |
2 | | under the direction of a licensed physician
may withdraw |
3 | | blood for the purpose of determining the alcohol content.
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4 | | This limitation does not apply to the taking of breath, |
5 | | other bodily substance, or urine specimens.
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6 | | (3) The person tested may have a physician, qualified |
7 | | technician, chemist,
registered nurse, or other qualified |
8 | | person of his or her own choosing
administer a chemical |
9 | | test or tests in addition to any test or tests
administered |
10 | | at the direction of a law enforcement officer. The test
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11 | | administered at the request of the person may be admissible |
12 | | into evidence at a
hearing conducted in accordance with |
13 | | Section 2-118 of this Code. The failure
or inability to |
14 | | obtain an additional test by a person shall not preclude |
15 | | the
consideration of the previously performed chemical |
16 | | test.
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17 | | (4) Upon a request of the person who submits to a |
18 | | chemical test or tests
at the request of a law enforcement |
19 | | officer, full information concerning the
test or tests |
20 | | shall be made available to the person or that person's
|
21 | | attorney by the requesting law enforcement agency within 72 |
22 | | hours of receipt of
the test result.
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23 | | (5) Alcohol concentration means either grams of |
24 | | alcohol per 100
milliliters of blood or grams of alcohol |
25 | | per 210 liters of breath.
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26 | | (6) If a driver is receiving medical treatment as a |
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1 | | result of a motor
vehicle accident, a physician licensed to |
2 | | practice medicine, licensed physician assistant, licensed |
3 | | advanced practice registered nurse, registered nurse,
or |
4 | | other qualified person trained in venipuncture and acting |
5 | | under the
direction of a
licensed physician shall withdraw |
6 | | blood for testing purposes to ascertain the
presence of |
7 | | alcohol upon the specific request of a law enforcement |
8 | | officer.
However, that testing shall not be performed |
9 | | until, in the opinion of the
medical personnel on scene, |
10 | | the withdrawal can be made without interfering with
or |
11 | | endangering the well-being of the patient.
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12 | | (c) A person requested to submit to a test as provided in |
13 | | this Section shall
be warned
by the law enforcement officer |
14 | | requesting the test that a refusal to submit to
the test, or
|
15 | | submission to the test resulting in an alcohol concentration of |
16 | | more than 0.00,
may result
in the loss of that person's |
17 | | privilege to possess a school bus driver
permit. The loss of |
18 | | the individual's privilege to possess a school bus driver
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19 | | permit shall be imposed in accordance with Section 6-106.1b of |
20 | | this Code. A person requested to submit to a test under this |
21 | | Section shall also acknowledge, in writing, receipt of the |
22 | | warning required under this subsection (c). If the person |
23 | | refuses to acknowledge receipt of the warning, the law |
24 | | enforcement officer shall make a written notation on the |
25 | | warning that the person refused to sign the warning. A person's |
26 | | refusal to sign the warning shall not be evidence that the |
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1 | | person was not read the warning.
|
2 | | (d) If the person refuses testing or submits to a test that |
3 | | discloses an
alcohol concentration of more than 0.00, the law |
4 | | enforcement officer shall
immediately submit a sworn report to |
5 | | the Secretary of State on a form
prescribed by the Secretary of |
6 | | State certifying that the test or tests were
requested under |
7 | | subsection (a) and the person refused to submit to a test or
|
8 | | tests or submitted to testing which disclosed an alcohol |
9 | | concentration of more
than 0.00. The law enforcement officer |
10 | | shall submit the same sworn report when
a person who has been |
11 | | issued a school bus driver permit and who was operating a
|
12 | | school bus or any other vehicle owned
or operated by or for a |
13 | | public or private school, or a school operated by a
religious |
14 | | institution, when the vehicle is being used over a regularly
|
15 | | scheduled route for the transportation of persons enrolled as |
16 | | students in grade
12 or below, in connection with
any activity |
17 | | of the entities listed, submits to testing under Section |
18 | | 11-501.1
of this Code and the testing discloses an alcohol |
19 | | concentration of more than
0.00 and less than the alcohol |
20 | | concentration at which driving or being in
actual physical |
21 | | control of a motor vehicle is prohibited under paragraph (1) of
|
22 | | subsection (a) of Section 11-501.
|
23 | | Upon receipt of the sworn report of a law enforcement |
24 | | officer, the Secretary
of State shall enter the school bus |
25 | | driver permit sanction on the
individual's driving record and |
26 | | the sanction shall be effective on the
46th day following the |
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1 | | date notice of the sanction was given to the person.
|
2 | | The law enforcement officer submitting the sworn report |
3 | | shall serve immediate
notice of this school bus driver permit |
4 | | sanction on the person and the sanction
shall be effective on |
5 | | the 46th day following the date notice was given.
|
6 | | In cases where the blood alcohol concentration of more than |
7 | | 0.00 is
established by a subsequent analysis of blood, other |
8 | | bodily substance, or urine, the police officer or
arresting |
9 | | agency shall give notice as provided in this Section or by |
10 | | deposit in
the United States mail of that notice in an envelope |
11 | | with postage prepaid and
addressed to that person at his or her |
12 | | last known address and the loss of the
school
bus driver permit |
13 | | shall be effective on the 46th day following the date notice
|
14 | | was given.
|
15 | | Upon receipt of the sworn report of a law enforcement |
16 | | officer, the Secretary
of State shall also give notice of the |
17 | | school bus driver permit sanction to the
driver and the |
18 | | driver's current employer by mailing a notice of the effective
|
19 | | date of the sanction to the individual. However, shall the |
20 | | sworn report be
defective by not containing sufficient |
21 | | information or be completed in error,
the notice of the school |
22 | | bus driver permit sanction may not be mailed to the
person or |
23 | | his current employer or entered to the driving record,
but |
24 | | rather the sworn report shall be returned to the issuing law |
25 | | enforcement
agency.
|
26 | | (e) A driver may contest this school bus driver permit |
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1 | | sanction by
requesting an administrative hearing with the |
2 | | Secretary of State in accordance
with Section 2-118 of this |
3 | | Code. An individual whose blood alcohol
concentration is shown |
4 | | to be more than 0.00 is not subject to this Section if
he or she |
5 | | consumed alcohol in the performance of a religious service or
|
6 | | ceremony. An individual whose blood alcohol concentration is |
7 | | shown to be more
than 0.00 shall not be subject to this Section |
8 | | if the individual's blood
alcohol concentration resulted only |
9 | | from ingestion of the prescribed or
recommended dosage of |
10 | | medicine that contained alcohol. The petition for that
hearing |
11 | | shall not stay or delay the effective date of the impending |
12 | | suspension.
The scope of this hearing shall be limited to the |
13 | | issues of:
|
14 | | (1) whether the police officer had probable cause to |
15 | | believe that the
person was driving or in actual physical |
16 | | control of a school bus
or any other vehicle owned or |
17 | | operated by or for a
public or private school, or a
school |
18 | | operated by a religious institution, when the vehicle is |
19 | | being used
over a regularly scheduled route for the |
20 | | transportation of persons enrolled as
students in grade 12 |
21 | | or below, in connection with any activity of the entities
|
22 | | listed, upon the public highways of the State and the |
23 | | police officer had reason
to believe that the person was in |
24 | | violation of any provision of this
Code or a similar |
25 | | provision of a local ordinance; and
|
26 | | (2) whether the person was issued a Uniform Traffic |
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1 | | Ticket for any
violation of this Code or a similar |
2 | | provision of a local
ordinance; and
|
3 | | (3) whether the police officer had probable cause to |
4 | | believe that the
driver had
consumed any amount of an |
5 | | alcoholic beverage based upon the driver's
physical |
6 | | actions or other first-hand knowledge of the police |
7 | | officer; and
|
8 | | (4) whether the person, after being advised by the |
9 | | officer that the
privilege to possess a school bus driver |
10 | | permit would be canceled if the person
refused to submit to |
11 | | and complete the test or tests, did refuse to submit to or
|
12 | | complete the test or tests to determine the person's |
13 | | alcohol concentration; and
|
14 | | (5) whether the person, after being advised by the |
15 | | officer that the
privileges to possess a school bus driver |
16 | | permit would be canceled if the
person submits to a |
17 | | chemical test or tests and the test or tests disclose an
|
18 | | alcohol concentration of more than 0.00 and
the person did |
19 | | submit to and complete the test or tests that determined an
|
20 | | alcohol concentration of more than 0.00; and
|
21 | | (6) whether the test result of an alcohol concentration |
22 | | of more than 0.00
was based upon the person's consumption |
23 | | of alcohol in the performance of a
religious service or |
24 | | ceremony; and
|
25 | | (7) whether the test result of an alcohol concentration |
26 | | of more than 0.00
was based upon the person's consumption |
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1 | | of alcohol through ingestion of the
prescribed or |
2 | | recommended dosage of medicine.
|
3 | | The Secretary of State may adopt administrative rules |
4 | | setting forth
circumstances under which the holder of a school |
5 | | bus driver permit is not
required to
appear in
person at the |
6 | | hearing.
|
7 | | Provided that the petitioner may subpoena the officer, the |
8 | | hearing may be
conducted upon a review of the law enforcement |
9 | | officer's own official
reports. Failure of the officer to |
10 | | answer the subpoena shall be grounds for a
continuance if, in |
11 | | the hearing officer's discretion, the continuance is
|
12 | | appropriate. At the conclusion of the hearing held under |
13 | | Section 2-118 of this
Code, the Secretary of State may rescind, |
14 | | continue, or modify
the school bus driver permit sanction.
|
15 | | (f) The results of any chemical testing performed in |
16 | | accordance with
subsection (a) of this Section are not |
17 | | admissible in any civil or criminal
proceeding, except that the |
18 | | results
of the testing may be considered at a hearing held |
19 | | under Section 2-118 of this
Code. However, the results of the |
20 | | testing may not be used to impose
driver's license sanctions |
21 | | under Section 11-501.1 of this Code. A law
enforcement officer |
22 | | may, however, pursue a statutory summary suspension or |
23 | | revocation of
driving privileges under Section 11-501.1 of this |
24 | | Code if other physical
evidence or first hand knowledge forms |
25 | | the basis of that suspension or revocation.
|
26 | | (g) This Section applies only to drivers who have been |
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1 | | issued a school bus
driver permit in accordance with Section |
2 | | 6-106.1 of this Code at the time of
the issuance of the Uniform |
3 | | Traffic Ticket for a violation of this
Code or a similar |
4 | | provision of a local ordinance, and a chemical test
request is |
5 | | made under this Section.
|
6 | | (h) The action of the Secretary of State in suspending, |
7 | | revoking, canceling,
or denying any license, permit, |
8 | | registration, or certificate of title shall be
subject to |
9 | | judicial review in the Circuit Court of Sangamon County or in |
10 | | the
Circuit Court of Cook County, and the provisions of the |
11 | | Administrative Review
Law and its rules are hereby adopted and |
12 | | shall apply to and govern every
action for the judicial review |
13 | | of final acts or decisions of the Secretary of
State under this |
14 | | Section.
|
15 | | (Source: P.A. 99-467, eff. 1-1-16; 99-697, eff. 7-29-16.)
|
16 | | (625 ILCS 5/6-901) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 6-901)
|
17 | | Sec. 6-901. Definitions. For the purposes of this
Article:
|
18 | | "Board" means the Driver's License Medical Advisory Board.
|
19 | | "Medical examiner" or "medical practitioner" means: |
20 | | (i) any
person licensed to practice medicine in all its |
21 | | branches in
the State of Illinois or any other state;
|
22 | | (ii) a licensed physician assistant; or |
23 | | (iii) a licensed advanced practice registered nurse. |
24 | | (Source: P.A. 99-173, eff. 7-29-15.)
|
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1 | | (625 ILCS 5/11-501.01)
|
2 | | Sec. 11-501.01. Additional administrative sanctions. |
3 | | (a) After a finding of guilt and prior to any final |
4 | | sentencing or an order for supervision, for an offense based |
5 | | upon an arrest for a violation of Section 11-501 or a similar |
6 | | provision of a local ordinance, individuals shall be required |
7 | | to undergo a professional evaluation to determine if an |
8 | | alcohol, drug, or intoxicating compound abuse problem exists |
9 | | and the extent of the problem, and undergo the imposition of |
10 | | treatment as appropriate. Programs conducting these |
11 | | evaluations shall be licensed by the Department of Human |
12 | | Services. The cost of any professional evaluation shall be paid |
13 | | for by the individual required to undergo the professional |
14 | | evaluation. |
15 | | (b) Any person who is found guilty of or pleads guilty to |
16 | | violating Section 11-501, including any person receiving a |
17 | | disposition of court supervision for violating that Section, |
18 | | may be required by the Court to attend a victim impact panel |
19 | | offered by, or under contract with, a county State's Attorney's |
20 | | office, a probation and court services department, Mothers |
21 | | Against Drunk Driving, or the Alliance Against Intoxicated |
22 | | Motorists. All costs generated by the victim impact panel shall |
23 | | be paid from fees collected from the offender or as may be |
24 | | determined by the court. |
25 | | (c) Every person found guilty of violating Section 11-501, |
26 | | whose operation of a motor vehicle while in violation of that |
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1 | | Section proximately caused any incident resulting in an |
2 | | appropriate emergency response, shall be liable for the expense |
3 | | of an emergency response as provided in subsection (i) of this |
4 | | Section. |
5 | | (d) The Secretary of State shall revoke the driving |
6 | | privileges of any person convicted under Section 11-501 or a |
7 | | similar provision of a local ordinance. |
8 | | (e) The Secretary of State shall require the use of |
9 | | ignition interlock devices for a period not less than 5 years |
10 | | on all vehicles owned by a person who has been convicted of a |
11 | | second or subsequent offense of Section 11-501 or a similar |
12 | | provision of a local ordinance. The person must pay to the |
13 | | Secretary of State DUI Administration Fund an amount not to |
14 | | exceed $30 for each month that he or she uses the device. The |
15 | | Secretary shall establish by rule and regulation the procedures |
16 | | for certification and use of the interlock system, the amount |
17 | | of the fee, and the procedures, terms, and conditions relating |
18 | | to these fees. During the time period in which a person is |
19 | | required to install an ignition interlock device under this |
20 | | subsection (e), that person shall only operate vehicles in |
21 | | which ignition interlock devices have been installed, except as |
22 | | allowed by subdivision (c)(5) or (d)(5) of Section 6-205 of |
23 | | this Code. |
24 | | (f) In addition to any other penalties and liabilities, a |
25 | | person who is found guilty of or pleads guilty to violating |
26 | | Section 11-501, including any person placed on court |
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1 | | supervision for violating Section 11-501, shall be assessed |
2 | | $750, payable to the circuit clerk, who shall distribute the |
3 | | money as follows: $350 to the law enforcement agency that made |
4 | | the arrest, and $400 shall be forwarded to the State Treasurer |
5 | | for deposit into the General Revenue Fund. If the person has |
6 | | been previously convicted of violating Section 11-501 or a |
7 | | similar provision of a local ordinance, the fine shall be |
8 | | $1,000, and the circuit clerk shall distribute
$200 to the law |
9 | | enforcement agency that
made the arrest and $800 to the State
|
10 | | Treasurer for deposit into the General Revenue Fund. In the |
11 | | event that more than one agency is responsible for the arrest, |
12 | | the amount payable to law enforcement agencies shall be shared |
13 | | equally. Any moneys received by a law enforcement agency under |
14 | | this subsection (f) shall be used for enforcement and |
15 | | prevention of driving while under the influence of alcohol, |
16 | | other drug or drugs, intoxicating compound or compounds or any |
17 | | combination thereof, as defined by Section 11-501 of this Code, |
18 | | including but not limited to the purchase of law enforcement |
19 | | equipment and commodities that will assist in the prevention of |
20 | | alcohol related criminal violence throughout the State; police |
21 | | officer training and education in areas related to alcohol |
22 | | related crime, including but not limited to DUI training; and |
23 | | police officer salaries, including but not limited to salaries |
24 | | for hire back funding for safety checkpoints, saturation |
25 | | patrols, and liquor store sting operations. Any moneys received |
26 | | by the Department of State Police under this subsection (f) |
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1 | | shall be deposited into the State Police DUI Fund and shall be |
2 | | used to purchase law enforcement equipment that will assist in |
3 | | the prevention of alcohol related criminal violence throughout |
4 | | the State. |
5 | | (g) The Secretary of State Police DUI Fund is created as a |
6 | | special fund in the State treasury. All moneys received by the |
7 | | Secretary of State Police under subsection (f) of this Section |
8 | | shall be deposited into the Secretary of State Police DUI Fund |
9 | | and, subject to appropriation, shall be used for enforcement |
10 | | and prevention of driving while under the influence of alcohol, |
11 | | other drug or drugs, intoxicating compound or compounds or any |
12 | | combination thereof, as defined by Section 11-501 of this Code, |
13 | | including but not limited to the purchase of law enforcement |
14 | | equipment and commodities to assist in the prevention of |
15 | | alcohol related criminal violence throughout the State; police |
16 | | officer training and education in areas related to alcohol |
17 | | related crime, including but not limited to DUI training; and |
18 | | police officer salaries, including but not limited to salaries |
19 | | for hire back funding for safety checkpoints, saturation |
20 | | patrols, and liquor store sting operations. |
21 | | (h) Whenever an individual is sentenced for an offense |
22 | | based upon an arrest for a violation of Section 11-501 or a |
23 | | similar provision of a local ordinance, and the professional |
24 | | evaluation recommends remedial or rehabilitative treatment or |
25 | | education, neither the treatment nor the education shall be the |
26 | | sole disposition and either or both may be imposed only in |
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1 | | conjunction with another disposition. The court shall monitor |
2 | | compliance with any remedial education or treatment |
3 | | recommendations contained in the professional evaluation. |
4 | | Programs conducting alcohol or other drug evaluation or |
5 | | remedial education must be licensed by the Department of Human |
6 | | Services. If the individual is not a resident of Illinois, |
7 | | however, the court may accept an alcohol or other drug |
8 | | evaluation or remedial education program in the individual's |
9 | | state of residence. Programs providing treatment must be |
10 | | licensed under existing applicable alcoholism and drug |
11 | | treatment licensure standards. |
12 | | (i) In addition to any other fine or penalty required by |
13 | | law, an individual convicted of a violation of Section 11-501, |
14 | | Section 5-7 of the Snowmobile Registration and Safety Act, |
15 | | Section 5-16 of the Boat Registration and Safety Act, or a |
16 | | similar provision, whose operation of a motor vehicle, |
17 | | snowmobile, or watercraft while in violation of Section 11-501, |
18 | | Section 5-7 of the Snowmobile Registration and Safety Act, |
19 | | Section 5-16 of the Boat Registration and Safety Act, or a |
20 | | similar provision proximately caused an incident resulting in |
21 | | an appropriate emergency response, shall be required to make |
22 | | restitution to a public agency for the costs of that emergency |
23 | | response. The restitution may not exceed $1,000 per public |
24 | | agency for each emergency response. As used in this subsection |
25 | | (i), "emergency response" means any incident requiring a |
26 | | response by a police officer, a firefighter carried on the |
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1 | | rolls of a regularly constituted fire department, or an |
2 | | ambulance. With respect to funds designated for the Department |
3 | | of State Police, the moneys shall be remitted by the circuit |
4 | | court clerk to the State Police within one month after receipt |
5 | | for deposit into the State Police DUI Fund. With respect to |
6 | | funds designated for the Department of Natural Resources, the |
7 | | Department of Natural Resources shall deposit the moneys into |
8 | | the Conservation Police Operations Assistance Fund.
|
9 | | (j) A person that is subject to a chemical test or tests of |
10 | | blood under subsection (a) of Section 11-501.1 or subdivision |
11 | | (c)(2) of Section 11-501.2 of this Code, whether or not that |
12 | | person consents to testing, shall be liable for the expense up |
13 | | to $500 for blood withdrawal by a physician authorized to |
14 | | practice medicine, a licensed physician assistant, a licensed |
15 | | advanced practice registered nurse, a registered nurse, a |
16 | | trained phlebotomist, a licensed paramedic, or a qualified |
17 | | person other than a police officer approved by the Department |
18 | | of State Police to withdraw blood, who responds, whether at a |
19 | | law enforcement facility or a health care facility, to a police |
20 | | department request for the drawing of blood based upon refusal |
21 | | of the person to submit to a lawfully requested breath test or |
22 | | probable cause exists to believe the test would disclose the |
23 | | ingestion, consumption, or use of drugs or intoxicating |
24 | | compounds if: |
25 | | (1) the person is found guilty of violating Section |
26 | | 11-501 of this Code or a similar provision of a local |
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1 | | ordinance; or |
2 | | (2) the person pleads guilty to or stipulates to facts |
3 | | supporting a violation of Section 11-503 of this Code or a |
4 | | similar provision of a local ordinance when the plea or |
5 | | stipulation was the result of a plea agreement in which the |
6 | | person was originally charged with violating Section |
7 | | 11-501 of this Code or a similar local ordinance. |
8 | | (Source: P.A. 98-292, eff. 1-1-14; 98-463, eff. 8-16-13; |
9 | | 98-973, eff. 8-15-14; 99-289, eff. 8-6-15; 99-296, eff. 1-1-16; |
10 | | 99-642, eff. 7-28-16.)
|
11 | | (625 ILCS 5/11-501.2) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 11-501.2)
|
12 | | Sec. 11-501.2. Chemical and other tests.
|
13 | | (a) Upon the trial of any civil or criminal action or |
14 | | proceeding arising out
of an arrest for an offense as defined |
15 | | in Section 11-501 or a similar local
ordinance or proceedings |
16 | | pursuant to Section 2-118.1, evidence of the
concentration of |
17 | | alcohol, other drug or drugs, or intoxicating compound or
|
18 | | compounds, or any combination thereof in a person's blood
or |
19 | | breath at the time alleged, as determined by analysis of the |
20 | | person's blood,
urine, breath, or other bodily substance, shall |
21 | | be admissible. Where such test
is made the following provisions |
22 | | shall apply:
|
23 | | 1. Chemical analyses of the person's blood, urine, |
24 | | breath, or other bodily
substance to be considered valid |
25 | | under the provisions of this Section shall
have been |
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1 | | performed according to standards promulgated by the |
2 | | Department of State Police
by
a licensed physician, |
3 | | registered nurse, trained phlebotomist, licensed |
4 | | paramedic, or other individual
possessing a valid permit |
5 | | issued by that Department for
this purpose. The Director of |
6 | | State Police is authorized to approve satisfactory
|
7 | | techniques or methods, to ascertain the qualifications and |
8 | | competence of
individuals to conduct such analyses, to |
9 | | issue permits which shall be subject
to termination or |
10 | | revocation at the discretion of that Department and to
|
11 | | certify the accuracy of breath testing equipment. The |
12 | | Department
of
State Police shall prescribe regulations as |
13 | | necessary to
implement this
Section.
|
14 | | 2. When a person in this State shall submit to a blood |
15 | | test at the request
of a law enforcement officer under the |
16 | | provisions of Section 11-501.1, only a
physician |
17 | | authorized to practice medicine, a licensed physician |
18 | | assistant, a licensed advanced practice registered nurse, |
19 | | a registered nurse, trained
phlebotomist, or licensed |
20 | | paramedic, or other
qualified person approved by the |
21 | | Department of State Police may withdraw blood
for the |
22 | | purpose of determining the alcohol, drug, or alcohol and |
23 | | drug content
therein. This limitation shall not apply to |
24 | | the taking of breath, other bodily substance, or urine
|
25 | | specimens.
|
26 | | When a blood test of a person who has been taken to an |
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1 | | adjoining state
for medical treatment is requested by an |
2 | | Illinois law enforcement officer,
the blood may be |
3 | | withdrawn only by a physician authorized to practice
|
4 | | medicine in the adjoining state, a licensed physician |
5 | | assistant, a licensed advanced practice registered nurse, |
6 | | a registered nurse, a trained
phlebotomist acting under the |
7 | | direction of the physician, or licensed
paramedic. The law
|
8 | | enforcement officer requesting the test shall take custody |
9 | | of the blood
sample, and the blood sample shall be analyzed |
10 | | by a laboratory certified by the
Department of State Police |
11 | | for that purpose.
|
12 | | 3. The person tested may have a physician, or a |
13 | | qualified technician,
chemist, registered nurse, or other |
14 | | qualified person of their own choosing
administer a |
15 | | chemical test or tests in addition to any administered at |
16 | | the
direction of a law enforcement officer. The failure or |
17 | | inability to obtain
an additional test by a person shall |
18 | | not preclude the admission of evidence
relating to the test |
19 | | or tests taken at the direction of a law enforcement
|
20 | | officer.
|
21 | | 4. Upon the request of the person who shall submit to a |
22 | | chemical test
or tests at the request of a law enforcement |
23 | | officer, full information
concerning the test or tests |
24 | | shall be made available to the person or such
person's |
25 | | attorney.
|
26 | | 5. Alcohol concentration shall mean either grams of |
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1 | | alcohol per 100
milliliters of blood or grams of alcohol |
2 | | per 210 liters of breath.
|
3 | | 6. Tetrahydrocannabinol concentration means either 5 |
4 | | nanograms or more of delta-9-tetrahydrocannabinol per |
5 | | milliliter of whole blood or 10 nanograms or more of |
6 | | delta-9-tetrahydrocannabinol per milliliter of other |
7 | | bodily substance. |
8 | | (a-5) Law enforcement officials may use standardized field |
9 | | sobriety tests approved by the National Highway Traffic Safety |
10 | | Administration when conducting investigations of a violation |
11 | | of Section 11-501 or similar local ordinance by drivers |
12 | | suspected of driving under the influence of cannabis. The |
13 | | General Assembly finds that standardized field sobriety tests |
14 | | approved by the National Highway Traffic Safety Administration |
15 | | are divided attention tasks that are intended to determine if a |
16 | | person is under the influence of cannabis. The purpose of these |
17 | | tests is to determine the effect of the use of cannabis on a |
18 | | person's capacity to think and act with ordinary care and |
19 | | therefore operate a motor vehicle safely. Therefore, the |
20 | | results of these standardized field sobriety tests, |
21 | | appropriately administered, shall be admissible in the trial of |
22 | | any civil or criminal action or proceeding arising out of an |
23 | | arrest for a cannabis-related offense as defined in Section |
24 | | 11-501 or a similar local ordinance or proceedings under |
25 | | Section 2-118.1 or 2-118.2. Where a test is made the following |
26 | | provisions shall apply: |
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1 | | 1. The person tested may have a physician, or a |
2 | | qualified technician, chemist, registered nurse, or other |
3 | | qualified person of their own choosing administer a |
4 | | chemical test or tests in addition to the standardized |
5 | | field sobriety test or tests administered at the direction |
6 | | of a law enforcement officer. The failure or inability to |
7 | | obtain an additional test by a person does not preclude the |
8 | | admission of evidence relating to the test or tests taken |
9 | | at the direction of a law enforcement officer. |
10 | | 2. Upon the request of the person who shall submit to a |
11 | | standardized field sobriety test or tests at the request of |
12 | | a law enforcement officer, full information concerning the |
13 | | test or tests shall be made available to the person or the |
14 | | person's attorney. |
15 | | 3. At the trial of any civil or criminal action or |
16 | | proceeding arising out of an arrest for an offense as |
17 | | defined in Section 11-501 or a similar local ordinance or |
18 | | proceedings under Section 2-118.1 or 2-118.2 in which the |
19 | | results of these standardized field sobriety tests are |
20 | | admitted, the cardholder may present and the trier of fact |
21 | | may consider evidence that the card holder lacked the |
22 | | physical capacity to perform the standardized field |
23 | | sobriety tests. |
24 | | (b) Upon the trial of any civil or criminal action or |
25 | | proceeding arising
out of acts alleged to have been committed |
26 | | by any person while driving or
in actual physical control of a |
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1 | | vehicle while under the influence of alcohol,
the concentration |
2 | | of alcohol in the person's blood or breath at the time
alleged |
3 | | as shown by analysis of the person's blood, urine, breath, or |
4 | | other
bodily substance shall give rise to the following |
5 | | presumptions:
|
6 | | 1. If there was at that time an alcohol concentration |
7 | | of 0.05 or less,
it shall be presumed that the person was |
8 | | not under the influence of alcohol.
|
9 | | 2. If there was at that time an alcohol concentration |
10 | | in excess of 0.05
but less than 0.08, such facts shall not |
11 | | give rise to any
presumption that
the person was or was not |
12 | | under the influence of alcohol, but such fact
may be |
13 | | considered with other competent evidence in determining |
14 | | whether the
person was under the influence of alcohol.
|
15 | | 3. If there was at that time an alcohol concentration |
16 | | of 0.08
or more,
it shall be presumed that the person was |
17 | | under the influence of alcohol.
|
18 | | 4. The foregoing provisions of this Section shall not |
19 | | be construed as
limiting the introduction of any other |
20 | | relevant evidence bearing upon the
question whether the |
21 | | person was under the influence of alcohol.
|
22 | | (b-5) Upon the trial of any civil or criminal action or |
23 | | proceeding arising out of acts alleged to have been committed |
24 | | by any person while driving or in actual physical control of a |
25 | | vehicle while under the influence of alcohol, other drug or |
26 | | drugs, intoxicating compound or compounds or any combination |
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1 | | thereof, the concentration of cannabis in the person's whole |
2 | | blood or other bodily substance at the time alleged as shown by |
3 | | analysis of the person's blood or other bodily substance shall |
4 | | give rise to the following presumptions: |
5 | | 1. If there was a tetrahydrocannabinol concentration |
6 | | of 5 nanograms or more in whole blood or 10 nanograms or |
7 | | more in an other bodily substance as defined in this |
8 | | Section, it shall be presumed that the person was under the |
9 | | influence of cannabis. |
10 | | 2. If there was at that time a tetrahydrocannabinol |
11 | | concentration of less than 5 nanograms in whole blood or |
12 | | less than 10 nanograms in an other bodily substance, such |
13 | | facts shall not give rise to any
presumption that
the |
14 | | person was or was not under the influence of cannabis, but |
15 | | such fact
may be considered with other competent evidence |
16 | | in determining whether the
person was under the influence |
17 | | of cannabis.
|
18 | | (c) 1. If a person under arrest refuses to submit to a |
19 | | chemical test
under
the provisions of Section 11-501.1, |
20 | | evidence of refusal shall be admissible
in any civil or |
21 | | criminal action or proceeding arising out of acts alleged
to |
22 | | have been committed while the person under the influence of |
23 | | alcohol,
other drug or drugs, or intoxicating compound or |
24 | | compounds, or
any combination thereof was driving or in actual |
25 | | physical
control of a motor vehicle.
|
26 | | 2. Notwithstanding any ability to refuse under this Code to |
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1 | | submit to
these tests or any ability to revoke the implied |
2 | | consent to these tests, if a
law enforcement officer has |
3 | | probable cause to believe that a motor vehicle
driven by or in |
4 | | actual physical control of a person under the influence of
|
5 | | alcohol, other drug or drugs, or intoxicating compound or
|
6 | | compounds,
or any combination thereof
has caused the death or
|
7 | | personal injury to another, the law enforcement officer shall |
8 | | request, and that person shall submit, upon the request of a |
9 | | law
enforcement officer, to a chemical test or tests of his or |
10 | | her blood, breath, other bodily substance, or
urine for the |
11 | | purpose of
determining the alcohol content thereof or the |
12 | | presence of any other drug or
combination of both.
|
13 | | This provision does not affect the applicability of or |
14 | | imposition of driver's
license sanctions under Section |
15 | | 11-501.1 of this Code.
|
16 | | 3. For purposes of this Section, a personal injury includes |
17 | | any Type A
injury as indicated on the traffic accident report |
18 | | completed by a law
enforcement officer that requires immediate |
19 | | professional attention in either a
doctor's office or a medical |
20 | | facility. A Type A injury includes severe
bleeding wounds, |
21 | | distorted extremities, and injuries that require the injured
|
22 | | party to be carried from the scene.
|
23 | | (d) If a person refuses standardized field sobriety tests |
24 | | under Section 11-501.9 of this Code, evidence of refusal shall |
25 | | be admissible in any civil or criminal action or proceeding |
26 | | arising out of acts committed while the person was driving or |
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1 | | in actual physical control of a vehicle and alleged to have |
2 | | been impaired by the use of cannabis. |
3 | | (e) Department of State Police compliance with the changes |
4 | | in this amendatory Act of the 99th General Assembly concerning |
5 | | testing of other bodily substances and tetrahydrocannabinol |
6 | | concentration by Department of State Police laboratories is |
7 | | subject to appropriation and until the Department of State |
8 | | Police adopt standards and completion validation. Any |
9 | | laboratories that test for the presence of cannabis or other |
10 | | drugs under this Article, the Snowmobile Registration and |
11 | | Safety Act, or the Boat Registration and Safety Act must comply |
12 | | with ISO/IEC 17025:2005. |
13 | | (Source: P.A. 98-122, eff. 1-1-14; 98-973, eff. 8-15-14; |
14 | | 98-1172, eff. 1-12-15; 99-697, eff. 7-29-16.)
|
15 | | (625 ILCS 5/11-501.6) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 11-501.6) |
16 | | Sec. 11-501.6. Driver involvement in personal injury or |
17 | | fatal motor
vehicle accident; chemical test. |
18 | | (a) Any person who drives or is in actual control of a |
19 | | motor vehicle
upon the public highways of this State and who |
20 | | has been involved in a
personal injury or fatal motor vehicle |
21 | | accident, shall be deemed to have
given consent to a breath |
22 | | test using a portable device as approved by the
Department of |
23 | | State Police or to a chemical test or tests
of blood, breath, |
24 | | other bodily substance, or
urine for the purpose of determining |
25 | | the content of alcohol,
other
drug or drugs, or intoxicating |
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1 | | compound or compounds of such
person's blood if arrested as |
2 | | evidenced by the issuance of a Uniform Traffic
Ticket for any |
3 | | violation of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision |
4 | | of
a local ordinance, with the exception of equipment |
5 | | violations contained in
Chapter 12 of this Code, or similar |
6 | | provisions of local ordinances. The test
or tests shall be |
7 | | administered at the direction of the arresting officer. The
law |
8 | | enforcement agency employing the officer shall designate which |
9 | | of the
aforesaid tests shall be administered. Up to 2 |
10 | | additional tests of urine or other bodily substance may be |
11 | | administered even
after a blood or breath test or both has been |
12 | | administered. Compliance with
this Section does not relieve |
13 | | such person from the requirements of Section
11-501.1 of this |
14 | | Code. |
15 | | (b) Any person who is dead, unconscious or who is otherwise |
16 | | in a
condition rendering such person incapable of refusal shall |
17 | | be deemed not to
have withdrawn the consent provided by |
18 | | subsection (a) of this Section. In
addition, if a driver of a |
19 | | vehicle is receiving medical treatment as a
result of a motor |
20 | | vehicle accident, any physician licensed to practice
medicine, |
21 | | licensed physician assistant, licensed advanced practice |
22 | | registered nurse, registered nurse or a phlebotomist acting |
23 | | under the direction of
a licensed physician shall withdraw |
24 | | blood for testing purposes to ascertain
the presence of |
25 | | alcohol, other drug or drugs, or intoxicating
compound or |
26 | | compounds, upon the specific request of a law
enforcement |
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1 | | officer. However, no such testing shall be performed until, in
|
2 | | the opinion of the medical personnel on scene, the withdrawal |
3 | | can be made
without interfering with or endangering the |
4 | | well-being of the patient. |
5 | | (c) A person requested to submit to a test as provided |
6 | | above shall be
warned by the law enforcement officer requesting |
7 | | the test that a refusal to
submit to the test, or submission to |
8 | | the test resulting in an alcohol
concentration of 0.08 or more, |
9 | | or testing discloses the presence of cannabis as listed in the |
10 | | Cannabis Control Act with a tetrahydrocannabinol concentration |
11 | | as defined in paragraph 6 of subsection (a) of Section 11-501.2 |
12 | | of this Code, or any amount of a drug, substance,
or |
13 | | intoxicating compound
resulting from the unlawful use or |
14 | | consumption of a controlled substance listed in the Illinois
|
15 | | Controlled Substances Act, an intoxicating compound listed in |
16 | | the Use of
Intoxicating Compounds Act, or methamphetamine as |
17 | | listed in the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection |
18 | | Act as detected in such person's blood, other bodily substance, |
19 | | or urine, may
result in the suspension of such person's |
20 | | privilege to operate a motor vehicle. If the person is also a |
21 | | CDL holder, he or she shall be
warned by the law enforcement |
22 | | officer requesting the test that a refusal to
submit to the |
23 | | test, or submission to the test resulting in an alcohol
|
24 | | concentration of 0.08 or more, or any amount of a drug, |
25 | | substance,
or intoxicating compound
resulting from the |
26 | | unlawful use or consumption of cannabis, as covered by the
|
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1 | | Cannabis Control Act, a controlled substance listed in the |
2 | | Illinois
Controlled Substances Act, an intoxicating compound |
3 | | listed in the Use of
Intoxicating Compounds Act, or |
4 | | methamphetamine as listed in the Methamphetamine Control and |
5 | | Community Protection Act as detected in the person's blood, |
6 | | other bodily substance, or urine, may result in the |
7 | | disqualification of the person's privilege to operate a |
8 | | commercial motor vehicle, as provided in Section 6-514 of this |
9 | | Code.
The length of the suspension shall be the same as |
10 | | outlined in Section
6-208.1 of this Code regarding statutory |
11 | | summary suspensions. |
12 | | A person requested to submit to a test shall also |
13 | | acknowledge, in writing, receipt of the warning required under |
14 | | this Section. If the person refuses to acknowledge receipt of |
15 | | the warning, the law enforcement officer shall make a written |
16 | | notation on the warning that the person refused to sign the |
17 | | warning. A person's refusal to sign the warning shall not be |
18 | | evidence that the person was not read the warning. |
19 | | (d) If the person refuses testing or submits to a test |
20 | | which discloses
an alcohol concentration of 0.08 or more, the |
21 | | presence of cannabis as listed in the Cannabis Control Act with |
22 | | a tetrahydrocannabinol concentration as defined in paragraph 6 |
23 | | of subsection (a) of Section 11-501.2 of this Code, or any |
24 | | amount of a drug,
substance,
or intoxicating compound in such |
25 | | person's blood or urine resulting from the
unlawful use or
|
26 | | consumption of a controlled
substance listed in the Illinois |
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1 | | Controlled Substances Act, an
intoxicating
compound listed in |
2 | | the Use of Intoxicating Compounds Act, or methamphetamine as |
3 | | listed in the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection |
4 | | Act, the law
enforcement officer shall immediately submit a |
5 | | sworn report to the Secretary of
State on a form prescribed by |
6 | | the Secretary, certifying that the test or tests
were requested |
7 | | under subsection (a) and the person refused to submit to a
test |
8 | | or tests or submitted to testing which disclosed an alcohol |
9 | | concentration
of 0.08 or more, the presence of cannabis as |
10 | | listed in the Cannabis Control Act with a tetrahydrocannabinol |
11 | | concentration as defined in paragraph 6 of subsection (a) of |
12 | | Section 11-501.2 of this Code, or any amount of a drug, |
13 | | substance, or intoxicating
compound
in such
person's blood, |
14 | | other bodily substance, or urine, resulting from the unlawful |
15 | | use or consumption of
a controlled substance
listed in
the |
16 | | Illinois Controlled Substances Act,
an intoxicating compound |
17 | | listed in
the Use of Intoxicating Compounds Act, or |
18 | | methamphetamine as listed in the Methamphetamine Control and |
19 | | Community Protection Act. If the person is also a CDL holder |
20 | | and refuses testing or submits to a test which discloses
an |
21 | | alcohol concentration of 0.08 or more, or any amount of a drug,
|
22 | | substance,
or intoxicating compound in the person's blood, |
23 | | other bodily substance, or urine resulting from the
unlawful |
24 | | use or
consumption of cannabis listed in the Cannabis Control |
25 | | Act, a controlled
substance listed in the Illinois Controlled |
26 | | Substances Act, an
intoxicating
compound listed in the Use of |
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1 | | Intoxicating Compounds Act, or methamphetamine as listed in the |
2 | | Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, the law
|
3 | | enforcement officer shall immediately submit a sworn report to |
4 | | the Secretary of
State on a form prescribed by the Secretary, |
5 | | certifying that the test or tests
were requested under |
6 | | subsection (a) and the person refused to submit to a
test or |
7 | | tests or submitted to testing which disclosed an alcohol |
8 | | concentration
of 0.08 or more, or any amount of a drug, |
9 | | substance, or intoxicating
compound
in such
person's blood, |
10 | | other bodily substance, or urine, resulting from the unlawful |
11 | | use or consumption of
cannabis listed in the Cannabis Control |
12 | | Act, a controlled substance
listed in
the Illinois Controlled |
13 | | Substances Act,
an intoxicating compound listed in
the Use of |
14 | | Intoxicating Compounds Act, or methamphetamine as listed in the |
15 | | Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act. |
16 | | Upon receipt of the sworn report of a law enforcement |
17 | | officer, the
Secretary shall enter the suspension and |
18 | | disqualification to the individual's driving record and the
|
19 | | suspension and disqualification shall be effective on the 46th |
20 | | day following the date notice of the
suspension was given to |
21 | | the person. |
22 | | The law enforcement officer submitting the sworn report |
23 | | shall serve immediate
notice of this suspension on the person |
24 | | and such suspension and disqualification shall be effective
on |
25 | | the 46th day following the date notice was given. |
26 | | In cases involving a person who is not a CDL holder where |
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1 | | the blood alcohol concentration of 0.08 or more,
or blood |
2 | | testing discloses the presence of cannabis as listed in the |
3 | | Cannabis Control Act with a tetrahydrocannabinol concentration |
4 | | as defined in paragraph 6 of subsection (a) of Section 11-501.2 |
5 | | of this Code, or any amount
of a drug, substance, or |
6 | | intoxicating compound resulting from the unlawful
use or
|
7 | | consumption of a
controlled
substance listed in the Illinois |
8 | | Controlled Substances Act,
an
intoxicating
compound listed in |
9 | | the Use of Intoxicating Compounds Act, or methamphetamine as |
10 | | listed in the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection |
11 | | Act, is established by a
subsequent analysis of blood, other |
12 | | bodily substance, or urine collected at the time of arrest, the
|
13 | | arresting officer shall give notice as provided in this Section |
14 | | or by deposit
in the United States mail of such notice in an |
15 | | envelope with postage prepaid
and addressed to such person at |
16 | | his or her address as shown on the Uniform Traffic
Ticket and |
17 | | the suspension shall be effective on the 46th day following the |
18 | | date
notice was given. |
19 | | In cases involving a person who is a CDL holder where the |
20 | | blood alcohol concentration of 0.08 or more,
or any amount
of a |
21 | | drug, substance, or intoxicating compound resulting from the |
22 | | unlawful
use or
consumption of cannabis as listed in the |
23 | | Cannabis Control Act, a
controlled
substance listed in the |
24 | | Illinois Controlled Substances Act,
an
intoxicating
compound |
25 | | listed in the Use of Intoxicating Compounds Act, or |
26 | | methamphetamine as listed in the Methamphetamine Control and |
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1 | | Community Protection Act, is established by a
subsequent |
2 | | analysis of blood, other bodily substance, or urine collected |
3 | | at the time of arrest, the
arresting officer shall give notice |
4 | | as provided in this Section or by deposit
in the United States |
5 | | mail of such notice in an envelope with postage prepaid
and |
6 | | addressed to the person at his or her address as shown on the |
7 | | Uniform Traffic
Ticket and the suspension and disqualification |
8 | | shall be effective on the 46th day following the date
notice |
9 | | was given. |
10 | | Upon receipt of the sworn report of a law enforcement |
11 | | officer, the Secretary
shall also give notice of the suspension |
12 | | and disqualification to the driver by mailing a notice of
the |
13 | | effective date of the suspension and disqualification to the |
14 | | individual. However, should the
sworn report be defective by |
15 | | not containing sufficient information or be
completed in error, |
16 | | the notice of the suspension and disqualification shall not be |
17 | | mailed to the
person or entered to the driving record, but |
18 | | rather the sworn report shall be
returned to the issuing law |
19 | | enforcement agency. |
20 | | (e) A driver may contest this suspension of his or her
|
21 | | driving privileges and disqualification of his or her CDL |
22 | | privileges by
requesting an administrative hearing with the |
23 | | Secretary in accordance with
Section 2-118 of this Code. At the |
24 | | conclusion of a hearing held under
Section 2-118 of this Code, |
25 | | the Secretary may rescind, continue, or modify the
orders
of |
26 | | suspension and disqualification. If the Secretary does not |
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1 | | rescind the orders of suspension and disqualification, a |
2 | | restricted
driving permit may be granted by the Secretary upon |
3 | | application being made and
good cause shown. A restricted |
4 | | driving permit may be granted to relieve undue
hardship to |
5 | | allow driving for employment, educational, and medical |
6 | | purposes as
outlined in Section 6-206 of this Code. The |
7 | | provisions of Section 6-206 of
this Code shall apply. In |
8 | | accordance with 49 C.F.R. 384, the Secretary of State may not |
9 | | issue a restricted driving permit for the operation of a |
10 | | commercial motor vehicle to a person holding a CDL whose |
11 | | driving privileges have been suspended, revoked, cancelled, or |
12 | | disqualified.
|
13 | | (f) (Blank). |
14 | | (g) For the purposes of this Section, a personal injury |
15 | | shall include
any type A injury as indicated on the traffic |
16 | | accident report completed
by a law enforcement officer that |
17 | | requires immediate professional attention
in either a doctor's |
18 | | office or a medical facility. A type A injury shall
include |
19 | | severely bleeding wounds, distorted extremities, and injuries |
20 | | that
require the injured party to be carried from the scene. |
21 | | (Source: P.A. 99-467, eff. 1-1-16; 99-697, eff. 7-29-16.)
|
22 | | (625 ILCS 5/11-501.8)
|
23 | | Sec. 11-501.8. Suspension of driver's license; persons |
24 | | under age 21.
|
25 | | (a) A person who is less than 21 years of age and who |
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1 | | drives or
is in actual physical control of a motor vehicle upon |
2 | | the
public highways of this State shall be deemed to have given |
3 | | consent to a
chemical test or tests of blood, breath, other |
4 | | bodily substance, or urine for the purpose of
determining the |
5 | | alcohol content of the person's blood if arrested, as evidenced
|
6 | | by the issuance of a Uniform Traffic Ticket for any violation |
7 | | of the Illinois
Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a local |
8 | | ordinance, if a police officer
has probable cause to believe |
9 | | that the driver has consumed any amount of an
alcoholic |
10 | | beverage based upon evidence of the driver's physical condition |
11 | | or
other first hand knowledge of the police officer. The test |
12 | | or tests shall be
administered at the direction of the |
13 | | arresting officer. The law enforcement
agency employing the |
14 | | officer shall designate which of the aforesaid tests shall
be |
15 | | administered. Up to 2 additional tests of urine or other bodily |
16 | | substance may be administered even after a blood or
breath test |
17 | | or both has been administered.
|
18 | | (b) A person who is dead, unconscious, or who is otherwise |
19 | | in a condition
rendering that person incapable of refusal, |
20 | | shall be deemed not to have
withdrawn the consent provided by |
21 | | paragraph (a) of this Section and the test or
tests may be |
22 | | administered subject to the following provisions:
|
23 | | (i) Chemical analysis of the person's blood, urine, |
24 | | breath, or
other bodily substance, to be considered valid |
25 | | under the provisions of this
Section, shall have been |
26 | | performed according to standards promulgated by the |
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1 | | Department of State
Police
by an individual possessing a |
2 | | valid permit issued by that Department for this
purpose. |
3 | | The Director of State Police is authorized to approve |
4 | | satisfactory
techniques or methods, to ascertain the |
5 | | qualifications and competence of
individuals to conduct |
6 | | analyses, to issue permits that shall be subject to
|
7 | | termination or revocation at the direction of that |
8 | | Department, and to certify
the accuracy of breath testing |
9 | | equipment. The Department of
State Police shall prescribe |
10 | | regulations as necessary.
|
11 | | (ii) When a person submits to a blood test at the |
12 | | request of a law
enforcement officer under the provisions |
13 | | of this Section, only a physician
authorized to practice |
14 | | medicine, a licensed physician assistant, a licensed |
15 | | advanced practice registered nurse, a registered nurse, or |
16 | | other qualified person
trained in venipuncture and acting |
17 | | under the direction of a licensed physician
may withdraw |
18 | | blood for the purpose of determining the alcohol content |
19 | | therein.
This limitation does not apply to the taking of |
20 | | breath, other bodily substance, or urine specimens.
|
21 | | (iii) The person tested may have a physician, qualified |
22 | | technician,
chemist, registered nurse, or other qualified |
23 | | person of his or her own choosing
administer a chemical |
24 | | test or tests in addition to any test or tests
administered |
25 | | at the direction of a law enforcement officer. The failure |
26 | | or
inability to obtain an additional test by a person shall |
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|
1 | | not preclude the
consideration of the previously performed |
2 | | chemical test.
|
3 | | (iv) Upon a request of the person who submits to a |
4 | | chemical test or
tests at the request of a law enforcement |
5 | | officer, full information concerning
the test or tests |
6 | | shall be made available to the person or that person's
|
7 | | attorney.
|
8 | | (v) Alcohol concentration means either grams of |
9 | | alcohol per 100
milliliters of blood or grams of alcohol |
10 | | per 210 liters of breath.
|
11 | | (vi) If a driver is receiving medical treatment as a |
12 | | result of a motor
vehicle accident, a physician licensed to |
13 | | practice medicine, licensed physician assistant, licensed |
14 | | advanced practice registered nurse, registered nurse,
or |
15 | | other qualified person trained in venipuncture and
acting |
16 | | under the direction of a licensed physician shall
withdraw |
17 | | blood for testing purposes to ascertain the presence of |
18 | | alcohol upon
the specific request of a law enforcement |
19 | | officer. However, that testing
shall not be performed |
20 | | until, in the opinion of the medical personnel on scene,
|
21 | | the withdrawal can be made without interfering with or |
22 | | endangering the
well-being of the patient.
|
23 | | (c) A person requested to submit to a test as provided |
24 | | above shall be warned
by the law enforcement officer requesting |
25 | | the test that a refusal to submit to
the test, or submission to |
26 | | the test resulting in an alcohol concentration of
more than |
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1 | | 0.00, may result in the loss of that person's privilege to |
2 | | operate a
motor vehicle and may result in the disqualification |
3 | | of the person's privilege to operate a commercial motor |
4 | | vehicle, as provided in Section 6-514 of this Code, if the |
5 | | person is a CDL holder. The loss of driving privileges shall be |
6 | | imposed in accordance
with Section 6-208.2 of this Code.
|
7 | | A person requested to submit to a test shall also |
8 | | acknowledge, in writing, receipt of the warning required under |
9 | | this Section. If the person refuses to acknowledge receipt of |
10 | | the warning, the law enforcement officer shall make a written |
11 | | notation on the warning that the person refused to sign the |
12 | | warning. A person's refusal to sign the warning shall not be |
13 | | evidence that the person was not read the warning. |
14 | | (d) If the person refuses testing or submits to a test that |
15 | | discloses an
alcohol concentration of more than 0.00, the law |
16 | | enforcement officer shall
immediately submit a sworn report to |
17 | | the Secretary of State on a form
prescribed by the Secretary of |
18 | | State, certifying that the test or tests were
requested under |
19 | | subsection (a) and the person refused to submit to a test
or |
20 | | tests or submitted to testing which disclosed an alcohol |
21 | | concentration of
more than 0.00. The law enforcement officer |
22 | | shall submit the same sworn report
when a person under the age |
23 | | of 21 submits to testing under Section
11-501.1 of this Code |
24 | | and the testing discloses an alcohol concentration of
more than |
25 | | 0.00 and less than 0.08.
|
26 | | Upon receipt of the sworn report of a law enforcement |
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1 | | officer, the Secretary
of State shall enter the suspension and |
2 | | disqualification on the individual's driving
record and the |
3 | | suspension and disqualification shall be effective on the 46th |
4 | | day following the date
notice of the suspension was given to |
5 | | the person. If this suspension is the
individual's first |
6 | | driver's license suspension under this Section, reports
|
7 | | received by the Secretary of State under this Section shall, |
8 | | except during the
time the suspension is in effect, be |
9 | | privileged information and for use only by
the courts, police |
10 | | officers, prosecuting authorities, the Secretary of State,
or |
11 | | the individual personally, unless the person is a CDL holder, |
12 | | is operating a commercial motor vehicle or vehicle required to |
13 | | be placarded for hazardous materials, in which case the |
14 | | suspension shall not be privileged.
Reports received by the |
15 | | Secretary of State under this Section shall also be made |
16 | | available to the parent or guardian of a person under the age |
17 | | of 18 years that holds an instruction permit or a graduated |
18 | | driver's license, regardless of whether the suspension is in |
19 | | effect.
|
20 | | The law enforcement officer submitting the sworn report |
21 | | shall serve immediate
notice of this suspension on the person |
22 | | and the suspension and disqualification shall
be effective on |
23 | | the 46th day following the date notice was given.
|
24 | | In cases where the blood alcohol concentration of more than |
25 | | 0.00 is
established by a subsequent analysis of blood, other |
26 | | bodily substance, or urine, the police officer or
arresting |
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1 | | agency shall give notice as provided in this Section or by |
2 | | deposit
in the United States mail of that notice in an envelope |
3 | | with postage prepaid
and addressed to that person at his last |
4 | | known address and the loss of driving
privileges shall be |
5 | | effective on the 46th day following the date notice was
given.
|
6 | | Upon receipt of the sworn report of a law enforcement |
7 | | officer, the Secretary
of State shall also give notice of the |
8 | | suspension and disqualification to the driver
by mailing a |
9 | | notice of the effective date of the suspension and |
10 | | disqualification to the individual.
However, should the sworn |
11 | | report be defective by not containing sufficient
information or |
12 | | be completed in error, the notice of the suspension and |
13 | | disqualification shall not be mailed to the person or entered |
14 | | to the driving record,
but rather the sworn report shall be |
15 | | returned to the issuing law enforcement
agency.
|
16 | | (e) A driver may contest this suspension and |
17 | | disqualification by requesting an
administrative hearing with |
18 | | the Secretary of State in accordance with Section
2-118 of this |
19 | | Code. An individual whose blood alcohol concentration is shown
|
20 | | to be more than 0.00 is not subject to this Section if he or she |
21 | | consumed
alcohol in the performance of a religious service or |
22 | | ceremony. An individual
whose blood alcohol concentration is |
23 | | shown to be more than 0.00 shall not be
subject to this Section |
24 | | if the individual's blood alcohol concentration
resulted only |
25 | | from ingestion of the prescribed or recommended dosage of
|
26 | | medicine that contained alcohol. The petition for that hearing |
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1 | | shall not stay
or delay the effective date of the impending |
2 | | suspension. The scope of this
hearing shall be limited to the |
3 | | issues of:
|
4 | | (1) whether the police officer had probable cause to |
5 | | believe that the
person was driving or in actual physical |
6 | | control of a motor vehicle upon the
public highways of the |
7 | | State and the police officer had reason to believe that
the |
8 | | person was in violation of any provision of the Illinois |
9 | | Vehicle Code or a
similar provision of a local ordinance; |
10 | | and
|
11 | | (2) whether the person was issued a Uniform Traffic |
12 | | Ticket for any
violation of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a |
13 | | similar provision of a local
ordinance; and
|
14 | | (3) whether the police officer had probable cause to |
15 | | believe that the
driver
had consumed any amount of an |
16 | | alcoholic beverage based upon the driver's
physical |
17 | | actions or other first-hand knowledge of the police |
18 | | officer; and
|
19 | | (4) whether the person, after being advised by the |
20 | | officer that the
privilege to operate a motor vehicle would |
21 | | be suspended if the person refused
to submit to and |
22 | | complete the test or tests, did refuse to submit to or
|
23 | | complete the test or tests to determine the person's |
24 | | alcohol concentration;
and
|
25 | | (5) whether the person, after being advised by the |
26 | | officer that the
privileges to operate a motor vehicle |
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1 | | would be suspended if the person submits
to a chemical test |
2 | | or tests and the test or tests disclose an alcohol
|
3 | | concentration of more than 0.00, did submit to and
complete |
4 | | the
test or tests that determined an alcohol concentration |
5 | | of more than 0.00; and
|
6 | | (6) whether the test result of an alcohol concentration |
7 | | of more than 0.00
was based upon the person's consumption |
8 | | of alcohol in the performance of a
religious service or |
9 | | ceremony; and
|
10 | | (7) whether the test result of an alcohol concentration |
11 | | of more than 0.00
was based upon the person's consumption |
12 | | of alcohol through ingestion of the
prescribed or |
13 | | recommended dosage of medicine.
|
14 | | At the conclusion of the hearing held under Section 2-118 |
15 | | of
this Code, the Secretary of State may rescind, continue, or |
16 | | modify the suspension and disqualification. If the Secretary of |
17 | | State does not rescind the suspension and disqualification, a
|
18 | | restricted driving permit may be granted by the Secretary of |
19 | | State upon
application being made and good cause shown. A |
20 | | restricted driving permit may be
granted to relieve undue |
21 | | hardship by allowing driving for employment,
educational, and |
22 | | medical purposes as outlined in item (3) of part (c) of
Section |
23 | | 6-206 of this Code. The provisions of item (3) of part (c) of |
24 | | Section
6-206 of this Code and of subsection (f) of that |
25 | | Section shall apply. The Secretary of State shall promulgate |
26 | | rules
providing for participation in an alcohol education and |
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1 | | awareness program or
activity, a drug education and awareness |
2 | | program or activity, or both as a
condition to the issuance of |
3 | | a restricted driving permit for suspensions
imposed under this |
4 | | Section.
|
5 | | (f) The results of any chemical testing performed in |
6 | | accordance with
subsection (a) of this Section are not |
7 | | admissible in any civil or criminal
proceeding, except that the |
8 | | results of the testing may be considered at a
hearing held |
9 | | under Section 2-118 of this Code. However, the results of
the |
10 | | testing may not be used to impose driver's license sanctions |
11 | | under
Section 11-501.1 of this Code. A law enforcement officer |
12 | | may, however, pursue
a statutory summary suspension or |
13 | | revocation of driving privileges under Section 11-501.1 of
this |
14 | | Code if other physical evidence or first hand knowledge forms |
15 | | the basis
of that suspension or revocation.
|
16 | | (g) This Section applies only to drivers who are under
age |
17 | | 21 at the time of the issuance of a Uniform Traffic Ticket for |
18 | | a
violation of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision |
19 | | of a local
ordinance, and a chemical test request is made under |
20 | | this Section.
|
21 | | (h) The action of the Secretary of State in suspending, |
22 | | revoking, cancelling, or
disqualifying any license or
permit |
23 | | shall be
subject to judicial review in the Circuit Court of |
24 | | Sangamon County or in the
Circuit Court of Cook County, and the |
25 | | provisions of the Administrative Review
Law and its rules are |
26 | | hereby adopted and shall apply to and govern every action
for |
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1 | | the judicial review of final acts or decisions of the Secretary |
2 | | of State
under this Section.
|
3 | | (Source: P.A. 99-467, eff. 1-1-16; 99-697, eff. 7-29-16.)
|
4 | | (625 ILCS 5/11-1301.2) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 11-1301.2)
|
5 | | Sec. 11-1301.2. Special decals for parking; persons with |
6 | | disabilities.
|
7 | | (a) The Secretary of State shall provide for, by |
8 | | administrative rules, the
design, size, color, and placement of |
9 | | a person with disabilities motorist decal
or device
and shall |
10 | | provide for, by administrative
rules, the content and form of |
11 | | an application for a person with disabilities
motorist decal or |
12 | | device,
which shall be used by local authorities in the |
13 | | issuance thereof to a
person with temporary disabilities, |
14 | | provided that the decal or device is
valid for no more than 90 |
15 | | days, subject to renewal for like periods based upon
continued |
16 | | disability, and further provided that the decal or device |
17 | | clearly
sets forth the date that the decal or device expires.
|
18 | | The application shall
include the requirement of an Illinois |
19 | | Identification Card number or a State
of Illinois driver's |
20 | | license number.
This decal or device may be used by the |
21 | | authorized holder to designate and identify a vehicle not owned |
22 | | or displaying a
registration plate as provided in Sections |
23 | | 3-609 and 3-616 of this Act to
designate when the vehicle is |
24 | | being used to transport said person or persons
with |
25 | | disabilities, and thus is entitled to enjoy all the privileges |
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1 | | that would
be afforded a person with disabilities licensed |
2 | | vehicle.
Person with disabilities decals or devices issued and |
3 | | displayed pursuant to
this Section shall be recognized and |
4 | | honored by all local authorities
regardless of which local |
5 | | authority issued such decal or device.
|
6 | | The decal or device shall be issued only upon a showing by |
7 | | adequate
documentation that the person for whose benefit the |
8 | | decal or device is to be
used has a disability as defined in |
9 | | Section 1-159.1 of this
Code and the disability is temporary.
|
10 | | (b) The local governing authorities shall be responsible |
11 | | for the provision
of such decal or device, its issuance and |
12 | | designated placement within the
vehicle. The cost of such decal |
13 | | or device shall be at the discretion of
such local governing |
14 | | authority.
|
15 | | (c) The Secretary of State may, pursuant to Section |
16 | | 3-616(c), issue
a person with disabilities parking decal or |
17 | | device to a person with
disabilities as defined by Section |
18 | | 1-159.1. Any person with disabilities
parking decal or device |
19 | | issued by the Secretary of State shall be registered to
that |
20 | | person with disabilities in the form to be prescribed by the |
21 | | Secretary of
State. The person with disabilities parking decal |
22 | | or device shall not display
that person's address. One |
23 | | additional decal or device may be issued to an
applicant upon |
24 | | his or her written request and with the approval of the
|
25 | | Secretary of
State.
The written request must include a |
26 | | justification of the need for the
additional decal or device.
|
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1 | | (c-5) Beginning January 1, 2014, the Secretary shall |
2 | | provide by administrative rule for the issuance of a separate |
3 | | and distinct parking decal or device for persons with |
4 | | disabilities as defined by Section 1-159.1 of this Code and who |
5 | | meet the qualifications under this subsection. The authorized |
6 | | holder of a decal or device issued under this subsection (c-5) |
7 | | shall be exempt from the payment of fees generated by parking |
8 | | in a metered space, a parking area subject to paragraph (10) of |
9 | | subsection (a) of Section 11-209 of this Code, or a publicly |
10 | | owned parking area. |
11 | | The Secretary shall issue a meter-exempt decal or device to |
12 | | a person with
disabilities who: (i) has been issued |
13 | | registration plates under subsection (a) of Section 3-609 or |
14 | | Section 3-616 of this Code or a special decal or device under |
15 | | this Section, (ii) holds a valid Illinois driver's license, and |
16 | | (iii) is unable to do one or more of the following: |
17 | | (1) manage, manipulate, or insert coins, or obtain |
18 | | tickets or tokens in parking meters or ticket machines in |
19 | | parking lots, due to the lack of fine motor control of both |
20 | | hands; |
21 | | (2) reach above his or her head to a height of 42 |
22 | | inches from the ground, due to a lack of finger, hand, or |
23 | | upper extremity strength or mobility; |
24 | | (3) approach a parking meter due to his or her use of a |
25 | | wheelchair or other device for mobility; or |
26 | | (4) walk more than 20 feet due to an orthopedic, |
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1 | | neurological, cardiovascular, or lung condition in which |
2 | | the degree of debilitation is so severe that it almost |
3 | | completely impedes the ability to walk. |
4 | | The application for a meter-exempt parking decal or device |
5 | | shall contain a statement certified by a licensed physician, |
6 | | physician assistant, or advanced practice registered nurse |
7 | | attesting to the permanent nature of the applicant's condition |
8 | | and verifying that the applicant meets the physical |
9 | | qualifications specified in this subsection (c-5). |
10 | | Notwithstanding the requirements of this subsection (c-5), |
11 | | the Secretary shall issue a meter-exempt decal or device to a |
12 | | person who has been issued registration plates under Section |
13 | | 3-616 of this Code or a special decal or device under this |
14 | | Section, if the applicant is the parent or guardian of a person |
15 | | with disabilities who is under 18 years of age and incapable of |
16 | | driving. |
17 | | (d) Replacement decals or devices may be issued for lost, |
18 | | stolen, or
destroyed decals upon application and payment of a |
19 | | $10 fee. The replacement
fee may be waived for individuals that |
20 | | have claimed and received a grant under
the Senior Citizens and |
21 | | Persons with Disabilities Property Tax Relief Act.
|
22 | | (e) A person classified as a veteran under subsection (e) |
23 | | of Section 6-106 of this Code that has been issued a decal or |
24 | | device under this Section shall not be required to submit |
25 | | evidence of disability in order to renew that decal or device |
26 | | if, at the time of initial application, he or she submitted |
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1 | | evidence from his or her physician or the Department of |
2 | | Veterans' Affairs that the disability is of a permanent nature. |
3 | | However, the Secretary shall take reasonable steps to ensure |
4 | | the veteran still resides in this State at the time of the |
5 | | renewal. These steps may include requiring the veteran to |
6 | | provide additional documentation or to appear at a Secretary of |
7 | | State facility. To identify veterans who are eligible for this |
8 | | exemption, the Secretary shall compare the list of the persons |
9 | | who have been issued a decal or device to the list of persons |
10 | | who have been issued a vehicle registration plate for veterans |
11 | | with disabilities under Section 3-609 of this Code, or who are |
12 | | identified as a veteran on their driver's license under Section |
13 | | 6-110 of this Code or on their identification card under |
14 | | Section 4 of the Illinois Identification Card Act. |
15 | | (Source: P.A. 98-463, eff. 8-16-13; 98-577, eff. 1-1-14; |
16 | | 98-879, eff. 1-1-15; 99-143, eff. 7-27-15.)
|
17 | | (625 ILCS 5/11-1301.5)
|
18 | | Sec. 11-1301.5. Fictitious or unlawfully altered |
19 | | disability
license plate or parking decal or device. |
20 | | (a) As used in this Section:
|
21 | | "Fictitious disability license plate or parking decal or
|
22 | | device" means any issued disability license plate or parking
|
23 | | decal
or device, or any license plate issued to a veteran with |
24 | | a disability under Section 3-609 of this Code, that has been |
25 | | issued by the Secretary of State or an authorized unit
of local |
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1 | | government that was issued based upon false information |
2 | | contained on
the required application.
|
3 | | "False information" means any incorrect or inaccurate |
4 | | information
concerning
the name, date of birth, social security |
5 | | number, driver's license number,
physician certification, or |
6 | | any other information required on the Persons with Disabilities |
7 | | Certification for Plate or Parking Placard, on the Application |
8 | | for Replacement Disability Parking Placard, or on the
|
9 | | application
for license plates issued to veterans with |
10 | | disabilities under Section 3-609 of this Code, that
falsifies |
11 | | the content of the application.
|
12 | | "Unlawfully altered disability
license plate or parking
|
13 | | permit or device" means any disability license plate or parking
|
14 | | permit or device, or any license plate issued to a veteran with |
15 | | a disability under Section 3-609 of this Code, issued by the |
16 | | Secretary of State or an authorized unit of
local government |
17 | | that has been physically altered or changed in such manner
that |
18 | | false information appears on the license plate or parking decal |
19 | | or device.
|
20 | | "Authorized holder" means an individual issued a |
21 | | disability
license plate under Section 3-616 of this Code or an |
22 | | individual issued a parking decal or device under Section |
23 | | 11-1301.2 of this Code, or an individual issued a license plate |
24 | | for veterans with disabilities under Section 3-609 of this |
25 | | Code.
|
26 | | (b) It is a violation of this Section for any person:
|
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1 | | (1) to knowingly possess any fictitious or unlawfully |
2 | | altered disability license plate or parking decal or |
3 | | device;
|
4 | | (2) to knowingly issue or assist in the issuance of, by |
5 | | the Secretary of
State or unit of local government, any |
6 | | fictitious disability
license plate or parking decal or |
7 | | device;
|
8 | | (3) to knowingly alter any disability license plate or
|
9 | | parking decal or device;
|
10 | | (4) to knowingly manufacture, possess, transfer, or |
11 | | provide any
documentation used in the application process |
12 | | whether real or fictitious, for
the purpose of obtaining a |
13 | | fictitious disability license plate or
parking decal or |
14 | | device;
|
15 | | (5) to knowingly provide any false information to the |
16 | | Secretary of State
or a unit of local government in order |
17 | | to obtain a disability
license plate or parking decal or |
18 | | device;
|
19 | | (6) to knowingly transfer a disability license plate or
|
20 | | parking decal or device for the purpose of exercising the |
21 | | privileges granted
to an authorized holder of a disability
|
22 | | license plate or parking
decal or device under this Code in |
23 | | the absence of the authorized holder; or
|
24 | | (7) who is a physician, physician assistant, or |
25 | | advanced practice registered nurse to knowingly falsify a |
26 | | certification that a person is a person with disabilities |
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1 | | as defined by Section 1-159.1 of this Code. |
2 | | (c) Sentence.
|
3 | | (1) Any person convicted of a violation of paragraph |
4 | | (1), (2), (3), (4), (5), or (7) of subsection (b) of this |
5 | | Section shall be guilty of
a Class A misdemeanor and fined |
6 | | not less than $1,000 for a first offense and shall be |
7 | | guilty of a Class 4 felony and fined not less than $2,000 |
8 | | for a second or subsequent offense. Any person convicted of |
9 | | a violation of subdivision (b)(6) of this Section is guilty |
10 | | of a Class A misdemeanor and shall be fined not less than |
11 | | $1,000 for a first offense and not less than $2,000 for a |
12 | | second or subsequent offense. The circuit clerk shall |
13 | | distribute one-half of any fine imposed on any person who |
14 | | is found guilty of or pleads guilty to violating this |
15 | | Section, including any person placed on court supervision |
16 | | for violating this Section, to the law enforcement agency |
17 | | that issued the citation or made the arrest. If more than |
18 | | one law enforcement agency is responsible for issuing the |
19 | | citation or making the arrest, one-half of the fine imposed |
20 | | shall be shared equally.
|
21 | | (2) Any person who commits a violation of this Section |
22 | | or a similar provision of a local ordinance may have his
or |
23 | | her driving privileges suspended or revoked by the |
24 | | Secretary of State for a
period of time determined by the |
25 | | Secretary of State. The Secretary of State may suspend or |
26 | | revoke the parking decal or device or the disability |
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1 | | license plate of any person who commits a violation of this |
2 | | Section.
|
3 | | (3) Any police officer may seize the parking decal or |
4 | | device from any
person who commits a violation of this |
5 | | Section. Any police officer may seize
the disability |
6 | | license plate upon authorization from the
Secretary of |
7 | | State. Any police officer may request that the Secretary of |
8 | | State
revoke the parking decal or device or the disability |
9 | | license
plate of any person who commits a violation of this |
10 | | Section.
|
11 | | (Source: P.A. 98-463, eff. 8-16-13; 99-143, eff. 7-27-15.)
|
12 | | Section 310. The Boat Registration and Safety Act is |
13 | | amended by changing Section 5-16c as follows:
|
14 | | (625 ILCS 45/5-16c) |
15 | | Sec. 5-16c. Operator involvement in personal injury or |
16 | | fatal boating accident; chemical tests. |
17 | | (a) Any person who operates or is in actual physical |
18 | | control of a motorboat within this State and who has been |
19 | | involved in a personal injury or fatal boating accident shall |
20 | | be deemed to have given consent to a breath test using a |
21 | | portable device as approved by the Department of State Police |
22 | | or to a chemical test or tests of blood, breath, other bodily |
23 | | substance, or urine for the purpose of determining the content |
24 | | of alcohol, other drug or drugs, or intoxicating compound or |
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1 | | compounds of the person's blood if arrested as evidenced by the |
2 | | issuance of a uniform citation for a violation of the Boat |
3 | | Registration and Safety Act or a similar provision of a local |
4 | | ordinance, with the exception of equipment violations |
5 | | contained in Article IV of this Act or similar provisions of |
6 | | local ordinances. The test or tests shall be administered at |
7 | | the direction of the arresting officer. The law enforcement |
8 | | agency employing the officer shall designate which of the |
9 | | aforesaid tests shall be administered. Up to 2 additional tests |
10 | | of urine or other bodily substance may be administered even |
11 | | after a blood or breath test or both has been administered. |
12 | | Compliance with this Section does not relieve the person from |
13 | | the requirements of any other Section of this Act. |
14 | | (b) Any person who is dead, unconscious, or who is |
15 | | otherwise in a
condition rendering that person incapable of |
16 | | refusal shall be deemed not to
have withdrawn the consent |
17 | | provided by subsection (a) of this Section. In
addition, if an |
18 | | operator of a motorboat is receiving medical treatment as a
|
19 | | result of a boating accident, any physician licensed to |
20 | | practice
medicine, licensed physician assistant, licensed |
21 | | advanced practice registered nurse, registered nurse, or a |
22 | | phlebotomist acting under the direction of
a licensed physician |
23 | | shall withdraw blood for testing purposes to ascertain
the |
24 | | presence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, or intoxicating
|
25 | | compound or compounds, upon the specific request of a law
|
26 | | enforcement officer. However, this testing shall not be |
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1 | | performed until, in
the opinion of the medical personnel on |
2 | | scene, the withdrawal can be made
without interfering with or |
3 | | endangering the well-being of the patient. |
4 | | (c) A person who is a CDL holder requested to submit to a |
5 | | test under subsection (a) of this Section shall be
warned by |
6 | | the law enforcement officer requesting the test that a refusal |
7 | | to
submit to the test, or submission to the test resulting in |
8 | | an alcohol
concentration of 0.08 or more, or any amount of a |
9 | | drug, substance,
or intoxicating compound
resulting from the |
10 | | unlawful use or consumption of cannabis listed in the
Cannabis |
11 | | Control Act, a controlled substance listed in the Illinois
|
12 | | Controlled Substances Act, an intoxicating compound listed in |
13 | | the Use of
Intoxicating Compounds Act, or methamphetamine as |
14 | | listed in the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection |
15 | | Act as detected in the person's blood, other bodily substance, |
16 | | or urine, may
result in the suspension of the person's |
17 | | privilege to operate a motor vehicle and may result in the |
18 | | disqualification of the person's privilege to operate a |
19 | | commercial motor vehicle, as provided in Section 6-514 of the |
20 | | Illinois Vehicle Code. A person who is not a CDL holder |
21 | | requested to submit to a test under subsection (a) of this |
22 | | Section shall be
warned by the law enforcement officer |
23 | | requesting the test that a refusal to
submit to the test, or |
24 | | submission to the test resulting in an alcohol
concentration of |
25 | | 0.08 or more, a tetrahydrocannabinol concentration in the |
26 | | person's whole blood or other bodily substance as defined in |
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1 | | paragraph 6 of subsection (a) of Section 11-501.2 of the |
2 | | Illinois Vehicle Code, or any amount of a drug, substance,
or |
3 | | intoxicating compound
resulting from the unlawful use or |
4 | | consumption of a controlled substance listed in the Illinois
|
5 | | Controlled Substances Act, an intoxicating compound listed in |
6 | | the Use of
Intoxicating Compounds Act, or methamphetamine as |
7 | | listed in the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection |
8 | | Act as detected in the person's blood, other bodily substance, |
9 | | or urine, may
result in the suspension of the person's |
10 | | privilege to operate a motor vehicle.
The length of the |
11 | | suspension shall be the same as outlined in Section
6-208.1 of |
12 | | the Illinois Vehicle Code regarding statutory summary |
13 | | suspensions. |
14 | | (d) If the person is a CDL holder and refuses testing or |
15 | | submits to a test which discloses
an alcohol concentration of |
16 | | 0.08 or more, or any amount of a drug,
substance,
or |
17 | | intoxicating compound in the person's blood, other bodily |
18 | | substance, or urine resulting from the
unlawful use or
|
19 | | consumption of cannabis listed in the Cannabis Control Act, a |
20 | | controlled
substance listed in the Illinois Controlled |
21 | | Substances Act, an
intoxicating
compound listed in the Use of |
22 | | Intoxicating Compounds Act, or methamphetamine as listed in the |
23 | | Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, the law
|
24 | | enforcement officer shall immediately submit a sworn report to |
25 | | the Secretary of
State on a form prescribed by the Secretary of |
26 | | State, certifying that the test or tests
were requested under |
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1 | | subsection (a) of this Section and the person refused to submit |
2 | | to a
test or tests or submitted to testing which disclosed an |
3 | | alcohol concentration
of 0.08 or more, or any amount of a drug, |
4 | | substance, or intoxicating
compound
in the
person's blood, |
5 | | other bodily substance, or urine, resulting from the unlawful |
6 | | use or consumption of
cannabis listed in the Cannabis Control |
7 | | Act, a controlled substance
listed in
the Illinois Controlled |
8 | | Substances Act,
an intoxicating compound listed in
the Use of |
9 | | Intoxicating Compounds Act, or methamphetamine as listed in the |
10 | | Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act. If the |
11 | | person is not a CDL holder and refuses testing or submits to a |
12 | | test which discloses
an alcohol concentration of 0.08 or more, |
13 | | a tetrahydrocannabinol concentration in the person's whole |
14 | | blood or other bodily substance as defined in paragraph 6 of |
15 | | subsection (a) of Section 11-501.2 of the Illinois Vehicle |
16 | | Code, or any amount of a drug,
substance,
or intoxicating |
17 | | compound in the person's blood, other bodily substance, or |
18 | | urine resulting from the
unlawful use or
consumption of a |
19 | | controlled
substance listed in the Illinois Controlled |
20 | | Substances Act, an
intoxicating
compound listed in the Use of |
21 | | Intoxicating Compounds Act, or methamphetamine as listed in the |
22 | | Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, the law
|
23 | | enforcement officer shall immediately submit a sworn report to |
24 | | the Secretary of
State on a form prescribed by the Secretary of |
25 | | State, certifying that the test or tests
were requested under |
26 | | subsection (a) of this Section and the person refused to submit |
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1 | | to a
test or tests or submitted to testing which disclosed an |
2 | | alcohol concentration
of 0.08 or more, a tetrahydrocannabinol |
3 | | concentration in the person's whole blood or other bodily |
4 | | substance as defined in paragraph 6 of subsection (a) of |
5 | | Section 11-501.2 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, or any amount of |
6 | | a drug, substance, or intoxicating
compound
in the
person's |
7 | | blood or urine, resulting from the unlawful use or consumption |
8 | | of
a controlled substance
listed in
the Illinois Controlled |
9 | | Substances Act,
an intoxicating compound listed in
the Use of |
10 | | Intoxicating Compounds Act, or methamphetamine as listed in the |
11 | | Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act. |
12 | | Upon receipt of the sworn report of a law enforcement |
13 | | officer, the
Secretary of State shall enter the suspension and |
14 | | disqualification to the person's driving record and the
|
15 | | suspension and disqualification shall be effective on the 46th |
16 | | day following the date notice of the
suspension was given to |
17 | | the person. |
18 | | The law enforcement officer submitting the sworn report |
19 | | shall serve immediate
notice of this suspension on the person |
20 | | and this suspension and disqualification shall be effective
on |
21 | | the 46th day following the date notice was given. |
22 | | In cases involving a person who is a CDL holder where the |
23 | | blood alcohol concentration of 0.08 or more,
or any amount
of a |
24 | | drug, substance, or intoxicating compound resulting from the |
25 | | unlawful
use or
consumption of cannabis listed in the Cannabis |
26 | | Control Act, a
controlled
substance listed in the Illinois |
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1 | | Controlled Substances Act,
an
intoxicating
compound listed in |
2 | | the Use of Intoxicating Compounds Act, or methamphetamine as |
3 | | listed in the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection |
4 | | Act, is established by a
subsequent analysis of blood, other |
5 | | bodily substance, or urine collected at the time of arrest, the
|
6 | | arresting officer shall give notice as provided in this Section |
7 | | or by deposit
in the United States mail of this notice in an |
8 | | envelope with postage prepaid
and addressed to the person at |
9 | | his or her address as shown on the uniform citation and the |
10 | | suspension and disqualification shall be effective on the 46th |
11 | | day following the date
notice was given. In cases involving a |
12 | | person who is not a CDL holder where the blood alcohol |
13 | | concentration of 0.08 or more, a tetrahydrocannabinol |
14 | | concentration in the person's whole blood or other bodily |
15 | | substance as defined in paragraph 6 of subsection (a) of |
16 | | Section 11-501.2 of the Illinois Vehicle Code,
or any amount
of |
17 | | a drug, substance, or intoxicating compound resulting from the |
18 | | unlawful
use or
consumption of a
controlled
substance listed in |
19 | | the Illinois Controlled Substances Act,
an
intoxicating
|
20 | | compound listed in the Use of Intoxicating Compounds Act, or |
21 | | methamphetamine as listed in the Methamphetamine Control and |
22 | | Community Protection Act, is established by a
subsequent |
23 | | analysis of blood, other bodily substance, or urine collected |
24 | | at the time of arrest, the
arresting officer shall give notice |
25 | | as provided in this Section or by deposit
in the United States |
26 | | mail of this notice in an envelope with postage prepaid
and |
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1 | | addressed to the person at his or her address as shown on the |
2 | | uniform citation and the suspension shall be effective on the |
3 | | 46th day following the date
notice was given. |
4 | | Upon receipt of the sworn report of a law enforcement |
5 | | officer, the Secretary of State
shall also give notice of the |
6 | | suspension and disqualification to the person by mailing a |
7 | | notice of
the effective date of the suspension and |
8 | | disqualification to the person. However, should the
sworn |
9 | | report be defective by not containing sufficient information or |
10 | | be
completed in error, the notice of the suspension and |
11 | | disqualification shall not be mailed to the
person or entered |
12 | | to the driving record, but rather the sworn report shall be
|
13 | | returned to the issuing law enforcement agency. |
14 | | (e) A person may contest this suspension of his or her
|
15 | | driving privileges and disqualification of his or her CDL |
16 | | privileges by
requesting an administrative hearing with the |
17 | | Secretary of State in accordance with
Section 2-118 of the |
18 | | Illinois Vehicle Code. At the conclusion of a hearing held |
19 | | under
Section 2-118 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, the Secretary |
20 | | of State may rescind, continue, or modify the
orders
of |
21 | | suspension and disqualification. If the Secretary of State does |
22 | | not rescind the orders of suspension and disqualification, a |
23 | | restricted
driving permit may be granted by the Secretary of |
24 | | State upon application being made and
good cause shown. A |
25 | | restricted driving permit may be granted to relieve undue
|
26 | | hardship to allow driving for employment, educational, and |
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1 | | medical purposes as
outlined in Section 6-206 of the Illinois |
2 | | Vehicle Code. The provisions of Section 6-206 of
the Illinois |
3 | | Vehicle Code shall apply. In accordance with 49 C.F.R. 384, the |
4 | | Secretary of State may not issue a restricted driving permit |
5 | | for the operation of a commercial motor vehicle to a person |
6 | | holding a CDL whose driving privileges have been suspended, |
7 | | revoked, cancelled, or disqualified. |
8 | | (f) For the purposes of this Section, a personal injury |
9 | | shall include
any type A injury as indicated on the accident |
10 | | report completed
by a law enforcement officer that requires |
11 | | immediate professional attention
in a doctor's office or a |
12 | | medical facility. A type A injury shall
include severely |
13 | | bleeding wounds, distorted extremities, and injuries that
|
14 | | require the injured party to be carried from the scene.
|
15 | | (Source: P.A. 98-103, eff. 1-1-14; 99-697, eff. 7-29-16.)
|
16 | | Section 315. The Criminal Code of 2012 is amended by |
17 | | changing Section 9-1 as follows:
|
18 | | (720 ILCS 5/9-1) (from Ch. 38, par. 9-1) |
19 | | Sec. 9-1. First degree Murder - Death penalties - |
20 | | Exceptions - Separate
Hearings - Proof - Findings - Appellate |
21 | | procedures - Reversals.
|
22 | | (a) A person who kills an individual without lawful |
23 | | justification commits
first degree murder if, in performing the |
24 | | acts which cause the death:
|
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1 | | (1) he either intends to kill or do great bodily harm |
2 | | to that
individual or another, or knows that such acts will |
3 | | cause death to that
individual or another; or
|
4 | | (2) he knows that such acts create a strong probability |
5 | | of death or
great bodily harm to that individual or |
6 | | another; or
|
7 | | (3) he is attempting or committing a forcible felony |
8 | | other than
second degree murder.
|
9 | | (b) Aggravating Factors. A defendant who at the time of the
|
10 | | commission of the offense has attained the age of 18 or more |
11 | | and who has
been found guilty of first degree murder may be |
12 | | sentenced to death if:
|
13 | | (1) the murdered individual was a peace officer or |
14 | | fireman killed in
the course of performing his official |
15 | | duties, to prevent the performance
of his official duties, |
16 | | or in retaliation for performing his official
duties, and |
17 | | the defendant knew or
should have known that the murdered |
18 | | individual was a peace officer or
fireman; or
|
19 | | (2) the murdered individual was an employee of an |
20 | | institution or
facility of the Department of Corrections, |
21 | | or any similar local
correctional agency, killed in the |
22 | | course of performing his official
duties, to prevent the |
23 | | performance of his official duties, or in
retaliation for |
24 | | performing his official duties, or the murdered
individual |
25 | | was an inmate at such institution or facility and was |
26 | | killed on the
grounds thereof, or the murdered individual |
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1 | | was otherwise present in such
institution or facility with |
2 | | the knowledge and approval of the chief
administrative |
3 | | officer thereof; or
|
4 | | (3) the defendant has been convicted of murdering two |
5 | | or more
individuals under subsection (a) of this Section or |
6 | | under any law of the
United States or of any state which is |
7 | | substantially similar to
subsection (a) of this Section |
8 | | regardless of whether the deaths
occurred as the result of |
9 | | the same act or of several related or
unrelated acts so |
10 | | long as the deaths were the result of either an intent
to |
11 | | kill more than one person or of separate acts which
the |
12 | | defendant knew would cause death or create a strong |
13 | | probability of
death or great bodily harm to the murdered |
14 | | individual or another; or
|
15 | | (4) the murdered individual was killed as a result of |
16 | | the
hijacking of an airplane, train, ship, bus or other |
17 | | public conveyance; or
|
18 | | (5) the defendant committed the murder pursuant to a |
19 | | contract,
agreement or understanding by which he was to |
20 | | receive money or anything
of value in return for committing |
21 | | the murder or procured another to
commit the murder for |
22 | | money or anything of value; or
|
23 | | (6) the murdered individual was killed in the course of |
24 | | another felony if:
|
25 | | (a) the murdered individual:
|
26 | | (i) was actually killed by the defendant, or
|
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1 | | (ii) received physical injuries personally |
2 | | inflicted by the defendant
substantially |
3 | | contemporaneously with physical injuries caused by |
4 | | one or
more persons for whose conduct the defendant |
5 | | is legally accountable under
Section 5-2 of this |
6 | | Code, and the physical injuries inflicted by |
7 | | either
the defendant or the other person or persons |
8 | | for whose conduct he is legally
accountable caused |
9 | | the death of the murdered individual; and
|
10 | | (b) in performing the acts which caused the death |
11 | | of the murdered
individual or which resulted in |
12 | | physical injuries personally inflicted by
the |
13 | | defendant on the murdered individual under the |
14 | | circumstances of
subdivision (ii) of subparagraph (a) |
15 | | of paragraph (6) of subsection (b) of
this Section, the |
16 | | defendant acted with the intent to kill the murdered
|
17 | | individual or with the knowledge that his acts created |
18 | | a strong probability
of death or great bodily harm to |
19 | | the murdered individual or another; and
|
20 | | (c) the other felony was an inherently violent |
21 | | crime
or the attempt to commit an inherently
violent |
22 | | crime.
In this subparagraph (c), "inherently violent |
23 | | crime" includes, but is not
limited to, armed robbery, |
24 | | robbery, predatory criminal sexual assault of a
child,
|
25 | | aggravated criminal sexual assault, aggravated |
26 | | kidnapping, aggravated vehicular
hijacking,
aggravated |
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1 | | arson, aggravated stalking, residential burglary, and |
2 | | home
invasion; or
|
3 | | (7) the murdered individual was under 12 years of age |
4 | | and the
death resulted from exceptionally brutal or heinous |
5 | | behavior indicative of
wanton cruelty; or
|
6 | | (8) the defendant committed the murder with intent to
|
7 | | prevent the murdered individual from testifying or |
8 | | participating in any
criminal investigation or prosecution
|
9 | | or giving material assistance to the State in any |
10 | | investigation or
prosecution, either against the defendant |
11 | | or another; or the defendant
committed the murder because |
12 | | the murdered individual was a witness in any
prosecution or |
13 | | gave material assistance to the State in any investigation
|
14 | | or prosecution, either against the defendant or another;
|
15 | | for purposes of this paragraph (8), "participating in any |
16 | | criminal
investigation
or prosecution" is intended to |
17 | | include those appearing in the proceedings in
any capacity |
18 | | such as trial judges, prosecutors, defense attorneys,
|
19 | | investigators, witnesses, or jurors; or
|
20 | | (9) the defendant, while committing an offense |
21 | | punishable under
Sections 401, 401.1, 401.2, 405, 405.2, |
22 | | 407 or 407.1 or subsection (b) of
Section
404 of the |
23 | | Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or while engaged in a
|
24 | | conspiracy or solicitation to commit such offense, |
25 | | intentionally killed an
individual or counseled, |
26 | | commanded, induced, procured or caused the
intentional |
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1 | | killing of the murdered individual; or
|
2 | | (10) the defendant was incarcerated in an institution |
3 | | or facility of
the Department of Corrections at the time of |
4 | | the murder, and while
committing an offense punishable as a |
5 | | felony under Illinois law, or while
engaged in a conspiracy |
6 | | or solicitation to commit such offense,
intentionally |
7 | | killed an individual or counseled, commanded, induced,
|
8 | | procured or caused the intentional killing of the murdered |
9 | | individual; or
|
10 | | (11) the murder was committed in a cold, calculated and |
11 | | premeditated
manner pursuant to a preconceived plan, |
12 | | scheme or design to take a human
life by unlawful means, |
13 | | and the conduct of the defendant created a
reasonable |
14 | | expectation that the death of a human being would result
|
15 | | therefrom; or
|
16 | | (12) the murdered individual was an emergency medical |
17 | | technician -
ambulance, emergency medical technician - |
18 | | intermediate, emergency medical
technician - paramedic, |
19 | | ambulance driver, or
other medical assistance or first aid |
20 | | personnel, employed by a municipality
or other |
21 | | governmental unit, killed in the course of performing his |
22 | | official
duties, to prevent the performance of his official |
23 | | duties, or in retaliation
for performing his official |
24 | | duties, and the defendant knew or should have
known that |
25 | | the murdered individual was an emergency medical |
26 | | technician -
ambulance, emergency medical technician - |
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1 | | intermediate, emergency medical
technician - paramedic, |
2 | | ambulance driver, or
other medical assistance or first aid |
3 | | personnel; or
|
4 | | (13) the defendant was a principal administrator, |
5 | | organizer, or leader
of a calculated criminal drug |
6 | | conspiracy consisting of a hierarchical position
of |
7 | | authority superior to that of all other members of the |
8 | | conspiracy, and the
defendant counseled, commanded, |
9 | | induced, procured, or caused the intentional
killing of the |
10 | | murdered person;
or
|
11 | | (14) the murder was intentional and involved the |
12 | | infliction of torture.
For
the purpose of this Section |
13 | | torture means the infliction of or subjection to
extreme |
14 | | physical pain, motivated by an intent to increase or |
15 | | prolong the pain,
suffering or agony of the victim; or
|
16 | | (15) the murder was committed as a result of the |
17 | | intentional discharge
of a firearm by the defendant from a |
18 | | motor vehicle and the victim was not
present within the |
19 | | motor vehicle; or
|
20 | | (16) the murdered individual was 60 years of age or |
21 | | older and the death
resulted
from exceptionally brutal or |
22 | | heinous behavior indicative of wanton cruelty; or
|
23 | | (17) the murdered individual was a person with a |
24 | | disability and the defendant knew
or
should have known that |
25 | | the murdered individual was a person with a disability. For |
26 | | purposes of
this paragraph (17), "person with a disability" |
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1 | | means a person who suffers from a
permanent physical or |
2 | | mental impairment resulting from disease, an injury,
a |
3 | | functional disorder, or a congenital condition that |
4 | | renders the person
incapable of
adequately providing for |
5 | | his or her own health or personal care; or
|
6 | | (18) the murder was committed by reason of any person's |
7 | | activity as a
community policing volunteer or to prevent |
8 | | any person from engaging in activity
as a community |
9 | | policing volunteer; or
|
10 | | (19) the murdered individual was subject to an order of |
11 | | protection and the
murder was committed by a person against |
12 | | whom the same order of protection was
issued under the |
13 | | Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986; or
|
14 | | (20) the murdered individual was known by the defendant |
15 | | to be a teacher or
other person employed in any school and |
16 | | the teacher or other employee is upon
the grounds of a |
17 | | school or grounds adjacent to a school, or is in any part |
18 | | of a
building used for school purposes; or
|
19 | | (21) the murder was committed by the defendant in |
20 | | connection with or as
a
result of the offense of terrorism |
21 | | as defined in Section 29D-14.9 of this
Code.
|
22 | | (b-5) Aggravating Factor; Natural Life Imprisonment. A |
23 | | defendant who has been found guilty of first degree murder and |
24 | | who at the time of the commission of the offense had attained |
25 | | the age of 18 years or more may be sentenced to natural life |
26 | | imprisonment if
(i) the murdered individual was a physician, |
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1 | | physician assistant, psychologist, nurse, or advanced practice |
2 | | registered nurse, (ii) the defendant knew or should have
known |
3 | | that the murdered individual was a physician, physician |
4 | | assistant, psychologist, nurse, or advanced practice |
5 | | registered nurse, and (iii) the murdered individual was killed |
6 | | in the course of acting in his or her capacity as a physician, |
7 | | physician assistant, psychologist, nurse, or advanced practice |
8 | | registered nurse, or to prevent him or her from acting in that |
9 | | capacity, or in retaliation
for his or her acting in that |
10 | | capacity. |
11 | | (c) Consideration of factors in Aggravation and |
12 | | Mitigation.
|
13 | | The court shall consider, or shall instruct the jury to |
14 | | consider any
aggravating and any mitigating factors which are |
15 | | relevant to the
imposition of the death penalty. Aggravating |
16 | | factors may include but
need not be limited to those factors |
17 | | set forth in subsection (b).
Mitigating factors may include but |
18 | | need not be limited to the following:
|
19 | | (1) the defendant has no significant history of prior |
20 | | criminal
activity;
|
21 | | (2) the murder was committed while the defendant was |
22 | | under
the influence of extreme mental or emotional |
23 | | disturbance, although not such
as to constitute a defense |
24 | | to prosecution;
|
25 | | (3) the murdered individual was a participant in the
|
26 | | defendant's homicidal conduct or consented to the |
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1 | | homicidal act;
|
2 | | (4) the defendant acted under the compulsion of threat |
3 | | or
menace of the imminent infliction of death or great |
4 | | bodily harm;
|
5 | | (5) the defendant was not personally present during
|
6 | | commission of the act or acts causing death;
|
7 | | (6) the defendant's background includes a history of |
8 | | extreme emotional
or physical abuse;
|
9 | | (7) the defendant suffers from a reduced mental |
10 | | capacity.
|
11 | | (d) Separate sentencing hearing.
|
12 | | Where requested by the State, the court shall conduct a |
13 | | separate
sentencing proceeding to determine the existence of |
14 | | factors set forth in
subsection (b) and to consider any |
15 | | aggravating or mitigating factors as
indicated in subsection |
16 | | (c). The proceeding shall be conducted:
|
17 | | (1) before the jury that determined the defendant's |
18 | | guilt; or
|
19 | | (2) before a jury impanelled for the purpose of the |
20 | | proceeding if:
|
21 | | A. the defendant was convicted upon a plea of |
22 | | guilty; or
|
23 | | B. the defendant was convicted after a trial before |
24 | | the court
sitting without a jury; or
|
25 | | C. the court for good cause shown discharges the |
26 | | jury that
determined the defendant's guilt; or
|
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1 | | (3) before the court alone if the defendant waives a |
2 | | jury
for the separate proceeding.
|
3 | | (e) Evidence and Argument.
|
4 | | During the proceeding any information relevant to any of |
5 | | the factors
set forth in subsection (b) may be presented by |
6 | | either the State or the
defendant under the rules governing the |
7 | | admission of evidence at
criminal trials. Any information |
8 | | relevant to any additional aggravating
factors or any |
9 | | mitigating factors indicated in subsection (c) may be
presented |
10 | | by the State or defendant regardless of its admissibility
under |
11 | | the rules governing the admission of evidence at criminal |
12 | | trials.
The State and the defendant shall be given fair |
13 | | opportunity to rebut any
information received at the hearing.
|
14 | | (f) Proof.
|
15 | | The burden of proof of establishing the existence of any of |
16 | | the
factors set forth in subsection (b) is on the State and |
17 | | shall not be
satisfied unless established beyond a reasonable |
18 | | doubt.
|
19 | | (g) Procedure - Jury.
|
20 | | If at the separate sentencing proceeding the jury finds |
21 | | that none of
the factors set forth in subsection (b) exists, |
22 | | the court shall sentence
the defendant to a term of |
23 | | imprisonment under Chapter V of the Unified
Code of |
24 | | Corrections. If there is a unanimous finding by the jury that
|
25 | | one or more of the factors set forth in subsection (b) exist, |
26 | | the jury
shall consider aggravating and mitigating factors as |
|
| | HB0313 Engrossed | - 662 - | LRB100 04130 SMS 14135 b |
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|
1 | | instructed by the
court and shall determine whether the |
2 | | sentence of death shall be
imposed. If the jury determines |
3 | | unanimously, after weighing the factors in
aggravation and |
4 | | mitigation, that death is the appropriate sentence, the court |
5 | | shall sentence the defendant to death.
If the court does not |
6 | | concur with the jury determination that death is the
|
7 | | appropriate sentence, the court shall set forth reasons in |
8 | | writing
including what facts or circumstances the court relied |
9 | | upon,
along with any relevant
documents, that compelled the |
10 | | court to non-concur with the sentence. This
document and any |
11 | | attachments shall be part of the record for appellate
review. |
12 | | The court shall be bound by the jury's sentencing |
13 | | determination.
|
14 | | If after weighing the factors in aggravation and |
15 | | mitigation, one or more
jurors determines that death is not the |
16 | | appropriate sentence,
the
court shall sentence the defendant to |
17 | | a term of imprisonment under
Chapter V of the Unified Code of |
18 | | Corrections.
|
19 | | (h) Procedure - No Jury.
|
20 | | In a proceeding before the court alone, if the court finds |
21 | | that none
of the factors found in subsection (b) exists, the |
22 | | court shall sentence
the defendant to a term of imprisonment |
23 | | under Chapter V of the Unified
Code of Corrections.
|
24 | | If the Court determines that one or more of the factors set |
25 | | forth in
subsection (b) exists, the Court shall consider any |
26 | | aggravating and
mitigating factors as indicated in subsection |
|
| | HB0313 Engrossed | - 663 - | LRB100 04130 SMS 14135 b |
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|
1 | | (c). If the Court
determines, after weighing the factors in |
2 | | aggravation and mitigation, that
death is the appropriate |
3 | | sentence, the Court shall sentence the
defendant to death.
|
4 | | If
the court finds that death is not the
appropriate |
5 | | sentence, the
court shall sentence the defendant to a term of |
6 | | imprisonment under
Chapter V of the Unified Code of |
7 | | Corrections.
|
8 | | (h-5) Decertification as a capital case.
|
9 | | In a case in which the defendant has been found guilty of |
10 | | first degree murder
by a judge or jury, or a case on remand for |
11 | | resentencing, and the State seeks
the death penalty as an |
12 | | appropriate
sentence,
on the court's own motion or the written |
13 | | motion of the defendant, the court
may decertify the case as a |
14 | | death penalty case if the court finds that the only
evidence |
15 | | supporting the defendant's conviction is the uncorroborated |
16 | | testimony
of an informant witness, as defined in Section 115-21 |
17 | | of the Code of Criminal
Procedure of 1963, concerning the |
18 | | confession or admission of the defendant or
that the sole |
19 | | evidence against the defendant is a single eyewitness or single
|
20 | | accomplice without any other corroborating evidence.
If the |
21 | | court decertifies the case as a capital case
under either of |
22 | | the grounds set forth above, the court shall issue a
written |
23 | | finding. The State may pursue its right to appeal the |
24 | | decertification
pursuant to Supreme Court Rule 604(a)(1). If |
25 | | the court does not
decertify the case as a capital case, the |
26 | | matter shall proceed to the
eligibility phase of the sentencing |
|
| | HB0313 Engrossed | - 664 - | LRB100 04130 SMS 14135 b |
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|
1 | | hearing.
|
2 | | (i) Appellate Procedure.
|
3 | | The conviction and sentence of death shall be subject to |
4 | | automatic
review by the Supreme Court. Such review shall be in |
5 | | accordance with
rules promulgated by the Supreme Court.
The |
6 | | Illinois Supreme Court may overturn the death sentence, and |
7 | | order the
imposition of imprisonment under Chapter V of the |
8 | | Unified Code of
Corrections if the court finds that the death |
9 | | sentence is fundamentally
unjust as applied to the particular |
10 | | case.
If the Illinois Supreme Court finds that the
death |
11 | | sentence is fundamentally unjust as applied to the particular |
12 | | case,
independent of any procedural grounds for relief, the |
13 | | Illinois Supreme Court
shall issue a written opinion explaining |
14 | | this finding.
|
15 | | (j) Disposition of reversed death sentence.
|
16 | | In the event that the death penalty in this Act is held to |
17 | | be
unconstitutional by the Supreme Court of the United States |
18 | | or of the
State of Illinois, any person convicted of first |
19 | | degree murder shall be
sentenced by the court to a term of |
20 | | imprisonment under Chapter V of the
Unified Code of |
21 | | Corrections.
|
22 | | In the event that any death sentence pursuant to the |
23 | | sentencing
provisions of this Section is declared |
24 | | unconstitutional by the Supreme
Court of the United States or |
25 | | of the State of Illinois, the court having
jurisdiction over a |
26 | | person previously sentenced to death shall cause the
defendant |
|
| | HB0313 Engrossed | - 665 - | LRB100 04130 SMS 14135 b |
|
|
1 | | to be brought before the court, and the court shall sentence
|
2 | | the defendant to a term of imprisonment under Chapter V of the
|
3 | | Unified Code of Corrections.
|
4 | | (k) Guidelines for seeking the death penalty.
|
5 | | The Attorney General and
State's Attorneys Association |
6 | | shall consult on voluntary guidelines for
procedures governing |
7 | | whether or not to seek the death penalty. The guidelines
do not
|
8 | | have the force of law and are only advisory in nature.
|
9 | | (Source: P.A. 99-143, eff. 7-27-15.)
|
10 | | Section 320. The Illinois Controlled Substances Act is |
11 | | amended by changing Sections 102, 302, 303.05, 313, and 320 as |
12 | | follows:
|
13 | | (720 ILCS 570/102) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 1102) |
14 | | Sec. 102. Definitions. As used in this Act, unless the |
15 | | context
otherwise requires:
|
16 | | (a) "Addict" means any person who habitually uses any drug, |
17 | | chemical,
substance or dangerous drug other than alcohol so as |
18 | | to endanger the public
morals, health, safety or welfare or who |
19 | | is so far addicted to the use of a
dangerous drug or controlled |
20 | | substance other than alcohol as to have lost
the power of self |
21 | | control with reference to his or her addiction.
|
22 | | (b) "Administer" means the direct application of a |
23 | | controlled
substance, whether by injection, inhalation, |
24 | | ingestion, or any other
means, to the body of a patient, |
|
| | HB0313 Engrossed | - 666 - | LRB100 04130 SMS 14135 b |
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|
1 | | research subject, or animal (as
defined by the Humane |
2 | | Euthanasia in Animal Shelters Act) by:
|
3 | | (1) a practitioner (or, in his or her presence, by his |
4 | | or her authorized agent),
|
5 | | (2) the patient or research subject pursuant to an |
6 | | order, or
|
7 | | (3) a euthanasia technician as defined by the Humane |
8 | | Euthanasia in
Animal Shelters Act.
|
9 | | (c) "Agent" means an authorized person who acts on behalf |
10 | | of or at
the direction of a manufacturer, distributor, |
11 | | dispenser, prescriber, or practitioner. It does not
include a |
12 | | common or contract carrier, public warehouseman or employee of
|
13 | | the carrier or warehouseman.
|
14 | | (c-1) "Anabolic Steroids" means any drug or hormonal |
15 | | substance,
chemically and pharmacologically related to |
16 | | testosterone (other than
estrogens, progestins, |
17 | | corticosteroids, and dehydroepiandrosterone),
and includes:
|
18 | | (i) 3[beta],17-dihydroxy-5a-androstane, |
19 | | (ii) 3[alpha],17[beta]-dihydroxy-5a-androstane, |
20 | | (iii) 5[alpha]-androstan-3,17-dione, |
21 | | (iv) 1-androstenediol (3[beta], |
22 | | 17[beta]-dihydroxy-5[alpha]-androst-1-ene), |
23 | | (v) 1-androstenediol (3[alpha], |
24 | | 17[beta]-dihydroxy-5[alpha]-androst-1-ene), |
25 | | (vi) 4-androstenediol |
26 | | (3[beta],17[beta]-dihydroxy-androst-4-ene), |
|
| | HB0313 Engrossed | - 667 - | LRB100 04130 SMS 14135 b |
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|
1 | | (vii) 5-androstenediol |
2 | | (3[beta],17[beta]-dihydroxy-androst-5-ene), |
3 | | (viii) 1-androstenedione |
4 | | ([5alpha]-androst-1-en-3,17-dione), |
5 | | (ix) 4-androstenedione |
6 | | (androst-4-en-3,17-dione), |
7 | | (x) 5-androstenedione |
8 | | (androst-5-en-3,17-dione), |
9 | | (xi) bolasterone (7[alpha],17a-dimethyl-17[beta]- |
10 | | hydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one), |
11 | | (xii) boldenone (17[beta]-hydroxyandrost- |
12 | | 1,4,-diene-3-one), |
13 | | (xiii) boldione (androsta-1,4- |
14 | | diene-3,17-dione), |
15 | | (xiv) calusterone (7[beta],17[alpha]-dimethyl-17 |
16 | | [beta]-hydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one), |
17 | | (xv) clostebol (4-chloro-17[beta]- |
18 | | hydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one), |
19 | | (xvi) dehydrochloromethyltestosterone (4-chloro- |
20 | | 17[beta]-hydroxy-17[alpha]-methyl- |
21 | | androst-1,4-dien-3-one), |
22 | | (xvii) desoxymethyltestosterone |
23 | | (17[alpha]-methyl-5[alpha] |
24 | | -androst-2-en-17[beta]-ol)(a.k.a., madol), |
25 | | (xviii) [delta]1-dihydrotestosterone (a.k.a. |
26 | | '1-testosterone') (17[beta]-hydroxy- |
|
| | HB0313 Engrossed | - 668 - | LRB100 04130 SMS 14135 b |
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|
1 | | 5[alpha]-androst-1-en-3-one), |
2 | | (xix) 4-dihydrotestosterone (17[beta]-hydroxy- |
3 | | androstan-3-one), |
4 | | (xx) drostanolone (17[beta]-hydroxy-2[alpha]-methyl- |
5 | | 5[alpha]-androstan-3-one), |
6 | | (xxi) ethylestrenol (17[alpha]-ethyl-17[beta]- |
7 | | hydroxyestr-4-ene), |
8 | | (xxii) fluoxymesterone (9-fluoro-17[alpha]-methyl- |
9 | | 1[beta],17[beta]-dihydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one), |
10 | | (xxiii) formebolone (2-formyl-17[alpha]-methyl-11[alpha], |
11 | | 17[beta]-dihydroxyandrost-1,4-dien-3-one), |
12 | | (xxiv) furazabol (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]- |
13 | | hydroxyandrostano[2,3-c]-furazan), |
14 | | (xxv) 13[beta]-ethyl-17[beta]-hydroxygon-4-en-3-one) |
15 | | (xxvi) 4-hydroxytestosterone (4,17[beta]-dihydroxy- |
16 | | androst-4-en-3-one), |
17 | | (xxvii) 4-hydroxy-19-nortestosterone (4,17[beta]- |
18 | | dihydroxy-estr-4-en-3-one), |
19 | | (xxviii) mestanolone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]- |
20 | | hydroxy-5-androstan-3-one), |
21 | | (xxix) mesterolone (1amethyl-17[beta]-hydroxy- |
22 | | [5a]-androstan-3-one), |
23 | | (xxx) methandienone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]- |
24 | | hydroxyandrost-1,4-dien-3-one), |
25 | | (xxxi) methandriol (17[alpha]-methyl-3[beta],17[beta]- |
26 | | dihydroxyandrost-5-ene), |
|
| | HB0313 Engrossed | - 669 - | LRB100 04130 SMS 14135 b |
|
|
1 | | (xxxii) methenolone (1-methyl-17[beta]-hydroxy- |
2 | | 5[alpha]-androst-1-en-3-one), |
3 | | (xxxiii) 17[alpha]-methyl-3[beta], 17[beta]- |
4 | | dihydroxy-5a-androstane), |
5 | | (xxxiv) 17[alpha]-methyl-3[alpha],17[beta]-dihydroxy |
6 | | -5a-androstane), |
7 | | (xxxv) 17[alpha]-methyl-3[beta],17[beta]- |
8 | | dihydroxyandrost-4-ene), |
9 | | (xxxvi) 17[alpha]-methyl-4-hydroxynandrolone (17[alpha]- |
10 | | methyl-4-hydroxy-17[beta]-hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one), |
11 | | (xxxvii) methyldienolone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]- |
12 | | hydroxyestra-4,9(10)-dien-3-one), |
13 | | (xxxviii) methyltrienolone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]- |
14 | | hydroxyestra-4,9-11-trien-3-one), |
15 | | (xxxix) methyltestosterone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]- |
16 | | hydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one), |
17 | | (xl) mibolerone (7[alpha],17a-dimethyl-17[beta]- |
18 | | hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one), |
19 | | (xli) 17[alpha]-methyl-[delta]1-dihydrotestosterone |
20 | | (17b[beta]-hydroxy-17[alpha]-methyl-5[alpha]- |
21 | | androst-1-en-3-one)(a.k.a. '17-[alpha]-methyl- |
22 | | 1-testosterone'), |
23 | | (xlii) nandrolone (17[beta]-hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one), |
24 | | (xliii) 19-nor-4-androstenediol (3[beta], 17[beta]- |
25 | | dihydroxyestr-4-ene), |
26 | | (xliv) 19-nor-4-androstenediol (3[alpha], 17[beta]- |
|
| | HB0313 Engrossed | - 670 - | LRB100 04130 SMS 14135 b |
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|
1 | | dihydroxyestr-4-ene), |
2 | | (xlv) 19-nor-5-androstenediol (3[beta], 17[beta]- |
3 | | dihydroxyestr-5-ene), |
4 | | (xlvi) 19-nor-5-androstenediol (3[alpha], 17[beta]- |
5 | | dihydroxyestr-5-ene), |
6 | | (xlvii) 19-nor-4,9(10)-androstadienedione |
7 | | (estra-4,9(10)-diene-3,17-dione), |
8 | | (xlviii) 19-nor-4-androstenedione (estr-4- |
9 | | en-3,17-dione), |
10 | | (xlix) 19-nor-5-androstenedione (estr-5- |
11 | | en-3,17-dione), |
12 | | (l) norbolethone (13[beta], 17a-diethyl-17[beta]- |
13 | | hydroxygon-4-en-3-one), |
14 | | (li) norclostebol (4-chloro-17[beta]- |
15 | | hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one), |
16 | | (lii) norethandrolone (17[alpha]-ethyl-17[beta]- |
17 | | hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one), |
18 | | (liii) normethandrolone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]- |
19 | | hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one), |
20 | | (liv) oxandrolone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-hydroxy- |
21 | | 2-oxa-5[alpha]-androstan-3-one), |
22 | | (lv) oxymesterone (17[alpha]-methyl-4,17[beta]- |
23 | | dihydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one), |
24 | | (lvi) oxymetholone (17[alpha]-methyl-2-hydroxymethylene- |
25 | | 17[beta]-hydroxy-(5[alpha]-androstan-3-one), |
26 | | (lvii) stanozolol (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-hydroxy- |
|
| | HB0313 Engrossed | - 671 - | LRB100 04130 SMS 14135 b |
|
|
1 | | (5[alpha]-androst-2-eno[3,2-c]-pyrazole), |
2 | | (lviii) stenbolone (17[beta]-hydroxy-2-methyl- |
3 | | (5[alpha]-androst-1-en-3-one), |
4 | | (lix) testolactone (13-hydroxy-3-oxo-13,17- |
5 | | secoandrosta-1,4-dien-17-oic |
6 | | acid lactone), |
7 | | (lx) testosterone (17[beta]-hydroxyandrost- |
8 | | 4-en-3-one), |
9 | | (lxi) tetrahydrogestrinone (13[beta], 17[alpha]- |
10 | | diethyl-17[beta]-hydroxygon- |
11 | | 4,9,11-trien-3-one), |
12 | | (lxii) trenbolone (17[beta]-hydroxyestr-4,9, |
13 | | 11-trien-3-one).
|
14 | | Any person who is otherwise lawfully in possession of an |
15 | | anabolic
steroid, or who otherwise lawfully manufactures, |
16 | | distributes, dispenses,
delivers, or possesses with intent to |
17 | | deliver an anabolic steroid, which
anabolic steroid is |
18 | | expressly intended for and lawfully allowed to be
administered |
19 | | through implants to livestock or other nonhuman species, and
|
20 | | which is approved by the Secretary of Health and Human Services |
21 | | for such
administration, and which the person intends to |
22 | | administer or have
administered through such implants, shall |
23 | | not be considered to be in
unauthorized possession or to |
24 | | unlawfully manufacture, distribute, dispense,
deliver, or |
25 | | possess with intent to deliver such anabolic steroid for
|
26 | | purposes of this Act.
|
|
| | HB0313 Engrossed | - 672 - | LRB100 04130 SMS 14135 b |
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|
1 | | (d) "Administration" means the Drug Enforcement |
2 | | Administration,
United States Department of Justice, or its |
3 | | successor agency.
|
4 | | (d-5) "Clinical Director, Prescription Monitoring Program" |
5 | | means a Department of Human Services administrative employee |
6 | | licensed to either prescribe or dispense controlled substances |
7 | | who shall run the clinical aspects of the Department of Human |
8 | | Services Prescription Monitoring Program and its Prescription |
9 | | Information Library. |
10 | | (d-10) "Compounding" means the preparation and mixing of |
11 | | components, excluding flavorings, (1) as the result of a |
12 | | prescriber's prescription drug order or initiative based on the |
13 | | prescriber-patient-pharmacist relationship in the course of |
14 | | professional practice or (2) for the purpose of, or incident |
15 | | to, research, teaching, or chemical analysis and not for sale |
16 | | or dispensing. "Compounding" includes the preparation of drugs |
17 | | or devices in anticipation of receiving prescription drug |
18 | | orders based on routine, regularly observed dispensing |
19 | | patterns. Commercially available products may be compounded |
20 | | for dispensing to individual patients only if both of the |
21 | | following conditions are met: (i) the commercial product is not |
22 | | reasonably available from normal distribution channels in a |
23 | | timely manner to meet the patient's needs and (ii) the |
24 | | prescribing practitioner has requested that the drug be |
25 | | compounded. |
26 | | (e) "Control" means to add a drug or other substance, or |
|
| | HB0313 Engrossed | - 673 - | LRB100 04130 SMS 14135 b |
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|
1 | | immediate
precursor, to a Schedule whether by
transfer from |
2 | | another Schedule or otherwise.
|
3 | | (f) "Controlled Substance" means (i) a drug, substance, |
4 | | immediate
precursor, or synthetic drug in the Schedules of |
5 | | Article II of this Act or (ii) a drug or other substance, or |
6 | | immediate precursor, designated as a controlled substance by |
7 | | the Department through administrative rule. The term does not |
8 | | include distilled spirits, wine, malt beverages, or tobacco, as |
9 | | those terms are
defined or used in the Liquor Control Act of |
10 | | 1934 and the Tobacco Products Tax
Act of 1995.
|
11 | | (f-5) "Controlled substance analog" means a substance: |
12 | | (1) the chemical structure of which is substantially |
13 | | similar to the chemical structure of a controlled substance |
14 | | in Schedule I or II; |
15 | | (2) which has a stimulant, depressant, or |
16 | | hallucinogenic effect on the central nervous system that is |
17 | | substantially similar to or greater than the stimulant, |
18 | | depressant, or hallucinogenic effect on the central |
19 | | nervous system of a controlled substance in Schedule I or |
20 | | II; or |
21 | | (3) with respect to a particular person, which such |
22 | | person represents or intends to have a stimulant, |
23 | | depressant, or hallucinogenic effect on the central |
24 | | nervous system that is substantially similar to or greater |
25 | | than the stimulant, depressant, or hallucinogenic effect |
26 | | on the central nervous system of a controlled substance in |
|
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|
1 | | Schedule I or II. |
2 | | (g) "Counterfeit substance" means a controlled substance, |
3 | | which, or
the container or labeling of which, without |
4 | | authorization bears the
trademark, trade name, or other |
5 | | identifying mark, imprint, number or
device, or any likeness |
6 | | thereof, of a manufacturer, distributor, or
dispenser other |
7 | | than the person who in fact manufactured, distributed,
or |
8 | | dispensed the substance.
|
9 | | (h) "Deliver" or "delivery" means the actual, constructive |
10 | | or
attempted transfer of possession of a controlled substance, |
11 | | with or
without consideration, whether or not there is an |
12 | | agency relationship.
|
13 | | (i) "Department" means the Illinois Department of Human |
14 | | Services (as
successor to the Department of Alcoholism and |
15 | | Substance Abuse) or its successor agency.
|
16 | | (j) (Blank).
|
17 | | (k) "Department of Corrections" means the Department of |
18 | | Corrections
of the State of Illinois or its successor agency.
|
19 | | (l) "Department of Financial and Professional Regulation" |
20 | | means the Department
of Financial and Professional Regulation |
21 | | of the State of Illinois or its successor agency.
|
22 | | (m) "Depressant" means any drug that (i) causes an overall |
23 | | depression of central nervous system functions, (ii) causes |
24 | | impaired consciousness and awareness, and (iii) can be |
25 | | habit-forming or lead to a substance abuse problem, including |
26 | | but not limited to alcohol, cannabis and its active principles |
|
| | HB0313 Engrossed | - 675 - | LRB100 04130 SMS 14135 b |
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1 | | and their analogs, benzodiazepines and their analogs, |
2 | | barbiturates and their analogs, opioids (natural and |
3 | | synthetic) and their analogs, and chloral hydrate and similar |
4 | | sedative hypnotics.
|
5 | | (n) (Blank).
|
6 | | (o) "Director" means the Director of the Illinois State |
7 | | Police or his or her designated agents.
|
8 | | (p) "Dispense" means to deliver a controlled substance to |
9 | | an
ultimate user or research subject by or pursuant to the |
10 | | lawful order of
a prescriber, including the prescribing, |
11 | | administering, packaging,
labeling, or compounding necessary |
12 | | to prepare the substance for that
delivery.
|
13 | | (q) "Dispenser" means a practitioner who dispenses.
|
14 | | (r) "Distribute" means to deliver, other than by |
15 | | administering or
dispensing, a controlled substance.
|
16 | | (s) "Distributor" means a person who distributes.
|
17 | | (t) "Drug" means (1) substances recognized as drugs in the |
18 | | official
United States Pharmacopoeia, Official Homeopathic |
19 | | Pharmacopoeia of the
United States, or official National |
20 | | Formulary, or any supplement to any
of them; (2) substances |
21 | | intended for use in diagnosis, cure, mitigation,
treatment, or |
22 | | prevention of disease in man or animals; (3) substances
(other |
23 | | than food) intended to affect the structure of any function of
|
24 | | the body of man or animals and (4) substances intended for use |
25 | | as a
component of any article specified in clause (1), (2), or |
26 | | (3) of this
subsection. It does not include devices or their |
|
| | HB0313 Engrossed | - 676 - | LRB100 04130 SMS 14135 b |
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|
1 | | components, parts, or
accessories.
|
2 | | (t-3) "Electronic health record" or "EHR" means an |
3 | | electronic record of health-related information on an |
4 | | individual that is created, gathered, managed, and consulted by |
5 | | authorized health care clinicians and staff. |
6 | | (t-5) "Euthanasia agency" means
an entity certified by the |
7 | | Department of Financial and Professional Regulation for the
|
8 | | purpose of animal euthanasia that holds an animal control |
9 | | facility license or
animal
shelter license under the Animal |
10 | | Welfare Act. A euthanasia agency is
authorized to purchase, |
11 | | store, possess, and utilize Schedule II nonnarcotic and
|
12 | | Schedule III nonnarcotic drugs for the sole purpose of animal |
13 | | euthanasia.
|
14 | | (t-10) "Euthanasia drugs" means Schedule II or Schedule III |
15 | | substances
(nonnarcotic controlled substances) that are used |
16 | | by a euthanasia agency for
the purpose of animal euthanasia.
|
17 | | (u) "Good faith" means the prescribing or dispensing of a |
18 | | controlled
substance by a practitioner in the regular course of |
19 | | professional
treatment to or for any person who is under his or |
20 | | her treatment for a
pathology or condition other than that |
21 | | individual's physical or
psychological dependence upon or |
22 | | addiction to a controlled substance,
except as provided herein: |
23 | | and application of the term to a pharmacist
shall mean the |
24 | | dispensing of a controlled substance pursuant to the
|
25 | | prescriber's order which in the professional judgment of the |
26 | | pharmacist
is lawful. The pharmacist shall be guided by |
|
| | HB0313 Engrossed | - 677 - | LRB100 04130 SMS 14135 b |
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|
1 | | accepted professional
standards including, but not limited to |
2 | | the following, in making the
judgment:
|
3 | | (1) lack of consistency of prescriber-patient |
4 | | relationship,
|
5 | | (2) frequency of prescriptions for same drug by one |
6 | | prescriber for
large numbers of patients,
|
7 | | (3) quantities beyond those normally prescribed,
|
8 | | (4) unusual dosages (recognizing that there may be |
9 | | clinical circumstances where more or less than the usual |
10 | | dose may be used legitimately),
|
11 | | (5) unusual geographic distances between patient, |
12 | | pharmacist and
prescriber,
|
13 | | (6) consistent prescribing of habit-forming drugs.
|
14 | | (u-0.5) "Hallucinogen" means a drug that causes markedly |
15 | | altered sensory perception leading to hallucinations of any |
16 | | type. |
17 | | (u-1) "Home infusion services" means services provided by a |
18 | | pharmacy in
compounding solutions for direct administration to |
19 | | a patient in a private
residence, long-term care facility, or |
20 | | hospice setting by means of parenteral,
intravenous, |
21 | | intramuscular, subcutaneous, or intraspinal infusion.
|
22 | | (u-5) "Illinois State Police" means the State
Police of the |
23 | | State of Illinois, or its successor agency. |
24 | | (v) "Immediate precursor" means a substance:
|
25 | | (1) which the Department has found to be and by rule |
26 | | designated as
being a principal compound used, or produced |
|
| | HB0313 Engrossed | - 678 - | LRB100 04130 SMS 14135 b |
|
|
1 | | primarily for use, in the
manufacture of a controlled |
2 | | substance;
|
3 | | (2) which is an immediate chemical intermediary used or |
4 | | likely to
be used in the manufacture of such controlled |
5 | | substance; and
|
6 | | (3) the control of which is necessary to prevent, |
7 | | curtail or limit
the manufacture of such controlled |
8 | | substance.
|
9 | | (w) "Instructional activities" means the acts of teaching, |
10 | | educating
or instructing by practitioners using controlled |
11 | | substances within
educational facilities approved by the State |
12 | | Board of Education or
its successor agency.
|
13 | | (x) "Local authorities" means a duly organized State, |
14 | | County or
Municipal peace unit or police force.
|
15 | | (y) "Look-alike substance" means a substance, other than a |
16 | | controlled
substance which (1) by overall dosage unit |
17 | | appearance, including shape,
color, size, markings or lack |
18 | | thereof, taste, consistency, or any other
identifying physical |
19 | | characteristic of the substance, would lead a reasonable
person |
20 | | to believe that the substance is a controlled substance, or (2) |
21 | | is
expressly or impliedly represented to be a controlled |
22 | | substance or is
distributed under circumstances which would |
23 | | lead a reasonable person to
believe that the substance is a |
24 | | controlled substance. For the purpose of
determining whether |
25 | | the representations made or the circumstances of the
|
26 | | distribution would lead a reasonable person to believe the |
|
| | HB0313 Engrossed | - 679 - | LRB100 04130 SMS 14135 b |
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|
1 | | substance to be
a controlled substance under this clause (2) of |
2 | | subsection (y), the court or
other authority may consider the |
3 | | following factors in addition to any other
factor that may be |
4 | | relevant:
|
5 | | (a) statements made by the owner or person in control |
6 | | of the substance
concerning its nature, use or effect;
|
7 | | (b) statements made to the buyer or recipient that the |
8 | | substance may
be resold for profit;
|
9 | | (c) whether the substance is packaged in a manner |
10 | | normally used for the
illegal distribution of controlled |
11 | | substances;
|
12 | | (d) whether the distribution or attempted distribution |
13 | | included an
exchange of or demand for money or other |
14 | | property as consideration, and
whether the amount of the |
15 | | consideration was substantially greater than the
|
16 | | reasonable retail market value of the substance.
|
17 | | Clause (1) of this subsection (y) shall not apply to a |
18 | | noncontrolled
substance in its finished dosage form that was |
19 | | initially introduced into
commerce prior to the initial |
20 | | introduction into commerce of a controlled
substance in its |
21 | | finished dosage form which it may substantially resemble.
|
22 | | Nothing in this subsection (y) prohibits the dispensing or |
23 | | distributing
of noncontrolled substances by persons authorized |
24 | | to dispense and
distribute controlled substances under this |
25 | | Act, provided that such action
would be deemed to be carried |
26 | | out in good faith under subsection (u) if the
substances |
|
| | HB0313 Engrossed | - 680 - | LRB100 04130 SMS 14135 b |
|
|
1 | | involved were controlled substances.
|
2 | | Nothing in this subsection (y) or in this Act prohibits the |
3 | | manufacture,
preparation, propagation, compounding, |
4 | | processing, packaging, advertising
or distribution of a drug or |
5 | | drugs by any person registered pursuant to
Section 510 of the |
6 | | Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. 360).
|
7 | | (y-1) "Mail-order pharmacy" means a pharmacy that is |
8 | | located in a state
of the United States that delivers, |
9 | | dispenses or
distributes, through the United States Postal |
10 | | Service or other common
carrier, to Illinois residents, any |
11 | | substance which requires a prescription.
|
12 | | (z) "Manufacture" means the production, preparation, |
13 | | propagation,
compounding, conversion or processing of a |
14 | | controlled substance other than methamphetamine, either
|
15 | | directly or indirectly, by extraction from substances of |
16 | | natural origin,
or independently by means of chemical |
17 | | synthesis, or by a combination of
extraction and chemical |
18 | | synthesis, and includes any packaging or
repackaging of the |
19 | | substance or labeling of its container, except that
this term |
20 | | does not include:
|
21 | | (1) by an ultimate user, the preparation or compounding |
22 | | of a
controlled substance for his or her own use; or
|
23 | | (2) by a practitioner, or his or her authorized agent |
24 | | under his or her
supervision, the preparation, |
25 | | compounding, packaging, or labeling of a
controlled |
26 | | substance:
|
|
| | HB0313 Engrossed | - 681 - | LRB100 04130 SMS 14135 b |
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|
1 | | (a) as an incident to his or her administering or |
2 | | dispensing of a
controlled substance in the course of |
3 | | his or her professional practice; or
|
4 | | (b) as an incident to lawful research, teaching or |
5 | | chemical
analysis and not for sale.
|
6 | | (z-1) (Blank).
|
7 | | (z-5) "Medication shopping" means the conduct prohibited |
8 | | under subsection (a) of Section 314.5 of this Act. |
9 | | (z-10) "Mid-level practitioner" means (i) a physician |
10 | | assistant who has been delegated authority to prescribe through |
11 | | a written delegation of authority by a physician licensed to |
12 | | practice medicine in all of its branches, in accordance with |
13 | | Section 7.5 of the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987, |
14 | | (ii) an advanced practice registered nurse who has been |
15 | | delegated authority to prescribe through a written delegation |
16 | | of authority by a physician licensed to practice medicine in |
17 | | all of its branches or by a podiatric physician, in accordance |
18 | | with Section 65-40 of the Nurse Practice Act, (iii) an advanced |
19 | | practice registered nurse certified as a nurse practitioner, |
20 | | nurse midwife, or clinical nurse specialist who has been |
21 | | granted authority to prescribe by a hospital affiliate in |
22 | | accordance with Section 65-45 of the Nurse Practice Act, (iv) |
23 | | an animal euthanasia agency, or (v) a prescribing psychologist. |
24 | | (aa) "Narcotic drug" means any of the following, whether |
25 | | produced
directly or indirectly by extraction from substances |
26 | | of vegetable origin,
or independently by means of chemical |
|
| | HB0313 Engrossed | - 682 - | LRB100 04130 SMS 14135 b |
|
|
1 | | synthesis, or by a combination of
extraction and chemical |
2 | | synthesis:
|
3 | | (1) opium, opiates, derivatives of opium and opiates, |
4 | | including their isomers, esters, ethers, salts, and salts |
5 | | of isomers, esters, and ethers, whenever the existence of |
6 | | such isomers, esters, ethers, and salts is possible within |
7 | | the specific chemical designation; however the term |
8 | | "narcotic drug" does not include the isoquinoline |
9 | | alkaloids of opium;
|
10 | | (2) (blank);
|
11 | | (3) opium poppy and poppy straw;
|
12 | | (4) coca leaves, except coca leaves and extracts of |
13 | | coca leaves from which substantially all of the cocaine and |
14 | | ecgonine, and their isomers, derivatives and salts, have |
15 | | been removed;
|
16 | | (5) cocaine, its salts, optical and geometric isomers, |
17 | | and salts of isomers; |
18 | | (6) ecgonine, its derivatives, their salts, isomers, |
19 | | and salts of isomers; |
20 | | (7) any compound, mixture, or preparation which |
21 | | contains any quantity of any of the substances referred to |
22 | | in subparagraphs (1) through (6). |
23 | | (bb) "Nurse" means a registered nurse licensed under the
|
24 | | Nurse Practice Act.
|
25 | | (cc) (Blank).
|
26 | | (dd) "Opiate" means any substance having an addiction |
|
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|
|
1 | | forming or
addiction sustaining liability similar to morphine |
2 | | or being capable of
conversion into a drug having addiction |
3 | | forming or addiction sustaining
liability.
|
4 | | (ee) "Opium poppy" means the plant of the species Papaver
|
5 | | somniferum L., except its seeds.
|
6 | | (ee-5) "Oral dosage" means a tablet, capsule, elixir, or |
7 | | solution or other liquid form of medication intended for |
8 | | administration by mouth, but the term does not include a form |
9 | | of medication intended for buccal, sublingual, or transmucosal |
10 | | administration. |
11 | | (ff) "Parole and Pardon Board" means the Parole and Pardon |
12 | | Board of
the State of Illinois or its successor agency.
|
13 | | (gg) "Person" means any individual, corporation, |
14 | | mail-order pharmacy,
government or governmental subdivision or |
15 | | agency, business trust, estate,
trust, partnership or |
16 | | association, or any other entity.
|
17 | | (hh) "Pharmacist" means any person who holds a license or |
18 | | certificate of
registration as a registered pharmacist, a local |
19 | | registered pharmacist
or a registered assistant pharmacist |
20 | | under the Pharmacy Practice Act.
|
21 | | (ii) "Pharmacy" means any store, ship or other place in |
22 | | which
pharmacy is authorized to be practiced under the Pharmacy |
23 | | Practice Act.
|
24 | | (ii-5) "Pharmacy shopping" means the conduct prohibited |
25 | | under subsection (b) of Section 314.5 of this Act. |
26 | | (ii-10) "Physician" (except when the context otherwise |
|
| | HB0313 Engrossed | - 684 - | LRB100 04130 SMS 14135 b |
|
|
1 | | requires) means a person licensed to practice medicine in all |
2 | | of its branches. |
3 | | (jj) "Poppy straw" means all parts, except the seeds, of |
4 | | the opium
poppy, after mowing.
|
5 | | (kk) "Practitioner" means a physician licensed to practice |
6 | | medicine in all
its branches, dentist, optometrist, podiatric |
7 | | physician,
veterinarian, scientific investigator, pharmacist, |
8 | | physician assistant,
advanced practice registered nurse,
|
9 | | licensed practical
nurse, registered nurse, hospital, |
10 | | laboratory, or pharmacy, or other
person licensed, registered, |
11 | | or otherwise lawfully permitted by the
United States or this |
12 | | State to distribute, dispense, conduct research
with respect |
13 | | to, administer or use in teaching or chemical analysis, a
|
14 | | controlled substance in the course of professional practice or |
15 | | research.
|
16 | | (ll) "Pre-printed prescription" means a written |
17 | | prescription upon which
the designated drug has been indicated |
18 | | prior to the time of issuance; the term does not mean a written |
19 | | prescription that is individually generated by machine or |
20 | | computer in the prescriber's office.
|
21 | | (mm) "Prescriber" means a physician licensed to practice |
22 | | medicine in all
its branches, dentist, optometrist, |
23 | | prescribing psychologist licensed under Section 4.2 of the |
24 | | Clinical Psychologist Licensing Act with prescriptive |
25 | | authority delegated under Section 4.3 of the Clinical |
26 | | Psychologist Licensing Act, podiatric physician, or
|
|
| | HB0313 Engrossed | - 685 - | LRB100 04130 SMS 14135 b |
|
|
1 | | veterinarian who issues a prescription, a physician assistant |
2 | | who
issues a
prescription for a controlled substance
in |
3 | | accordance
with Section 303.05, a written delegation, and a |
4 | | written supervision agreement required under Section 7.5
of the
|
5 | | Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987, an advanced practice |
6 | | registered
nurse with prescriptive authority delegated under |
7 | | Section 65-40 of the Nurse Practice Act and in accordance with |
8 | | Section 303.05, a written delegation,
and a written
|
9 | | collaborative agreement under Section 65-35 of the Nurse |
10 | | Practice Act, or an advanced practice registered nurse |
11 | | certified as a nurse practitioner, nurse midwife, or clinical |
12 | | nurse specialist who has been granted authority to prescribe by |
13 | | a hospital affiliate in accordance with Section 65-45 of the |
14 | | Nurse Practice Act and in accordance with Section 303.05.
|
15 | | (nn) "Prescription" means a written, facsimile, or oral |
16 | | order, or an electronic order that complies with applicable |
17 | | federal requirements,
of
a physician licensed to practice |
18 | | medicine in all its branches,
dentist, podiatric physician or |
19 | | veterinarian for any controlled
substance, of an optometrist in |
20 | | accordance with Section 15.1 of the Illinois Optometric |
21 | | Practice Act of 1987, of a prescribing psychologist licensed |
22 | | under Section 4.2 of the Clinical Psychologist Licensing Act |
23 | | with prescriptive authority delegated under Section 4.3 of the |
24 | | Clinical Psychologist Licensing Act, of a physician assistant |
25 | | for a
controlled substance
in accordance with Section 303.05, a |
26 | | written delegation, and a written supervision agreement |
|
| | HB0313 Engrossed | - 686 - | LRB100 04130 SMS 14135 b |
|
|
1 | | required under
Section 7.5 of the
Physician Assistant Practice |
2 | | Act of 1987, of an advanced practice registered
nurse with |
3 | | prescriptive authority delegated under Section 65-40 of the |
4 | | Nurse Practice Act who issues a prescription for a
controlled |
5 | | substance in accordance
with
Section 303.05, a written |
6 | | delegation, and a written collaborative agreement under |
7 | | Section 65-35 of the Nurse Practice Act, or of an advanced |
8 | | practice registered nurse certified as a nurse practitioner, |
9 | | nurse midwife, or clinical nurse specialist who has been |
10 | | granted authority to prescribe by a hospital affiliate in |
11 | | accordance with Section 65-45 of the Nurse Practice Act and in |
12 | | accordance with Section 303.05 when required by law.
|
13 | | (nn-5) "Prescription Information Library" (PIL) means an |
14 | | electronic library that contains reported controlled substance |
15 | | data. |
16 | | (nn-10) "Prescription Monitoring Program" (PMP) means the |
17 | | entity that collects, tracks, and stores reported data on |
18 | | controlled substances and select drugs pursuant to Section 316. |
19 | | (oo) "Production" or "produce" means manufacture, |
20 | | planting,
cultivating, growing, or harvesting of a controlled |
21 | | substance other than methamphetamine.
|
22 | | (pp) "Registrant" means every person who is required to |
23 | | register
under Section 302 of this Act.
|
24 | | (qq) "Registry number" means the number assigned to each |
25 | | person
authorized to handle controlled substances under the |
26 | | laws of the United
States and of this State.
|
|
| | HB0313 Engrossed | - 687 - | LRB100 04130 SMS 14135 b |
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|
1 | | (qq-5) "Secretary" means, as the context requires, either |
2 | | the Secretary of the Department or the Secretary of the |
3 | | Department of Financial and Professional Regulation, and the |
4 | | Secretary's designated agents. |
5 | | (rr) "State" includes the State of Illinois and any state, |
6 | | district,
commonwealth, territory, insular possession thereof, |
7 | | and any area
subject to the legal authority of the United |
8 | | States of America.
|
9 | | (rr-5) "Stimulant" means any drug that (i) causes an |
10 | | overall excitation of central nervous system functions, (ii) |
11 | | causes impaired consciousness and awareness, and (iii) can be |
12 | | habit-forming or lead to a substance abuse problem, including |
13 | | but not limited to amphetamines and their analogs, |
14 | | methylphenidate and its analogs, cocaine, and phencyclidine |
15 | | and its analogs. |
16 | | (ss) "Ultimate user" means a person who lawfully possesses |
17 | | a
controlled substance for his or her own use or for the use of |
18 | | a member of his or her
household or for administering to an |
19 | | animal owned by him or her or by a member
of his or her |
20 | | household.
|
21 | | (Source: P.A. 98-214, eff. 8-9-13; 98-668, eff. 6-25-14; |
22 | | 98-756, eff. 7-16-14; 98-1111, eff. 8-26-14; 99-78, eff. |
23 | | 7-20-15; 99-173, eff. 7-29-15; 99-371, eff. 1-1-16; 99-480, |
24 | | eff. 9-9-15; 99-642, eff. 7-28-16.)
|
25 | | (720 ILCS 570/302) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 1302) |
|
| | HB0313 Engrossed | - 688 - | LRB100 04130 SMS 14135 b |
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|
1 | | Sec. 302. (a) Every person who manufactures, distributes, |
2 | | or dispenses
any controlled substances; engages in chemical |
3 | | analysis, research, or
instructional activities which utilize |
4 | | controlled substances; purchases, stores, or administers |
5 | | euthanasia drugs, within this
State; provides canine odor |
6 | | detection services; proposes to engage in the
manufacture, |
7 | | distribution, or dispensing of any controlled substance; |
8 | | proposes to
engage in chemical analysis, research, or |
9 | | instructional activities
which utilize controlled substances; |
10 | | proposes to engage in purchasing, storing, or
administering |
11 | | euthanasia drugs; or proposes to provide canine odor detection |
12 | | services within this State, must obtain a
registration issued |
13 | | by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation in
|
14 | | accordance with its rules. The rules shall
include, but not be |
15 | | limited to, setting the expiration date and renewal
period for |
16 | | each registration under this Act. The Department,
any facility |
17 | | or service licensed by the Department, and any veterinary |
18 | | hospital or clinic operated by a veterinarian or veterinarians |
19 | | licensed under the Veterinary Medicine and Surgery Practice Act |
20 | | of 2004 or maintained by a State-supported or publicly funded |
21 | | university or college shall be exempt
from the regulation |
22 | | requirements of this Section; however, such exemption shall not |
23 | | operate to bar the University of Illinois from requesting, nor |
24 | | the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation from |
25 | | issuing, a registration to the University of Illinois |
26 | | Veterinary Teaching Hospital under this Act. Neither a request |
|
| | HB0313 Engrossed | - 689 - | LRB100 04130 SMS 14135 b |
|
|
1 | | for such registration nor the issuance of such registration to |
2 | | the University of Illinois shall operate to otherwise waive or |
3 | | modify the exemption provided in this subsection (a).
|
4 | | (b) Persons registered by the Department of Financial and |
5 | | Professional Regulation
under this Act to manufacture, |
6 | | distribute, or dispense controlled
substances, engage in |
7 | | chemical analysis, research, or instructional activities which |
8 | | utilize controlled substances, purchase, store, or administer |
9 | | euthanasia drugs, or provide canine odor detection services, |
10 | | may
possess, manufacture, distribute, engage in chemical |
11 | | analysis, research, or instructional activities which utilize |
12 | | controlled substances, dispense those
substances, or purchase, |
13 | | store, or administer euthanasia drugs, or provide canine odor |
14 | | detection services to the
extent authorized by their |
15 | | registration and in conformity
with the other provisions of |
16 | | this Article.
|
17 | | (c) The following persons need not register and may |
18 | | lawfully possess
controlled substances under this Act:
|
19 | | (1) an agent or employee of any registered |
20 | | manufacturer, distributor, or
dispenser of any controlled |
21 | | substance if he or she is acting in the usual course
of his |
22 | | or her employer's lawful business or employment;
|
23 | | (2) a common or contract carrier or warehouseman, or an |
24 | | agent or
employee thereof, whose possession of any |
25 | | controlled substance is in the
usual lawful course of such |
26 | | business or employment;
|
|
| | HB0313 Engrossed | - 690 - | LRB100 04130 SMS 14135 b |
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|
1 | | (3) an ultimate user or a person in possession of a |
2 | | controlled substance prescribed for the ultimate user |
3 | | under a lawful prescription of a practitioner, including an |
4 | | advanced practice registered nurse, practical nurse, or |
5 | | registered nurse licensed under the Nurse Practice Act, or |
6 | | a physician assistant licensed under the Physician |
7 | | Assistant Practice Act of 1987, who provides hospice |
8 | | services to a hospice patient or who provides home health |
9 | | services to a person, or a person in possession of any |
10 | | controlled
substance pursuant to a lawful prescription of a |
11 | | practitioner or in lawful
possession of a Schedule V |
12 | | substance. In this Section, "home health services" has the |
13 | | meaning ascribed to it in the Home Health, Home Services, |
14 | | and Home Nursing Agency Licensing Act; and "hospice |
15 | | patient" and "hospice services" have the meanings ascribed |
16 | | to them in the Hospice Program Licensing Act;
|
17 | | (4) officers and employees of this State or of the |
18 | | United States while
acting in the lawful course of their |
19 | | official duties which requires
possession of controlled |
20 | | substances;
|
21 | | (5) a registered pharmacist who is employed in, or the |
22 | | owner of, a
pharmacy licensed under this Act and the |
23 | | Federal Controlled Substances Act,
at the licensed |
24 | | location, or if he or she is acting in the usual course of |
25 | | his or her
lawful profession, business, or employment; |
26 | | (6) a holder of a temporary license issued under |
|
| | HB0313 Engrossed | - 691 - | LRB100 04130 SMS 14135 b |
|
|
1 | | Section 17 of the Medical Practice
Act of 1987 practicing |
2 | | within the scope of that license and in compliance with the |
3 | | rules adopted
under this Act. In addition to possessing |
4 | | controlled substances, a temporary license holder may
|
5 | | order, administer, and prescribe controlled substances |
6 | | when acting within the scope of his or her
license and in |
7 | | compliance with the rules adopted under this Act.
|
8 | | (d) A separate registration is required at each place of
|
9 | | business or professional practice where the applicant |
10 | | manufactures,
distributes, or dispenses controlled substances, |
11 | | or purchases, stores, or
administers euthanasia drugs.
Persons |
12 | | are required to obtain a separate registration for each
place |
13 | | of business or professional practice where controlled
|
14 | | substances are located or stored. A separate registration is
|
15 | | not required for every location at which a controlled substance
|
16 | | may be prescribed.
|
17 | | (e) The Department of Financial and Professional |
18 | | Regulation or the Illinois
State Police may inspect the |
19 | | controlled premises, as defined in Section
502 of this Act, of |
20 | | a registrant or applicant for registration in
accordance with |
21 | | this Act and the rules promulgated hereunder and with regard
to |
22 | | persons licensed by the Department, in accordance with |
23 | | subsection (bb)
of Section 30-5
of the Alcoholism and Other |
24 | | Drug Abuse and Dependency Act and
the rules and
regulations |
25 | | promulgated thereunder.
|
26 | | (Source: P.A. 99-163, eff. 1-1-16; 99-247, eff. 8-3-15; 99-642, |
|
| | HB0313 Engrossed | - 692 - | LRB100 04130 SMS 14135 b |
|
|
1 | | eff. 7-28-16.)
|
2 | | (720 ILCS 570/303.05)
|
3 | | Sec. 303.05. Mid-level practitioner registration.
|
4 | | (a) The Department of Financial and Professional |
5 | | Regulation shall register licensed
physician assistants, |
6 | | licensed advanced practice registered nurses, and prescribing |
7 | | psychologists licensed under Section 4.2 of the Clinical |
8 | | Psychologist Licensing Act to prescribe and
dispense |
9 | | controlled substances under Section 303 and euthanasia
|
10 | | agencies to purchase, store, or administer animal euthanasia |
11 | | drugs under the
following circumstances:
|
12 | | (1) with respect to physician assistants,
|
13 | | (A) the physician assistant has been
delegated
|
14 | | written authority to prescribe any Schedule III |
15 | | through V controlled substances by a physician |
16 | | licensed to practice medicine in all its
branches in |
17 | | accordance with Section 7.5 of the Physician Assistant |
18 | | Practice Act
of 1987;
and
the physician assistant has
|
19 | | completed the
appropriate application forms and has |
20 | | paid the required fees as set by rule;
or
|
21 | | (B) the physician assistant has been delegated
|
22 | | authority by a supervising physician licensed to |
23 | | practice medicine in all its branches to prescribe or |
24 | | dispense Schedule II controlled substances through a |
25 | | written delegation of authority and under the |
|
| | HB0313 Engrossed | - 693 - | LRB100 04130 SMS 14135 b |
|
|
1 | | following conditions: |
2 | | (i) Specific Schedule II controlled substances |
3 | | by oral dosage or topical or transdermal |
4 | | application may be delegated, provided that the |
5 | | delegated Schedule II controlled substances are |
6 | | routinely prescribed by the supervising physician. |
7 | | This delegation must identify the specific |
8 | | Schedule II controlled substances by either brand |
9 | | name or generic name. Schedule II controlled |
10 | | substances to be delivered by injection or other |
11 | | route of administration may not be delegated; |
12 | | (ii) any delegation must be of controlled |
13 | | substances prescribed by the supervising |
14 | | physician; |
15 | | (iii) all prescriptions must be limited to no |
16 | | more than a 30-day supply, with any continuation |
17 | | authorized only after prior approval of the |
18 | | supervising physician; |
19 | | (iv) the physician assistant must discuss the |
20 | | condition of any patients for whom a controlled |
21 | | substance is prescribed monthly with the |
22 | | delegating physician; |
23 | | (v) the physician assistant must have |
24 | | completed the appropriate application forms and |
25 | | paid the required fees as set by rule; |
26 | | (vi) the physician assistant must provide |
|
| | HB0313 Engrossed | - 694 - | LRB100 04130 SMS 14135 b |
|
|
1 | | evidence of satisfactory completion of 45 contact |
2 | | hours in pharmacology from any physician assistant |
3 | | program accredited by the Accreditation Review |
4 | | Commission on Education for the Physician |
5 | | Assistant (ARC-PA), or its predecessor agency, for |
6 | | any new license issued with Schedule II authority |
7 | | after the effective date of this amendatory Act of |
8 | | the 97th General Assembly; and |
9 | | (vii) the physician assistant must annually |
10 | | complete at least 5 hours of continuing education |
11 | | in pharmacology; |
12 | | (2) with respect to advanced practice registered |
13 | | nurses, |
14 | | (A) the advanced practice registered nurse has |
15 | | been delegated
authority to prescribe any Schedule III |
16 | | through V controlled substances by a collaborating |
17 | | physician licensed to practice medicine in all its |
18 | | branches or a collaborating podiatric physician in |
19 | | accordance with Section 65-40 of the Nurse Practice
|
20 | | Act. The advanced practice registered nurse has |
21 | | completed the
appropriate application forms and has |
22 | | paid the required
fees as set by rule; or |
23 | | (B) the advanced practice registered nurse has |
24 | | been delegated
authority by a collaborating physician |
25 | | licensed to practice medicine in all its branches or |
26 | | collaborating podiatric physician to prescribe or |
|
| | HB0313 Engrossed | - 695 - | LRB100 04130 SMS 14135 b |
|
|
1 | | dispense Schedule II controlled substances through a |
2 | | written delegation of authority and under the |
3 | | following conditions: |
4 | | (i) specific Schedule II controlled substances |
5 | | by oral dosage or topical or transdermal |
6 | | application may be delegated, provided that the |
7 | | delegated Schedule II controlled substances are |
8 | | routinely prescribed by the collaborating |
9 | | physician or podiatric physician. This delegation |
10 | | must identify the specific Schedule II controlled |
11 | | substances by either brand name or generic name. |
12 | | Schedule II controlled substances to be delivered |
13 | | by injection or other route of administration may |
14 | | not be delegated; |
15 | | (ii) any delegation must be of controlled |
16 | | substances prescribed by the collaborating |
17 | | physician or podiatric physician; |
18 | | (iii) all prescriptions must be limited to no |
19 | | more than a 30-day supply, with any continuation |
20 | | authorized only after prior approval of the |
21 | | collaborating physician or podiatric physician; |
22 | | (iv) the advanced practice registered nurse |
23 | | must discuss the condition of any patients for whom |
24 | | a controlled substance is prescribed monthly with |
25 | | the delegating physician or podiatric physician or |
26 | | in the course of review as required by Section |
|
| | HB0313 Engrossed | - 696 - | LRB100 04130 SMS 14135 b |
|
|
1 | | 65-40 of the Nurse Practice Act; |
2 | | (v) the advanced practice registered nurse |
3 | | must have completed the appropriate application |
4 | | forms and paid the required fees as set by rule; |
5 | | (vi) the advanced practice registered nurse |
6 | | must provide evidence of satisfactory completion |
7 | | of at least 45 graduate contact hours in |
8 | | pharmacology for any new license issued with |
9 | | Schedule II authority after the effective date of |
10 | | this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly; |
11 | | and |
12 | | (vii) the advanced practice registered nurse |
13 | | must annually complete 5 hours of continuing |
14 | | education in pharmacology; |
15 | | (2.5) with respect to advanced practice registered |
16 | | nurses certified as nurse practitioners, nurse midwives, |
17 | | or clinical nurse specialists practicing in a hospital |
18 | | affiliate, |
19 | | (A) the advanced practice registered nurse |
20 | | certified as a nurse practitioner, nurse midwife, or |
21 | | clinical nurse specialist has been granted authority |
22 | | to prescribe any Schedule II through V controlled |
23 | | substances by the hospital affiliate upon the |
24 | | recommendation of the appropriate physician committee |
25 | | of the hospital affiliate in accordance with Section |
26 | | 65-45 of the Nurse Practice Act, has completed the |
|
| | HB0313 Engrossed | - 697 - | LRB100 04130 SMS 14135 b |
|
|
1 | | appropriate application forms, and has paid the |
2 | | required fees as set by rule; and |
3 | | (B) an advanced practice registered nurse |
4 | | certified as a nurse practitioner, nurse midwife, or |
5 | | clinical nurse specialist has been granted authority |
6 | | to prescribe any Schedule II controlled substances by |
7 | | the hospital affiliate upon the recommendation of the |
8 | | appropriate physician committee of the hospital |
9 | | affiliate, then the following conditions must be met: |
10 | | (i) specific Schedule II controlled substances |
11 | | by oral dosage or topical or transdermal |
12 | | application may be designated, provided that the |
13 | | designated Schedule II controlled substances are |
14 | | routinely prescribed by advanced practice |
15 | | registered nurses in their area of certification; |
16 | | this grant of authority must identify the specific |
17 | | Schedule II controlled substances by either brand |
18 | | name or generic name; authority to prescribe or |
19 | | dispense Schedule II controlled substances to be |
20 | | delivered by injection or other route of |
21 | | administration may not be granted; |
22 | | (ii) any grant of authority must be controlled |
23 | | substances limited to the practice of the advanced |
24 | | practice registered nurse; |
25 | | (iii) any prescription must be limited to no |
26 | | more than a 30-day supply; |
|
| | HB0313 Engrossed | - 698 - | LRB100 04130 SMS 14135 b |
|
|
1 | | (iv) the advanced practice registered nurse |
2 | | must discuss the condition of any patients for whom |
3 | | a controlled substance is prescribed monthly with |
4 | | the appropriate physician committee of the |
5 | | hospital affiliate or its physician designee; and |
6 | | (v) the advanced practice registered nurse |
7 | | must meet the education requirements of this |
8 | | Section; |
9 | | (3) with respect to animal euthanasia agencies, the |
10 | | euthanasia agency has
obtained a license from the |
11 | | Department of
Financial and Professional Regulation and |
12 | | obtained a registration number from the
Department; or
|
13 | | (4) with respect to prescribing psychologists, the |
14 | | prescribing psychologist has been delegated
authority to |
15 | | prescribe any nonnarcotic Schedule III through V |
16 | | controlled substances by a collaborating physician |
17 | | licensed to practice medicine in all its branches in |
18 | | accordance with Section 4.3 of the Clinical Psychologist |
19 | | Licensing Act, and the prescribing psychologist has |
20 | | completed the
appropriate application forms and has paid |
21 | | the required
fees as set by rule. |
22 | | (b) The mid-level practitioner shall only be licensed to |
23 | | prescribe those
schedules of controlled substances for which a |
24 | | licensed physician or licensed podiatric physician has |
25 | | delegated
prescriptive authority, except that an animal |
26 | | euthanasia agency does not have any
prescriptive authority.
A |
|
| | HB0313 Engrossed | - 699 - | LRB100 04130 SMS 14135 b |
|
|
1 | | physician assistant and an advanced practice registered nurse |
2 | | are prohibited from prescribing medications and controlled |
3 | | substances not set forth in the required written delegation of |
4 | | authority.
|
5 | | (c) Upon completion of all registration requirements, |
6 | | physician
assistants, advanced practice registered nurses, and |
7 | | animal euthanasia agencies may be issued a
mid-level |
8 | | practitioner
controlled substances license for Illinois.
|
9 | | (d) A collaborating physician or podiatric physician may, |
10 | | but is not required to, delegate prescriptive authority to an |
11 | | advanced practice registered nurse as part of a written |
12 | | collaborative agreement, and the delegation of prescriptive |
13 | | authority shall conform to the requirements of Section 65-40 of |
14 | | the Nurse Practice Act. |
15 | | (e) A supervising physician may, but is not required to, |
16 | | delegate prescriptive authority to a physician assistant as |
17 | | part of a written supervision agreement, and the delegation of |
18 | | prescriptive authority shall conform to the requirements of |
19 | | Section 7.5 of the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987. |
20 | | (f) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to prohibit |
21 | | generic substitution. |
22 | | (Source: P.A. 98-214, eff. 8-9-13; 98-668, eff. 6-25-14; |
23 | | 99-173, eff. 7-29-15.)
|
24 | | (720 ILCS 570/313) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 1313)
|
25 | | Sec. 313. (a) Controlled substances which are lawfully |
|
| | HB0313 Engrossed | - 700 - | LRB100 04130 SMS 14135 b |
|
|
1 | | administered in
hospitals or institutions licensed under the |
2 | | Hospital Licensing Act shall
be exempt from the requirements of |
3 | | Sections 312 and 316, except
that the
prescription for the |
4 | | controlled substance shall be in writing on the
patient's |
5 | | record, signed by the prescriber, and dated, and shall state |
6 | | the
name and quantity of controlled substances ordered and the |
7 | | quantity
actually administered. The records of such |
8 | | prescriptions shall be
maintained for two years and shall be |
9 | | available for inspection by officers
and employees of the |
10 | | Illinois State Police and the Department of Financial and
|
11 | | Professional Regulation. |
12 | | The exemption under this subsection (a) does not apply to a |
13 | | prescription (including an outpatient prescription from an |
14 | | emergency department or outpatient clinic) for more than a |
15 | | 72-hour supply of a discharge medication to be consumed outside |
16 | | of the hospital or institution.
|
17 | | (b) Controlled substances that can lawfully be |
18 | | administered or dispensed
directly to a patient in a long-term |
19 | | care facility licensed by the Department
of Public Health as a |
20 | | skilled nursing facility, intermediate care facility, or
|
21 | | long-term care facility for residents under 22 years of age, |
22 | | are exempt from
the requirements of Section 312 except that a |
23 | | prescription
for a
Schedule II controlled substance must be |
24 | | either a prescription signed
by the prescriber or a |
25 | | prescription transmitted by the prescriber or
prescriber's |
26 | | agent to the dispensing pharmacy by facsimile. The
facsimile |
|
| | HB0313 Engrossed | - 701 - | LRB100 04130 SMS 14135 b |
|
|
1 | | serves as the original prescription and must be maintained for |
2 | | 2
years from the date of issue in the same manner as a written |
3 | | prescription
signed by the prescriber.
|
4 | | (c) A prescription that is generated for a Schedule II |
5 | | controlled substance
to be compounded for direct |
6 | | administration to a patient in a private
residence, long-term |
7 | | care facility, or hospice program
may be transmitted by
|
8 | | facsimile by the prescriber or the prescriber's agent to the |
9 | | pharmacy providing
the home infusion services. The facsimile |
10 | | serves as the original
prescription for purposes of this |
11 | | paragraph (c) and it shall be maintained in
the same manner as |
12 | | the original prescription.
|
13 | | (c-1) A prescription generated for a Schedule II controlled |
14 | | substance for a
patient residing in a hospice certified by |
15 | | Medicare under Title XVIII of the
Social Security Act or
|
16 | | licensed by the State may be transmitted by the practitioner or |
17 | | the
practitioner's
agent to the dispensing pharmacy by |
18 | | facsimile or electronically as provided in Section 311.5. The |
19 | | practitioner or
practitioner's
agent must note on the |
20 | | prescription that the patient is a hospice patient. The
|
21 | | facsimile or electronic record serves as the original |
22 | | prescription for purposes of this
paragraph (c-1) and it shall |
23 | | be maintained in the same manner as the original
prescription.
|
24 | | (d) Controlled substances which are lawfully administered
|
25 | | and/or dispensed
in drug abuse treatment programs licensed by |
26 | | the Department shall be exempt
from the requirements of |
|
| | HB0313 Engrossed | - 702 - | LRB100 04130 SMS 14135 b |
|
|
1 | | Sections 312 and 316, except that the
prescription
for such |
2 | | controlled substances shall be issued and authenticated
on |
3 | | official prescription logs prepared and maintained in |
4 | | accordance with 77 Ill. Adm. Code 2060: Alcoholism and |
5 | | Substance Abuse Treatment and Intervention Licenses, and in |
6 | | compliance with other applicable State and federal laws. The |
7 | | Department-licensed drug treatment program shall report |
8 | | applicable prescriptions via electronic record keeping |
9 | | software approved by the Department. This software must be |
10 | | compatible with the specifications of the Department. Drug |
11 | | abuse treatment programs shall report to the Department |
12 | | methadone prescriptions or medications dispensed through the |
13 | | use of Department-approved File Transfer Protocols (FTPs). |
14 | | Methadone prescription records must be maintained in |
15 | | accordance with the applicable requirements as set forth by the |
16 | | Department in accordance with 77 Ill. Adm. Code 2060: |
17 | | Alcoholism and Substance Abuse Treatment and Intervention |
18 | | Licenses, and in compliance with other applicable State and |
19 | | federal laws. |
20 | | (e) Nothing in this Act shall be construed to limit the |
21 | | authority of a hospital pursuant to Section 65-45 of the Nurse |
22 | | Practice Act to grant hospital clinical privileges to an |
23 | | individual advanced practice registered nurse to select, order |
24 | | or administer medications, including controlled substances to |
25 | | provide services within a hospital. Nothing in this Act shall |
26 | | be construed to limit the authority of an ambulatory surgical |
|
| | HB0313 Engrossed | - 703 - | LRB100 04130 SMS 14135 b |
|
|
1 | | treatment center pursuant to Section 65-45 of the Nurse |
2 | | Practice Act to grant ambulatory surgical treatment center |
3 | | clinical privileges to an individual advanced practice |
4 | | registered nurse to select, order or administer medications, |
5 | | including controlled substances to provide services within an |
6 | | ambulatory surgical treatment center.
|
7 | | (Source: P.A. 97-334, eff. 1-1-12.)
|
8 | | (720 ILCS 570/320)
|
9 | | Sec. 320. Advisory committee.
|
10 | | (a) There is created a Prescription Monitoring Program |
11 | | Advisory Committee to
assist the Department of Human Services |
12 | | in implementing the Prescription Monitoring Program created by |
13 | | this Article and to advise the Department on the professional |
14 | | performance of prescribers and dispensers and other matters |
15 | | germane to the advisory committee's field of competence.
|
16 | | (b) The Clinical Director of the Prescription Monitoring |
17 | | Program shall appoint members to
serve on the advisory |
18 | | committee. The advisory committee shall be composed of |
19 | | prescribers and dispensers as follows: 4 physicians licensed to |
20 | | practice medicine in all its branches; one advanced practice |
21 | | registered nurse; one physician assistant; one optometrist; |
22 | | one dentist; one podiatric physician; and 3 pharmacists. The |
23 | | Clinical Director of the Prescription Monitoring Program may |
24 | | appoint a representative of an organization representing a |
25 | | profession required to be appointed. The Clinical Director of |
|
| | HB0313 Engrossed | - 704 - | LRB100 04130 SMS 14135 b |
|
|
1 | | the Prescription Monitoring Program shall serve as the chair of |
2 | | the committee.
|
3 | | (c) The advisory committee may appoint its other officers |
4 | | as it deems
appropriate.
|
5 | | (d) The members of the advisory committee shall receive no |
6 | | compensation for
their services as members of the advisory |
7 | | committee but may be reimbursed for
their actual expenses |
8 | | incurred in serving on the advisory committee.
|
9 | | (e) The advisory committee shall: |
10 | | (1) provide a uniform approach to reviewing this Act in |
11 | | order to determine whether changes should be recommended to |
12 | | the General Assembly; |
13 | | (2) review current drug schedules in order to manage |
14 | | changes to the administrative rules pertaining to the |
15 | | utilization of this Act; |
16 | | (3) review the following: current clinical guidelines |
17 | | developed by health care professional organizations on the |
18 | | prescribing of opioids or other controlled substances; |
19 | | accredited continuing education programs related to |
20 | | prescribing and dispensing; programs or information |
21 | | developed by health care professional organizations that |
22 | | may be used to assess patients or help ensure compliance |
23 | | with prescriptions; updates from the Food and Drug |
24 | | Administration, the Centers for Disease Control and |
25 | | Prevention, and other public and private organizations |
26 | | which are relevant to prescribing and dispensing; relevant |
|
| | HB0313 Engrossed | - 705 - | LRB100 04130 SMS 14135 b |
|
|
1 | | medical studies; and other publications which involve the |
2 | | prescription of controlled substances; |
3 | | (4) make recommendations for inclusion of these |
4 | | materials or other studies which may be effective resources |
5 | | for prescribers and dispensers on the Internet website of |
6 | | the inquiry system established under Section 318; |
7 | | (5) on at least a quarterly basis, review the content |
8 | | of the Internet website of the inquiry system established |
9 | | pursuant to Section 318 to ensure this Internet website has |
10 | | the most current available information; |
11 | | (6) on at least a quarterly basis, review opportunities |
12 | | for federal grants and other forms of funding to support |
13 | | projects which will increase the number of pilot programs |
14 | | which integrate the inquiry system with electronic health |
15 | | records; and |
16 | | (7) on at least a quarterly basis, review communication |
17 | | to be sent to all registered users of the inquiry system |
18 | | established pursuant to Section 318, including |
19 | | recommendations for relevant accredited continuing |
20 | | education and information regarding prescribing and |
21 | | dispensing. |
22 | | (f) The Clinical Director of the Prescription Monitoring |
23 | | Program shall select 5 members, 3 physicians and 2 pharmacists, |
24 | | of the Prescription Monitoring Program Advisory Committee to |
25 | | serve as members of the peer review subcommittee. The purpose |
26 | | of the peer review subcommittee is to advise the Program on |
|
| | HB0313 Engrossed | - 706 - | LRB100 04130 SMS 14135 b |
|
|
1 | | matters germane to the advisory committee's field of |
2 | | competence, establish a formal peer review of professional |
3 | | performance of prescribers and dispensers, and develop |
4 | | communications to transmit to prescribers and dispensers. The |
5 | | deliberations, information, and communications of the peer |
6 | | review subcommittee are privileged and confidential and shall |
7 | | not be disclosed in any manner except in accordance with |
8 | | current law. |
9 | | (1) The peer review subcommittee shall periodically |
10 | | review the data contained within the prescription |
11 | | monitoring program to identify those prescribers or |
12 | | dispensers who may be prescribing or dispensing outside the |
13 | | currently accepted standards in the course of their |
14 | | professional practice. |
15 | | (2) The peer review subcommittee may identify |
16 | | prescribers or dispensers who may be prescribing outside |
17 | | the currently accepted medical standards in the course of |
18 | | their professional practice and send the identified |
19 | | prescriber or dispenser a request for information |
20 | | regarding their prescribing or dispensing practices. This |
21 | | request for information shall be sent via certified mail, |
22 | | return receipt requested. A prescriber or dispenser shall |
23 | | have 30 days to respond to the request for information. |
24 | | (3) The peer review subcommittee shall refer a |
25 | | prescriber or a dispenser to the Department of Financial |
26 | | and Professional Regulation in the following situations: |
|
| | HB0313 Engrossed | - 707 - | LRB100 04130 SMS 14135 b |
|
|
1 | | (i) if a prescriber or dispenser does not respond |
2 | | to three successive requests for information; |
3 | | (ii) in the opinion of a majority of members of the |
4 | | peer review subcommittee, the prescriber or dispenser |
5 | | does not have a satisfactory explanation for the |
6 | | practices identified by the peer review subcommittee |
7 | | in its request for information; or |
8 | | (iii) following communications with the peer |
9 | | review subcommittee, the prescriber or dispenser does |
10 | | not sufficiently rectify the practices identified in |
11 | | the request for information in the opinion of a |
12 | | majority of the members of the peer review |
13 | | subcommittee. |
14 | | (4) The Department of Financial and Professional |
15 | | Regulation may initiate an investigation and discipline in |
16 | | accordance with current laws and rules for any prescriber |
17 | | or dispenser referred by the peer review subcommittee. |
18 | | (5) The peer review subcommittee shall prepare an |
19 | | annual report starting on July 1, 2017. This report shall |
20 | | contain the following information: the number of times the |
21 | | peer review subcommittee was convened; the number of |
22 | | prescribers or dispensers who were reviewed by the peer |
23 | | review committee; the number of requests for information |
24 | | sent out by the peer review subcommittee; and the number of |
25 | | prescribers or dispensers referred to the Department of |
26 | | Financial and Professional Regulation. The annual report |
|
| | HB0313 Engrossed | - 708 - | LRB100 04130 SMS 14135 b |
|
|
1 | | shall be delivered electronically to the Department and to |
2 | | the General Assembly. The report prepared by the peer |
3 | | review subcommittee shall not identify any prescriber, |
4 | | dispenser, or patient. |
5 | | (Source: P.A. 99-480, eff. 9-9-15.)
|
6 | | Section 325. The Code of Civil Procedure is amended by |
7 | | changing Section 8-2001 as follows:
|
8 | | (735 ILCS 5/8-2001) (from Ch. 110, par. 8-2001)
|
9 | | Sec. 8-2001. Examination of health care records.
|
10 | | (a) In this Section: |
11 | | "Health care facility" or "facility" means a public or
|
12 | | private hospital, ambulatory surgical treatment center, |
13 | | nursing home,
independent practice association, or physician |
14 | | hospital organization, or any
other entity where health care |
15 | | services are provided to any person. The term
does not include |
16 | | a health care practitioner.
|
17 | | "Health care practitioner" means any health care |
18 | | practitioner, including a physician, dentist, podiatric |
19 | | physician, advanced practice registered nurse, physician |
20 | | assistant, clinical psychologist, or clinical social worker. |
21 | | The term includes a medical office, health care clinic, health |
22 | | department, group practice, and any other organizational |
23 | | structure for a licensed professional to provide health care |
24 | | services. The term does not include a health care facility.
|
|
| | HB0313 Engrossed | - 709 - | LRB100 04130 SMS 14135 b |
|
|
1 | | (b) Every private and public health care facility shall, |
2 | | upon the request of any
patient who has been treated in such |
3 | | health care facility, or any person, entity, or organization |
4 | | presenting a valid authorization for the release of records |
5 | | signed by the patient or the patient's legally authorized |
6 | | representative, or as authorized by Section 8-2001.5, permit |
7 | | the patient,
his or her health care practitioner,
authorized |
8 | | attorney, or any person, entity, or organization presenting a |
9 | | valid authorization for the release of records signed by the |
10 | | patient or the patient's legally authorized representative to |
11 | | examine the health care facility
patient care records,
|
12 | | including but not limited to the history, bedside notes, |
13 | | charts, pictures
and plates, kept in connection with the |
14 | | treatment of such patient, and
permit copies of such records to |
15 | | be made by him or her or his or her
health care practitioner or |
16 | | authorized attorney. |
17 | | (c) Every health care practitioner shall, upon the request |
18 | | of any patient who has been treated by the health care |
19 | | practitioner, or any person, entity, or organization |
20 | | presenting a valid authorization for the release of records |
21 | | signed by the patient or the patient's legally authorized |
22 | | representative, permit the patient and the patient's health |
23 | | care practitioner or authorized attorney, or any person, |
24 | | entity, or organization presenting a valid authorization for |
25 | | the release of records signed by the patient or the patient's |
26 | | legally authorized representative, to examine and copy the |
|
| | HB0313 Engrossed | - 710 - | LRB100 04130 SMS 14135 b |
|
|
1 | | patient's records, including but not limited to those relating |
2 | | to the diagnosis, treatment, prognosis, history, charts, |
3 | | pictures and plates, kept in connection with the treatment of |
4 | | such patient. |
5 | | (d) A request for copies of the records shall
be in writing |
6 | | and shall be delivered to the administrator or manager of
such |
7 | | health care facility or to the health care practitioner. The
|
8 | | person (including patients, health care practitioners and |
9 | | attorneys)
requesting copies of records shall reimburse the |
10 | | facility or the health care practitioner at the time of such |
11 | | copying for all
reasonable expenses, including the costs of |
12 | | independent copy service companies,
incurred in connection |
13 | | with such copying not to
exceed a $20 handling charge for |
14 | | processing the
request and the actual postage or shipping |
15 | | charge, if any, plus: (1) for paper copies
75 cents per page |
16 | | for the first through 25th pages, 50
cents per page for the |
17 | | 26th through 50th pages, and 25 cents per page for all
pages in |
18 | | excess of 50 (except that the charge shall not exceed $1.25 per |
19 | | page
for any copies made from microfiche or microfilm; records |
20 | | retrieved from scanning, digital imaging, electronic |
21 | | information or other digital format do not qualify as |
22 | | microfiche or microfilm retrieval for purposes of calculating |
23 | | charges); and (2) for electronic records, retrieved from a |
24 | | scanning, digital imaging, electronic information or other |
25 | | digital format in an electronic document, a charge of 50% of |
26 | | the per page charge for paper copies under subdivision (d)(1). |
|
| | HB0313 Engrossed | - 711 - | LRB100 04130 SMS 14135 b |
|
|
1 | | This per page charge includes the cost of each CD Rom, DVD, or |
2 | | other storage media. Records already maintained in an |
3 | | electronic or digital format shall be provided in an electronic |
4 | | format when so requested.
If the records system does not allow |
5 | | for the creation or transmission of an electronic or digital |
6 | | record, then the facility or practitioner shall inform the |
7 | | requester in writing of the reason the records can not be |
8 | | provided electronically. The written explanation may be |
9 | | included with the production of paper copies, if the requester |
10 | | chooses to order paper copies. These rates shall be |
11 | | automatically adjusted as set forth in Section 8-2006.
The |
12 | | facility or health care practitioner may, however, charge for |
13 | | the
reasonable cost of all duplication of
record material or |
14 | | information that cannot routinely be copied or duplicated on
a |
15 | | standard commercial photocopy machine such as x-ray films or |
16 | | pictures.
|
17 | | (d-5) The handling fee shall not be collected from the |
18 | | patient or the patient's personal representative who obtains |
19 | | copies of records under Section 8-2001.5. |
20 | | (e) The requirements of this Section shall be satisfied |
21 | | within 30 days of the
receipt of a written request by a patient |
22 | | or by his or her legally authorized
representative, health care |
23 | | practitioner,
authorized attorney, or any person, entity, or |
24 | | organization presenting a valid authorization for the release |
25 | | of records signed by the patient or the patient's legally |
26 | | authorized representative. If the facility
or health care |
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1 | | practitioner needs more time to comply with the request, then |
2 | | within 30 days after receiving
the request, the facility or |
3 | | health care practitioner must provide the requesting party with |
4 | | a written
statement of the reasons for the delay and the date |
5 | | by which the requested
information will be provided. In any |
6 | | event, the facility or health care practitioner must provide |
7 | | the
requested information no later than 60 days after receiving |
8 | | the request.
|
9 | | (f) A health care facility or health care practitioner must |
10 | | provide the public with at least 30 days prior
notice of the |
11 | | closure of the facility or the health care practitioner's |
12 | | practice. The notice must include an explanation
of how copies |
13 | | of the facility's records may be accessed by patients. The
|
14 | | notice may be given by publication in a newspaper of general |
15 | | circulation in the
area in which the health care facility or |
16 | | health care practitioner is located.
|
17 | | (g) Failure to comply with the time limit requirement of |
18 | | this Section shall
subject the denying party to expenses and |
19 | | reasonable attorneys' fees
incurred in connection with any |
20 | | court ordered enforcement of the provisions
of this Section.
|
21 | | (Source: P.A. 97-623, eff. 11-23-11; 97-867, eff. 7-30-12; |
22 | | 98-214, eff. 8-9-13; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14.)
|
23 | | Section 330. The Good Samaritan Act is amended by changing |
24 | | Sections 30, 34, and 68 as follows:
|
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1 | | (745 ILCS 49/30)
|
2 | | Sec. 30. Free medical clinic; exemption from civil |
3 | | liability for services
performed without compensation. |
4 | | (a) A person licensed under the Medical Practice Act of |
5 | | 1987, a person
licensed to practice the treatment of human |
6 | | ailments in any
other state or territory of the United States, |
7 | | or a health care professional,
including but not limited to an |
8 | | advanced practice registered nurse, physician
assistant, |
9 | | nurse, pharmacist, physical therapist, podiatric physician, or |
10 | | social worker
licensed in this State or any other state or |
11 | | territory of the United States,
who, in good faith, provides |
12 | | medical treatment,
diagnosis, or advice as a part of the |
13 | | services of an
established free medical clinic providing care |
14 | | to medically indigent patients
which is limited to care that |
15 | | does not require the services of a
licensed hospital or |
16 | | ambulatory surgical treatment center and who receives
no fee or |
17 | | compensation from that source shall not be liable for civil
|
18 | | damages as a result of his or her acts or omissions in
|
19 | | providing that medical treatment, except for willful or wanton |
20 | | misconduct.
|
21 | | (b) For purposes of this Section, a "free medical clinic" |
22 | | is: |
23 | | (1) an
organized community based program providing |
24 | | medical care without
charge to individuals unable to pay |
25 | | for it, at which the
care provided does not include the use
|
26 | | of general anesthesia or require an overnight stay in a |
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1 | | health-care facility; or
|
2 | | (2) a program organized by a certified local health |
3 | | department pursuant to Part 600 of Title 77 of the Illinois |
4 | | Administrative Code, utilizing health professional members |
5 | | of the Volunteer Medical Reserve Corps (the federal |
6 | | organization under 42 U.S.C. 300hh-15) providing medical |
7 | | care without charge to individuals unable to pay for it, at |
8 | | which the care provided does not include an overnight stay |
9 | | in a health-care facility. |
10 | | (c) The provisions of subsection (a) of this Section do not |
11 | | apply to a
particular case unless the free medical
clinic has |
12 | | posted in a conspicuous place on its premises an explanation of |
13 | | the
exemption from civil liability provided herein.
|
14 | | (d) The immunity from civil damages provided under |
15 | | subsection (a) also
applies to physicians,
hospitals, and other |
16 | | health care providers that provide
further medical treatment, |
17 | | diagnosis, or advice to a patient upon referral from
an |
18 | | established free medical clinic without fee or compensation.
|
19 | | (e) Nothing in this Section prohibits a free medical clinic |
20 | | from accepting
voluntary contributions for medical services |
21 | | provided to a patient who has
acknowledged his or her ability |
22 | | and willingness to pay a portion of the value
of the medical |
23 | | services provided.
|
24 | | Any voluntary contribution collected for providing care at |
25 | | a free medical
clinic shall be used only to pay overhead |
26 | | expenses of operating the clinic. No
portion of any moneys |
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1 | | collected shall be used to provide a fee or other
compensation |
2 | | to any person licensed under Medical Practice Act of 1987.
|
3 | | (f) The changes to this Section made by this amendatory Act |
4 | | of the 99th General Assembly apply only to causes of action |
5 | | accruing on or after the effective date of
this amendatory Act |
6 | | of the 99th General Assembly. |
7 | | (Source: P.A. 98-214, eff. 8-9-13; 99-42, eff. 1-1-16 .)
|
8 | | (745 ILCS 49/34)
|
9 | | Sec. 34. Advanced practice registered nurse; exemption |
10 | | from civil
liability for emergency care. A person licensed as |
11 | | an advanced practice registered nurse
under the Nurse Practice |
12 | | Act who in good faith provides emergency care without fee to a
|
13 | | person shall not be liable for civil damages as a result of his |
14 | | or her acts or
omissions, except for willful or wanton |
15 | | misconduct on the part of the person in
providing the care.
|
16 | | (Source: P.A. 95-639, eff. 10-5-07.)
|
17 | | (745 ILCS 49/68) |
18 | | Sec. 68. Disaster Relief Volunteers. Any firefighter, |
19 | | licensed emergency medical technician (EMT) as defined by |
20 | | Section 3.50 of the Emergency Medical Services (EMS) Systems |
21 | | Act, physician, dentist, podiatric physician, optometrist, |
22 | | pharmacist, advanced practice registered nurse, physician |
23 | | assistant, or nurse who in good faith and without fee or |
24 | | compensation provides health care services as a disaster relief |
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1 | | volunteer shall not, as a result of his or her acts or |
2 | | omissions, except willful and wanton misconduct on the part of |
3 | | the person, in providing health care services, be liable to a |
4 | | person to whom the health care services are provided for civil |
5 | | damages. This immunity applies to health care services that are |
6 | | provided without fee or compensation during or within 10 days |
7 | | following the end of a disaster or catastrophic event. |
8 | | The immunity provided in this Section only applies to a |
9 | | disaster relief volunteer who provides health care services in |
10 | | relief of an earthquake, hurricane, tornado, nuclear attack, |
11 | | terrorist attack, epidemic, or pandemic without fee or |
12 | | compensation for providing the volunteer health care services. |
13 | | The provisions of this Section shall not apply to any |
14 | | health care facility as defined in Section 8-2001 of the Code |
15 | | of Civil Procedure or to any practitioner, who is not a |
16 | | disaster relief volunteer, providing health care services in a |
17 | | hospital or health care facility.
|
18 | | (Source: P.A. 98-214, eff. 8-9-13.)
|
19 | | Section 335. The Health Care Surrogate Act is amended by |
20 | | changing Section 65 as follows:
|
21 | | (755 ILCS 40/65)
|
22 | | Sec. 65. Department of Public Health Uniform POLST form.
|
23 | | (a) An individual of sound mind and having reached the age |
24 | | of majority or
having
obtained the status of an emancipated |
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1 | | person pursuant to the Emancipation of
Minors Act may execute a |
2 | | document (consistent with the Department of Public
Health |
3 | | Uniform POLST form described in Section 2310-600 of the |
4 | | Department of Public Health Powers and Duties Law of the
Civil |
5 | | Administrative Code of Illinois) directing that
resuscitating |
6 | | efforts shall not be implemented. Such a document may also
be |
7 | | executed by an attending health care practitioner. If more than |
8 | | one practitioner shares that responsibility, any of the |
9 | | attending health care practitioners may act under this Section. |
10 | | Notwithstanding the existence of a do-not-resuscitate (DNR)
|
11 | | order or Department of Public Health Uniform POLST form, |
12 | | appropriate organ donation treatment may be applied or |
13 | | continued
temporarily in the event of the patient's death, in |
14 | | accordance with subsection
(g) of Section 20 of this Act, if |
15 | | the patient is an organ donor.
|
16 | | (a-5) Execution of a Department of Public Health Uniform |
17 | | POLST form is voluntary; no person can be required to execute |
18 | | either form. A person who has executed a Department of Public |
19 | | Health Uniform POLST form should review the form annually and |
20 | | when the person's condition changes. |
21 | | (b) Consent to a Department of Public Health Uniform POLST |
22 | | form may be obtained from the individual, or from
another
|
23 | | person at the individual's direction, or from the individual's |
24 | | legal guardian,
agent under a
power of attorney for health |
25 | | care, or surrogate decision maker, and witnessed
by one |
26 | | individual 18 years of age or older, who attests that the |
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1 | | individual, other person, guardian, agent, or surrogate (1) has |
2 | | had an opportunity to read the form; and (2) has signed the |
3 | | form or acknowledged his or her signature or mark on the form |
4 | | in the witness's presence.
|
5 | | (b-5) As used in this Section, "attending health care |
6 | | practitioner" means an individual who (1) is an Illinois |
7 | | licensed physician, advanced practice registered nurse, |
8 | | physician assistant, or licensed resident after completion of |
9 | | one year in a program; (2) is selected by or assigned to the |
10 | | patient; and (3) has primary responsibility for treatment and |
11 | | care of the patient. "POLST" means practitioner orders for |
12 | | life-sustaining treatments. |
13 | | (c) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to affect |
14 | | the ability of an individual to include instructions in an |
15 | | advance directive, such as a power of attorney for health care. |
16 | | The uniform form may, but need not, be in the form adopted by |
17 | | the
Department
of
Public Health pursuant to Section 2310-600 of |
18 | | the Department of Public Health
Powers and
Duties Law (20 ILCS |
19 | | 2310/2310-600).
|
20 | | (d) A health care professional or health care provider may |
21 | | presume, in the
absence
of knowledge to the contrary, that a |
22 | | completed Department of Public Health
Uniform POLST form,
or a |
23 | | copy of that form or a previous version of the uniform form, is |
24 | | valid. A health care professional or
health
care provider, or |
25 | | an employee of a health care professional or health care
|
26 | | provider, who in
good faith complies
with a cardiopulmonary |
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1 | | resuscitation (CPR) or life-sustaining treatment order, |
2 | | Department of Public Health Uniform POLST form, or a previous |
3 | | version of the uniform form made in accordance with this Act is |
4 | | not,
as a result of that compliance, subject to any criminal or |
5 | | civil liability,
except for willful and wanton misconduct, and
|
6 | | may not be found to have committed an act of unprofessional |
7 | | conduct. |
8 | | (e) Nothing in this Section or this amendatory Act of the |
9 | | 94th General Assembly or this amendatory Act of the 98th |
10 | | General Assembly shall be construed to affect the ability of a |
11 | | physician or other practitioner to make a do-not-resuscitate |
12 | | order.
|
13 | | (Source: P.A. 98-1110, eff. 8-26-14; 99-319, eff. 1-1-16 .)
|
14 | | Section 340. The Illinois Power of Attorney Act is amended |
15 | | by changing Sections 4-5.1 and 4-10 as follows:
|
16 | | (755 ILCS 45/4-5.1) |
17 | | Sec. 4-5.1. Limitations on who may witness health care |
18 | | agencies. |
19 | | (a) Every health care agency shall bear the signature of a |
20 | | witness to the signing of the agency. No witness may be under |
21 | | 18 years of age. None of the following licensed professionals |
22 | | providing services to the principal may serve as a witness to |
23 | | the signing of a health care agency: |
24 | | (1) the attending physician, advanced practice |
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1 | | registered nurse, physician assistant, dentist, podiatric |
2 | | physician, optometrist, or psychologist of the principal, |
3 | | or a relative of the physician, advanced practice |
4 | | registered nurse, physician assistant, dentist, podiatric |
5 | | physician, optometrist, or psychologist; |
6 | | (2) an owner, operator, or relative of an owner or |
7 | | operator of a health care facility in which the principal |
8 | | is a patient or resident; |
9 | | (3) a parent, sibling, or descendant, or the spouse of |
10 | | a parent, sibling, or descendant, of either the principal |
11 | | or any agent or successor agent, regardless of whether the |
12 | | relationship is by blood, marriage, or adoption; |
13 | | (4) an agent or successor agent for health care. |
14 | | (b) The prohibition on the operator of a health care |
15 | | facility from serving as a witness shall extend to directors |
16 | | and executive officers of an operator that is a corporate |
17 | | entity but not other employees of the operator such as, but not |
18 | | limited to, non-owner chaplains or social workers, nurses, and |
19 | | other employees.
|
20 | | (Source: P.A. 98-1113, eff. 1-1-15; 99-328, eff. 1-1-16 .)
|
21 | | (755 ILCS 45/4-10) (from Ch. 110 1/2, par. 804-10)
|
22 | | Sec. 4-10. Statutory short form power of attorney for |
23 | | health care.
|
24 | | (a) The form prescribed in this Section (sometimes also |
25 | | referred to in this Act as the
"statutory health care power") |
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1 | | may be used to grant an agent powers with
respect to the |
2 | | principal's own health care; but the statutory health care
|
3 | | power is not intended to be exclusive nor to cover delegation |
4 | | of a parent's
power to control the health care of a minor |
5 | | child, and no provision of this
Article shall be construed to |
6 | | invalidate or bar use by the principal of any
other or
|
7 | | different form of power of attorney for health care. |
8 | | Nonstatutory health
care powers must be
executed by the |
9 | | principal, designate the agent and the agent's powers, and
|
10 | | comply with the limitations in Section 4-5 of this Article, but |
11 | | they need not be witnessed or
conform in any other respect to |
12 | | the statutory health care power. |
13 | | No specific format is required for the statutory health |
14 | | care power of attorney other than the notice must precede the |
15 | | form. The statutory health care power may be included in or
|
16 | | combined with any
other form of power of attorney governing |
17 | | property or other matters.
|
18 | | (b) The Illinois Statutory Short Form Power of Attorney for |
19 | | Health Care shall be substantially as follows:
|
20 | | NOTICE TO THE INDIVIDUAL SIGNING |
21 | | THE POWER OF ATTORNEY FOR HEALTH CARE |
22 | | No one can predict when a serious illness or accident might |
23 | | occur. When it does, you may need someone else to speak or make |
24 | | health care decisions for you. If you plan now, you can |
25 | | increase the chances that the medical treatment you get will be |
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1 | | the treatment you want. |
2 | | In Illinois, you can choose someone to be your "health care |
3 | | agent". Your agent is the person you trust to make health care |
4 | | decisions for you if you are unable or do not want to make them |
5 | | yourself. These decisions should be based on your personal |
6 | | values and wishes. |
7 | | It is important to put your choice of agent in writing. The |
8 | | written form is often called an "advance directive". You may |
9 | | use this form or another form, as long as it meets the legal |
10 | | requirements of Illinois. There are many written and on-line |
11 | | resources to guide you and your loved ones in having a |
12 | | conversation about these issues. You may find it helpful to |
13 | | look at these resources while thinking about and discussing |
14 | | your advance directive.
|
15 | | WHAT ARE THE THINGS I WANT MY |
16 | | HEALTH CARE AGENT TO KNOW? |
17 | | The selection of your agent should be considered carefully, |
18 | | as your agent will have the ultimate decision making authority |
19 | | once this document goes into effect, in most instances after |
20 | | you are no longer able to make your own decisions. While the |
21 | | goal is for your agent to make decisions in keeping with your |
22 | | preferences and in the majority of circumstances that is what |
23 | | happens, please know that the law does allow your agent to make |
24 | | decisions to direct or refuse health care interventions or |
25 | | withdraw treatment. Your agent will need to think about |
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1 | | conversations you have had, your personality, and how you |
2 | | handled important health care issues in the past. Therefore, it |
3 | | is important to talk with your agent and your family about such |
4 | | things as: |
5 | | (i) What is most important to you in your life? |
6 | | (ii) How important is it to you to avoid pain and |
7 | | suffering? |
8 | | (iii) If you had to choose, is it more important to you |
9 | | to live as long as possible, or to avoid prolonged |
10 | | suffering or disability? |
11 | | (iv) Would you rather be at home or in a hospital for |
12 | | the last days or weeks of your life? |
13 | | (v) Do you have religious, spiritual, or cultural |
14 | | beliefs that you want your agent and others to consider? |
15 | | (vi) Do you wish to make a significant contribution to |
16 | | medical science after your death through organ or whole |
17 | | body donation? |
18 | | (vii) Do you have an existing advanced directive, such |
19 | | as a living will, that contains your specific wishes about |
20 | | health care that is only delaying your death? If you have |
21 | | another advance directive, make sure to discuss with your |
22 | | agent the directive and the treatment decisions contained |
23 | | within that outline your preferences. Make sure that your |
24 | | agent agrees to honor the wishes expressed in your advance |
25 | | directive.
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1 | | WHAT KIND OF DECISIONS CAN MY AGENT MAKE? |
2 | | If there is ever a period of time when your physician |
3 | | determines that you cannot make your own health care decisions, |
4 | | or if you do not want to make your own decisions, some of the |
5 | | decisions your agent could make are to: |
6 | | (i) talk with physicians and other health care |
7 | | providers about your condition. |
8 | | (ii) see medical records and approve who else can see |
9 | | them. |
10 | | (iii) give permission for medical tests, medicines, |
11 | | surgery, or other treatments. |
12 | | (iv) choose where you receive care and which physicians |
13 | | and others provide it. |
14 | | (v) decide to accept, withdraw, or decline treatments |
15 | | designed to keep you alive if you are near death or not |
16 | | likely to recover. You may choose to include guidelines |
17 | | and/or restrictions to your agent's authority. |
18 | | (vi) agree or decline to donate your organs or your |
19 | | whole body if you have not already made this decision |
20 | | yourself. This could include donation for transplant, |
21 | | research, and/or education. You should let your agent know |
22 | | whether you are registered as a donor in the First Person |
23 | | Consent registry maintained by the Illinois Secretary of |
24 | | State or whether you have agreed to donate your whole body |
25 | | for medical research and/or education. |
26 | | (vii) decide what to do with your remains after you |
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1 | | have died, if you have not already made plans. |
2 | | (viii) talk with your other loved ones to help come to |
3 | | a decision (but your designated agent will have the final |
4 | | say over your other loved ones). |
5 | | Your agent is not automatically responsible for your health |
6 | | care expenses.
|
7 | | WHOM SHOULD I CHOOSE TO BE MY HEALTH CARE AGENT? |
8 | | You can pick a family member, but you do not have to. Your |
9 | | agent will have the responsibility to make medical treatment |
10 | | decisions, even if other people close to you might urge a |
11 | | different decision. The selection of your agent should be done |
12 | | carefully, as he or she will have ultimate decision-making |
13 | | authority for your treatment decisions once you are no longer |
14 | | able to voice your preferences. Choose a family member, friend, |
15 | | or other person who: |
16 | | (i) is at least 18 years old; |
17 | | (ii) knows you well; |
18 | | (iii) you trust to do what is best for you and is |
19 | | willing to carry out your wishes, even if he or she may not |
20 | | agree with your wishes; |
21 | | (iv) would be comfortable talking with and questioning |
22 | | your physicians and other health care providers; |
23 | | (v) would not be too upset to carry out your wishes if |
24 | | you became very sick; and |
25 | | (vi) can be there for you when you need it and is |
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1 | | willing to accept this important role.
|
2 | | WHAT IF MY AGENT IS NOT AVAILABLE OR IS |
3 | | UNWILLING TO MAKE DECISIONS FOR ME? |
4 | | If the person who is your first choice is unable to carry |
5 | | out this role, then the second agent you chose will make the |
6 | | decisions; if your second agent is not available, then the |
7 | | third agent you chose will make the decisions. The second and |
8 | | third agents are called your successor agents and they function |
9 | | as back-up agents to your first choice agent and may act only |
10 | | one at a time and in the order you list them.
|
11 | | WHAT WILL HAPPEN IF I DO NOT |
12 | | CHOOSE A HEALTH CARE AGENT? |
13 | | If you become unable to make your own health care decisions |
14 | | and have not named an agent in writing, your physician and |
15 | | other health care providers will ask a family member, friend, |
16 | | or guardian to make decisions for you. In Illinois, a law |
17 | | directs which of these individuals will be consulted. In that |
18 | | law, each of these individuals is called a "surrogate". |
19 | | There are reasons why you may want to name an agent rather |
20 | | than rely on a surrogate: |
21 | | (i) The person or people listed by this law may not be |
22 | | who you would want to make decisions for you. |
23 | | (ii) Some family members or friends might not be able |
24 | | or willing to make decisions as you would want them to. |
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1 | | (iii) Family members and friends may disagree with one |
2 | | another about the best decisions. |
3 | | (iv) Under some circumstances, a surrogate may not be |
4 | | able to make the same kinds of decisions that an agent can |
5 | | make.
|
6 | | WHAT IF THERE IS NO ONE AVAILABLE |
7 | | WHOM I TRUST TO BE MY AGENT? |
8 | | In this situation, it is especially important to talk to |
9 | | your physician and other health care providers and create |
10 | | written guidance about what you want or do not want, in case |
11 | | you are ever critically ill and cannot express your own wishes. |
12 | | You can complete a living will. You can also write your wishes |
13 | | down and/or discuss them with your physician or other health |
14 | | care provider and ask him or her to write it down in your |
15 | | chart. You might also want to use written or on-line resources |
16 | | to guide you through this process.
|
17 | | WHAT DO I DO WITH THIS FORM ONCE I COMPLETE IT? |
18 | | Follow these instructions after you have completed the |
19 | | form: |
20 | | (i) Sign the form in front of a witness. See the form |
21 | | for a list of who can and cannot witness it. |
22 | | (ii) Ask the witness to sign it, too. |
23 | | (iii) There is no need to have the form notarized. |
24 | | (iv) Give a copy to your agent and to each of your |
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1 | | successor agents. |
2 | | (v) Give another copy to your physician. |
3 | | (vi) Take a copy with you when you go to the hospital. |
4 | | (vii) Show it to your family and friends and others who |
5 | | care for you.
|
6 | | WHAT IF I CHANGE MY MIND? |
7 | | You may change your mind at any time. If you do, tell |
8 | | someone who is at least 18 years old that you have changed your |
9 | | mind, and/or destroy your document and any copies. If you wish, |
10 | | fill out a new form and make sure everyone you gave the old |
11 | | form to has a copy of the new one, including, but not limited |
12 | | to, your agents and your physicians.
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13 | | WHAT IF I DO NOT WANT TO USE THIS FORM? |
14 | | In the event you do not want to use the Illinois statutory |
15 | | form provided here, any document you complete must be executed |
16 | | by you, designate an agent who is over 18 years of age and not |
17 | | prohibited from serving as your agent, and state the agent's |
18 | | powers, but it need not be witnessed or conform in any other |
19 | | respect to the statutory health care power. |
20 | | If you have questions about the use of any form, you may |
21 | | want to consult your physician, other health care provider, |
22 | | and/or an attorney.
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23 | | MY POWER OF ATTORNEY FOR HEALTH CARE
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1 | | THIS POWER OF ATTORNEY REVOKES ALL PREVIOUS POWERS OF ATTORNEY |
2 | | FOR HEALTH CARE. (You must sign this form and a witness must |
3 | | also sign it before it is valid)
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4 | | My name (Print your full name): .......... |
5 | | My address: ..................................................
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6 | | I WANT THE FOLLOWING PERSON TO BE MY HEALTH CARE AGENT |
7 | | (an agent is your personal representative under state and |
8 | | federal law): |
9 | | (Agent name) ................. |
10 | | (Agent address) ............. |
11 | | (Agent phone number) .........................................
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12 | | (Please check box if applicable) .... If a guardian of my |
13 | | person is to be appointed, I nominate the agent acting under |
14 | | this power of attorney as guardian.
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15 | | SUCCESSOR HEALTH CARE AGENT(S) (optional): |
16 | | If the agent I selected is unable or does not want to make |
17 | | health care decisions for me, then I request the person(s) I |
18 | | name below to be my successor health care agent(s). Only one |
19 | | person at a time can serve as my agent (add another page if you |
20 | | want to add more successor agent names): |
21 | | ..................... |
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1 | | (Successor agent #1 name, address and phone number) |
2 | | .......... |
3 | | (Successor agent #2 name, address and phone number)
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4 | | MY AGENT CAN MAKE HEALTH CARE DECISIONS FOR ME, INCLUDING: |
5 | | (i) Deciding to accept, withdraw or decline treatment |
6 | | for any physical or mental condition of mine, including |
7 | | life-and-death decisions. |
8 | | (ii) Agreeing to admit me to or discharge me from any |
9 | | hospital, home, or other institution, including a mental |
10 | | health facility. |
11 | | (iii) Having complete access to my medical and mental |
12 | | health records, and sharing them with others as needed, |
13 | | including after I die. |
14 | | (iv) Carrying out the plans I have already made, or, if |
15 | | I have not done so, making decisions about my body or |
16 | | remains, including organ, tissue or whole body donation, |
17 | | autopsy, cremation, and burial. |
18 | | The above grant of power is intended to be as broad as |
19 | | possible so that my agent will have the authority to make any |
20 | | decision I could make to obtain or terminate any type of health |
21 | | care, including withdrawal of nutrition and hydration and other |
22 | | life-sustaining measures.
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23 | | I AUTHORIZE MY AGENT TO (please check any one box): |
24 | | .... Make decisions for me only when I cannot make them for |
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| | HB0313 Engrossed | - 731 - | LRB100 04130 SMS 14135 b |
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1 | | myself. The physician(s) taking care of me will determine |
2 | | when I lack this ability. |
3 | | (If no box is checked, then the box above shall be |
4 | | implemented.)
OR |
5 | | .... Make decisions for me only when I cannot make them for |
6 | | myself. The physician(s) taking care of me will determine |
7 | | when I lack this ability. Starting now, for the purpose of |
8 | | assisting me with my health care plans and decisions, my |
9 | | agent shall have complete access to my medical and mental |
10 | | health records, the authority to share them with others as |
11 | | needed, and the complete ability to communicate with my |
12 | | personal physician(s) and other health care providers, |
13 | | including the ability to require an opinion of my physician |
14 | | as to whether I lack the ability to make decisions for |
15 | | myself. OR |
16 | | .... Make decisions for me starting now and continuing |
17 | | after I am no longer able to make them for myself. While I |
18 | | am still able to make my own decisions, I can still do so |
19 | | if I want to.
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20 | | The subject of life-sustaining treatment is of particular |
21 | | importance. Life-sustaining treatments may include tube |
22 | | feedings or fluids through a tube, breathing machines, and CPR. |
23 | | In general, in making decisions concerning life-sustaining |
24 | | treatment, your agent is instructed to consider the relief of |
25 | | suffering, the quality as well as the possible extension of |
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1 | | your life, and your previously expressed wishes. Your agent |
2 | | will weigh the burdens versus benefits of proposed treatments |
3 | | in making decisions on your behalf. |
4 | | Additional statements concerning the withholding or |
5 | | removal of life-sustaining treatment are described below. |
6 | | These can serve as a guide for your agent when making decisions |
7 | | for you. Ask your physician or health care provider if you have |
8 | | any questions about these statements.
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9 | | SELECT ONLY ONE STATEMENT BELOW THAT BEST EXPRESSES YOUR WISHES |
10 | | (optional): |
11 | | .... The quality of my life is more important than the |
12 | | length of my life. If I am unconscious and my attending |
13 | | physician believes, in accordance with reasonable medical |
14 | | standards, that I will not wake up or recover my ability to |
15 | | think, communicate with my family and friends, and |
16 | | experience my surroundings, I do not want treatments to |
17 | | prolong my life or delay my death, but I do want treatment |
18 | | or care to make me comfortable and to relieve me of pain. |
19 | | .... Staying alive is more important to me, no matter how |
20 | | sick I am, how much I am suffering, the cost of the |
21 | | procedures, or how unlikely my chances for recovery are. I |
22 | | want my life to be prolonged to the greatest extent |
23 | | possible in accordance with reasonable medical standards.
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24 | | SPECIFIC LIMITATIONS TO MY AGENT'S DECISION-MAKING AUTHORITY: |
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1 | | The above grant of power is intended to be as broad as |
2 | | possible so that your agent will have the authority to make any |
3 | | decision you could make to obtain or terminate any type of |
4 | | health care. If you wish to limit the scope of your agent's |
5 | | powers or prescribe special rules or limit the power to |
6 | | authorize autopsy or dispose of remains, you may do so |
7 | | specifically in this form. |
8 | | .................................. |
9 | | ..............................
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10 | | My signature: .................. |
11 | | Today's date: ................................................
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12 | | HAVE YOUR WITNESS AGREE TO WHAT IS WRITTEN BELOW, AND THEN |
13 | | COMPLETE THE SIGNATURE PORTION: |
14 | | I am at least 18 years old. (check one of the options |
15 | | below): |
16 | | .... I saw the principal sign this document, or |
17 | | .... the principal told me that the signature or mark on |
18 | | the principal signature line is his or hers. |
19 | | I am not the agent or successor agent(s) named in this |
20 | | document. I am not related to the principal, the agent, or the |
21 | | successor agent(s) by blood, marriage, or adoption. I am not |
22 | | the principal's physician, advanced practice registered nurse, |
23 | | dentist, podiatric physician, optometrist, psychologist, or a |
24 | | relative of one of those individuals. I am not an owner or |
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1 | | operator (or the relative of an owner or operator) of the |
2 | | health care facility where the principal is a patient or |
3 | | resident. |
4 | | Witness printed name: ............ |
5 | | Witness address: .............. |
6 | | Witness signature: ............... |
7 | | Today's date: ................................................
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8 | | (c) The statutory short form power of attorney for health |
9 | | care (the
"statutory health care power") authorizes the agent |
10 | | to make any and all
health care decisions on behalf of the |
11 | | principal which the principal could
make if present and under |
12 | | no disability, subject to any limitations on the
granted powers |
13 | | that appear on the face of the form, to be exercised in such
|
14 | | manner as the agent deems consistent with the intent and |
15 | | desires of the
principal. The agent will be under no duty to |
16 | | exercise granted powers or
to assume control of or |
17 | | responsibility for the principal's health care;
but when |
18 | | granted powers are exercised, the agent will be required to use
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19 | | due care to act for the benefit of the principal in accordance |
20 | | with the
terms of the statutory health care power and will be |
21 | | liable
for negligent exercise. The agent may act in person or |
22 | | through others
reasonably employed by the agent for that |
23 | | purpose
but may not delegate authority to make health care |
24 | | decisions. The agent
may sign and deliver all instruments, |
25 | | negotiate and enter into all
agreements and do all other acts |
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1 | | reasonably necessary to implement the
exercise of the powers |
2 | | granted to the agent. Without limiting the
generality of the |
3 | | foregoing, the statutory health care power shall include
the |
4 | | following powers, subject to any limitations appearing on the |
5 | | face of the form:
|
6 | | (1) The agent is authorized to give consent to and |
7 | | authorize or refuse,
or to withhold or withdraw consent to, |
8 | | any and all types of medical care,
treatment or procedures |
9 | | relating to the physical or mental health of the
principal, |
10 | | including any medication program, surgical procedures,
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11 | | life-sustaining treatment or provision of food and fluids |
12 | | for the principal.
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13 | | (2) The agent is authorized to admit the principal to |
14 | | or discharge the
principal from any and all types of |
15 | | hospitals, institutions, homes,
residential or nursing |
16 | | facilities, treatment centers and other health care
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17 | | institutions providing personal care or treatment for any |
18 | | type of physical
or mental condition. The agent shall have |
19 | | the same right to visit the
principal in the hospital or |
20 | | other institution as is granted to a spouse or
adult child |
21 | | of the principal, any rule of the institution to the |
22 | | contrary
notwithstanding.
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23 | | (3) The agent is authorized to contract for any and all |
24 | | types of health
care services and facilities in the name of |
25 | | and on behalf of the principal
and to bind the principal to |
26 | | pay for all such services and facilities,
and to have and |
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1 | | exercise those powers over the principal's property as are
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2 | | authorized under the statutory property power, to the |
3 | | extent the agent
deems necessary to pay health care costs; |
4 | | and
the agent shall not be personally liable for any |
5 | | services or care contracted
for on behalf of the principal.
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6 | | (4) At the principal's expense and subject to |
7 | | reasonable rules of the
health care provider to prevent |
8 | | disruption of the principal's health care,
the agent shall |
9 | | have the same right the principal has to examine and copy
|
10 | | and consent to disclosure of all the principal's medical |
11 | | records that the agent deems
relevant to the exercise of |
12 | | the agent's powers, whether the records
relate to mental |
13 | | health or any other medical condition and whether they are |
14 | | in
the possession of or maintained by any physician, |
15 | | psychiatrist,
psychologist, therapist, hospital, nursing |
16 | | home or other health care
provider. The authority under |
17 | | this paragraph (4) applies to any information governed by |
18 | | the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of |
19 | | 1996 ("HIPAA") and regulations thereunder. The agent |
20 | | serves as the principal's personal representative, as that |
21 | | term is defined under HIPAA and regulations thereunder.
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22 | | (5) The agent is authorized: to direct that an autopsy |
23 | | be made pursuant
to Section 2 of "An Act in relation to |
24 | | autopsy of dead bodies", approved
August 13, 1965, |
25 | | including all amendments;
to make a disposition of any
part |
26 | | or all of the principal's body pursuant to the Illinois |
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1 | | Anatomical Gift
Act, as now or hereafter amended; and to |
2 | | direct the disposition of the
principal's remains. |
3 | | (6) At any time during which there is no executor or |
4 | | administrator appointed for the principal's estate, the |
5 | | agent is authorized to continue to pursue an application or |
6 | | appeal for government benefits if those benefits were |
7 | | applied for during the life of the principal.
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8 | | (d) A physician may determine that the principal is unable |
9 | | to make health care decisions for himself or herself only if |
10 | | the principal lacks decisional capacity, as that term is |
11 | | defined in Section 10 of the Health Care Surrogate Act. |
12 | | (e) If the principal names the agent as a guardian on the |
13 | | statutory short form, and if a court decides that the |
14 | | appointment of a guardian will serve the principal's best |
15 | | interests and welfare, the court shall appoint the agent to |
16 | | serve without bond or security. |
17 | | (Source: P.A. 98-1113, eff. 1-1-15; 99-328, eff. 1-1-16 .)
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18 | | Section 995. No acceleration or delay. Where this Act makes |
19 | | changes in a statute that is represented in this Act by text |
20 | | that is not yet or no longer in effect (for example, a Section |
21 | | represented by multiple versions), the use of that text does |
22 | | not accelerate or delay the taking effect of (i) the changes |
23 | | made by this Act or (ii) provisions derived from any other |
24 | | Public Act.
|
25 | | Section 999. Effective date. This Act takes effect upon |