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| 1 |  |  AN ACT concerning health. 
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| 2 |  |  Be it enacted by the People of the State of Illinois,  | 
| 3 |  | represented in the General Assembly: 
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| 4 |  | ARTICLE 1.
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| 5 |  |  Section 1-1. This Article may be referred to as Lali's Law.
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| 6 |  |  Section 1-5. The Pharmacy Practice Act is amended by adding  | 
| 7 |  | Section 19.1 as follows:
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| 8 |  |  (225 ILCS 85/19.1 new) | 
| 9 |  |  Sec. 19.1. Dispensing naloxone antidotes.  | 
| 10 |  |  (a) Due to the recent rise in opioid-related deaths in
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| 11 |  | Illinois and the existence of an opioid antagonist that can
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| 12 |  | reverse the deadly effects of overdose, the General Assembly
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| 13 |  | finds that in order to avoid further loss where possible, it is
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| 14 |  | responsible to allow greater access of such an antagonist to
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| 15 |  | those populations at risk of overdose. | 
| 16 |  |  (b) Notwithstanding any general or special law to the
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| 17 |  | contrary, a licensed pharmacist may dispense an opioid  | 
| 18 |  | antagonist
in accordance with written, standardized procedures  | 
| 19 |  | or
protocols developed by the Department with the Department of
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| 20 |  | Public Health and the Department of Human Services if the
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| 21 |  | procedures or protocols are filed at the pharmacy before
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| 1 |  | implementation and are available to the Department upon
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| 2 |  | request. | 
| 3 |  |  (c) Before dispensing an opioid antagonist pursuant to this
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| 4 |  | Section, a pharmacist shall complete a training program
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| 5 |  | approved by the Department of Human Services pursuant to
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| 6 |  | Section 5-23 of the Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and
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| 7 |  | Dependency Act. The training program shall include, but not be
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| 8 |  | limited to, proper documentation and quality assurance. | 
| 9 |  |  (d) For the purpose of this Section, "opioid antagonist"  | 
| 10 |  | means a drug that binds to opioid receptors and blocks or  | 
| 11 |  | inhibits the effect of opioids acting on those receptors,  | 
| 12 |  | including, but not limited to, naloxone hydrochloride or any  | 
| 13 |  | other similarly acting and equally safe drug approved by the  | 
| 14 |  | U.S. Food and Drug Administration for the treatment of drug  | 
| 15 |  | overdose.
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| 16 |  | ARTICLE 5.
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| 17 |  |  Section 5-1. The Open Meetings Act is amended by changing  | 
| 18 |  | Section 2 as follows:
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| 19 |  |  (5 ILCS 120/2) (from Ch. 102, par. 42)
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| 20 |  |  Sec. 2. Open meetings. 
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| 21 |  |  (a) Openness required. All meetings of public
bodies shall  | 
| 22 |  | be open to the public unless excepted in subsection (c)
and  | 
| 23 |  | closed in accordance with Section 2a.
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| 1 |  |  (b) Construction of exceptions. The exceptions contained  | 
| 2 |  | in subsection
(c) are in derogation of the requirement that  | 
| 3 |  | public bodies
meet in the open, and therefore, the exceptions  | 
| 4 |  | are to be strictly
construed, extending only to subjects  | 
| 5 |  | clearly within their scope.
The exceptions authorize but do not  | 
| 6 |  | require the holding of
a closed meeting to discuss a subject  | 
| 7 |  | included within an enumerated exception.
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| 8 |  |  (c) Exceptions. A public body may hold closed meetings to  | 
| 9 |  | consider the
following subjects:
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| 10 |  |   (1) The appointment, employment, compensation,  | 
| 11 |  |  discipline, performance,
or dismissal of specific  | 
| 12 |  |  employees of the public body or legal counsel for
the  | 
| 13 |  |  public body, including hearing
testimony on a complaint  | 
| 14 |  |  lodged against an employee of the public body or
against  | 
| 15 |  |  legal counsel for the public body to determine its  | 
| 16 |  |  validity.
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| 17 |  |   (2) Collective negotiating matters between the public  | 
| 18 |  |  body and its
employees or their representatives, or  | 
| 19 |  |  deliberations concerning salary
schedules for one or more  | 
| 20 |  |  classes of employees.
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| 21 |  |   (3) The selection of a person to fill a public office,
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| 22 |  |  as defined in this Act, including a vacancy in a public  | 
| 23 |  |  office, when the public
body is given power to appoint  | 
| 24 |  |  under law or ordinance, or the discipline,
performance or  | 
| 25 |  |  removal of the occupant of a public office, when the public  | 
| 26 |  |  body
is given power to remove the occupant under law or  | 
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| 1 |  |  ordinance. 
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| 2 |  |   (4) Evidence or testimony presented in open hearing, or  | 
| 3 |  |  in closed
hearing where specifically authorized by law, to
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| 4 |  |  a quasi-adjudicative body, as defined in this Act, provided  | 
| 5 |  |  that the body
prepares and makes available for public  | 
| 6 |  |  inspection a written decision
setting forth its  | 
| 7 |  |  determinative reasoning.
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| 8 |  |   (5) The purchase or lease of real property for the use  | 
| 9 |  |  of
the public body, including meetings held for the purpose  | 
| 10 |  |  of discussing
whether a particular parcel should be  | 
| 11 |  |  acquired.
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| 12 |  |   (6) The setting of a price for sale or lease of  | 
| 13 |  |  property owned
by the public body.
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| 14 |  |   (7) The sale or purchase of securities, investments, or  | 
| 15 |  |  investment
contracts. This exception shall not apply to the  | 
| 16 |  |  investment of assets or income of funds deposited into the  | 
| 17 |  |  Illinois Prepaid Tuition Trust Fund. 
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| 18 |  |   (8) Security procedures and the use of personnel and
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| 19 |  |  equipment to respond to an actual, a threatened, or a  | 
| 20 |  |  reasonably
potential danger to the safety of employees,  | 
| 21 |  |  students, staff, the public, or
public
property.
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| 22 |  |   (9) Student disciplinary cases.
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| 23 |  |   (10) The placement of individual students in special  | 
| 24 |  |  education
programs and other matters relating to  | 
| 25 |  |  individual students.
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| 26 |  |   (11) Litigation, when an action against, affecting or  | 
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| 1 |  |  on behalf of the
particular public body has been filed and  | 
| 2 |  |  is pending before a court or
administrative tribunal, or  | 
| 3 |  |  when the public body finds that an action is
probable or  | 
| 4 |  |  imminent, in which case the basis for the finding shall be
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| 5 |  |  recorded and entered into the minutes of the closed  | 
| 6 |  |  meeting.
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| 7 |  |   (12) The establishment of reserves or settlement of  | 
| 8 |  |  claims as provided
in the Local Governmental and  | 
| 9 |  |  Governmental Employees Tort Immunity Act, if
otherwise the  | 
| 10 |  |  disposition of a claim or potential claim might be
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| 11 |  |  prejudiced, or the review or discussion of claims, loss or  | 
| 12 |  |  risk management
information, records, data, advice or  | 
| 13 |  |  communications from or with respect
to any insurer of the  | 
| 14 |  |  public body or any intergovernmental risk management
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| 15 |  |  association or self insurance pool of which the public body  | 
| 16 |  |  is a member.
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| 17 |  |   (13) Conciliation of complaints of discrimination in  | 
| 18 |  |  the sale or rental
of housing, when closed meetings are  | 
| 19 |  |  authorized by the law or ordinance
prescribing fair housing  | 
| 20 |  |  practices and creating a commission or
administrative  | 
| 21 |  |  agency for their enforcement.
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| 22 |  |   (14) Informant sources, the hiring or assignment of  | 
| 23 |  |  undercover personnel
or equipment, or ongoing, prior or  | 
| 24 |  |  future criminal investigations, when
discussed by a public  | 
| 25 |  |  body with criminal investigatory responsibilities.
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| 26 |  |   (15) Professional ethics or performance when  | 
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| 1 |  |  considered by an advisory
body appointed to advise a  | 
| 2 |  |  licensing or regulatory agency on matters
germane to the  | 
| 3 |  |  advisory body's field of competence.
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| 4 |  |   (16) Self evaluation, practices and procedures or  | 
| 5 |  |  professional ethics,
when meeting with a representative of  | 
| 6 |  |  a statewide association of which the
public body is a  | 
| 7 |  |  member.
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| 8 |  |   (17) The recruitment, credentialing, discipline or  | 
| 9 |  |  formal peer review
of physicians or other
health care  | 
| 10 |  |  professionals for a hospital, or
other institution  | 
| 11 |  |  providing medical care, that is operated by the public  | 
| 12 |  |  body.
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| 13 |  |   (18) Deliberations for decisions of the Prisoner  | 
| 14 |  |  Review Board.
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| 15 |  |   (19) Review or discussion of applications received  | 
| 16 |  |  under the
Experimental Organ Transplantation Procedures  | 
| 17 |  |  Act.
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| 18 |  |   (20) The classification and discussion of matters  | 
| 19 |  |  classified as
confidential or continued confidential by  | 
| 20 |  |  the State Government Suggestion Award
Board.
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| 21 |  |   (21) Discussion of minutes of meetings lawfully closed  | 
| 22 |  |  under this Act,
whether for purposes of approval by the  | 
| 23 |  |  body of the minutes or semi-annual
review of the minutes as  | 
| 24 |  |  mandated by Section 2.06.
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| 25 |  |   (22) Deliberations for decisions of the State
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| 26 |  |  Emergency Medical Services Disciplinary
Review Board.
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| 1 |  |   (23) The operation by a municipality of a municipal  | 
| 2 |  |  utility or the
operation of a
municipal power agency or  | 
| 3 |  |  municipal natural gas agency when the
discussion involves  | 
| 4 |  |  (i) contracts relating to the
purchase, sale, or delivery  | 
| 5 |  |  of electricity or natural gas or (ii) the results
or  | 
| 6 |  |  conclusions of load forecast studies.
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| 7 |  |   (24) Meetings of a residential health care facility  | 
| 8 |  |  resident sexual
assault and death review
team or
the  | 
| 9 |  |  Executive
Council under the Abuse Prevention Review
Team  | 
| 10 |  |  Act.
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| 11 |  |   (25) Meetings of an independent team of experts under  | 
| 12 |  |  Brian's Law.  | 
| 13 |  |   (26) Meetings of a mortality review team appointed  | 
| 14 |  |  under the Department of Juvenile Justice Mortality Review  | 
| 15 |  |  Team Act.  | 
| 16 |  |   (27) (Blank).  | 
| 17 |  |   (28) Correspondence and records (i) that may not be  | 
| 18 |  |  disclosed under Section 11-9 of the Public Aid Code or (ii)  | 
| 19 |  |  that pertain to appeals under Section 11-8 of the Public  | 
| 20 |  |  Aid Code.  | 
| 21 |  |   (29) Meetings between internal or external auditors  | 
| 22 |  |  and governmental audit committees, finance committees, and  | 
| 23 |  |  their equivalents, when the discussion involves internal  | 
| 24 |  |  control weaknesses, identification of potential fraud risk  | 
| 25 |  |  areas, known or suspected frauds, and fraud interviews  | 
| 26 |  |  conducted in accordance with generally accepted auditing  | 
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| 1 |  |  standards of the United States of America. | 
| 2 |  |   (30) Those meetings or portions of meetings of a  | 
| 3 |  |  fatality review team or the Illinois Fatality Review Team  | 
| 4 |  |  Advisory Council during which a review of the death of an  | 
| 5 |  |  eligible adult in which abuse or neglect is suspected,  | 
| 6 |  |  alleged, or substantiated is conducted pursuant to Section  | 
| 7 |  |  15 of the Adult Protective Services Act.  | 
| 8 |  |   (31) Meetings and deliberations for decisions of the  | 
| 9 |  |  Concealed Carry Licensing Review Board under the Firearm  | 
| 10 |  |  Concealed Carry Act.  | 
| 11 |  |   (32) Meetings between the Regional Transportation  | 
| 12 |  |  Authority Board and its Service Boards when the discussion  | 
| 13 |  |  involves review by the Regional Transportation Authority  | 
| 14 |  |  Board of employment contracts under Section 28d of the  | 
| 15 |  |  Metropolitan Transit Authority Act and Sections 3A.18 and  | 
| 16 |  |  3B.26 of the Regional Transportation Authority Act. | 
| 17 |  |   (33) Those meeting or portions of meetings of the  | 
| 18 |  |  advisory committee and peer review subcommittee created  | 
| 19 |  |  under Section 320 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act  | 
| 20 |  |  during which specific controlled substance prescriber,  | 
| 21 |  |  dispenser, or patient information is discussed.  | 
| 22 |  |  (d) Definitions. For purposes of this Section:
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| 23 |  |  "Employee" means a person employed by a public body whose  | 
| 24 |  | relationship
with the public body constitutes an  | 
| 25 |  | employer-employee relationship under
the usual common law  | 
| 26 |  | rules, and who is not an independent contractor.
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| 1 |  |  "Public office" means a position created by or under the
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| 2 |  | Constitution or laws of this State, the occupant of which is  | 
| 3 |  | charged with
the exercise of some portion of the sovereign  | 
| 4 |  | power of this State. The term
"public office" shall include  | 
| 5 |  | members of the public body, but it shall not
include  | 
| 6 |  | organizational positions filled by members thereof, whether
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| 7 |  | established by law or by a public body itself, that exist to  | 
| 8 |  | assist the
body in the conduct of its business.
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| 9 |  |  "Quasi-adjudicative body" means an administrative body  | 
| 10 |  | charged by law or
ordinance with the responsibility to conduct  | 
| 11 |  | hearings, receive evidence or
testimony and make  | 
| 12 |  | determinations based
thereon, but does not include
local  | 
| 13 |  | electoral boards when such bodies are considering petition  | 
| 14 |  | challenges.
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| 15 |  |  (e) Final action. No final action may be taken at a closed  | 
| 16 |  | meeting.
Final action shall be preceded by a public recital of  | 
| 17 |  | the nature of the
matter being considered and other information  | 
| 18 |  | that will inform the
public of the business being conducted. 
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| 19 |  | (Source: P.A. 97-318, eff. 1-1-12; 97-333, eff. 8-12-11;  | 
| 20 |  | 97-452, eff. 8-19-11; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 97-876, eff.  | 
| 21 |  | 8-1-12; 98-49, eff. 7-1-13; 98-63, eff. 7-9-13; 98-756, eff.  | 
| 22 |  | 7-16-14; 98-1027, eff. 1-1-15; 98-1039, eff. 8-25-14; revised  | 
| 23 |  | 10-1-14.)
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| 24 |  |  Section 5-10. The State Employees Group Insurance Act of  | 
| 25 |  | 1971 is amended by changing Section 6.11 as follows:
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| 1 |  |  (5 ILCS 375/6.11)
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| 2 |  |  Sec. 6.11. Required health benefits; Illinois Insurance  | 
| 3 |  | Code
requirements. The program of health
benefits shall provide  | 
| 4 |  | the post-mastectomy care benefits required to be covered
by a  | 
| 5 |  | policy of accident and health insurance under Section 356t of  | 
| 6 |  | the Illinois
Insurance Code. The program of health benefits  | 
| 7 |  | shall provide the coverage
required under Sections 356g,  | 
| 8 |  | 356g.5, 356g.5-1, 356m,
356u, 356w, 356x, 356z.2, 356z.4,  | 
| 9 |  | 356z.6, 356z.8, 356z.9, 356z.10, 356z.11, 356z.12, 356z.13,  | 
| 10 |  | 356z.14, 356z.15, 356z.17, and 356z.22 of the
Illinois  | 
| 11 |  | Insurance Code.
The program of health benefits must comply with  | 
| 12 |  | Sections 155.22a, 155.37, 355b, and 356z.19, 370c, and 370c.1  | 
| 13 |  | of the
Illinois Insurance Code.
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| 14 |  |  Rulemaking authority to implement Public Act 95-1045, if  | 
| 15 |  | any, is conditioned on the rules being adopted in accordance  | 
| 16 |  | with all provisions of the Illinois Administrative Procedure  | 
| 17 |  | Act and all rules and procedures of the Joint Committee on  | 
| 18 |  | Administrative Rules; any purported rule not so adopted, for  | 
| 19 |  | whatever reason, is unauthorized.  | 
| 20 |  | (Source: P.A. 97-282, eff. 8-9-11; 97-343, eff. 1-1-12; 97-813,  | 
| 21 |  | eff. 7-13-12; 98-189, eff. 1-1-14; 98-1091, eff. 1-1-15.)
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| 22 |  |  Section 5-15. The Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and  | 
| 23 |  | Dependency Act is amended by changing Section 5-23 and adding  | 
| 24 |  | Sections 5-24 and 20-20 as follows:
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| 1 |  |  (20 ILCS 301/5-23) | 
| 2 |  |  Sec. 5-23. Drug Overdose Prevention Program. | 
| 3 |  |  (a) Reports of drug overdose. | 
| 4 |  |   (1) The Director of the Division of Alcoholism and  | 
| 5 |  |  Substance Abuse shall may publish annually a report on drug  | 
| 6 |  |  overdose trends statewide that reviews State death rates  | 
| 7 |  |  from available data to ascertain changes in the causes or  | 
| 8 |  |  rates of fatal and nonfatal drug overdose for the preceding  | 
| 9 |  |  period of not less than 5 years. The report shall also  | 
| 10 |  |  provide information on interventions that would be  | 
| 11 |  |  effective in reducing the rate of fatal or nonfatal drug  | 
| 12 |  |  overdose and shall include an analysis of drug overdose  | 
| 13 |  |  information reported to the Department of Public Health  | 
| 14 |  |  pursuant to subsection (e) of Section 3-3013 of the  | 
| 15 |  |  Counties Code, Section 6.14g of the Hospital Licensing Act,  | 
| 16 |  |  and subsection (j) of Section 22-30 of the School Code. | 
| 17 |  |   (2) The report may include: | 
| 18 |  |    (A) Trends in drug overdose death rates. | 
| 19 |  |    (B) Trends in emergency room utilization related  | 
| 20 |  |  to drug overdose and the cost impact of emergency room  | 
| 21 |  |  utilization. | 
| 22 |  |    (C) Trends in utilization of pre-hospital and  | 
| 23 |  |  emergency services and the cost impact of emergency  | 
| 24 |  |  services utilization. | 
| 25 |  |    (D) Suggested improvements in data collection. | 
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| 1 |  |    (E) A description of other interventions effective  | 
| 2 |  |  in reducing the rate of fatal or nonfatal drug  | 
| 3 |  |  overdose. | 
| 4 |  |    (F) A description of efforts undertaken to educate  | 
| 5 |  |  the public about unused medication and about how to  | 
| 6 |  |  properly dispose of unused medication, including the  | 
| 7 |  |  number of registered collection receptacles in this  | 
| 8 |  |  State, mail-back programs, and drug take-back events.  | 
| 9 |  |  (b) Programs; drug overdose prevention. | 
| 10 |  |   (1) The Director may establish a program to provide for  | 
| 11 |  |  the production and publication, in electronic and other  | 
| 12 |  |  formats, of drug overdose prevention, recognition, and  | 
| 13 |  |  response literature. The Director may develop and  | 
| 14 |  |  disseminate curricula for use by professionals,  | 
| 15 |  |  organizations, individuals, or committees interested in  | 
| 16 |  |  the prevention of fatal and nonfatal drug overdose,  | 
| 17 |  |  including, but not limited to, drug users, jail and prison  | 
| 18 |  |  personnel, jail and prison inmates, drug treatment  | 
| 19 |  |  professionals, emergency medical personnel, hospital  | 
| 20 |  |  staff, families and associates of drug users, peace  | 
| 21 |  |  officers, firefighters, public safety officers, needle  | 
| 22 |  |  exchange program staff, and other persons. In addition to  | 
| 23 |  |  information regarding drug overdose prevention,  | 
| 24 |  |  recognition, and response, literature produced by the  | 
| 25 |  |  Department shall stress that drug use remains illegal and  | 
| 26 |  |  highly dangerous and that complete abstinence from illegal  | 
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| 1 |  |  drug use is the healthiest choice. The literature shall  | 
| 2 |  |  provide information and resources for substance abuse  | 
| 3 |  |  treatment. | 
| 4 |  |   The Director may establish or authorize programs for  | 
| 5 |  |  prescribing, dispensing, or distributing opioid  | 
| 6 |  |  antagonists naloxone hydrochloride or any other similarly  | 
| 7 |  |  acting and equally safe drug approved by the U.S. Food and  | 
| 8 |  |  Drug Administration for the treatment of drug overdose.  | 
| 9 |  |  Such programs may include the prescribing of opioid  | 
| 10 |  |  antagonists naloxone hydrochloride or any other similarly  | 
| 11 |  |  acting and equally safe drug approved by the U.S. Food and  | 
| 12 |  |  Drug Administration for the treatment of drug overdose to a  | 
| 13 |  |  person who is not at risk of opioid overdose but who, in  | 
| 14 |  |  the judgment of the health care professional, may be in a  | 
| 15 |  |  position to assist another individual during an  | 
| 16 |  |  opioid-related drug overdose and who has received basic  | 
| 17 |  |  instruction on how to administer an opioid antagonist and  | 
| 18 |  |  education about administration by individuals who are not  | 
| 19 |  |  personally at risk of opioid overdose. | 
| 20 |  |   (2) The Director may provide advice to State and local  | 
| 21 |  |  officials on the growing drug overdose crisis, including  | 
| 22 |  |  the prevalence of drug overdose incidents, programs  | 
| 23 |  |  promoting the disposal of unused prescription drugs,  | 
| 24 |  |  trends in drug overdose incidents, and solutions to the  | 
| 25 |  |  drug overdose crisis. | 
| 26 |  |  (c) Grants. | 
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| 1 |  |   (1) The Director may award grants, in accordance with  | 
| 2 |  |  this subsection, to create or support local drug overdose  | 
| 3 |  |  prevention, recognition, and response projects. Local  | 
| 4 |  |  health departments, correctional institutions, hospitals,  | 
| 5 |  |  universities, community-based organizations, and  | 
| 6 |  |  faith-based organizations may apply to the Department for a  | 
| 7 |  |  grant under this subsection at the time and in the manner  | 
| 8 |  |  the Director prescribes. | 
| 9 |  |   (2) In awarding grants, the Director shall consider the  | 
| 10 |  |  necessity for overdose prevention projects in various  | 
| 11 |  |  settings and shall encourage all grant applicants to  | 
| 12 |  |  develop interventions that will be effective and viable in  | 
| 13 |  |  their local areas. | 
| 14 |  |   (3) The Director shall give preference for grants to  | 
| 15 |  |  proposals that, in addition to providing life-saving  | 
| 16 |  |  interventions and responses, provide information to drug  | 
| 17 |  |  users on how to access drug treatment or other strategies  | 
| 18 |  |  for abstaining from illegal drugs. The Director shall give  | 
| 19 |  |  preference to proposals that include one or more of the  | 
| 20 |  |  following elements: | 
| 21 |  |    (A) Policies and projects to encourage persons,  | 
| 22 |  |  including drug users, to call 911 when they witness a  | 
| 23 |  |  potentially fatal drug overdose. | 
| 24 |  |    (B) Drug overdose prevention, recognition, and  | 
| 25 |  |  response education projects in drug treatment centers,  | 
| 26 |  |  outreach programs, and other organizations that work  | 
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| 1 |  |  with, or have access to, drug users and their families  | 
| 2 |  |  and communities. | 
| 3 |  |    (C) Drug overdose recognition and response  | 
| 4 |  |  training, including rescue breathing, in drug  | 
| 5 |  |  treatment centers and for other organizations that  | 
| 6 |  |  work with, or have access to, drug users and their  | 
| 7 |  |  families and communities. | 
| 8 |  |    (D) The production and distribution of targeted or  | 
| 9 |  |  mass media materials on drug overdose prevention and  | 
| 10 |  |  response, the potential dangers of keeping unused  | 
| 11 |  |  prescription drugs in the home, and methods to properly  | 
| 12 |  |  dispose of unused prescription drugs. | 
| 13 |  |    (E) Prescription and distribution of opioid  | 
| 14 |  |  antagonists naloxone hydrochloride or any other  | 
| 15 |  |  similarly acting and equally safe drug approved by the  | 
| 16 |  |  U.S. Food and Drug Administration for the treatment of  | 
| 17 |  |  drug overdose. | 
| 18 |  |    (F) The institution of education and training  | 
| 19 |  |  projects on drug overdose response and treatment for  | 
| 20 |  |  emergency services and law enforcement personnel. | 
| 21 |  |    (G) A system of parent, family, and survivor  | 
| 22 |  |  education and mutual support groups. | 
| 23 |  |   (4) In addition to moneys appropriated by the General  | 
| 24 |  |  Assembly, the Director may seek grants from private  | 
| 25 |  |  foundations, the federal government, and other sources to  | 
| 26 |  |  fund the grants under this Section and to fund an  | 
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| 1 |  |  evaluation of the programs supported by the grants. | 
| 2 |  |  (d) Health care professional prescription of opioid  | 
| 3 |  | antagonists drug overdose treatment medication.  | 
| 4 |  |   (1) A health care professional who, acting in good  | 
| 5 |  |  faith, directly or by standing order, prescribes or  | 
| 6 |  |  dispenses an opioid antagonist antidote to: (a) a patient  | 
| 7 |  |  who, in the judgment of the health care professional, is  | 
| 8 |  |  capable of administering the drug in an emergency, or (b) a  | 
| 9 |  |  person who is not at risk of opioid overdose but who, in  | 
| 10 |  |  the judgment of the health care professional, may be in a  | 
| 11 |  |  position to assist another individual during an  | 
| 12 |  |  opioid-related drug overdose and who has received basic  | 
| 13 |  |  instruction on how to administer an opioid antagonist shall  | 
| 14 |  |  not, as a result of his or her acts or omissions, be  | 
| 15 |  |  subject to: (i) any disciplinary or other adverse action  | 
| 16 |  |  under the Medical Practice Act of 1987, the Physician  | 
| 17 |  |  Assistant Practice Act of 1987, the Nurse Practice Act, the  | 
| 18 |  |  Pharmacy Practice Act, or any other professional licensing  | 
| 19 |  |  statute or (ii) any criminal liability, except for willful  | 
| 20 |  |  and wanton misconduct. | 
| 21 |  |   (2) A person who is not otherwise licensed to  | 
| 22 |  |  administer an opioid antagonist antidote may in an  | 
| 23 |  |  emergency administer without fee an opioid antagonist  | 
| 24 |  |  antidote if the person has received the patient information  | 
| 25 |  |  specified in paragraph (4) of this subsection and believes  | 
| 26 |  |  in good faith that another person is experiencing a drug  | 
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| 1 |  |  overdose. The person shall not, as a result of his or her  | 
| 2 |  |  acts or omissions, be (i) liable for any violation of the  | 
| 3 |  |  Medical Practice Act of 1987, the Physician Assistant  | 
| 4 |  |  Practice Act of 1987, the Nurse Practice Act, the Pharmacy  | 
| 5 |  |  Practice Act, or any other professional licensing statute,  | 
| 6 |  |  or (ii) subject to any criminal prosecution or civil  | 
| 7 |  |  liability, except for willful and wanton misconduct  | 
| 8 |  |  arising from or related to the unauthorized practice of  | 
| 9 |  |  medicine or the possession of an opioid antidote. | 
| 10 |  |   (3) A health care professional prescribing an opioid  | 
| 11 |  |  antagonist antidote to a patient shall ensure that the  | 
| 12 |  |  patient receives the patient information specified in  | 
| 13 |  |  paragraph (4) of this subsection. Patient information may  | 
| 14 |  |  be provided by the health care professional or a  | 
| 15 |  |  community-based organization, substance abuse program, or  | 
| 16 |  |  other organization with which the health care professional  | 
| 17 |  |  establishes a written agreement that includes a  | 
| 18 |  |  description of how the organization will provide patient  | 
| 19 |  |  information, how employees or volunteers providing  | 
| 20 |  |  information will be trained, and standards for documenting  | 
| 21 |  |  the provision of patient information to patients.  | 
| 22 |  |  Provision of patient information shall be documented in the  | 
| 23 |  |  patient's medical record or through similar means as  | 
| 24 |  |  determined by agreement between the health care  | 
| 25 |  |  professional and the organization. The Director of the  | 
| 26 |  |  Division of Alcoholism and Substance Abuse, in  | 
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| 1 |  |  consultation with statewide organizations representing  | 
| 2 |  |  physicians, pharmacists, advanced practice nurses,  | 
| 3 |  |  physician assistants, substance abuse programs, and other  | 
| 4 |  |  interested groups, shall develop and disseminate to health  | 
| 5 |  |  care professionals, community-based organizations,  | 
| 6 |  |  substance abuse programs, and other organizations training  | 
| 7 |  |  materials in video, electronic, or other formats to  | 
| 8 |  |  facilitate the provision of such patient information.  | 
| 9 |  |   (4) For the purposes of this subsection: | 
| 10 |  |   "Opioid antagonist antidote" means a drug that binds to  | 
| 11 |  |  opioid receptors and blocks or inhibits the effect of  | 
| 12 |  |  opioids acting on those receptors, including, but not  | 
| 13 |  |  limited to naloxone hydrochloride or any other similarly  | 
| 14 |  |  acting and equally safe drug approved by the U.S. Food and  | 
| 15 |  |  Drug Administration for the treatment of drug overdose. | 
| 16 |  |   "Health care professional" means a physician licensed  | 
| 17 |  |  to practice medicine in all its branches, a physician  | 
| 18 |  |  assistant who has been delegated prescriptive authority  | 
| 19 |  |  the prescription or dispensation of an opioid antidote by  | 
| 20 |  |  his or her supervising physician, an advanced practice  | 
| 21 |  |  registered nurse who has a written collaborative agreement  | 
| 22 |  |  with a collaborating physician that authorizes  | 
| 23 |  |  prescriptive authority the prescription or dispensation of  | 
| 24 |  |  an opioid antidote, or an advanced practice nurse or  | 
| 25 |  |  physician assistant who practices in a hospital, hospital  | 
| 26 |  |  affiliate, or ambulatory surgical treatment center and  | 
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| 1 |  |  possesses appropriate clinical privileges in accordance  | 
| 2 |  |  with the Nurse Practice Act or a pharmacist licensed to  | 
| 3 |  |  practice pharmacy under the Pharmacy Practice Act.  | 
| 4 |  |   "Patient" includes a person who is not at risk of  | 
| 5 |  |  opioid overdose but who, in the judgment of the physician,  | 
| 6 |  |  may be in a position to assist another individual during an  | 
| 7 |  |  overdose and who has received patient information as  | 
| 8 |  |  required in paragraph (2) of this subsection on the  | 
| 9 |  |  indications for and administration of an opioid antagonist  | 
| 10 |  |  antidote. | 
| 11 |  |   "Patient information" includes information provided to  | 
| 12 |  |  the patient on drug overdose prevention and recognition;  | 
| 13 |  |  how to perform rescue breathing and resuscitation; opioid  | 
| 14 |  |  antagonist antidote dosage and administration; the  | 
| 15 |  |  importance of calling 911; care for the overdose victim  | 
| 16 |  |  after administration of the overdose antagonist antidote;  | 
| 17 |  |  and other issues as necessary. 
 | 
| 18 |  |  (e) Drug overdose response policy.  | 
| 19 |  |   (1) Every State and local government agency that  | 
| 20 |  |  employs a law enforcement officer or fireman as those terms  | 
| 21 |  |  are defined in the Line of Duty Compensation Act must  | 
| 22 |  |  possess opioid antagonists and must establish a policy to  | 
| 23 |  |  control the acquisition, storage, transportation, and  | 
| 24 |  |  administration of such opioid antagonists and to provide  | 
| 25 |  |  training in the administration of opioid antagonists. A  | 
| 26 |  |  State or local government agency that employs a fireman as  | 
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| 1 |  |  defined in the Line of Duty Compensation Act but does not  | 
| 2 |  |  respond to emergency medical calls or provide medical  | 
| 3 |  |  services shall be exempt from this subsection. | 
| 4 |  |   (2) Every publicly or privately owned ambulance,  | 
| 5 |  |  special emergency medical services vehicle, non-transport  | 
| 6 |  |  vehicle, or ambulance assist vehicle, as described in the  | 
| 7 |  |  Emergency Medical Services (EMS) Systems Act, which  | 
| 8 |  |  responds to requests for emergency services or transports  | 
| 9 |  |  patients between hospitals in emergency situations must  | 
| 10 |  |  possess opioid antagonists.  | 
| 11 |  |   (3) Entities that are required under paragraphs (1) and  | 
| 12 |  |  (2) to possess opioid antagonists may also apply to the  | 
| 13 |  |  Department for a grant to fund the acquisition of opioid  | 
| 14 |  |  antagonists and training programs on the administration of  | 
| 15 |  |  opioid antagonists.  | 
| 16 |  | (Source: P.A. 96-361, eff. 1-1-10.)
 | 
| 17 |  |  (20 ILCS 301/5-24 new) | 
| 18 |  |  Sec. 5-24. Opiate prescriptions; educational materials.   | 
| 19 |  | The Department shall develop educational materials to educate  | 
| 20 |  | holders of opiate prescriptions about the dangers of children  | 
| 21 |  | and teens gaining access to these medications. The materials  | 
| 22 |  | shall include information regarding the means by which the  | 
| 23 |  | abuse of opiate prescriptions can lead to the illegal use of  | 
| 24 |  | heroin. The Department shall also develop a method of  | 
| 25 |  | distribution for such educational materials.
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| 1 |  |  (20 ILCS 301/20-20 new) | 
| 2 |  |  Sec. 20-20. Immunity from prosecution; drugs; public  | 
| 3 |  | education program. The Department shall develop and implement a  | 
| 4 |  | public education program to educate the public about the  | 
| 5 |  | provisions set forth in Section 414 of the Illinois Controlled  | 
| 6 |  | Substances Act granting immunity from prosecution for drug  | 
| 7 |  | overdose victims or persons seeking help for drug overdose  | 
| 8 |  | victims if the only evidence for the possession charge was  | 
| 9 |  | obtained as a result of the person seeking or obtaining  | 
| 10 |  | emergency medical assistance.
 | 
| 11 |  |  Section 5-25. The Department of State Police Law is amended  | 
| 12 |  | by adding Section 2605-97 as follows:
 | 
| 13 |  |  (20 ILCS 2605/2605-97 new) | 
| 14 |  |  Sec. 2605-97. Training; opioid antagonists. The Department  | 
| 15 |  | shall conduct or approve a training program for State police  | 
| 16 |  | officers in the administration of opioid antagonists as defined  | 
| 17 |  | in paragraph (1) of subsection (e) of Section 5-23 of the  | 
| 18 |  | Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act that is in  | 
| 19 |  | accordance with that Section. As used in this Section 2605-97,  | 
| 20 |  | the term "State police officers" includes full-time or  | 
| 21 |  | part-time State troopers, police officers, investigators, or  | 
| 22 |  | any other employee of the Department exercising the powers of a  | 
| 23 |  | peace officer.
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| 1 |  |  Section 5-30. The Illinois Criminal Justice Information  | 
| 2 |  | Act is amended by changing Section 9.3 as follows:
 | 
| 3 |  |  (20 ILCS 3930/9.3) | 
| 4 |  |  Sec. 9.3. The Prescription Pill and Drug Disposal Fund. The  | 
| 5 |  | Prescription Pill and Drug Disposal Fund is created as a  | 
| 6 |  | special fund in the State treasury. Moneys in the Fund shall be  | 
| 7 |  | used for grants by the Illinois Criminal Justice Information  | 
| 8 |  | Authority to local law enforcement agencies for the purpose of  | 
| 9 |  | facilitating the collection, transportation, and incineration  | 
| 10 |  | of pharmaceuticals from residential sources that are collected  | 
| 11 |  | and transported by law enforcement agencies under Section 17.9A  | 
| 12 |  | of the Environmental Protection Act; to municipalities or  | 
| 13 |  | organizations that establish containers designated for the  | 
| 14 |  | collection and disposal of unused controlled substances and  | 
| 15 |  | conduct collection of unused controlled substances through  | 
| 16 |  | mail-back programs; and for the publication or advertising of  | 
| 17 |  | collection events or mail-back programs conducted by  | 
| 18 |  | municipalities or organizations. Before awarding a grant from  | 
| 19 |  | this Fund but no later than July 1, 2016 2012, the Authority  | 
| 20 |  | shall adopt rules that (i) specify the conditions under which  | 
| 21 |  | grants will be awarded from this Fund and (ii) otherwise  | 
| 22 |  | provide for the implementation and administration of the grant  | 
| 23 |  | program created by this Section. Interest attributable to  | 
| 24 |  | moneys in the Fund shall be paid into the Fund.
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| 1 |  | (Source: P.A. 97-545, eff. 1-1-12.)
 | 
| 2 |  |  Section 5-35. The State Finance Act is amended by adding  | 
| 3 |  | Section 5.866 as follows:
 | 
| 4 |  |  (30 ILCS 105/5.866 new) | 
| 5 |  |  Sec. 5.866. The Parity Education Fund.
 | 
| 6 |  |  Section 5-40. The Illinois Police Training Act is amended  | 
| 7 |  | by changing Section 7 and by adding Section 10.17 as follows:
 | 
| 8 |  |  (50 ILCS 705/7) (from Ch. 85, par. 507)
 | 
| 9 |  |  Sec. 7. Rules and standards for schools. The Board shall  | 
| 10 |  | adopt rules and
minimum standards for such schools which shall  | 
| 11 |  | include but not be limited to
the following:
 | 
| 12 |  |  a. The curriculum for probationary police officers which  | 
| 13 |  | shall be
offered by all certified schools shall include but not  | 
| 14 |  | be limited to
courses of arrest, search and seizure, civil  | 
| 15 |  | rights, human relations,
cultural
diversity, including racial  | 
| 16 |  | and ethnic sensitivity,
criminal law, law of criminal  | 
| 17 |  | procedure, vehicle and traffic law including
uniform and  | 
| 18 |  | non-discriminatory enforcement of the Illinois Vehicle Code,
 | 
| 19 |  | traffic control and accident investigation, techniques of  | 
| 20 |  | obtaining
physical evidence, court testimonies, statements,  | 
| 21 |  | reports, firearms
training, training in the use of electronic  | 
| 22 |  | control devices, including the psychological and physiological  | 
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| 1 |  | effects of the use of those devices on humans, first-aid  | 
| 2 |  | (including cardiopulmonary resuscitation), training in the  | 
| 3 |  | administration of opioid antagonists as defined in paragraph  | 
| 4 |  | (1) of subsection (e) of Section 5-23 of the Alcoholism and  | 
| 5 |  | Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act, handling of
juvenile  | 
| 6 |  | offenders, recognition of
mental conditions which require  | 
| 7 |  | immediate assistance and methods to
safeguard and provide  | 
| 8 |  | assistance to a person in need of mental
treatment, recognition  | 
| 9 |  | of abuse, neglect, financial exploitation, and self-neglect of  | 
| 10 |  | adults with disabilities and older adults, as defined in  | 
| 11 |  | Section 2 of the Adult Protective Services Act, crimes against  | 
| 12 |  | the elderly, law of evidence, the hazards of high-speed police  | 
| 13 |  | vehicle
chases with an emphasis on alternatives to the  | 
| 14 |  | high-speed chase, and
physical training. The curriculum shall  | 
| 15 |  | include specific training in
techniques for immediate response  | 
| 16 |  | to and investigation of cases of domestic
violence and of  | 
| 17 |  | sexual assault of adults and children. The curriculum shall  | 
| 18 |  | include
training in techniques designed to promote effective
 | 
| 19 |  | communication at the initial contact with crime victims and  | 
| 20 |  | ways to comprehensively
explain to victims and witnesses their  | 
| 21 |  | rights under the Rights
of Crime Victims and Witnesses Act and  | 
| 22 |  | the Crime
Victims Compensation Act. The curriculum shall also  | 
| 23 |  | include a block of instruction aimed at identifying and  | 
| 24 |  | interacting with persons with autism and other developmental  | 
| 25 |  | disabilities, reducing barriers to reporting crimes against  | 
| 26 |  | persons with autism, and addressing the unique challenges  | 
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| 1 |  | presented by cases involving victims or witnesses with autism  | 
| 2 |  | and other developmental disabilities. The curriculum for
 | 
| 3 |  | permanent police officers shall include but not be limited to  | 
| 4 |  | (1) refresher
and in-service training in any of the courses  | 
| 5 |  | listed above in this
subparagraph, (2) advanced courses in any  | 
| 6 |  | of the subjects listed above in
this subparagraph, (3) training  | 
| 7 |  | for supervisory personnel, and (4)
specialized training in  | 
| 8 |  | subjects and fields to be selected by the board. The training  | 
| 9 |  | in the use of electronic control devices shall be conducted for  | 
| 10 |  | probationary police officers, including University police  | 
| 11 |  | officers.
 | 
| 12 |  |  b. Minimum courses of study, attendance requirements and  | 
| 13 |  | equipment
requirements.
 | 
| 14 |  |  c. Minimum requirements for instructors.
 | 
| 15 |  |  d. Minimum basic training requirements, which a  | 
| 16 |  | probationary police
officer must satisfactorily complete  | 
| 17 |  | before being eligible for permanent
employment as a local law  | 
| 18 |  | enforcement officer for a participating local
governmental  | 
| 19 |  | agency. Those requirements shall include training in first aid
 | 
| 20 |  | (including cardiopulmonary resuscitation).
 | 
| 21 |  |  e. Minimum basic training requirements, which a  | 
| 22 |  | probationary county
corrections officer must satisfactorily  | 
| 23 |  | complete before being eligible for
permanent employment as a  | 
| 24 |  | county corrections officer for a participating
local  | 
| 25 |  | governmental agency.
 | 
| 26 |  |  f. Minimum basic training requirements which a  | 
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| 1 |  | probationary court
security officer must satisfactorily  | 
| 2 |  | complete before being eligible for
permanent employment as a  | 
| 3 |  | court security officer for a participating local
governmental  | 
| 4 |  | agency. The Board shall
establish those training requirements  | 
| 5 |  | which it considers appropriate for court
security officers and  | 
| 6 |  | shall certify schools to conduct that training. 
 | 
| 7 |  |  A person hired to serve as a court security officer must  | 
| 8 |  | obtain from the
Board a certificate (i) attesting to his or her  | 
| 9 |  | successful completion of the
training course; (ii) attesting to  | 
| 10 |  | his or her satisfactory
completion of a training program of  | 
| 11 |  | similar content and number of hours that
has been found  | 
| 12 |  | acceptable by the Board under the provisions of this Act; or
 | 
| 13 |  | (iii) attesting to the Board's determination that the training
 | 
| 14 |  | course is unnecessary because of the person's extensive prior  | 
| 15 |  | law enforcement
experience.
 | 
| 16 |  |  Individuals who currently serve as court security officers  | 
| 17 |  | shall be deemed
qualified to continue to serve in that capacity  | 
| 18 |  | so long as they are certified
as provided by this Act within 24  | 
| 19 |  | months of the effective date of this
amendatory Act of 1996.  | 
| 20 |  | Failure to be so certified, absent a waiver from the
Board,  | 
| 21 |  | shall cause the officer to forfeit his or her position.
 | 
| 22 |  |  All individuals hired as court security officers on or  | 
| 23 |  | after the effective
date of this amendatory Act of 1996 shall  | 
| 24 |  | be certified within 12 months of the
date of their hire, unless  | 
| 25 |  | a waiver has been obtained by the Board, or they
shall forfeit  | 
| 26 |  | their positions.
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| 1 |  |  The Sheriff's Merit Commission, if one exists, or the  | 
| 2 |  | Sheriff's Office if
there is no Sheriff's Merit Commission,  | 
| 3 |  | shall maintain a list of all
individuals who have filed  | 
| 4 |  | applications to become court security officers and
who meet the  | 
| 5 |  | eligibility requirements established under this Act. Either
 | 
| 6 |  | the Sheriff's Merit Commission, or the Sheriff's Office if no  | 
| 7 |  | Sheriff's Merit
Commission exists, shall establish a schedule  | 
| 8 |  | of reasonable intervals for
verification of the applicants'  | 
| 9 |  | qualifications under
this Act and as established by the Board.
 | 
| 10 |  | (Source: P.A. 97-815, eff. 1-1-13; 97-862, eff. 1-1-13; 98-49,  | 
| 11 |  | eff. 7-1-13; 98-358, eff. 1-1-14; 98-463, eff. 8-16-13; 98-756,  | 
| 12 |  | eff. 7-16-14.)
 | 
| 13 |  |  (50 ILCS 705/10.17 new) | 
| 14 |  |  Sec. 10.17. Training; administration of opioid  | 
| 15 |  | antagonists. The Board shall conduct or approve an in-service  | 
| 16 |  | training program for police officers in the administration of  | 
| 17 |  | opioid antagonists as defined in paragraph (1) of subsection  | 
| 18 |  | (e) of Section 5-23 of the Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and  | 
| 19 |  | Dependency Act that is in accordance with that Section. As used  | 
| 20 |  | in this Section 10.17, the term "police officers" includes  | 
| 21 |  | full-time or part-time probationary police officers, permanent  | 
| 22 |  | or part-time police officers, law enforcement officers,  | 
| 23 |  | recruits, permanent or probationary county corrections  | 
| 24 |  | officers, permanent or probationary county security officers,  | 
| 25 |  | and court security officers. The term does not include  | 
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| 1 |  | auxiliary police officers as defined in Section 3.1-30-20 of  | 
| 2 |  | the Illinois Municipal Code.
 | 
| 3 |  |  Section 5-45. The Illinois Fire Protection Training Act is  | 
| 4 |  | amended by changing Section 8 and by adding Section 12.5 as  | 
| 5 |  | follows:
 | 
| 6 |  |  (50 ILCS 740/8) (from Ch. 85, par. 538)
 | 
| 7 |  |  Sec. 8. Rules and minimum standards for schools. The Office
 | 
| 8 |  | shall adopt rules and minimum standards for such
schools which  | 
| 9 |  | shall include but not be limited to the following:
 | 
| 10 |  |  a. Minimum courses of study, resources, facilities,  | 
| 11 |  | apparatus,
equipment, reference material, established records  | 
| 12 |  | and procedures as
determined by the Office.
 | 
| 13 |  |  b. Minimum requirements for instructors.
 | 
| 14 |  |  c. Minimum basic training requirements, which a trainee  | 
| 15 |  | must
satisfactorily complete before being eligible for  | 
| 16 |  | permanent employment
as a fire fighter in the fire department  | 
| 17 |  | of a participating local
governmental agency.
Those  | 
| 18 |  | requirements shall include training in first aid (including
 | 
| 19 |  | cardiopulmonary resuscitation) and training in the  | 
| 20 |  | administration of opioid antagonists as defined in paragraph  | 
| 21 |  | (1) of subsection (e) of Section 5-23 of the Alcoholism and  | 
| 22 |  | Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act.
 | 
| 23 |  | (Source: P.A. 88-661, eff. 1-1-95.)
 | 
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| 1 |  |  (50 ILCS 740/12.5 new) | 
| 2 |  |  Sec. 12.5. In-service training; opioid antagonists. The  | 
| 3 |  | Office shall distribute an in-service training program for fire  | 
| 4 |  | fighters in the administration of opioid antagonists as defined  | 
| 5 |  | in paragraph (1) of subsection (e) of Section 5-23 of the  | 
| 6 |  | Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act that is  | 
| 7 |  | developed by the Department of Human Services in accordance  | 
| 8 |  | with that Section. As used in this Section 12.5, the term "fire  | 
| 9 |  | fighters" includes full-time or part-time fire fighters, but  | 
| 10 |  | does not include auxiliary, reserve, or volunteer  | 
| 11 |  | firefighters.
 | 
| 12 |  |  Section 5-50. The Counties Code is amended by changing  | 
| 13 |  | Sections 3-3013 and 5-1069.3 as follows:
 | 
| 14 |  |  (55 ILCS 5/3-3013) (from Ch. 34, par. 3-3013)
 | 
| 15 |  |  Sec. 3-3013. Preliminary investigations; blood and urine  | 
| 16 |  | analysis;
summoning jury; reports.  Every coroner, whenever, as  | 
| 17 |  | soon as he knows or is
informed that the dead body of any  | 
| 18 |  | person is found, or lying within his
county, whose death is  | 
| 19 |  | suspected of being:
 | 
| 20 |  |   (a) A sudden or violent death, whether apparently  | 
| 21 |  |  suicidal,
homicidal or accidental, including but not  | 
| 22 |  |  limited to deaths apparently
caused or contributed to by  | 
| 23 |  |  thermal, traumatic, chemical, electrical or
radiational  | 
| 24 |  |  injury, or a complication of any of them, or by drowning or
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| 1 |  |  suffocation, or as a result of domestic violence as defined  | 
| 2 |  |  in the Illinois
Domestic
Violence Act of 1986;
 | 
| 3 |  |   (b) A maternal or fetal death due to abortion, or any  | 
| 4 |  |  death due to a
sex crime or a crime against nature;
 | 
| 5 |  |   (c) A death where the circumstances are suspicious,  | 
| 6 |  |  obscure,
mysterious or otherwise unexplained or where, in  | 
| 7 |  |  the written opinion of
the attending physician, the cause  | 
| 8 |  |  of death is not determined;
 | 
| 9 |  |   (d) A death where addiction to alcohol or to any drug  | 
| 10 |  |  may have been
a contributory cause; or
 | 
| 11 |  |   (e) A death where the decedent was not attended by a  | 
| 12 |  |  licensed
physician;
 | 
| 13 |  | shall go to the place where the dead body is, and take charge  | 
| 14 |  | of the
same and shall make a preliminary investigation into the  | 
| 15 |  | circumstances
of the death. In the case of death without  | 
| 16 |  | attendance by a licensed
physician the body may be moved with  | 
| 17 |  | the coroner's consent from the
place of death to a mortuary in  | 
| 18 |  | the same county. Coroners in their
discretion shall notify such  | 
| 19 |  | physician as is designated in accordance
with Section 3-3014 to  | 
| 20 |  | attempt to ascertain the cause of death, either by
autopsy or  | 
| 21 |  | otherwise.
 | 
| 22 |  |  In cases of accidental death involving a motor vehicle in  | 
| 23 |  | which the
decedent was (1) the operator or a suspected operator  | 
| 24 |  | of a motor
vehicle, or (2) a pedestrian 16 years of age or  | 
| 25 |  | older, the coroner shall
require that a blood specimen of at  | 
| 26 |  | least 30 cc., and if medically
possible a urine specimen of at  | 
     | 
 |  | HB0001 Engrossed | - 31 - | LRB099 00249 HEP 20254 b |  
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| 
 | 
| 1 |  | least 30 cc. or as much as possible up
to 30 cc., be withdrawn  | 
| 2 |  | from the body of the decedent in a timely fashion after
the  | 
| 3 |  | accident causing his death, by such physician as has been  | 
| 4 |  | designated
in accordance with Section 3-3014, or by the coroner  | 
| 5 |  | or deputy coroner or
a qualified person designated by such  | 
| 6 |  | physician, coroner, or deputy coroner. If the county
does not  | 
| 7 |  | maintain laboratory facilities for making such analysis, the
 | 
| 8 |  | blood and urine so drawn shall be sent to the Department of  | 
| 9 |  | State Police or any other accredited or State-certified  | 
| 10 |  | laboratory
for analysis of the alcohol, carbon monoxide, and  | 
| 11 |  | dangerous or
narcotic drug content of such blood and urine  | 
| 12 |  | specimens. Each specimen
submitted shall be accompanied by  | 
| 13 |  | pertinent information concerning the
decedent upon a form  | 
| 14 |  | prescribed by such laboratory. Any
person drawing blood and  | 
| 15 |  | urine and any person making any examination of
the blood and  | 
| 16 |  | urine under the terms of this Division shall be immune from all
 | 
| 17 |  | liability, civil or criminal, that might otherwise be incurred  | 
| 18 |  | or
imposed.
 | 
| 19 |  |  In all other cases coming within the jurisdiction of the  | 
| 20 |  | coroner and
referred to in subparagraphs (a) through (e) above,  | 
| 21 |  | blood, and whenever
possible, urine samples shall be analyzed  | 
| 22 |  | for the presence of alcohol
and other drugs. When the coroner  | 
| 23 |  | suspects that drugs may have been
involved in the death, either  | 
| 24 |  | directly or indirectly, a toxicological
examination shall be  | 
| 25 |  | performed which may include analyses of blood, urine,
bile,  | 
| 26 |  | gastric contents and other tissues. When the coroner suspects
a  | 
     | 
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| 
 | 
| 1 |  | death is due to toxic substances, other than drugs, the coroner  | 
| 2 |  | shall
consult with the toxicologist prior to collection of  | 
| 3 |  | samples. Information
submitted to the toxicologist shall  | 
| 4 |  | include information as to height,
weight, age, sex and race of  | 
| 5 |  | the decedent as well as medical history,
medications used by  | 
| 6 |  | and the manner of death of decedent.
 | 
| 7 |  |  When the coroner or medical examiner finds that the cause  | 
| 8 |  | of death is due to homicidal means, the coroner or medical  | 
| 9 |  | examiner shall cause blood and buccal specimens (tissue may be  | 
| 10 |  | submitted if no uncontaminated blood or buccal specimen can be  | 
| 11 |  | obtained), whenever possible, to be withdrawn from the body of  | 
| 12 |  | the decedent in a timely fashion. Within 45 days after the  | 
| 13 |  | collection of the specimens, the coroner or medical examiner  | 
| 14 |  | shall deliver those specimens, dried, to the Illinois  | 
| 15 |  | Department of State Police, Division of Forensic Services, for  | 
| 16 |  | analysis and categorizing into genetic marker groupings to be  | 
| 17 |  | maintained by the Illinois Department of State Police in the  | 
| 18 |  | State central repository in the same manner, and subject to the  | 
| 19 |  | same conditions, as provided in Section 5-4-3 of the Unified  | 
| 20 |  | Code of Corrections. The requirements of this paragraph are in  | 
| 21 |  | addition to any other findings, specimens, or information that  | 
| 22 |  | the coroner or medical examiner is required to provide during  | 
| 23 |  | the conduct of a criminal investigation.
 | 
| 24 |  |  In all counties, in cases of apparent
suicide, homicide, or  | 
| 25 |  | accidental death or in other cases, within the
discretion of  | 
| 26 |  | the coroner, the coroner may summon 8 persons of lawful age
 | 
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| 
 | 
| 1 |  | from those persons drawn for petit jurors in the county. The  | 
| 2 |  | summons shall
command these persons to present themselves  | 
| 3 |  | personally at such a place and
time as the coroner shall  | 
| 4 |  | determine, and may be in any form which the
coroner shall  | 
| 5 |  | determine and may incorporate any reasonable form of request
 | 
| 6 |  | for acknowledgement which the coroner deems practical and  | 
| 7 |  | provides a
reliable proof of service. The summons may be served  | 
| 8 |  | by first class mail.
From the 8 persons so summoned, the  | 
| 9 |  | coroner shall select 6 to serve as the
jury for the inquest.  | 
| 10 |  | Inquests may be continued from time
to time, as the coroner may  | 
| 11 |  | deem necessary. The 6 jurors selected in
a given case may view  | 
| 12 |  | the body of the deceased.
If at any continuation of an inquest  | 
| 13 |  | one or more of the original jurors
shall be unable to continue  | 
| 14 |  | to serve, the coroner shall fill the vacancy or
vacancies. A  | 
| 15 |  | juror serving pursuant to this paragraph shall receive
 | 
| 16 |  | compensation from the county at the same rate as the rate of  | 
| 17 |  | compensation
that is paid to petit or grand jurors in the  | 
| 18 |  | county. The coroner shall
furnish to each juror without fee at  | 
| 19 |  | the time of his discharge a
certificate of the number of days  | 
| 20 |  | in attendance at an inquest, and, upon
being presented with  | 
| 21 |  | such certificate, the county treasurer shall pay to
the juror  | 
| 22 |  | the sum provided for his services.
 | 
| 23 |  |  In counties which have a jury commission, in cases of  | 
| 24 |  | apparent suicide or
homicide or of accidental death, the  | 
| 25 |  | coroner may conduct an inquest. The jury commission shall  | 
| 26 |  | provide
at least 8 jurors to the coroner, from whom the coroner  | 
     | 
 |  | HB0001 Engrossed | - 34 - | LRB099 00249 HEP 20254 b |  
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| 
 | 
| 1 |  | shall select any 6
to serve as the jury for the inquest.  | 
| 2 |  | Inquests may be continued from time
to time as the coroner may  | 
| 3 |  | deem necessary. The 6 jurors originally chosen
in a given case  | 
| 4 |  | may view the body of the deceased. If at any continuation
of an  | 
| 5 |  | inquest one or more of the 6 jurors originally chosen shall be  | 
| 6 |  | unable
to continue to serve, the coroner shall fill the vacancy  | 
| 7 |  | or vacancies. At
the coroner's discretion, additional jurors to  | 
| 8 |  | fill such vacancies shall be
supplied by the jury commission. A  | 
| 9 |  | juror serving pursuant to this
paragraph in such county shall  | 
| 10 |  | receive compensation from the county at the
same rate as the  | 
| 11 |  | rate of compensation that is paid to petit or grand jurors
in  | 
| 12 |  | the county.
 | 
| 13 |  |  In every case in which a fire is determined to be
a
 | 
| 14 |  | contributing factor in a death, the coroner shall report the  | 
| 15 |  | death to the
Office of the State Fire Marshal. The coroner  | 
| 16 |  | shall provide a copy of the death certificate (i) within 30  | 
| 17 |  | days after filing the permanent death certificate and (ii) in a  | 
| 18 |  | manner that is agreed upon by the coroner and the State Fire  | 
| 19 |  | Marshal.  | 
| 20 |  |  In every case in which a drug overdose is determined to be  | 
| 21 |  | the cause or a contributing factor in the death, the coroner or  | 
| 22 |  | medical examiner shall report the death to the Department of  | 
| 23 |  | Public Health. The Department of Public Health shall adopt  | 
| 24 |  | rules regarding specific information that must be reported in  | 
| 25 |  | the event of such a death. If possible, the coroner shall  | 
| 26 |  | report the cause of the overdose. As used in this Section,  | 
     | 
 |  | HB0001 Engrossed | - 35 - | LRB099 00249 HEP 20254 b |  
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| 
 | 
| 1 |  | "overdose" has the same meaning as it does in Section 414 of  | 
| 2 |  | the Illinois Controlled Substances Act. The Department of  | 
| 3 |  | Public Health shall issue a semiannual report to the General  | 
| 4 |  | Assembly summarizing the reports received. The Department  | 
| 5 |  | shall also provide on its website a monthly report of overdose  | 
| 6 |  | death figures organized by location, age, and any other  | 
| 7 |  | factors, the Department deems appropriate.  | 
| 8 |  |  In addition, in every case in which domestic violence is  | 
| 9 |  | determined to be
a
contributing factor in a death, the coroner  | 
| 10 |  | shall report the death to the
Department of State Police. 
 | 
| 11 |  |  All deaths in State institutions and all deaths of wards of  | 
| 12 |  | the State in
private care facilities or in programs funded by  | 
| 13 |  | the Department of Human
Services under its powers relating to  | 
| 14 |  | mental health and developmental
disabilities or alcoholism and  | 
| 15 |  | substance
abuse or funded by the Department of Children and  | 
| 16 |  | Family Services shall
be reported to the coroner of the county  | 
| 17 |  | in which the facility is
located. If the coroner has reason to  | 
| 18 |  | believe that an investigation is
needed to determine whether  | 
| 19 |  | the death was caused by maltreatment or
negligent care of the  | 
| 20 |  | ward of the State, the coroner may conduct a
preliminary  | 
| 21 |  | investigation of the circumstances of such death as in cases of
 | 
| 22 |  | death under circumstances set forth in paragraphs (a) through  | 
| 23 |  | (e) of this
Section.
 | 
| 24 |  | (Source: P.A. 95-484, eff. 6-1-08; 96-1059, eff. 7-14-10.)
 | 
| 25 |  |  (55 ILCS 5/5-1069.3)
 | 
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| 
 | 
| 1 |  |  Sec. 5-1069.3. Required health benefits.  If a county,  | 
| 2 |  | including a home
rule
county, is a self-insurer for purposes of  | 
| 3 |  | providing health insurance coverage
for its employees, the  | 
| 4 |  | coverage shall include coverage for the post-mastectomy
care  | 
| 5 |  | benefits required to be covered by a policy of accident and  | 
| 6 |  | health
insurance under Section 356t and the coverage required  | 
| 7 |  | under Sections 356g, 356g.5, 356g.5-1, 356u,
356w, 356x,  | 
| 8 |  | 356z.6, 356z.8, 356z.9, 356z.10, 356z.11, 356z.12, 356z.13,  | 
| 9 |  | 356z.14, 356z.15, and 356z.22 of
the Illinois Insurance Code.  | 
| 10 |  | The coverage shall comply with Sections 155.22a, 355b, and  | 
| 11 |  | 356z.19, and 370c of
the Illinois Insurance Code. The  | 
| 12 |  | requirement that health benefits be covered
as provided in this  | 
| 13 |  | Section is an
exclusive power and function of the State and is  | 
| 14 |  | a denial and limitation under
Article VII, Section 6,  | 
| 15 |  | subsection (h) of the Illinois Constitution. A home
rule county  | 
| 16 |  | to which this Section applies must comply with every provision  | 
| 17 |  | of
this Section.
 | 
| 18 |  |  Rulemaking authority to implement Public Act 95-1045, if  | 
| 19 |  | any, is conditioned on the rules being adopted in accordance  | 
| 20 |  | with all provisions of the Illinois Administrative Procedure  | 
| 21 |  | Act and all rules and procedures of the Joint Committee on  | 
| 22 |  | Administrative Rules; any purported rule not so adopted, for  | 
| 23 |  | whatever reason, is unauthorized.  | 
| 24 |  | (Source: P.A. 97-282, eff. 8-9-11; 97-343, eff. 1-1-12; 97-813,  | 
| 25 |  | eff. 7-13-12; 98-189, eff. 1-1-14; 98-1091, eff. 1-1-15.)
 | 
     | 
 |  | HB0001 Engrossed | - 37 - | LRB099 00249 HEP 20254 b |  
  | 
| 
 | 
| 1 |  |  Section 5-55. The Illinois Municipal Code is amended by  | 
| 2 |  | changing Section 10-4-2.3 as follows:
 | 
| 3 |  |  (65 ILCS 5/10-4-2.3)
 | 
| 4 |  |  Sec. 10-4-2.3. Required health benefits.  If a  | 
| 5 |  | municipality, including a
home rule municipality, is a  | 
| 6 |  | self-insurer for purposes of providing health
insurance  | 
| 7 |  | coverage for its employees, the coverage shall include coverage  | 
| 8 |  | for
the post-mastectomy care benefits required to be covered by  | 
| 9 |  | a policy of
accident and health insurance under Section 356t  | 
| 10 |  | and the coverage required
under Sections 356g, 356g.5,  | 
| 11 |  | 356g.5-1, 356u, 356w, 356x, 356z.6, 356z.8, 356z.9, 356z.10,  | 
| 12 |  | 356z.11, 356z.12, 356z.13, 356z.14, 356z.15, and 356z.22 of the  | 
| 13 |  | Illinois
Insurance
Code. The coverage shall comply with  | 
| 14 |  | Sections 155.22a, 355b, and 356z.19, and 370c of
the Illinois  | 
| 15 |  | Insurance Code. The requirement that health
benefits be covered  | 
| 16 |  | as provided in this is an exclusive power and function of
the  | 
| 17 |  | State and is a denial and limitation under Article VII, Section  | 
| 18 |  | 6,
subsection (h) of the Illinois Constitution. A home rule  | 
| 19 |  | municipality to which
this Section applies must comply with  | 
| 20 |  | every provision of this Section.
 | 
| 21 |  |  Rulemaking authority to implement Public Act 95-1045, if  | 
| 22 |  | any, is conditioned on the rules being adopted in accordance  | 
| 23 |  | with all provisions of the Illinois Administrative Procedure  | 
| 24 |  | Act and all rules and procedures of the Joint Committee on  | 
| 25 |  | Administrative Rules; any purported rule not so adopted, for  | 
     | 
 |  | HB0001 Engrossed | - 38 - | LRB099 00249 HEP 20254 b |  
  | 
| 
 | 
| 1 |  | whatever reason, is unauthorized.  | 
| 2 |  | (Source: P.A. 97-282, eff. 8-9-11; 97-343, eff. 1-1-12; 97-813,  | 
| 3 |  | eff. 7-13-12; 98-189, eff. 1-1-14; 98-1091, eff. 1-1-15.)
 | 
| 4 |  |  Section 5-60. The School Code is amended by changing  | 
| 5 |  | Section 22-30 and adding Section 22-80 as follows:
 | 
| 6 |  |  (105 ILCS 5/22-30)
 | 
| 7 |  |  Sec. 22-30. Self-administration and self-carry of asthma  | 
| 8 |  | medication and epinephrine auto-injectors; administration of  | 
| 9 |  | undesignated epinephrine auto-injectors; administration of an  | 
| 10 |  | opioid antagonist. 
 | 
| 11 |  |  (a) For the purpose of this Section only, the following  | 
| 12 |  | terms shall have the meanings set forth below:
 | 
| 13 |  |  "Asthma inhaler" means a quick reliever asthma inhaler.  | 
| 14 |  |  "Epinephrine auto-injector" means a single-use device used  | 
| 15 |  | for the automatic injection of a pre-measured dose of  | 
| 16 |  | epinephrine into the human body.
 | 
| 17 |  |  "Asthma medication" means a medicine, prescribed by (i) a  | 
| 18 |  | physician
licensed to practice medicine in all its branches,
 | 
| 19 |  | (ii) a physician assistant who has been delegated prescriptive  | 
| 20 |  | authority the authority to prescribe
asthma
medications by his  | 
| 21 |  | or her supervising physician, or (iii) an advanced practice
 | 
| 22 |  | nurse who has a written
collaborative agreement with a  | 
| 23 |  | collaborating physician that delegates prescriptive authority  | 
| 24 |  | the
authority
to prescribe asthma medications,
for a pupil that  | 
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  | 
| 
 | 
| 1 |  | pertains to the pupil's
asthma and that has an individual  | 
| 2 |  | prescription label.
 | 
| 3 |  |  "Opioid antagonist" means a drug that binds to opioid  | 
| 4 |  | receptors and blocks or inhibits the effect of opioids acting  | 
| 5 |  | on those receptors, including, but not limited to, naloxone  | 
| 6 |  | hydrochloride or any other similarly acting drug approved by  | 
| 7 |  | the U.S. Food and Drug Administration.  | 
| 8 |  |  "School nurse" means a registered nurse working in a school  | 
| 9 |  | with or without licensure endorsed in school nursing.  | 
| 10 |  |  "Self-administration" means a pupil's discretionary use of  | 
| 11 |  | his or
her prescribed asthma medication or epinephrine  | 
| 12 |  | auto-injector.
 | 
| 13 |  |  "Self-carry" means a pupil's ability to carry his or her  | 
| 14 |  | prescribed asthma medication or epinephrine auto-injector. | 
| 15 |  |  "Standing protocol" may be issued by (i) a physician  | 
| 16 |  | licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, (ii) a  | 
| 17 |  | physician assistant who has been delegated prescriptive  | 
| 18 |  | authority the authority to prescribe asthma medications or  | 
| 19 |  | epinephrine auto-injectors by his or her supervising  | 
| 20 |  | physician, or (iii) an advanced practice nurse who has a  | 
| 21 |  | collaborative agreement with a collaborating physician that  | 
| 22 |  | delegates prescriptive authority to issue a standing protocol  | 
| 23 |  | for asthma medications or epinephrine auto-injectors.  | 
| 24 |  |  "Trained personnel" means any school employee or volunteer  | 
| 25 |  | personnel authorized in Sections 10-22.34, 10-22.34a, and  | 
| 26 |  | 10-22.34b of this Code who has completed training under  | 
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  | 
| 
 | 
| 1 |  | subsection (g) of this Section to recognize and respond to  | 
| 2 |  | anaphylaxis. | 
| 3 |  |  "Undesignated epinephrine auto-injector" means an  | 
| 4 |  | epinephrine auto-injector prescribed in the name of a school  | 
| 5 |  | district, public school, or nonpublic school.  | 
| 6 |  |  (b) A school, whether public or nonpublic, must permit the
 | 
| 7 |  | self-administration and self-carry of asthma
medication by a  | 
| 8 |  | pupil with asthma or the self-administration and self-carry of  | 
| 9 |  | an epinephrine auto-injector by a pupil, provided that:
 | 
| 10 |  |   (1) the parents or
guardians of the pupil provide to  | 
| 11 |  |  the school (i) written
authorization from the parents or  | 
| 12 |  |  guardians for (A) the self-administration and self-carry  | 
| 13 |  |  of asthma medication or (B) the self-carry of asthma  | 
| 14 |  |  medication or (ii) for (A) the self-administration and  | 
| 15 |  |  self-carry of an epinephrine auto-injector or (B) the  | 
| 16 |  |  self-carry of an epinephrine auto-injector, written  | 
| 17 |  |  authorization from the pupil's physician, physician  | 
| 18 |  |  assistant, or advanced practice nurse; and
 | 
| 19 |  |   (2) the
parents or guardians of the pupil provide to  | 
| 20 |  |  the school (i) the prescription label, which must contain  | 
| 21 |  |  the name of the asthma medication, the prescribed dosage,  | 
| 22 |  |  and the time at which or circumstances under which the  | 
| 23 |  |  asthma medication is to be administered, or (ii) for the  | 
| 24 |  |  self-administration or self-carry of an epinephrine  | 
| 25 |  |  auto-injector, a
written
statement from the pupil's  | 
| 26 |  |  physician, physician assistant, or advanced practice
nurse  | 
     | 
 |  | HB0001 Engrossed | - 41 - | LRB099 00249 HEP 20254 b |  
  | 
| 
 | 
| 1 |  |  containing
the following information:
 | 
| 2 |  |    (A) the name and purpose of the epinephrine  | 
| 3 |  |  auto-injector;
 | 
| 4 |  |    (B) the prescribed dosage; and
 | 
| 5 |  |    (C) the time or times at which or the special  | 
| 6 |  |  circumstances
under which the epinephrine  | 
| 7 |  |  auto-injector is to be administered.
 | 
| 8 |  | The information provided shall be kept on file in the office of  | 
| 9 |  | the school
nurse or,
in the absence of a school nurse, the  | 
| 10 |  | school's administrator.
 | 
| 11 |  |  (b-5) A school district, public school, or nonpublic school  | 
| 12 |  | may authorize the provision of a student-specific or  | 
| 13 |  | undesignated epinephrine auto-injector to a student or any  | 
| 14 |  | personnel authorized under a student's Individual Health Care  | 
| 15 |  | Action Plan, Illinois Food Allergy Emergency Action Plan and  | 
| 16 |  | Treatment Authorization Form, or plan pursuant to Section 504  | 
| 17 |  | of the federal Rehabilitation Act of 1973 to administer an  | 
| 18 |  | epinephrine auto-injector to the student, that meets the  | 
| 19 |  | student's prescription on file. | 
| 20 |  |  (b-10) The school district, public school, or nonpublic  | 
| 21 |  | school may authorize a school nurse or trained personnel to do  | 
| 22 |  | the following: (i) provide an undesignated epinephrine  | 
| 23 |  | auto-injector to a student for self-administration only or any  | 
| 24 |  | personnel authorized under a student's Individual Health Care  | 
| 25 |  | Action Plan, Illinois Food Allergy Emergency Action Plan and  | 
| 26 |  | Treatment Authorization Form, or plan pursuant to Section 504  | 
     | 
 |  | HB0001 Engrossed | - 42 - | LRB099 00249 HEP 20254 b |  
  | 
| 
 | 
| 1 |  | of the federal Rehabilitation Act of 1973 to administer to the  | 
| 2 |  | student, that meets the student's prescription on file; (ii)  | 
| 3 |  | administer an undesignated epinephrine auto-injector that  | 
| 4 |  | meets the prescription on file to any student who has an  | 
| 5 |  | Individual Health Care Action Plan, Illinois Food Allergy  | 
| 6 |  | Emergency Action Plan and Treatment Authorization Form, or plan  | 
| 7 |  | pursuant to Section 504 of the federal Rehabilitation Act of  | 
| 8 |  | 1973 that authorizes the use of an epinephrine auto-injector;  | 
| 9 |  | and (iii) administer an undesignated epinephrine auto-injector  | 
| 10 |  | to any person that the school nurse or trained personnel in  | 
| 11 |  | good faith believes is having an anaphylactic reaction; and  | 
| 12 |  | (iv) administer an opioid antagonist to any person that the  | 
| 13 |  | school nurse or trained personnel in good faith believes is  | 
| 14 |  | having an opioid overdose.  | 
| 15 |  |  (c) The school district, public school, or nonpublic school  | 
| 16 |  | must inform the parents or
guardians of the
pupil, in writing,  | 
| 17 |  | that the school district, public school, or nonpublic school  | 
| 18 |  | and its
employees and
agents, including a physician, physician  | 
| 19 |  | assistant, or advanced practice nurse providing standing  | 
| 20 |  | protocol or prescription for school epinephrine  | 
| 21 |  | auto-injectors,
are to incur no liability or professional  | 
| 22 |  | discipline, except for willful and wanton conduct, as a result
 | 
| 23 |  | of any injury arising from the
administration of asthma  | 
| 24 |  | medication, or of an epinephrine auto-injector, or an opioid  | 
| 25 |  | antagonist regardless of whether authorization was given by the  | 
| 26 |  | pupil's parents or guardians or by the pupil's physician,  | 
     | 
 |  | HB0001 Engrossed | - 43 - | LRB099 00249 HEP 20254 b |  
  | 
| 
 | 
| 1 |  | physician assistant, or advanced practice nurse. The parents or  | 
| 2 |  | guardians
of the pupil must sign a statement acknowledging that  | 
| 3 |  | the school district, public school,
or nonpublic school and its  | 
| 4 |  | employees and agents are to incur no liability, except for  | 
| 5 |  | willful and wanton
conduct, as a result of any injury arising
 | 
| 6 |  | from the
administration of asthma medication, or of an  | 
| 7 |  | epinephrine auto-injector, or an opioid antagonist regardless  | 
| 8 |  | of whether authorization was given by the pupil's parents or  | 
| 9 |  | guardians or by the pupil's physician, physician assistant, or  | 
| 10 |  | advanced practice nurse and that the parents or
guardians must  | 
| 11 |  | indemnify and hold harmless the school district, public school,  | 
| 12 |  | or nonpublic
school and
its
employees and agents against any  | 
| 13 |  | claims, except a claim based on willful and
wanton conduct,  | 
| 14 |  | arising out of the
administration of asthma medication, or of  | 
| 15 |  | an epinephrine auto-injector, or an opioid antagonist  | 
| 16 |  | regardless of whether authorization was given by the pupil's  | 
| 17 |  | parents or guardians or by the pupil's physician, physician  | 
| 18 |  | assistant, or advanced practice nurse. | 
| 19 |  |  (c-5) When Upon the effective date of this amendatory Act  | 
| 20 |  | of the 98th General Assembly, when a school nurse or trained  | 
| 21 |  | personnel administers an undesignated epinephrine  | 
| 22 |  | auto-injector to a person whom the school nurse or trained  | 
| 23 |  | personnel in good faith believes is having an anaphylactic  | 
| 24 |  | reaction, or administers an opioid antagonist to a person whom  | 
| 25 |  | the school nurse or trained personnel in good faith believes is  | 
| 26 |  | having an opioid overdose, notwithstanding the lack of notice  | 
     | 
 |  | HB0001 Engrossed | - 44 - | LRB099 00249 HEP 20254 b |  
  | 
| 
 | 
| 1 |  | to the parents or guardians of the pupil or the absence of the  | 
| 2 |  | parents or guardians signed statement acknowledging no  | 
| 3 |  | liability, except for willful and wanton conduct, the school  | 
| 4 |  | district, public school, or nonpublic school and its employees  | 
| 5 |  | and agents, and a physician, a physician assistant, or an  | 
| 6 |  | advanced practice nurse providing standing protocol or  | 
| 7 |  | prescription for undesignated epinephrine auto-injectors, are  | 
| 8 |  | to incur no liability or professional discipline, except for  | 
| 9 |  | willful and wanton conduct, as a result of any injury arising  | 
| 10 |  | from the use of an undesignated epinephrine auto-injector or  | 
| 11 |  | the use of an opioid antagonist regardless of whether  | 
| 12 |  | authorization was given by the pupil's parents or guardians or  | 
| 13 |  | by the pupil's physician, physician assistant, or advanced  | 
| 14 |  | practice nurse.
 | 
| 15 |  |  (d) The permission for self-administration and self-carry  | 
| 16 |  | of asthma medication or the self-administration and self-carry  | 
| 17 |  | of an epinephrine auto-injector is effective
for the school  | 
| 18 |  | year for which it is granted and shall be renewed each
 | 
| 19 |  | subsequent school year upon fulfillment of the requirements of  | 
| 20 |  | this
Section.
 | 
| 21 |  |  (e) Provided that the requirements of this Section are  | 
| 22 |  | fulfilled, a
pupil with asthma may self-administer and  | 
| 23 |  | self-carry his or her asthma medication or a pupil may  | 
| 24 |  | self-administer and self-carry an epinephrine auto-injector  | 
| 25 |  | (i) while in
school, (ii) while at a school-sponsored activity,  | 
| 26 |  | (iii) while under the
supervision of
school personnel, or (iv)  | 
     | 
 |  | HB0001 Engrossed | - 45 - | LRB099 00249 HEP 20254 b |  
  | 
| 
 | 
| 1 |  | before or after normal school activities, such
as while in  | 
| 2 |  | before-school or after-school care on school-operated
 | 
| 3 |  | property.
 | 
| 4 |  |  (e-5) Provided that the requirements of this Section are  | 
| 5 |  | fulfilled, a school nurse or trained personnel may administer  | 
| 6 |  | an undesignated epinephrine auto-injector to any person whom  | 
| 7 |  | the school nurse or trained personnel in good faith believes to  | 
| 8 |  | be having an anaphylactic reaction (i) while in school, (ii)  | 
| 9 |  | while at a school-sponsored activity, (iii) while under the  | 
| 10 |  | supervision of school personnel, or (iv) before or after normal  | 
| 11 |  | school activities, such
as while in before-school or  | 
| 12 |  | after-school care on school-operated property. A school nurse  | 
| 13 |  | or trained personnel may carry undesignated epinephrine  | 
| 14 |  | auto-injectors on his or her person while in school or at a  | 
| 15 |  | school-sponsored activity.  | 
| 16 |  |  (e-10) Provided that the requirements of this Section are  | 
| 17 |  | fulfilled, a school nurse or trained personnel may administer  | 
| 18 |  | an opioid antagonist to any person whom the school nurse or  | 
| 19 |  | trained personnel in good faith believes to be having an opioid  | 
| 20 |  | overdose (i) while in school, (ii) while at a school-sponsored  | 
| 21 |  | activity, (iii) while under the supervision of school  | 
| 22 |  | personnel, or (iv) before or after normal school activities,  | 
| 23 |  | such as while in before-school or after-school care on  | 
| 24 |  | school-operated property. A school nurse or trained personnel  | 
| 25 |  | may carry an opioid antagonist on their person while in school  | 
| 26 |  | or at a school-sponsored activity.  | 
     | 
 |  | HB0001 Engrossed | - 46 - | LRB099 00249 HEP 20254 b |  
  | 
| 
 | 
| 1 |  |  (f) The school district, public school, or nonpublic school  | 
| 2 |  | may maintain a supply of undesignated epinephrine  | 
| 3 |  | auto-injectors in any secure location where an allergic person  | 
| 4 |  | is most at risk, including, but not limited to, classrooms and  | 
| 5 |  | lunchrooms. A physician, a physician assistant who has been  | 
| 6 |  | delegated prescriptive authority for asthma medication or  | 
| 7 |  | epinephrine auto-injectors in accordance with Section 7.5 of  | 
| 8 |  | the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987, or an advanced  | 
| 9 |  | practice nurse who has been delegated prescriptive authority  | 
| 10 |  | for asthma medication or epinephrine auto-injectors in  | 
| 11 |  | accordance with Section 65-40 of the Nurse Practice Act may  | 
| 12 |  | prescribe undesignated epinephrine auto-injectors in the name  | 
| 13 |  | of the school district, public school, or nonpublic school to  | 
| 14 |  | be maintained for use when necessary. Any supply of epinephrine  | 
| 15 |  | auto-injectors shall be maintained in accordance with the  | 
| 16 |  | manufacturer's instructions. | 
| 17 |  |  The school district, public school, or nonpublic school may  | 
| 18 |  | maintain a supply of an opioid antagonist in any secure  | 
| 19 |  | location where an individual may have an opioid overdose. A  | 
| 20 |  | health care professional who has been delegated prescriptive  | 
| 21 |  | authority for opioid antagonists in accordance with Section  | 
| 22 |  | 5-23 of the Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act  | 
| 23 |  | may prescribe opioid antagonists in the name of the school  | 
| 24 |  | district, public school, or nonpublic school, to be maintained  | 
| 25 |  | for use when necessary. Any supply of opioid antagonists shall  | 
| 26 |  | be maintained in accordance with the manufacturer's  | 
     | 
 |  | HB0001 Engrossed | - 47 - | LRB099 00249 HEP 20254 b |  
  | 
| 
 | 
| 1 |  | instructions.  | 
| 2 |  |  (f-5) Upon any administration of an epinephrine  | 
| 3 |  | auto-injector, a school district, public school, or nonpublic  | 
| 4 |  | school must immediately activate the EMS system and notify the  | 
| 5 |  | student's parent, guardian, or emergency contact, if known. | 
| 6 |  |  Upon any administration of an opioid antagonist, a school  | 
| 7 |  | district, public school, or nonpublic school must immediately  | 
| 8 |  | activate the EMS system and notify the student's parent,  | 
| 9 |  | guardian, or emergency contact, if known.  | 
| 10 |  |  (f-10) Within 24 hours of the administration of an  | 
| 11 |  | undesignated epinephrine auto-injector, a school district,  | 
| 12 |  | public school, or nonpublic school must notify the physician,  | 
| 13 |  | physician assistant, or advance practice nurse who provided the  | 
| 14 |  | standing protocol or prescription for the undesignated  | 
| 15 |  | epinephrine auto-injector of its use.  | 
| 16 |  |  Within 24 hours after the administration of an opioid  | 
| 17 |  | antagonist, a school district, public school, or nonpublic  | 
| 18 |  | school must notify the health care professional who provided  | 
| 19 |  | the prescription for the opioid antagonist of its use.  | 
| 20 |  |  (g) Prior to the administration of an undesignated  | 
| 21 |  | epinephrine auto-injector, trained personnel must submit to  | 
| 22 |  | his or her school's administration proof of completion of a  | 
| 23 |  | training curriculum to recognize and respond to anaphylaxis  | 
| 24 |  | that meets the requirements of subsection (h) of this Section.  | 
| 25 |  | Training must be completed annually. Trained personnel must  | 
| 26 |  | also submit to his or her school's administration proof of  | 
     | 
 |  | HB0001 Engrossed | - 48 - | LRB099 00249 HEP 20254 b |  
  | 
| 
 | 
| 1 |  | cardiopulmonary resuscitation and automated external  | 
| 2 |  | defibrillator certification. The school district, public  | 
| 3 |  | school, or nonpublic school must maintain records related to  | 
| 4 |  | the training curriculum and trained personnel. | 
| 5 |  |  Prior to the administration of an opioid antagonist,  | 
| 6 |  | trained personnel must submit to their school's administration  | 
| 7 |  | proof of completion of a training curriculum to recognize and  | 
| 8 |  | respond to an opioid overdose, which curriculum must meet the  | 
| 9 |  | requirements of subsection (h-5) of this Section. Training must  | 
| 10 |  | be completed annually. Trained personnel must also submit to  | 
| 11 |  | the school's administration proof of cardiopulmonary  | 
| 12 |  | resuscitation and automated external defibrillator  | 
| 13 |  | certification. The school district, public school, or  | 
| 14 |  | nonpublic school must maintain records relating to the training  | 
| 15 |  | curriculum and the trained personnel.  | 
| 16 |  |  (h) A training curriculum to recognize and respond to  | 
| 17 |  | anaphylaxis, including the administration of an undesignated  | 
| 18 |  | epinephrine auto-injector, may be conducted online or in  | 
| 19 |  | person. It must include, but is not limited to: | 
| 20 |  |   (1) how to recognize symptoms of an allergic reaction; | 
| 21 |  |   (2) a review of high-risk areas within the school and  | 
| 22 |  |  its related facilities; | 
| 23 |  |   (3) steps to take to prevent exposure to allergens; | 
| 24 |  |   (4) how to respond to an emergency involving an  | 
| 25 |  |  allergic reaction; | 
| 26 |  |   (5) how to administer an epinephrine auto-injector; | 
     | 
 |  | HB0001 Engrossed | - 49 - | LRB099 00249 HEP 20254 b |  
  | 
| 
 | 
| 1 |  |   (6) how to respond to a student with a known allergy as  | 
| 2 |  |  well as a student with a previously unknown allergy; | 
| 3 |  |   (7) a test demonstrating competency of the knowledge  | 
| 4 |  |  required to recognize anaphylaxis and administer an  | 
| 5 |  |  epinephrine auto-injector; and  | 
| 6 |  |   (8) other criteria as determined in rules adopted  | 
| 7 |  |  pursuant to this Section. | 
| 8 |  |  In consultation with statewide professional organizations  | 
| 9 |  | representing physicians licensed to practice medicine in all of  | 
| 10 |  | its branches, registered nurses, and school nurses, the State  | 
| 11 |  | Board of Education shall make available resource materials  | 
| 12 |  | consistent with criteria in this subsection (h) for educating  | 
| 13 |  | trained personnel to recognize and respond to anaphylaxis. The  | 
| 14 |  | State Board may take into consideration the curriculum on this  | 
| 15 |  | subject developed by other states, as well as any other  | 
| 16 |  | curricular materials suggested by medical experts and other  | 
| 17 |  | groups that work on life-threatening allergy issues. The State  | 
| 18 |  | Board is not required to create new resource materials. The  | 
| 19 |  | State Board shall make these resource materials available on  | 
| 20 |  | its Internet website. | 
| 21 |  |  (h-5) A training curriculum to recognize and respond to an  | 
| 22 |  | opioid overdose, including the administration of an opioid  | 
| 23 |  | antagonist, may be conducted online or in person. The training  | 
| 24 |  | must comply with any training requirements under Section 5-23  | 
| 25 |  | of the Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act and  | 
| 26 |  | the corresponding rules. It must include, but is not limited  | 
     | 
 |  | HB0001 Engrossed | - 50 - | LRB099 00249 HEP 20254 b |  
  | 
| 
 | 
| 1 |  | to: | 
| 2 |  |   (1) how to recognize symptoms of an opioid overdose; | 
| 3 |  |   (2) information on drug overdose prevention and  | 
| 4 |  |  recognition; | 
| 5 |  |   (3) how to perform rescue breathing and resuscitation; | 
| 6 |  |   (4) how to respond to an emergency involving an opioid  | 
| 7 |  |  overdose; | 
| 8 |  |   (5) opioid antagonist dosage and administration; | 
| 9 |  |   (6) the importance of calling 911; | 
| 10 |  |   (7) care for the overdose victim after administration  | 
| 11 |  |  of the overdose antagonist; | 
| 12 |  |   (8) a test demonstrating competency of the knowledge  | 
| 13 |  |  required to recognize an opioid overdose and administer a  | 
| 14 |  |  dose of an opioid antagonist; and | 
| 15 |  |   (9) other criteria as determined in rules adopted  | 
| 16 |  |  pursuant to this Section.  | 
| 17 |  |  (i) Within 3 days after the administration of an  | 
| 18 |  | undesignated epinephrine auto-injector by a school nurse,  | 
| 19 |  | trained personnel, or a student at a school or school-sponsored  | 
| 20 |  | activity, the school must report to the Board in a form and  | 
| 21 |  | manner prescribed by the Board the following information: | 
| 22 |  |   (1) age and type of person receiving epinephrine  | 
| 23 |  |  (student, staff, visitor); | 
| 24 |  |   (2) any previously known diagnosis of a severe allergy; | 
| 25 |  |   (3) trigger that precipitated allergic episode; | 
| 26 |  |   (4) location where symptoms developed; | 
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 |  | HB0001 Engrossed | - 51 - | LRB099 00249 HEP 20254 b |  
  | 
| 
 | 
| 1 |  |   (5) number of doses administered; | 
| 2 |  |   (6) type of person administering epinephrine (school  | 
| 3 |  |  nurse, trained personnel, student); and | 
| 4 |  |   (7) any other information required by the Board. | 
| 5 |  |  (i-5) Within 3 days after the administration of an opioid  | 
| 6 |  | antagonist by a school nurse or trained personnel, the school  | 
| 7 |  | must report to the Board, in a form and manner prescribed by  | 
| 8 |  | the Board, the following information: | 
| 9 |  |   (1) the age and type of person receiving the opioid  | 
| 10 |  |  antagonist (student, staff, or visitor); | 
| 11 |  |   (2) the location where symptoms developed; | 
| 12 |  |   (3) the type of person administering the opioid  | 
| 13 |  |  antagonist (school nurse or trained personnel); and | 
| 14 |  |   (4) any other information required by the Board.  | 
| 15 |  |  (j) By October 1, 2015 and every year thereafter, the Board  | 
| 16 |  | shall submit a report to the General Assembly identifying the  | 
| 17 |  | frequency and circumstances of epinephrine administration  | 
| 18 |  | during the preceding academic year. This report shall be  | 
| 19 |  | published on the Board's Internet website on the date the  | 
| 20 |  | report is delivered to the General Assembly. | 
| 21 |  |  On or before October 1, 2016 and every year thereafter, the  | 
| 22 |  | Board shall submit a report to the General Assembly and the  | 
| 23 |  | Department of Public Health identifying the frequency and  | 
| 24 |  | circumstances of opioid antagonist administration during the  | 
| 25 |  | preceding academic year. This report shall be published on the  | 
| 26 |  | State Board's Internet website on the date the report is  | 
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| 
 | 
| 1 |  | delivered to the General Assembly.  | 
| 2 |  |  (k) The Board may adopt rules necessary to implement this  | 
| 3 |  | Section.  | 
| 4 |  | (Source: P.A. 97-361, eff. 8-15-11; 98-795, eff. 8-1-14.)
 | 
| 5 |  |  (105 ILCS 5/22-80 new) | 
| 6 |  |  Sec. 22-80. Heroin and opioid prevention pilot program. By  | 
| 7 |  | January 1, 2017, the State Board of Education and the  | 
| 8 |  | Department of Human Services shall develop and establish a  | 
| 9 |  | 3-year heroin and opioid drug prevention pilot program that  | 
| 10 |  | offers educational materials and instruction on heroin and  | 
| 11 |  | opioid abuse to all school districts in the State for use at  | 
| 12 |  | their respective public elementary and secondary schools. A  | 
| 13 |  | school district's participation in the pilot program shall be  | 
| 14 |  | voluntary. Subject to appropriation, the Department of Human  | 
| 15 |  | Services shall reimburse a school district that decides to  | 
| 16 |  | participate in the pilot program for any costs it incurs in  | 
| 17 |  | connection with its participation in the pilot program. Each  | 
| 18 |  | school district that participates in the pilot program shall  | 
| 19 |  | have the discretion to determine which grade levels the school  | 
| 20 |  | district will instruct under the program.  | 
| 21 |  |  The pilot program must use effective, research-proven,  | 
| 22 |  | interactive teaching methods and technologies, and must  | 
| 23 |  | provide students, parents, and school staff with scientific,  | 
| 24 |  | social, and emotional learning content to help them understand  | 
| 25 |  | the risk of drug use. Such learning content must specifically  | 
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  | 
| 
 | 
| 1 |  | target the dangers of prescription pain medication and heroin  | 
| 2 |  | abuse. The Department may contract with a health education  | 
| 3 |  | organization to fulfill the requirements of the pilot program.  | 
| 4 |  |  The State Board of Education, the Department of Human  | 
| 5 |  | Services, and any contracted organization shall submit an  | 
| 6 |  | annual report to the General Assembly that includes: (i) a list  | 
| 7 |  | of school districts participating in the pilot program; (ii)  | 
| 8 |  | the grade levels each school district instructs under the pilot  | 
| 9 |  | program; and (iii) any findings regarding the effectiveness of  | 
| 10 |  | the pilot program. 
 | 
| 11 |  |  Section 5-65. The Emergency Medical Services (EMS) Systems  | 
| 12 |  | Act is amended by changing Sections 3.30 and 3.50 as follows:
 | 
| 13 |  |  (210 ILCS 50/3.30)
 | 
| 14 |  |  Sec. 3.30. EMS Region Plan; Content. 
 | 
| 15 |  |  (a) The EMS Medical Directors Committee shall address
at  | 
| 16 |  | least the following:
 | 
| 17 |  |   (1) Protocols for inter-System/inter-Region
patient  | 
| 18 |  |  transports, including identifying the conditions of
 | 
| 19 |  |  emergency patients which may not be transported to the
 | 
| 20 |  |  different levels of emergency department, based on their
 | 
| 21 |  |  Department classifications and relevant Regional
 | 
| 22 |  |  considerations (e.g. transport times and distances);
 | 
| 23 |  |   (2) Regional standing medical orders;
 | 
| 24 |  |   (3) Patient transfer patterns, including criteria
for  | 
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  | 
| 
 | 
| 1 |  |  determining whether a patient needs the specialized
 | 
| 2 |  |  services of a trauma center, along with protocols for the
 | 
| 3 |  |  bypassing of or diversion to any hospital, trauma center or
 | 
| 4 |  |  regional trauma center which are consistent with  | 
| 5 |  |  individual
System bypass or diversion protocols and  | 
| 6 |  |  protocols for
patient choice or refusal;
 | 
| 7 |  |   (4) Protocols for resolving Regional or
Inter-System  | 
| 8 |  |  conflict;
 | 
| 9 |  |   (5) An EMS disaster preparedness plan which
includes  | 
| 10 |  |  the actions and responsibilities of all EMS
participants  | 
| 11 |  |  within the Region. Within 90 days of the effective date of  | 
| 12 |  |  this
amendatory Act of 1996, an EMS System shall submit to  | 
| 13 |  |  the Department for review
an internal disaster plan. At a  | 
| 14 |  |  minimum, the plan shall include contingency
plans for the  | 
| 15 |  |  transfer of patients to other facilities if an evacuation  | 
| 16 |  |  of the
hospital becomes necessary due to a catastrophe,  | 
| 17 |  |  including but not limited to, a
power failure;
 | 
| 18 |  |   (6) Regional standardization of continuing
education  | 
| 19 |  |  requirements;
 | 
| 20 |  |   (7) Regional standardization of Do Not
Resuscitate  | 
| 21 |  |  (DNR) policies, and protocols for power of
attorney for  | 
| 22 |  |  health care;
 | 
| 23 |  |   (8) Protocols for disbursement of Department
grants;  | 
| 24 |  |  and
 | 
| 25 |  |   (9) Protocols for the triage, treatment, and transport  | 
| 26 |  |  of possible acute stroke patients; and .  | 
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  | 
| 
 | 
| 1 |  |   (10) Regional standing medical orders for the  | 
| 2 |  |  administration of opioid antagonists.  | 
| 3 |  |  (b) The Trauma Center Medical Directors or Trauma
Center  | 
| 4 |  | Medical Directors Committee shall address at least
the  | 
| 5 |  | following:
 | 
| 6 |  |   (1) The identification of Regional Trauma
Centers;
 | 
| 7 |  |   (2) Protocols for inter-System and inter-Region
trauma  | 
| 8 |  |  patient transports, including identifying the
conditions  | 
| 9 |  |  of emergency patients which may not be
transported to the  | 
| 10 |  |  different levels of emergency department,
based on their  | 
| 11 |  |  Department classifications and relevant
Regional  | 
| 12 |  |  considerations (e.g. transport times and
distances);
 | 
| 13 |  |   (3) Regional trauma standing medical orders;
 | 
| 14 |  |   (4) Trauma patient transfer patterns, including
 | 
| 15 |  |  criteria for determining whether a patient needs the
 | 
| 16 |  |  specialized services of a trauma center, along with
 | 
| 17 |  |  protocols for the bypassing of or diversion to any  | 
| 18 |  |  hospital,
trauma center or regional trauma center which are  | 
| 19 |  |  consistent
with individual System bypass or diversion  | 
| 20 |  |  protocols and
protocols for patient choice or refusal;
 | 
| 21 |  |   (5) The identification of which types of patients
can  | 
| 22 |  |  be cared for by Level I and Level II Trauma Centers;
 | 
| 23 |  |   (6) Criteria for inter-hospital transfer of
trauma  | 
| 24 |  |  patients;
 | 
| 25 |  |   (7) The treatment of trauma patients in each
trauma  | 
| 26 |  |  center within the Region;
 | 
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  | 
| 
 | 
| 1 |  |   (8) A program for conducting a quarterly
conference  | 
| 2 |  |  which shall include at a minimum a discussion of
morbidity  | 
| 3 |  |  and mortality between all professional staff
involved in  | 
| 4 |  |  the care of trauma patients;
 | 
| 5 |  |   (9) The establishment of a Regional trauma
quality  | 
| 6 |  |  assurance and improvement subcommittee, consisting of
 | 
| 7 |  |  trauma surgeons, which shall perform periodic medical  | 
| 8 |  |  audits
of each trauma center's trauma services, and forward
 | 
| 9 |  |  tabulated data from such reviews to the Department; and
 | 
| 10 |  |   (10) The establishment, within 90 days of the effective  | 
| 11 |  |  date of this
amendatory Act of 1996, of an internal  | 
| 12 |  |  disaster plan, which shall include, at a
minimum,  | 
| 13 |  |  contingency plans for the transfer of patients to other  | 
| 14 |  |  facilities if
an evacuation of the hospital becomes  | 
| 15 |  |  necessary due to a catastrophe, including
but not limited  | 
| 16 |  |  to, a power failure.
 | 
| 17 |  |  (c) The Region's EMS Medical Directors and Trauma
Center  | 
| 18 |  | Medical Directors Committees shall appoint any
subcommittees  | 
| 19 |  | which they deem necessary to address specific
issues concerning  | 
| 20 |  | Region activities.
 | 
| 21 |  | (Source: P.A. 96-514, eff. 1-1-10.)
 | 
| 22 |  |  (210 ILCS 50/3.50)
 | 
| 23 |  |  Sec. 3.50. Emergency Medical Services personnel licensure  | 
| 24 |  | levels. 
 | 
| 25 |  |  (a) "Emergency Medical Technician" or
"EMT" means a person  | 
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  | 
| 
 | 
| 1 |  | who has successfully completed a course in basic life support
 | 
| 2 |  | as approved by the
Department, is currently licensed by the  | 
| 3 |  | Department in
accordance with standards prescribed by this Act  | 
| 4 |  | and rules
adopted by the Department pursuant to this Act, and  | 
| 5 |  | practices within an EMS
System. A valid Emergency Medical  | 
| 6 |  | Technician-Basic (EMT-B) license issued under this Act shall  | 
| 7 |  | continue to be valid and shall be recognized as an Emergency  | 
| 8 |  | Medical Technician (EMT) license until the Emergency Medical  | 
| 9 |  | Technician-Basic (EMT-B) license expires. 
 | 
| 10 |  |  (b) "Emergency Medical Technician-Intermediate"
or "EMT-I"  | 
| 11 |  | means a person who has successfully completed a
course in  | 
| 12 |  | intermediate life support
as approved
by the Department, is  | 
| 13 |  | currently licensed by the
Department in accordance with  | 
| 14 |  | standards prescribed by this
Act and rules adopted by the  | 
| 15 |  | Department pursuant to this
Act, and practices within an  | 
| 16 |  | Intermediate or Advanced
Life Support EMS System. 
 | 
| 17 |  |  (b-5) "Advanced Emergency Medical Technician" or "A-EMT"  | 
| 18 |  | means a person who has successfully completed a course in basic  | 
| 19 |  | and limited advanced emergency medical care as approved by the  | 
| 20 |  | Department, is currently licensed by the Department in  | 
| 21 |  | accordance with standards prescribed by this Act and rules  | 
| 22 |  | adopted by the Department pursuant to this Act, and practices  | 
| 23 |  | within an Intermediate or Advanced Life Support EMS System.  | 
| 24 |  |  (c) "Paramedic (EMT-P)" means a person who
has successfully  | 
| 25 |  | completed a
course in advanced life support care
as approved
by  | 
| 26 |  | the Department, is licensed by the Department
in accordance  | 
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| 
 | 
| 1 |  | with standards prescribed by this Act and
rules adopted by the  | 
| 2 |  | Department pursuant to this Act, and
practices within an  | 
| 3 |  | Advanced Life Support EMS System. A valid Emergency Medical  | 
| 4 |  | Technician-Paramedic (EMT-P) license issued under this Act  | 
| 5 |  | shall continue to be valid and shall be recognized as a  | 
| 6 |  | Paramedic license until the Emergency Medical  | 
| 7 |  | Technician-Paramedic (EMT-P) license expires. 
 | 
| 8 |  |  (c-5) "Emergency Medical Responder" or "EMR (First  | 
| 9 |  | Responder)" means a person who has successfully completed a  | 
| 10 |  | course in emergency medical response as approved by the  | 
| 11 |  | Department and provides emergency medical response services  | 
| 12 |  | prior to the arrival of an ambulance or specialized emergency  | 
| 13 |  | medical services vehicle, in accordance with the level of care  | 
| 14 |  | established by the National EMS Educational Standards  | 
| 15 |  | Emergency Medical Responder course as modified by the  | 
| 16 |  | Department. An Emergency Medical Responder who provides  | 
| 17 |  | services as part of an EMS System response plan shall comply  | 
| 18 |  | with the applicable sections of the Program Plan, as approved  | 
| 19 |  | by the Department, of that EMS System. The Department shall  | 
| 20 |  | have the authority to adopt rules governing the curriculum,  | 
| 21 |  | practice, and necessary equipment applicable to Emergency  | 
| 22 |  | Medical Responders. | 
| 23 |  |  On the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 98th  | 
| 24 |  | General Assembly, a person who is licensed by the Department as  | 
| 25 |  | a First Responder and has completed a Department-approved  | 
| 26 |  | course in first responder defibrillator training based on, or  | 
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| 
 | 
| 1 |  | equivalent to, the National EMS Educational Standards or other  | 
| 2 |  | standards previously recognized by the Department shall be  | 
| 3 |  | eligible for licensure as an Emergency Medical Responder upon  | 
| 4 |  | meeting the licensure requirements and submitting an  | 
| 5 |  | application to the Department. A valid First Responder license  | 
| 6 |  | issued under this Act shall continue to be valid and shall be  | 
| 7 |  | recognized as an Emergency Medical Responder license until the  | 
| 8 |  | First Responder license expires. | 
| 9 |  |  (c-10) All EMS Systems and licensees shall be fully  | 
| 10 |  | compliant with the National EMS Education Standards, as  | 
| 11 |  | modified by the Department in administrative rules, within 24  | 
| 12 |  | months after the adoption of the administrative rules.  | 
| 13 |  |  (d) The Department shall have the authority and
 | 
| 14 |  | responsibility to:
 | 
| 15 |  |   (1) Prescribe education and training requirements,  | 
| 16 |  |  which
includes training in the use of epinephrine,
for all  | 
| 17 |  |  levels of EMS personnel except for EMRs, based on the  | 
| 18 |  |  National EMS Educational Standards
and any modifications  | 
| 19 |  |  to those curricula specified by the
Department through  | 
| 20 |  |  rules adopted pursuant to this Act.
 | 
| 21 |  |   (2) Prescribe licensure testing requirements
for all  | 
| 22 |  |  levels of EMS personnel, which shall include a requirement  | 
| 23 |  |  that
all phases of instruction, training, and field  | 
| 24 |  |  experience be
completed before taking the appropriate  | 
| 25 |  |  licensure examination.
Candidates may elect to take the  | 
| 26 |  |  appropriate National Registry examination in lieu of the
 | 
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 |  | HB0001 Engrossed | - 60 - | LRB099 00249 HEP 20254 b |  
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| 
 | 
| 1 |  |  Department's examination, but are responsible for making
 | 
| 2 |  |  their own arrangements for taking the National Registry
 | 
| 3 |  |  examination. In prescribing licensure testing requirements  | 
| 4 |  |  for honorably discharged members of the armed forces of the  | 
| 5 |  |  United States under this paragraph (2), the Department  | 
| 6 |  |  shall ensure that a candidate's military emergency medical  | 
| 7 |  |  training, emergency medical curriculum completed, and  | 
| 8 |  |  clinical experience, as described in paragraph (2.5), are  | 
| 9 |  |  recognized. 
 | 
| 10 |  |   (2.5) Review applications for EMS personnel licensure  | 
| 11 |  |  from
honorably discharged members of the armed forces of  | 
| 12 |  |  the United States with military emergency medical  | 
| 13 |  |  training. Applications shall be filed with the Department  | 
| 14 |  |  within one year after military discharge and shall contain:  | 
| 15 |  |  (i) proof of successful completion of military emergency  | 
| 16 |  |  medical training; (ii) a detailed description of the  | 
| 17 |  |  emergency medical curriculum completed; and (iii) a  | 
| 18 |  |  detailed description of the applicant's clinical  | 
| 19 |  |  experience. The Department may request additional and  | 
| 20 |  |  clarifying information. The Department shall evaluate the  | 
| 21 |  |  application, including the applicant's training and  | 
| 22 |  |  experience, consistent with the standards set forth under  | 
| 23 |  |  subsections (a), (b), (c), and (d) of Section 3.10. If the  | 
| 24 |  |  application clearly demonstrates that the training and  | 
| 25 |  |  experience meets such standards, the Department shall  | 
| 26 |  |  offer the applicant the opportunity to successfully  | 
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| 
 | 
| 1 |  |  complete a Department-approved EMS personnel examination  | 
| 2 |  |  for the level of license for which the applicant is  | 
| 3 |  |  qualified. Upon passage of an examination, the Department  | 
| 4 |  |  shall issue a license, which shall be subject to all  | 
| 5 |  |  provisions of this Act that are otherwise applicable to the  | 
| 6 |  |  level of EMS personnel
license issued.  | 
| 7 |  |   (3) License individuals as an EMR, EMT, EMT-I, A-EMT,
 | 
| 8 |  |  or Paramedic who have met the Department's education,  | 
| 9 |  |  training and
examination requirements.
 | 
| 10 |  |   (4) Prescribe annual continuing education and
 | 
| 11 |  |  relicensure requirements for all EMS personnel licensure
 | 
| 12 |  |  levels. 
 | 
| 13 |  |   (5) Relicense individuals as an EMD, EMR, EMT, EMT-I,  | 
| 14 |  |  A-EMT,
or Paramedic every 4 years, based on their  | 
| 15 |  |  compliance with
continuing education and relicensure  | 
| 16 |  |  requirements as required by the Department pursuant to this  | 
| 17 |  |  Act. Every 4 years, a Paramedic shall have 100 hours of  | 
| 18 |  |  approved continuing education, an EMT-I and an advanced EMT  | 
| 19 |  |  shall have 80 hours of approved continuing education, and  | 
| 20 |  |  an EMT shall have 60 hours of approved continuing  | 
| 21 |  |  education. An Illinois licensed EMR, EMD, EMT, EMT-I,  | 
| 22 |  |  A-EMT, Paramedic, ECRN, or PHRN whose license has been  | 
| 23 |  |  expired for less than 36 months may apply for reinstatement  | 
| 24 |  |  by the Department. Reinstatement shall require that the  | 
| 25 |  |  applicant (i) submit satisfactory proof of completion of  | 
| 26 |  |  continuing medical education and clinical requirements to  | 
     | 
 |  | HB0001 Engrossed | - 62 - | LRB099 00249 HEP 20254 b |  
  | 
| 
 | 
| 1 |  |  be prescribed by the Department in an administrative rule;  | 
| 2 |  |  (ii) submit a positive recommendation from an Illinois EMS  | 
| 3 |  |  Medical Director attesting to the applicant's  | 
| 4 |  |  qualifications for retesting; and (iii) pass a Department  | 
| 5 |  |  approved test for the level of EMS personnel license sought  | 
| 6 |  |  to be reinstated.
 | 
| 7 |  |   (6) Grant inactive status to any EMR, EMD, EMT, EMT-I,  | 
| 8 |  |  A-EMT, Paramedic, ECRN, or PHRN who
qualifies, based on  | 
| 9 |  |  standards and procedures established by
the Department in  | 
| 10 |  |  rules adopted pursuant to this Act.
 | 
| 11 |  |   (7) Charge a fee for EMS personnel examination,  | 
| 12 |  |  licensure, and license renewal.
 | 
| 13 |  |   (8) Suspend, revoke, or refuse to issue or renew the
 | 
| 14 |  |  license of any licensee, after an opportunity for an  | 
| 15 |  |  impartial hearing before a neutral administrative law  | 
| 16 |  |  judge appointed by the Director, where the preponderance of  | 
| 17 |  |  the evidence shows one or more of the following:
 | 
| 18 |  |    (A) The licensee has not met continuing
education  | 
| 19 |  |  or relicensure requirements as prescribed by the  | 
| 20 |  |  Department;
 | 
| 21 |  |    (B) The licensee has failed to maintain
 | 
| 22 |  |  proficiency in the level of skills for which he or she  | 
| 23 |  |  is licensed;
 | 
| 24 |  |    (C) The licensee, during the provision of
medical  | 
| 25 |  |  services, engaged in dishonorable, unethical, or
 | 
| 26 |  |  unprofessional conduct of a character likely to  | 
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| 
 | 
| 1 |  |  deceive,
defraud, or harm the public;
 | 
| 2 |  |    (D) The licensee has failed to maintain or
has  | 
| 3 |  |  violated standards of performance and conduct as  | 
| 4 |  |  prescribed
by the Department in rules adopted pursuant  | 
| 5 |  |  to this Act or
his or her EMS System's Program Plan;
 | 
| 6 |  |    (E) The licensee is physically impaired to
the  | 
| 7 |  |  extent that he or she cannot physically perform the  | 
| 8 |  |  skills and
functions for which he or she is licensed,  | 
| 9 |  |  as verified by a
physician, unless the person is on  | 
| 10 |  |  inactive status pursuant
to Department regulations;
 | 
| 11 |  |    (F) The licensee is mentally impaired to the
extent  | 
| 12 |  |  that he or she cannot exercise the appropriate  | 
| 13 |  |  judgment,
skill and safety for performing the  | 
| 14 |  |  functions for which he
or she is licensed, as verified  | 
| 15 |  |  by a physician, unless the person
is on inactive status  | 
| 16 |  |  pursuant to Department regulations;
 | 
| 17 |  |    (G) The licensee has violated this Act or any
rule  | 
| 18 |  |  adopted by the Department pursuant to this Act; or | 
| 19 |  |    (H) The licensee has been convicted (or entered a  | 
| 20 |  |  plea of guilty or nolo-contendere) by a court of  | 
| 21 |  |  competent jurisdiction of a Class X, Class 1, or Class  | 
| 22 |  |  2 felony in this State or an out-of-state equivalent  | 
| 23 |  |  offense.  | 
| 24 |  |   (9) Prescribe education and training requirements in  | 
| 25 |  |  the administration and use of opioid antagonists for all  | 
| 26 |  |  levels of EMS personnel based on the National EMS  | 
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  | 
| 
 | 
| 1 |  |  Educational Standards and any modifications to those  | 
| 2 |  |  curricula specified by the Department through rules  | 
| 3 |  |  adopted pursuant to this Act.  | 
| 4 |  |  (d-5) An EMR, EMD, EMT, EMT-I, A-EMT, Paramedic, ECRN, or  | 
| 5 |  | PHRN who is a member of the Illinois National Guard or an  | 
| 6 |  | Illinois State Trooper or who exclusively serves as a volunteer  | 
| 7 |  | for units of local government with a population base of less  | 
| 8 |  | than 5,000 or as a volunteer
for a not-for-profit organization  | 
| 9 |  | that serves a service area
with a population base of less than  | 
| 10 |  | 5,000 may submit an application to the Department for a waiver  | 
| 11 |  | of the fees described under paragraph (7) of subsection (d) of  | 
| 12 |  | this Section on a form prescribed by the Department.  | 
| 13 |  |  The education requirements prescribed by the Department  | 
| 14 |  | under this Section must allow for the suspension of those  | 
| 15 |  | requirements in the case of a member of the armed services or  | 
| 16 |  | reserve forces of the United States or a member of the Illinois  | 
| 17 |  | National Guard who is on active duty pursuant to an executive  | 
| 18 |  | order of the President of the United States, an act of the  | 
| 19 |  | Congress of the United States, or an order of the Governor at  | 
| 20 |  | the time that the member would otherwise be required to fulfill  | 
| 21 |  | a particular education requirement. Such a person must fulfill  | 
| 22 |  | the education requirement within 6 months after his or her  | 
| 23 |  | release from active duty.
 | 
| 24 |  |  (e) In the event that any rule of the
Department or an EMS  | 
| 25 |  | Medical Director that requires testing for drug
use as a  | 
| 26 |  | condition of the applicable EMS personnel license conflicts  | 
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| 
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| 1 |  | with or
duplicates a provision of a collective bargaining  | 
| 2 |  | agreement
that requires testing for drug use, that rule shall  | 
| 3 |  | not
apply to any person covered by the collective bargaining
 | 
| 4 |  | agreement.
 | 
| 5 |  | (Source: P.A. 97-333, eff. 8-12-11; 97-509, eff. 8-23-11;  | 
| 6 |  | 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 97-1014, eff. 1-1-13; 98-53, eff. 1-1-14;  | 
| 7 |  | 98-463, eff. 8-16-13; 98-973, eff. 8-15-14.)
 | 
| 8 |  |  Section 5-70. The Hospital Licensing Act is amended by  | 
| 9 |  | adding Section 6.14g as follows:
 | 
| 10 |  |  (210 ILCS 85/6.14g new) | 
| 11 |  |  Sec. 6.14g. Reports to the Department; opioid overdoses.  | 
| 12 |  |  (a) As used in this Section: | 
| 13 |  |  "Overdose" has the same meaning as provided in Section 414  | 
| 14 |  | of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act.  | 
| 15 |  |  "Health care professional" includes a physician licensed  | 
| 16 |  | to practice medicine in all its branches, a physician  | 
| 17 |  | assistant, or an advanced practice nurse licensed in the State.  | 
| 18 |  |  (b) When treatment is provided in a hospital's emergency  | 
| 19 |  | department, a health care professional who treats a drug  | 
| 20 |  | overdose or hospital administrator or designee shall report the  | 
| 21 |  | case to the Department of Public Health within 48 hours of  | 
| 22 |  | providing treatment for the drug overdose or at such time the  | 
| 23 |  | drug overdose is confirmed. The Department shall by rule create  | 
| 24 |  | a form for this purpose which requires the following  | 
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| 
 | 
| 1 |  | information, if known: (1) whether an opioid antagonist was  | 
| 2 |  | administered; (2) the cause of the overdose; and (3) the  | 
| 3 |  | demographic information of the person treated. The Department  | 
| 4 |  | shall create the form with input from the statewide association  | 
| 5 |  | representing a majority of hospitals in Illinois. The person  | 
| 6 |  | completing the form may not disclose the name, address, or any  | 
| 7 |  | other personal information of the individual experiencing the  | 
| 8 |  | overdose. | 
| 9 |  |  (c) The identity of the person and entity reporting under  | 
| 10 |  | this subsection shall not be disclosed to the subject of the  | 
| 11 |  | report. For the purposes of this subsection, the health care  | 
| 12 |  | professional, hospital administrator, or designee making the  | 
| 13 |  | report and his or her employer shall not be held criminally,  | 
| 14 |  | civilly, or professionally liable for reporting under this  | 
| 15 |  | subsection, except for willful or wanton misconduct. | 
| 16 |  |  (d) The Department shall provide a semiannual report to the  | 
| 17 |  | General Assembly summarizing the reports received. The  | 
| 18 |  | Department shall also provide on its website a monthly report  | 
| 19 |  | of drug overdose figures. The figures shall be organized by the  | 
| 20 |  | overdose location, the age of the victim, the cause of the  | 
| 21 |  | overdose, and any other factors the Department deems  | 
| 22 |  | appropriate. 
 | 
| 23 |  |  Section 5-72. The Safe Pharmaceutical Disposal Act is  | 
| 24 |  | amended by changing Section 17 as follows:
 | 
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 |  | HB0001 Engrossed | - 67 - | LRB099 00249 HEP 20254 b |  
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| 
 | 
| 1 |  |  (210 ILCS 150/17) | 
| 2 |  |  Sec. 17. Pharmaceutical disposal.  Notwithstanding any
 | 
| 3 |  | provision of law, any city, village, or municipality may
 | 
| 4 |  | authorize the use of its city hall or police department to
 | 
| 5 |  | display a container suitable for use as a receptacle for used,
 | 
| 6 |  | expired, or unwanted pharmaceuticals. These used, expired, or
 | 
| 7 |  | unwanted pharmaceuticals may include unused medication and  | 
| 8 |  | prescription drugs, as well as controlled substances if  | 
| 9 |  | collected in accordance with federal law. This
receptacle shall  | 
| 10 |  | only permit the deposit of items, and the
contents shall be  | 
| 11 |  | locked and secured. The container shall be
accessible to the  | 
| 12 |  | public and shall have posted clearly legible
signage indicating  | 
| 13 |  | that expired or unwanted prescription drugs
may be disposed of  | 
| 14 |  | in the receptacle.
 | 
| 15 |  | (Source: P.A. 97-546, eff. 1-1-12.)
 | 
| 16 |  |  Section 5-75. The Illinois Insurance Code is amended by  | 
| 17 |  | changing Sections 352, 370c, and 370c.1 and by adding Section  | 
| 18 |  | 356z.23 as follows:
 | 
| 19 |  |  (215 ILCS 5/352) (from Ch. 73, par. 964)
 | 
| 20 |  |  Sec. 352. Scope of Article. 
 | 
| 21 |  |  (a) Except as provided in subsections (b), (c), (d), and  | 
| 22 |  | (e),
this Article shall
apply to all companies transacting in  | 
| 23 |  | this State the kinds of business
enumerated in clause (b) of  | 
| 24 |  | Class 1 and clause (a) of Class 2 of section 4.
Nothing in this  | 
     | 
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  | 
| 
 | 
| 1 |  | Article shall apply to, or in any way affect policies or
 | 
| 2 |  | contracts described in clause (a) of Class 1 of Section 4;  | 
| 3 |  | however, this
Article shall apply to policies and contracts  | 
| 4 |  | which contain benefits
providing reimbursement for the  | 
| 5 |  | expenses of long term health care which are
certified or  | 
| 6 |  | ordered by a physician including but not limited to
 | 
| 7 |  | professional nursing care, custodial nursing care, and  | 
| 8 |  | non-nursing
custodial care provided in a nursing home or at a  | 
| 9 |  | residence of the insured.
 | 
| 10 |  |  (b) (Blank). This Article does not apply to policies of  | 
| 11 |  | accident and health
insurance issued in compliance with Article  | 
| 12 |  | XIXB of this Code.
 | 
| 13 |  |  (c) A policy issued and delivered in this State
that  | 
| 14 |  | provides coverage under that policy for
certificate holders who  | 
| 15 |  | are neither residents of nor employed in this State
does not  | 
| 16 |  | need to provide to those nonresident
certificate holders who  | 
| 17 |  | are not employed in this State the coverages or
services  | 
| 18 |  | mandated by this Article.
 | 
| 19 |  |  (d) Stop-loss insurance is exempt from all Sections
of this  | 
| 20 |  | Article, except this Section and Sections 353a, 354, 357.30,  | 
| 21 |  | and
370. For purposes of this exemption, stop-loss insurance is  | 
| 22 |  | further defined as
follows:
 | 
| 23 |  |   (1) The policy must be issued to and insure an  | 
| 24 |  |  employer, trustee, or other
sponsor of the plan, or the  | 
| 25 |  |  plan itself, but not employees, members, or
participants.
 | 
| 26 |  |   (2) Payments by the insurer must be made to the  | 
     | 
 |  | HB0001 Engrossed | - 69 - | LRB099 00249 HEP 20254 b |  
  | 
| 
 | 
| 1 |  |  employer, trustee, or
other sponsors of the plan, or the  | 
| 2 |  |  plan itself, but not to the employees,
members,  | 
| 3 |  |  participants, or health care providers.
 | 
| 4 |  |  (e) A policy issued or delivered in this State to the  | 
| 5 |  | Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly
 | 
| 6 |  | Illinois Department
of Public Aid) and providing coverage,  | 
| 7 |  | under clause (b) of Class 1 or clause (a)
of Class 2 as  | 
| 8 |  | described in Section 4, to persons who are enrolled under  | 
| 9 |  | Article V of the Illinois
Public Aid Code or under the  | 
| 10 |  | Children's Health Insurance Program Act is
exempt from all  | 
| 11 |  | restrictions, limitations,
standards, rules, or regulations  | 
| 12 |  | respecting benefits imposed by or under
authority of this Code,  | 
| 13 |  | except those specified by subsection (1) of Section
143,  | 
| 14 |  | Section 370c, and Section 370c.1. Nothing in this subsection,  | 
| 15 |  | however, affects the total medical services
available to  | 
| 16 |  | persons eligible for medical assistance under the Illinois  | 
| 17 |  | Public
Aid Code.
 | 
| 18 |  | (Source: P.A. 95-331, eff. 8-21-07.)
 | 
| 19 |  |  (215 ILCS 5/356z.23 new) | 
| 20 |  |  Sec. 356z.23. Coverage for opioid antagonists. | 
| 21 |  |  (a) An individual or group policy of accident and health  | 
| 22 |  | insurance amended, delivered, issued, or renewed in this State  | 
| 23 |  | after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 99th  | 
| 24 |  | General Assembly that provides coverage for prescription drugs  | 
| 25 |  | must provide coverage for at least one opioid antagonist,  | 
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  | 
| 
 | 
| 1 |  | including the medication product, administration devices, and  | 
| 2 |  | any pharmacy administration fees related to the dispensing of  | 
| 3 |  | the opioid antagonist. This coverage must include refills for  | 
| 4 |  | expired or utilized opioid antagonists. | 
| 5 |  |  (b) As used in this Section, "opioid antagonist" means a  | 
| 6 |  | drug that binds to opioid receptors and blocks or inhibits the  | 
| 7 |  | effect of opioids acting on those receptors, including, but not  | 
| 8 |  | limited to, naloxone hydrochloride or any other similarly  | 
| 9 |  | acting drug approved by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration.
 | 
| 10 |  |  (215 ILCS 5/370c) (from Ch. 73, par. 982c)
 | 
| 11 |  |  Sec. 370c. Mental and emotional disorders. 
 | 
| 12 |  |  (a) (1) On and after the effective date of this amendatory  | 
| 13 |  | Act of the 97th General Assembly,
every insurer which amends,  | 
| 14 |  | delivers, issues, or renews
group accident and health policies  | 
| 15 |  | providing coverage for hospital or medical treatment or
 | 
| 16 |  | services for illness on an expense-incurred basis shall offer  | 
| 17 |  | to the
applicant or group policyholder subject to the insurer's  | 
| 18 |  | standards of
insurability, coverage for reasonable and  | 
| 19 |  | necessary treatment and services
for mental, emotional or  | 
| 20 |  | nervous disorders or conditions, other than serious
mental  | 
| 21 |  | illnesses as defined in item (2) of subsection (b), consistent  | 
| 22 |  | with the parity requirements of Section 370c.1 of this Code.
 | 
| 23 |  |  (2) Each insured that is covered for mental, emotional,  | 
| 24 |  | nervous, or substance use
disorders or conditions shall be free  | 
| 25 |  | to select the physician licensed to
practice medicine in all  | 
     | 
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  | 
| 
 | 
| 1 |  | its branches, licensed clinical psychologist,
licensed  | 
| 2 |  | clinical social worker, licensed clinical professional  | 
| 3 |  | counselor, licensed marriage and family therapist, licensed  | 
| 4 |  | speech-language pathologist, or other licensed or certified  | 
| 5 |  | professional at a program licensed pursuant to the Illinois  | 
| 6 |  | Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act of
his  | 
| 7 |  | choice to treat such disorders, and
the insurer shall pay the  | 
| 8 |  | covered charges of such physician licensed to
practice medicine  | 
| 9 |  | in all its branches, licensed clinical psychologist,
licensed  | 
| 10 |  | clinical social worker, licensed clinical professional  | 
| 11 |  | counselor, licensed marriage and family therapist, licensed  | 
| 12 |  | speech-language pathologist, or other licensed or certified  | 
| 13 |  | professional at a program licensed pursuant to the Illinois  | 
| 14 |  | Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act up
to the  | 
| 15 |  | limits of coverage, provided (i)
the disorder or condition  | 
| 16 |  | treated is covered by the policy, and (ii) the
physician,  | 
| 17 |  | licensed psychologist, licensed clinical social worker,  | 
| 18 |  | licensed
clinical professional counselor, licensed marriage  | 
| 19 |  | and family therapist, licensed speech-language pathologist, or  | 
| 20 |  | other licensed or certified professional at a program licensed  | 
| 21 |  | pursuant to the Illinois Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and  | 
| 22 |  | Dependency Act is
authorized to provide said services under the  | 
| 23 |  | statutes of this State and in
accordance with accepted  | 
| 24 |  | principles of his profession.
 | 
| 25 |  |  (3) Insofar as this Section applies solely to licensed  | 
| 26 |  | clinical social
workers, licensed clinical professional  | 
     | 
 |  | HB0001 Engrossed | - 72 - | LRB099 00249 HEP 20254 b |  
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| 
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| 1 |  | counselors, licensed marriage and family therapists, licensed  | 
| 2 |  | speech-language pathologists, and other licensed or certified  | 
| 3 |  | professionals at programs licensed pursuant to the Illinois  | 
| 4 |  | Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act, those  | 
| 5 |  | persons who may
provide services to individuals shall do so
 | 
| 6 |  | after the licensed clinical social worker, licensed clinical  | 
| 7 |  | professional
counselor, licensed marriage and family  | 
| 8 |  | therapist, licensed speech-language pathologist, or other  | 
| 9 |  | licensed or certified professional at a program licensed  | 
| 10 |  | pursuant to the Illinois Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and  | 
| 11 |  | Dependency Act has informed the patient of the
desirability of  | 
| 12 |  | the patient conferring with the patient's primary care
 | 
| 13 |  | physician and the licensed clinical social worker, licensed  | 
| 14 |  | clinical
professional counselor, licensed marriage and family  | 
| 15 |  | therapist, licensed speech-language pathologist, or other  | 
| 16 |  | licensed or certified professional at a program licensed  | 
| 17 |  | pursuant to the Illinois Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and  | 
| 18 |  | Dependency Act has
provided written
notification to the  | 
| 19 |  | patient's primary care physician, if any, that services
are  | 
| 20 |  | being provided to the patient. That notification may, however,  | 
| 21 |  | be
waived by the patient on a written form. Those forms shall  | 
| 22 |  | be retained by
the licensed clinical social worker, licensed  | 
| 23 |  | clinical professional counselor, licensed marriage and family  | 
| 24 |  | therapist, licensed speech-language pathologist, or other  | 
| 25 |  | licensed or certified professional at a program licensed  | 
| 26 |  | pursuant to the Illinois Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and  | 
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| 
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| 1 |  | Dependency Act
for a period of not less than 5 years.
 | 
| 2 |  |  (b) (1) An insurer that provides coverage for hospital or  | 
| 3 |  | medical
expenses under a group policy of accident and health  | 
| 4 |  | insurance or
health care plan amended, delivered, issued, or  | 
| 5 |  | renewed on or after the effective
date of this amendatory Act  | 
| 6 |  | of the 97th General Assembly shall provide coverage
under the  | 
| 7 |  | policy for treatment of serious mental illness and substance  | 
| 8 |  | use disorders consistent with the parity requirements of  | 
| 9 |  | Section 370c.1 of this Code. This subsection does not apply to  | 
| 10 |  | any group policy of accident and health insurance or health  | 
| 11 |  | care plan for any plan year of a small employer as defined in  | 
| 12 |  | Section 5 of the Illinois Health Insurance Portability and  | 
| 13 |  | Accountability Act.
 | 
| 14 |  |  (2) "Serious mental illness" means the following  | 
| 15 |  | psychiatric illnesses as
defined in the most current edition of  | 
| 16 |  | the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual
(DSM) published by the  | 
| 17 |  | American Psychiatric Association:
 | 
| 18 |  |   (A) schizophrenia;
 | 
| 19 |  |   (B) paranoid and other psychotic disorders;
 | 
| 20 |  |   (C) bipolar disorders (hypomanic, manic, depressive,  | 
| 21 |  |  and mixed);
 | 
| 22 |  |   (D) major depressive disorders (single episode or  | 
| 23 |  |  recurrent);
 | 
| 24 |  |   (E) schizoaffective disorders (bipolar or depressive);
 | 
| 25 |  |   (F) pervasive developmental disorders;
 | 
| 26 |  |   (G) obsessive-compulsive disorders;
 | 
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| 
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| 1 |  |   (H) depression in childhood and adolescence;
 | 
| 2 |  |   (I) panic disorder;  | 
| 3 |  |   (J) post-traumatic stress disorders (acute, chronic,  | 
| 4 |  |  or with delayed onset); and
  | 
| 5 |  |   (K) anorexia nervosa and bulimia nervosa. | 
| 6 |  |  (2.5) "Substance use disorder" means the following mental  | 
| 7 |  | disorders as defined in the most current edition of the  | 
| 8 |  | Diagnostic and Statistical Manual (DSM) published by the  | 
| 9 |  | American Psychiatric Association:  | 
| 10 |  |   (A) substance abuse disorders; | 
| 11 |  |   (B) substance dependence disorders; and | 
| 12 |  |   (C) substance induced disorders. | 
| 13 |  |  (3) Unless otherwise prohibited by federal law and  | 
| 14 |  | consistent with the parity requirements of Section 370c.1 of  | 
| 15 |  | this Code, the reimbursing insurer, a provider of treatment of
 | 
| 16 |  | serious mental illness or substance use disorder shall furnish  | 
| 17 |  | medical records or other necessary data
that substantiate that  | 
| 18 |  | initial or continued treatment is at all times medically
 | 
| 19 |  | necessary. An insurer shall provide a mechanism for the timely  | 
| 20 |  | review by a
provider holding the same license and practicing in  | 
| 21 |  | the same specialty as the
patient's provider, who is  | 
| 22 |  | unaffiliated with the insurer, jointly selected by
the patient  | 
| 23 |  | (or the patient's next of kin or legal representative if the
 | 
| 24 |  | patient is unable to act for himself or herself), the patient's  | 
| 25 |  | provider, and
the insurer in the event of a dispute between the  | 
| 26 |  | insurer and patient's
provider regarding the medical necessity  | 
     | 
 |  | HB0001 Engrossed | - 75 - | LRB099 00249 HEP 20254 b |  
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| 
 | 
| 1 |  | of a treatment proposed by a patient's
provider. If the  | 
| 2 |  | reviewing provider determines the treatment to be medically
 | 
| 3 |  | necessary, the insurer shall provide reimbursement for the  | 
| 4 |  | treatment. Future
contractual or employment actions by the  | 
| 5 |  | insurer regarding the patient's
provider may not be based on  | 
| 6 |  | the provider's participation in this procedure.
Nothing  | 
| 7 |  | prevents
the insured from agreeing in writing to continue  | 
| 8 |  | treatment at his or her
expense. When making a determination of  | 
| 9 |  | the medical necessity for a treatment
modality for serious  | 
| 10 |  | mental illness or substance use disorder, an insurer must make  | 
| 11 |  | the determination in a
manner that is consistent with the  | 
| 12 |  | manner used to make that determination with
respect to other  | 
| 13 |  | diseases or illnesses covered under the policy, including an
 | 
| 14 |  | appeals process. Medical necessity determinations for  | 
| 15 |  | substance use disorders shall be made in accordance with  | 
| 16 |  | appropriate patient placement criteria established by the  | 
| 17 |  | American Society of Addiction Medicine. No additional criteria  | 
| 18 |  | may be used to make medical necessity determinations for  | 
| 19 |  | substance use disorders. 
 | 
| 20 |  |  (4) A group health benefit plan amended, delivered, issued,  | 
| 21 |  | or renewed on or after the effective date of this amendatory  | 
| 22 |  | Act of the 97th General Assembly:
 | 
| 23 |  |   (A) shall provide coverage based upon medical  | 
| 24 |  |  necessity for the
treatment of mental illness and substance  | 
| 25 |  |  use disorders consistent with the parity requirements of  | 
| 26 |  |  Section 370c.1 of this Code; provided, however, that in  | 
     | 
 |  | HB0001 Engrossed | - 76 - | LRB099 00249 HEP 20254 b |  
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| 
 | 
| 1 |  |  each calendar year coverage shall not be less than the  | 
| 2 |  |  following:
 | 
| 3 |  |    (i) 45 days of inpatient treatment; and
 | 
| 4 |  |    (ii) beginning on June 26, 2006 (the effective date  | 
| 5 |  |  of Public Act 94-921), 60 visits for outpatient  | 
| 6 |  |  treatment including group and individual
outpatient  | 
| 7 |  |  treatment; and | 
| 8 |  |    (iii) for plans or policies delivered, issued for  | 
| 9 |  |  delivery, renewed, or modified after January 1, 2007  | 
| 10 |  |  (the effective date of Public Act 94-906),
20  | 
| 11 |  |  additional outpatient visits for speech therapy for  | 
| 12 |  |  treatment of pervasive developmental disorders that  | 
| 13 |  |  will be in addition to speech therapy provided pursuant  | 
| 14 |  |  to item (ii) of this subparagraph (A); and
 | 
| 15 |  |   (B) may not include a lifetime limit on the number of  | 
| 16 |  |  days of inpatient
treatment or the number of outpatient  | 
| 17 |  |  visits covered under the plan.
 | 
| 18 |  |   (C) (Blank).
 | 
| 19 |  |  (5) An issuer of a group health benefit plan may not count  | 
| 20 |  | toward the number
of outpatient visits required to be covered  | 
| 21 |  | under this Section an outpatient
visit for the purpose of  | 
| 22 |  | medication management and shall cover the outpatient
visits  | 
| 23 |  | under the same terms and conditions as it covers outpatient  | 
| 24 |  | visits for
the treatment of physical illness.
 | 
| 25 |  |  (5.5) An individual or group health benefit plan amended,  | 
| 26 |  | delivered, issued, or renewed on or after the effective date of  | 
     | 
 |  | HB0001 Engrossed | - 77 - | LRB099 00249 HEP 20254 b |  
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| 
 | 
| 1 |  | this amendatory Act of the 99th General Assembly shall offer  | 
| 2 |  | coverage for medically necessary acute treatment services and  | 
| 3 |  | medically necessary clinical stabilization services. The  | 
| 4 |  | treating provider shall base all treatment recommendations and  | 
| 5 |  | the health benefit plan shall base all medical necessity  | 
| 6 |  | determinations for substance use disorders in accordance with  | 
| 7 |  | the most current edition of the American Society of Addiction  | 
| 8 |  | Medicine Patient Placement Criteria. | 
| 9 |  |  As used in this subsection: | 
| 10 |  |  "Acute treatment services" means 24-hour medically  | 
| 11 |  | supervised addiction treatment that provides evaluation and  | 
| 12 |  | withdrawal management and may include biopsychosocial  | 
| 13 |  | assessment, individual and group counseling, psychoeducational  | 
| 14 |  | groups, and discharge planning. | 
| 15 |  |  "Clinical stabilization services" means 24-hour treatment,  | 
| 16 |  | usually following acute treatment services for substance  | 
| 17 |  | abuse, which may include intensive education and counseling  | 
| 18 |  | regarding the nature of addiction and its consequences, relapse  | 
| 19 |  | prevention, outreach to families and significant others, and  | 
| 20 |  | aftercare planning for individuals beginning to engage in  | 
| 21 |  | recovery from addiction.  | 
| 22 |  |  (6) An issuer of a group health benefit
plan may provide or  | 
| 23 |  | offer coverage required under this Section through a
managed  | 
| 24 |  | care plan.
 | 
| 25 |  |  (7) (Blank).
 | 
| 26 |  |  (8)
(Blank).
 | 
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  | 
| 
 | 
| 1 |  |  (9) With respect to substance use disorders, coverage for  | 
| 2 |  | inpatient treatment shall include coverage for treatment in a  | 
| 3 |  | residential treatment center licensed by the Department of  | 
| 4 |  | Public Health or the Department of Human Services, Division of  | 
| 5 |  | Alcoholism and Substance Abuse.  | 
| 6 |  |  (c) This Section shall not be interpreted to require  | 
| 7 |  | coverage for speech therapy or other habilitative services for  | 
| 8 |  | those individuals covered under Section 356z.15
of this Code.  | 
| 9 |  |  (d) The Department shall enforce the requirements of State  | 
| 10 |  | and federal parity law, which includes ensuring compliance by  | 
| 11 |  | individual and group policies; detecting violations of the law  | 
| 12 |  | by individual and group policies proactively monitoring  | 
| 13 |  | discriminatory practices; accepting, evaluating, and  | 
| 14 |  | responding to complaints regarding such violations; and  | 
| 15 |  | ensuring violations are appropriately remedied and deterred. | 
| 16 |  |  (e) Availability of plan information.  | 
| 17 |  |   (1) The criteria for medical necessity determinations  | 
| 18 |  |  made under a group health plan with respect to mental  | 
| 19 |  |  health or substance use disorder benefits (or health  | 
| 20 |  |  insurance coverage offered in connection with the plan with  | 
| 21 |  |  respect to such benefits) must be made available by the  | 
| 22 |  |  plan administrator (or the health insurance issuer  | 
| 23 |  |  offering such coverage) to any current or potential  | 
| 24 |  |  participant, beneficiary, or contracting provider upon  | 
| 25 |  |  request.  | 
| 26 |  |   (2) The reason for any denial under a group health plan  | 
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| 
 | 
| 1 |  |  (or health insurance coverage offered in connection with  | 
| 2 |  |  such plan) of reimbursement or payment for services with  | 
| 3 |  |  respect to mental health or substance use disorder benefits  | 
| 4 |  |  in the case of any participant or beneficiary must be made  | 
| 5 |  |  available within a reasonable time and in a reasonable  | 
| 6 |  |  manner by the plan administrator (or the health insurance  | 
| 7 |  |  issuer offering such coverage) to the participant or  | 
| 8 |  |  beneficiary upon request.  | 
| 9 |  |  (f) As used in this Section, "group policy of accident and  | 
| 10 |  | health insurance" and "group health benefit plan" includes (1)  | 
| 11 |  | State-regulated employer-sponsored group health insurance  | 
| 12 |  | plans written in Illinois and (2) State employee health plans.  | 
| 13 |  | (Source: P.A. 96-328, eff. 8-11-09; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10;  | 
| 14 |  | 97-437, eff. 8-18-11.)
 | 
| 15 |  |  (215 ILCS 5/370c.1) | 
| 16 |  |  Sec. 370c.1. Mental health and addiction parity. | 
| 17 |  |  (a) On and after the effective date of this amendatory Act  | 
| 18 |  | of the 99th General Assembly this amendatory Act of the 97th  | 
| 19 |  | General Assembly, every insurer that amends, delivers, issues,  | 
| 20 |  | or renews a group or individual policy of accident and health  | 
| 21 |  | insurance or a qualified health plan offered through the Health  | 
| 22 |  | Insurance Marketplace policy of accident and health insurance  | 
| 23 |  | in this State providing coverage for hospital or medical  | 
| 24 |  | treatment and for the treatment of mental, emotional, nervous,  | 
| 25 |  | or substance use disorders or conditions shall ensure that: | 
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| 
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| 1 |  |   (1) the financial requirements applicable to such  | 
| 2 |  |  mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorder or  | 
| 3 |  |  condition benefits are no more restrictive than the  | 
| 4 |  |  predominant financial requirements applied to  | 
| 5 |  |  substantially all hospital and medical benefits covered by  | 
| 6 |  |  the policy and that there are no separate cost-sharing  | 
| 7 |  |  requirements that are applicable only with respect to  | 
| 8 |  |  mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorder or  | 
| 9 |  |  condition benefits; and | 
| 10 |  |   (2) the treatment limitations applicable to such  | 
| 11 |  |  mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorder or  | 
| 12 |  |  condition benefits are no more restrictive than the  | 
| 13 |  |  predominant treatment limitations applied to substantially  | 
| 14 |  |  all hospital and medical benefits covered by the policy and  | 
| 15 |  |  that there are no separate treatment limitations that are  | 
| 16 |  |  applicable only with respect to mental, emotional,  | 
| 17 |  |  nervous, or substance use disorder or condition benefits. | 
| 18 |  |  (b) The following provisions shall apply concerning  | 
| 19 |  | aggregate lifetime limits: | 
| 20 |  |   (1) In the case of a group or individual policy of  | 
| 21 |  |  accident and health insurance or a qualified health plan  | 
| 22 |  |  offered through the Health Insurance Marketplace policy of  | 
| 23 |  |  accident and health insurance amended, delivered, issued,  | 
| 24 |  |  or renewed in this State on or after the effective date of  | 
| 25 |  |  this amendatory Act of the 99th General Assembly this  | 
| 26 |  |  amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly that provides  | 
     | 
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| 
 | 
| 1 |  |  coverage for hospital or medical treatment and for the  | 
| 2 |  |  treatment of mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use  | 
| 3 |  |  disorders or conditions the following provisions shall  | 
| 4 |  |  apply: | 
| 5 |  |    (A) if the policy does not include an aggregate  | 
| 6 |  |  lifetime limit on substantially all hospital and  | 
| 7 |  |  medical benefits, then the policy may not impose any  | 
| 8 |  |  aggregate lifetime limit on mental, emotional,  | 
| 9 |  |  nervous, or substance use disorder or condition  | 
| 10 |  |  benefits; or | 
| 11 |  |    (B) if the policy includes an aggregate lifetime  | 
| 12 |  |  limit on substantially all hospital and medical  | 
| 13 |  |  benefits (in this subsection referred to as the  | 
| 14 |  |  "applicable lifetime limit"), then the policy shall  | 
| 15 |  |  either: | 
| 16 |  |     (i) apply the applicable lifetime limit both  | 
| 17 |  |  to the hospital and medical benefits to which it  | 
| 18 |  |  otherwise would apply and to mental, emotional,  | 
| 19 |  |  nervous, or substance use disorder or condition  | 
| 20 |  |  benefits and not distinguish in the application of  | 
| 21 |  |  the limit between the hospital and medical  | 
| 22 |  |  benefits and mental, emotional, nervous, or  | 
| 23 |  |  substance use disorder or condition benefits; or | 
| 24 |  |     (ii) not include any aggregate lifetime limit  | 
| 25 |  |  on mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use  | 
| 26 |  |  disorder or condition benefits that is less than  | 
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| 
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| 1 |  |  the applicable lifetime limit. | 
| 2 |  |   (2) In the case of a policy that is not described in  | 
| 3 |  |  paragraph (1) of subsection (b) of this Section and that  | 
| 4 |  |  includes no or different aggregate lifetime limits on  | 
| 5 |  |  different categories of hospital and medical benefits, the  | 
| 6 |  |  Director shall establish rules under which subparagraph  | 
| 7 |  |  (B) of paragraph (1) of subsection (b) of this Section is  | 
| 8 |  |  applied to such policy with respect to mental, emotional,  | 
| 9 |  |  nervous, or substance use disorder or condition benefits by  | 
| 10 |  |  substituting for the applicable lifetime limit an average  | 
| 11 |  |  aggregate lifetime limit that is computed taking into  | 
| 12 |  |  account the weighted average of the aggregate lifetime  | 
| 13 |  |  limits applicable to such categories.  | 
| 14 |  |  (c) The following provisions shall apply concerning annual  | 
| 15 |  | limits: | 
| 16 |  |   (1) In the case of a group or individual policy of  | 
| 17 |  |  accident and health insurance or a qualified health plan  | 
| 18 |  |  offered through the Health Insurance Marketplace policy of  | 
| 19 |  |  accident and health insurance amended, delivered, issued,  | 
| 20 |  |  or renewed in this State on or after the effective date of  | 
| 21 |  |  this amendatory Act of the 99th General Assembly this  | 
| 22 |  |  amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly that provides  | 
| 23 |  |  coverage for hospital or medical treatment and for the  | 
| 24 |  |  treatment of mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use  | 
| 25 |  |  disorders or conditions the following provisions shall  | 
| 26 |  |  apply:  | 
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| 
 | 
| 1 |  |    (A) if the policy does not include an annual limit  | 
| 2 |  |  on substantially all hospital and medical benefits,  | 
| 3 |  |  then the policy may not impose any annual limits on  | 
| 4 |  |  mental, emotional, nervous, or substance use disorder  | 
| 5 |  |  or condition benefits; or | 
| 6 |  |    (B) if the policy includes an annual limit on  | 
| 7 |  |  substantially all hospital and medical benefits (in  | 
| 8 |  |  this subsection referred to as the "applicable annual  | 
| 9 |  |  limit"), then the policy shall either:  | 
| 10 |  |     (i) apply the applicable annual limit both to  | 
| 11 |  |  the hospital and medical benefits to which it  | 
| 12 |  |  otherwise would apply and to mental, emotional,  | 
| 13 |  |  nervous, or substance use disorder or condition  | 
| 14 |  |  benefits and not distinguish in the application of  | 
| 15 |  |  the limit between the hospital and medical  | 
| 16 |  |  benefits and mental, emotional, nervous, or  | 
| 17 |  |  substance use disorder or condition benefits; or | 
| 18 |  |     (ii) not include any annual limit on mental,  | 
| 19 |  |  emotional, nervous, or substance use disorder or  | 
| 20 |  |  condition benefits that is less than the  | 
| 21 |  |  applicable annual limit.  | 
| 22 |  |   (2) In the case of a policy that is not described in  | 
| 23 |  |  paragraph (1) of subsection (c) of this Section and that  | 
| 24 |  |  includes no or different annual limits on different  | 
| 25 |  |  categories of hospital and medical benefits, the Director  | 
| 26 |  |  shall establish rules under which subparagraph (B) of  | 
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  | 
| 
 | 
| 1 |  |  paragraph (1) of subsection (c) of this Section is applied  | 
| 2 |  |  to such policy with respect to mental, emotional, nervous,  | 
| 3 |  |  or substance use disorder or condition benefits by  | 
| 4 |  |  substituting for the applicable annual limit an average  | 
| 5 |  |  annual limit that is computed taking into account the  | 
| 6 |  |  weighted average of the annual limits applicable to such  | 
| 7 |  |  categories.  | 
| 8 |  |  (d) With respect to substance use disorders, an insurer  | 
| 9 |  | shall use policies and procedures for the election and  | 
| 10 |  | placement of substance abuse treatment drugs on their formulary  | 
| 11 |  | that are no less favorable to the insured as those policies and  | 
| 12 |  | procedures the insurer uses for the selection and placement of  | 
| 13 |  | other drugs and shall follow the expedited coverage  | 
| 14 |  | determination requirements for substance abuse treatment drugs  | 
| 15 |  | set forth in Section 45.2 of the Managed Care Reform and  | 
| 16 |  | Patient Rights Act.  | 
| 17 |  |  (e) (d) This Section shall be interpreted in a manner  | 
| 18 |  | consistent with all applicable federal parity regulations  | 
| 19 |  | including, but not limited to, the Mental Health Parity and  | 
| 20 |  | Addiction Equity Act of 2008 at 78 FR 68240. the interim final  | 
| 21 |  | regulations promulgated by the U.S. Department of Health and  | 
| 22 |  | Human Services at 75 FR 5410, including the prohibition against  | 
| 23 |  | applying a cumulative financial requirement or cumulative  | 
| 24 |  | quantitative treatment limitation for mental, emotional,  | 
| 25 |  | nervous, or substance use disorder benefits that accumulates  | 
| 26 |  | separately from any cumulative financial requirement or  | 
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| 
 | 
| 1 |  | cumulative quantitative treatment limitation established for  | 
| 2 |  | hospital and medical benefits in the same classification. | 
| 3 |  |  (f) (e) The provisions of subsections (b) and (c) of this  | 
| 4 |  | Section shall not be interpreted to allow the use of lifetime  | 
| 5 |  | or annual limits otherwise prohibited by State or federal law. | 
| 6 |  |  (f) This Section shall not apply to individual health  | 
| 7 |  | insurance coverage as defined in Section 5 of the Illinois  | 
| 8 |  | Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act.  | 
| 9 |  |  (g) As used in this Section: | 
| 10 |  |  "Financial requirement" includes deductibles, copayments,  | 
| 11 |  | coinsurance, and out-of-pocket maximums, but does not include  | 
| 12 |  | an aggregate lifetime limit or an annual limit subject to  | 
| 13 |  | subsections (b) and (c). | 
| 14 |  |  "Treatment limitation" includes limits on benefits based  | 
| 15 |  | on the frequency of treatment, number of visits, days of  | 
| 16 |  | coverage, days in a waiting period, or other similar limits on  | 
| 17 |  | the scope or duration of treatment. "Treatment limitation"  | 
| 18 |  | includes both quantitative treatment limitations, which are  | 
| 19 |  | expressed numerically (such as 50 outpatient visits per year),  | 
| 20 |  | and nonquantitative treatment limitations, which otherwise  | 
| 21 |  | limit the scope or duration of treatment. A permanent exclusion  | 
| 22 |  | of all benefits for a particular condition or disorder shall  | 
| 23 |  | not be considered a treatment limitation. "Nonquantitative  | 
| 24 |  | treatment" means those limitations as described under federal  | 
| 25 |  | regulations (26 CFR 54.9812-1). 
 | 
| 26 |  |  (h) The Department of Insurance shall implement the  | 
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  | 
| 
 | 
| 1 |  | following education initiatives: | 
| 2 |  |   (1) By January 1, 2016, the Department shall develop a  | 
| 3 |  |  plan for a Consumer Education Campaign on parity. The  | 
| 4 |  |  Consumer Education Campaign shall focus its efforts  | 
| 5 |  |  throughout the State and include trainings in the northern,  | 
| 6 |  |  southern, and central regions of the State, as defined by  | 
| 7 |  |  the Department, as well as each of the 5 managed care  | 
| 8 |  |  regions of the State as identified by the Department of  | 
| 9 |  |  Healthcare and Family Services. Under this Consumer  | 
| 10 |  |  Education Campaign, the Department shall: (1) by January 1,  | 
| 11 |  |  2017, provide at least one live training in each region on  | 
| 12 |  |  parity for consumers and providers and one webinar training  | 
| 13 |  |  to be posted on the Department website and (2) establish a  | 
| 14 |  |  consumer hotline to assist consumers in navigating the  | 
| 15 |  |  parity process by March 1, 2016. By January 1, 2018 the  | 
| 16 |  |  Department shall issue a report to the General Assembly on  | 
| 17 |  |  the success of the Consumer Education Campaign, which shall  | 
| 18 |  |  indicate whether additional training is necessary or would  | 
| 19 |  |  be recommended. | 
| 20 |  |   (2) The Department, in coordination with the  | 
| 21 |  |  Department of Human Services and the Department of  | 
| 22 |  |  Healthcare and Family Services, shall convene a working  | 
| 23 |  |  group of health care insurance carriers, mental health  | 
| 24 |  |  advocacy groups, substance abuse patient advocacy groups,  | 
| 25 |  |  and mental health physician groups for the purpose of  | 
| 26 |  |  discussing issues related to the treatment and coverage of  | 
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| 1 |  |  substance abuse disorders and mental illness. The working  | 
| 2 |  |  group shall meet once before January 1, 2016 and shall meet  | 
| 3 |  |  semiannually thereafter. The Department shall issue an  | 
| 4 |  |  annual report to the General Assembly that includes a list  | 
| 5 |  |  of the health care insurance carriers, mental health  | 
| 6 |  |  advocacy groups, substance abuse patient advocacy groups,  | 
| 7 |  |  and mental health physician groups that participated in the  | 
| 8 |  |  working group meetings, details on the issues and topics  | 
| 9 |  |  covered, and any legislative recommendations. | 
| 10 |  |  (i) The Parity Education Fund is created as a special fund  | 
| 11 |  | in the State treasury. Moneys deposited into the Fund for  | 
| 12 |  | appropriation by the General Assembly to the Department of  | 
| 13 |  | Insurance shall be used for the purpose of providing financial  | 
| 14 |  | support of the Consumer Education Campaign.  | 
| 15 |  | (Source: P.A. 97-437, eff. 8-18-11.)
 | 
| 16 |  |  Section 5-80. The Health Carrier External Review Act is  | 
| 17 |  | amended by changing Sections 20 and 35 as follows:
 | 
| 18 |  |  (215 ILCS 180/20)
 | 
| 19 |  |  Sec. 20. Notice of right to external review.  | 
| 20 |  |  (a) At the same time the health carrier sends written  | 
| 21 |  | notice of a covered person's right to appeal a coverage  | 
| 22 |  | decision upon an adverse determination or a final adverse  | 
| 23 |  | determination, a health carrier shall notify a covered person,  | 
| 24 |  | the covered person's authorized representative, if any, and a  | 
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| 1 |  | covered person's health care provider in writing of the covered  | 
| 2 |  | person's right to request an external review as provided by  | 
| 3 |  | this Act. The written notice required shall include the  | 
| 4 |  | following, or substantially equivalent, language: "We have  | 
| 5 |  | denied your request for the provision of or payment for a  | 
| 6 |  | health care service or course of treatment. You have the right  | 
| 7 |  | to have our decision reviewed by an independent review  | 
| 8 |  | organization not associated with us by submitting a written  | 
| 9 |  | request for an external review to the Department of Insurance,  | 
| 10 |  | Office of Consumer Health Information, 320 West Washington  | 
| 11 |  | Street, 4th Floor, Springfield, Illinois, 62767.". The written  | 
| 12 |  | notice shall include a copy of the Department's Request for  | 
| 13 |  | External Review form.  | 
| 14 |  |  (a-5) The Department may prescribe the form and content of  | 
| 15 |  | the notice required under this Section.  | 
| 16 |  |  (b) In addition to the notice required in subsection (a),  | 
| 17 |  | for a notice related to an adverse determination, the health  | 
| 18 |  | carrier shall include a statement informing the covered person  | 
| 19 |  | of all of the following: | 
| 20 |  |   (1) If the covered person has a medical condition where  | 
| 21 |  |  the timeframe for completion of (A) an expedited internal  | 
| 22 |  |  review of an appeal involving an adverse determination, (B)  | 
| 23 |  |  a final adverse determination, or (C) a standard external  | 
| 24 |  |  review as established in this Act, would seriously  | 
| 25 |  |  jeopardize the life or health of the covered person or  | 
| 26 |  |  would jeopardize the covered person's ability to regain  | 
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| 1 |  |  maximum function, then the covered person or the covered  | 
| 2 |  |  person's authorized representative may file a request for  | 
| 3 |  |  an expedited external review. | 
| 4 |  |   (2) The covered person or the covered person's  | 
| 5 |  |  authorized representative may file an appeal under the  | 
| 6 |  |  health carrier's internal appeal process, but if the health  | 
| 7 |  |  carrier has not issued a written decision to the covered  | 
| 8 |  |  person or the covered person's authorized representative  | 
| 9 |  |  30 days following the date the covered person or the  | 
| 10 |  |  covered person's authorized representative files an appeal  | 
| 11 |  |  of an adverse determination that involves a concurrent or  | 
| 12 |  |  prospective review request or 60 days following the date  | 
| 13 |  |  the covered person or the covered person's authorized  | 
| 14 |  |  representative files an appeal of an adverse determination  | 
| 15 |  |  that involves a retrospective review request with the  | 
| 16 |  |  health carrier and the covered person or the covered  | 
| 17 |  |  person's authorized representative has not requested or  | 
| 18 |  |  agreed to a delay, then the covered person or the covered  | 
| 19 |  |  person's authorized representative may file a request for  | 
| 20 |  |  external review and shall be considered to have exhausted  | 
| 21 |  |  the health carrier's internal appeal process for purposes  | 
| 22 |  |  of this Act. | 
| 23 |  |   (3) If the covered person or the covered person's  | 
| 24 |  |  authorized representative filed a request for an expedited  | 
| 25 |  |  internal review of an adverse determination and has not  | 
| 26 |  |  received a decision on such request from the health carrier  | 
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| 1 |  |  within 48 hours, except to the extent the covered person or  | 
| 2 |  |  the covered person's authorized representative requested  | 
| 3 |  |  or agreed to a delay, then the covered person or the  | 
| 4 |  |  covered person's authorized representative may file a  | 
| 5 |  |  request for external review and shall be considered to have  | 
| 6 |  |  exhausted the health carrier's internal appeal process for  | 
| 7 |  |  the purposes of this Act.  | 
| 8 |  |   (4) If an adverse determination concerns a denial of  | 
| 9 |  |  coverage based on a determination that the recommended or  | 
| 10 |  |  requested health care service or treatment is experimental  | 
| 11 |  |  or investigational and the covered person's health care  | 
| 12 |  |  provider certifies in writing that the recommended or  | 
| 13 |  |  requested health care service or treatment that is the  | 
| 14 |  |  subject of the request would be significantly less  | 
| 15 |  |  effective if not promptly initiated, then the covered  | 
| 16 |  |  person or the covered person's authorized representative  | 
| 17 |  |  may request an expedited external review at the same time  | 
| 18 |  |  the covered person or the covered person's authorized  | 
| 19 |  |  representative files a request for an expedited internal  | 
| 20 |  |  appeal involving an adverse determination. The independent  | 
| 21 |  |  review organization assigned to conduct the expedited  | 
| 22 |  |  external review shall determine whether the covered person  | 
| 23 |  |  is required to complete the expedited review of the appeal  | 
| 24 |  |  prior to conducting the expedited external review. | 
| 25 |  |  (c) In addition to the notice required in subsection (a),  | 
| 26 |  | for a notice related to a final adverse determination, the  | 
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| 1 |  | health carrier shall include a statement informing the covered  | 
| 2 |  | person of all of the following: | 
| 3 |  |   (1) if the covered person has a medical condition where  | 
| 4 |  |  the timeframe for completion of a standard external review  | 
| 5 |  |  would seriously jeopardize the life or health of the  | 
| 6 |  |  covered person or would jeopardize the covered person's  | 
| 7 |  |  ability to regain maximum function, then the covered person  | 
| 8 |  |  or the covered person's authorized representative may file  | 
| 9 |  |  a request for an expedited external review; or | 
| 10 |  |   (2) if a final adverse determination concerns an  | 
| 11 |  |  admission, availability of care, continued stay, or health  | 
| 12 |  |  care service for which the covered person received  | 
| 13 |  |  emergency services, but has not been discharged from a  | 
| 14 |  |  facility, then the covered person, or the covered person's  | 
| 15 |  |  authorized representative, may request an expedited  | 
| 16 |  |  external review; or | 
| 17 |  |   (3) if a final adverse determination concerns a denial  | 
| 18 |  |  of coverage based on a determination that the recommended  | 
| 19 |  |  or requested health care service or treatment is  | 
| 20 |  |  experimental or investigational, and the covered person's  | 
| 21 |  |  health care provider certifies in writing that the  | 
| 22 |  |  recommended or requested health care service or treatment  | 
| 23 |  |  that is the subject of the request would be significantly  | 
| 24 |  |  less effective if not promptly initiated, then the covered  | 
| 25 |  |  person or the covered person's authorized representative  | 
| 26 |  |  may request an expedited external review. | 
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| 1 |  |  (d) In addition to the information to be provided pursuant  | 
| 2 |  | to subsections (a), (b), and (c) of this Section, the health  | 
| 3 |  | carrier shall include a copy of the description of both the  | 
| 4 |  | required standard and expedited external review procedures.  | 
| 5 |  | The description shall highlight the external review procedures  | 
| 6 |  | that give the covered person or the covered person's authorized  | 
| 7 |  | representative the opportunity to submit additional  | 
| 8 |  | information, including any forms used to process an external  | 
| 9 |  | review.
 | 
| 10 |  |  (e) As part of any forms provided under subsection (d) of  | 
| 11 |  | this Section, the health carrier shall include an authorization  | 
| 12 |  | form, or other document approved by the Director, by which the  | 
| 13 |  | covered person, for purposes of conducting an external review  | 
| 14 |  | under this Act, authorizes the health carrier and the covered  | 
| 15 |  | person's treating health care provider to disclose protected  | 
| 16 |  | health information, including medical records, concerning the  | 
| 17 |  | covered person that is pertinent to the external review, as  | 
| 18 |  | provided in the Illinois Insurance Code.  | 
| 19 |  | (Source: P.A. 96-857, eff. 7-1-10; 97-574, eff. 8-26-11.)
 | 
| 20 |  |  (215 ILCS 180/35)
 | 
| 21 |  |  Sec. 35. Standard external review.  | 
| 22 |  |  (a) Within 4 months after the date of receipt of a notice  | 
| 23 |  | of an adverse determination or final adverse determination, a  | 
| 24 |  | covered person or the covered person's authorized  | 
| 25 |  | representative may file a request for an external review with  | 
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| 1 |  | the Director. Within one business day after the date of receipt  | 
| 2 |  | of a request for external review, the Director shall send a  | 
| 3 |  | copy of the request to the health carrier. | 
| 4 |  |  (b) Within 5 business days following the date of receipt of  | 
| 5 |  | the external review request, the health carrier shall complete  | 
| 6 |  | a preliminary review of the request to determine whether:
 | 
| 7 |  |   (1) the individual is or was a covered person in the  | 
| 8 |  |  health benefit plan at the time the health care service was  | 
| 9 |  |  requested or at the time the health care service was  | 
| 10 |  |  provided; | 
| 11 |  |   (2) the health care service that is the subject of the  | 
| 12 |  |  adverse determination or the final adverse determination  | 
| 13 |  |  is a covered service under the covered person's health  | 
| 14 |  |  benefit plan, but the health carrier has determined that  | 
| 15 |  |  the health care service is not covered; | 
| 16 |  |   (3) the covered person has exhausted the health  | 
| 17 |  |  carrier's internal appeal process unless the covered  | 
| 18 |  |  person is not required to exhaust the health carrier's  | 
| 19 |  |  internal appeal process pursuant to this Act;  | 
| 20 |  |   (4) (blank); and | 
| 21 |  |   (5) the covered person has provided all the information  | 
| 22 |  |  and forms required to process an external review, as  | 
| 23 |  |  specified in this Act. | 
| 24 |  |  (c) Within one business day after completion of the  | 
| 25 |  | preliminary review, the health carrier shall notify the  | 
| 26 |  | Director and covered person and, if applicable, the covered  | 
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| 1 |  | person's authorized representative in writing whether the  | 
| 2 |  | request is complete and eligible for external review. If the  | 
| 3 |  | request: | 
| 4 |  |   (1) is not complete, the health carrier shall inform  | 
| 5 |  |  the Director and covered person and, if applicable, the  | 
| 6 |  |  covered person's authorized representative in writing and  | 
| 7 |  |  include in the notice what information or materials are  | 
| 8 |  |  required by this Act to make the request complete; or | 
| 9 |  |   (2) is not eligible for external review, the health  | 
| 10 |  |  carrier shall inform the Director and covered person and,  | 
| 11 |  |  if applicable, the covered person's authorized  | 
| 12 |  |  representative in writing and include in the notice the  | 
| 13 |  |  reasons for its ineligibility.
 | 
| 14 |  |  The Department may specify the form for the health  | 
| 15 |  | carrier's notice of initial determination under this  | 
| 16 |  | subsection (c) and any supporting information to be included in  | 
| 17 |  | the notice.  | 
| 18 |  |  The notice of initial determination of ineligibility shall  | 
| 19 |  | include a statement informing the covered person and, if  | 
| 20 |  | applicable, the covered person's authorized representative  | 
| 21 |  | that a health carrier's initial determination that the external  | 
| 22 |  | review request is ineligible for review may be appealed to the  | 
| 23 |  | Director by filing a complaint with the Director. | 
| 24 |  |  Notwithstanding a health carrier's initial determination  | 
| 25 |  | that the request is ineligible for external review, the  | 
| 26 |  | Director may determine that a request is eligible for external  | 
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| 1 |  | review and require that it be referred for external review. In  | 
| 2 |  | making such determination, the Director's decision shall be in  | 
| 3 |  | accordance with the terms of the covered person's health  | 
| 4 |  | benefit plan, unless such terms are inconsistent with  | 
| 5 |  | applicable law, and shall be subject to all applicable  | 
| 6 |  | provisions of this Act. | 
| 7 |  |  (d) Whenever the Director receives notice that a request is  | 
| 8 |  | eligible for external review following the preliminary review  | 
| 9 |  | conducted pursuant to this Section, within one business day  | 
| 10 |  | after the date of receipt of the notice, the Director shall: | 
| 11 |  |   (1) assign an independent review organization from the  | 
| 12 |  |  list of approved independent review organizations compiled  | 
| 13 |  |  and maintained by the Director pursuant to this Act and  | 
| 14 |  |  notify the health carrier of the name of the assigned  | 
| 15 |  |  independent review organization; and | 
| 16 |  |   (2) notify in writing the covered person and, if  | 
| 17 |  |  applicable, the covered person's authorized representative  | 
| 18 |  |  of the request's eligibility and acceptance for external  | 
| 19 |  |  review and the name of the independent review organization. | 
| 20 |  |  The Director shall include in the notice provided to the  | 
| 21 |  | covered person and, if applicable, the covered person's  | 
| 22 |  | authorized representative a statement that the covered person  | 
| 23 |  | or the covered person's authorized representative may, within 5  | 
| 24 |  | business days following the date of receipt of the notice  | 
| 25 |  | provided pursuant to item (2) of this subsection (d), submit in  | 
| 26 |  | writing to the assigned independent review organization  | 
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| 1 |  | additional information that the independent review  | 
| 2 |  | organization shall consider when conducting the external  | 
| 3 |  | review. The independent review organization is not required to,  | 
| 4 |  | but may, accept and consider additional information submitted  | 
| 5 |  | after 5 business days. | 
| 6 |  |  (e) The assignment by the Director of an approved  | 
| 7 |  | independent review organization to conduct an external review  | 
| 8 |  | in accordance with this Section shall be done on a random basis  | 
| 9 |  | among those independent review organizations approved by the  | 
| 10 |  | Director pursuant to this Act. | 
| 11 |  |  (f) Within 5 business days after the date of receipt of the  | 
| 12 |  | notice provided pursuant to item (1) of subsection (d) of this  | 
| 13 |  | Section, the health carrier or its designee utilization review  | 
| 14 |  | organization shall provide to the assigned independent review  | 
| 15 |  | organization the documents and any information considered in  | 
| 16 |  | making the adverse determination or final adverse  | 
| 17 |  | determination; in such cases, the following provisions shall  | 
| 18 |  | apply: | 
| 19 |  |   (1) Except as provided in item (2) of this subsection  | 
| 20 |  |  (f), failure by the health carrier or its utilization  | 
| 21 |  |  review organization to provide the documents and  | 
| 22 |  |  information within the specified time frame shall not delay  | 
| 23 |  |  the conduct of the external review. | 
| 24 |  |   (2) If the health carrier or its utilization review  | 
| 25 |  |  organization fails to provide the documents and  | 
| 26 |  |  information within the specified time frame, the assigned  | 
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| 1 |  |  independent review organization may terminate the external  | 
| 2 |  |  review and make a decision to reverse the adverse  | 
| 3 |  |  determination or final adverse determination. | 
| 4 |  |   (3) Within one business day after making the decision  | 
| 5 |  |  to terminate the external review and make a decision to  | 
| 6 |  |  reverse the adverse determination or final adverse  | 
| 7 |  |  determination under item (2) of this subsection (f), the  | 
| 8 |  |  independent review organization shall notify the Director,  | 
| 9 |  |  the health carrier, the covered person and, if applicable,  | 
| 10 |  |  the covered person's authorized representative, of its  | 
| 11 |  |  decision to reverse the adverse determination. | 
| 12 |  |  (g) Upon receipt of the information from the health carrier  | 
| 13 |  | or its utilization review organization, the assigned  | 
| 14 |  | independent review organization shall review all of the  | 
| 15 |  | information and documents and any other information submitted  | 
| 16 |  | in writing to the independent review organization by the  | 
| 17 |  | covered person and the covered person's authorized  | 
| 18 |  | representative. | 
| 19 |  |  (h) Upon receipt of any information submitted by the  | 
| 20 |  | covered person or the covered person's authorized  | 
| 21 |  | representative, the independent review organization shall  | 
| 22 |  | forward the information to the health carrier within 1 business  | 
| 23 |  | day. | 
| 24 |  |   (1) Upon receipt of the information, if any, the health  | 
| 25 |  |  carrier may reconsider its adverse determination or final  | 
| 26 |  |  adverse determination that is the subject of the external  | 
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| 1 |  |  review.
 | 
| 2 |  |   (2) Reconsideration by the health carrier of its  | 
| 3 |  |  adverse determination or final adverse determination shall  | 
| 4 |  |  not delay or terminate the external review.
 | 
| 5 |  |   (3) The external review may only be terminated if the  | 
| 6 |  |  health carrier decides, upon completion of its  | 
| 7 |  |  reconsideration, to reverse its adverse determination or  | 
| 8 |  |  final adverse determination and provide coverage or  | 
| 9 |  |  payment for the health care service that is the subject of  | 
| 10 |  |  the adverse determination or final adverse determination.  | 
| 11 |  |  In such cases, the following provisions shall apply:  | 
| 12 |  |    (A) Within one business day after making the  | 
| 13 |  |  decision to reverse its adverse determination or final  | 
| 14 |  |  adverse determination, the health carrier shall notify  | 
| 15 |  |  the Director, the covered person and, if applicable,  | 
| 16 |  |  the covered person's authorized representative, and  | 
| 17 |  |  the assigned independent review organization in  | 
| 18 |  |  writing of its decision. | 
| 19 |  |    (B) Upon notice from the health carrier that the  | 
| 20 |  |  health carrier has made a decision to reverse its  | 
| 21 |  |  adverse determination or final adverse determination,  | 
| 22 |  |  the assigned independent review organization shall  | 
| 23 |  |  terminate the external review. | 
| 24 |  |  (i) In addition to the documents and information provided  | 
| 25 |  | by the health carrier or its utilization review organization  | 
| 26 |  | and the covered person and the covered person's authorized  | 
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| 1 |  | representative, if any, the independent review organization,  | 
| 2 |  | to the extent the information or documents are available and  | 
| 3 |  | the independent review organization considers them  | 
| 4 |  | appropriate, shall consider the following in reaching a  | 
| 5 |  | decision: | 
| 6 |  |   (1) the covered person's pertinent medical records; | 
| 7 |  |   (2) the covered person's health care provider's  | 
| 8 |  |  recommendation; | 
| 9 |  |   (3) consulting reports from appropriate health care  | 
| 10 |  |  providers and other documents submitted by the health  | 
| 11 |  |  carrier or its designee utilization review organization,  | 
| 12 |  |  the covered person, the covered person's authorized  | 
| 13 |  |  representative, or the covered person's treating provider; | 
| 14 |  |   (4) the terms of coverage under the covered person's  | 
| 15 |  |  health benefit plan with the health carrier to ensure that  | 
| 16 |  |  the independent review organization's decision is not  | 
| 17 |  |  contrary to the terms of coverage under the covered  | 
| 18 |  |  person's health benefit plan with the health carrier,  | 
| 19 |  |  unless the terms are inconsistent with applicable law;  | 
| 20 |  |   (5) the most appropriate practice guidelines, which  | 
| 21 |  |  shall include applicable evidence-based standards and may  | 
| 22 |  |  include any other practice guidelines developed by the  | 
| 23 |  |  federal government, national or professional medical  | 
| 24 |  |  societies, boards, and associations; | 
| 25 |  |   (6) any applicable clinical review criteria developed  | 
| 26 |  |  and used by the health carrier or its designee utilization  | 
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| 1 |  |  review organization; | 
| 2 |  |   (7) the opinion of the independent review  | 
| 3 |  |  organization's clinical reviewer or reviewers after  | 
| 4 |  |  considering items (1) through (6) of this subsection (i) to  | 
| 5 |  |  the extent the information or documents are available and  | 
| 6 |  |  the clinical reviewer or reviewers considers the  | 
| 7 |  |  information or documents appropriate; and | 
| 8 |  |   (8) (blank); and . | 
| 9 |  |   (9) in the case of medically necessary determinations  | 
| 10 |  |  for substance use disorders, the patient placement  | 
| 11 |  |  criteria established by the American Society of Addiction  | 
| 12 |  |  Medicine.  | 
| 13 |  |  (j) Within 5 days after the date of receipt of all  | 
| 14 |  | necessary information, but in no event more than 45 days after  | 
| 15 |  | the date of receipt of the request for an external review, the  | 
| 16 |  | assigned independent review organization shall provide written  | 
| 17 |  | notice of its decision to uphold or reverse the adverse  | 
| 18 |  | determination or the final adverse determination to the  | 
| 19 |  | Director, the health carrier, the covered person, and, if  | 
| 20 |  | applicable, the covered person's authorized representative. In  | 
| 21 |  | reaching a decision, the assigned independent review  | 
| 22 |  | organization is not bound by any claim determinations reached  | 
| 23 |  | prior to the submission of information to the independent  | 
| 24 |  | review organization. In such cases, the following provisions  | 
| 25 |  | shall apply: | 
| 26 |  |   (1) The independent review organization shall include  | 
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| 1 |  |  in the notice: | 
| 2 |  |    (A) a general description of the reason for the  | 
| 3 |  |  request for external review; | 
| 4 |  |    (B) the date the independent review organization  | 
| 5 |  |  received the assignment from the Director to conduct  | 
| 6 |  |  the external review; | 
| 7 |  |    (C) the time period during which the external  | 
| 8 |  |  review was conducted; | 
| 9 |  |    (D) references to the evidence or documentation,  | 
| 10 |  |  including the evidence-based standards, considered in  | 
| 11 |  |  reaching its decision; | 
| 12 |  |    (E) the date of its decision; | 
| 13 |  |    (F) the principal reason or reasons for its  | 
| 14 |  |  decision, including what applicable, if any,  | 
| 15 |  |  evidence-based standards that were a basis for its  | 
| 16 |  |  decision; and
 | 
| 17 |  |    (G) the rationale for its decision.  | 
| 18 |  |   (2) (Blank). | 
| 19 |  |   (3) (Blank). | 
| 20 |  |   (4) Upon receipt of a notice of a decision reversing  | 
| 21 |  |  the adverse determination or final adverse determination,  | 
| 22 |  |  the health carrier immediately shall approve the coverage  | 
| 23 |  |  that was the subject of the adverse determination or final  | 
| 24 |  |  adverse determination.
 | 
| 25 |  | (Source: P.A. 96-857, eff. 7-1-10; 96-967, eff. 1-1-11; 97-574,  | 
| 26 |  | eff. 8-26-11.)
 | 
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| 1 |  |  Section 5-85. The Illinois Public Aid Code is amended by  | 
| 2 |  | changing Sections 5-5 and 5-16.8 as follows:
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| 3 |  |  (305 ILCS 5/5-5) (from Ch. 23, par. 5-5)
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| 4 |  |  Sec. 5-5. Medical services.  The Illinois Department, by  | 
| 5 |  | rule, shall
determine the quantity and quality of and the rate  | 
| 6 |  | of reimbursement for the
medical assistance for which
payment  | 
| 7 |  | will be authorized, and the medical services to be provided,
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| 8 |  | which may include all or part of the following: (1) inpatient  | 
| 9 |  | hospital
services; (2) outpatient hospital services; (3) other  | 
| 10 |  | laboratory and
X-ray services; (4) skilled nursing home  | 
| 11 |  | services; (5) physicians'
services whether furnished in the  | 
| 12 |  | office, the patient's home, a
hospital, a skilled nursing home,  | 
| 13 |  | or elsewhere; (6) medical care, or any
other type of remedial  | 
| 14 |  | care furnished by licensed practitioners; (7)
home health care  | 
| 15 |  | services; (8) private duty nursing service; (9) clinic
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| 16 |  | services; (10) dental services, including prevention and  | 
| 17 |  | treatment of periodontal disease and dental caries disease for  | 
| 18 |  | pregnant women, provided by an individual licensed to practice  | 
| 19 |  | dentistry or dental surgery; for purposes of this item (10),  | 
| 20 |  | "dental services" means diagnostic, preventive, or corrective  | 
| 21 |  | procedures provided by or under the supervision of a dentist in  | 
| 22 |  | the practice of his or her profession; (11) physical therapy  | 
| 23 |  | and related
services; (12) prescribed drugs, dentures, and  | 
| 24 |  | prosthetic devices; and
eyeglasses prescribed by a physician  | 
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| 1 |  | skilled in the diseases of the eye,
or by an optometrist,  | 
| 2 |  | whichever the person may select; (13) other
diagnostic,  | 
| 3 |  | screening, preventive, and rehabilitative services, including  | 
| 4 |  | to ensure that the individual's need for intervention or  | 
| 5 |  | treatment of mental disorders or substance use disorders or  | 
| 6 |  | co-occurring mental health and substance use disorders is  | 
| 7 |  | determined using a uniform screening, assessment, and  | 
| 8 |  | evaluation process inclusive of criteria, for children and  | 
| 9 |  | adults; for purposes of this item (13), a uniform screening,  | 
| 10 |  | assessment, and evaluation process refers to a process that  | 
| 11 |  | includes an appropriate evaluation and, as warranted, a  | 
| 12 |  | referral; "uniform" does not mean the use of a singular  | 
| 13 |  | instrument, tool, or process that all must utilize; (14)
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| 14 |  | transportation and such other expenses as may be necessary;  | 
| 15 |  | (15) medical
treatment of sexual assault survivors, as defined  | 
| 16 |  | in
Section 1a of the Sexual Assault Survivors Emergency  | 
| 17 |  | Treatment Act, for
injuries sustained as a result of the sexual  | 
| 18 |  | assault, including
examinations and laboratory tests to  | 
| 19 |  | discover evidence which may be used in
criminal proceedings  | 
| 20 |  | arising from the sexual assault; (16) the
diagnosis and  | 
| 21 |  | treatment of sickle cell anemia; and (17)
any other medical  | 
| 22 |  | care, and any other type of remedial care recognized
under the  | 
| 23 |  | laws of this State, but not including abortions, or induced
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| 24 |  | miscarriages or premature births, unless, in the opinion of a  | 
| 25 |  | physician,
such procedures are necessary for the preservation  | 
| 26 |  | of the life of the
woman seeking such treatment, or except an  | 
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| 1 |  | induced premature birth
intended to produce a live viable child  | 
| 2 |  | and such procedure is necessary
for the health of the mother or  | 
| 3 |  | her unborn child. The Illinois Department,
by rule, shall  | 
| 4 |  | prohibit any physician from providing medical assistance
to  | 
| 5 |  | anyone eligible therefor under this Code where such physician  | 
| 6 |  | has been
found guilty of performing an abortion procedure in a  | 
| 7 |  | wilful and wanton
manner upon a woman who was not pregnant at  | 
| 8 |  | the time such abortion
procedure was performed. The term "any  | 
| 9 |  | other type of remedial care" shall
include nursing care and  | 
| 10 |  | nursing home service for persons who rely on
treatment by  | 
| 11 |  | spiritual means alone through prayer for healing.
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| 12 |  |  Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section, a  | 
| 13 |  | comprehensive
tobacco use cessation program that includes  | 
| 14 |  | purchasing prescription drugs or
prescription medical devices  | 
| 15 |  | approved by the Food and Drug Administration shall
be covered  | 
| 16 |  | under the medical assistance
program under this Article for  | 
| 17 |  | persons who are otherwise eligible for
assistance under this  | 
| 18 |  | Article.
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| 19 |  |  Notwithstanding any other provision of this Code, the  | 
| 20 |  | Illinois
Department may not require, as a condition of payment  | 
| 21 |  | for any laboratory
test authorized under this Article, that a  | 
| 22 |  | physician's handwritten signature
appear on the laboratory  | 
| 23 |  | test order form. The Illinois Department may,
however, impose  | 
| 24 |  | other appropriate requirements regarding laboratory test
order  | 
| 25 |  | documentation.
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| 26 |  |  Upon receipt of federal approval of an amendment to the  | 
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| 1 |  | Illinois Title XIX State Plan for this purpose, the Department  | 
| 2 |  | shall authorize the Chicago Public Schools (CPS) to procure a  | 
| 3 |  | vendor or vendors to manufacture eyeglasses for individuals  | 
| 4 |  | enrolled in a school within the CPS system. CPS shall ensure  | 
| 5 |  | that its vendor or vendors are enrolled as providers in the  | 
| 6 |  | medical assistance program and in any capitated Medicaid  | 
| 7 |  | managed care entity (MCE) serving individuals enrolled in a  | 
| 8 |  | school within the CPS system. Under any contract procured under  | 
| 9 |  | this provision, the vendor or vendors must serve only  | 
| 10 |  | individuals enrolled in a school within the CPS system. Claims  | 
| 11 |  | for services provided by CPS's vendor or vendors to recipients  | 
| 12 |  | of benefits in the medical assistance program under this Code,  | 
| 13 |  | the Children's Health Insurance Program, or the Covering ALL  | 
| 14 |  | KIDS Health Insurance Program shall be submitted to the  | 
| 15 |  | Department or the MCE in which the individual is enrolled for  | 
| 16 |  | payment and shall be reimbursed at the Department's or the  | 
| 17 |  | MCE's established rates or rate methodologies for eyeglasses.  | 
| 18 |  |  On and after July 1, 2012, the Department of Healthcare and  | 
| 19 |  | Family Services may provide the following services to
persons
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| 20 |  | eligible for assistance under this Article who are  | 
| 21 |  | participating in
education, training or employment programs  | 
| 22 |  | operated by the Department of Human
Services as successor to  | 
| 23 |  | the Department of Public Aid:
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| 24 |  |   (1) dental services provided by or under the  | 
| 25 |  |  supervision of a dentist; and
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| 26 |  |   (2) eyeglasses prescribed by a physician skilled in the  | 
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| 1 |  |  diseases of the
eye, or by an optometrist, whichever the  | 
| 2 |  |  person may select.
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| 3 |  |  Notwithstanding any other provision of this Code and  | 
| 4 |  | subject to federal approval, the Department may adopt rules to  | 
| 5 |  | allow a dentist who is volunteering his or her service at no  | 
| 6 |  | cost to render dental services through an enrolled  | 
| 7 |  | not-for-profit health clinic without the dentist personally  | 
| 8 |  | enrolling as a participating provider in the medical assistance  | 
| 9 |  | program. A not-for-profit health clinic shall include a public  | 
| 10 |  | health clinic or Federally Qualified Health Center or other  | 
| 11 |  | enrolled provider, as determined by the Department, through  | 
| 12 |  | which dental services covered under this Section are performed.  | 
| 13 |  | The Department shall establish a process for payment of claims  | 
| 14 |  | for reimbursement for covered dental services rendered under  | 
| 15 |  | this provision.  | 
| 16 |  |  The Illinois Department, by rule, may distinguish and  | 
| 17 |  | classify the
medical services to be provided only in accordance  | 
| 18 |  | with the classes of
persons designated in Section 5-2.
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| 19 |  |  The Department of Healthcare and Family Services must  | 
| 20 |  | provide coverage and reimbursement for amino acid-based  | 
| 21 |  | elemental formulas, regardless of delivery method, for the  | 
| 22 |  | diagnosis and treatment of (i) eosinophilic disorders and (ii)  | 
| 23 |  | short bowel syndrome when the prescribing physician has issued  | 
| 24 |  | a written order stating that the amino acid-based elemental  | 
| 25 |  | formula is medically necessary.
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| 26 |  |  The Illinois Department shall authorize the provision of,  | 
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| 1 |  | and shall
authorize payment for, screening by low-dose  | 
| 2 |  | mammography for the presence of
occult breast cancer for women  | 
| 3 |  | 35 years of age or older who are eligible
for medical  | 
| 4 |  | assistance under this Article, as follows: | 
| 5 |  |   (A) A baseline
mammogram for women 35 to 39 years of  | 
| 6 |  |  age.
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| 7 |  |   (B) An annual mammogram for women 40 years of age or  | 
| 8 |  |  older. | 
| 9 |  |   (C) A mammogram at the age and intervals considered  | 
| 10 |  |  medically necessary by the woman's health care provider for  | 
| 11 |  |  women under 40 years of age and having a family history of  | 
| 12 |  |  breast cancer, prior personal history of breast cancer,  | 
| 13 |  |  positive genetic testing, or other risk factors. | 
| 14 |  |   (D) A comprehensive ultrasound screening of an entire  | 
| 15 |  |  breast or breasts if a mammogram demonstrates  | 
| 16 |  |  heterogeneous or dense breast tissue, when medically  | 
| 17 |  |  necessary as determined by a physician licensed to practice  | 
| 18 |  |  medicine in all of its branches.  | 
| 19 |  |  All screenings
shall
include a physical breast exam,  | 
| 20 |  | instruction on self-examination and
information regarding the  | 
| 21 |  | frequency of self-examination and its value as a
preventative  | 
| 22 |  | tool. For purposes of this Section, "low-dose mammography"  | 
| 23 |  | means
the x-ray examination of the breast using equipment  | 
| 24 |  | dedicated specifically
for mammography, including the x-ray  | 
| 25 |  | tube, filter, compression device,
and image receptor, with an  | 
| 26 |  | average radiation exposure delivery
of less than one rad per  | 
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| 1 |  | breast for 2 views of an average size breast.
The term also  | 
| 2 |  | includes digital mammography.
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| 3 |  |  On and after January 1, 2012, providers participating in a  | 
| 4 |  | quality improvement program approved by the Department shall be  | 
| 5 |  | reimbursed for screening and diagnostic mammography at the same  | 
| 6 |  | rate as the Medicare program's rates, including the increased  | 
| 7 |  | reimbursement for digital mammography. | 
| 8 |  |  The Department shall convene an expert panel including  | 
| 9 |  | representatives of hospitals, free-standing mammography  | 
| 10 |  | facilities, and doctors, including radiologists, to establish  | 
| 11 |  | quality standards. | 
| 12 |  |  Subject to federal approval, the Department shall  | 
| 13 |  | establish a rate methodology for mammography at federally  | 
| 14 |  | qualified health centers and other encounter-rate clinics.  | 
| 15 |  | These clinics or centers may also collaborate with other  | 
| 16 |  | hospital-based mammography facilities. | 
| 17 |  |  The Department shall establish a methodology to remind  | 
| 18 |  | women who are age-appropriate for screening mammography, but  | 
| 19 |  | who have not received a mammogram within the previous 18  | 
| 20 |  | months, of the importance and benefit of screening mammography. | 
| 21 |  |  The Department shall establish a performance goal for  | 
| 22 |  | primary care providers with respect to their female patients  | 
| 23 |  | over age 40 receiving an annual mammogram. This performance  | 
| 24 |  | goal shall be used to provide additional reimbursement in the  | 
| 25 |  | form of a quality performance bonus to primary care providers  | 
| 26 |  | who meet that goal. | 
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| 1 |  |  The Department shall devise a means of case-managing or  | 
| 2 |  | patient navigation for beneficiaries diagnosed with breast  | 
| 3 |  | cancer. This program shall initially operate as a pilot program  | 
| 4 |  | in areas of the State with the highest incidence of mortality  | 
| 5 |  | related to breast cancer. At least one pilot program site shall  | 
| 6 |  | be in the metropolitan Chicago area and at least one site shall  | 
| 7 |  | be outside the metropolitan Chicago area. An evaluation of the  | 
| 8 |  | pilot program shall be carried out measuring health outcomes  | 
| 9 |  | and cost of care for those served by the pilot program compared  | 
| 10 |  | to similarly situated patients who are not served by the pilot  | 
| 11 |  | program.  | 
| 12 |  |  Any medical or health care provider shall immediately  | 
| 13 |  | recommend, to
any pregnant woman who is being provided prenatal  | 
| 14 |  | services and is suspected
of drug abuse or is addicted as  | 
| 15 |  | defined in the Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse
and Dependency  | 
| 16 |  | Act, referral to a local substance abuse treatment provider
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| 17 |  | licensed by the Department of Human Services or to a licensed
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| 18 |  | hospital which provides substance abuse treatment services.  | 
| 19 |  | The Department of Healthcare and Family Services
shall assure  | 
| 20 |  | coverage for the cost of treatment of the drug abuse or
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| 21 |  | addiction for pregnant recipients in accordance with the  | 
| 22 |  | Illinois Medicaid
Program in conjunction with the Department of  | 
| 23 |  | Human Services.
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| 24 |  |  All medical providers providing medical assistance to  | 
| 25 |  | pregnant women
under this Code shall receive information from  | 
| 26 |  | the Department on the
availability of services under the Drug  | 
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| 1 |  | Free Families with a Future or any
comparable program providing  | 
| 2 |  | case management services for addicted women,
including  | 
| 3 |  | information on appropriate referrals for other social services
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| 4 |  | that may be needed by addicted women in addition to treatment  | 
| 5 |  | for addiction.
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| 6 |  |  The Illinois Department, in cooperation with the  | 
| 7 |  | Departments of Human
Services (as successor to the Department  | 
| 8 |  | of Alcoholism and Substance
Abuse) and Public Health, through a  | 
| 9 |  | public awareness campaign, may
provide information concerning  | 
| 10 |  | treatment for alcoholism and drug abuse and
addiction, prenatal  | 
| 11 |  | health care, and other pertinent programs directed at
reducing  | 
| 12 |  | the number of drug-affected infants born to recipients of  | 
| 13 |  | medical
assistance.
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| 14 |  |  Neither the Department of Healthcare and Family Services  | 
| 15 |  | nor the Department of Human
Services shall sanction the  | 
| 16 |  | recipient solely on the basis of
her substance abuse.
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| 17 |  |  The Illinois Department shall establish such regulations  | 
| 18 |  | governing
the dispensing of health services under this Article  | 
| 19 |  | as it shall deem
appropriate. The Department
should
seek the  | 
| 20 |  | advice of formal professional advisory committees appointed by
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| 21 |  | the Director of the Illinois Department for the purpose of  | 
| 22 |  | providing regular
advice on policy and administrative matters,  | 
| 23 |  | information dissemination and
educational activities for  | 
| 24 |  | medical and health care providers, and
consistency in  | 
| 25 |  | procedures to the Illinois Department.
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| 26 |  |  The Illinois Department may develop and contract with  | 
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| 1 |  | Partnerships of
medical providers to arrange medical services  | 
| 2 |  | for persons eligible under
Section 5-2 of this Code.  | 
| 3 |  | Implementation of this Section may be by
demonstration projects  | 
| 4 |  | in certain geographic areas. The Partnership shall
be  | 
| 5 |  | represented by a sponsor organization. The Department, by rule,  | 
| 6 |  | shall
develop qualifications for sponsors of Partnerships.  | 
| 7 |  | Nothing in this
Section shall be construed to require that the  | 
| 8 |  | sponsor organization be a
medical organization.
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| 9 |  |  The sponsor must negotiate formal written contracts with  | 
| 10 |  | medical
providers for physician services, inpatient and  | 
| 11 |  | outpatient hospital care,
home health services, treatment for  | 
| 12 |  | alcoholism and substance abuse, and
other services determined  | 
| 13 |  | necessary by the Illinois Department by rule for
delivery by  | 
| 14 |  | Partnerships. Physician services must include prenatal and
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| 15 |  | obstetrical care. The Illinois Department shall reimburse  | 
| 16 |  | medical services
delivered by Partnership providers to clients  | 
| 17 |  | in target areas according to
provisions of this Article and the  | 
| 18 |  | Illinois Health Finance Reform Act,
except that:
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| 19 |  |   (1) Physicians participating in a Partnership and  | 
| 20 |  |  providing certain
services, which shall be determined by  | 
| 21 |  |  the Illinois Department, to persons
in areas covered by the  | 
| 22 |  |  Partnership may receive an additional surcharge
for such  | 
| 23 |  |  services.
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| 24 |  |   (2) The Department may elect to consider and negotiate  | 
| 25 |  |  financial
incentives to encourage the development of  | 
| 26 |  |  Partnerships and the efficient
delivery of medical care.
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| 1 |  |   (3) Persons receiving medical services through  | 
| 2 |  |  Partnerships may receive
medical and case management  | 
| 3 |  |  services above the level usually offered
through the  | 
| 4 |  |  medical assistance program.
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| 5 |  |  Medical providers shall be required to meet certain  | 
| 6 |  | qualifications to
participate in Partnerships to ensure the  | 
| 7 |  | delivery of high quality medical
services. These  | 
| 8 |  | qualifications shall be determined by rule of the Illinois
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| 9 |  | Department and may be higher than qualifications for  | 
| 10 |  | participation in the
medical assistance program. Partnership  | 
| 11 |  | sponsors may prescribe reasonable
additional qualifications  | 
| 12 |  | for participation by medical providers, only with
the prior  | 
| 13 |  | written approval of the Illinois Department.
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| 14 |  |  Nothing in this Section shall limit the free choice of  | 
| 15 |  | practitioners,
hospitals, and other providers of medical  | 
| 16 |  | services by clients.
In order to ensure patient freedom of  | 
| 17 |  | choice, the Illinois Department shall
immediately promulgate  | 
| 18 |  | all rules and take all other necessary actions so that
provided  | 
| 19 |  | services may be accessed from therapeutically certified  | 
| 20 |  | optometrists
to the full extent of the Illinois Optometric  | 
| 21 |  | Practice Act of 1987 without
discriminating between service  | 
| 22 |  | providers.
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| 23 |  |  The Department shall apply for a waiver from the United  | 
| 24 |  | States Health
Care Financing Administration to allow for the  | 
| 25 |  | implementation of
Partnerships under this Section.
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| 26 |  |  The Illinois Department shall require health care  | 
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| 1 |  | providers to maintain
records that document the medical care  | 
| 2 |  | and services provided to recipients
of Medical Assistance under  | 
| 3 |  | this Article. Such records must be retained for a period of not  | 
| 4 |  | less than 6 years from the date of service or as provided by  | 
| 5 |  | applicable State law, whichever period is longer, except that  | 
| 6 |  | if an audit is initiated within the required retention period  | 
| 7 |  | then the records must be retained until the audit is completed  | 
| 8 |  | and every exception is resolved. The Illinois Department shall
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| 9 |  | require health care providers to make available, when  | 
| 10 |  | authorized by the
patient, in writing, the medical records in a  | 
| 11 |  | timely fashion to other
health care providers who are treating  | 
| 12 |  | or serving persons eligible for
Medical Assistance under this  | 
| 13 |  | Article. All dispensers of medical services
shall be required  | 
| 14 |  | to maintain and retain business and professional records
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| 15 |  | sufficient to fully and accurately document the nature, scope,  | 
| 16 |  | details and
receipt of the health care provided to persons  | 
| 17 |  | eligible for medical
assistance under this Code, in accordance  | 
| 18 |  | with regulations promulgated by
the Illinois Department. The  | 
| 19 |  | rules and regulations shall require that proof
of the receipt  | 
| 20 |  | of prescription drugs, dentures, prosthetic devices and
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| 21 |  | eyeglasses by eligible persons under this Section accompany  | 
| 22 |  | each claim
for reimbursement submitted by the dispenser of such  | 
| 23 |  | medical services.
No such claims for reimbursement shall be  | 
| 24 |  | approved for payment by the Illinois
Department without such  | 
| 25 |  | proof of receipt, unless the Illinois Department
shall have put  | 
| 26 |  | into effect and shall be operating a system of post-payment
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| 1 |  | audit and review which shall, on a sampling basis, be deemed  | 
| 2 |  | adequate by
the Illinois Department to assure that such drugs,  | 
| 3 |  | dentures, prosthetic
devices and eyeglasses for which payment  | 
| 4 |  | is being made are actually being
received by eligible  | 
| 5 |  | recipients. Within 90 days after the effective date of
this  | 
| 6 |  | amendatory Act of 1984, the Illinois Department shall establish  | 
| 7 |  | a
current list of acquisition costs for all prosthetic devices  | 
| 8 |  | and any
other items recognized as medical equipment and  | 
| 9 |  | supplies reimbursable under
this Article and shall update such  | 
| 10 |  | list on a quarterly basis, except that
the acquisition costs of  | 
| 11 |  | all prescription drugs shall be updated no
less frequently than  | 
| 12 |  | every 30 days as required by Section 5-5.12.
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| 13 |  |  The rules and regulations of the Illinois Department shall  | 
| 14 |  | require
that a written statement including the required opinion  | 
| 15 |  | of a physician
shall accompany any claim for reimbursement for  | 
| 16 |  | abortions, or induced
miscarriages or premature births. This  | 
| 17 |  | statement shall indicate what
procedures were used in providing  | 
| 18 |  | such medical services.
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| 19 |  |  Notwithstanding any other law to the contrary, the Illinois  | 
| 20 |  | Department shall, within 365 days after July 22, 2013, (the  | 
| 21 |  | effective date of Public Act 98-104), establish procedures to  | 
| 22 |  | permit skilled care facilities licensed under the Nursing Home  | 
| 23 |  | Care Act to submit monthly billing claims for reimbursement  | 
| 24 |  | purposes. Following development of these procedures, the  | 
| 25 |  | Department shall have an additional 365 days to test the  | 
| 26 |  | viability of the new system and to ensure that any necessary  | 
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| 1 |  | operational or structural changes to its information  | 
| 2 |  | technology platforms are implemented.  | 
| 3 |  |  Notwithstanding any other law to the contrary, the Illinois  | 
| 4 |  | Department shall, within 365 days after August 15, 2014 (the  | 
| 5 |  | effective date of Public Act 98-963) this amendatory Act of the  | 
| 6 |  | 98th General Assembly, establish procedures to permit ID/DD  | 
| 7 |  | facilities licensed under the ID/DD Community Care Act to  | 
| 8 |  | submit monthly billing claims for reimbursement purposes.  | 
| 9 |  | Following development of these procedures, the Department  | 
| 10 |  | shall have an additional 365 days to test the viability of the  | 
| 11 |  | new system and to ensure that any necessary operational or  | 
| 12 |  | structural changes to its information technology platforms are  | 
| 13 |  | implemented.  | 
| 14 |  |  The Illinois Department shall require all dispensers of  | 
| 15 |  | medical
services, other than an individual practitioner or  | 
| 16 |  | group of practitioners,
desiring to participate in the Medical  | 
| 17 |  | Assistance program
established under this Article to disclose  | 
| 18 |  | all financial, beneficial,
ownership, equity, surety or other  | 
| 19 |  | interests in any and all firms,
corporations, partnerships,  | 
| 20 |  | associations, business enterprises, joint
ventures, agencies,  | 
| 21 |  | institutions or other legal entities providing any
form of  | 
| 22 |  | health care services in this State under this Article.
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| 23 |  |  The Illinois Department may require that all dispensers of  | 
| 24 |  | medical
services desiring to participate in the medical  | 
| 25 |  | assistance program
established under this Article disclose,  | 
| 26 |  | under such terms and conditions as
the Illinois Department may  | 
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| 1 |  | by rule establish, all inquiries from clients
and attorneys  | 
| 2 |  | regarding medical bills paid by the Illinois Department, which
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| 3 |  | inquiries could indicate potential existence of claims or liens  | 
| 4 |  | for the
Illinois Department.
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| 5 |  |  Enrollment of a vendor
shall be
subject to a provisional  | 
| 6 |  | period and shall be conditional for one year. During the period  | 
| 7 |  | of conditional enrollment, the Department may
terminate the  | 
| 8 |  | vendor's eligibility to participate in, or may disenroll the  | 
| 9 |  | vendor from, the medical assistance
program without cause.  | 
| 10 |  | Unless otherwise specified, such termination of eligibility or  | 
| 11 |  | disenrollment is not subject to the
Department's hearing  | 
| 12 |  | process.
However, a disenrolled vendor may reapply without  | 
| 13 |  | penalty. 
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| 14 |  |  The Department has the discretion to limit the conditional  | 
| 15 |  | enrollment period for vendors based upon category of risk of  | 
| 16 |  | the vendor. | 
| 17 |  |  Prior to enrollment and during the conditional enrollment  | 
| 18 |  | period in the medical assistance program, all vendors shall be  | 
| 19 |  | subject to enhanced oversight, screening, and review based on  | 
| 20 |  | the risk of fraud, waste, and abuse that is posed by the  | 
| 21 |  | category of risk of the vendor. The Illinois Department shall  | 
| 22 |  | establish the procedures for oversight, screening, and review,  | 
| 23 |  | which may include, but need not be limited to: criminal and  | 
| 24 |  | financial background checks; fingerprinting; license,  | 
| 25 |  | certification, and authorization verifications; unscheduled or  | 
| 26 |  | unannounced site visits; database checks; prepayment audit  | 
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| 
 | 
| 1 |  | reviews; audits; payment caps; payment suspensions; and other  | 
| 2 |  | screening as required by federal or State law. | 
| 3 |  |  The Department shall define or specify the following: (i)  | 
| 4 |  | by provider notice, the "category of risk of the vendor" for  | 
| 5 |  | each type of vendor, which shall take into account the level of  | 
| 6 |  | screening applicable to a particular category of vendor under  | 
| 7 |  | federal law and regulations; (ii) by rule or provider notice,  | 
| 8 |  | the maximum length of the conditional enrollment period for  | 
| 9 |  | each category of risk of the vendor; and (iii) by rule, the  | 
| 10 |  | hearing rights, if any, afforded to a vendor in each category  | 
| 11 |  | of risk of the vendor that is terminated or disenrolled during  | 
| 12 |  | the conditional enrollment period.  | 
| 13 |  |  To be eligible for payment consideration, a vendor's  | 
| 14 |  | payment claim or bill, either as an initial claim or as a  | 
| 15 |  | resubmitted claim following prior rejection, must be received  | 
| 16 |  | by the Illinois Department, or its fiscal intermediary, no  | 
| 17 |  | later than 180 days after the latest date on the claim on which  | 
| 18 |  | medical goods or services were provided, with the following  | 
| 19 |  | exceptions: | 
| 20 |  |   (1) In the case of a provider whose enrollment is in  | 
| 21 |  |  process by the Illinois Department, the 180-day period  | 
| 22 |  |  shall not begin until the date on the written notice from  | 
| 23 |  |  the Illinois Department that the provider enrollment is  | 
| 24 |  |  complete. | 
| 25 |  |   (2) In the case of errors attributable to the Illinois  | 
| 26 |  |  Department or any of its claims processing intermediaries  | 
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| 
 | 
| 1 |  |  which result in an inability to receive, process, or  | 
| 2 |  |  adjudicate a claim, the 180-day period shall not begin  | 
| 3 |  |  until the provider has been notified of the error. | 
| 4 |  |   (3) In the case of a provider for whom the Illinois  | 
| 5 |  |  Department initiates the monthly billing process. | 
| 6 |  |   (4) In the case of a provider operated by a unit of  | 
| 7 |  |  local government with a population exceeding 3,000,000  | 
| 8 |  |  when local government funds finance federal participation  | 
| 9 |  |  for claims payments.  | 
| 10 |  |  For claims for services rendered during a period for which  | 
| 11 |  | a recipient received retroactive eligibility, claims must be  | 
| 12 |  | filed within 180 days after the Department determines the  | 
| 13 |  | applicant is eligible. For claims for which the Illinois  | 
| 14 |  | Department is not the primary payer, claims must be submitted  | 
| 15 |  | to the Illinois Department within 180 days after the final  | 
| 16 |  | adjudication by the primary payer. | 
| 17 |  |  In the case of long term care facilities, within 5 days of  | 
| 18 |  | receipt by the facility of required prescreening information,  | 
| 19 |  | data for new admissions shall be entered into the Medical  | 
| 20 |  | Electronic Data Interchange (MEDI) or the Recipient  | 
| 21 |  | Eligibility Verification (REV) System or successor system, and  | 
| 22 |  | within 15 days of receipt by the facility of required  | 
| 23 |  | prescreening information, admission documents shall be  | 
| 24 |  | submitted through MEDI or REV or shall be submitted directly to  | 
| 25 |  | the Department of Human Services using required admission  | 
| 26 |  | forms. Effective September
1, 2014, admission documents,  | 
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| 
 | 
| 1 |  | including all prescreening
information, must be submitted  | 
| 2 |  | through MEDI or REV. Confirmation numbers assigned to an  | 
| 3 |  | accepted transaction shall be retained by a facility to verify  | 
| 4 |  | timely submittal. Once an admission transaction has been  | 
| 5 |  | completed, all resubmitted claims following prior rejection  | 
| 6 |  | are subject to receipt no later than 180 days after the  | 
| 7 |  | admission transaction has been completed. | 
| 8 |  |  Claims that are not submitted and received in compliance  | 
| 9 |  | with the foregoing requirements shall not be eligible for  | 
| 10 |  | payment under the medical assistance program, and the State  | 
| 11 |  | shall have no liability for payment of those claims. | 
| 12 |  |  To the extent consistent with applicable information and  | 
| 13 |  | privacy, security, and disclosure laws, State and federal  | 
| 14 |  | agencies and departments shall provide the Illinois Department  | 
| 15 |  | access to confidential and other information and data necessary  | 
| 16 |  | to perform eligibility and payment verifications and other  | 
| 17 |  | Illinois Department functions. This includes, but is not  | 
| 18 |  | limited to: information pertaining to licensure;  | 
| 19 |  | certification; earnings; immigration status; citizenship; wage  | 
| 20 |  | reporting; unearned and earned income; pension income;  | 
| 21 |  | employment; supplemental security income; social security  | 
| 22 |  | numbers; National Provider Identifier (NPI) numbers; the  | 
| 23 |  | National Practitioner Data Bank (NPDB); program and agency  | 
| 24 |  | exclusions; taxpayer identification numbers; tax delinquency;  | 
| 25 |  | corporate information; and death records. | 
| 26 |  |  The Illinois Department shall enter into agreements with  | 
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| 
 | 
| 1 |  | State agencies and departments, and is authorized to enter into  | 
| 2 |  | agreements with federal agencies and departments, under which  | 
| 3 |  | such agencies and departments shall share data necessary for  | 
| 4 |  | medical assistance program integrity functions and oversight.  | 
| 5 |  | The Illinois Department shall develop, in cooperation with  | 
| 6 |  | other State departments and agencies, and in compliance with  | 
| 7 |  | applicable federal laws and regulations, appropriate and  | 
| 8 |  | effective methods to share such data. At a minimum, and to the  | 
| 9 |  | extent necessary to provide data sharing, the Illinois  | 
| 10 |  | Department shall enter into agreements with State agencies and  | 
| 11 |  | departments, and is authorized to enter into agreements with  | 
| 12 |  | federal agencies and departments, including but not limited to:  | 
| 13 |  | the Secretary of State; the Department of Revenue; the  | 
| 14 |  | Department of Public Health; the Department of Human Services;  | 
| 15 |  | and the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation. | 
| 16 |  |  Beginning in fiscal year 2013, the Illinois Department  | 
| 17 |  | shall set forth a request for information to identify the  | 
| 18 |  | benefits of a pre-payment, post-adjudication, and post-edit  | 
| 19 |  | claims system with the goals of streamlining claims processing  | 
| 20 |  | and provider reimbursement, reducing the number of pending or  | 
| 21 |  | rejected claims, and helping to ensure a more transparent  | 
| 22 |  | adjudication process through the utilization of: (i) provider  | 
| 23 |  | data verification and provider screening technology; and (ii)  | 
| 24 |  | clinical code editing; and (iii) pre-pay, pre- or  | 
| 25 |  | post-adjudicated predictive modeling with an integrated case  | 
| 26 |  | management system with link analysis. Such a request for  | 
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 | 
| 1 |  | information shall not be considered as a request for proposal  | 
| 2 |  | or as an obligation on the part of the Illinois Department to  | 
| 3 |  | take any action or acquire any products or services.  | 
| 4 |  |  The Illinois Department shall establish policies,  | 
| 5 |  | procedures,
standards and criteria by rule for the acquisition,  | 
| 6 |  | repair and replacement
of orthotic and prosthetic devices and  | 
| 7 |  | durable medical equipment. Such
rules shall provide, but not be  | 
| 8 |  | limited to, the following services: (1)
immediate repair or  | 
| 9 |  | replacement of such devices by recipients; and (2) rental,  | 
| 10 |  | lease, purchase or lease-purchase of
durable medical equipment  | 
| 11 |  | in a cost-effective manner, taking into
consideration the  | 
| 12 |  | recipient's medical prognosis, the extent of the
recipient's  | 
| 13 |  | needs, and the requirements and costs for maintaining such
 | 
| 14 |  | equipment. Subject to prior approval, such rules shall enable a  | 
| 15 |  | recipient to temporarily acquire and
use alternative or  | 
| 16 |  | substitute devices or equipment pending repairs or
 | 
| 17 |  | replacements of any device or equipment previously authorized  | 
| 18 |  | for such
recipient by the Department.
 | 
| 19 |  |  The Department shall execute, relative to the nursing home  | 
| 20 |  | prescreening
project, written inter-agency agreements with the  | 
| 21 |  | Department of Human
Services and the Department on Aging, to  | 
| 22 |  | effect the following: (i) intake
procedures and common  | 
| 23 |  | eligibility criteria for those persons who are receiving
 | 
| 24 |  | non-institutional services; and (ii) the establishment and  | 
| 25 |  | development of
non-institutional services in areas of the State  | 
| 26 |  | where they are not currently
available or are undeveloped; and  | 
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| 
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| 1 |  | (iii) notwithstanding any other provision of law, subject to  | 
| 2 |  | federal approval, on and after July 1, 2012, an increase in the  | 
| 3 |  | determination of need (DON) scores from 29 to 37 for applicants  | 
| 4 |  | for institutional and home and community-based long term care;  | 
| 5 |  | if and only if federal approval is not granted, the Department  | 
| 6 |  | may, in conjunction with other affected agencies, implement  | 
| 7 |  | utilization controls or changes in benefit packages to  | 
| 8 |  | effectuate a similar savings amount for this population; and  | 
| 9 |  | (iv) no later than July 1, 2013, minimum level of care  | 
| 10 |  | eligibility criteria for institutional and home and  | 
| 11 |  | community-based long term care; and (v) no later than October  | 
| 12 |  | 1, 2013, establish procedures to permit long term care  | 
| 13 |  | providers access to eligibility scores for individuals with an  | 
| 14 |  | admission date who are seeking or receiving services from the  | 
| 15 |  | long term care provider. In order to select the minimum level  | 
| 16 |  | of care eligibility criteria, the Governor shall establish a  | 
| 17 |  | workgroup that includes affected agency representatives and  | 
| 18 |  | stakeholders representing the institutional and home and  | 
| 19 |  | community-based long term care interests. This Section shall  | 
| 20 |  | not restrict the Department from implementing lower level of  | 
| 21 |  | care eligibility criteria for community-based services in  | 
| 22 |  | circumstances where federal approval has been granted.
 | 
| 23 |  |  The Illinois Department shall develop and operate, in  | 
| 24 |  | cooperation
with other State Departments and agencies and in  | 
| 25 |  | compliance with
applicable federal laws and regulations,  | 
| 26 |  | appropriate and effective
systems of health care evaluation and  | 
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| 
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| 1 |  | programs for monitoring of
utilization of health care services  | 
| 2 |  | and facilities, as it affects
persons eligible for medical  | 
| 3 |  | assistance under this Code.
 | 
| 4 |  |  The Illinois Department shall report annually to the  | 
| 5 |  | General Assembly,
no later than the second Friday in April of  | 
| 6 |  | 1979 and each year
thereafter, in regard to:
 | 
| 7 |  |   (a) actual statistics and trends in utilization of  | 
| 8 |  |  medical services by
public aid recipients;
 | 
| 9 |  |   (b) actual statistics and trends in the provision of  | 
| 10 |  |  the various medical
services by medical vendors;
 | 
| 11 |  |   (c) current rate structures and proposed changes in  | 
| 12 |  |  those rate structures
for the various medical vendors; and
 | 
| 13 |  |   (d) efforts at utilization review and control by the  | 
| 14 |  |  Illinois Department.
 | 
| 15 |  |  The period covered by each report shall be the 3 years  | 
| 16 |  | ending on the June
30 prior to the report. The report shall  | 
| 17 |  | include suggested legislation
for consideration by the General  | 
| 18 |  | Assembly. The filing of one copy of the
report with the  | 
| 19 |  | Speaker, one copy with the Minority Leader and one copy
with  | 
| 20 |  | the Clerk of the House of Representatives, one copy with the  | 
| 21 |  | President,
one copy with the Minority Leader and one copy with  | 
| 22 |  | the Secretary of the
Senate, one copy with the Legislative  | 
| 23 |  | Research Unit, and such additional
copies
with the State  | 
| 24 |  | Government Report Distribution Center for the General
Assembly  | 
| 25 |  | as is required under paragraph (t) of Section 7 of the State
 | 
| 26 |  | Library Act shall be deemed sufficient to comply with this  | 
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| 1 |  | Section.
 | 
| 2 |  |  Rulemaking authority to implement Public Act 95-1045, if  | 
| 3 |  | any, is conditioned on the rules being adopted in accordance  | 
| 4 |  | with all provisions of the Illinois Administrative Procedure  | 
| 5 |  | Act and all rules and procedures of the Joint Committee on  | 
| 6 |  | Administrative Rules; any purported rule not so adopted, for  | 
| 7 |  | whatever reason, is unauthorized.  | 
| 8 |  |  On and after July 1, 2012, the Department shall reduce any  | 
| 9 |  | rate of reimbursement for services or other payments or alter  | 
| 10 |  | any methodologies authorized by this Code to reduce any rate of  | 
| 11 |  | reimbursement for services or other payments in accordance with  | 
| 12 |  | Section 5-5e.  | 
| 13 |  |  Because kidney transplantation can be an appropriate, cost  | 
| 14 |  | effective
alternative to renal dialysis when medically  | 
| 15 |  | necessary and notwithstanding the provisions of Section 1-11 of  | 
| 16 |  | this Code, beginning October 1, 2014, the Department shall  | 
| 17 |  | cover kidney transplantation for noncitizens with end-stage  | 
| 18 |  | renal disease who are not eligible for comprehensive medical  | 
| 19 |  | benefits, who meet the residency requirements of Section 5-3 of  | 
| 20 |  | this Code, and who would otherwise meet the financial  | 
| 21 |  | requirements of the appropriate class of eligible persons under  | 
| 22 |  | Section 5-2 of this Code. To qualify for coverage of kidney  | 
| 23 |  | transplantation, such person must be receiving emergency renal  | 
| 24 |  | dialysis services covered by the Department. Providers under  | 
| 25 |  | this Section shall be prior approved and certified by the  | 
| 26 |  | Department to perform kidney transplantation and the services  | 
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| 1 |  | under this Section shall be limited to services associated with  | 
| 2 |  | kidney transplantation.  | 
| 3 |  |  Notwithstanding any other provision of this Code to the  | 
| 4 |  | contrary, on or after July 1, 2015, all FDA approved forms of  | 
| 5 |  | medication assisted treatment prescribed for the treatment of  | 
| 6 |  | alcohol dependence or treatment of opioid dependence shall be  | 
| 7 |  | covered under both fee for service and managed care medical  | 
| 8 |  | assistance programs for persons who are otherwise eligible for  | 
| 9 |  | medical assistance under this Article and shall not be subject  | 
| 10 |  | to any (1) utilization control, other than those established  | 
| 11 |  | under the American Society of Addiction Medicine patient  | 
| 12 |  | placement criteria,
(2) prior authorization mandate, or (3)  | 
| 13 |  | lifetime restriction limit
mandate.  | 
| 14 |  |  On or after July 1, 2015, opioid antagonists prescribed for  | 
| 15 |  | the treatment of an opioid overdose, including the medication  | 
| 16 |  | product, administration devices, and any pharmacy fees related  | 
| 17 |  | to the dispensing and administration of the opioid antagonist,  | 
| 18 |  | shall be covered under the medical assistance program for  | 
| 19 |  | persons who are otherwise eligible for medical assistance under  | 
| 20 |  | this Article. As used in this Section, "opioid antagonist"  | 
| 21 |  | means a drug that binds to opioid receptors and blocks or  | 
| 22 |  | inhibits the effect of opioids acting on those receptors,  | 
| 23 |  | including, but not limited to, naloxone hydrochloride or any  | 
| 24 |  | other similarly acting drug approved by the U.S. Food and Drug  | 
| 25 |  | Administration.  | 
| 26 |  | (Source: P.A. 97-48, eff. 6-28-11; 97-638, eff. 1-1-12; 97-689,  | 
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| 1 |  | eff. 6-14-12; 97-1061, eff. 8-24-12; 98-104, Article 9, Section  | 
| 2 |  | 9-5, eff. 7-22-13; 98-104, Article 12, Section 12-20, eff.  | 
| 3 |  | 7-22-13; 98-303, eff. 8-9-13; 98-463, eff. 8-16-13; 98-651,  | 
| 4 |  | eff. 6-16-14; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14; 98-963, eff. 8-15-14;  | 
| 5 |  | revised 10-2-14.)
 | 
| 6 |  |  (305 ILCS 5/5-16.8)
 | 
| 7 |  |  Sec. 5-16.8. Required health benefits. The medical  | 
| 8 |  | assistance program
shall
(i) provide the post-mastectomy care  | 
| 9 |  | benefits required to be covered by a policy of
accident and  | 
| 10 |  | health insurance under Section 356t and the coverage required
 | 
| 11 |  | under Sections 356g.5, 356u, 356w, 356x, and 356z.6 of the  | 
| 12 |  | Illinois
Insurance Code and (ii) be subject to the provisions  | 
| 13 |  | of Sections 356z.19, and 364.01, 370c, and 370c.1 of the  | 
| 14 |  | Illinois
Insurance Code.
 | 
| 15 |  |  On and after July 1, 2012, the Department shall reduce any  | 
| 16 |  | rate of reimbursement for services or other payments or alter  | 
| 17 |  | any methodologies authorized by this Code to reduce any rate of  | 
| 18 |  | reimbursement for services or other payments in accordance with  | 
| 19 |  | Section 5-5e.  | 
| 20 |  | (Source: P.A. 97-282, eff. 8-9-11; 97-689, eff. 6-14-12.)
 | 
| 21 |  |  Section 5-88. The Environmental Protection Act is amended  | 
| 22 |  | by changing Section 22.55 as follows:
 | 
| 23 |  |  (415 ILCS 5/22.55) | 
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| 1 |  |  Sec. 22.55. Household Waste Drop-off Points.  | 
| 2 |  |  (a) Findings; Purpose and Intent. | 
| 3 |  |   (1) The General Assembly finds that protection of human  | 
| 4 |  |  health and the environment can be enhanced if certain  | 
| 5 |  |  commonly generated household wastes are managed separately  | 
| 6 |  |  from the general household waste stream. | 
| 7 |  |   (2) The purpose of this Section is to provide, to the  | 
| 8 |  |  extent allowed under federal law, a method for managing  | 
| 9 |  |  certain types of household waste separately from the  | 
| 10 |  |  general household waste stream. | 
| 11 |  |  (b) Definitions. For the purposes of this Section: | 
| 12 |  |   "Controlled substance" means a controlled substance as  | 
| 13 |  |  defined in the Illinois Controlled Substances Act.  | 
| 14 |  |   "Household waste" means waste generated from a single  | 
| 15 |  |  residence or multiple residences. | 
| 16 |  |   "Household waste drop-off point" means the portion of a  | 
| 17 |  |  site or facility used solely for the receipt and temporary  | 
| 18 |  |  storage of household waste. | 
| 19 |  |   "One-day household waste collection event" means a  | 
| 20 |  |  household waste drop-off point approved by the Agency under  | 
| 21 |  |  subsection (d) of this Section. | 
| 22 |  |   "Personal care product" means an item other than a  | 
| 23 |  |  pharmaceutical product that is consumed or applied by an  | 
| 24 |  |  individual for personal health, hygiene, or cosmetic  | 
| 25 |  |  reasons. Personal care products include, but are not  | 
| 26 |  |  limited to, items used in bathing, dressing, or grooming. | 
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| 1 |  |   "Pharmaceutical product" means medicine or a product  | 
| 2 |  |  containing medicine. A pharmaceutical product may be sold  | 
| 3 |  |  by prescription or over the counter. "Pharmaceutical  | 
| 4 |  |  product" does not include (i) medicine that contains a  | 
| 5 |  |  radioactive component or a product that contains a  | 
| 6 |  |  radioactive component or (ii) a controlled substance. | 
| 7 |  |  (c) Except as otherwise provided in Agency rules, the  | 
| 8 |  | following requirements apply to each household waste drop-off  | 
| 9 |  | point other than a one-day household waste collection event: | 
| 10 |  |   (1) A household waste drop-off point must not accept  | 
| 11 |  |  waste other than the following types of household waste:  | 
| 12 |  |  pharmaceutical products, personal care products, batteries  | 
| 13 |  |  other than lead-acid batteries, paints, automotive fluids,  | 
| 14 |  |  compact fluorescent lightbulbs, mercury thermometers, and  | 
| 15 |  |  mercury thermostats. A household waste drop-off point may  | 
| 16 |  |  accept controlled substances in accordance with federal  | 
| 17 |  |  law. | 
| 18 |  |   (2) Except as provided in subdivision (c)(2) of this  | 
| 19 |  |  Section, household waste drop-off points must be located at  | 
| 20 |  |  a site or facility where the types of products accepted at  | 
| 21 |  |  the household waste drop-off point are lawfully sold,  | 
| 22 |  |  distributed, or dispensed. For example, household waste  | 
| 23 |  |  drop-off points that accept prescription pharmaceutical  | 
| 24 |  |  products must be located at a site or facility where  | 
| 25 |  |  prescription pharmaceutical products are sold,  | 
| 26 |  |  distributed, or dispensed. | 
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| 1 |  |    (A) Subdivision (c)(2) of this Section does not  | 
| 2 |  |  apply to household waste drop-off points operated by a  | 
| 3 |  |  government or school entity, or by an association or  | 
| 4 |  |  other organization of government or school entities. | 
| 5 |  |    (B) Household waste drop-off points that accept  | 
| 6 |  |  mercury thermometers can be located at any site or  | 
| 7 |  |  facility where non-mercury thermometers are sold,  | 
| 8 |  |  distributed, or dispensed. | 
| 9 |  |    (C) Household waste drop-off points that accept  | 
| 10 |  |  mercury thermostats can be located at any site or  | 
| 11 |  |  facility where non-mercury thermostats are sold,  | 
| 12 |  |  distributed, or dispensed. | 
| 13 |  |   (3) The location of acceptance for each type of waste  | 
| 14 |  |  accepted at the household waste drop-off point must be  | 
| 15 |  |  clearly identified. Locations where pharmaceutical  | 
| 16 |  |  products are accepted must also include a copy of the sign  | 
| 17 |  |  required under subsection (j) of this Section. | 
| 18 |  |   (4) Household waste must be accepted only from private  | 
| 19 |  |  individuals. Waste must not be accepted from other persons,  | 
| 20 |  |  including, but not limited to, owners and operators of  | 
| 21 |  |  rented or leased residences where the household waste was  | 
| 22 |  |  generated, commercial haulers, and other commercial,  | 
| 23 |  |  industrial, agricultural, and government operations or  | 
| 24 |  |  entities. | 
| 25 |  |   (5) If more than one type of household waste is  | 
| 26 |  |  accepted, each type of household waste must be managed  | 
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| 1 |  |  separately prior to its packaging for off-site transfer. | 
| 2 |  |   (6) Household waste must not be stored for longer than  | 
| 3 |  |  90 days after its receipt, except as otherwise approved by  | 
| 4 |  |  the Agency in writing. | 
| 5 |  |   (7) Household waste must be managed in a manner that  | 
| 6 |  |  protects against releases of the waste, prevents  | 
| 7 |  |  nuisances, and otherwise protects human health and the  | 
| 8 |  |  environment. Household waste must also be properly secured  | 
| 9 |  |  to prevent unauthorized public access to the waste,  | 
| 10 |  |  including, but not limited to, preventing access to the  | 
| 11 |  |  waste during the non-business hours of the site or facility  | 
| 12 |  |  on which the household waste drop-off point is located.  | 
| 13 |  |  Containers in which pharmaceutical products are collected  | 
| 14 |  |  must be clearly marked "No Controlled Substances", unless  | 
| 15 |  |  the household waste drop-off point accepts controlled  | 
| 16 |  |  substances in accordance with federal law. | 
| 17 |  |   (8) Management of the household waste must be limited  | 
| 18 |  |  to the following: (i) acceptance of the waste, (ii)  | 
| 19 |  |  temporary storage of the waste prior to transfer, and (iii)  | 
| 20 |  |  off-site transfer of the waste and packaging for off-site  | 
| 21 |  |  transfer. | 
| 22 |  |   (9) Off-site transfer of the household waste must  | 
| 23 |  |  comply with federal and State laws and regulations. | 
| 24 |  |  (d) One-day household waste collection events. To further  | 
| 25 |  | aid in the collection of certain household wastes, the Agency  | 
| 26 |  | may approve the operation of one-day household waste collection  | 
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| 1 |  | events. The Agency shall not approve a one-day household waste  | 
| 2 |  | collection event at the same site or facility for more than one  | 
| 3 |  | day each calendar quarter. Requests for approval must be  | 
| 4 |  | submitted on forms prescribed by the Agency. The Agency must  | 
| 5 |  | issue its approval in writing, and it may impose conditions as  | 
| 6 |  | necessary to protect human health and the environment and to  | 
| 7 |  | otherwise accomplish the purposes of this Act. One-day  | 
| 8 |  | household waste collection events must be operated in  | 
| 9 |  | accordance with the Agency's approval, including all  | 
| 10 |  | conditions contained in the approval. The following  | 
| 11 |  | requirements apply to all one-day household waste collection  | 
| 12 |  | events, in addition to the conditions contained in the Agency's  | 
| 13 |  | approval: | 
| 14 |  |   (1) Waste accepted at the event must be limited to  | 
| 15 |  |  household waste and must not include garbage, landscape  | 
| 16 |  |  waste, controlled substances, or other waste excluded by  | 
| 17 |  |  the Agency in the Agency's approval or any conditions  | 
| 18 |  |  contained in the approval. A one-day household waste  | 
| 19 |  |  collection event may accept controlled substances in  | 
| 20 |  |  accordance with federal law. | 
| 21 |  |   (2) Household waste must be accepted only from private  | 
| 22 |  |  individuals. Waste must not be accepted from other persons,  | 
| 23 |  |  including, but not limited to, owners and operators of  | 
| 24 |  |  rented or leased residences where the household waste was  | 
| 25 |  |  generated, commercial haulers, and other commercial,  | 
| 26 |  |  industrial, agricultural, and government operations or  | 
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| 1 |  |  entities. | 
| 2 |  |   (3) Household waste must be managed in a manner that  | 
| 3 |  |  protects against releases of the waste, prevents  | 
| 4 |  |  nuisances, and otherwise protects human health and the  | 
| 5 |  |  environment. Household waste must also be properly secured  | 
| 6 |  |  to prevent public access to the waste, including, but not  | 
| 7 |  |  limited to, preventing access to the waste during the  | 
| 8 |  |  event's non-business hours. | 
| 9 |  |   (4) Management of the household waste must be limited  | 
| 10 |  |  to the following: (i) acceptance of the waste, (ii)  | 
| 11 |  |  temporary storage of the waste before transfer, and (iii)  | 
| 12 |  |  off-site transfer of the waste or packaging for off-site  | 
| 13 |  |  transfer. | 
| 14 |  |   (5) Except as otherwise approved by the Agency, all  | 
| 15 |  |  household waste received at the collection event must be  | 
| 16 |  |  transferred off-site by the end of the day following the  | 
| 17 |  |  collection event. | 
| 18 |  |   (6) The transfer and ultimate disposition of household  | 
| 19 |  |  waste received at the collection event must comply with the  | 
| 20 |  |  Agency's approval, including all conditions contained in  | 
| 21 |  |  the approval. | 
| 22 |  |  (e) The Agency may adopt rules governing the operation of  | 
| 23 |  | household waste drop-off points other than one-day household  | 
| 24 |  | waste collection events. Those rules must be designed to  | 
| 25 |  | protect against releases of waste to the environment, prevent  | 
| 26 |  | nuisances, and otherwise protect human health and the  | 
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| 1 |  | environment. As necessary to address different circumstances,  | 
| 2 |  | the regulations may contain different requirements for  | 
| 3 |  | different types of household waste and different types of  | 
| 4 |  | household waste drop-off points, and the regulations may modify  | 
| 5 |  | the requirements set forth in subsection (c) of this Section.  | 
| 6 |  | The regulations may include, but are not limited to, the  | 
| 7 |  | following: (i) identification of additional types of household  | 
| 8 |  | waste that can be collected at household waste drop-off points,  | 
| 9 |  | (ii) identification of the different types of household wastes  | 
| 10 |  | that can be received at different household waste drop-off  | 
| 11 |  | points, (iii) the maximum amounts of each type of household  | 
| 12 |  | waste that can be stored at household waste drop-off points at  | 
| 13 |  | any one time, and (iv) the maximum time periods each type of  | 
| 14 |  | household waste can be stored at household waste drop-off  | 
| 15 |  | points. | 
| 16 |  |  (f) Prohibitions. | 
| 17 |  |   (1) Except as authorized in a permit issued by the  | 
| 18 |  |  Agency, no person shall cause or allow the operation of a  | 
| 19 |  |  household waste drop-off point other than a one-day  | 
| 20 |  |  household waste collection event in violation of this  | 
| 21 |  |  Section or any regulations adopted under this Section. | 
| 22 |  |   (2) No person shall cause or allow the operation of a  | 
| 23 |  |  one-day household waste collection event in violation of  | 
| 24 |  |  this Section or the Agency's approval issued under  | 
| 25 |  |  subsection (d) of this Section, including all conditions  | 
| 26 |  |  contained in the approval. | 
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| 1 |  |  (g) Permit exemptions. | 
| 2 |  |   (1) No permit is required under subdivision (d)(1) of  | 
| 3 |  |  Section 21 of this Act for the operation of a household  | 
| 4 |  |  waste drop-off point other than a one-day household waste  | 
| 5 |  |  collection event if the household waste drop-off point is  | 
| 6 |  |  operated in accordance with this Section and all  | 
| 7 |  |  regulations adopted under this Section. | 
| 8 |  |   (2) No permit is required under subdivision (d)(1) of  | 
| 9 |  |  Section 21 of this Act for the operation of a one-day  | 
| 10 |  |  household waste collection event if the event is operated  | 
| 11 |  |  in accordance with this Section and the Agency's approval  | 
| 12 |  |  issued under subsection (d) of this Section, including all  | 
| 13 |  |  conditions contained in the approval, or for the operation  | 
| 14 |  |  of a household waste collection event by the Agency. | 
| 15 |  |  (h) This Section does not apply to the following: | 
| 16 |  |   (1) Persons accepting household waste that they are  | 
| 17 |  |  authorized to accept under a permit issued by the Agency. | 
| 18 |  |   (2) Sites or facilities operated pursuant to an  | 
| 19 |  |  intergovernmental agreement entered into with the Agency  | 
| 20 |  |  under Section 22.16b(d) of this Act. | 
| 21 |  |  (i) The Agency, in consultation with the Department of  | 
| 22 |  | Public Health, must develop and implement a public information  | 
| 23 |  | program regarding household waste drop-off points that accept  | 
| 24 |  | pharmaceutical products, as well as mail-back programs  | 
| 25 |  | authorized under federal law. | 
| 26 |  |  (j) The Agency must develop a sign that provides  | 
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| 1 |  | information on the proper disposal of unused pharmaceutical  | 
| 2 |  | products. The sign shall include information on approved  | 
| 3 |  | drop-off sites or list a website where updated information on  | 
| 4 |  | drop-off sites can be accessed. The sign shall also include  | 
| 5 |  | information on mail-back programs and self-disposal. The  | 
| 6 |  | Agency shall make a copy of the sign available for downloading  | 
| 7 |  | from its website. Every pharmacy shall display the sign in the  | 
| 8 |  | area where medications are dispensed and shall also display any  | 
| 9 |  | signs the Agency develops regarding local take-back programs or  | 
| 10 |  | household waste collection events. These signs shall be no  | 
| 11 |  | larger than 8.5 inches by 11 inches.  | 
| 12 |  |  (k) If an entity chooses to participate as a household  | 
| 13 |  | waste drop-off point, then it must follow the provisions of  | 
| 14 |  | this Section and any rules the Agency may adopt governing  | 
| 15 |  | household waste drop-off points. 
 | 
| 16 |  |  (l) The Agency shall establish, by rule, a statewide  | 
| 17 |  | medication take-back program by June 1, 2016 to ensure that  | 
| 18 |  | there are pharmaceutical product disposal options regularly  | 
| 19 |  | available for residents across the State. No private entity may  | 
| 20 |  | be compelled to serve as or fund a take-back location or  | 
| 21 |  | program. Medications collected and disposed of under the  | 
| 22 |  | program shall include controlled substances approved for  | 
| 23 |  | collection by federal law. All medications collected and  | 
| 24 |  | disposed of under the program must be managed in accordance  | 
| 25 |  | with all applicable federal and State laws and regulations. The  | 
| 26 |  | Agency shall issue a report to the General Assembly by June 1,  | 
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| 1 |  | 2019 detailing the amount of pharmaceutical products annually  | 
| 2 |  | collected under the program, as well as any legislative  | 
| 3 |  | recommendations.  | 
| 4 |  | (Source: P.A. 96-121, eff. 8-4-09.)
 | 
| 5 |  |  Section 5-90. The Criminal Code of 2012 is amended by  | 
| 6 |  | changing Section 29B-1 as follows:
 | 
| 7 |  |  (720 ILCS 5/29B-1) (from Ch. 38, par. 29B-1)
 | 
| 8 |  |  Sec. 29B-1. (a) A person commits the offense of money  | 
| 9 |  | laundering: 
 | 
| 10 |  |   (1) when, knowing that the property involved in a  | 
| 11 |  |  financial transaction represents the proceeds of some form  | 
| 12 |  |  of unlawful activity, he or she conducts or attempts to  | 
| 13 |  |  conduct such a financial transaction which in fact involves  | 
| 14 |  |  criminally derived property: | 
| 15 |  |    (A) with the intent to promote the carrying on of  | 
| 16 |  |  the unlawful activity from which the criminally  | 
| 17 |  |  derived property was obtained; or | 
| 18 |  |    (B) where he or she knows or reasonably should know  | 
| 19 |  |  that the financial transaction is designed in whole or  | 
| 20 |  |  in part: | 
| 21 |  |     (i) to conceal or disguise the nature, the  | 
| 22 |  |  location, the source, the ownership or the control  | 
| 23 |  |  of the criminally derived property; or | 
| 24 |  |     (ii) to avoid a transaction reporting  | 
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| 1 |  |  requirement under State law; or | 
| 2 |  |   (1.5) when he or she transports, transmits, or  | 
| 3 |  |  transfers, or attempts to transport, transmit, or transfer  | 
| 4 |  |  a monetary instrument: | 
| 5 |  |    (A) with the intent to promote the carrying on of  | 
| 6 |  |  the unlawful activity from which the criminally  | 
| 7 |  |  derived property was obtained; or | 
| 8 |  |    (B) knowing, or having reason to know, that the  | 
| 9 |  |  financial transaction is designed in whole or in part: | 
| 10 |  |     (i) to conceal or disguise the nature, the  | 
| 11 |  |  location, the source, the ownership or the control  | 
| 12 |  |  of the criminally derived property; or | 
| 13 |  |     (ii) to avoid a transaction reporting  | 
| 14 |  |  requirement under State law;
or
 | 
| 15 |  |   (2) when, with the intent to:
 | 
| 16 |  |    (A) promote the carrying on of a specified criminal  | 
| 17 |  |  activity as defined
in this Article; or
 | 
| 18 |  |    (B) conceal or disguise the nature, location,  | 
| 19 |  |  source, ownership, or
control of property believed to  | 
| 20 |  |  be the proceeds of a specified criminal
activity as  | 
| 21 |  |  defined by subdivision (b)(6); or | 
| 22 |  |    (C) avoid a transaction reporting requirement  | 
| 23 |  |  under State law,
 | 
| 24 |  |  he or she conducts or attempts to conduct a financial  | 
| 25 |  |  transaction
involving property he or she believes to be the  | 
| 26 |  |  proceeds of specified criminal
activity as defined by  | 
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| 1 |  |  subdivision (b)(6) or property used to conduct or
 | 
| 2 |  |  facilitate specified criminal activity as defined by  | 
| 3 |  |  subdivision (b)(6).
 | 
| 4 |  |  (b) As used in this Section:
 | 
| 5 |  |   (0.5) "Knowing that the property involved in a  | 
| 6 |  |  financial transaction represents the proceeds of some form  | 
| 7 |  |  of unlawful activity" means that the person knew the  | 
| 8 |  |  property involved in the transaction represented proceeds  | 
| 9 |  |  from some form, though not necessarily which form, of  | 
| 10 |  |  activity that constitutes a felony under State, federal, or  | 
| 11 |  |  foreign law.
 | 
| 12 |  |   (1) "Financial transaction" means a purchase, sale,  | 
| 13 |  |  loan, pledge, gift,
transfer, delivery or other  | 
| 14 |  |  disposition utilizing criminally derived property,
and  | 
| 15 |  |  with respect to financial institutions, includes a  | 
| 16 |  |  deposit, withdrawal,
transfer between accounts, exchange  | 
| 17 |  |  of currency, loan, extension of credit,
purchase or sale of  | 
| 18 |  |  any stock, bond, certificate of deposit or other monetary
 | 
| 19 |  |  instrument, use of safe deposit box, or any other payment,  | 
| 20 |  |  transfer or delivery by, through, or to a
financial  | 
| 21 |  |  institution.
For purposes of clause (a)(2) of this Section,  | 
| 22 |  |  the term "financial
transaction" also
means a transaction  | 
| 23 |  |  which without regard to whether the funds, monetary
 | 
| 24 |  |  instruments, or real or personal property involved in the  | 
| 25 |  |  transaction are
criminally derived, any transaction which  | 
| 26 |  |  in any way or degree: (1) involves
the movement of funds by  | 
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| 1 |  |  wire or any other means; (2) involves one or more
monetary  | 
| 2 |  |  instruments; or (3) the transfer of title to any real or  | 
| 3 |  |  personal
property.
The receipt by an attorney of bona fide  | 
| 4 |  |  fees for the purpose
of legal representation is not a  | 
| 5 |  |  financial transaction for purposes of this
Section.
 | 
| 6 |  |   (2) "Financial institution" means any bank; saving and  | 
| 7 |  |  loan
association; trust company; agency or branch of a  | 
| 8 |  |  foreign bank in the
United States; currency exchange;  | 
| 9 |  |  credit union, mortgage banking
institution; pawnbroker;  | 
| 10 |  |  loan or finance company; operator of a credit card
system;  | 
| 11 |  |  issuer, redeemer or cashier of travelers checks, checks or  | 
| 12 |  |  money
orders; dealer in precious metals, stones or jewels;  | 
| 13 |  |  broker or dealer in
securities or commodities; investment  | 
| 14 |  |  banker; or investment company.
 | 
| 15 |  |   (3) "Monetary instrument" means United States coins  | 
| 16 |  |  and currency;
coins and currency of a foreign country;  | 
| 17 |  |  travelers checks; personal checks,
bank checks, and money  | 
| 18 |  |  orders; investment securities; bearer
negotiable  | 
| 19 |  |  instruments; bearer investment securities; or bearer  | 
| 20 |  |  securities
and certificates of stock in such form that  | 
| 21 |  |  title thereto passes upon
delivery.
 | 
| 22 |  |   (4) "Criminally derived property" means: (A) any  | 
| 23 |  |  property, real or personal, constituting
or
derived from  | 
| 24 |  |  proceeds obtained, directly or indirectly, from activity  | 
| 25 |  |  that constitutes a felony under State, federal, or foreign  | 
| 26 |  |  law; or (B) any property
represented to be property  | 
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| 1 |  |  constituting or derived from proceeds obtained,
directly  | 
| 2 |  |  or indirectly, from activity that constitutes a felony  | 
| 3 |  |  under State, federal, or foreign law. 
 | 
| 4 |  |   (5) "Conduct" or "conducts" includes, in addition to  | 
| 5 |  |  its ordinary
meaning, initiating, concluding, or  | 
| 6 |  |  participating in initiating or concluding
a transaction.
 | 
| 7 |  |   (6) "Specified criminal activity" means any violation  | 
| 8 |  |  of Section 29D-15.1
(720 ILCS 5/29D-15.1) and any violation  | 
| 9 |  |  of Article 29D of this Code.
 | 
| 10 |  |   (7) "Director" means the Director of State Police or  | 
| 11 |  |  his or her designated agents. | 
| 12 |  |   (8) "Department" means the Department of State Police  | 
| 13 |  |  of the State of Illinois or its successor agency.
 | 
| 14 |  |   (9) "Transaction reporting requirement under State  | 
| 15 |  |  law" means any violation as defined under the Currency  | 
| 16 |  |  Reporting Act.
 | 
| 17 |  |  (c) Sentence.
 | 
| 18 |  |   (1) Laundering of criminally derived property of a  | 
| 19 |  |  value not exceeding
$10,000 is a Class 3 felony;
 | 
| 20 |  |   (2) Laundering of criminally derived property of a  | 
| 21 |  |  value exceeding
$10,000 but not exceeding $100,000 is a  | 
| 22 |  |  Class 2 felony;
 | 
| 23 |  |   (3) Laundering of criminally derived property of a  | 
| 24 |  |  value exceeding
$100,000 but not exceeding $500,000 is a  | 
| 25 |  |  Class 1 felony;
 | 
| 26 |  |   (4) Money laundering in violation of subsection (a)(2)  | 
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| 1 |  |  of this Section
is a Class X felony;
 | 
| 2 |  |   (5) Laundering of criminally derived property of a  | 
| 3 |  |  value exceeding
$500,000 is a
Class 1 non-probationable  | 
| 4 |  |  felony;
 | 
| 5 |  |   (6) In a prosecution under clause (a)(1.5)(B)(ii) of  | 
| 6 |  |  this Section, the sentences are as follows: | 
| 7 |  |    (A) Laundering of property of a value not exceeding  | 
| 8 |  |  $10,000 is a Class 3 felony; | 
| 9 |  |    (B) Laundering of property of a value exceeding  | 
| 10 |  |  $10,000 but not exceeding $100,000 is a Class 2 felony; | 
| 11 |  |    (C) Laundering of property of a value exceeding  | 
| 12 |  |  $100,000 but not exceeding $500,000 is a Class 1  | 
| 13 |  |  felony; | 
| 14 |  |    (D) Laundering of property of a value exceeding  | 
| 15 |  |  $500,000 is a Class 1 non-probationable felony.  | 
| 16 |  |  (d) Evidence. In a prosecution under this Article, either  | 
| 17 |  | party may introduce the following evidence pertaining to the  | 
| 18 |  | issue of whether the property or proceeds were known to be some  | 
| 19 |  | form of criminally derived property or from some form of  | 
| 20 |  | unlawful activity: | 
| 21 |  |   (1) A financial transaction was conducted or  | 
| 22 |  |  structured or attempted in violation of the reporting  | 
| 23 |  |  requirements of any State or federal law; or | 
| 24 |  |   (2) A financial transaction was conducted or attempted  | 
| 25 |  |  with the use of a false or fictitious name or a forged  | 
| 26 |  |  instrument; or | 
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| 1 |  |   (3) A falsely altered or completed written instrument  | 
| 2 |  |  or a written instrument that contains any materially false  | 
| 3 |  |  personal identifying information was made, used, offered  | 
| 4 |  |  or presented, whether accepted or not, in connection with a  | 
| 5 |  |  financial transaction; or | 
| 6 |  |   (4) A financial transaction was structured or  | 
| 7 |  |  attempted to be structured so as to falsely report the  | 
| 8 |  |  actual consideration or value of the transaction; or | 
| 9 |  |   (5) A money transmitter, a person engaged in a trade or  | 
| 10 |  |  business or any employee of a money transmitter or a person  | 
| 11 |  |  engaged in a trade or business, knows or reasonably should  | 
| 12 |  |  know that false personal identifying information has been  | 
| 13 |  |  presented and incorporates the false personal identifying  | 
| 14 |  |  information into any report or record; or | 
| 15 |  |   (6) The criminally derived property is transported or  | 
| 16 |  |  possessed in a fashion inconsistent with the ordinary or  | 
| 17 |  |  usual means of transportation or possession of such  | 
| 18 |  |  property and where the property is discovered in the  | 
| 19 |  |  absence of any documentation or other indicia of legitimate  | 
| 20 |  |  origin or right to such property; or | 
| 21 |  |   (7) A person pays or receives substantially less than  | 
| 22 |  |  face value for one or more monetary instruments; or | 
| 23 |  |   (8) A person engages in a transaction involving one or  | 
| 24 |  |  more monetary instruments, where the physical condition or  | 
| 25 |  |  form of the monetary instrument or instruments makes it  | 
| 26 |  |  apparent that they are not the product of bona fide  | 
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| 1 |  |  business or financial transactions. | 
| 2 |  |  (e) Duty to enforce this Article. | 
| 3 |  |   (1) It is the duty of the Department of State Police,  | 
| 4 |  |  and its agents, officers, and investigators, to enforce all  | 
| 5 |  |  provisions of this Article, except those specifically  | 
| 6 |  |  delegated, and to cooperate with all agencies charged with  | 
| 7 |  |  the enforcement of the laws of the United States, or of any  | 
| 8 |  |  state, relating to money laundering. Only an agent,  | 
| 9 |  |  officer, or investigator designated by the Director may be  | 
| 10 |  |  authorized in accordance with this Section to serve seizure  | 
| 11 |  |  notices, warrants, subpoenas, and summonses under the  | 
| 12 |  |  authority of this State. | 
| 13 |  |   (2) Any agent, officer, investigator, or peace officer  | 
| 14 |  |  designated by the Director may: (A) make seizure of  | 
| 15 |  |  property pursuant to the provisions of this Article; and  | 
| 16 |  |  (B) perform such other law enforcement duties as the  | 
| 17 |  |  Director designates. It is the duty of all State's  | 
| 18 |  |  Attorneys to prosecute violations of this Article and  | 
| 19 |  |  institute legal proceedings as authorized under this  | 
| 20 |  |  Article. | 
| 21 |  |  (f) Protective orders. | 
| 22 |  |   (1) Upon application of the State, the court may enter  | 
| 23 |  |  a restraining order or injunction, require the execution of  | 
| 24 |  |  a satisfactory performance bond, or take any other action  | 
| 25 |  |  to preserve the availability of property described in  | 
| 26 |  |  subsection (h) for forfeiture under this Article: | 
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| 1 |  |    (A) upon the filing of an indictment, information,  | 
| 2 |  |  or complaint charging a violation of this Article for  | 
| 3 |  |  which forfeiture may be ordered under this Article and  | 
| 4 |  |  alleging that the property with respect to which the  | 
| 5 |  |  order is sought would be subject to forfeiture under  | 
| 6 |  |  this Article; or
 | 
| 7 |  |    (B) prior to the filing of such an indictment,  | 
| 8 |  |  information, or complaint, if, after notice to persons  | 
| 9 |  |  appearing to have an interest in the property and  | 
| 10 |  |  opportunity for a hearing, the court determines that: | 
| 11 |  |     (i) there is probable cause to believe that the  | 
| 12 |  |  State will prevail on the issue of forfeiture and  | 
| 13 |  |  that failure to enter the order will result in the  | 
| 14 |  |  property being destroyed, removed from the  | 
| 15 |  |  jurisdiction of the court, or otherwise made  | 
| 16 |  |  unavailable for forfeiture; and | 
| 17 |  |     (ii) the need to preserve the availability of  | 
| 18 |  |  the property through the entry of the requested  | 
| 19 |  |  order outweighs the hardship on any party against  | 
| 20 |  |  whom the order is to be entered. | 
| 21 |  |    Provided, however, that an order entered pursuant  | 
| 22 |  |  to subparagraph (B) shall be effective for not more  | 
| 23 |  |  than 90 days, unless extended by the court for good  | 
| 24 |  |  cause shown or unless an indictment, information,  | 
| 25 |  |  complaint, or administrative notice has been filed. | 
| 26 |  |   (2) A temporary restraining order under this  | 
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| 1 |  |  subsection may be entered upon application of the State  | 
| 2 |  |  without notice or opportunity for a hearing when an  | 
| 3 |  |  indictment, information, complaint, or administrative  | 
| 4 |  |  notice has not yet been filed with respect to the property,  | 
| 5 |  |  if the State demonstrates that there is probable cause to  | 
| 6 |  |  believe that the property with respect to which the order  | 
| 7 |  |  is sought would be subject to forfeiture under this Section  | 
| 8 |  |  and that provision of notice will jeopardize the  | 
| 9 |  |  availability of the property for forfeiture. Such a  | 
| 10 |  |  temporary order shall expire not more than 30 days after  | 
| 11 |  |  the date on which it is entered, unless extended for good  | 
| 12 |  |  cause shown or unless the party against whom it is entered  | 
| 13 |  |  consents to an extension for a longer period. A hearing  | 
| 14 |  |  requested concerning an order entered under this paragraph  | 
| 15 |  |  shall be held at the earliest possible time and prior to  | 
| 16 |  |  the expiration of the temporary order. | 
| 17 |  |   (3) The court may receive and consider, at a hearing  | 
| 18 |  |  held pursuant to this subsection (f), evidence and  | 
| 19 |  |  information that would be inadmissible under the Illinois  | 
| 20 |  |  rules of evidence.
 | 
| 21 |  |   (4) Order to repatriate and deposit. | 
| 22 |  |    (A) In general. Pursuant to its authority to enter  | 
| 23 |  |  a pretrial restraining order under this Section, the  | 
| 24 |  |  court may order a defendant to repatriate any property  | 
| 25 |  |  that may be seized and forfeited and to deposit that  | 
| 26 |  |  property pending trial with the Illinois State Police  | 
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| 1 |  |  or another law enforcement agency designated by the  | 
| 2 |  |  Illinois State Police. | 
| 3 |  |    (B) Failure to comply. Failure to comply with an  | 
| 4 |  |  order under this subsection (f) is punishable as a  | 
| 5 |  |  civil or criminal contempt of court.
 | 
| 6 |  |  (g) Warrant of seizure. The State may request the issuance  | 
| 7 |  | of a warrant authorizing the seizure of property described in  | 
| 8 |  | subsection (h) in the same manner as provided for a search  | 
| 9 |  | warrant. If the court determines that there is probable cause  | 
| 10 |  | to believe that the property to be seized would be subject to  | 
| 11 |  | forfeiture, the court shall issue a warrant authorizing the  | 
| 12 |  | seizure of such property. | 
| 13 |  |  (h) Forfeiture. | 
| 14 |  |   (1) The following are subject to forfeiture: | 
| 15 |  |    (A) any property, real or personal, constituting,  | 
| 16 |  |  derived from, or traceable to any proceeds the person  | 
| 17 |  |  obtained directly or indirectly, as a result of a  | 
| 18 |  |  violation of this Article; | 
| 19 |  |    (B) any of the person's property used, or intended  | 
| 20 |  |  to be used, in any manner or part, to commit, or to  | 
| 21 |  |  facilitate the commission of, a violation of this  | 
| 22 |  |  Article; | 
| 23 |  |    (C) all conveyances, including aircraft, vehicles  | 
| 24 |  |  or vessels, which are used, or intended for use, to  | 
| 25 |  |  transport, or in any manner to facilitate the  | 
| 26 |  |  transportation, sale, receipt, possession, or  | 
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| 1 |  |  concealment of property described in subparagraphs (A)  | 
| 2 |  |  and (B), but: | 
| 3 |  |     (i) no conveyance used by any person as a  | 
| 4 |  |  common carrier in the transaction of business as a  | 
| 5 |  |  common carrier is subject to forfeiture under this  | 
| 6 |  |  Section unless it appears that the owner or other  | 
| 7 |  |  person in charge of the conveyance is a consenting  | 
| 8 |  |  party or privy to a violation of this Article; | 
| 9 |  |     (ii) no conveyance is subject to forfeiture  | 
| 10 |  |  under this Section by reason of any act or omission  | 
| 11 |  |  which the owner proves to have been committed or  | 
| 12 |  |  omitted without his or her knowledge or consent; | 
| 13 |  |     (iii) a forfeiture of a conveyance encumbered  | 
| 14 |  |  by a bona fide security interest is subject to the  | 
| 15 |  |  interest of the secured party if he or she neither  | 
| 16 |  |  had knowledge of nor consented to the act or  | 
| 17 |  |  omission; | 
| 18 |  |    (D) all real property, including any right, title,  | 
| 19 |  |  and interest (including, but not limited to, any  | 
| 20 |  |  leasehold interest or the beneficial interest in a land  | 
| 21 |  |  trust) in the whole of any lot or tract of land and any  | 
| 22 |  |  appurtenances or improvements, which is used or  | 
| 23 |  |  intended to be used, in any manner or part, to commit,  | 
| 24 |  |  or in any manner to facilitate the commission of, any  | 
| 25 |  |  violation of this Article or that is the proceeds of  | 
| 26 |  |  any violation or act that constitutes a violation of  | 
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| 1 |  |  this Article.
 | 
| 2 |  |   (2) Property subject to forfeiture under this Article  | 
| 3 |  |  may be seized by the Director or any peace officer upon  | 
| 4 |  |  process or seizure warrant issued by any court having  | 
| 5 |  |  jurisdiction over the property. Seizure by the Director or  | 
| 6 |  |  any peace officer without process may be made: | 
| 7 |  |    (A) if the seizure is incident to a seizure  | 
| 8 |  |  warrant; | 
| 9 |  |    (B) if the property subject to seizure has been the  | 
| 10 |  |  subject of a prior judgment in favor of the State in a  | 
| 11 |  |  criminal proceeding, or in an injunction or forfeiture  | 
| 12 |  |  proceeding based upon this Article; | 
| 13 |  |    (C) if there is probable cause to believe that the  | 
| 14 |  |  property is directly or indirectly dangerous to health  | 
| 15 |  |  or safety; | 
| 16 |  |    (D) if there is probable cause to believe that the  | 
| 17 |  |  property is subject to forfeiture under this Article  | 
| 18 |  |  and the property is seized under circumstances in which  | 
| 19 |  |  a warrantless seizure or arrest would be reasonable; or | 
| 20 |  |    (E) in accordance with the Code of Criminal  | 
| 21 |  |  Procedure of 1963. | 
| 22 |  |   (3) In the event of seizure pursuant to paragraph (2),  | 
| 23 |  |  forfeiture proceedings shall be instituted in accordance  | 
| 24 |  |  with subsections (i) through (r). | 
| 25 |  |   (4) Property taken or detained under this Section shall  | 
| 26 |  |  not be subject to replevin, but is deemed to be in the  | 
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| 1 |  |  custody of the Director subject only to the order and  | 
| 2 |  |  judgments of the circuit court having jurisdiction over the  | 
| 3 |  |  forfeiture proceedings and the decisions of the State's  | 
| 4 |  |  Attorney under this Article. When property is seized under  | 
| 5 |  |  this Article, the seizing agency shall promptly conduct an  | 
| 6 |  |  inventory of the seized property and estimate the  | 
| 7 |  |  property's value and shall forward a copy of the inventory  | 
| 8 |  |  of seized property and the estimate of the property's value  | 
| 9 |  |  to the Director. Upon receiving notice of seizure, the  | 
| 10 |  |  Director may: | 
| 11 |  |    (A) place the property under seal; | 
| 12 |  |    (B) remove the property to a place designated by  | 
| 13 |  |  the Director; | 
| 14 |  |    (C) keep the property in the possession of the  | 
| 15 |  |  seizing agency; | 
| 16 |  |    (D) remove the property to a storage area for  | 
| 17 |  |  safekeeping or, if the property is a negotiable  | 
| 18 |  |  instrument or money and is not needed for evidentiary  | 
| 19 |  |  purposes, deposit it in an interest bearing account; | 
| 20 |  |    (E) place the property under constructive seizure  | 
| 21 |  |  by posting notice of pending forfeiture on it, by  | 
| 22 |  |  giving notice of pending forfeiture to its owners and  | 
| 23 |  |  interest holders, or by filing notice of pending  | 
| 24 |  |  forfeiture in any appropriate public record relating  | 
| 25 |  |  to the property; or | 
| 26 |  |    (F) provide for another agency or custodian,  | 
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| 1 |  |  including an owner, secured party, or lienholder, to  | 
| 2 |  |  take custody of the property upon the terms and  | 
| 3 |  |  conditions set by the Director. | 
| 4 |  |   (5) When property is forfeited under this Article, the  | 
| 5 |  |  Director shall sell all such property unless such property  | 
| 6 |  |  is required by law to be destroyed or is harmful to the  | 
| 7 |  |  public, and shall distribute the proceeds of the sale,  | 
| 8 |  |  together with any moneys forfeited or seized, in accordance  | 
| 9 |  |  with paragraph (6). However, upon the application of the  | 
| 10 |  |  seizing agency or prosecutor who was responsible for the  | 
| 11 |  |  investigation, arrest or arrests and prosecution which  | 
| 12 |  |  lead to the forfeiture, the Director may return any item of  | 
| 13 |  |  forfeited property to the seizing agency or prosecutor for  | 
| 14 |  |  official use in the enforcement of laws, if the agency or  | 
| 15 |  |  prosecutor can demonstrate that the item requested would be  | 
| 16 |  |  useful to the agency or prosecutor in its enforcement  | 
| 17 |  |  efforts. When any real property returned to the seizing  | 
| 18 |  |  agency is sold by the agency or its unit of government, the  | 
| 19 |  |  proceeds of the sale shall be delivered to the Director and  | 
| 20 |  |  distributed in accordance with paragraph (6). | 
| 21 |  |   (6) All monies and the sale proceeds of all other  | 
| 22 |  |  property forfeited and seized under this Article shall be  | 
| 23 |  |  distributed as follows: | 
| 24 |  |    (A) 65% shall be distributed to the metropolitan  | 
| 25 |  |  enforcement group, local, municipal, county, or State  | 
| 26 |  |  law enforcement agency or agencies which conducted or  | 
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| 1 |  |  participated in the investigation resulting in the  | 
| 2 |  |  forfeiture. The distribution shall bear a reasonable  | 
| 3 |  |  relationship to the degree of direct participation of  | 
| 4 |  |  the law enforcement agency in the effort resulting in  | 
| 5 |  |  the forfeiture, taking into account the total value of  | 
| 6 |  |  the property forfeited and the total law enforcement  | 
| 7 |  |  effort with respect to the violation of the law upon  | 
| 8 |  |  which the forfeiture is based. Amounts distributed to  | 
| 9 |  |  the agency or agencies shall be used for the  | 
| 10 |  |  enforcement of laws. | 
| 11 |  |    (B)(i) 12.5% shall be distributed to the Office of  | 
| 12 |  |  the State's Attorney of the county in which the  | 
| 13 |  |  prosecution resulting in the forfeiture was  | 
| 14 |  |  instituted, deposited in a special fund in the county  | 
| 15 |  |  treasury and appropriated to the State's Attorney for  | 
| 16 |  |  use in the enforcement of laws. In counties over  | 
| 17 |  |  3,000,000 population, 25% shall be distributed to the  | 
| 18 |  |  Office of the State's Attorney for use in the  | 
| 19 |  |  enforcement of laws. If the prosecution is undertaken  | 
| 20 |  |  solely by the Attorney General, the portion provided  | 
| 21 |  |  hereunder shall be distributed to the Attorney General  | 
| 22 |  |  for use in the enforcement of laws. | 
| 23 |  |     (ii) 12.5% shall be distributed to the Office  | 
| 24 |  |  of the State's Attorneys Appellate Prosecutor and  | 
| 25 |  |  deposited in the Narcotics Profit Forfeiture Fund  | 
| 26 |  |  of that office to be used for additional expenses  | 
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| 1 |  |  incurred in the investigation, prosecution and  | 
| 2 |  |  appeal of cases arising under laws. The Office of  | 
| 3 |  |  the State's Attorneys Appellate Prosecutor shall  | 
| 4 |  |  not receive distribution from cases brought in  | 
| 5 |  |  counties with over 3,000,000 population. | 
| 6 |  |    (C) 10% shall be retained by the Department of  | 
| 7 |  |  State Police for expenses related to the  | 
| 8 |  |  administration and sale of seized and forfeited  | 
| 9 |  |  property. | 
| 10 |  |   Moneys and the sale proceeds distributed to the  | 
| 11 |  |  Department of State Police under this Article shall be  | 
| 12 |  |  deposited in the Money Laundering Asset Recovery Fund  | 
| 13 |  |  created in the State treasury and shall be used by the  | 
| 14 |  |  Department of State Police for State law enforcement  | 
| 15 |  |  purposes.  | 
| 16 |  |   (7) All moneys and sale proceeds of property forfeited  | 
| 17 |  |  and seized under this Article and distributed according to  | 
| 18 |  |  paragraph (6) may also be used to purchase opioid  | 
| 19 |  |  antagonists as defined in Section 5-23 of the Alcoholism  | 
| 20 |  |  and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act.  | 
| 21 |  |  (i) Notice to owner or interest holder. | 
| 22 |  |   (1) Whenever notice of pending forfeiture or service of  | 
| 23 |  |  an in rem complaint is required under the provisions of  | 
| 24 |  |  this Article, such notice or service shall be given as  | 
| 25 |  |  follows: | 
| 26 |  |    (A) If the owner's or interest holder's name and  | 
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| 1 |  |  current address are known, then by either personal  | 
| 2 |  |  service or mailing a copy of the notice by certified  | 
| 3 |  |  mail, return receipt requested, to that address. For  | 
| 4 |  |  purposes of notice under this Section, if a person has  | 
| 5 |  |  been arrested for the conduct giving rise to the  | 
| 6 |  |  forfeiture, then the address provided to the arresting  | 
| 7 |  |  agency at the time of arrest shall be deemed to be that  | 
| 8 |  |  person's known address. Provided, however, if an owner  | 
| 9 |  |  or interest holder's address changes prior to the  | 
| 10 |  |  effective date of the notice of pending forfeiture, the  | 
| 11 |  |  owner or interest holder shall promptly notify the  | 
| 12 |  |  seizing agency of the change in address or, if the  | 
| 13 |  |  owner or interest holder's address changes subsequent  | 
| 14 |  |  to the effective date of the notice of pending  | 
| 15 |  |  forfeiture, the owner or interest holder shall  | 
| 16 |  |  promptly notify the State's Attorney of the change in  | 
| 17 |  |  address; or | 
| 18 |  |    (B) If the property seized is a conveyance, to the  | 
| 19 |  |  address reflected in the office of the agency or  | 
| 20 |  |  official in which title or interest to the conveyance  | 
| 21 |  |  is required by law to be recorded, then by mailing a  | 
| 22 |  |  copy of the notice by certified mail, return receipt  | 
| 23 |  |  requested, to that address; or | 
| 24 |  |    (C) If the owner's or interest holder's address is  | 
| 25 |  |  not known, and is not on record as provided in  | 
| 26 |  |  paragraph (B), then by publication for 3 successive  | 
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| 1 |  |  weeks in a newspaper of general circulation in the  | 
| 2 |  |  county in which the seizure occurred. | 
| 3 |  |   (2) Notice served under this Article is effective upon  | 
| 4 |  |  personal service, the last date of publication, or the  | 
| 5 |  |  mailing of written notice, whichever is earlier. | 
| 6 |  |  (j) Notice to State's Attorney. The law enforcement agency  | 
| 7 |  | seizing property for forfeiture under this Article shall,  | 
| 8 |  | within 90 days after seizure, notify the State's Attorney for  | 
| 9 |  | the county, either where an act or omission giving rise to the  | 
| 10 |  | forfeiture occurred or where the property was seized, of the  | 
| 11 |  | seizure of the property and the facts and circumstances giving  | 
| 12 |  | rise to the seizure and shall provide the State's Attorney with  | 
| 13 |  | the inventory of the property and its estimated value. When the  | 
| 14 |  | property seized for forfeiture is a vehicle, the law  | 
| 15 |  | enforcement agency seizing the property shall immediately  | 
| 16 |  | notify the Secretary of State that forfeiture proceedings are  | 
| 17 |  | pending regarding such vehicle. | 
| 18 |  |  (k) Non-judicial forfeiture. If non-real property that  | 
| 19 |  | exceeds $20,000 in value excluding the value of any conveyance,  | 
| 20 |  | or if real property is seized under the provisions of this  | 
| 21 |  | Article, the State's Attorney shall institute judicial in rem  | 
| 22 |  | forfeiture proceedings as described in subsection (l) of this  | 
| 23 |  | Section within 45 days from receipt of notice of seizure from  | 
| 24 |  | the seizing agency under subsection (j) of this Section.  | 
| 25 |  | However, if non-real property that does not exceed $20,000 in  | 
| 26 |  | value excluding the value of any conveyance is seized, the  | 
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| 1 |  | following procedure shall be used: | 
| 2 |  |   (1) If, after review of the facts surrounding the  | 
| 3 |  |  seizure, the State's Attorney is of the opinion that the  | 
| 4 |  |  seized property is subject to forfeiture, then within 45  | 
| 5 |  |  days after the receipt of notice of seizure from the  | 
| 6 |  |  seizing agency, the State's Attorney shall cause notice of  | 
| 7 |  |  pending forfeiture to be given to the owner of the property  | 
| 8 |  |  and all known interest holders of the property in  | 
| 9 |  |  accordance with subsection (i) of this Section. | 
| 10 |  |   (2) The notice of pending forfeiture must include a  | 
| 11 |  |  description of the property, the estimated value of the  | 
| 12 |  |  property, the date and place of seizure, the conduct giving  | 
| 13 |  |  rise to forfeiture or the violation of law alleged, and a  | 
| 14 |  |  summary of procedures and procedural rights applicable to  | 
| 15 |  |  the forfeiture action. | 
| 16 |  |   (3)(A) Any person claiming an interest in property  | 
| 17 |  |  which is the subject of notice under paragraph (1) of this  | 
| 18 |  |  subsection (k), must, in order to preserve any rights or  | 
| 19 |  |  claims to the property, within 45 days after the effective  | 
| 20 |  |  date of notice as described in subsection (i) of this  | 
| 21 |  |  Section, file a verified claim with the State's Attorney  | 
| 22 |  |  expressing his or her interest in the property. The claim  | 
| 23 |  |  must set forth: | 
| 24 |  |    (i) the caption of the proceedings as set forth on  | 
| 25 |  |  the notice of pending forfeiture and the name of the  | 
| 26 |  |  claimant; | 
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| 1 |  |    (ii) the address at which the claimant will accept  | 
| 2 |  |  mail; | 
| 3 |  |    (iii) the nature and extent of the claimant's  | 
| 4 |  |  interest in the property; | 
| 5 |  |    (iv) the date, identity of the transferor, and  | 
| 6 |  |  circumstances of the claimant's acquisition of the  | 
| 7 |  |  interest in the property;
 | 
| 8 |  |    (v) the name and address of all other persons known  | 
| 9 |  |  to have an interest in the property; | 
| 10 |  |    (vi) the specific provision of law relied on in  | 
| 11 |  |  asserting the property is not subject to forfeiture; | 
| 12 |  |    (vii) all essential facts supporting each  | 
| 13 |  |  assertion; and | 
| 14 |  |    (viii) the relief sought. | 
| 15 |  |   (B) If a claimant files the claim and deposits with the  | 
| 16 |  |  State's Attorney a cost bond, in the form of a cashier's  | 
| 17 |  |  check payable to the clerk of the court, in the sum of 10%  | 
| 18 |  |  of the reasonable value of the property as alleged by the  | 
| 19 |  |  State's Attorney or the sum of $100, whichever is greater,  | 
| 20 |  |  upon condition that, in the case of forfeiture, the  | 
| 21 |  |  claimant must pay all costs and expenses of forfeiture  | 
| 22 |  |  proceedings, then the State's Attorney shall institute  | 
| 23 |  |  judicial in rem forfeiture proceedings and deposit the cost  | 
| 24 |  |  bond with the clerk of the court as described in subsection  | 
| 25 |  |  (l) of this Section within 45 days after receipt of the  | 
| 26 |  |  claim and cost bond. In lieu of a cost bond, a person  | 
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| 1 |  |  claiming interest in the seized property may file, under  | 
| 2 |  |  penalty of perjury, an indigency affidavit which has been  | 
| 3 |  |  approved by a circuit court judge. | 
| 4 |  |   (C) If none of the seized property is forfeited in the  | 
| 5 |  |  judicial in rem proceeding, the clerk of the court shall  | 
| 6 |  |  return to the claimant, unless the court orders otherwise,  | 
| 7 |  |  90% of the sum which has been deposited and shall retain as  | 
| 8 |  |  costs 10% of the money deposited. If any of the seized  | 
| 9 |  |  property is forfeited under the judicial forfeiture  | 
| 10 |  |  proceeding, the clerk of the court shall transfer 90% of  | 
| 11 |  |  the sum which has been deposited to the State's Attorney  | 
| 12 |  |  prosecuting the civil forfeiture to be applied to the costs  | 
| 13 |  |  of prosecution and the clerk shall retain as costs 10% of  | 
| 14 |  |  the sum deposited. | 
| 15 |  |   (4) If no claim is filed or bond given within the 45  | 
| 16 |  |  day period as described in paragraph (3) of this subsection  | 
| 17 |  |  (k), the State's Attorney shall declare the property  | 
| 18 |  |  forfeited and shall promptly notify the owner and all known  | 
| 19 |  |  interest holders of the property and the Director of State  | 
| 20 |  |  Police of the declaration of forfeiture and the Director  | 
| 21 |  |  shall dispose of the property in accordance with law. | 
| 22 |  |  (l) Judicial in rem procedures. If property seized under  | 
| 23 |  | the provisions of this Article is non-real property that  | 
| 24 |  | exceeds $20,000 in value excluding the value of any conveyance,  | 
| 25 |  | or is real property, or a claimant has filed a claim and a cost  | 
| 26 |  | bond under paragraph (3) of subsection (k) of this Section, the  | 
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| 1 |  | following judicial in rem procedures shall apply: | 
| 2 |  |   (1) If, after a review of the facts surrounding the  | 
| 3 |  |  seizure, the State's Attorney is of the opinion that the  | 
| 4 |  |  seized property is subject to forfeiture, then within 45  | 
| 5 |  |  days of the receipt of notice of seizure by the seizing  | 
| 6 |  |  agency or the filing of the claim and cost bond, whichever  | 
| 7 |  |  is later, the State's Attorney shall institute judicial  | 
| 8 |  |  forfeiture proceedings by filing a verified complaint for  | 
| 9 |  |  forfeiture and, if the claimant has filed a claim and cost  | 
| 10 |  |  bond, by depositing the cost bond with the clerk of the  | 
| 11 |  |  court. When authorized by law, a forfeiture must be ordered  | 
| 12 |  |  by a court on an action in rem brought by a State's  | 
| 13 |  |  Attorney under a verified complaint for forfeiture. | 
| 14 |  |   (2) During the probable cause portion of the judicial  | 
| 15 |  |  in rem proceeding wherein the State presents its  | 
| 16 |  |  case-in-chief, the court must receive and consider, among  | 
| 17 |  |  other things, all relevant hearsay evidence and  | 
| 18 |  |  information. The laws of evidence relating to civil actions  | 
| 19 |  |  apply to all other portions of the judicial in rem  | 
| 20 |  |  proceeding. | 
| 21 |  |   (3) Only an owner of or interest holder in the property  | 
| 22 |  |  may file an answer asserting a claim against the property  | 
| 23 |  |  in the action in rem. For purposes of this Section, the  | 
| 24 |  |  owner or interest holder shall be referred to as claimant.  | 
| 25 |  |  Upon motion of the State, the court shall first hold a  | 
| 26 |  |  hearing, wherein any claimant must establish by a  | 
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| 1 |  |  preponderance of the evidence, that he or she has a lawful,  | 
| 2 |  |  legitimate ownership interest in the property and that it  | 
| 3 |  |  was obtained through a lawful source. | 
| 4 |  |   (4) The answer must be signed by the owner or interest  | 
| 5 |  |  holder under penalty of perjury and must set forth: | 
| 6 |  |    (A) the caption of the proceedings as set forth on  | 
| 7 |  |  the notice of pending forfeiture and the name of the  | 
| 8 |  |  claimant; | 
| 9 |  |    (B) the address at which the claimant will accept  | 
| 10 |  |  mail; | 
| 11 |  |    (C) the nature and extent of the claimant's  | 
| 12 |  |  interest in the property; | 
| 13 |  |    (D) the date, identity of transferor, and  | 
| 14 |  |  circumstances of the claimant's acquisition of the  | 
| 15 |  |  interest in the property; | 
| 16 |  |    (E) the name and address of all other persons known  | 
| 17 |  |  to have an interest in the property; | 
| 18 |  |    (F) all essential facts supporting each assertion;  | 
| 19 |  |  and | 
| 20 |  |    (G) the precise relief sought.
 | 
| 21 |  |   (5) The answer must be filed with the court within 45  | 
| 22 |  |  days after service of the civil in rem complaint. | 
| 23 |  |   (6) The hearing must be held within 60 days after  | 
| 24 |  |  filing of the answer unless continued for good cause.
 | 
| 25 |  |   (7) The State shall show the existence of probable  | 
| 26 |  |  cause for forfeiture of the property. If the State shows  | 
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| 1 |  |  probable cause, the claimant has the burden of showing by a  | 
| 2 |  |  preponderance of the evidence that the claimant's interest  | 
| 3 |  |  in the property is not subject to forfeiture.
 | 
| 4 |  |   (8) If the State does not show existence of probable  | 
| 5 |  |  cause, the court shall order the interest in the property  | 
| 6 |  |  returned or conveyed to the claimant and shall order all  | 
| 7 |  |  other property forfeited to the State. If the State does  | 
| 8 |  |  show existence of probable cause, the court shall order all  | 
| 9 |  |  property forfeited to the State. | 
| 10 |  |   (9) A defendant convicted in any criminal proceeding is  | 
| 11 |  |  precluded from later denying the essential allegations of  | 
| 12 |  |  the criminal offense of which the defendant was convicted  | 
| 13 |  |  in any proceeding under this Article regardless of the  | 
| 14 |  |  pendency of an appeal from that conviction. However,  | 
| 15 |  |  evidence of the pendency of an appeal is admissible. | 
| 16 |  |   (10) An acquittal or dismissal in a criminal proceeding  | 
| 17 |  |  does not preclude civil proceedings under this Article;  | 
| 18 |  |  however, for good cause shown, on a motion by the State's  | 
| 19 |  |  Attorney, the court may stay civil forfeiture proceedings  | 
| 20 |  |  during the criminal trial for a related criminal indictment  | 
| 21 |  |  or information alleging a money laundering violation. Such  | 
| 22 |  |  a stay shall not be available pending an appeal. Property  | 
| 23 |  |  subject to forfeiture under this Article shall not be  | 
| 24 |  |  subject to return or release by a court exercising  | 
| 25 |  |  jurisdiction over a criminal case involving the seizure of  | 
| 26 |  |  such property unless such return or release is consented to  | 
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| 1 |  |  by the State's Attorney. | 
| 2 |  |   (11) All property declared forfeited under this  | 
| 3 |  |  Article vests in this State on the commission of the  | 
| 4 |  |  conduct giving rise to forfeiture together with the  | 
| 5 |  |  proceeds of the property after that time. Any such property  | 
| 6 |  |  or proceeds subsequently transferred to any person remain  | 
| 7 |  |  subject to forfeiture and thereafter shall be ordered  | 
| 8 |  |  forfeited. | 
| 9 |  |   (12) A civil action under this Article must be  | 
| 10 |  |  commenced within 5 years after the last conduct giving rise  | 
| 11 |  |  to forfeiture became known or should have become known or 5  | 
| 12 |  |  years after the forfeitable property is discovered,  | 
| 13 |  |  whichever is later, excluding any time during which either  | 
| 14 |  |  the property or claimant is out of the State or in  | 
| 15 |  |  confinement or during which criminal proceedings relating  | 
| 16 |  |  to the same conduct are in progress. | 
| 17 |  |  (m) Stay of time periods. If property is seized for  | 
| 18 |  | evidence and for forfeiture, the time periods for instituting  | 
| 19 |  | judicial and non-judicial forfeiture proceedings shall not  | 
| 20 |  | begin until the property is no longer necessary for evidence. | 
| 21 |  |  (n) Settlement of claims. Notwithstanding other provisions  | 
| 22 |  | of this Article, the State's Attorney and a claimant of seized  | 
| 23 |  | property may enter into an agreed-upon settlement concerning  | 
| 24 |  | the seized property in such an amount and upon such terms as  | 
| 25 |  | are set out in writing in a settlement agreement. | 
| 26 |  |  (o) Property constituting attorney fees. Nothing in this  | 
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| 
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| 1 |  | Article applies to property which constitutes reasonable bona  | 
| 2 |  | fide attorney's fees paid to an attorney for services rendered  | 
| 3 |  | or to be rendered in the forfeiture proceeding or criminal  | 
| 4 |  | proceeding relating directly thereto where such property was  | 
| 5 |  | paid before its seizure, before the issuance of any seizure  | 
| 6 |  | warrant or court order prohibiting transfer of the property and  | 
| 7 |  | where the attorney, at the time he or she received the property  | 
| 8 |  | did not know that it was property subject to forfeiture under  | 
| 9 |  | this Article. | 
| 10 |  |  (p) Construction. It is the intent of the General Assembly  | 
| 11 |  | that the forfeiture provisions of this Article be liberally  | 
| 12 |  | construed so as to effect their remedial purpose. The  | 
| 13 |  | forfeiture of property and other remedies hereunder shall be  | 
| 14 |  | considered to be in addition to, and not exclusive of, any  | 
| 15 |  | sentence or other remedy provided by law. | 
| 16 |  |  (q) Judicial review. If property has been declared  | 
| 17 |  | forfeited under subsection (k) of this Section, any person who  | 
| 18 |  | has an interest in the property declared forfeited may, within  | 
| 19 |  | 30 days after the effective date of the notice of the  | 
| 20 |  | declaration of forfeiture, file a claim and cost bond as  | 
| 21 |  | described in paragraph (3) of subsection (k) of this Section.  | 
| 22 |  | If a claim and cost bond is filed under this Section, then the  | 
| 23 |  | procedures described in subsection (l) of this Section apply. | 
| 24 |  |  (r) Burden of proof of exemption or exception. It is not  | 
| 25 |  | necessary for the State to negate any exemption or exception in  | 
| 26 |  | this Article in any complaint, information, indictment or other  | 
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| 1 |  | pleading or in any trial, hearing, or other proceeding under  | 
| 2 |  | this Article. The burden of proof of any exemption or exception  | 
| 3 |  | is upon the person claiming it. | 
| 4 |  |  (s) Review of administrative decisions.
All administrative  | 
| 5 |  | findings, rulings, final determinations, findings, and  | 
| 6 |  | conclusions of the State's Attorney's Office under this Article  | 
| 7 |  | are final and conclusive decisions of the matters involved. Any  | 
| 8 |  | person aggrieved by the decision may obtain review of the  | 
| 9 |  | decision pursuant to the provisions of the Administrative  | 
| 10 |  | Review Law and the rules adopted pursuant to that Law. Pending  | 
| 11 |  | final decision on such review, the administrative acts, orders,  | 
| 12 |  | and rulings of the State's Attorney's Office remain in full  | 
| 13 |  | force and effect unless modified or suspended by order of court  | 
| 14 |  | pending final judicial decision. Pending final decision on such  | 
| 15 |  | review, the acts, orders, and rulings of the State's Attorney's  | 
| 16 |  | Office remain in full force and effect, unless stayed by order  | 
| 17 |  | of court. However, no stay of any decision of the  | 
| 18 |  | administrative agency shall issue unless the person aggrieved  | 
| 19 |  | by the decision establishes by a preponderance of the evidence  | 
| 20 |  | that good cause exists for the stay. In determining good cause,  | 
| 21 |  | the court shall find that the aggrieved party has established a  | 
| 22 |  | substantial likelihood of prevailing on the merits and that  | 
| 23 |  | granting the stay will not have an injurious effect on the  | 
| 24 |  | general public.
 | 
| 25 |  | (Source: P.A. 96-275, eff. 8-11-09; 96-710, eff. 1-1-10;  | 
| 26 |  | 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 96-1234, eff. 7-23-10.)
 | 
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| 1 |  |  Section 5-95. The Cannabis Control Act is amended by  | 
| 2 |  | changing Section 10 as follows:
 | 
| 3 |  |  (720 ILCS 550/10) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 710)
 | 
| 4 |  |  Sec. 10. (a)
Whenever any person who has not previously  | 
| 5 |  | been convicted of, or placed
on probation or court supervision  | 
| 6 |  | for, any offense under this Act or any
law of the United States  | 
| 7 |  | or of any State relating to cannabis, or controlled
substances  | 
| 8 |  | as defined in the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, pleads
 | 
| 9 |  | guilty to or is found guilty of violating Sections 4(a), 4(b),  | 
| 10 |  | 4(c),
5(a), 5(b), 5(c) or 8 of this Act, the court may, without  | 
| 11 |  | entering a
judgment and with the consent of such person,  | 
| 12 |  | sentence him to probation.
 | 
| 13 |  |  (b) When a person is placed on probation, the court shall  | 
| 14 |  | enter an order
specifying a period of probation of 24 months,  | 
| 15 |  | and shall defer further
proceedings in
the case until the  | 
| 16 |  | conclusion of the period or until the filing of a petition
 | 
| 17 |  | alleging violation of a term or condition of probation.
 | 
| 18 |  |  (c) The conditions of probation shall be that the person:  | 
| 19 |  | (1) not violate
any criminal statute of any jurisdiction; (2)  | 
| 20 |  | refrain from possession of a
firearm
or other dangerous weapon;  | 
| 21 |  | (3) submit to periodic drug testing at a time and in
a manner  | 
| 22 |  | as ordered by the court, but no less than 3 times during the  | 
| 23 |  | period of
the probation, with the cost of the testing to be  | 
| 24 |  | paid by the probationer; and
(4) perform no less than 30 hours  | 
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| 1 |  | of community service, provided community
service is available  | 
| 2 |  | in the jurisdiction and is funded and approved by the
county  | 
| 3 |  | board.
 | 
| 4 |  |  (d) The court may, in addition to other conditions, require
 | 
| 5 |  | that the person:
 | 
| 6 |  |   (1) make a report to and appear in person before or  | 
| 7 |  |  participate with the
court or such courts, person, or  | 
| 8 |  |  social service agency as directed by the
court in the order  | 
| 9 |  |  of probation;
 | 
| 10 |  |   (2) pay a fine and costs;
 | 
| 11 |  |   (3) work or pursue a course of study or vocational  | 
| 12 |  |  training;
 | 
| 13 |  |   (4) undergo medical or psychiatric treatment; or  | 
| 14 |  |  treatment for drug
addiction or alcoholism;
 | 
| 15 |  |   (5) attend or reside in a facility established for the  | 
| 16 |  |  instruction or
residence of defendants on probation;
 | 
| 17 |  |   (6) support his dependents;
 | 
| 18 |  |   (7) refrain from possessing a firearm or other  | 
| 19 |  |  dangerous weapon;
 | 
| 20 |  |   (7-5) refrain from having in his or her body the  | 
| 21 |  |  presence of any illicit
drug prohibited by the Cannabis  | 
| 22 |  |  Control Act, the Illinois Controlled
Substances Act, or the  | 
| 23 |  |  Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act,  | 
| 24 |  |  unless prescribed by a physician, and submit samples of
his  | 
| 25 |  |  or her blood or urine or both for tests to determine the  | 
| 26 |  |  presence of any
illicit drug;
 | 
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| 1 |  |   (8) and in addition, if a minor:
 | 
| 2 |  |    (i) reside with his parents or in a foster home;
 | 
| 3 |  |    (ii) attend school;
 | 
| 4 |  |    (iii) attend a non-residential program for youth;
 | 
| 5 |  |    (iv) contribute to his own support at home or in a  | 
| 6 |  |  foster home.
 | 
| 7 |  |  (e) Upon violation of a term or condition of probation, the
 | 
| 8 |  | court
may enter a judgment on its original finding of guilt and  | 
| 9 |  | proceed as otherwise
provided.
 | 
| 10 |  |  (f) Upon fulfillment of the terms and
conditions of  | 
| 11 |  | probation, the court shall discharge such person and dismiss
 | 
| 12 |  | the proceedings against him.
 | 
| 13 |  |  (g) A disposition of probation is considered to be a  | 
| 14 |  | conviction
for the purposes of imposing the conditions of  | 
| 15 |  | probation and for appeal,
however, discharge and dismissal  | 
| 16 |  | under this Section is not a conviction for
purposes of  | 
| 17 |  | disqualification or disabilities imposed by law upon  | 
| 18 |  | conviction of
a crime (including the additional penalty imposed  | 
| 19 |  | for subsequent offenses under
Section 4(c), 4(d), 5(c) or 5(d)  | 
| 20 |  | of this Act).
 | 
| 21 |  |  (h) Discharge and dismissal under this Section,
Section 410  | 
| 22 |  | of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, Section 70 of the  | 
| 23 |  | Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, Section  | 
| 24 |  | 5-6-3.3 or 5-6-3.4 of the Unified Code of Corrections, or  | 
| 25 |  | subsection (c) of Section 11-14 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or  | 
| 26 |  | the Criminal Code of 2012 may occur only once
with respect to  | 
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| 1 |  | any person.
 | 
| 2 |  |  (i) If a person is convicted of an offense under this Act,  | 
| 3 |  | the Illinois
Controlled Substances Act, or the Methamphetamine  | 
| 4 |  | Control and Community Protection Act within 5 years
subsequent  | 
| 5 |  | to a discharge and dismissal under this Section, the discharge  | 
| 6 |  | and
dismissal under this Section shall be admissible in the  | 
| 7 |  | sentencing proceeding
for that conviction
as a factor in  | 
| 8 |  | aggravation.
 | 
| 9 |  |  (j) Notwithstanding subsection (a), before a person is  | 
| 10 |  | sentenced to probation under this Section, the court may refer  | 
| 11 |  | the person to the drug court established in that judicial  | 
| 12 |  | circuit pursuant to Section 15 of the Drug Court Treatment Act.  | 
| 13 |  | The drug court team shall evaluate the person's likelihood of  | 
| 14 |  | successfully completing a sentence of probation under this  | 
| 15 |  | Section and shall report the results of its evaluation to the  | 
| 16 |  | court. If the drug court team finds that the person suffers  | 
| 17 |  | from a substance abuse problem that makes him or her  | 
| 18 |  | substantially unlikely to successfully complete a sentence of  | 
| 19 |  | probation under this Section, then the drug court shall set  | 
| 20 |  | forth its findings in the form of a written order, and the  | 
| 21 |  | person shall not be sentenced to probation under this Section,  | 
| 22 |  | but may be considered for the drug court program. | 
| 23 |  | (Source: P.A. 97-1118, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13;  | 
| 24 |  | 98-164, eff. 1-1-14.)
 | 
| 25 |  |  Section 5-100. The Illinois Controlled Substances Act is  | 
     | 
 |  | HB0001 Engrossed | - 168 - | LRB099 00249 HEP 20254 b |  
  | 
| 
 | 
| 1 |  | amended by changing Sections 102, 301, 312, 314.5, 316, 317,  | 
| 2 |  | 318, 319, 320, 406, and 410 as follows:
 | 
| 3 |  |  (720 ILCS 570/102) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 1102) | 
| 4 |  |  Sec. 102. Definitions.  As used in this Act, unless the  | 
| 5 |  | context
otherwise requires:
 | 
| 6 |  |  (a) "Addict" means any person who habitually uses any drug,  | 
| 7 |  | chemical,
substance or dangerous drug other than alcohol so as  | 
| 8 |  | to endanger the public
morals, health, safety or welfare or who  | 
| 9 |  | is so far addicted to the use of a
dangerous drug or controlled  | 
| 10 |  | substance other than alcohol as to have lost
the power of self  | 
| 11 |  | control with reference to his or her addiction.
 | 
| 12 |  |  (b) "Administer" means the direct application of a  | 
| 13 |  | controlled
substance, whether by injection, inhalation,  | 
| 14 |  | ingestion, or any other
means, to the body of a patient,  | 
| 15 |  | research subject, or animal (as
defined by the Humane  | 
| 16 |  | Euthanasia in Animal Shelters Act) by:
 | 
| 17 |  |   (1) a practitioner (or, in his or her presence, by his  | 
| 18 |  |  or her authorized agent),
 | 
| 19 |  |   (2) the patient or research subject pursuant to an  | 
| 20 |  |  order, or
 | 
| 21 |  |   (3) a euthanasia technician as defined by the Humane  | 
| 22 |  |  Euthanasia in
Animal Shelters Act.
 | 
| 23 |  |  (c) "Agent" means an authorized person who acts on behalf  | 
| 24 |  | of or at
the direction of a manufacturer, distributor,  | 
| 25 |  | dispenser, prescriber, or practitioner. It does not
include a  | 
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| 
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| 1 |  | common or contract carrier, public warehouseman or employee of
 | 
| 2 |  | the carrier or warehouseman.
 | 
| 3 |  |  (c-1) "Anabolic Steroids" means any drug or hormonal  | 
| 4 |  | substance,
chemically and pharmacologically related to  | 
| 5 |  | testosterone (other than
estrogens, progestins,  | 
| 6 |  | corticosteroids, and dehydroepiandrosterone),
and includes:
 | 
| 7 |  |  (i) 3[beta],17-dihydroxy-5a-androstane,  | 
| 8 |  |  (ii) 3[alpha],17[beta]-dihydroxy-5a-androstane,  | 
| 9 |  |  (iii) 5[alpha]-androstan-3,17-dione,  | 
| 10 |  |  (iv) 1-androstenediol (3[beta],  | 
| 11 |  |   17[beta]-dihydroxy-5[alpha]-androst-1-ene),  | 
| 12 |  |  (v) 1-androstenediol (3[alpha],  | 
| 13 |  |   17[beta]-dihydroxy-5[alpha]-androst-1-ene),  | 
| 14 |  |  (vi) 4-androstenediol  | 
| 15 |  |   (3[beta],17[beta]-dihydroxy-androst-4-ene),  | 
| 16 |  |  (vii) 5-androstenediol  | 
| 17 |  |   (3[beta],17[beta]-dihydroxy-androst-5-ene),  | 
| 18 |  |  (viii) 1-androstenedione  | 
| 19 |  |   ([5alpha]-androst-1-en-3,17-dione),  | 
| 20 |  |  (ix) 4-androstenedione  | 
| 21 |  |   (androst-4-en-3,17-dione),  | 
| 22 |  |  (x) 5-androstenedione  | 
| 23 |  |   (androst-5-en-3,17-dione),  | 
| 24 |  |  (xi) bolasterone (7[alpha],17a-dimethyl-17[beta]-  | 
| 25 |  |   hydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one),  | 
| 26 |  |  (xii) boldenone (17[beta]-hydroxyandrost-  | 
     | 
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| 
 | 
| 1 |  |   1,4,-diene-3-one),  | 
| 2 |  |  (xiii) boldione (androsta-1,4-  | 
| 3 |  |   diene-3,17-dione),  | 
| 4 |  |  (xiv) calusterone (7[beta],17[alpha]-dimethyl-17  | 
| 5 |  |   [beta]-hydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one),  | 
| 6 |  |  (xv) clostebol (4-chloro-17[beta]-  | 
| 7 |  |   hydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one),  | 
| 8 |  |  (xvi) dehydrochloromethyltestosterone (4-chloro-  | 
| 9 |  |   17[beta]-hydroxy-17[alpha]-methyl-  | 
| 10 |  |   androst-1,4-dien-3-one),  | 
| 11 |  |  (xvii) desoxymethyltestosterone  | 
| 12 |  |   (17[alpha]-methyl-5[alpha] | 
| 13 |  |   -androst-2-en-17[beta]-ol)(a.k.a., madol),  | 
| 14 |  |  (xviii) [delta]1-dihydrotestosterone (a.k.a.  | 
| 15 |  |   '1-testosterone') (17[beta]-hydroxy-  | 
| 16 |  |   5[alpha]-androst-1-en-3-one),  | 
| 17 |  |  (xix) 4-dihydrotestosterone (17[beta]-hydroxy-  | 
| 18 |  |   androstan-3-one),  | 
| 19 |  |  (xx) drostanolone (17[beta]-hydroxy-2[alpha]-methyl-  | 
| 20 |  |   5[alpha]-androstan-3-one),  | 
| 21 |  |  (xxi) ethylestrenol (17[alpha]-ethyl-17[beta]-  | 
| 22 |  |   hydroxyestr-4-ene),  | 
| 23 |  |  (xxii) fluoxymesterone (9-fluoro-17[alpha]-methyl-  | 
| 24 |  |   1[beta],17[beta]-dihydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one),  | 
| 25 |  |  (xxiii) formebolone (2-formyl-17[alpha]-methyl-11[alpha],  | 
| 26 |  |   17[beta]-dihydroxyandrost-1,4-dien-3-one),  | 
     | 
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| 
 | 
| 1 |  |  (xxiv) furazabol (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-  | 
| 2 |  |   hydroxyandrostano[2,3-c]-furazan),  | 
| 3 |  |  (xxv) 13[beta]-ethyl-17[beta]-hydroxygon-4-en-3-one)  | 
| 4 |  |  (xxvi) 4-hydroxytestosterone (4,17[beta]-dihydroxy-  | 
| 5 |  |   androst-4-en-3-one),  | 
| 6 |  |  (xxvii) 4-hydroxy-19-nortestosterone (4,17[beta]-  | 
| 7 |  |   dihydroxy-estr-4-en-3-one),  | 
| 8 |  |  (xxviii) mestanolone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-  | 
| 9 |  |   hydroxy-5-androstan-3-one),  | 
| 10 |  |  (xxix) mesterolone (1amethyl-17[beta]-hydroxy-  | 
| 11 |  |   [5a]-androstan-3-one),  | 
| 12 |  |  (xxx) methandienone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-  | 
| 13 |  |   hydroxyandrost-1,4-dien-3-one),  | 
| 14 |  |  (xxxi) methandriol (17[alpha]-methyl-3[beta],17[beta]-  | 
| 15 |  |   dihydroxyandrost-5-ene),  | 
| 16 |  |  (xxxii) methenolone (1-methyl-17[beta]-hydroxy-  | 
| 17 |  |   5[alpha]-androst-1-en-3-one),  | 
| 18 |  |  (xxxiii) 17[alpha]-methyl-3[beta], 17[beta]-  | 
| 19 |  |   dihydroxy-5a-androstane),  | 
| 20 |  |  (xxxiv) 17[alpha]-methyl-3[alpha],17[beta]-dihydroxy  | 
| 21 |  |   -5a-androstane),  | 
| 22 |  |  (xxxv) 17[alpha]-methyl-3[beta],17[beta]-  | 
| 23 |  |   dihydroxyandrost-4-ene),  | 
| 24 |  |  (xxxvi) 17[alpha]-methyl-4-hydroxynandrolone (17[alpha]-  | 
| 25 |  |   methyl-4-hydroxy-17[beta]-hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one),  | 
| 26 |  |  (xxxvii) methyldienolone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-  | 
     | 
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| 
 | 
| 1 |  |   hydroxyestra-4,9(10)-dien-3-one),  | 
| 2 |  |  (xxxviii) methyltrienolone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-  | 
| 3 |  |   hydroxyestra-4,9-11-trien-3-one),  | 
| 4 |  |  (xxxix) methyltestosterone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-  | 
| 5 |  |   hydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one),  | 
| 6 |  |  (xl) mibolerone (7[alpha],17a-dimethyl-17[beta]-  | 
| 7 |  |   hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one),  | 
| 8 |  |  (xli) 17[alpha]-methyl-[delta]1-dihydrotestosterone  | 
| 9 |  |   (17b[beta]-hydroxy-17[alpha]-methyl-5[alpha]-  | 
| 10 |  |   androst-1-en-3-one)(a.k.a. '17-[alpha]-methyl-  | 
| 11 |  |   1-testosterone'),  | 
| 12 |  |  (xlii) nandrolone (17[beta]-hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one),  | 
| 13 |  |  (xliii) 19-nor-4-androstenediol (3[beta], 17[beta]-  | 
| 14 |  |   dihydroxyestr-4-ene),  | 
| 15 |  |  (xliv) 19-nor-4-androstenediol (3[alpha], 17[beta]-  | 
| 16 |  |   dihydroxyestr-4-ene),  | 
| 17 |  |  (xlv) 19-nor-5-androstenediol (3[beta], 17[beta]-  | 
| 18 |  |   dihydroxyestr-5-ene),  | 
| 19 |  |  (xlvi) 19-nor-5-androstenediol (3[alpha], 17[beta]-  | 
| 20 |  |   dihydroxyestr-5-ene),  | 
| 21 |  |  (xlvii) 19-nor-4,9(10)-androstadienedione  | 
| 22 |  |   (estra-4,9(10)-diene-3,17-dione),  | 
| 23 |  |  (xlviii) 19-nor-4-androstenedione (estr-4-  | 
| 24 |  |   en-3,17-dione),  | 
| 25 |  |  (xlix) 19-nor-5-androstenedione (estr-5-  | 
| 26 |  |   en-3,17-dione),  | 
     | 
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| 
 | 
| 1 |  |  (l) norbolethone (13[beta], 17a-diethyl-17[beta]-  | 
| 2 |  |   hydroxygon-4-en-3-one),  | 
| 3 |  |  (li) norclostebol (4-chloro-17[beta]-  | 
| 4 |  |   hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one),  | 
| 5 |  |  (lii) norethandrolone (17[alpha]-ethyl-17[beta]-  | 
| 6 |  |   hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one),  | 
| 7 |  |  (liii) normethandrolone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-  | 
| 8 |  |   hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one),  | 
| 9 |  |  (liv) oxandrolone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-hydroxy-  | 
| 10 |  |   2-oxa-5[alpha]-androstan-3-one),  | 
| 11 |  |  (lv) oxymesterone (17[alpha]-methyl-4,17[beta]-  | 
| 12 |  |   dihydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one),  | 
| 13 |  |  (lvi) oxymetholone (17[alpha]-methyl-2-hydroxymethylene-  | 
| 14 |  |   17[beta]-hydroxy-(5[alpha]-androstan-3-one),  | 
| 15 |  |  (lvii) stanozolol (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-hydroxy-  | 
| 16 |  |   (5[alpha]-androst-2-eno[3,2-c]-pyrazole),  | 
| 17 |  |  (lviii) stenbolone (17[beta]-hydroxy-2-methyl-  | 
| 18 |  |   (5[alpha]-androst-1-en-3-one),  | 
| 19 |  |  (lix) testolactone (13-hydroxy-3-oxo-13,17-  | 
| 20 |  |   secoandrosta-1,4-dien-17-oic  | 
| 21 |  |   acid lactone),  | 
| 22 |  |  (lx) testosterone (17[beta]-hydroxyandrost-  | 
| 23 |  |   4-en-3-one),  | 
| 24 |  |  (lxi) tetrahydrogestrinone (13[beta], 17[alpha]-  | 
| 25 |  |   diethyl-17[beta]-hydroxygon-  | 
| 26 |  |   4,9,11-trien-3-one),  | 
     | 
 |  | HB0001 Engrossed | - 174 - | LRB099 00249 HEP 20254 b |  
  | 
| 
 | 
| 1 |  |  (lxii) trenbolone (17[beta]-hydroxyestr-4,9,  | 
| 2 |  |   11-trien-3-one). 
 | 
| 3 |  |  Any person who is otherwise lawfully in possession of an  | 
| 4 |  | anabolic
steroid, or who otherwise lawfully manufactures,  | 
| 5 |  | distributes, dispenses,
delivers, or possesses with intent to  | 
| 6 |  | deliver an anabolic steroid, which
anabolic steroid is  | 
| 7 |  | expressly intended for and lawfully allowed to be
administered  | 
| 8 |  | through implants to livestock or other nonhuman species, and
 | 
| 9 |  | which is approved by the Secretary of Health and Human Services  | 
| 10 |  | for such
administration, and which the person intends to  | 
| 11 |  | administer or have
administered through such implants, shall  | 
| 12 |  | not be considered to be in
unauthorized possession or to  | 
| 13 |  | unlawfully manufacture, distribute, dispense,
deliver, or  | 
| 14 |  | possess with intent to deliver such anabolic steroid for
 | 
| 15 |  | purposes of this Act.
 | 
| 16 |  |  (d) "Administration" means the Drug Enforcement  | 
| 17 |  | Administration,
United States Department of Justice, or its  | 
| 18 |  | successor agency.
 | 
| 19 |  |  (d-5) "Clinical Director, Prescription Monitoring Program"  | 
| 20 |  | means a Department of Human Services administrative employee  | 
| 21 |  | licensed to either prescribe or dispense controlled substances  | 
| 22 |  | who shall run the clinical aspects of the Department of Human  | 
| 23 |  | Services Prescription Monitoring Program and its Prescription  | 
| 24 |  | Information Library. | 
| 25 |  |  (d-10) "Compounding" means the preparation and mixing of  | 
| 26 |  | components, excluding flavorings, (1) as the result of a  | 
     | 
 |  | HB0001 Engrossed | - 175 - | LRB099 00249 HEP 20254 b |  
  | 
| 
 | 
| 1 |  | prescriber's prescription drug order or initiative based on the  | 
| 2 |  | prescriber-patient-pharmacist relationship in the course of  | 
| 3 |  | professional practice or (2) for the purpose of, or incident  | 
| 4 |  | to, research, teaching, or chemical analysis and not for sale  | 
| 5 |  | or dispensing. "Compounding" includes the preparation of drugs  | 
| 6 |  | or devices in anticipation of receiving prescription drug  | 
| 7 |  | orders based on routine, regularly observed dispensing  | 
| 8 |  | patterns. Commercially available products may be compounded  | 
| 9 |  | for dispensing to individual patients only if both of the  | 
| 10 |  | following conditions are met: (i) the commercial product is not  | 
| 11 |  | reasonably available from normal distribution channels in a  | 
| 12 |  | timely manner to meet the patient's needs and (ii) the  | 
| 13 |  | prescribing practitioner has requested that the drug be  | 
| 14 |  | compounded.  | 
| 15 |  |  (e) "Control" means to add a drug or other substance, or  | 
| 16 |  | immediate
precursor, to a Schedule whether by
transfer from  | 
| 17 |  | another Schedule or otherwise.
 | 
| 18 |  |  (f) "Controlled Substance" means (i) a drug, substance, or  | 
| 19 |  | immediate
precursor in the Schedules of Article II of this Act  | 
| 20 |  | or (ii) a drug or other substance, or immediate precursor,  | 
| 21 |  | designated as a controlled substance by the Department through  | 
| 22 |  | administrative rule. The term does not include distilled  | 
| 23 |  | spirits, wine, malt beverages, or tobacco, as those terms are
 | 
| 24 |  | defined or used in the Liquor Control Act of 1934 and the  | 
| 25 |  | Tobacco Products Tax
Act of 1995.
 | 
| 26 |  |  (f-5) "Controlled substance analog" means a substance: | 
     | 
 |  | HB0001 Engrossed | - 176 - | LRB099 00249 HEP 20254 b |  
  | 
| 
 | 
| 1 |  |   (1) the chemical structure of which is substantially  | 
| 2 |  |  similar to the chemical structure of a controlled substance  | 
| 3 |  |  in Schedule I or II; | 
| 4 |  |   (2) which has a stimulant, depressant, or  | 
| 5 |  |  hallucinogenic effect on the central nervous system that is  | 
| 6 |  |  substantially similar to or greater than the stimulant,  | 
| 7 |  |  depressant, or hallucinogenic effect on the central  | 
| 8 |  |  nervous system of a controlled substance in Schedule I or  | 
| 9 |  |  II; or | 
| 10 |  |   (3) with respect to a particular person, which such  | 
| 11 |  |  person represents or intends to have a stimulant,  | 
| 12 |  |  depressant, or hallucinogenic effect on the central  | 
| 13 |  |  nervous system that is substantially similar to or greater  | 
| 14 |  |  than the stimulant, depressant, or hallucinogenic effect  | 
| 15 |  |  on the central nervous system of a controlled substance in  | 
| 16 |  |  Schedule I or II.  | 
| 17 |  |  (g) "Counterfeit substance" means a controlled substance,  | 
| 18 |  | which, or
the container or labeling of which, without  | 
| 19 |  | authorization bears the
trademark, trade name, or other  | 
| 20 |  | identifying mark, imprint, number or
device, or any likeness  | 
| 21 |  | thereof, of a manufacturer, distributor, or
dispenser other  | 
| 22 |  | than the person who in fact manufactured, distributed,
or  | 
| 23 |  | dispensed the substance.
 | 
| 24 |  |  (h) "Deliver" or "delivery" means the actual, constructive  | 
| 25 |  | or
attempted transfer of possession of a controlled substance,  | 
| 26 |  | with or
without consideration, whether or not there is an  | 
     | 
 |  | HB0001 Engrossed | - 177 - | LRB099 00249 HEP 20254 b |  
  | 
| 
 | 
| 1 |  | agency relationship.
 | 
| 2 |  |  (i) "Department" means the Illinois Department of Human  | 
| 3 |  | Services (as
successor to the Department of Alcoholism and  | 
| 4 |  | Substance Abuse) or its successor agency.
 | 
| 5 |  |  (j) (Blank).
 | 
| 6 |  |  (k) "Department of Corrections" means the Department of  | 
| 7 |  | Corrections
of the State of Illinois or its successor agency.
 | 
| 8 |  |  (l) "Department of Financial and Professional Regulation"  | 
| 9 |  | means the Department
of Financial and Professional Regulation  | 
| 10 |  | of the State of Illinois or its successor agency.
 | 
| 11 |  |  (m) "Depressant" means any drug that (i) causes an overall  | 
| 12 |  | depression of central nervous system functions, (ii) causes  | 
| 13 |  | impaired consciousness and awareness, and (iii) can be  | 
| 14 |  | habit-forming or lead to a substance abuse problem, including  | 
| 15 |  | but not limited to alcohol, cannabis and its active principles  | 
| 16 |  | and their analogs, benzodiazepines and their analogs,  | 
| 17 |  | barbiturates and their analogs, opioids (natural and  | 
| 18 |  | synthetic) and their analogs, and chloral hydrate and similar  | 
| 19 |  | sedative hypnotics.
 | 
| 20 |  |  (n) (Blank).
 | 
| 21 |  |  (o) "Director" means the Director of the Illinois State  | 
| 22 |  | Police or his or her designated agents.
 | 
| 23 |  |  (p) "Dispense" means to deliver a controlled substance to  | 
| 24 |  | an
ultimate user or research subject by or pursuant to the  | 
| 25 |  | lawful order of
a prescriber, including the prescribing,  | 
| 26 |  | administering, packaging,
labeling, or compounding necessary  | 
     | 
 |  | HB0001 Engrossed | - 178 - | LRB099 00249 HEP 20254 b |  
  | 
| 
 | 
| 1 |  | to prepare the substance for that
delivery.
 | 
| 2 |  |  (q) "Dispenser" means a practitioner who dispenses.
 | 
| 3 |  |  (r) "Distribute" means to deliver, other than by  | 
| 4 |  | administering or
dispensing, a controlled substance.
 | 
| 5 |  |  (s) "Distributor" means a person who distributes.
 | 
| 6 |  |  (t) "Drug" means (1) substances recognized as drugs in the  | 
| 7 |  | official
United States Pharmacopoeia, Official Homeopathic  | 
| 8 |  | Pharmacopoeia of the
United States, or official National  | 
| 9 |  | Formulary, or any supplement to any
of them; (2) substances  | 
| 10 |  | intended for use in diagnosis, cure, mitigation,
treatment, or  | 
| 11 |  | prevention of disease in man or animals; (3) substances
(other  | 
| 12 |  | than food) intended to affect the structure of any function of
 | 
| 13 |  | the body of man or animals and (4) substances intended for use  | 
| 14 |  | as a
component of any article specified in clause (1), (2), or  | 
| 15 |  | (3) of this
subsection. It does not include devices or their  | 
| 16 |  | components, parts, or
accessories.
 | 
| 17 |  |  (t-3) "Electronic health record" or "EHR" means an  | 
| 18 |  | electronic record of health-related information on an  | 
| 19 |  | individual that is created, gathered, managed, and consulted by  | 
| 20 |  | authorized health care clinicians and staff.  | 
| 21 |  |  (t-5) "Euthanasia agency" means
an entity certified by the  | 
| 22 |  | Department of Financial and Professional Regulation for the
 | 
| 23 |  | purpose of animal euthanasia that holds an animal control  | 
| 24 |  | facility license or
animal
shelter license under the Animal  | 
| 25 |  | Welfare Act. A euthanasia agency is
authorized to purchase,  | 
| 26 |  | store, possess, and utilize Schedule II nonnarcotic and
 | 
     | 
 |  | HB0001 Engrossed | - 179 - | LRB099 00249 HEP 20254 b |  
  | 
| 
 | 
| 1 |  | Schedule III nonnarcotic drugs for the sole purpose of animal  | 
| 2 |  | euthanasia.
 | 
| 3 |  |  (t-10) "Euthanasia drugs" means Schedule II or Schedule III  | 
| 4 |  | substances
(nonnarcotic controlled substances) that are used  | 
| 5 |  | by a euthanasia agency for
the purpose of animal euthanasia.
 | 
| 6 |  |  (u) "Good faith" means the prescribing or dispensing of a  | 
| 7 |  | controlled
substance by a practitioner in the regular course of  | 
| 8 |  | professional
treatment to or for any person who is under his or  | 
| 9 |  | her treatment for a
pathology or condition other than that  | 
| 10 |  | individual's physical or
psychological dependence upon or  | 
| 11 |  | addiction to a controlled substance,
except as provided herein:  | 
| 12 |  | and application of the term to a pharmacist
shall mean the  | 
| 13 |  | dispensing of a controlled substance pursuant to the
 | 
| 14 |  | prescriber's order which in the professional judgment of the  | 
| 15 |  | pharmacist
is lawful. The pharmacist shall be guided by  | 
| 16 |  | accepted professional
standards including, but not limited to  | 
| 17 |  | the following, in making the
judgment:
 | 
| 18 |  |   (1) lack of consistency of prescriber-patient  | 
| 19 |  |  relationship,
 | 
| 20 |  |   (2) frequency of prescriptions for same drug by one  | 
| 21 |  |  prescriber for
large numbers of patients,
 | 
| 22 |  |   (3) quantities beyond those normally prescribed,
 | 
| 23 |  |   (4) unusual dosages (recognizing that there may be  | 
| 24 |  |  clinical circumstances where more or less than the usual  | 
| 25 |  |  dose may be used legitimately),
 | 
| 26 |  |   (5) unusual geographic distances between patient,  | 
     | 
 |  | HB0001 Engrossed | - 180 - | LRB099 00249 HEP 20254 b |  
  | 
| 
 | 
| 1 |  |  pharmacist and
prescriber,
 | 
| 2 |  |   (6) consistent prescribing of habit-forming drugs.
 | 
| 3 |  |  (u-0.5) "Hallucinogen" means a drug that causes markedly  | 
| 4 |  | altered sensory perception leading to hallucinations of any  | 
| 5 |  | type.  | 
| 6 |  |  (u-1) "Home infusion services" means services provided by a  | 
| 7 |  | pharmacy in
compounding solutions for direct administration to  | 
| 8 |  | a patient in a private
residence, long-term care facility, or  | 
| 9 |  | hospice setting by means of parenteral,
intravenous,  | 
| 10 |  | intramuscular, subcutaneous, or intraspinal infusion.
 | 
| 11 |  |  (u-5) "Illinois State Police" means the State
Police of the  | 
| 12 |  | State of Illinois, or its successor agency.  | 
| 13 |  |  (v) "Immediate precursor" means a substance:
 | 
| 14 |  |   (1) which the Department has found to be and by rule  | 
| 15 |  |  designated as
being a principal compound used, or produced  | 
| 16 |  |  primarily for use, in the
manufacture of a controlled  | 
| 17 |  |  substance;
 | 
| 18 |  |   (2) which is an immediate chemical intermediary used or  | 
| 19 |  |  likely to
be used in the manufacture of such controlled  | 
| 20 |  |  substance; and
 | 
| 21 |  |   (3) the control of which is necessary to prevent,  | 
| 22 |  |  curtail or limit
the manufacture of such controlled  | 
| 23 |  |  substance.
 | 
| 24 |  |  (w) "Instructional activities" means the acts of teaching,  | 
| 25 |  | educating
or instructing by practitioners using controlled  | 
| 26 |  | substances within
educational facilities approved by the State  | 
     | 
 |  | HB0001 Engrossed | - 181 - | LRB099 00249 HEP 20254 b |  
  | 
| 
 | 
| 1 |  | Board of Education or
its successor agency.
 | 
| 2 |  |  (x) "Local authorities" means a duly organized State,  | 
| 3 |  | County or
Municipal peace unit or police force.
 | 
| 4 |  |  (y) "Look-alike substance" means a substance, other than a  | 
| 5 |  | controlled
substance which (1) by overall dosage unit  | 
| 6 |  | appearance, including shape,
color, size, markings or lack  | 
| 7 |  | thereof, taste, consistency, or any other
identifying physical  | 
| 8 |  | characteristic of the substance, would lead a reasonable
person  | 
| 9 |  | to believe that the substance is a controlled substance, or (2)  | 
| 10 |  | is
expressly or impliedly represented to be a controlled  | 
| 11 |  | substance or is
distributed under circumstances which would  | 
| 12 |  | lead a reasonable person to
believe that the substance is a  | 
| 13 |  | controlled substance. For the purpose of
determining whether  | 
| 14 |  | the representations made or the circumstances of the
 | 
| 15 |  | distribution would lead a reasonable person to believe the  | 
| 16 |  | substance to be
a controlled substance under this clause (2) of  | 
| 17 |  | subsection (y), the court or
other authority may consider the  | 
| 18 |  | following factors in addition to any other
factor that may be  | 
| 19 |  | relevant:
 | 
| 20 |  |   (a) statements made by the owner or person in control  | 
| 21 |  |  of the substance
concerning its nature, use or effect;
 | 
| 22 |  |   (b) statements made to the buyer or recipient that the  | 
| 23 |  |  substance may
be resold for profit;
 | 
| 24 |  |   (c) whether the substance is packaged in a manner  | 
| 25 |  |  normally used for the
illegal distribution of controlled  | 
| 26 |  |  substances;
 | 
     | 
 |  | HB0001 Engrossed | - 182 - | LRB099 00249 HEP 20254 b |  
  | 
| 
 | 
| 1 |  |   (d) whether the distribution or attempted distribution  | 
| 2 |  |  included an
exchange of or demand for money or other  | 
| 3 |  |  property as consideration, and
whether the amount of the  | 
| 4 |  |  consideration was substantially greater than the
 | 
| 5 |  |  reasonable retail market value of the substance.
 | 
| 6 |  |  Clause (1) of this subsection (y) shall not apply to a  | 
| 7 |  | noncontrolled
substance in its finished dosage form that was  | 
| 8 |  | initially introduced into
commerce prior to the initial  | 
| 9 |  | introduction into commerce of a controlled
substance in its  | 
| 10 |  | finished dosage form which it may substantially resemble.
 | 
| 11 |  |  Nothing in this subsection (y) prohibits the dispensing or  | 
| 12 |  | distributing
of noncontrolled substances by persons authorized  | 
| 13 |  | to dispense and
distribute controlled substances under this  | 
| 14 |  | Act, provided that such action
would be deemed to be carried  | 
| 15 |  | out in good faith under subsection (u) if the
substances  | 
| 16 |  | involved were controlled substances.
 | 
| 17 |  |  Nothing in this subsection (y) or in this Act prohibits the  | 
| 18 |  | manufacture,
preparation, propagation, compounding,  | 
| 19 |  | processing, packaging, advertising
or distribution of a drug or  | 
| 20 |  | drugs by any person registered pursuant to
Section 510 of the  | 
| 21 |  | Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. 360).
 | 
| 22 |  |  (y-1) "Mail-order pharmacy" means a pharmacy that is  | 
| 23 |  | located in a state
of the United States that delivers,  | 
| 24 |  | dispenses or
distributes, through the United States Postal  | 
| 25 |  | Service or other common
carrier, to Illinois residents, any  | 
| 26 |  | substance which requires a prescription.
 | 
     | 
 |  | HB0001 Engrossed | - 183 - | LRB099 00249 HEP 20254 b |  
  | 
| 
 | 
| 1 |  |  (z) "Manufacture" means the production, preparation,  | 
| 2 |  | propagation,
compounding, conversion or processing of a  | 
| 3 |  | controlled substance other than methamphetamine, either
 | 
| 4 |  | directly or indirectly, by extraction from substances of  | 
| 5 |  | natural origin,
or independently by means of chemical  | 
| 6 |  | synthesis, or by a combination of
extraction and chemical  | 
| 7 |  | synthesis, and includes any packaging or
repackaging of the  | 
| 8 |  | substance or labeling of its container, except that
this term  | 
| 9 |  | does not include:
 | 
| 10 |  |   (1) by an ultimate user, the preparation or compounding  | 
| 11 |  |  of a
controlled substance for his or her own use; or
 | 
| 12 |  |   (2) by a practitioner, or his or her authorized agent  | 
| 13 |  |  under his or her
supervision, the preparation,  | 
| 14 |  |  compounding, packaging, or labeling of a
controlled  | 
| 15 |  |  substance:
 | 
| 16 |  |    (a) as an incident to his or her administering or  | 
| 17 |  |  dispensing of a
controlled substance in the course of  | 
| 18 |  |  his or her professional practice; or
 | 
| 19 |  |    (b) as an incident to lawful research, teaching or  | 
| 20 |  |  chemical
analysis and not for sale.
 | 
| 21 |  |  (z-1) (Blank).
 | 
| 22 |  |  (z-5) "Medication shopping" means the conduct prohibited  | 
| 23 |  | under subsection (a) of Section 314.5 of this Act. | 
| 24 |  |  (z-10) "Mid-level practitioner" means (i) a physician  | 
| 25 |  | assistant who has been delegated authority to prescribe through  | 
| 26 |  | a written delegation of authority by a physician licensed to  | 
     | 
 |  | HB0001 Engrossed | - 184 - | LRB099 00249 HEP 20254 b |  
  | 
| 
 | 
| 1 |  | practice medicine in all of its branches, in accordance with  | 
| 2 |  | Section 7.5 of the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987,  | 
| 3 |  | (ii) an advanced practice nurse who has been delegated  | 
| 4 |  | authority to prescribe through a written delegation of  | 
| 5 |  | authority by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all  | 
| 6 |  | of its branches or by a podiatric physician, in accordance with  | 
| 7 |  | Section 65-40 of the Nurse Practice Act, (iii) an animal  | 
| 8 |  | euthanasia agency, or (iv) a prescribing psychologist.  | 
| 9 |  |  (aa) "Narcotic drug" means any of the following, whether  | 
| 10 |  | produced
directly or indirectly by extraction from substances  | 
| 11 |  | of vegetable origin,
or independently by means of chemical  | 
| 12 |  | synthesis, or by a combination of
extraction and chemical  | 
| 13 |  | synthesis:
 | 
| 14 |  |   (1) opium, opiates, derivatives of opium and opiates,  | 
| 15 |  |  including their isomers, esters, ethers, salts, and salts  | 
| 16 |  |  of isomers, esters, and ethers, whenever the existence of  | 
| 17 |  |  such isomers, esters, ethers, and salts is possible within  | 
| 18 |  |  the specific chemical designation; however the term  | 
| 19 |  |  "narcotic drug" does not include the isoquinoline  | 
| 20 |  |  alkaloids of opium;
 | 
| 21 |  |   (2) (blank);
 | 
| 22 |  |   (3) opium poppy and poppy straw;
 | 
| 23 |  |   (4) coca leaves, except coca leaves and extracts of  | 
| 24 |  |  coca leaves from which substantially all of the cocaine and  | 
| 25 |  |  ecgonine, and their isomers, derivatives and salts, have  | 
| 26 |  |  been removed;
 | 
     | 
 |  | HB0001 Engrossed | - 185 - | LRB099 00249 HEP 20254 b |  
  | 
| 
 | 
| 1 |  |   (5) cocaine, its salts, optical and geometric isomers,  | 
| 2 |  |  and salts of isomers; | 
| 3 |  |   (6) ecgonine, its derivatives, their salts, isomers,  | 
| 4 |  |  and salts of isomers; | 
| 5 |  |   (7) any compound, mixture, or preparation which  | 
| 6 |  |  contains any quantity of any of the substances referred to  | 
| 7 |  |  in subparagraphs (1) through (6).  | 
| 8 |  |  (bb) "Nurse" means a registered nurse licensed under the
 | 
| 9 |  | Nurse Practice Act.
 | 
| 10 |  |  (cc) (Blank).
 | 
| 11 |  |  (dd) "Opiate" means any substance having an addiction  | 
| 12 |  | forming or
addiction sustaining liability similar to morphine  | 
| 13 |  | or being capable of
conversion into a drug having addiction  | 
| 14 |  | forming or addiction sustaining
liability.
 | 
| 15 |  |  (ee) "Opium poppy" means the plant of the species Papaver
 | 
| 16 |  | somniferum L., except its seeds.
 | 
| 17 |  |  (ee-5) "Oral dosage" means a tablet, capsule, elixir, or  | 
| 18 |  | solution or other liquid form of medication intended for  | 
| 19 |  | administration by mouth, but the term does not include a form  | 
| 20 |  | of medication intended for buccal, sublingual, or transmucosal  | 
| 21 |  | administration.  | 
| 22 |  |  (ff) "Parole and Pardon Board" means the Parole and Pardon  | 
| 23 |  | Board of
the State of Illinois or its successor agency.
 | 
| 24 |  |  (gg) "Person" means any individual, corporation,  | 
| 25 |  | mail-order pharmacy,
government or governmental subdivision or  | 
| 26 |  | agency, business trust, estate,
trust, partnership or  | 
     | 
 |  | HB0001 Engrossed | - 186 - | LRB099 00249 HEP 20254 b |  
  | 
| 
 | 
| 1 |  | association, or any other entity.
 | 
| 2 |  |  (hh) "Pharmacist" means any person who holds a license or  | 
| 3 |  | certificate of
registration as a registered pharmacist, a local  | 
| 4 |  | registered pharmacist
or a registered assistant pharmacist  | 
| 5 |  | under the Pharmacy Practice Act.
 | 
| 6 |  |  (ii) "Pharmacy" means any store, ship or other place in  | 
| 7 |  | which
pharmacy is authorized to be practiced under the Pharmacy  | 
| 8 |  | Practice Act.
 | 
| 9 |  |  (ii-5) "Pharmacy shopping" means the conduct prohibited  | 
| 10 |  | under subsection (b) of Section 314.5 of this Act. | 
| 11 |  |  (ii-10) "Physician" (except when the context otherwise  | 
| 12 |  | requires) means a person licensed to practice medicine in all  | 
| 13 |  | of its branches.  | 
| 14 |  |  (jj) "Poppy straw" means all parts, except the seeds, of  | 
| 15 |  | the opium
poppy, after mowing.
 | 
| 16 |  |  (kk) "Practitioner" means a physician licensed to practice  | 
| 17 |  | medicine in all
its branches, dentist, optometrist, podiatric  | 
| 18 |  | physician,
veterinarian, scientific investigator, pharmacist,  | 
| 19 |  | physician assistant,
advanced practice nurse,
licensed  | 
| 20 |  | practical
nurse, registered nurse, hospital, laboratory, or  | 
| 21 |  | pharmacy, or other
person licensed, registered, or otherwise  | 
| 22 |  | lawfully permitted by the
United States or this State to  | 
| 23 |  | distribute, dispense, conduct research
with respect to,  | 
| 24 |  | administer or use in teaching or chemical analysis, a
 | 
| 25 |  | controlled substance in the course of professional practice or  | 
| 26 |  | research.
 | 
     | 
 |  | HB0001 Engrossed | - 187 - | LRB099 00249 HEP 20254 b |  
  | 
| 
 | 
| 1 |  |  (ll) "Pre-printed prescription" means a written  | 
| 2 |  | prescription upon which
the designated drug has been indicated  | 
| 3 |  | prior to the time of issuance; the term does not mean a written  | 
| 4 |  | prescription that is individually generated by machine or  | 
| 5 |  | computer in the prescriber's office.
 | 
| 6 |  |  (mm) "Prescriber" means a physician licensed to practice  | 
| 7 |  | medicine in all
its branches, dentist, optometrist,  | 
| 8 |  | prescribing psychologist licensed under Section 4.2 of the  | 
| 9 |  | Clinical Psychologist Licensing Act with prescriptive  | 
| 10 |  | authority delegated under Section 4.3 of the Clinical  | 
| 11 |  | Psychologist Licensing Act, podiatric physician, or
 | 
| 12 |  | veterinarian who issues a prescription, a physician assistant  | 
| 13 |  | who
issues a
prescription for a controlled substance
in  | 
| 14 |  | accordance
with Section 303.05, a written delegation, and a  | 
| 15 |  | written supervision agreement required under Section 7.5
of the
 | 
| 16 |  | Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987, or an advanced  | 
| 17 |  | practice
nurse with prescriptive authority delegated under  | 
| 18 |  | Section 65-40 of the Nurse Practice Act and in accordance with  | 
| 19 |  | Section 303.05, a written delegation,
and a written
 | 
| 20 |  | collaborative agreement under Section 65-35 of the Nurse  | 
| 21 |  | Practice Act.
 | 
| 22 |  |  (nn) "Prescription" means a written, facsimile, or oral  | 
| 23 |  | order, or an electronic order that complies with applicable  | 
| 24 |  | federal requirements,
of
a physician licensed to practice  | 
| 25 |  | medicine in all its branches,
dentist, podiatric physician or  | 
| 26 |  | veterinarian for any controlled
substance, of an optometrist  | 
     | 
 |  | HB0001 Engrossed | - 188 - | LRB099 00249 HEP 20254 b |  
  | 
| 
 | 
| 1 |  | for a Schedule II, III, IV, or V controlled substance in  | 
| 2 |  | accordance with Section 15.1 of the Illinois Optometric  | 
| 3 |  | Practice Act of 1987, of a prescribing psychologist licensed  | 
| 4 |  | under Section 4.2 of the Clinical Psychologist Licensing Act  | 
| 5 |  | with prescriptive authority delegated under Section 4.3 of the  | 
| 6 |  | Clinical Psychologist Licensing Act, of a physician assistant  | 
| 7 |  | for a
controlled substance
in accordance with Section 303.05, a  | 
| 8 |  | written delegation, and a written supervision agreement  | 
| 9 |  | required under
Section 7.5 of the
Physician Assistant Practice  | 
| 10 |  | Act of 1987, or of an advanced practice
nurse with prescriptive  | 
| 11 |  | authority delegated under Section 65-40 of the Nurse Practice  | 
| 12 |  | Act who issues a prescription for a
controlled substance in  | 
| 13 |  | accordance
with
Section 303.05, a written delegation, and a  | 
| 14 |  | written collaborative agreement under Section 65-35 of the  | 
| 15 |  | Nurse Practice Act when required by law.
 | 
| 16 |  |  (nn-5) "Prescription Information Library" (PIL) means an  | 
| 17 |  | electronic library that contains reported controlled substance  | 
| 18 |  | data. | 
| 19 |  |  (nn-10) "Prescription Monitoring Program" (PMP) means the  | 
| 20 |  | entity that collects, tracks, and stores reported data on  | 
| 21 |  | controlled substances and select drugs pursuant to Section 316.  | 
| 22 |  |  (oo) "Production" or "produce" means manufacture,  | 
| 23 |  | planting,
cultivating, growing, or harvesting of a controlled  | 
| 24 |  | substance other than methamphetamine.
 | 
| 25 |  |  (pp) "Registrant" means every person who is required to  | 
| 26 |  | register
under Section 302 of this Act.
 | 
     | 
 |  | HB0001 Engrossed | - 189 - | LRB099 00249 HEP 20254 b |  
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| 
 | 
| 1 |  |  (qq) "Registry number" means the number assigned to each  | 
| 2 |  | person
authorized to handle controlled substances under the  | 
| 3 |  | laws of the United
States and of this State.
 | 
| 4 |  |  (qq-5) "Secretary" means, as the context requires, either  | 
| 5 |  | the Secretary of the Department or the Secretary of the  | 
| 6 |  | Department of Financial and Professional Regulation, and the  | 
| 7 |  | Secretary's designated agents.  | 
| 8 |  |  (rr) "State" includes the State of Illinois and any state,  | 
| 9 |  | district,
commonwealth, territory, insular possession thereof,  | 
| 10 |  | and any area
subject to the legal authority of the United  | 
| 11 |  | States of America.
 | 
| 12 |  |  (rr-5) "Stimulant" means any drug that (i) causes an  | 
| 13 |  | overall excitation of central nervous system functions, (ii)  | 
| 14 |  | causes impaired consciousness and awareness, and (iii) can be  | 
| 15 |  | habit-forming or lead to a substance abuse problem, including  | 
| 16 |  | but not limited to amphetamines and their analogs,  | 
| 17 |  | methylphenidate and its analogs, cocaine, and phencyclidine  | 
| 18 |  | and its analogs.  | 
| 19 |  |  (ss) "Ultimate user" means a person who lawfully possesses  | 
| 20 |  | a
controlled substance for his or her own use or for the use of  | 
| 21 |  | a member of his or her
household or for administering to an  | 
| 22 |  | animal owned by him or her or by a member
of his or her  | 
| 23 |  | household.
 | 
| 24 |  | (Source: P.A. 97-334, eff. 1-1-12; 98-214, eff. 8-9-13; 98-668,  | 
| 25 |  | eff. 6-25-14; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14; 98-1111, eff. 8-26-14;  | 
| 26 |  | revised 10-1-14.)
 | 
     | 
 |  | HB0001 Engrossed | - 190 - | LRB099 00249 HEP 20254 b |  
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| 
 | 
| 1 |  |  (720 ILCS 570/301) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 1301)
 | 
| 2 |  |  Sec. 301. The Department of Financial and Professional  | 
| 3 |  | Regulation shall promulgate
rules and charge reasonable fees  | 
| 4 |  | and fines relating to the registration and
control of the  | 
| 5 |  | manufacture, distribution, and dispensing of controlled
 | 
| 6 |  | substances within this State. The Department shall request a  | 
| 7 |  | contact email address in its application for a new or renewed  | 
| 8 |  | license to dispense controlled substances. All moneys received  | 
| 9 |  | by the Department of Financial and
Professional Regulation  | 
| 10 |  | under this Act shall be deposited into the respective
 | 
| 11 |  | professional dedicated funds in like manner as the primary  | 
| 12 |  | professional
licenses. | 
| 13 |  |  A pharmacy, manufacturer of controlled substances, or  | 
| 14 |  | wholesale distributor of controlled substances that is  | 
| 15 |  | regulated under this Act and owned and operated by the State is  | 
| 16 |  | exempt from fees required under this Act. Pharmacists and  | 
| 17 |  | pharmacy technicians working in facilities owned and operated  | 
| 18 |  | by the State are not exempt from the payment of fees required  | 
| 19 |  | by this Act and any rules adopted under this Act. Nothing in  | 
| 20 |  | this Section shall be construed to prohibit the Department of  | 
| 21 |  | Financial and Professional Regulation from imposing any fine or  | 
| 22 |  | other penalty allowed under this Act.
 | 
| 23 |  | (Source: P.A. 97-334, eff. 1-1-12.)
 | 
| 24 |  |  (720 ILCS 570/312) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 1312)
 | 
     | 
 |  | HB0001 Engrossed | - 191 - | LRB099 00249 HEP 20254 b |  
  | 
| 
 | 
| 1 |  |  Sec. 312. Requirements for dispensing controlled  | 
| 2 |  | substances. 
 | 
| 3 |  |  (a) A practitioner, in good faith, may dispense a Schedule
 | 
| 4 |  | II controlled substance, which is a narcotic drug listed in  | 
| 5 |  | Section 206
of this Act; or which contains any quantity of  | 
| 6 |  | amphetamine or
methamphetamine, their salts, optical isomers  | 
| 7 |  | or salts of optical
isomers; phenmetrazine and its salts; or  | 
| 8 |  | pentazocine; and Schedule III, IV, or V controlled substances
 | 
| 9 |  | to any person upon
a written or electronic prescription of any  | 
| 10 |  | prescriber, dated and signed
by the
person prescribing (or  | 
| 11 |  | electronically validated in compliance with Section 311.5) on  | 
| 12 |  | the day when issued and bearing the name and
address of the  | 
| 13 |  | patient for whom, or the owner of the animal for which
the  | 
| 14 |  | controlled substance is dispensed, and the full name, address  | 
| 15 |  | and
registry number under the laws of the United States  | 
| 16 |  | relating to
controlled substances of the prescriber, if he or  | 
| 17 |  | she is
required by
those laws to be registered. If the  | 
| 18 |  | prescription is for an animal it
shall state the species of  | 
| 19 |  | animal for which it is ordered. The
practitioner filling the  | 
| 20 |  | prescription shall, unless otherwise permitted, write the date  | 
| 21 |  | of filling
and his or her own signature on the face of the  | 
| 22 |  | written prescription or, alternatively, shall indicate such  | 
| 23 |  | filling using a unique identifier as defined in paragraph (v)  | 
| 24 |  | of Section 3 of the Pharmacy Practice Act.
The written  | 
| 25 |  | prescription shall be
retained on file by the practitioner who  | 
| 26 |  | filled it or pharmacy in which
the prescription was filled for  | 
     | 
 |  | HB0001 Engrossed | - 192 - | LRB099 00249 HEP 20254 b |  
  | 
| 
 | 
| 1 |  | a period of 2 years, so as to be readily
accessible for  | 
| 2 |  | inspection or removal by any officer or employee engaged
in the  | 
| 3 |  | enforcement of this Act. Whenever the practitioner's or
 | 
| 4 |  | pharmacy's copy of any prescription is removed by an officer or
 | 
| 5 |  | employee engaged in the enforcement of this Act, for the  | 
| 6 |  | purpose of
investigation or as evidence, such officer or  | 
| 7 |  | employee shall give to the
practitioner or pharmacy a receipt  | 
| 8 |  | in lieu thereof. If the specific prescription is machine or  | 
| 9 |  | computer generated and printed at the prescriber's office, the  | 
| 10 |  | date does not need to be handwritten. A prescription
for a  | 
| 11 |  | Schedule II controlled substance shall not be issued for more  | 
| 12 |  | than a 30 day supply, except as provided in subsection (a-5),  | 
| 13 |  | and shall be valid for up to 90 days
after the date of  | 
| 14 |  | issuance. A written prescription for Schedule III, IV or
V  | 
| 15 |  | controlled substances shall not be filled or refilled more than  | 
| 16 |  | 6 months
after the date thereof or refilled more than 5 times  | 
| 17 |  | unless renewed, in
writing, by the prescriber. A pharmacy shall  | 
| 18 |  | maintain a policy regarding the type of identification  | 
| 19 |  | necessary, if any, to receive a prescription in accordance with  | 
| 20 |  | State and federal law. The pharmacy must post such information  | 
| 21 |  | where prescriptions are filled.
 | 
| 22 |  |  (a-5) Physicians may issue multiple prescriptions (3  | 
| 23 |  | sequential 30-day supplies) for the same Schedule II controlled  | 
| 24 |  | substance, authorizing up to a 90-day supply. Before  | 
| 25 |  | authorizing a 90-day supply of a Schedule II controlled  | 
| 26 |  | substance, the physician must meet both of the following  | 
     | 
 |  | HB0001 Engrossed | - 193 - | LRB099 00249 HEP 20254 b |  
  | 
| 
 | 
| 1 |  | conditions: | 
| 2 |  |   (1) Each separate prescription must be issued for a  | 
| 3 |  |  legitimate medical purpose by an individual physician  | 
| 4 |  |  acting in the usual course of professional practice. | 
| 5 |  |   (2) The individual physician must provide written  | 
| 6 |  |  instructions on each prescription (other than the first  | 
| 7 |  |  prescription, if the prescribing physician intends for the  | 
| 8 |  |  prescription to be filled immediately) indicating the  | 
| 9 |  |  earliest date on which a pharmacy may fill that  | 
| 10 |  |  prescription.  | 
| 11 |  |   (3) The physician shall document in the medical record  | 
| 12 |  |  of a patient the medical necessity for the amount and  | 
| 13 |  |  duration of the 3 sequential 30-day prescriptions for  | 
| 14 |  |  Schedule II narcotics.  | 
| 15 |  |  (b) In lieu of a written prescription required by this  | 
| 16 |  | Section, a
pharmacist, in good faith, may dispense Schedule  | 
| 17 |  | III, IV, or V
substances to any person either upon receiving a  | 
| 18 |  | facsimile of a written,
signed prescription transmitted by the  | 
| 19 |  | prescriber or the prescriber's agent
or upon a lawful oral  | 
| 20 |  | prescription of a
prescriber which oral prescription shall be  | 
| 21 |  | reduced
promptly to
writing by the pharmacist and such written  | 
| 22 |  | memorandum thereof shall be
dated on the day when such oral  | 
| 23 |  | prescription is received by the
pharmacist and shall bear the  | 
| 24 |  | full name and address of the ultimate user
for whom, or of the  | 
| 25 |  | owner of the animal for which the controlled
substance is  | 
| 26 |  | dispensed, and the full name, address, and registry number
 | 
     | 
 |  | HB0001 Engrossed | - 194 - | LRB099 00249 HEP 20254 b |  
  | 
| 
 | 
| 1 |  | under the law of the United States relating to controlled  | 
| 2 |  | substances of
the prescriber prescribing if he or she is  | 
| 3 |  | required by those laws
to be so
registered, and the pharmacist  | 
| 4 |  | filling such oral prescription shall
write the date of filling  | 
| 5 |  | and his or her own signature on the face of such
written  | 
| 6 |  | memorandum thereof. The facsimile copy of the prescription or
 | 
| 7 |  | written memorandum of the oral
prescription shall be retained  | 
| 8 |  | on file by the proprietor of the pharmacy
in which it is filled  | 
| 9 |  | for a period of not less than two years, so as to
be readily  | 
| 10 |  | accessible for inspection by any officer or employee engaged
in  | 
| 11 |  | the enforcement of this Act in the same manner as a written
 | 
| 12 |  | prescription. The facsimile copy of the prescription or oral  | 
| 13 |  | prescription
and the written memorandum thereof
shall not be  | 
| 14 |  | filled or refilled more than 6 months after the date
thereof or  | 
| 15 |  | be refilled more than 5 times, unless renewed, in writing, by
 | 
| 16 |  | the prescriber.
 | 
| 17 |  |  (c) Except for any non-prescription targeted  | 
| 18 |  | methamphetamine precursor regulated by the Methamphetamine  | 
| 19 |  | Precursor Control Act, a
controlled substance included in  | 
| 20 |  | Schedule V shall not be
distributed or dispensed other than for  | 
| 21 |  | a medical purpose and not for
the purpose of evading this Act,  | 
| 22 |  | and then:
 | 
| 23 |  |   (1) only personally by a person registered to dispense  | 
| 24 |  |  a Schedule V
controlled substance and then only to his or  | 
| 25 |  |  her patients, or
 | 
| 26 |  |   (2) only personally by a pharmacist, and then only to a  | 
     | 
 |  | HB0001 Engrossed | - 195 - | LRB099 00249 HEP 20254 b |  
  | 
| 
 | 
| 1 |  |  person over
21 years of age who has identified himself or  | 
| 2 |  |  herself to the pharmacist by means of
2 positive documents  | 
| 3 |  |  of identification.
 | 
| 4 |  |   (3) the dispenser shall record the name and address of  | 
| 5 |  |  the
purchaser, the name and quantity of the product, the  | 
| 6 |  |  date and time of
the sale, and the dispenser's signature.
 | 
| 7 |  |   (4) no person shall purchase or be dispensed more than  | 
| 8 |  |  120
milliliters or more than 120 grams of any Schedule V  | 
| 9 |  |  substance which
contains codeine, dihydrocodeine, or any  | 
| 10 |  |  salts thereof, or
ethylmorphine, or any salts thereof, in  | 
| 11 |  |  any 96 hour period. The
purchaser shall sign a form,  | 
| 12 |  |  approved by the Department of Financial and Professional
 | 
| 13 |  |  Regulation, attesting that he or she has not purchased any  | 
| 14 |  |  Schedule V
controlled substances within the immediately  | 
| 15 |  |  preceding 96 hours.
 | 
| 16 |  |   (5) (Blank).
 | 
| 17 |  |   (6) all records of purchases and sales shall be  | 
| 18 |  |  maintained for not
less than 2 years.
 | 
| 19 |  |   (7) no person shall obtain or attempt to obtain within  | 
| 20 |  |  any
consecutive 96 hour period any Schedule V substances of  | 
| 21 |  |  more than 120
milliliters or more than 120 grams containing  | 
| 22 |  |  codeine, dihydrocodeine or
any of its salts, or  | 
| 23 |  |  ethylmorphine or any of its salts. Any person
obtaining any  | 
| 24 |  |  such preparations or combination of preparations in excess
 | 
| 25 |  |  of this limitation shall be in unlawful possession of such  | 
| 26 |  |  controlled
substance.
 | 
     | 
 |  | HB0001 Engrossed | - 196 - | LRB099 00249 HEP 20254 b |  
  | 
| 
 | 
| 1 |  |   (8) a person qualified to dispense controlled  | 
| 2 |  |  substances under this
Act and registered thereunder shall  | 
| 3 |  |  at no time maintain or keep in stock
a quantity of Schedule  | 
| 4 |  |  V controlled substances in excess of 4.5 liters for each
 | 
| 5 |  |  substance; a pharmacy shall at no time maintain or keep in  | 
| 6 |  |  stock a
quantity of Schedule V controlled substances as  | 
| 7 |  |  defined in excess of 4.5
liters for each substance, plus  | 
| 8 |  |  the additional quantity of controlled
substances necessary  | 
| 9 |  |  to fill the largest number of prescription orders
filled by  | 
| 10 |  |  that pharmacy for such controlled substances in any one  | 
| 11 |  |  week
in the previous year. These limitations shall not  | 
| 12 |  |  apply to Schedule V
controlled substances which Federal law  | 
| 13 |  |  prohibits from being dispensed
without a prescription.
 | 
| 14 |  |   (9) no person shall distribute or dispense butyl  | 
| 15 |  |  nitrite for
inhalation or other introduction into the human  | 
| 16 |  |  body for euphoric or
physical effect.
 | 
| 17 |  |  (d) Every practitioner shall keep a record or log of  | 
| 18 |  | controlled substances
received by him or her and a record of  | 
| 19 |  | all such controlled substances
administered, dispensed or  | 
| 20 |  | professionally used by him or her otherwise than by
 | 
| 21 |  | prescription. It shall, however, be sufficient compliance with  | 
| 22 |  | this
paragraph if any practitioner utilizing controlled  | 
| 23 |  | substances listed in
Schedules III, IV and V shall keep a  | 
| 24 |  | record of all those substances
dispensed and distributed by him  | 
| 25 |  | or her other than those controlled substances
which are  | 
| 26 |  | administered by the direct application of a controlled
 | 
     | 
 |  | HB0001 Engrossed | - 197 - | LRB099 00249 HEP 20254 b |  
  | 
| 
 | 
| 1 |  | substance, whether by injection, inhalation, ingestion, or any  | 
| 2 |  | other
means to the body of a patient or research subject. A  | 
| 3 |  | practitioner who
dispenses, other than by administering, a  | 
| 4 |  | controlled substance in
Schedule II, which is a narcotic drug  | 
| 5 |  | listed in Section 206 of this Act,
or which contains any  | 
| 6 |  | quantity of amphetamine or methamphetamine, their
salts,  | 
| 7 |  | optical isomers or salts of optical isomers, pentazocine, or
 | 
| 8 |  | methaqualone shall do so only upon
the issuance of a written  | 
| 9 |  | prescription blank or electronic prescription issued by a
 | 
| 10 |  | prescriber.
 | 
| 11 |  |  (e) Whenever a manufacturer distributes a controlled  | 
| 12 |  | substance in a
package prepared by him or her, and whenever a  | 
| 13 |  | wholesale distributor
distributes a controlled substance in a  | 
| 14 |  | package prepared by him or her or the
manufacturer, he or she  | 
| 15 |  | shall securely affix to each package in which that
substance is  | 
| 16 |  | contained a label showing in legible English the name and
 | 
| 17 |  | address of the manufacturer, the distributor and the quantity,  | 
| 18 |  | kind and
form of controlled substance contained therein. No  | 
| 19 |  | person except a
pharmacist and only for the purposes of filling  | 
| 20 |  | a prescription under
this Act, shall alter, deface or remove  | 
| 21 |  | any label so affixed.
 | 
| 22 |  |  (f) Whenever a practitioner dispenses any controlled  | 
| 23 |  | substance except a non-prescription Schedule V product or a  | 
| 24 |  | non-prescription targeted methamphetamine precursor regulated  | 
| 25 |  | by the Methamphetamine Precursor Control Act, he or she
shall  | 
| 26 |  | affix to the container in which such substance is sold or
 | 
     | 
 |  | HB0001 Engrossed | - 198 - | LRB099 00249 HEP 20254 b |  
  | 
| 
 | 
| 1 |  | dispensed, a label indicating the date of initial filling, the  | 
| 2 |  | practitioner's
name and address, the name
of the patient, the  | 
| 3 |  | name of the prescriber,
the directions
for use and cautionary  | 
| 4 |  | statements, if any, contained in any prescription
or required  | 
| 5 |  | by law, the proprietary name or names or the established name
 | 
| 6 |  | of the controlled substance, and the dosage and quantity,  | 
| 7 |  | except as otherwise
authorized by regulation by the Department  | 
| 8 |  | of Financial and Professional Regulation. No
person shall  | 
| 9 |  | alter, deface or remove any label so affixed as long as the  | 
| 10 |  | specific medication remains in the container.
 | 
| 11 |  |  (g) A person to whom or for whose use any controlled  | 
| 12 |  | substance has
been prescribed or dispensed by a practitioner,  | 
| 13 |  | or other persons
authorized under this Act, and the owner of  | 
| 14 |  | any animal for which such
substance has been prescribed or  | 
| 15 |  | dispensed by a veterinarian, may
lawfully possess such  | 
| 16 |  | substance only in the container in which it was
delivered to  | 
| 17 |  | him or her by the person dispensing such substance.
 | 
| 18 |  |  (h) The responsibility for the proper prescribing or  | 
| 19 |  | dispensing of
controlled substances that are under the  | 
| 20 |  | prescriber's direct control is upon the prescriber. The  | 
| 21 |  | responsibility for
the proper filling of a prescription for  | 
| 22 |  | controlled substance drugs
rests with the pharmacist. An order  | 
| 23 |  | purporting to be a prescription
issued to any individual, which  | 
| 24 |  | is not in the regular course of
professional treatment nor part  | 
| 25 |  | of an authorized methadone maintenance
program, nor in  | 
| 26 |  | legitimate and authorized research instituted by any
 | 
     | 
 |  | HB0001 Engrossed | - 199 - | LRB099 00249 HEP 20254 b |  
  | 
| 
 | 
| 1 |  | accredited hospital, educational institution, charitable  | 
| 2 |  | foundation, or
federal, state or local governmental agency, and  | 
| 3 |  | which is intended to
provide that individual with controlled  | 
| 4 |  | substances sufficient to
maintain that individual's or any  | 
| 5 |  | other individual's physical or
psychological addiction,  | 
| 6 |  | habitual or customary use, dependence, or
diversion of that  | 
| 7 |  | controlled substance is not a prescription within the
meaning  | 
| 8 |  | and intent of this Act; and the person issuing it, shall be
 | 
| 9 |  | subject to the penalties provided for violations of the law  | 
| 10 |  | relating to
controlled substances.
 | 
| 11 |  |  (i) A prescriber shall not pre-print preprint or cause to  | 
| 12 |  | be
pre-printed preprinted a
prescription for any controlled  | 
| 13 |  | substance; nor shall any practitioner
issue, fill or cause to  | 
| 14 |  | be issued or filled, a pre-printed preprinted prescription
for  | 
| 15 |  | any controlled substance.
 | 
| 16 |  |  (i-5) A prescriber may use a machine or electronic device  | 
| 17 |  | to individually generate a printed prescription, but the  | 
| 18 |  | prescriber is still required to affix his or her manual  | 
| 19 |  | signature.  | 
| 20 |  |  (j) No person shall manufacture, dispense, deliver,  | 
| 21 |  | possess with
intent to deliver, prescribe, or administer or  | 
| 22 |  | cause to be administered
under his or her direction any  | 
| 23 |  | anabolic steroid, for any use in humans other than
the  | 
| 24 |  | treatment of disease in accordance with the order of a  | 
| 25 |  | physician licensed
to practice medicine in all its branches for  | 
| 26 |  | a
valid medical purpose in the course of professional practice.  | 
     | 
 |  | HB0001 Engrossed | - 200 - | LRB099 00249 HEP 20254 b |  
  | 
| 
 | 
| 1 |  | The use of
anabolic steroids for the purpose of hormonal  | 
| 2 |  | manipulation that is intended
to increase muscle mass, strength  | 
| 3 |  | or weight without a medical necessity to
do so, or for the  | 
| 4 |  | intended purpose of improving physical appearance or
 | 
| 5 |  | performance in any form of exercise, sport, or game, is not a  | 
| 6 |  | valid medical
purpose or in the course of professional  | 
| 7 |  | practice.
 | 
| 8 |  |  (k) Controlled substances may be mailed if all of the  | 
| 9 |  | following conditions are met: | 
| 10 |  |   (1) The controlled substances are not outwardly  | 
| 11 |  |  dangerous and are not likely, of their own force, to cause  | 
| 12 |  |  injury to a person's life or health. | 
| 13 |  |   (2) The inner container of a parcel containing  | 
| 14 |  |  controlled substances must be marked and sealed as required  | 
| 15 |  |  under this Act and its rules, and be placed in a plain  | 
| 16 |  |  outer container or securely wrapped in plain paper. | 
| 17 |  |   (3) If the controlled substances consist of  | 
| 18 |  |  prescription medicines, the inner container must be  | 
| 19 |  |  labeled to show the name and address of the pharmacy or  | 
| 20 |  |  practitioner dispensing the prescription. | 
| 21 |  |   (4) The outside wrapper or container must be free of  | 
| 22 |  |  markings that would indicate the nature of the contents.  | 
| 23 |  | (Source: P.A. 96-166, eff. 1-1-10; 97-334, eff. 1-1-12; revised  | 
| 24 |  | 12-10-14.)
 | 
| 25 |  |  (720 ILCS 570/314.5) | 
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| 
 | 
| 1 |  |  Sec. 314.5. Medication shopping; pharmacy shopping. | 
| 2 |  |  (a) It shall be unlawful for any person knowingly or  | 
| 3 |  | intentionally to fraudulently obtain or fraudulently seek to  | 
| 4 |  | obtain any controlled substance or prescription for a  | 
| 5 |  | controlled substance from a prescriber or dispenser while being  | 
| 6 |  | supplied with any controlled substance or prescription for a  | 
| 7 |  | controlled substance by another prescriber or dispenser,  | 
| 8 |  | without disclosing the fact of the existing controlled  | 
| 9 |  | substance or prescription for a controlled substance to the  | 
| 10 |  | prescriber or dispenser from whom the subsequent controlled  | 
| 11 |  | substance or prescription for a controlled substance is sought. | 
| 12 |  |  (b) It shall be unlawful for a person knowingly or  | 
| 13 |  | intentionally to fraudulently obtain or fraudulently seek to  | 
| 14 |  | obtain any controlled substance from a pharmacy while being  | 
| 15 |  | supplied with any controlled substance by another pharmacy,  | 
| 16 |  | without disclosing the fact of the existing controlled  | 
| 17 |  | substance to the pharmacy from which the subsequent controlled  | 
| 18 |  | substance is sought. | 
| 19 |  |  (c) A person may be in violation of Section 3.23 of the  | 
| 20 |  | Illinois Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act or Section 406 of this Act  | 
| 21 |  | when medication shopping or pharmacy shopping, or both. | 
| 22 |  |  (d) When a person has been identified as having 3 6 or more  | 
| 23 |  | prescribers or 3 6 or more pharmacies, or both, that do not  | 
| 24 |  | utilize a common electronic file as specified in Section 20 of  | 
| 25 |  | the Pharmacy Practice Act for controlled substances within the  | 
| 26 |  | course of a continuous 30-day period, the Prescription  | 
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| 
 | 
| 1 |  | Monitoring Program may issue an unsolicited report to the  | 
| 2 |  | prescribers, dispensers, and their designees informing them of  | 
| 3 |  | the potential medication shopping. | 
| 4 |  |  (e) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to create a  | 
| 5 |  | requirement that any prescriber, dispenser, or pharmacist  | 
| 6 |  | request any patient medication disclosure, report any patient  | 
| 7 |  | activity, or prescribe or refuse to prescribe or dispense any  | 
| 8 |  | medications. | 
| 9 |  |  (f) This Section shall not be construed to apply to  | 
| 10 |  | inpatients or residents at hospitals or other institutions or  | 
| 11 |  | to institutional pharmacies.
 | 
| 12 |  |  (g) Any patient feedback, including grades, ratings, or  | 
| 13 |  | written or verbal statements, in opposition to a clinical  | 
| 14 |  | decision that the prescription of a controlled substance is not  | 
| 15 |  | medically necessary shall not be the basis of any adverse  | 
| 16 |  | action, evaluation, or any other type of negative  | 
| 17 |  | credentialing, contracting, licensure, or employment action  | 
| 18 |  | taken against a prescriber or dispenser.  | 
| 19 |  | (Source: P.A. 97-334, eff. 1-1-12.)
 | 
| 20 |  |  (720 ILCS 570/316)
 | 
| 21 |  |  Sec. 316. Prescription monitoring program.  | 
| 22 |  |  (a) The Department must provide for a
prescription  | 
| 23 |  | monitoring program for Schedule II, III, IV, and V controlled  | 
| 24 |  | substances that includes the following components and  | 
| 25 |  | requirements:
 | 
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 |  | HB0001 Engrossed | - 203 - | LRB099 00249 HEP 20254 b |  
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| 
 | 
| 1 |  |   (1) The
dispenser must transmit to the
central  | 
| 2 |  |  repository, in a form and manner specified by the  | 
| 3 |  |  Department, the following information:
 | 
| 4 |  |    (A) The recipient's name and address.
 | 
| 5 |  |    (B) The recipient's date of birth and gender   | 
| 6 |  |  address.
 | 
| 7 |  |    (C) The national drug code number of the controlled
 | 
| 8 |  |  substance
dispensed.
 | 
| 9 |  |    (D) The date the controlled substance is  | 
| 10 |  |  dispensed.
 | 
| 11 |  |    (E) The quantity of the controlled substance  | 
| 12 |  |  dispensed and days supply.
 | 
| 13 |  |    (F) The dispenser's United States Drug Enforcement  | 
| 14 |  |  Administration
registration number.
 | 
| 15 |  |    (G) The prescriber's United States Drug  | 
| 16 |  |  Enforcement Administration
registration number.
 | 
| 17 |  |    (H) The dates the controlled substance  | 
| 18 |  |  prescription is filled. | 
| 19 |  |    (I) The payment type used to purchase the  | 
| 20 |  |  controlled substance (i.e. Medicaid, cash, third party  | 
| 21 |  |  insurance). | 
| 22 |  |    (J) The patient location code (i.e. home, nursing  | 
| 23 |  |  home, outpatient, etc.) for the controlled substances  | 
| 24 |  |  other than those filled at a retail pharmacy. | 
| 25 |  |    (K) Any additional information that may be  | 
| 26 |  |  required by the department by administrative rule,  | 
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| 
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| 1 |  |  including but not limited to information required for  | 
| 2 |  |  compliance with the criteria for electronic reporting  | 
| 3 |  |  of the American Society for Automation and Pharmacy or  | 
| 4 |  |  its successor. 
 | 
| 5 |  |   (2) The information required to be transmitted under  | 
| 6 |  |  this Section must be
transmitted not later more than the  | 
| 7 |  |  end of the next business day 7 days after the date on which  | 
| 8 |  |  a
controlled substance is dispensed, or at such other time  | 
| 9 |  |  as may be required by the Department by administrative  | 
| 10 |  |  rule.
 | 
| 11 |  |   (3) A dispenser must transmit the information required  | 
| 12 |  |  under this Section
by:
 | 
| 13 |  |    (A) an electronic device compatible with the  | 
| 14 |  |  receiving device of the
central repository;
 | 
| 15 |  |    (B) a computer diskette;
 | 
| 16 |  |    (C) a magnetic tape; or
 | 
| 17 |  |    (D) a pharmacy universal claim form or Pharmacy  | 
| 18 |  |  Inventory Control form;
 | 
| 19 |  |   (4) The Department may impose a civil fine of up to  | 
| 20 |  |  $100 per day for willful failure to report controlled  | 
| 21 |  |  substance dispensing to the Prescription Monitoring  | 
| 22 |  |  Program. The fine shall be calculated on no more than the  | 
| 23 |  |  number of days from the time the report was required to be  | 
| 24 |  |  made until the time the problem was resolved, and shall be  | 
| 25 |  |  payable to the Prescription Monitoring Program. 
 | 
| 26 |  |  (b) The Department, by rule, may include in the monitoring  | 
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| 
 | 
| 1 |  | program certain other select drugs that are not included in  | 
| 2 |  | Schedule II, III, IV, or V. The prescription monitoring program  | 
| 3 |  | does not apply to
controlled substance prescriptions as  | 
| 4 |  | exempted under Section
313.
 | 
| 5 |  |  (c) The collection of data on select drugs and scheduled  | 
| 6 |  | substances by the Prescription Monitoring Program may be used  | 
| 7 |  | as a tool for addressing oversight requirements of long-term  | 
| 8 |  | care institutions as set forth by Public Act 96-1372. Long-term  | 
| 9 |  | care pharmacies shall transmit patient medication profiles to  | 
| 10 |  | the Prescription Monitoring Program monthly or more frequently  | 
| 11 |  | as established by administrative rule.  | 
| 12 |  |  (d) The Department of Human Services shall appoint a  | 
| 13 |  | full-time Clinical Director of the Prescription Monitoring  | 
| 14 |  | Program. | 
| 15 |  |  (e) Within one year of the effective date of this  | 
| 16 |  | amendatory Act of the 99th General Assembly, the Department  | 
| 17 |  | shall adopt rules establishing pilot initiatives involving a  | 
| 18 |  | cross-section of hospitals in this State to increase electronic  | 
| 19 |  | integration of a hospital's electronic health record with the  | 
| 20 |  | Prescription Monitoring Program on or before January 1, 2019 to  | 
| 21 |  | ensure all providers have timely access to relevant  | 
| 22 |  | prescription information during the treatment of their  | 
| 23 |  | patients. These rules shall also establish pilots that enhance  | 
| 24 |  | the electronic integration of outpatient pharmacy records with  | 
| 25 |  | the Prescription Monitoring Program to allow for faster  | 
| 26 |  | transmission of the information required under this Section. In  | 
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| 
 | 
| 1 |  | collaboration with the Department of Human Services, the  | 
| 2 |  | Prescription Monitoring Program Advisory Committee shall  | 
| 3 |  | identify funding sources to support the pilot projects in this  | 
| 4 |  | Section and distribution of funds shall be based on voluntary  | 
| 5 |  | and incentive-based models. The rules adopted by the Department  | 
| 6 |  | shall also ensure that the Department continues to monitor  | 
| 7 |  | updates in Electronic Health Record Technology and how other  | 
| 8 |  | states have integrated their prescription monitoring databases  | 
| 9 |  | with Electronic Health Records.  | 
| 10 |  | (Source: P.A. 97-334, eff. 1-1-12.)
 | 
| 11 |  |  (720 ILCS 570/317)
 | 
| 12 |  |  Sec. 317. Central repository for collection of  | 
| 13 |  | information. 
 | 
| 14 |  |  (a) The Department must designate a central repository for
 | 
| 15 |  | the collection of information transmitted under Section 316 and  | 
| 16 |  | former Section 321.
 | 
| 17 |  |  (b) The central repository must do the following:
 | 
| 18 |  |   (1) Create a database for information required to be  | 
| 19 |  |  transmitted under
Section 316 in the form required under  | 
| 20 |  |  rules adopted by the
Department, including search  | 
| 21 |  |  capability for the following:
 | 
| 22 |  |    (A) A recipient's name and address.
 | 
| 23 |  |    (B) A recipient's date of birth and gender address.
 | 
| 24 |  |    (C) The national drug code number of a controlled  | 
| 25 |  |  substance
dispensed.
 | 
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| 
 | 
| 1 |  |    (D) The dates a controlled substance is dispensed.
 | 
| 2 |  |    (E) The quantities and days supply of a controlled  | 
| 3 |  |  substance dispensed.
 | 
| 4 |  |    (F) A dispenser's Administration
registration  | 
| 5 |  |  number.
 | 
| 6 |  |    (G) A prescriber's Administration
registration  | 
| 7 |  |  number.
 | 
| 8 |  |    (H) The dates the controlled substance  | 
| 9 |  |  prescription is filled. | 
| 10 |  |    (I) The payment type used to purchase the  | 
| 11 |  |  controlled substance (i.e. Medicaid, cash, third party  | 
| 12 |  |  insurance). | 
| 13 |  |    (J) The patient location code (i.e. home, nursing  | 
| 14 |  |  home, outpatient, etc.) for controlled substance  | 
| 15 |  |  prescriptions other than those filled at a retail  | 
| 16 |  |  pharmacy. 
 | 
| 17 |  |   (2) Provide the Department with a database maintained  | 
| 18 |  |  by the central
repository. The Department of Financial and
 | 
| 19 |  |  Professional
Regulation must provide the
Department with  | 
| 20 |  |  electronic access to the license information of a  | 
| 21 |  |  prescriber or
dispenser.
 | 
| 22 |  |   (3) Secure the information collected by the central  | 
| 23 |  |  repository and the
database maintained by the central  | 
| 24 |  |  repository against access by unauthorized
persons. | 
| 25 |  |  All prescribers shall designate one or more medical  | 
| 26 |  | specialties or fields of medical care and treatment for which  | 
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| 
 | 
| 1 |  | the prescriber prescribes controlled substances when  | 
| 2 |  | registering with the Prescription Monitoring Program.  | 
| 3 |  |  No fee shall be charged for access by a prescriber or  | 
| 4 |  | dispenser.
 | 
| 5 |  | (Source: P.A. 97-334, eff. 1-1-12.)
 | 
| 6 |  |  (720 ILCS 570/318)
 | 
| 7 |  |  Sec. 318. Confidentiality of information. 
 | 
| 8 |  |  (a) Information received by the central repository under  | 
| 9 |  | Section 316 and former Section 321
is confidential.
 | 
| 10 |  |  (b) The Department must carry out a program to protect the
 | 
| 11 |  | confidentiality of the information described in subsection  | 
| 12 |  | (a). The Department
may
disclose the information to another  | 
| 13 |  | person only under
subsection (c), (d), or (f) and may charge a  | 
| 14 |  | fee not to exceed the actual cost
of
furnishing the
 | 
| 15 |  | information.
 | 
| 16 |  |  (c) The Department may disclose confidential information  | 
| 17 |  | described
in subsection (a) to any person who is engaged in  | 
| 18 |  | receiving, processing, or
storing the information.
 | 
| 19 |  |  (d) The Department may release confidential information  | 
| 20 |  | described
in subsection (a) to the following persons:
 | 
| 21 |  |   (1) A governing body
that licenses practitioners and is  | 
| 22 |  |  engaged in an investigation, an
adjudication,
or a  | 
| 23 |  |  prosecution of a violation under any State or federal law  | 
| 24 |  |  that involves a
controlled substance.
 | 
| 25 |  |   (2) An investigator for the Consumer Protection  | 
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| 
 | 
| 1 |  |  Division of the office of
the Attorney General, a  | 
| 2 |  |  prosecuting attorney, the Attorney General, a deputy
 | 
| 3 |  |  Attorney General, or an investigator from the office of the  | 
| 4 |  |  Attorney General,
who is engaged in any of the following  | 
| 5 |  |  activities involving controlled
substances:
 | 
| 6 |  |    (A) an investigation;
 | 
| 7 |  |    (B) an adjudication; or
 | 
| 8 |  |    (C) a prosecution
of a violation under any State or  | 
| 9 |  |  federal law that involves a controlled
substance.
 | 
| 10 |  |   (3) A law enforcement officer who is:
 | 
| 11 |  |    (A) authorized by the Illinois State Police or the  | 
| 12 |  |  office of a county sheriff or State's Attorney or
 | 
| 13 |  |  municipal police department of Illinois to receive
 | 
| 14 |  |  information
of the type requested for the purpose of  | 
| 15 |  |  investigations involving controlled
substances; or
 | 
| 16 |  |    (B) approved by the Department to receive  | 
| 17 |  |  information of the
type requested for the purpose of  | 
| 18 |  |  investigations involving controlled
substances; and
 | 
| 19 |  |    (C) engaged in the investigation or prosecution of  | 
| 20 |  |  a violation
under
any State or federal law that  | 
| 21 |  |  involves a controlled substance.
 | 
| 22 |  |  (e) Before the Department releases confidential  | 
| 23 |  | information under
subsection (d), the applicant must  | 
| 24 |  | demonstrate in writing to the Department that:
 | 
| 25 |  |   (1) the applicant has reason to believe that a  | 
| 26 |  |  violation under any
State or
federal law that involves a  | 
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| 
 | 
| 1 |  |  controlled substance has occurred; and
 | 
| 2 |  |   (2) the requested information is reasonably related to  | 
| 3 |  |  the investigation,
adjudication, or prosecution of the  | 
| 4 |  |  violation described in subdivision (1).
 | 
| 5 |  |  (f) The Department may receive and release prescription  | 
| 6 |  | record information under Section 316 and former Section 321 to:
 | 
| 7 |  |   (1) a governing
body that licenses practitioners;
 | 
| 8 |  |   (2) an investigator for the Consumer Protection  | 
| 9 |  |  Division of the office of
the Attorney General, a  | 
| 10 |  |  prosecuting attorney, the Attorney General, a deputy
 | 
| 11 |  |  Attorney General, or an investigator from the office of the  | 
| 12 |  |  Attorney General;
 | 
| 13 |  |   (3) any Illinois law enforcement officer who is:
 | 
| 14 |  |    (A) authorized to receive the type of
information  | 
| 15 |  |  released; and
 | 
| 16 |  |    (B) approved by the Department to receive the type  | 
| 17 |  |  of
information released; or
 | 
| 18 |  |   (4) prescription monitoring entities in other states  | 
| 19 |  |  per the provisions outlined in subsection (g) and (h)  | 
| 20 |  |  below;
 | 
| 21 |  | confidential prescription record information collected under  | 
| 22 |  | Sections 316 and 321 (now repealed) that identifies vendors or
 | 
| 23 |  | practitioners, or both, who are prescribing or dispensing large  | 
| 24 |  | quantities of
Schedule II, III, IV, or V controlled
substances  | 
| 25 |  | outside the scope of their practice, pharmacy, or business, as  | 
| 26 |  | determined by the Advisory Committee created by Section 320.
 | 
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| 
 | 
| 1 |  |  (g) The information described in subsection (f) may not be  | 
| 2 |  | released until it
has been reviewed by an employee of the  | 
| 3 |  | Department who is licensed as a
prescriber or a dispenser
and  | 
| 4 |  | until that employee has certified
that further investigation is  | 
| 5 |  | warranted. However, failure to comply with this
subsection (g)  | 
| 6 |  | does not invalidate the use of any evidence that is otherwise
 | 
| 7 |  | admissible in a proceeding described in subsection (h).
 | 
| 8 |  |  (h) An investigator or a law enforcement officer receiving  | 
| 9 |  | confidential
information under subsection (c), (d), or (f) may  | 
| 10 |  | disclose the information to a
law enforcement officer or an  | 
| 11 |  | attorney for the office of the Attorney General
for use as  | 
| 12 |  | evidence in the following:
 | 
| 13 |  |   (1) A proceeding under any State or federal law that  | 
| 14 |  |  involves a
controlled substance.
 | 
| 15 |  |   (2) A criminal proceeding or a proceeding in juvenile  | 
| 16 |  |  court that involves
a controlled substance.
 | 
| 17 |  |  (i) The Department may compile statistical reports from the
 | 
| 18 |  | information described in subsection (a). The reports must not  | 
| 19 |  | include
information that identifies, by name, license or  | 
| 20 |  | address, any practitioner, dispenser, ultimate user, or other  | 
| 21 |  | person
administering a controlled substance.
 | 
| 22 |  |  (j) Based upon federal, initial and maintenance funding, a  | 
| 23 |  | prescriber and dispenser inquiry system shall be developed to  | 
| 24 |  | assist the health care community in its goal of effective  | 
| 25 |  | clinical practice and to prevent patients from diverting or  | 
| 26 |  | abusing medications.
 | 
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| 
 | 
| 1 |  |   (1) An inquirer shall have read-only access to a  | 
| 2 |  |  stand-alone database which shall contain records for the  | 
| 3 |  |  previous 12 months. | 
| 4 |  |   (2) Dispensers may, upon positive and secure  | 
| 5 |  |  identification, make an inquiry on a patient or customer  | 
| 6 |  |  solely for a medical purpose as delineated within the  | 
| 7 |  |  federal HIPAA law. | 
| 8 |  |   (3) The Department shall provide a one-to-one secure  | 
| 9 |  |  link and encrypted software necessary to establish the link  | 
| 10 |  |  between an inquirer and the Department. Technical  | 
| 11 |  |  assistance shall also be provided. | 
| 12 |  |   (4) Written inquiries are acceptable but must include  | 
| 13 |  |  the fee and the requestor's Drug Enforcement  | 
| 14 |  |  Administration license number and submitted upon the  | 
| 15 |  |  requestor's business stationery. | 
| 16 |  |   (5) As directed by the Prescription Monitoring Program  | 
| 17 |  |  Advisory Committee and the Clinical Director for the  | 
| 18 |  |  Prescription Monitoring Program, aggregate data that does  | 
| 19 |  |  not indicate any prescriber, practitioner, dispenser, or  | 
| 20 |  |  patient may be used for clinical studies. | 
| 21 |  |   (6) Tracking analysis shall be established and used per  | 
| 22 |  |  administrative rule. | 
| 23 |  |   (7) Nothing in this Act or Illinois law shall be  | 
| 24 |  |  construed to require a prescriber or dispenser to make use  | 
| 25 |  |  of this inquiry system.
 | 
| 26 |  |   (8) If there is an adverse outcome because of a  | 
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| 
 | 
| 1 |  |  prescriber or dispenser making an inquiry, which is  | 
| 2 |  |  initiated in good faith, the prescriber or dispenser shall  | 
| 3 |  |  be held harmless from any civil liability.
 | 
| 4 |  |  (k) The Department shall establish, by rule, the process by  | 
| 5 |  | which to evaluate possible erroneous association of  | 
| 6 |  | prescriptions to any licensed prescriber or end user of the  | 
| 7 |  | Illinois Prescription Information Library (PIL). | 
| 8 |  |  (l) The Prescription Monitoring Program Advisory Committee  | 
| 9 |  | is authorized to evaluate the need for and method of  | 
| 10 |  | establishing a patient specific identifier. | 
| 11 |  |  (m) Patients who identify prescriptions attributed to them  | 
| 12 |  | that were not obtained by them shall be given access to their  | 
| 13 |  | personal prescription history pursuant to the validation  | 
| 14 |  | process as set forth by administrative rule. | 
| 15 |  |  (n) The Prescription Monitoring Program is authorized to  | 
| 16 |  | develop operational push reports to entities with compatible  | 
| 17 |  | electronic medical records. The process shall be covered within  | 
| 18 |  | administrative rule established by the Department. | 
| 19 |  |  (o) Hospital emergency departments and freestanding  | 
| 20 |  | healthcare facilities providing healthcare to walk-in patients  | 
| 21 |  | may obtain, for the purpose of improving patient care, a unique  | 
| 22 |  | identifier for each shift to utilize the PIL system.  | 
| 23 |  |  (p) The Prescription Monitoring Program shall  | 
| 24 |  | automatically create a log-in to the inquiry system when a  | 
| 25 |  | prescriber or dispenser obtains or renews his or her controlled  | 
| 26 |  | substance license. The Department of Financial and  | 
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  | 
| 
 | 
| 1 |  | Professional Regulation must provide the Prescription  | 
| 2 |  | Monitoring Program with electronic access to the license  | 
| 3 |  | information of a prescriber or dispenser to facilitate the  | 
| 4 |  | creation of this profile. The Prescription Monitoring Program  | 
| 5 |  | shall send the prescriber or dispenser information regarding  | 
| 6 |  | the inquiry system, including instructions on how to log into  | 
| 7 |  | the system, instructions on how to use the system to promote  | 
| 8 |  | effective clinical practice, and opportunities for continuing  | 
| 9 |  | education for the prescribing of controlled substances. The  | 
| 10 |  | Prescription Monitoring Program shall also send to all enrolled  | 
| 11 |  | prescribers, dispensers, and designees information regarding  | 
| 12 |  | the unsolicited reports produced pursuant to Section 314.5 of  | 
| 13 |  | this Act.  | 
| 14 |  |  (q) A prescriber or dispenser may authorize a designee to  | 
| 15 |  | consult the inquiry system established by the Department under  | 
| 16 |  | this subsection on his or her behalf, provided that all the  | 
| 17 |  | following conditions are met:  | 
| 18 |  |   (1) the designee so authorized is employed by the same  | 
| 19 |  |  hospital or health care system; is employed by the same  | 
| 20 |  |  professional practice; or is under contract with such  | 
| 21 |  |  practice, hospital, or health care system;  | 
| 22 |  |   (2) the prescriber or dispenser takes reasonable steps  | 
| 23 |  |  to ensure that such designee is sufficiently competent in  | 
| 24 |  |  the use of the inquiry system;  | 
| 25 |  |   (3) the prescriber or dispenser remains responsible  | 
| 26 |  |  for ensuring that access to the inquiry system by the  | 
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| 
 | 
| 1 |  |  designee is limited to authorized purposes and occurs in a  | 
| 2 |  |  manner that protects the confidentiality of the  | 
| 3 |  |  information obtained from the inquiry system, and remains  | 
| 4 |  |  responsible for any breach of confidentiality; and  | 
| 5 |  |   (4) the ultimate decision as to whether or not to  | 
| 6 |  |  prescribe or dispense a controlled substance remains with  | 
| 7 |  |  the prescriber or dispenser. | 
| 8 |  |  The Prescription Monitoring Program shall send to  | 
| 9 |  | registered designees information regarding the inquiry system,  | 
| 10 |  | including instructions on how to log onto the system.  | 
| 11 |  |  (r) The Prescription Monitoring Program shall maintain an  | 
| 12 |  | Internet website in conjunction with its prescriber and  | 
| 13 |  | dispenser inquiry system. This website shall include, at a  | 
| 14 |  | minimum, the following information:  | 
| 15 |  |   (1) current clinical guidelines developed by health  | 
| 16 |  |  care professional organizations on the prescribing of  | 
| 17 |  |  opioids or other controlled substances as determined by the  | 
| 18 |  |  Advisory Committee; | 
| 19 |  |   (2) accredited continuing education programs related  | 
| 20 |  |  to prescribing of controlled substances;  | 
| 21 |  |   (3) programs or information developed by health care  | 
| 22 |  |  professionals that may be used to assess patients or help  | 
| 23 |  |  ensure compliance with prescriptions; | 
| 24 |  |   (4) updates from the Food and Drug Administration, the  | 
| 25 |  |  Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, and other  | 
| 26 |  |  public and private organizations which are relevant to  | 
     | 
 |  | HB0001 Engrossed | - 216 - | LRB099 00249 HEP 20254 b |  
  | 
| 
 | 
| 1 |  |  prescribing; | 
| 2 |  |   (5) relevant medical studies related to prescribing; | 
| 3 |  |   (6) other information regarding the prescription of  | 
| 4 |  |  controlled substances; and | 
| 5 |  |   (7) information regarding prescription drug disposal  | 
| 6 |  |  events, including take-back programs or other disposal  | 
| 7 |  |  options or events.  | 
| 8 |  |  The content of the Internet website shall be periodically  | 
| 9 |  | reviewed by the Prescription Monitoring Program Advisory  | 
| 10 |  | Committee as set forth in Section 320 and updated in accordance  | 
| 11 |  | with the recommendation of the advisory committee.  | 
| 12 |  |  (s) The Prescription Monitoring Program shall regularly  | 
| 13 |  | send electronic updates to the registered users of the Program.  | 
| 14 |  | The Prescription Monitoring Program Advisory Committee shall  | 
| 15 |  | review any communications sent to registered users and also  | 
| 16 |  | make recommendations for communications as set forth in Section  | 
| 17 |  | 320. These updates shall include the following information:  | 
| 18 |  |   (1) opportunities for accredited continuing education  | 
| 19 |  |  programs related to prescribing of controlled substances; | 
| 20 |  |   (2) current clinical guidelines developed by health  | 
| 21 |  |  care professional organizations on the prescribing of  | 
| 22 |  |  opioids or other drugs as determined by the Advisory  | 
| 23 |  |  Committee; | 
| 24 |  |   (3) programs or information developed by health care  | 
| 25 |  |  professionals that may be used to assess patients or help  | 
| 26 |  |  ensure compliance with prescriptions; | 
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| 
 | 
| 1 |  |   (4) updates from the Food and Drug Administration, the  | 
| 2 |  |  Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, and other  | 
| 3 |  |  public and private organizations which are relevant to  | 
| 4 |  |  prescribing; | 
| 5 |  |   (5) relevant medical studies related to prescribing; | 
| 6 |  |   (6) other information regarding prescribing of  | 
| 7 |  |  controlled substances; | 
| 8 |  |   (7) information regarding prescription drug disposal  | 
| 9 |  |  events, including take-back programs or other disposal  | 
| 10 |  |  options or events; and | 
| 11 |  |   (8) reminders that the Prescription Monitoring Program  | 
| 12 |  |  is a useful clinical tool.  | 
| 13 |  | (Source: P.A. 97-334, eff. 1-1-12; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12.)
 | 
| 14 |  |  (720 ILCS 570/319)
 | 
| 15 |  |  Sec. 319. Rules. The Department shall must adopt rules  | 
| 16 |  | under the Illinois
Administrative
Procedure Act to
implement  | 
| 17 |  | Sections 316 through 321, including the following:
 | 
| 18 |  |   (1) Information collection and retrieval procedures  | 
| 19 |  |  for the central
repository, including the
controlled  | 
| 20 |  |  substances to be included in
the program
required under  | 
| 21 |  |  Section 316 and Section 321 (now repealed).
 | 
| 22 |  |   (2) Design for the creation of the database required  | 
| 23 |  |  under Section
317.
 | 
| 24 |  |   (3) Requirements for the development and installation  | 
| 25 |  |  of on-line
electronic access by the Department to  | 
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| 
 | 
| 1 |  |  information collected by the
central repository.
 | 
| 2 |  | (Source: P.A. 97-334, eff. 1-1-12.)
 | 
| 3 |  |  (720 ILCS 570/320)
 | 
| 4 |  |  Sec. 320. Advisory committee. 
 | 
| 5 |  |  (a) There is created a Prescription Monitoring Program  | 
| 6 |  | Advisory Committee The Secretary of the Department of Human  | 
| 7 |  | Services must appoint an advisory committee to
assist the  | 
| 8 |  | Department of Human Services in implementing the Prescription  | 
| 9 |  | Monitoring Program controlled substance
prescription
 | 
| 10 |  | monitoring program created by this Article and to advise the  | 
| 11 |  | Department on the professional performance of prescribers and  | 
| 12 |  | dispensers and other matters germane to the advisory  | 
| 13 |  | committee's field of competence Section 316 and former Section  | 
| 14 |  | 321 of this Act.
The Advisory Committee consists of prescribers  | 
| 15 |  | and dispensers.
 | 
| 16 |  |  (b) The Clinical Director of the Prescription Monitoring  | 
| 17 |  | Program shall appoint Secretary of the Department of Human  | 
| 18 |  | Services or his or her designee must determine the number of  | 
| 19 |  | members to
serve on the advisory committee. The advisory  | 
| 20 |  | committee shall be composed of prescribers and dispensers as  | 
| 21 |  | follows: 4 physicians licensed to practice medicine in all its  | 
| 22 |  | branches; one advanced practice nurse; one physician  | 
| 23 |  | assistant; one optometrist; one dentist; one podiatric  | 
| 24 |  | physician; and 3 pharmacists. The Clinical Director of the  | 
| 25 |  | Prescription Monitoring Program may appoint a representative  | 
     | 
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| 
 | 
| 1 |  | of an organization representing a profession required to be  | 
| 2 |  | appointed. The Clinical Director of the Prescription  | 
| 3 |  | Monitoring Program shall serve as the chair of the committee.  | 
| 4 |  | The Secretary must choose one of the members
of the advisory  | 
| 5 |  | committee to serve as chair of the committee.
 | 
| 6 |  |  (c) The advisory committee may appoint its other officers  | 
| 7 |  | as it deems
appropriate.
 | 
| 8 |  |  (d) The members of the advisory committee shall receive no  | 
| 9 |  | compensation for
their services as members of the advisory  | 
| 10 |  | committee but may be reimbursed for
their actual expenses  | 
| 11 |  | incurred in serving on the advisory committee.
 | 
| 12 |  |  (e) The advisory committee shall: | 
| 13 |  |   (1) provide a uniform approach to reviewing this Act in  | 
| 14 |  |  order to determine whether changes should be recommended to  | 
| 15 |  |  the General Assembly; . | 
| 16 |  |   (2) review current drug schedules in order to manage  | 
| 17 |  |  changes to the administrative rules pertaining to the  | 
| 18 |  |  utilization of this Act; .  | 
| 19 |  |   (3) review the following: current clinical guidelines  | 
| 20 |  |  developed by health care professional organizations on the  | 
| 21 |  |  prescribing of opioids or other controlled substances;  | 
| 22 |  |  accredited continuing education programs related to  | 
| 23 |  |  prescribing and dispensing; programs or information  | 
| 24 |  |  developed by health care professional organizations that  | 
| 25 |  |  may be used to assess patients or help ensure compliance  | 
| 26 |  |  with prescriptions; updates from the Food and Drug  | 
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  | 
| 
 | 
| 1 |  |  Administration, the Centers for Disease Control and  | 
| 2 |  |  Prevention, and other public and private organizations  | 
| 3 |  |  which are relevant to prescribing and dispensing; relevant  | 
| 4 |  |  medical studies; and other publications which involve the  | 
| 5 |  |  prescription of controlled substances; | 
| 6 |  |   (4) make recommendations for inclusion of these  | 
| 7 |  |  materials or other studies which may be effective resources  | 
| 8 |  |  for prescribers and dispensers on the Internet website of  | 
| 9 |  |  the inquiry system established under Section 318; | 
| 10 |  |   (5) on at least a quarterly basis, review the content  | 
| 11 |  |  of the Internet website of the inquiry system established  | 
| 12 |  |  pursuant to Section 318 to ensure this Internet website has  | 
| 13 |  |  the most current available information; | 
| 14 |  |   (6) on at least a quarterly basis, review opportunities  | 
| 15 |  |  for federal grants and other forms of funding to support  | 
| 16 |  |  projects which will increase the number of pilot programs  | 
| 17 |  |  which integrate the inquiry system with electronic health  | 
| 18 |  |  records; and  | 
| 19 |  |   (7) on at least a quarterly basis, review communication  | 
| 20 |  |  to be sent to all registered users of the inquiry system  | 
| 21 |  |  established pursuant to Section 318, including  | 
| 22 |  |  recommendations for relevant accredited continuing  | 
| 23 |  |  education and information regarding prescribing and  | 
| 24 |  |  dispensing.  | 
| 25 |  |  (f) The Clinical Director of the Prescription Monitoring  | 
| 26 |  | Program shall select 5 members, 3 physicians and 2 pharmacists,  | 
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| 
 | 
| 1 |  | of the Prescription Monitoring Program Advisory Committee to  | 
| 2 |  | serve as members of the peer review subcommittee. The purpose  | 
| 3 |  | of the peer review subcommittee is to advise the Program on  | 
| 4 |  | matters germane to the advisory committee's field of  | 
| 5 |  | competence, establish a formal peer review of professional  | 
| 6 |  | performance of prescribers and dispensers, and develop  | 
| 7 |  | communications to transmit to prescribers and dispensers. The  | 
| 8 |  | deliberations, information, and communications of the peer  | 
| 9 |  | review subcommittee are privileged and confidential and shall  | 
| 10 |  | not be disclosed in any manner except in accordance with  | 
| 11 |  | current law.  | 
| 12 |  |   (1) The peer review subcommittee shall periodically  | 
| 13 |  |  review the data contained within the prescription  | 
| 14 |  |  monitoring program to identify those prescribers or  | 
| 15 |  |  dispensers who may be prescribing or dispensing outside the  | 
| 16 |  |  currently accepted standards in the course of their  | 
| 17 |  |  professional practice. | 
| 18 |  |   (2) The peer review subcommittee may identify  | 
| 19 |  |  prescribers or dispensers who may be prescribing outside  | 
| 20 |  |  the currently accepted medical standards in the course of  | 
| 21 |  |  their professional practice and send the identified  | 
| 22 |  |  prescriber or dispenser a request for information  | 
| 23 |  |  regarding their prescribing or dispensing practices. This  | 
| 24 |  |  request for information shall be sent via certified mail,  | 
| 25 |  |  return receipt requested. A prescriber or dispenser shall  | 
| 26 |  |  have 30 days to respond to the request for information.  | 
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 |  | HB0001 Engrossed | - 222 - | LRB099 00249 HEP 20254 b |  
  | 
| 
 | 
| 1 |  |   (3) The peer review subcommittee shall refer a  | 
| 2 |  |  prescriber or a dispenser to the Department of Financial  | 
| 3 |  |  and Professional Regulation in the following situations:  | 
| 4 |  |    (i) if a prescriber or dispenser does not respond  | 
| 5 |  |  to three successive requests for information; | 
| 6 |  |    (ii) in the opinion of a majority of members of the  | 
| 7 |  |  peer review subcommittee, the prescriber or dispenser  | 
| 8 |  |  does not have a satisfactory explanation for the  | 
| 9 |  |  practices identified by the peer review subcommittee  | 
| 10 |  |  in its request for information; or | 
| 11 |  |    (iii) following communications with the peer  | 
| 12 |  |  review subcommittee, the prescriber or dispenser does  | 
| 13 |  |  not sufficiently rectify the practices identified in  | 
| 14 |  |  the request for information in the opinion of a  | 
| 15 |  |  majority of the members of the peer review  | 
| 16 |  |  subcommittee.  | 
| 17 |  |   (4) The Department of Financial and Professional  | 
| 18 |  |  Regulation may initiate an investigation and discipline in  | 
| 19 |  |  accordance with current laws and rules for any prescriber  | 
| 20 |  |  or dispenser referred by the peer review subcommittee.  | 
| 21 |  |   (5) The peer review subcommittee shall prepare an  | 
| 22 |  |  annual report starting on July 1, 2017. This report shall  | 
| 23 |  |  contain the following information: the number of times the  | 
| 24 |  |  peer review subcommittee was convened; the number of  | 
| 25 |  |  prescribers or dispensers who were reviewed by the peer  | 
| 26 |  |  review committee; the number of requests for information  | 
     | 
 |  | HB0001 Engrossed | - 223 - | LRB099 00249 HEP 20254 b |  
  | 
| 
 | 
| 1 |  |  sent out by the peer review subcommittee; and the number of  | 
| 2 |  |  prescribers or dispensers referred to the Department of  | 
| 3 |  |  Financial and Professional Regulation. The annual report  | 
| 4 |  |  shall be delivered electronically to the Department and to  | 
| 5 |  |  the General Assembly. The report prepared by the peer  | 
| 6 |  |  review subcommittee shall not identify any prescriber,  | 
| 7 |  |  dispenser, or patient.  | 
| 8 |  | (Source: P.A. 97-334, eff. 1-1-12.)
 | 
| 9 |  |  (720 ILCS 570/406) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 1406)
 | 
| 10 |  |  Sec. 406. (a) It is unlawful for any person: 
 | 
| 11 |  |   (1) who is subject to Article III knowingly to  | 
| 12 |  |  distribute or dispense
a controlled substance in violation  | 
| 13 |  |  of Sections 308 through 314.5 of this Act; or
 | 
| 14 |  |   (2) who is a registrant, to manufacture a controlled  | 
| 15 |  |  substance not
authorized by his or her registration, or to  | 
| 16 |  |  distribute or dispense a controlled
substance not  | 
| 17 |  |  authorized by his or her registration to another registrant  | 
| 18 |  |  or other
authorized person; or
 | 
| 19 |  |   (3) to refuse or fail to make, keep or furnish any  | 
| 20 |  |  record, notification,
order form, statement, invoice or  | 
| 21 |  |  information required under this Act; or
 | 
| 22 |  |   (4) to refuse an entry into any premises for any  | 
| 23 |  |  inspection authorized by
this Act; or
 | 
| 24 |  |   (5) knowingly to keep or maintain any store, shop,  | 
| 25 |  |  warehouse, dwelling,
building, vehicle, boat, aircraft, or  | 
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 |  | HB0001 Engrossed | - 224 - | LRB099 00249 HEP 20254 b |  
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| 
 | 
| 1 |  |  other structure or place, which is
resorted to by a person  | 
| 2 |  |  unlawfully possessing controlled substances, or
which is  | 
| 3 |  |  used for possessing, manufacturing, dispensing or  | 
| 4 |  |  distributing
controlled substances in violation of this  | 
| 5 |  |  Act.
 | 
| 6 |  |  Any person who violates this subsection (a) is guilty of a  | 
| 7 |  | Class A
misdemeanor for the first offense and a Class 4 felony  | 
| 8 |  | for each subsequent
offense. The fine for each subsequent  | 
| 9 |  | offense shall not be more than
$100,000. In addition, any  | 
| 10 |  | practitioner who is found guilty of violating
this subsection  | 
| 11 |  | (a) is subject to suspension and revocation of his or her
 | 
| 12 |  | professional license, in accordance with such procedures as are  | 
| 13 |  | provided by
law for the taking of disciplinary action with  | 
| 14 |  | regard to the license of
said practitioner's profession.
 | 
| 15 |  |  (b) It is unlawful for any person knowingly:
 | 
| 16 |  |   (1) to distribute, as a registrant, a controlled  | 
| 17 |  |  substance classified
in Schedule I or II, except pursuant  | 
| 18 |  |  to an order form as required by Section
307 of this Act; or
 | 
| 19 |  |   (2) to use, in the course of the manufacture or  | 
| 20 |  |  distribution of a
controlled
substance, a registration  | 
| 21 |  |  number which is fictitious, revoked, suspended,
or issued  | 
| 22 |  |  to another person; or
 | 
| 23 |  |   (3) to acquire or obtain, or attempt to acquire or  | 
| 24 |  |  obtain, possession of a controlled substance by
 | 
| 25 |  |  misrepresentation, fraud, forgery, deception or  | 
| 26 |  |  subterfuge; or
 | 
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 |  | HB0001 Engrossed | - 225 - | LRB099 00249 HEP 20254 b |  
  | 
| 
 | 
| 1 |  |   (3.1) to withhold information requested from a  | 
| 2 |  |  practitioner, with the intent to obtain a controlled  | 
| 3 |  |  substance that has not been prescribed, by  | 
| 4 |  |  misrepresentation, fraud, forgery, deception, subterfuge,  | 
| 5 |  |  or concealment of a material fact; or
 | 
| 6 |  |   (4) to furnish false or fraudulent material  | 
| 7 |  |  information in, or omit any
material information from, any  | 
| 8 |  |  application, report or other document required
to be kept  | 
| 9 |  |  or filed under this Act, or any record required to be kept  | 
| 10 |  |  by
this Act; or
 | 
| 11 |  |   (5) to make, distribute or possess any punch, die,  | 
| 12 |  |  plate, stone or other
thing designed to print, imprint or  | 
| 13 |  |  reproduce the trademark, trade name
or other identifying  | 
| 14 |  |  mark, imprint or device of another, or any likeness
of any  | 
| 15 |  |  of the foregoing, upon any controlled substance or  | 
| 16 |  |  container or labeling
thereof so as to render the drug a  | 
| 17 |  |  counterfeit substance; or
 | 
| 18 |  |   (6) (blank); or
 | 
| 19 |  |   (7) (blank).
 | 
| 20 |  |  Any person who violates this subsection (b) is guilty of a  | 
| 21 |  | Class 4 felony
for the first offense and a Class 3 felony for  | 
| 22 |  | each subsequent offense.
The fine for the first offense shall  | 
| 23 |  | be not more than $100,000. The fine
for each subsequent offense  | 
| 24 |  | shall not be more than $200,000.
 | 
| 25 |  |  (c) A person who knowingly or intentionally violates  | 
| 26 |  | Section 316, 317, 318,
or 319 is guilty of a Class A  | 
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  | 
| 
 | 
| 1 |  | misdemeanor.
 | 
| 2 |  | (Source: P.A. 97-334, eff. 1-1-12.)
 | 
| 3 |  |  (720 ILCS 570/410) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 1410)
 | 
| 4 |  |  Sec. 410. (a) Whenever any person who has not previously  | 
| 5 |  | been convicted
of, or placed on probation or court supervision  | 
| 6 |  | for any offense under this
Act or any law of the United States  | 
| 7 |  | or of any State relating to cannabis
or controlled substances,  | 
| 8 |  | pleads guilty to or is found guilty of possession
of a  | 
| 9 |  | controlled or counterfeit substance under subsection (c) of  | 
| 10 |  | Section
402 or of unauthorized possession of prescription form  | 
| 11 |  | under Section 406.2, the court, without entering a judgment and  | 
| 12 |  | with the consent of such
person, may sentence him or her to  | 
| 13 |  | probation.
 | 
| 14 |  |  (b) When a person is placed on probation, the court shall  | 
| 15 |  | enter an order
specifying a period of probation of 24 months  | 
| 16 |  | and shall defer further
proceedings in the case until the  | 
| 17 |  | conclusion of the period or until the
filing of a petition  | 
| 18 |  | alleging violation of a term or condition of probation.
 | 
| 19 |  |  (c) The conditions of probation shall be that the person:  | 
| 20 |  | (1) not
violate any criminal statute of any jurisdiction; (2)  | 
| 21 |  | refrain from
possessing a firearm or other dangerous weapon;  | 
| 22 |  | (3) submit to periodic drug
testing at a time and in a manner  | 
| 23 |  | as ordered by the court, but no less than 3
times during the  | 
| 24 |  | period of the probation, with the cost of the testing to be
 | 
| 25 |  | paid by the probationer; and (4) perform no less than 30 hours  | 
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| 
 | 
| 1 |  | of community
service, provided community service is available  | 
| 2 |  | in the jurisdiction and is
funded
and approved by the county  | 
| 3 |  | board.
 | 
| 4 |  |  (d) The court may, in addition to other conditions, require  | 
| 5 |  | that the person:
 | 
| 6 |  |   (1) make a report to and appear in person before or  | 
| 7 |  |  participate with the
court or such courts, person, or  | 
| 8 |  |  social service agency as directed by the
court in the order  | 
| 9 |  |  of probation;
 | 
| 10 |  |   (2) pay a fine and costs;
 | 
| 11 |  |   (3) work or pursue a course of study or vocational
 | 
| 12 |  |  training;
 | 
| 13 |  |   (4) undergo medical or psychiatric treatment; or  | 
| 14 |  |  treatment or
rehabilitation approved by the Illinois  | 
| 15 |  |  Department of Human Services;
 | 
| 16 |  |   (5) attend or reside in a facility established for the  | 
| 17 |  |  instruction or
residence of defendants on probation;
 | 
| 18 |  |   (6) support his or her dependents;
 | 
| 19 |  |   (6-5) refrain from having in his or her body the  | 
| 20 |  |  presence of any illicit
drug prohibited by the Cannabis  | 
| 21 |  |  Control Act, the Illinois Controlled
Substances Act, or the  | 
| 22 |  |  Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act,  | 
| 23 |  |  unless prescribed by a physician, and submit samples of
his  | 
| 24 |  |  or her blood or urine or both for tests to determine the  | 
| 25 |  |  presence of any
illicit drug;
 | 
| 26 |  |   (7) and in addition, if a minor:
 | 
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| 
 | 
| 1 |  |    (i) reside with his or her parents or in a foster  | 
| 2 |  |  home;
 | 
| 3 |  |    (ii) attend school;
 | 
| 4 |  |    (iii) attend a non-residential program for youth;
 | 
| 5 |  |    (iv) contribute to his or her own support at home  | 
| 6 |  |  or in a foster home.
 | 
| 7 |  |  (e) Upon violation of a term or condition of probation, the  | 
| 8 |  | court
may enter a judgment on its original finding of guilt and  | 
| 9 |  | proceed as
otherwise provided.
 | 
| 10 |  |  (f) Upon fulfillment of the terms and conditions of  | 
| 11 |  | probation, the court
shall discharge the person and dismiss the  | 
| 12 |  | proceedings against him or her.
 | 
| 13 |  |  (g) A disposition of probation is considered to be a  | 
| 14 |  | conviction
for the purposes of imposing the conditions of  | 
| 15 |  | probation and for appeal,
however, discharge and dismissal  | 
| 16 |  | under this Section is not a conviction for
purposes of this Act  | 
| 17 |  | or for purposes of disqualifications or disabilities
imposed by  | 
| 18 |  | law upon conviction of a crime.
 | 
| 19 |  |  (h) There may be only one discharge and dismissal under  | 
| 20 |  | this Section,
Section 10 of the Cannabis Control Act, Section  | 
| 21 |  | 70 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act,  | 
| 22 |  | Section 5-6-3.3 or 5-6-3.4 of the Unified Code of Corrections,  | 
| 23 |  | or subsection (c) of Section 11-14 of the Criminal Code of 1961  | 
| 24 |  | or the Criminal Code of 2012 with respect to any person.
 | 
| 25 |  |  (i) If a person is convicted of an offense under this Act,  | 
| 26 |  | the Cannabis
Control Act, or the Methamphetamine Control and  | 
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| 
 | 
| 1 |  | Community Protection Act within 5 years
subsequent to a  | 
| 2 |  | discharge and dismissal under this Section, the discharge and
 | 
| 3 |  | dismissal under this Section shall be admissible in the  | 
| 4 |  | sentencing proceeding
for that conviction
as evidence in  | 
| 5 |  | aggravation.
 | 
| 6 |  |  (j) Notwithstanding subsection (a), before a person is  | 
| 7 |  | sentenced to probation under this Section, the court may refer  | 
| 8 |  | the person to the drug court established in that judicial  | 
| 9 |  | circuit pursuant to Section 15 of the Drug Court Treatment Act.  | 
| 10 |  | The drug court team shall evaluate the person's likelihood of  | 
| 11 |  | successfully completing a sentence of probation under this  | 
| 12 |  | Section and shall report the results of its evaluation to the  | 
| 13 |  | court. If the drug court team finds that the person suffers  | 
| 14 |  | from a substance abuse problem that makes him or her  | 
| 15 |  | substantially unlikely to successfully complete a sentence of  | 
| 16 |  | probation under this Section, then the drug court shall set  | 
| 17 |  | forth its findings in the form of a written order, and the  | 
| 18 |  | person shall not be sentenced to probation under this Section,  | 
| 19 |  | but may be considered for the drug court program. | 
| 20 |  | (Source: P.A. 97-334, eff. 1-1-12; 97-1118, eff. 1-1-13;  | 
| 21 |  | 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13; 98-164, eff. 1-1-14.)
 | 
| 22 |  |  Section 5-105. The Methamphetamine Control and Community  | 
| 23 |  | Protection Act is amended by changing Section 70 as follows:
 | 
| 24 |  |  (720 ILCS 646/70)
 | 
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| 1 |  |  Sec. 70. Probation.  | 
| 2 |  |  (a) Whenever any person who has not previously been  | 
| 3 |  | convicted of, or placed on probation or court supervision for  | 
| 4 |  | any offense under this Act, the Illinois Controlled Substances  | 
| 5 |  | Act, the Cannabis Control Act, or any law of the United States  | 
| 6 |  | or of any state relating to cannabis or controlled substances,  | 
| 7 |  | pleads guilty to or is found guilty of possession of less than  | 
| 8 |  | 15 grams of methamphetamine under paragraph (1) or (2) of  | 
| 9 |  | subsection (b) of Section 60 of this Act, the court, without  | 
| 10 |  | entering a judgment and with the consent of the person, may  | 
| 11 |  | sentence him or her to probation.
 | 
| 12 |  |  (b) When a person is placed on probation, the court shall  | 
| 13 |  | enter an order specifying a period of probation of 24 months  | 
| 14 |  | and shall defer further proceedings in the case until the  | 
| 15 |  | conclusion of the period or until the filing of a petition  | 
| 16 |  | alleging violation of a term or condition of probation.
 | 
| 17 |  |  (c) The conditions of probation shall be that the person:  | 
| 18 |  |   (1) not violate any criminal statute of any  | 
| 19 |  |  jurisdiction;  | 
| 20 |  |   (2) refrain from possessing a firearm or other  | 
| 21 |  |  dangerous weapon;  | 
| 22 |  |   (3) submit to periodic drug testing at a time and in a  | 
| 23 |  |  manner as ordered by the court, but no less than 3 times  | 
| 24 |  |  during the period of the probation, with the cost of the  | 
| 25 |  |  testing to be paid by the probationer; and  | 
| 26 |  |   (4) perform no less than 30 hours of community service,  | 
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| 1 |  |  if community service is available in the jurisdiction and  | 
| 2 |  |  is funded and approved by the county board.
 | 
| 3 |  |  (d) The court may, in addition to other conditions, require  | 
| 4 |  | that the person take one or more of the following actions:
 | 
| 5 |  |   (1) make a report to and appear in person before or  | 
| 6 |  |  participate with the court or such courts, person, or  | 
| 7 |  |  social service agency as directed by the court in the order  | 
| 8 |  |  of probation;
 | 
| 9 |  |   (2) pay a fine and costs;
 | 
| 10 |  |   (3) work or pursue a course of study or vocational  | 
| 11 |  |  training;
 | 
| 12 |  |   (4) undergo medical or psychiatric treatment; or  | 
| 13 |  |  treatment or rehabilitation approved by the Illinois  | 
| 14 |  |  Department of Human Services;
 | 
| 15 |  |   (5) attend or reside in a facility established for the  | 
| 16 |  |  instruction or residence of defendants on probation;
 | 
| 17 |  |   (6) support his or her dependents;
 | 
| 18 |  |   (7) refrain from having in his or her body the presence  | 
| 19 |  |  of any illicit drug prohibited by this Act, the Cannabis  | 
| 20 |  |  Control Act, or the Illinois Controlled Substances Act,  | 
| 21 |  |  unless prescribed by a physician, and submit samples of his  | 
| 22 |  |  or her blood or urine or both for tests to determine the  | 
| 23 |  |  presence of any illicit drug; or
 | 
| 24 |  |   (8) if a minor:
 | 
| 25 |  |    (i) reside with his or her parents or in a foster  | 
| 26 |  |  home;
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| 1 |  |    (ii) attend school;
 | 
| 2 |  |    (iii) attend a non-residential program for youth;  | 
| 3 |  |  or
 | 
| 4 |  |    (iv) contribute to his or her own support at home  | 
| 5 |  |  or in a foster home.
 | 
| 6 |  |  (e) Upon violation of a term or condition of probation, the  | 
| 7 |  | court may enter a judgment on its original finding of guilt and  | 
| 8 |  | proceed as otherwise provided.
 | 
| 9 |  |  (f) Upon fulfillment of the terms and conditions of  | 
| 10 |  | probation, the court shall discharge the person and dismiss the  | 
| 11 |  | proceedings against the person.
 | 
| 12 |  |  (g) A disposition of probation is considered to be a  | 
| 13 |  | conviction for the purposes of imposing the conditions of  | 
| 14 |  | probation and for appeal, however, discharge and dismissal  | 
| 15 |  | under this Section is not a conviction for purposes of this Act  | 
| 16 |  | or for purposes of disqualifications or disabilities imposed by  | 
| 17 |  | law upon conviction of a crime.
 | 
| 18 |  |  (h) There may be only one discharge and dismissal under  | 
| 19 |  | this Section, Section 410 of the Illinois Controlled Substances  | 
| 20 |  | Act, Section 10 of the Cannabis Control Act, Section 5-6-3.3 or  | 
| 21 |  | 5-6-3.4 of the Unified Code of Corrections, or subsection (c)  | 
| 22 |  | of Section 11-14 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal  | 
| 23 |  | Code of 2012 with respect to any person.
 | 
| 24 |  |  (i) If a person is convicted of an offense under this Act,  | 
| 25 |  | the Cannabis Control Act, or the Illinois Controlled Substances  | 
| 26 |  | Act within 5 years subsequent to a discharge and dismissal  | 
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| 1 |  | under this Section, the discharge and dismissal under this  | 
| 2 |  | Section are admissible in the sentencing proceeding for that  | 
| 3 |  | conviction as evidence in aggravation.
 | 
| 4 |  |  (j) Notwithstanding subsection (a), before a person is  | 
| 5 |  | sentenced to probation under this Section, the court may refer  | 
| 6 |  | the person to the drug court established in that judicial  | 
| 7 |  | circuit pursuant to Section 15 of the Drug Court Treatment Act.  | 
| 8 |  | The drug court team shall evaluate the person's likelihood of  | 
| 9 |  | successfully completing a sentence of probation under this  | 
| 10 |  | Section and shall report the results of its evaluation to the  | 
| 11 |  | court. If the drug court team finds that the person suffers  | 
| 12 |  | from a substance abuse problem that makes him or her  | 
| 13 |  | substantially unlikely to successfully complete a sentence of  | 
| 14 |  | probation under this Section, then the drug court shall set  | 
| 15 |  | forth its findings in the form of a written order, and the  | 
| 16 |  | person shall not be sentenced to probation under this Section,  | 
| 17 |  | but may be considered for the drug court program. | 
| 18 |  | (Source: P.A. 97-1118, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13;  | 
| 19 |  | 98-164, eff. 1-1-14.)
 | 
| 20 |  |  Section 5-110. The Unified Code of Corrections is amended  | 
| 21 |  | by changing Sections 5-6-3.3, 5-6-3.4, 5-9-1.1, and 5-9-1.1-5  | 
| 22 |  | as follows:
 | 
| 23 |  |  (730 ILCS 5/5-6-3.3) | 
| 24 |  |  Sec. 5-6-3.3. Offender Initiative Program. | 
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| 1 |  |  (a) Statement of purpose. The General Assembly seeks to
 | 
| 2 |  | continue other successful programs that promote public safety,
 | 
| 3 |  | conserve valuable resources, and reduce recidivism by
 | 
| 4 |  | defendants who can lead productive lives by creating the
 | 
| 5 |  | Offender Initiative Program. | 
| 6 |  |  (a-1) Whenever any person who has not previously been
 | 
| 7 |  | convicted of, or placed on probation or conditional discharge
 | 
| 8 |  | for, any felony offense under the laws of this State, the laws
 | 
| 9 |  | of any other state, or the laws of the United States, is
 | 
| 10 |  | arrested for and charged with a probationable felony offense of  | 
| 11 |  | theft, retail theft, forgery, possession of a stolen motor
 | 
| 12 |  | vehicle, burglary, possession of burglary tools, possession of
 | 
| 13 |  | cannabis, possession of a controlled substance, or possession
 | 
| 14 |  | of methamphetamine, the court, with the consent of the
 | 
| 15 |  | defendant and the State's Attorney, may continue this matter to
 | 
| 16 |  | allow a defendant to participate and complete the Offender
 | 
| 17 |  | Initiative Program. | 
| 18 |  |  (a-2) Exemptions. A defendant shall not be eligible for  | 
| 19 |  | this Program if the offense he or she has been arrested for and  | 
| 20 |  | charged with is a violent offense. For purposes of this
 | 
| 21 |  | Program, a "violent offense" is any offense where bodily harm
 | 
| 22 |  | was inflicted or where force was used against any person or
 | 
| 23 |  | threatened against any person, any offense involving sexual
 | 
| 24 |  | conduct, sexual penetration, or sexual exploitation, any
 | 
| 25 |  | offense of domestic violence, domestic battery, violation of an
 | 
| 26 |  | order of protection, stalking, hate crime, driving under the
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| 1 |  | influence of drugs or alcohol, and any offense involving the
 | 
| 2 |  | possession of a firearm or dangerous weapon. A defendant shall
 | 
| 3 |  | not be eligible for this Program if he or she has previously
 | 
| 4 |  | been adjudicated a delinquent minor for the commission of a
 | 
| 5 |  | violent offense as defined in this subsection. | 
| 6 |  |  (b) When a defendant is placed in the Program, after both  | 
| 7 |  | the defendant and State's Attorney waive preliminary hearing  | 
| 8 |  | pursuant to Section 109-3 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of  | 
| 9 |  | 1963, the court
shall enter an order specifying that
the  | 
| 10 |  | proceedings shall be suspended while the defendant is  | 
| 11 |  | participating in a Program of not less 12 months. | 
| 12 |  |  (c) The conditions of the Program shall be that the
 | 
| 13 |  | defendant: | 
| 14 |  |   (1) not violate any criminal statute of this State or
 | 
| 15 |  |  any other jurisdiction; | 
| 16 |  |   (2) refrain from possessing a firearm or other
 | 
| 17 |  |  dangerous weapon; | 
| 18 |  |   (3) make full restitution to the victim or property
 | 
| 19 |  |  owner pursuant to Section 5-5-6 of this Code; | 
| 20 |  |   (4) obtain employment or perform not less than 30 hours
 | 
| 21 |  |  of community service, provided community service is
 | 
| 22 |  |  available in the county and is funded and approved by the
 | 
| 23 |  |  county board; and | 
| 24 |  |   (5) attend educational courses designed to prepare the
 | 
| 25 |  |  defendant for obtaining a high school diploma or to work
 | 
| 26 |  |  toward passing high school equivalency testing or to work  | 
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| 1 |  |  toward
completing a vocational training program. | 
| 2 |  |  (d) The court may, in addition to other conditions, require
 | 
| 3 |  | that the defendant: | 
| 4 |  |   (1) undergo medical or psychiatric treatment, or
 | 
| 5 |  |  treatment or rehabilitation approved by the Illinois
 | 
| 6 |  |  Department of Human Services; | 
| 7 |  |   (2) refrain from having in his or her body the presence
 | 
| 8 |  |  of any illicit drug prohibited by the Methamphetamine
 | 
| 9 |  |  Control and Community Protection Act, the Cannabis Control
 | 
| 10 |  |  Act or the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, unless
 | 
| 11 |  |  prescribed by a physician, and submit samples of his or her
 | 
| 12 |  |  blood or urine or both for tests to determine the presence
 | 
| 13 |  |  of any illicit drug; | 
| 14 |  |   (3) submit to periodic drug testing at a time, manner,  | 
| 15 |  |  and frequency as ordered by the court; | 
| 16 |  |   (4) pay fines, fees and costs; and | 
| 17 |  |   (5) in addition, if a minor: | 
| 18 |  |    (i) reside with his or her parents or in a foster
 | 
| 19 |  |  home; | 
| 20 |  |    (ii) attend school; | 
| 21 |  |    (iii) attend a non-residential program for youth;
 | 
| 22 |  |  or | 
| 23 |  |    (iv) contribute to his or her own support at home
 | 
| 24 |  |  or in a foster home. | 
| 25 |  |  (e) When the State's Attorney makes a factually specific  | 
| 26 |  | offer of proof that the defendant has failed to successfully  | 
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| 1 |  | complete the Program or has violated any of the conditions of  | 
| 2 |  | the Program, the court shall enter an order that the defendant  | 
| 3 |  | has not successfully completed the Program and continue the  | 
| 4 |  | case for arraignment pursuant to Section 113-1 of the Code of  | 
| 5 |  | Criminal Procedure of 1963 for further proceedings as if the  | 
| 6 |  | defendant had not participated in the Program. | 
| 7 |  |  (f) Upon fulfillment of the terms and conditions of the
 | 
| 8 |  | Program, the State's Attorney shall dismiss the case or the  | 
| 9 |  | court shall discharge the person and dismiss the
proceedings  | 
| 10 |  | against the person. | 
| 11 |  |  (g) There may be only one discharge and dismissal under
 | 
| 12 |  | this Section with respect to any person.
 | 
| 13 |  |  (h) Notwithstanding subsection (a-1), if the court finds  | 
| 14 |  | that the defendant suffers from a substance abuse problem, then  | 
| 15 |  | before the person participates in the Program under this  | 
| 16 |  | Section, the court may refer the person to the drug court  | 
| 17 |  | established in that judicial circuit pursuant to Section 15 of  | 
| 18 |  | the Drug Court Treatment Act. The drug court team shall  | 
| 19 |  | evaluate the person's likelihood of successfully fulfilling  | 
| 20 |  | the terms and conditions of the Program under this Section and  | 
| 21 |  | shall report the results of its evaluation to the court. If the  | 
| 22 |  | drug court team finds that the person suffers from a substance  | 
| 23 |  | abuse problem that makes him or her substantially unlikely to  | 
| 24 |  | successfully fulfill the terms and conditions of the Program,  | 
| 25 |  | then the drug court shall set forth its findings in the form of  | 
| 26 |  | a written order, and the person shall be ineligible to  | 
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| 1 |  | participate in the Program under this Section, but may be  | 
| 2 |  | considered for the drug court program. | 
| 3 |  | (Source: P.A. 97-1118, eff. 1-1-13; 98-718, eff. 1-1-15.)
 | 
| 4 |  |  (730 ILCS 5/5-6-3.4) | 
| 5 |  |  Sec. 5-6-3.4. Second Chance Probation.  | 
| 6 |  |  (a) Whenever any person who has not previously been  | 
| 7 |  | convicted of, or placed on probation or conditional discharge  | 
| 8 |  | for, any felony offense under the laws of this State, the laws  | 
| 9 |  | of any other state, or the laws of the United States, including  | 
| 10 |  | probation under Section 410 of the Illinois Controlled  | 
| 11 |  | Substances Act, Section 70 of the Methamphetamine Control and  | 
| 12 |  | Community Protection Act, Section 10 of the Cannabis Control  | 
| 13 |  | Act, subsection (c) of Section 11-14 of the Criminal Code of  | 
| 14 |  | 2012, Treatment Alternatives for Criminal Justice Clients  | 
| 15 |  | (TASC) under Article 40 of the Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse  | 
| 16 |  | and Dependency Act, or prior successful completion of the  | 
| 17 |  | Offender Initiative Program under Section 5-6-3.3 of this Code,  | 
| 18 |  | and pleads guilty to, or is found guilty of, a probationable  | 
| 19 |  | felony offense of possession of a controlled substance that is  | 
| 20 |  | punishable as a Class 4 felony; possession of
methamphetamine  | 
| 21 |  | that is punishable as a Class 4 felony; theft that is  | 
| 22 |  | punishable as a Class 3 felony based on the value of the  | 
| 23 |  | property or punishable as a Class 4 felony if the theft was  | 
| 24 |  | committed in a school or place of worship or if the theft was  | 
| 25 |  | of governmental property; retail
theft that is punishable as a  | 
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| 1 |  | Class 3 felony based on the value of the property; criminal  | 
| 2 |  | damage to property that is punishable as a Class 4 felony;  | 
| 3 |  | criminal damage to
government supported property that is  | 
| 4 |  | punishable as a Class 4 felony; or possession of cannabis which  | 
| 5 |  | is punishable as a Class 4 felony, the court, with the consent  | 
| 6 |  | of the defendant and the State's Attorney, may, without  | 
| 7 |  | entering a judgment, sentence the defendant to probation under  | 
| 8 |  | this Section. | 
| 9 |  |  (a-1) Exemptions. A defendant is not eligible for this  | 
| 10 |  | probation if the offense he or she pleads guilty to, or is  | 
| 11 |  | found guilty of, is a violent offense, or he or she has  | 
| 12 |  | previously been convicted of a violent offense. For purposes of  | 
| 13 |  | this probation, a "violent offense" is any offense where bodily  | 
| 14 |  | harm was inflicted or where force was used against any person  | 
| 15 |  | or threatened against any person, any offense involving sexual  | 
| 16 |  | conduct, sexual penetration, or sexual exploitation, any  | 
| 17 |  | offense of domestic violence, domestic battery, violation of an  | 
| 18 |  | order of protection, stalking, hate crime, driving under the  | 
| 19 |  | influence of drugs or alcohol, and any offense involving the  | 
| 20 |  | possession of a firearm or dangerous weapon. A defendant shall  | 
| 21 |  | not be eligible for this probation if he or she has previously  | 
| 22 |  | been adjudicated a delinquent minor for the commission of a  | 
| 23 |  | violent offense as defined in this subsection. | 
| 24 |  |  (b) When a defendant is placed on probation, the court  | 
| 25 |  | shall enter an order specifying a period of probation of not  | 
| 26 |  | less than 24 months and shall defer further proceedings in the  | 
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| 1 |  | case until the conclusion of the period or until the filing of  | 
| 2 |  | a petition alleging violation of a term or condition of  | 
| 3 |  | probation. | 
| 4 |  |  (c) The conditions of probation shall be that the  | 
| 5 |  | defendant: | 
| 6 |  |   (1) not violate any criminal statute of this State or  | 
| 7 |  |  any other jurisdiction; | 
| 8 |  |   (2) refrain from possessing a firearm or other  | 
| 9 |  |  dangerous weapon; | 
| 10 |  |   (3) make full restitution to the victim or property  | 
| 11 |  |  owner under Section 5-5-6 of this Code; | 
| 12 |  |   (4) obtain or attempt to obtain employment; | 
| 13 |  |   (5) pay fines and costs; | 
| 14 |  |   (6) attend educational courses designed to prepare the  | 
| 15 |  |  defendant for obtaining a high school diploma or to work  | 
| 16 |  |  toward passing high school equivalency testing or to work  | 
| 17 |  |  toward completing a vocational training program; | 
| 18 |  |   (7) submit to periodic drug testing at a time and in a  | 
| 19 |  |  manner as ordered by the court, but no less than 3 times  | 
| 20 |  |  during the period of probation, with the cost of the  | 
| 21 |  |  testing to be paid by the defendant; and | 
| 22 |  |   (8) perform a minimum of 30 hours of community service. | 
| 23 |  |  (d) The court may, in addition to other conditions, require  | 
| 24 |  | that the defendant: | 
| 25 |  |   (1) make a report to and appear in person before or  | 
| 26 |  |  participate with the court or such courts, person, or  | 
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| 1 |  |  social service agency as directed by the court in the order  | 
| 2 |  |  of probation; | 
| 3 |  |   (2) undergo medical or psychiatric treatment, or  | 
| 4 |  |  treatment or rehabilitation approved by the Illinois  | 
| 5 |  |  Department of Human Services; | 
| 6 |  |   (3) attend or reside in a facility established for the  | 
| 7 |  |  instruction or residence of defendants on probation; | 
| 8 |  |   (4) support his or her dependents; or | 
| 9 |  |   (5) refrain from having in his or her body the presence  | 
| 10 |  |  of any illicit drug prohibited by the Methamphetamine  | 
| 11 |  |  Control and Community Protection Act, the Cannabis Control  | 
| 12 |  |  Act, or the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, unless  | 
| 13 |  |  prescribed by a physician, and submit samples of his or her  | 
| 14 |  |  blood or urine or both for tests to determine the presence  | 
| 15 |  |  of any illicit drug. | 
| 16 |  |  (e) Upon violation of a term or condition of probation, the  | 
| 17 |  | court may enter a judgment on its original finding of guilt and  | 
| 18 |  | proceed as otherwise provided by law. | 
| 19 |  |  (f) Upon fulfillment of the terms and conditions of  | 
| 20 |  | probation, the court shall discharge the person and dismiss the  | 
| 21 |  | proceedings against the person. | 
| 22 |  |  (g) A disposition of probation is considered to be a  | 
| 23 |  | conviction for the purposes of imposing the conditions of  | 
| 24 |  | probation and for appeal; however, a discharge and dismissal  | 
| 25 |  | under this Section is not a conviction for purposes of this  | 
| 26 |  | Code or for purposes of disqualifications or disabilities  | 
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| 
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| 1 |  | imposed by law upon conviction of a crime. | 
| 2 |  |  (h) There may be only one discharge and dismissal under  | 
| 3 |  | this Section, Section 410 of the Illinois Controlled Substances  | 
| 4 |  | Act, Section 70 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community  | 
| 5 |  | Protection Act, Section 10 of the Cannabis Control Act,  | 
| 6 |  | Treatment Alternatives for Criminal Justice Clients (TASC)  | 
| 7 |  | under Article 40 of the Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and  | 
| 8 |  | Dependency Act, the Offender Initiative Program under Section  | 
| 9 |  | 5-6-3.3 of this Code, and subsection (c) of Section 11-14 of  | 
| 10 |  | the Criminal Code of 2012 with respect to any person. | 
| 11 |  |  (i) If a person is convicted of any offense which occurred  | 
| 12 |  | within 5 years subsequent to a discharge and dismissal under  | 
| 13 |  | this Section, the discharge and dismissal under this Section  | 
| 14 |  | shall be admissible in the sentencing proceeding for that  | 
| 15 |  | conviction as evidence in aggravation.
 | 
| 16 |  |  (j) Notwithstanding subsection (a), if the court finds that  | 
| 17 |  | the defendant suffers from a substance abuse problem, then  | 
| 18 |  | before the person is placed on probation under this Section,  | 
| 19 |  | the court may refer the person to the drug court established in  | 
| 20 |  | that judicial circuit pursuant to Section 15 of the Drug Court  | 
| 21 |  | Treatment Act. The drug court team shall evaluate the person's  | 
| 22 |  | likelihood of successfully fulfilling the terms and conditions  | 
| 23 |  | of probation under this Section and shall report the results of  | 
| 24 |  | its evaluation to the court. If the drug court team finds that  | 
| 25 |  | the person suffers from a substance abuse problem that makes  | 
| 26 |  | him or her substantially unlikely to successfully fulfill the  | 
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| 1 |  | terms and conditions of probation under this Section, then the  | 
| 2 |  | drug court shall set forth its findings in the form of a  | 
| 3 |  | written order, and the person shall be ineligible to be placed  | 
| 4 |  | on probation under this Section, but may be considered for the  | 
| 5 |  | drug court program. | 
| 6 |  | (Source: P.A. 98-164, eff. 1-1-14; 98-718, eff. 1-1-15.)
 | 
| 7 |  |  (730 ILCS 5/5-9-1.1) (from Ch. 38, par. 1005-9-1.1) | 
| 8 |  |  (Text of Section from P.A. 94-550, 96-132, 96-402, 96-1234,  | 
| 9 |  | 97-545, and 98-537) | 
| 10 |  |  Sec. 5-9-1.1. Drug related offenses.  | 
| 11 |  |  (a) When a person has been adjudged guilty of a drug  | 
| 12 |  | related
offense involving possession or delivery of cannabis or  | 
| 13 |  | possession or delivery
of a controlled substance, other than  | 
| 14 |  | methamphetamine, as defined in the Cannabis Control Act, as  | 
| 15 |  | amended,
or the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, as amended,  | 
| 16 |  | in addition to any
other penalty imposed, a fine shall be  | 
| 17 |  | levied by the court at not less than
the full street value of  | 
| 18 |  | the cannabis or controlled substances seized. | 
| 19 |  |  "Street value" shall be determined by the court on the  | 
| 20 |  | basis of testimony
of law enforcement personnel and the  | 
| 21 |  | defendant as to the amount seized and
such testimony as may be  | 
| 22 |  | required by the court as to the current street
value of the  | 
| 23 |  | cannabis or controlled substance seized. | 
| 24 |  |  (b) In addition to any penalty imposed under subsection (a)  | 
| 25 |  | of this
Section, a fine of
$100 shall be levied by the court,  | 
     | 
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| 1 |  | the proceeds of which
shall be collected by the Circuit Clerk  | 
| 2 |  | and remitted to the State Treasurer
under Section 27.6 of the  | 
| 3 |  | Clerks of Courts Act
for deposit into the Trauma
Center Fund  | 
| 4 |  | for distribution as provided under Section 3.225 of the  | 
| 5 |  | Emergency
Medical Services (EMS) Systems Act. | 
| 6 |  |  (c) In addition to any penalty imposed under subsection (a)  | 
| 7 |  | of this
Section, a fee of $5 shall be assessed by the court,  | 
| 8 |  | the proceeds of which
shall be collected by the Circuit Clerk  | 
| 9 |  | and remitted to the State Treasurer
under Section 27.6 of the  | 
| 10 |  | Clerks of Courts Act for deposit into the Spinal Cord
Injury  | 
| 11 |  | Paralysis Cure Research Trust Fund.
This additional fee of $5  | 
| 12 |  | shall not be considered a part of the fine for
purposes of any  | 
| 13 |  | reduction in the fine for time served either before or after
 | 
| 14 |  | sentencing. | 
| 15 |  |  (d) In addition to any penalty imposed under subsection (a)  | 
| 16 |  | of this
Section for a drug related
offense involving possession  | 
| 17 |  | or delivery
of cannabis or possession or delivery of a  | 
| 18 |  | controlled substance as defined in the Cannabis Control Act,  | 
| 19 |  | the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or the Methamphetamine  | 
| 20 |  | Control and Community Protection Act, a fee of $50 shall be  | 
| 21 |  | assessed by the court, the proceeds of which
shall be collected  | 
| 22 |  | by the Circuit Clerk and remitted to the State Treasurer
under  | 
| 23 |  | Section 27.6 of the Clerks of Courts Act for deposit into the  | 
| 24 |  | Performance-enhancing Substance Testing Fund.
This additional  | 
| 25 |  | fee of $50 shall not be considered a part of the fine for
 | 
| 26 |  | purposes of any reduction in the fine for time served either  | 
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| 1 |  | before or after
sentencing. The provisions of this subsection  | 
| 2 |  | (d), other than this sentence, are inoperative after June 30,  | 
| 3 |  | 2011.  | 
| 4 |  |  (e) In addition to any penalty imposed under subsection (a)  | 
| 5 |  | of this
Section, a $25 assessment shall be assessed by the  | 
| 6 |  | court, the proceeds of which
shall be collected by the Circuit  | 
| 7 |  | Clerk and remitted to the State Treasurer for deposit into the  | 
| 8 |  | Criminal Justice Information Projects Fund. The moneys  | 
| 9 |  | deposited into the Criminal Justice Information Projects Fund  | 
| 10 |  | under this Section shall be appropriated to and administered by  | 
| 11 |  | the Illinois Criminal Justice Information Authority for  | 
| 12 |  | funding of drug task forces and Metropolitan Enforcement  | 
| 13 |  | Groups.  | 
| 14 |  |  (f) In addition to any penalty imposed under subsection (a)  | 
| 15 |  | of this
Section, a $40 $20 assessment shall be assessed by the  | 
| 16 |  | court, the proceeds of which
shall be collected by the Circuit  | 
| 17 |  | Clerk. Of the collected proceeds, (i) 90% shall be remitted to  | 
| 18 |  | the State Treasurer for deposit into the Prescription Pill and  | 
| 19 |  | Drug Disposal Fund; (ii) 5% shall be remitted for deposit into  | 
| 20 |  | the Criminal Justice Information Projects Fund, for use by the  | 
| 21 |  | Illinois Criminal Justice Information Authority for the costs  | 
| 22 |  | associated with making grants from the Prescription Pill and  | 
| 23 |  | Drug Disposal Fund; and (iii) the Circuit Clerk shall retain 5%  | 
| 24 |  | for deposit into the Circuit Court Clerk Operation and  | 
| 25 |  | Administrative Fund for the costs associated with  | 
| 26 |  | administering this subsection.  | 
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| 1 |  | (Source: P.A. 97-545, eff. 1-1-12; 98-537, eff. 8-23-13.)
 | 
| 2 |  |  (Text of Section from P.A. 94-556, 96-132, 96-402, 96-1234,  | 
| 3 |  | 97-545, and 98-537) | 
| 4 |  |  Sec. 5-9-1.1. Drug related offenses.  | 
| 5 |  |  (a) When a person has been adjudged guilty of a drug  | 
| 6 |  | related
offense involving possession or delivery of cannabis or  | 
| 7 |  | possession or delivery
of a controlled substance as defined in  | 
| 8 |  | the Cannabis Control Act, the Illinois Controlled Substances  | 
| 9 |  | Act, or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection  | 
| 10 |  | Act, in addition to any
other penalty imposed, a fine shall be  | 
| 11 |  | levied by the court at not less than
the full street value of  | 
| 12 |  | the cannabis or controlled substances seized. | 
| 13 |  |  "Street value" shall be determined by the court on the  | 
| 14 |  | basis of testimony
of law enforcement personnel and the  | 
| 15 |  | defendant as to the amount seized and
such testimony as may be  | 
| 16 |  | required by the court as to the current street
value of the  | 
| 17 |  | cannabis or controlled substance seized. | 
| 18 |  |  (b) In addition to any penalty imposed under subsection (a)  | 
| 19 |  | of this
Section, a fine of $100 shall be levied by the court,  | 
| 20 |  | the proceeds of which
shall be collected by the Circuit Clerk  | 
| 21 |  | and remitted to the State Treasurer
under Section 27.6 of the  | 
| 22 |  | Clerks of Courts Act for deposit into the Trauma
Center Fund  | 
| 23 |  | for distribution as provided under Section 3.225 of the  | 
| 24 |  | Emergency
Medical Services (EMS) Systems Act. | 
| 25 |  |  (c) In addition to any penalty imposed under subsection (a)  | 
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| 
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| 1 |  | of this
Section, a fee of $5 shall be assessed by the court,  | 
| 2 |  | the proceeds of which
shall be collected by the Circuit Clerk  | 
| 3 |  | and remitted to the State Treasurer
under Section 27.6 of the  | 
| 4 |  | Clerks of Courts Act for deposit into the Spinal Cord
Injury  | 
| 5 |  | Paralysis Cure Research Trust Fund.
This additional fee of $5  | 
| 6 |  | shall not be considered a part of the fine for
purposes of any  | 
| 7 |  | reduction in the fine for time served either before or after
 | 
| 8 |  | sentencing. | 
| 9 |  |  (d) In addition to any penalty imposed under subsection (a)  | 
| 10 |  | of this
Section for a drug related
offense involving possession  | 
| 11 |  | or delivery
of cannabis or possession or delivery of a  | 
| 12 |  | controlled substance as defined in the Cannabis Control Act,  | 
| 13 |  | the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or the Methamphetamine  | 
| 14 |  | Control and Community Protection Act, a fee of $50 shall be  | 
| 15 |  | assessed by the court, the proceeds of which
shall be collected  | 
| 16 |  | by the Circuit Clerk and remitted to the State Treasurer
under  | 
| 17 |  | Section 27.6 of the Clerks of Courts Act for deposit into the  | 
| 18 |  | Performance-enhancing Substance Testing Fund.
This additional  | 
| 19 |  | fee of $50 shall not be considered a part of the fine for
 | 
| 20 |  | purposes of any reduction in the fine for time served either  | 
| 21 |  | before or after
sentencing. The provisions of this subsection  | 
| 22 |  | (d), other than this sentence, are inoperative after June 30,  | 
| 23 |  | 2011.  | 
| 24 |  |  (e) In addition to any penalty imposed under subsection (a)  | 
| 25 |  | of this
Section, a $25 assessment shall be assessed by the  | 
| 26 |  | court, the proceeds of which
shall be collected by the Circuit  | 
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| 
 | 
| 1 |  | Clerk and remitted to the State Treasurer for deposit into the  | 
| 2 |  | Criminal Justice Information Projects Fund. The moneys  | 
| 3 |  | deposited into the Criminal Justice Information Projects Fund  | 
| 4 |  | under this Section shall be appropriated to and administered by  | 
| 5 |  | the Illinois Criminal Justice Information Authority for  | 
| 6 |  | funding of drug task forces and Metropolitan Enforcement  | 
| 7 |  | Groups.  | 
| 8 |  |  (f) In addition to any penalty imposed under subsection (a)  | 
| 9 |  | of this
Section, a $40 $20 assessment shall be assessed by the  | 
| 10 |  | court, the proceeds of which
shall be collected by the Circuit  | 
| 11 |  | Clerk. Of the collected proceeds, (i) 90% shall be remitted to  | 
| 12 |  | the State Treasurer for deposit into the Prescription Pill and  | 
| 13 |  | Drug Disposal Fund; (ii) 5% shall be remitted for deposit into  | 
| 14 |  | the Criminal Justice Information Projects Fund, for use by the  | 
| 15 |  | Illinois Criminal Justice Information Authority for the costs  | 
| 16 |  | associated with making grants from the Prescription Pill and  | 
| 17 |  | Drug Disposal Fund; and (iii) the Circuit Clerk shall retain 5%  | 
| 18 |  | for deposit into the Circuit Court Clerk Operation and  | 
| 19 |  | Administrative Fund for the costs associated with  | 
| 20 |  | administering this subsection.  | 
| 21 |  | (Source: P.A. 97-545, eff. 1-1-12; 98-537, eff. 8-23-13.)
 | 
| 22 |  |  (730 ILCS 5/5-9-1.1-5) | 
| 23 |  |  Sec. 5-9-1.1-5. Methamphetamine related offenses. | 
| 24 |  |  (a) When a person has been adjudged guilty of a  | 
| 25 |  | methamphetamine related
offense involving possession or  | 
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| 
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| 1 |  | delivery of methamphetamine or any salt of an optical isomer of  | 
| 2 |  | methamphetamine or possession of a methamphetamine  | 
| 3 |  | manufacturing material as set forth in Section 10 of the  | 
| 4 |  | Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act with the  | 
| 5 |  | intent to manufacture a substance containing methamphetamine  | 
| 6 |  | or salt of an optical isomer of methamphetamine, in addition to  | 
| 7 |  | any
other penalty imposed, a fine shall be levied by the court  | 
| 8 |  | at not less than
the full street value of the methamphetamine  | 
| 9 |  | or salt of an optical isomer of methamphetamine or  | 
| 10 |  | methamphetamine manufacturing materials seized. | 
| 11 |  |  "Street value" shall be determined by the court on the  | 
| 12 |  | basis of testimony
of law enforcement personnel and the  | 
| 13 |  | defendant as to the amount seized and
such testimony as may be  | 
| 14 |  | required by the court as to the current street
value of the  | 
| 15 |  | methamphetamine or salt of an optical isomer of methamphetamine  | 
| 16 |  | or methamphetamine manufacturing materials seized. | 
| 17 |  |  (b) In addition to any penalty imposed under subsection (a)  | 
| 18 |  | of this
Section, a fine of
$100 shall be levied by the court,  | 
| 19 |  | the proceeds of which
shall be collected by the Circuit Clerk  | 
| 20 |  | and remitted to the State Treasurer
under Section 27.6 of the  | 
| 21 |  | Clerks of Courts Act
for deposit into the Methamphetamine Law  | 
| 22 |  | Enforcement Fund and allocated as provided in subsection (d) of  | 
| 23 |  | Section 5-9-1.2.
 | 
| 24 |  |  (c) In addition to any penalty imposed under subsection (a)  | 
| 25 |  | of this
Section, a $25 assessment shall be assessed by the  | 
| 26 |  | court, the proceeds of which
shall be collected by the Circuit  | 
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| 
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| 1 |  | Clerk and remitted to the State Treasurer for deposit into the  | 
| 2 |  | Criminal Justice Information Projects Fund. The moneys  | 
| 3 |  | deposited into the Criminal Justice Information Projects Fund  | 
| 4 |  | under this Section shall be appropriated to and administered by  | 
| 5 |  | the Illinois Criminal Justice Information Authority for  | 
| 6 |  | funding of drug task forces and Metropolitan Enforcement  | 
| 7 |  | Groups. | 
| 8 |  |  (d) In addition to any penalty imposed under subsection (a)  | 
| 9 |  | of this
Section, a $40 $20 assessment shall be assessed by the  | 
| 10 |  | court, the proceeds of which
shall be collected by the Circuit  | 
| 11 |  | Clerk. Of the collected proceeds, (i) 90% shall be remitted to  | 
| 12 |  | the State Treasurer for deposit into the Prescription Pill and  | 
| 13 |  | Drug Disposal Fund; (ii) 5% shall be remitted for deposit into  | 
| 14 |  | the Criminal Justice Information Projects Fund, for use by the  | 
| 15 |  | Illinois Criminal Justice Information Authority for the costs  | 
| 16 |  | associated with making grants from the Prescription Pill and  | 
| 17 |  | Drug Disposal Fund; and (iii) the Circuit Clerk shall retain 5%  | 
| 18 |  | for deposit into the Circuit Court Clerk Operation and  | 
| 19 |  | Administrative Fund for the costs associated with  | 
| 20 |  | administering this subsection.  | 
| 21 |  | (Source: P.A. 97-545, eff. 1-1-12; 98-537, eff. 8-23-13.)
 | 
| 22 |  |  Section 5-115. The Drug Court Treatment Act is amended by  | 
| 23 |  | changing Section 20 and by adding Sections 45 and 50 as  | 
| 24 |  | follows:
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| 1 |  |  (730 ILCS 166/20)
 | 
| 2 |  |  Sec. 20. Eligibility. 
 | 
| 3 |  |  (a) A defendant may be admitted into a drug court program  | 
| 4 |  | only upon the
agreement of the prosecutor and the defendant and  | 
| 5 |  | with the approval of the
court.
 | 
| 6 |  |  (b) A defendant shall be excluded from a drug court program  | 
| 7 |  | if any of one of
the following apply:
 | 
| 8 |  |   (1) The crime is a crime of violence as set forth in  | 
| 9 |  |  clause (4) of this
subsection (b).
 | 
| 10 |  |   (2) The defendant denies his or her use of or addiction  | 
| 11 |  |  to drugs.
 | 
| 12 |  |   (3) The defendant does not demonstrate a willingness to  | 
| 13 |  |  participate in
a treatment program.
 | 
| 14 |  |   (4) The defendant has been convicted of a crime of  | 
| 15 |  |  violence within the
past
10 years excluding incarceration  | 
| 16 |  |  time. As used in this Section, "crime of violence" means ,  | 
| 17 |  |  including but not limited to: first
degree murder, second  | 
| 18 |  |  degree murder, predatory criminal sexual assault of a
 | 
| 19 |  |  child, aggravated criminal sexual assault, criminal sexual  | 
| 20 |  |  assault, armed
robbery, aggravated arson, arson,  | 
| 21 |  |  aggravated kidnaping, kidnaping, aggravated
battery  | 
| 22 |  |  resulting in great bodily harm or permanent disability,  | 
| 23 |  |  stalking,
aggravated stalking, or any offense
involving  | 
| 24 |  |  the discharge of a firearm.
 | 
| 25 |  |  (c) Notwithstanding subsection (a), the defendant may be  | 
| 26 |  | admitted into a drug court program only upon the agreement of  | 
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| 
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| 1 |  | the prosecutor if: | 
| 2 |  |   (1) the defendant is charged with a Class 2 or greater  | 
| 3 |  |  felony violation of: | 
| 4 |  |    (A) Section 401, 401.1, 405, or 405.2 of the  | 
| 5 |  |  Illinois Controlled Substances Act; | 
| 6 |  |    (B) Section 5, 5.1, or 5.2 of the Cannabis Control  | 
| 7 |  |  Act; | 
| 8 |  |    (C) Section 15, 20, 25, 30, 35, 40, 45, 50, 55, 56,  | 
| 9 |  |  or 65 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community  | 
| 10 |  |  Protection Act; or | 
| 11 |  |   (2) the defendant has previously, on 3 or more  | 
| 12 |  |  occasions, either completed a drug court program, been  | 
| 13 |  |  discharged from a drug court program, or been terminated  | 
| 14 |  |  from a drug court program.
 | 
| 15 |  |   (5) The defendant has previously completed or has been  | 
| 16 |  |  discharged from a
drug court program.
 | 
| 17 |  | (Source: P.A. 92-58, eff. 1-1-02.)
 | 
| 18 |  |  (730 ILCS 166/45 new) | 
| 19 |  |  Sec. 45. Education seminars for drug court prosecutors.  | 
| 20 |  | Subject to appropriation, the Office of the State's Attorneys  | 
| 21 |  | Appellate Prosecutor shall conduct mandatory education  | 
| 22 |  | seminars on the subjects of substance abuse and addiction for  | 
| 23 |  | all drug court prosecutors throughout the State.
 | 
| 24 |  |  (730 ILCS 166/50 new) | 
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| 1 |  |  Sec. 50. Education seminars for public defenders. Subject  | 
| 2 |  | to appropriation, the Office of the State Appellate Defender  | 
| 3 |  | shall conduct mandatory education seminars on the subjects of  | 
| 4 |  | substance abuse and addiction for all public defenders and  | 
| 5 |  | assistant public defenders practicing in drug courts  | 
| 6 |  | throughout the State.
 | 
| 7 |  |  Section 5-120. The Veterans and Servicemembers Court
 | 
| 8 |  | Treatment Act is amended by changing Section 20 as follows:
 | 
| 9 |  |  (730 ILCS 167/20)
 | 
| 10 |  |  Sec. 20. Eligibility. Veterans and Servicemembers are  | 
| 11 |  | eligible for Veterans and
Servicemembers Courts, provided the  | 
| 12 |  | following:
 | 
| 13 |  |  (a) A defendant, who is eligible for probation based on the  | 
| 14 |  | nature of the crime convicted of and in consideration of his or  | 
| 15 |  | her criminal background, if any, may be admitted into a  | 
| 16 |  | Veterans and Servicemembers Court program
only upon the  | 
| 17 |  | agreement of the prosecutor and the defendant and with the  | 
| 18 |  | approval of the Court.
 | 
| 19 |  |  (b) A defendant shall be excluded from Veterans and  | 
| 20 |  | Servicemembers Court program if
any of one of the following  | 
| 21 |  | applies:
 | 
| 22 |  |   (1) The crime is a crime of violence as set forth in  | 
| 23 |  |  clause (3) of this subsection (b). | 
| 24 |  |   (2) The defendant does not demonstrate a willingness to  | 
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| 
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| 1 |  |  participate in a treatment
program.
 | 
| 2 |  |   (3) The defendant has been convicted of a crime of  | 
| 3 |  |  violence within the past 10
years excluding incarceration  | 
| 4 |  |  time. As used in this Section, "crime of violence" means ,  | 
| 5 |  |  including but not limited to: first degree murder,
second  | 
| 6 |  |  degree murder, predatory criminal sexual assault of a  | 
| 7 |  |  child, aggravated criminal
sexual assault, criminal sexual  | 
| 8 |  |  assault, armed robbery, aggravated arson, arson,
 | 
| 9 |  |  aggravated kidnapping and kidnapping, aggravated battery  | 
| 10 |  |  resulting in great bodily harm
or permanent disability,  | 
| 11 |  |  stalking, aggravated stalking, or any offense involving  | 
| 12 |  |  the
discharge of a firearm or where occurred serious bodily  | 
| 13 |  |  injury or death to any person. | 
| 14 |  |   (4) (Blank).
 | 
| 15 |  |   (5) The crime for which the defendant has been  | 
| 16 |  |  convicted is non-probationable. | 
| 17 |  |   (6) The sentence imposed on the defendant, whether the  | 
| 18 |  |  result of a plea or a finding of guilt, renders the  | 
| 19 |  |  defendant ineligible for probation.
 | 
| 20 |  | (Source: P.A. 97-946, eff. 8-13-12; 98-152, eff. 1-1-14.)
 | 
| 21 |  |  Section 5-125. The Good Samaritan Act is amended by adding  | 
| 22 |  | Section 36 and by changing Section 70 as follows:
 | 
| 23 |  |  (745 ILCS 49/36 new) | 
| 24 |  |  Sec. 36. Pharmacists; exemptions from civil liability for  | 
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| 
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| 1 |  | the dispensing of an opioid antagonist to individuals who may  | 
| 2 |  | or may not be at risk for an opioid overdose. Any person  | 
| 3 |  | licensed as a pharmacist in Illinois or any other state or  | 
| 4 |  | territory of the United States who in good faith dispenses or  | 
| 5 |  | administers an opioid antagonist as defined in Section 5-23 of  | 
| 6 |  | the Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act in  | 
| 7 |  | compliance with the procedures or protocols developed under  | 
| 8 |  | Section 19.1 of the Pharmacy Practice Act, or the standing  | 
| 9 |  | order of any person licensed under the Medical Practice Act of  | 
| 10 |  | 1987, without fee or compensation in any way, shall not, as a  | 
| 11 |  | result of her or his acts or omissions, except for willful or  | 
| 12 |  | wanton misconduct on the part of the person, in dispensing the  | 
| 13 |  | drug or administering the drug, be liable for civil damages.
 | 
| 14 |  |  (745 ILCS 49/70)
 | 
| 15 |  |  Sec. 70. Law enforcement officers, firemen, Emergency  | 
| 16 |  | Medical Technicians (EMTs) and First Responders; exemption  | 
| 17 |  | from
civil liability for emergency care.
Any law enforcement  | 
| 18 |  | officer or fireman as defined in Section 2 of the
Line of Duty  | 
| 19 |  | Compensation Act, any "emergency medical technician (EMT)" as  | 
| 20 |  | defined in Section 3.50 of the Emergency Medical Services (EMS)  | 
| 21 |  | Systems Act, and any "first responder" as defined in Section  | 
| 22 |  | 3.60 of the Emergency Medical Services (EMS) Systems Act,
who  | 
| 23 |  | in good faith
provides emergency care, including the  | 
| 24 |  | administration of an opioid antagonist as defined in Section  | 
| 25 |  | 5-23 of the Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act,  | 
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| 1 |  | without fee or compensation to any person shall not, as a  | 
| 2 |  | result of
his or her acts or omissions, except willful and  | 
| 3 |  | wanton misconduct on the
part of
the person, in providing the  | 
| 4 |  | care, be liable to a person to whom such
care is provided for  | 
| 5 |  | civil damages.
 | 
| 6 |  | (Source: P.A. 93-1047, eff. 10-18-04; 94-826, eff. 1-1-07.)
 |