Rep. Barbara Flynn Currie

Filed: 5/20/2014

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1
AMENDMENT TO SENATE BILL 2640
2 AMENDMENT NO. ______. Amend Senate Bill 2640 by replacing
3everything after the enacting clause with the following:
4 "Section 1. Nature of this Act.
5 (a) This Act may be cited as the First 2014 General
6Revisory Act.
7 (b) This Act is not intended to make any substantive change
8in the law. It reconciles conflicts that have arisen from
9multiple amendments and enactments and makes technical
10corrections and revisions in the law.
11 This Act revises and, where appropriate, renumbers certain
12Sections that have been added or amended by more than one
13Public Act. In certain cases in which a repealed Act or Section
14has been replaced with a successor law, this Act may
15incorporate amendments to the repealed Act or Section into the
16successor law. This Act also corrects errors, revises
17cross-references, and deletes obsolete text.

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1 (c) In this Act, the reference at the end of each amended
2Section indicates the sources in the Session Laws of Illinois
3that were used in the preparation of the text of that Section.
4The text of the Section included in this Act is intended to
5include the different versions of the Section found in the
6Public Acts included in the list of sources, but may not
7include other versions of the Section to be found in Public
8Acts not included in the list of sources. The list of sources
9is not a part of the text of the Section.
10 (d) Public Acts 97-1145 through 98-589 were considered in
11the preparation of the combining revisories included in this
12Act. Many of those combining revisories contain no striking or
13underscoring because no additional changes are being made in
14the material that is being combined.
15 Section 5. The Regulatory Sunset Act is amended by changing
16Section 4.34 as follows:
17 (5 ILCS 80/4.34)
18 Sec. 4.34. Acts and Section Act repealed on January 1,
192024. The following Acts and Section of an Act are is repealed
20on January 1, 2024:
21 The Electrologist Licensing Act.
22 The Illinois Certified Shorthand Reporters Act of
23 1984.
24 The Illinois Occupational Therapy Practice Act.

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1 The Illinois Public Accounting Act.
2 The Private Detective, Private Alarm, Private
3 Security, Fingerprint Vendor, and Locksmith Act of 2004.
4 The Registered Surgical Assistant and Registered
5 Surgical Technologist Title Protection Act.
6 Section 2.5 of the Illinois Plumbing License Law.
7 The Veterinary Medicine and Surgery Practice Act of
8 2004.
9(Source: P.A. 98-140, eff. 12-31-13; 98-253, eff. 8-9-13;
1098-254, eff. 8-9-13; 98-264, eff. 12-31-13; 98-339, eff.
1112-31-13; 98-363, eff. 8-16-13; 98-364, eff. 12-31-13; 98-445,
12eff. 12-31-13; revised 9-10-13.)
13 Section 10. The Open Meetings Act is amended by changing
14Section 2 as follows:
15 (5 ILCS 120/2) (from Ch. 102, par. 42)
16 Sec. 2. Open meetings.
17 (a) Openness required. All meetings of public bodies shall
18be open to the public unless excepted in subsection (c) and
19closed in accordance with Section 2a.
20 (b) Construction of exceptions. The exceptions contained
21in subsection (c) are in derogation of the requirement that
22public bodies meet in the open, and therefore, the exceptions
23are to be strictly construed, extending only to subjects
24clearly within their scope. The exceptions authorize but do not

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1require the holding of a closed meeting to discuss a subject
2included within an enumerated exception.
3 (c) Exceptions. A public body may hold closed meetings to
4consider the following subjects:
5 (1) The appointment, employment, compensation,
6 discipline, performance, or dismissal of specific
7 employees of the public body or legal counsel for the
8 public body, including hearing testimony on a complaint
9 lodged against an employee of the public body or against
10 legal counsel for the public body to determine its
11 validity.
12 (2) Collective negotiating matters between the public
13 body and its employees or their representatives, or
14 deliberations concerning salary schedules for one or more
15 classes of employees.
16 (3) The selection of a person to fill a public office,
17 as defined in this Act, including a vacancy in a public
18 office, when the public body is given power to appoint
19 under law or ordinance, or the discipline, performance or
20 removal of the occupant of a public office, when the public
21 body is given power to remove the occupant under law or
22 ordinance.
23 (4) Evidence or testimony presented in open hearing, or
24 in closed hearing where specifically authorized by law, to
25 a quasi-adjudicative body, as defined in this Act, provided
26 that the body prepares and makes available for public

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1 inspection a written decision setting forth its
2 determinative reasoning.
3 (5) The purchase or lease of real property for the use
4 of the public body, including meetings held for the purpose
5 of discussing whether a particular parcel should be
6 acquired.
7 (6) The setting of a price for sale or lease of
8 property owned by the public body.
9 (7) The sale or purchase of securities, investments, or
10 investment contracts. This exception shall not apply to the
11 investment of assets or income of funds deposited into the
12 Illinois Prepaid Tuition Trust Fund.
13 (8) Security procedures and the use of personnel and
14 equipment to respond to an actual, a threatened, or a
15 reasonably potential danger to the safety of employees,
16 students, staff, the public, or public property.
17 (9) Student disciplinary cases.
18 (10) The placement of individual students in special
19 education programs and other matters relating to
20 individual students.
21 (11) Litigation, when an action against, affecting or
22 on behalf of the particular public body has been filed and
23 is pending before a court or administrative tribunal, or
24 when the public body finds that an action is probable or
25 imminent, in which case the basis for the finding shall be
26 recorded and entered into the minutes of the closed

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1 meeting.
2 (12) The establishment of reserves or settlement of
3 claims as provided in the Local Governmental and
4 Governmental Employees Tort Immunity Act, if otherwise the
5 disposition of a claim or potential claim might be
6 prejudiced, or the review or discussion of claims, loss or
7 risk management information, records, data, advice or
8 communications from or with respect to any insurer of the
9 public body or any intergovernmental risk management
10 association or self insurance pool of which the public body
11 is a member.
12 (13) Conciliation of complaints of discrimination in
13 the sale or rental of housing, when closed meetings are
14 authorized by the law or ordinance prescribing fair housing
15 practices and creating a commission or administrative
16 agency for their enforcement.
17 (14) Informant sources, the hiring or assignment of
18 undercover personnel or equipment, or ongoing, prior or
19 future criminal investigations, when discussed by a public
20 body with criminal investigatory responsibilities.
21 (15) Professional ethics or performance when
22 considered by an advisory body appointed to advise a
23 licensing or regulatory agency on matters germane to the
24 advisory body's field of competence.
25 (16) Self evaluation, practices and procedures or
26 professional ethics, when meeting with a representative of

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1 a statewide association of which the public body is a
2 member.
3 (17) The recruitment, credentialing, discipline or
4 formal peer review of physicians or other health care
5 professionals for a hospital, or other institution
6 providing medical care, that is operated by the public
7 body.
8 (18) Deliberations for decisions of the Prisoner
9 Review Board.
10 (19) Review or discussion of applications received
11 under the Experimental Organ Transplantation Procedures
12 Act.
13 (20) The classification and discussion of matters
14 classified as confidential or continued confidential by
15 the State Government Suggestion Award Board.
16 (21) Discussion of minutes of meetings lawfully closed
17 under this Act, whether for purposes of approval by the
18 body of the minutes or semi-annual review of the minutes as
19 mandated by Section 2.06.
20 (22) Deliberations for decisions of the State
21 Emergency Medical Services Disciplinary Review Board.
22 (23) The operation by a municipality of a municipal
23 utility or the operation of a municipal power agency or
24 municipal natural gas agency when the discussion involves
25 (i) contracts relating to the purchase, sale, or delivery
26 of electricity or natural gas or (ii) the results or

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1 conclusions of load forecast studies.
2 (24) Meetings of a residential health care facility
3 resident sexual assault and death review team or the
4 Executive Council under the Abuse Prevention Review Team
5 Act.
6 (25) Meetings of an independent team of experts under
7 Brian's Law.
8 (26) Meetings of a mortality review team appointed
9 under the Department of Juvenile Justice Mortality Review
10 Team Act.
11 (27) (Blank).
12 (28) Correspondence and records (i) that may not be
13 disclosed under Section 11-9 of the Public Aid Code or (ii)
14 that pertain to appeals under Section 11-8 of the Public
15 Aid Code.
16 (29) Meetings between internal or external auditors
17 and governmental audit committees, finance committees, and
18 their equivalents, when the discussion involves internal
19 control weaknesses, identification of potential fraud risk
20 areas, known or suspected frauds, and fraud interviews
21 conducted in accordance with generally accepted auditing
22 standards of the United States of America.
23 (30) Those meetings or portions of meetings of an
24 at-risk adult fatality review team or the Illinois At-Risk
25 Adult Fatality Review Team Advisory Council during which a
26 review of the death of an eligible adult in which abuse or

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1 neglect is suspected, alleged, or substantiated is
2 conducted pursuant to Section 15 of the Adult Protective
3 Services Act.
4 (31) (30) Meetings and deliberations for decisions of
5 the Concealed Carry Licensing Review Board under the
6 Firearm Concealed Carry Act.
7 (d) Definitions. For purposes of this Section:
8 "Employee" means a person employed by a public body whose
9relationship with the public body constitutes an
10employer-employee relationship under the usual common law
11rules, and who is not an independent contractor.
12 "Public office" means a position created by or under the
13Constitution or laws of this State, the occupant of which is
14charged with the exercise of some portion of the sovereign
15power of this State. The term "public office" shall include
16members of the public body, but it shall not include
17organizational positions filled by members thereof, whether
18established by law or by a public body itself, that exist to
19assist the body in the conduct of its business.
20 "Quasi-adjudicative body" means an administrative body
21charged by law or ordinance with the responsibility to conduct
22hearings, receive evidence or testimony and make
23determinations based thereon, but does not include local
24electoral boards when such bodies are considering petition
25challenges.
26 (e) Final action. No final action may be taken at a closed

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1meeting. Final action shall be preceded by a public recital of
2the nature of the matter being considered and other information
3that will inform the public of the business being conducted.
4(Source: P.A. 97-318, eff. 1-1-12; 97-333, eff. 8-12-11;
597-452, eff. 8-19-11; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 97-876, eff.
68-1-12; 98-49, eff. 7-1-13; 98-63, eff. 7-9-13; revised
77-23-13.)
8 Section 15. The Freedom of Information Act is amended by
9changing Sections 3.2 and 7.5 as follows:
10 (5 ILCS 140/3.2)
11 Sec. 3.2. Recurrent requesters.
12 (a) Notwithstanding Nothwithstanding any provision of this
13Act to the contrary, a public body shall respond to a request
14from a recurrent requester, as defined in subsection (g) of
15Section 2, within 21 business days after receipt. The response
16shall (i) provide to the requester an estimate of the time
17required by the public body to provide the records requested
18and an estimate of the fees to be charged, which the public
19body may require the person to pay in full before copying the
20requested documents, (ii) deny the request pursuant to one or
21more of the exemptions set out in this Act, (iii) notify the
22requester that the request is unduly burdensome and extend an
23opportunity to the requester to attempt to reduce the request
24to manageable proportions, or (iv) provide the records

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1requested.
2 (b) Within 5 business days after receiving a request from a
3recurrent requester, as defined in subsection (g) of Section 2,
4the public body shall notify the requester (i) that the public
5body is treating the request as a request under subsection (g)
6of Section 2, (ii) of the reasons why the public body is
7treating the request as a request under subsection (g) of
8Section 2, and (iii) that the public body will send an initial
9response within 21 business days after receipt in accordance
10with subsection (a) of this Section. The public body shall also
11notify the requester of the proposed responses that can be
12asserted pursuant to subsection (a) of this Section.
13 (c) Unless the records are exempt from disclosure, a public
14body shall comply with a request within a reasonable period
15considering the size and complexity of the request.
16(Source: P.A. 97-579, eff. 8-26-11; revised 9-4-13.)
17 (5 ILCS 140/7.5)
18 Sec. 7.5. Statutory Exemptions. To the extent provided for
19by the statutes referenced below, the following shall be exempt
20from inspection and copying:
21 (a) All information determined to be confidential under
22Section 4002 of the Technology Advancement and Development Act.
23 (b) Library circulation and order records identifying
24library users with specific materials under the Library Records
25Confidentiality Act.

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1 (c) Applications, related documents, and medical records
2received by the Experimental Organ Transplantation Procedures
3Board and any and all documents or other records prepared by
4the Experimental Organ Transplantation Procedures Board or its
5staff relating to applications it has received.
6 (d) Information and records held by the Department of
7Public Health and its authorized representatives relating to
8known or suspected cases of sexually transmissible disease or
9any information the disclosure of which is restricted under the
10Illinois Sexually Transmissible Disease Control Act.
11 (e) Information the disclosure of which is exempted under
12Section 30 of the Radon Industry Licensing Act.
13 (f) Firm performance evaluations under Section 55 of the
14Architectural, Engineering, and Land Surveying Qualifications
15Based Selection Act.
16 (g) Information the disclosure of which is restricted and
17exempted under Section 50 of the Illinois Prepaid Tuition Act.
18 (h) Information the disclosure of which is exempted under
19the State Officials and Employees Ethics Act, and records of
20any lawfully created State or local inspector general's office
21that would be exempt if created or obtained by an Executive
22Inspector General's office under that Act.
23 (i) Information contained in a local emergency energy plan
24submitted to a municipality in accordance with a local
25emergency energy plan ordinance that is adopted under Section
2611-21.5-5 of the Illinois Municipal Code.

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1 (j) Information and data concerning the distribution of
2surcharge moneys collected and remitted by wireless carriers
3under the Wireless Emergency Telephone Safety Act.
4 (k) Law enforcement officer identification information or
5driver identification information compiled by a law
6enforcement agency or the Department of Transportation under
7Section 11-212 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.
8 (l) Records and information provided to a residential
9health care facility resident sexual assault and death review
10team or the Executive Council under the Abuse Prevention Review
11Team Act.
12 (m) Information provided to the predatory lending database
13created pursuant to Article 3 of the Residential Real Property
14Disclosure Act, except to the extent authorized under that
15Article.
16 (n) Defense budgets and petitions for certification of
17compensation and expenses for court appointed trial counsel as
18provided under Sections 10 and 15 of the Capital Crimes
19Litigation Act. This subsection (n) shall apply until the
20conclusion of the trial of the case, even if the prosecution
21chooses not to pursue the death penalty prior to trial or
22sentencing.
23 (o) Information that is prohibited from being disclosed
24under Section 4 of the Illinois Health and Hazardous Substances
25Registry Act.
26 (p) Security portions of system safety program plans,

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1investigation reports, surveys, schedules, lists, data, or
2information compiled, collected, or prepared by or for the
3Regional Transportation Authority under Section 2.11 of the
4Regional Transportation Authority Act or the St. Clair County
5Transit District under the Bi-State Transit Safety Act.
6 (q) Information prohibited from being disclosed by the
7Personnel Records Review Act.
8 (r) Information prohibited from being disclosed by the
9Illinois School Student Records Act.
10 (s) Information the disclosure of which is restricted under
11Section 5-108 of the Public Utilities Act.
12 (t) All identified or deidentified health information in
13the form of health data or medical records contained in, stored
14in, submitted to, transferred by, or released from the Illinois
15Health Information Exchange, and identified or deidentified
16health information in the form of health data and medical
17records of the Illinois Health Information Exchange in the
18possession of the Illinois Health Information Exchange
19Authority due to its administration of the Illinois Health
20Information Exchange. The terms "identified" and
21"deidentified" shall be given the same meaning as in the Health
22Insurance Accountability and Portability Act of 1996, Public
23Law 104-191, or any subsequent amendments thereto, and any
24regulations promulgated thereunder.
25 (u) Records and information provided to an independent team
26of experts under Brian's Law.

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1 (v) Names and information of people who have applied for or
2received Firearm Owner's Identification Cards under the
3Firearm Owners Identification Card Act or applied for or
4received a concealed carry license under the Firearm Concealed
5Carry Act, unless otherwise authorized by the Firearm Concealed
6Carry Act; and databases under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act,
7records of the Concealed Carry Licensing Review Board under the
8Firearm Concealed Carry Act, and law enforcement agency
9objections under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act.
10 (w) Personally identifiable information which is exempted
11from disclosure under subsection (g) of Section 19.1 of the
12Toll Highway Act.
13 (x) Information which is exempted from disclosure under
14Section 5-1014.3 of the Counties Code or Section 8-11-21 of the
15Illinois Municipal Code.
16 (y) Confidential information under the Adult Protective
17Services Act and its predecessor enabling statute, the Elder
18Abuse and Neglect Act, including information about the identity
19and administrative finding against any caregiver of a verified
20and substantiated decision of significant abuse, neglect, or
21financial exploitation of an eligible adult maintained in the
22Department of Public Health's Health Care Worker Registry.
23 (z) Records and information provided to an at-risk adult
24fatality review team or the Illinois At-Risk Adult Fatality
25Review Team Advisory Council under Section 15 of the Adult
26Protective Services Act.

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1(Source: P.A. 97-80, eff. 7-5-11; 97-333, eff. 8-12-11; 97-342,
2eff. 8-12-11; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 97-976, eff. 1-1-13; 98-49,
3eff. 7-1-13; 98-63, eff. 7-9-13; revised 7-23-13.)
4 Section 20. The State Employee Indemnification Act is
5amended by changing Section 1 as follows:
6 (5 ILCS 350/1) (from Ch. 127, par. 1301)
7 Sec. 1. Definitions. For the purpose of this Act:
8 (a) The term "State" means the State of Illinois, the
9General Assembly, the court, or any State office, department,
10division, bureau, board, commission, or committee, the
11governing boards of the public institutions of higher education
12created by the State, the Illinois National Guard, the
13Comprehensive Health Insurance Board, any poison control
14center designated under the Poison Control System Act that
15receives State funding, or any other agency or instrumentality
16of the State. It does not mean any local public entity as that
17term is defined in Section 1-206 of the Local Governmental and
18Governmental Employees Tort Immunity Act or a pension fund.
19 (b) The term "employee" means any present or former elected
20or appointed officer, trustee or employee of the State, or of a
21pension fund, any present or former commissioner or employee of
22the Executive Ethics Commission or of the Legislative Ethics
23Commission, any present or former Executive, Legislative, or
24Auditor General's Inspector General, any present or former

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1employee of an Office of an Executive, Legislative, or Auditor
2General's Inspector General, any present or former member of
3the Illinois National Guard while on active duty, individuals
4or organizations who contract with the Department of
5Corrections, the Department of Juvenile Justice, the
6Comprehensive Health Insurance Board, or the Department of
7Veterans' Affairs to provide services, individuals or
8organizations who contract with the Department of Human
9Services (as successor to the Department of Mental Health and
10Developmental Disabilities) to provide services including but
11not limited to treatment and other services for sexually
12violent persons, individuals or organizations who contract
13with the Department of Military Affairs for youth programs,
14individuals or organizations who contract to perform carnival
15and amusement ride safety inspections for the Department of
16Labor, individual representatives of or designated
17organizations authorized to represent the Office of State
18Long-Term Ombudsman for the Department on Aging, individual
19representatives of or organizations designated by the
20Department on Aging in the performance of their duties as adult
21protective services agencies or regional administrative
22agencies under the Adult Protective Services Act, individuals
23or organizations appointed as members of a review team or the
24Advisory Council under the Adult Protective Services Act,
25individuals or organizations who perform volunteer services
26for the State where such volunteer relationship is reduced to

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1writing, individuals who serve on any public entity (whether
2created by law or administrative action) described in paragraph
3(a) of this Section, individuals or not for profit
4organizations who, either as volunteers, where such volunteer
5relationship is reduced to writing, or pursuant to contract,
6furnish professional advice or consultation to any agency or
7instrumentality of the State, individuals who serve as foster
8parents for the Department of Children and Family Services when
9caring for a Department ward, individuals who serve as members
10of an independent team of experts under Brian's Law, and
11individuals who serve as arbitrators pursuant to Part 10A of
12Article II of the Code of Civil Procedure and the rules of the
13Supreme Court implementing Part 10A, each as now or hereafter
14amended, but does not mean an independent contractor except as
15provided in this Section. The term includes an individual
16appointed as an inspector by the Director of State Police when
17performing duties within the scope of the activities of a
18Metropolitan Enforcement Group or a law enforcement
19organization established under the Intergovernmental
20Cooperation Act. An individual who renders professional advice
21and consultation to the State through an organization which
22qualifies as an "employee" under the Act is also an employee.
23The term includes the estate or personal representative of an
24employee.
25 (c) The term "pension fund" means a retirement system or
26pension fund created under the Illinois Pension Code.

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1(Source: P.A. 98-49, eff. 7-1-13; 98-83, eff. 7-15-13; revised
28-9-13.)
3 Section 25. The State Employees Group Insurance Act of 1971
4is amended by setting forth, renumbering, and changing multiple
5versions of Section 2.5 as follows:
6 (5 ILCS 375/2.5)
7 Sec. 2.5. Application to Regional Transportation Authority
8Board members. Notwithstanding any other provision of this Act
9to the contrary, this Act does not apply to any member of the
10Regional Transportation Authority Board who first becomes a
11member of that Board on or after July 23, 2013 (the effective
12date of Public Act 98-108) this amendatory Act of the 98th
13General Assembly with respect to service of that Board.
14(Source: P.A. 98-108, eff. 7-23-13; revised 9-6-13.)
15 (5 ILCS 375/2.9)
16 Sec. 2.9 2.5. State healthcare purchasing. On and after the
17date 6 months after August 16, 2013 (the effective date of
18Public Act 98-488) this amendatory Act of the 98th General
19Assembly, as provided in the Executive Order 1 (2012)
20Implementation Act, all of the powers, duties, rights, and
21responsibilities related to State healthcare purchasing under
22this Act that were transferred from the Department of Central
23Management Services to the Department of Healthcare and Family

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1Services by Executive Order 3 (2005) are transferred back to
2the Department.
3(Source: P.A. 98-488, eff. 8-16-13; revised 9-6-13.)
4 Section 30. The State Commemorative Dates Act is amended by
5setting forth, renumbering, and changing multiple versions of
6Section 175 as follows:
7 (5 ILCS 490/175)
8 Sec. 175. Mother Mary Ann Bickerdyke Day. The second
9Wednesday in May of each year is designated as Mother Mary Ann
10Bickerdyke Day, to be observed throughout the State as a day
11set apart to honor Mother Mary Ann Bickerdyke of Galesburg,
12military nurses, and the contribution of nurses to the State of
13Illinois and the United States of America.
14(Source: P.A. 98-141, eff. 8-2-13.)
15 (5 ILCS 490/180)
16 Sec. 180 175. Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD)
17Month. The month of November in each year is designated as
18Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD) Month to be
19observed throughout the State as a month for the people of
20Illinois to support efforts to decrease the prevalence of COPD,
21develop better treatments, and work toward an eventual cure
22through increased research, treatment, and prevention.
23(Source: P.A. 98-220, eff. 8-9-13; revised 9-9-13.)

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1 (5 ILCS 490/185)
2 Sec. 185 175. Eat Local, Buy Illinois Products Day. The
3first Saturday of each month is designated as Eat Local, Buy
4Illinois Products Day to promote local food initiatives and ,
5Illinois agribusiness, and to encourage residents to re-invest
6in the local economy. The Department of Agriculture's Illinois
7Product Logo Program shall assist in increasing awareness and
8sales of Illinois food and agribusiness products.
9(Source: P.A. 98-341, eff. 8-13-13; revised 9-9-13.)
10 Section 35. The Election Code is amended by changing
11Sections 1A-16.5, 4-10, 5-9, 10-4, 19-4, 24A-15.1, 24A-16, and
1228-3 as follows:
13 (10 ILCS 5/1A-16.5)
14 Sec. 1A-16.5. Online voter registration.
15 (a) The State Board of Elections shall establish and
16maintain a system for online voter registration that permits a
17person to apply to register to vote or to update his or her
18existing voter registration. In accordance with technical
19specifications provided by the State Board of Elections, each
20election authority shall maintain a voter registration system
21capable of receiving and processing voter registration
22application information, including electronic signatures, from
23the online voter registration system established by the State

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1Board of Elections.
2 (b) The online voter registration system shall employ
3security measures to ensure the accuracy and integrity of voter
4registration applications submitted electronically pursuant to
5this Section.
6 (c) The Board may receive voter registration information
7provided by applicants using the State Board of Elections'
8website, may cross reference that information with data or
9information contained in the Secretary of State's database in
10order to match the information submitted by applicants, and may
11receive from the Secretary of State the applicant's digitized
12signature upon a successful match of that applicant's
13information with that contained in the Secretary of State's
14database.
15 (d) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, a person
16who is qualified to register to vote and who has an authentic
17Illinois driver's license or State identification card issued
18by the Secretary of State may submit an application to register
19to vote electronically on a website maintained by the State
20Board of Elections.
21 (e) An online voter registration application shall contain
22all of the information that is required for a paper application
23as provided in Section 1A-16 of this Code, except that the
24applicant shall be required to provide:
25 (1) the applicant's full Illinois driver's license or
26 State identification card number;

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1 (2) the last 4 digits of the applicant's social
2 security number; and
3 (3) the date the Illinois driver's license or State
4 identification card was issued.
5 (f) For an applicant's registration or change in
6registration to be accepted, the applicant shall mark the box
7associated with the following statement included as part of the
8online voter registration application:
9 "By clicking on the box below, I swear or affirm all of the
10following:
11 (1) I am the person whose name and identifying information
12is provided on this form, and I desire to register to vote in
13the State of Illinois.
14 (2) All the information I have provided on this form is
15true and correct as of the date I am submitting this form.
16 (3) I authorize the Secretary of State to transmit to the
17State Board of Elections my signature that is on file with the
18Secretary of State and understand that such signature will be
19used by my local election authority on this online voter
20registration application for admission as an elector as if I
21had signed this form personally.".
22 (g) Immediately upon receiving a completed online voter
23registration application, the online voter registration system
24shall send, by electronic mail, a confirmation notice that the
25application has been received. Within 48 hours of receiving
26such an application, the online voter registration system shall

09800SB2640ham001- 24 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1send by electronic mail, a notice informing the applicant of
2whether the following information has been matched with the
3Secretary of State database:
4 (1) that the applicant has an authentic Illinois
5 driver's license or State identification card issued by the
6 Secretary of State and that the driver's license or State
7 identification number provided by the applicant matches
8 the driver's license or State identification card number
9 for that person on file with the Secretary of State;
10 (2) that the date of issuance of the Illinois driver's
11 license or State identification card listed on the
12 application matches the date of issuance of that card for
13 that person on file with the Secretary of State;
14 (3) that the date of birth provided by the applicant
15 matches the date of birth for that person on file with the
16 Secretary of State; and
17 (4) that the last 4 digits of the applicant's social
18 security number matches the last 4 four digits for that
19 person on file with the Secretary of State.
20 (h) If the information provided by the applicant matches
21the information on the Secretary of State's databases for any
22driver's license and State identification card holder and is
23matched as provided in subsection (g) above, the online voter
24registration system shall:
25 (1) retrieve from the Secretary of State's database
26 files an electronic copy of the applicant's signature from

09800SB2640ham001- 25 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 his or her Illinois driver's license or State
2 identification card and such signature shall be deemed to
3 be the applicant's signature on his or her online voter
4 registration application;
5 (2) within 2 days of receiving the application, forward
6 to the county clerk or board of election commissioners
7 having jurisdiction over the applicant's voter
8 registration: (i) the application, along with the
9 applicant's relevant data that can be directly loaded into
10 the jurisdiction's voter registration system and (ii) a
11 copy of the applicant's electronic signature and a
12 certification from the State Board of Elections that the
13 applicant's driver's license or State identification card
14 number, driver's license or State identification card date
15 of issuance, and date of birth and social security
16 information have been successfully matched.
17 (i) Upon receipt of the online voter registration
18application, the county clerk or board of election
19commissioners having jurisdiction over the applicant's voter
20registration shall promptly search its voter registration
21database to determine whether the applicant is already
22registered to vote at the address on the application and
23whether the new registration would create a duplicate
24registration. If the applicant is already registered to vote at
25the address on the application, the clerk or board, as the case
26may be, shall send the applicant by first class mail, and

09800SB2640ham001- 26 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1electronic mail if the applicant has provided an electronic
2mail address on the original voter registration form for that
3address, a disposition notice as otherwise required by law
4informing the applicant that he or she is already registered to
5vote at such address. If the applicant is not already
6registered to vote at the address on the application and the
7applicant is otherwise eligible to register to vote, the clerk
8or board, as the case may be, shall:
9 (1) enter the name and address of the applicant on the
10 list of registered voters in the jurisdiction; and
11 (2) send by mail, and electronic mail if the applicant
12 has provided an electronic mail address on the voter
13 registration form, a disposition notice to the applicant as
14 otherwise provided by law setting forth the applicant's
15 name and address as it appears on the application and
16 stating that the person is registered to vote.
17 (j) An electronic signature of the person submitting a
18duplicate registration application or a change of address form
19that is retrieved and imported from the Secretary of State's
20driver's license or State identification card database as
21provided herein may, in the discretion of the clerk or board,
22be substituted for and replace any existing signature for that
23individual in the voter registration database of the county
24clerk or board of election commissioners.
25 (k) Any new registration or change of address submitted
26electronically as provided in this Section shall become

09800SB2640ham001- 27 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1effective as of the date it is received by the county clerk or
2board of election commissioners having jurisdiction over said
3registration. Disposition notices prescribed in this Section
4shall be sent within 5 business days of receipt of the online
5application or change of address by the county clerk or board
6of election commissioners.
7 (l) All provisions of this Code governing voter
8registration and applicable thereto and not inconsistent with
9this Section shall apply to online voter registration under
10this Section. All applications submitted on a website
11maintained by the State Board of Elections shall be deemed
12timely filed if they are submitted no later than 11:59 p.m. on
13the final day for voter registration prior to an election.
14After the registration period for an upcoming election has
15ended and until the 2nd day following such election, the web
16page containing the online voter registration form on the State
17Board of Elections website shall inform users of the procedure
18for grace period voting.
19 (m) The State Board of Elections shall maintain a list of
20the name, street address, e-mail address, and likely precinct,
21ward, township, and district numbers, as the case may be, of
22people who apply to vote online through the voter registration
23system and those names and that information shall be stored in
24an electronic format on its website, arranged by county and
25accessible to State and local political committees.
26 (n) The Illinois State Board of Elections shall submit a

09800SB2640ham001- 28 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1report to the General Assembly and the Governor by January 31,
22014 detailing the progress made to implement the online voter
3registration system described in this Section.
4 (o) The online voter registration system provided for in
5this Section shall be fully operational by July 1, 2014.
6(Source: P.A. 98-115, eff. 7-29-13; revised 9-4-13.)
7 (10 ILCS 5/4-10) (from Ch. 46, par. 4-10)
8 Sec. 4-10. Except as herein provided, no person shall be
9registered, unless he applies in person to a registration
10officer, answers such relevant questions as may be asked of him
11by the registration officer, and executes the affidavit of
12registration. The registration officer shall require the
13applicant to furnish two forms of identification, and except in
14the case of a homeless individual, one of which must include
15his or her residence address. These forms of identification
16shall include, but not be limited to, any of the following:
17driver's license, social security card, public aid
18identification card, utility bill, employee or student
19identification card, lease or contract for a residence, credit
20card, or a civic, union or professional association membership
21card. The registration officer shall require a homeless
22individual to furnish evidence of his or her use of the mailing
23address stated. This use may be demonstrated by a piece of mail
24addressed to that individual and received at that address or by
25a statement from a person authorizing use of the mailing

09800SB2640ham001- 29 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1address. The registration officer shall require each applicant
2for registration to read or have read to him the affidavit of
3registration before permitting him to execute the affidavit.
4 One of the registration officers or a deputy registration
5officer, county clerk, or clerk in the office of the county
6clerk, shall administer to all persons who shall personally
7apply to register the following oath or affirmation:
8 "You do solemnly swear (or affirm) that you will fully and
9truly answer all such questions as shall be put to you touching
10your name, place of residence, place of birth, your
11qualifications as an elector and your right as such to register
12and vote under the laws of the State of Illinois."
13 The registration officer shall satisfy himself that each
14applicant for registration is qualified to register before
15registering him. If the registration officer has reason to
16believe that the applicant is a resident of a Soldiers' and
17Sailors' Home or any facility which is licensed or certified
18pursuant to the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental
19Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, or the ID/DD Community Care
20Act, the following question shall be put, "When you entered the
21home which is your present address, was it your bona fide
22intention to become a resident thereof?" Any voter of a
23township, city, village or incorporated town in which such
24applicant resides, shall be permitted to be present at the
25place of any precinct registration and shall have the right to
26challenge any applicant who applies to be registered.

09800SB2640ham001- 30 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 In case the officer is not satisfied that the applicant is
2qualified he shall forthwith notify such applicant in writing
3to appear before the county clerk to complete his registration.
4Upon the card of such applicant shall be written the word
5"incomplete" and no such applicant shall be permitted to vote
6unless such registration is satisfactorily completed as
7hereinafter provided. No registration shall be taken and marked
8as incomplete if information to complete it can be furnished on
9the date of the original application.
10 Any person claiming to be an elector in any election
11precinct and whose registration card is marked "Incomplete" may
12make and sign an application in writing, under oath, to the
13county clerk in substance in the following form:
14 "I do solemnly swear that I, ...., did on (insert date)
15make application to the board of registry of the .... precinct
16of the township of .... (or to the county clerk of .... county)
17and that said board or clerk refused to complete my
18registration as a qualified voter in said precinct. That I
19reside in said precinct, that I intend to reside in said
20precinct, and am a duly qualified voter of said precinct and am
21entitled to be registered to vote in said precinct at the next
22election.
23(Signature of applicant) ............................."
24 All such applications shall be presented to the county
25clerk or to his duly authorized representative by the

09800SB2640ham001- 31 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1applicant, in person between the hours of 9:00 a.m. and 5:00
2p.m. on any day after the days on which the 1969 and 1970
3precinct re-registrations are held but not on any day within 27
4days preceding the ensuing general election and thereafter for
5the registration provided in Section 4-7 all such applications
6shall be presented to the county clerk or his duly authorized
7representative by the applicant in person between the hours of
89:00 a.m. and 5:00 p.m. on any day prior to 27 days preceding
9the ensuing general election. Such application shall be heard
10by the county clerk or his duly authorized representative at
11the time the application is presented. If the applicant for
12registration has registered with the county clerk, such
13application may be presented to and heard by the county clerk
14or by his duly authorized representative upon the dates
15specified above or at any time prior thereto designated by the
16county clerk.
17 Any otherwise qualified person who is absent from his
18county of residence either due to business of the United States
19or because he is temporarily outside the territorial limits of
20the United States may become registered by mailing an
21application to the county clerk within the periods of
22registration provided for in this Article, or by simultaneous
23application for absentee registration and absentee ballot as
24provided in Article 20 of this Code.
25 Upon receipt of such application the county clerk shall
26immediately mail an affidavit of registration in duplicate,

09800SB2640ham001- 32 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1which affidavit shall contain the following and such other
2information as the State Board of Elections may think it proper
3to require for the identification of the applicant:
4 Name. The name of the applicant, giving surname and first
5or Christian name in full, and the middle name or the initial
6for such middle name, if any.
7 Sex.
8 Residence. The name and number of the street, avenue or
9other location of the dwelling, and such additional clear and
10definite description as may be necessary to determine the exact
11location of the dwelling of the applicant. Where the location
12cannot be determined by street and number, then the Section,
13congressional township and range number may be used, or such
14other information as may be necessary, including post office
15mailing address.
16 Electronic mail address, if the registrant has provided
17this information.
18 Term of residence in the State of Illinois and the
19precinct.
20 Nativity. The State or country in which the applicant was
21born.
22 Citizenship. Whether the applicant is native born or
23naturalized. If naturalized, the court, place and date of
24naturalization.
25 Age. Date of birth, by month, day and year.
26 Out of State address of ..........................

09800SB2640ham001- 33 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1
AFFIDAVIT OF REGISTRATION
2State of ...........)
3 )ss
4County of ..........)
5 I hereby swear (or affirm) that I am a citizen of the
6United States; that on the day of the next election I shall
7have resided in the State of Illinois and in the election
8precinct 30 days; that I am fully qualified to vote, that I am
9not registered to vote anywhere else in the United States, that
10I intend to remain a resident of the State of Illinois and of
11the election precinct, that I intend to return to the State of
12Illinois, and that the above statements are true.
13
..............................
14
(His or her signature or mark)
15 Subscribed and sworn to before me, an officer qualified to
16administer oaths, on (insert date).
17
........................................
18
Signature of officer administering oath.
19 Upon receipt of the executed duplicate affidavit of
20Registration, the county clerk shall transfer the information
21contained thereon to duplicate Registration Cards provided for
22in Section 4-8 of this Article and shall attach thereto a copy
23of each of the duplicate affidavit of registration and
24thereafter such registration card and affidavit shall
25constitute the registration of such person the same as if he
26had applied for registration in person.

09800SB2640ham001- 34 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1(Source: P.A. 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-813,
2eff. 7-13-12; 98-104, eff. 7-22-13; 98-115, eff. 10-1-13;
3revised 8-9-13.)
4 (10 ILCS 5/5-9) (from Ch. 46, par. 5-9)
5 Sec. 5-9. Except as herein provided, no person shall be
6registered unless he applies in person to registration officer,
7answers such relevant questions as may be asked of him by the
8registration officer, and executes the affidavit of
9registration. The registration officer shall require the
10applicant to furnish two forms of identification, and except in
11the case of a homeless individual, one of which must include
12his or her residence address. These forms of identification
13shall include, but not be limited to, any of the following:
14driver's license, social security card, public aid
15identification card, utility bill, employee or student
16identification card, lease or contract for a residence, credit
17card, or a civic, union or professional association membership
18card. The registration officer shall require a homeless
19individual to furnish evidence of his or her use of the mailing
20address stated. This use may be demonstrated by a piece of mail
21addressed to that individual and received at that address or by
22a statement from a person authorizing use of the mailing
23address. The registration officer shall require each applicant
24for registration to read or have read to him the affidavit of
25registration before permitting him to execute the affidavit.

09800SB2640ham001- 35 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 One of the Deputy Registrars, the Judge of Registration, or
2an Officer of Registration, County Clerk, or clerk in the
3office of the County Clerk, shall administer to all persons who
4shall personally apply to register the following oath or
5affirmation:
6 "You do solemnly swear (or affirm) that you will fully and
7truly answer all such questions as shall be put to you touching
8your place of residence, name, place of birth, your
9qualifications as an elector and your right as such to register
10and vote under the laws of the State of Illinois."
11 The Registration Officer shall satisfy himself that each
12applicant for registration is qualified to register before
13registering him. If the registration officer has reason to
14believe that the applicant is a resident of a Soldiers' and
15Sailors' Home or any facility which is licensed or certified
16pursuant to the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized Mental
17Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, or the ID/DD Community Care
18Act, the following question shall be put, "When you entered the
19home which is your present address, was it your bona fide
20intention to become a resident thereof?" Any voter of a
21township, city, village or incorporated town in which such
22applicant resides, shall be permitted to be present at the
23place of precinct registration, and shall have the right to
24challenge any applicant who applies to be registered.
25 In case the officer is not satisfied that the applicant is
26qualified, he shall forthwith in writing notify such applicant

09800SB2640ham001- 36 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1to appear before the County Clerk to furnish further proof of
2his qualifications. Upon the card of such applicant shall be
3written the word "Incomplete" and no such applicant shall be
4permitted to vote unless such registration is satisfactorily
5completed as hereinafter provided. No registration shall be
6taken and marked as "incomplete" if information to complete it
7can be furnished on the date of the original application.
8 Any person claiming to be an elector in any election
9precinct in such township, city, village or incorporated town
10and whose registration is marked "Incomplete" may make and sign
11an application in writing, under oath, to the County Clerk in
12substance in the following form:
13 "I do solemnly swear that I, .........., did on (insert
14date) make application to the Board of Registry of the ........
15precinct of ........ ward of the City of .... or of the
16......... District ......... Town of .......... (or to the
17County Clerk of .............) and ............ County; that
18said Board or Clerk refused to complete my registration as a
19qualified voter in said precinct, that I reside in said
20precinct (or that I intend to reside in said precinct), am a
21duly qualified voter and entitled to vote in said precinct at
22the next election.
23
...........................
24
(Signature of Applicant)"
25 All such applications shall be presented to the County
26Clerk by the applicant, in person between the hours of nine

09800SB2640ham001- 37 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1o'clock a.m. and five o'clock p.m., on Monday and Tuesday of
2the third week subsequent to the weeks in which the 1961 and
31962 precinct re-registrations are to be held, and thereafter
4for the registration provided in Section 5-17 of this Article,
5all such applications shall be presented to the County Clerk by
6the applicant in person between the hours of nine o'clock a.m.
7and nine o'clock p.m. on Monday and Tuesday of the third week
8prior to the date on which such election is to be held.
9 Any otherwise qualified person who is absent from his
10county of residence either due to business of the United States
11or because he is temporarily outside the territorial limits of
12the United States may become registered by mailing an
13application to the county clerk within the periods of
14registration provided for in this Article or by simultaneous
15application for absentee registration and absentee ballot as
16provided in Article 20 of this Code.
17 Upon receipt of such application the county clerk shall
18immediately mail an affidavit of registration in duplicate,
19which affidavit shall contain the following and such other
20information as the State Board of Elections may think it proper
21to require for the identification of the applicant:
22 Name. The name of the applicant, giving surname and first
23or Christian name in full, and the middle name or the initial
24for such middle name, if any.
25 Sex.
26 Residence. The name and number of the street, avenue or

09800SB2640ham001- 38 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1other location of the dwelling, and such additional clear and
2definite description as may be necessary to determine the exact
3location of the dwelling of the applicant. Where the location
4cannot be determined by street and number, then the Section,
5congressional township and range number may be used, or such
6other information as may be necessary, including post office
7mailing address.
8 Electronic mail address, if the registrant has provided
9this information.
10 Term of residence in the State of Illinois and the
11precinct.
12 Nativity. The State or country in which the applicant was
13born.
14 Citizenship. Whether the applicant is native born or
15naturalized. If naturalized, the court, place and date of
16naturalization.
17 Age. Date of birth, by month, day and year.
18 Out of State address of ..........................
19
AFFIDAVIT OF REGISTRATION
20State of .........)
21 )ss
22County of ........)
23 I hereby swear (or affirm) that I am a citizen of the
24United States; that on the day of the next election I shall
25have resided in the State of Illinois for 6 months and in the
26election precinct 30 days; that I am fully qualified to vote,

09800SB2640ham001- 39 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1that I am not registered to vote anywhere else in the United
2States, that I intend to remain a resident of the State of
3Illinois and of the election precinct, that I intend to return
4to the State of Illinois, and that the above statements are
5true.
6
..............................
7
(His or her signature or mark)
8 Subscribed and sworn to before me, an officer qualified to
9administer oaths, on (insert date).
10
........................................
11
Signature of officer administering oath.
12 Upon receipt of the executed duplicate affidavit of
13Registration, the county clerk shall transfer the information
14contained thereon to duplicate Registration Cards provided for
15in Section 5-7 of this Article and shall attach thereto a copy
16of each of the duplicate affidavit of registration and
17thereafter such registration card and affidavit shall
18constitute the registration of such person the same as if he
19had applied for registration in person.
20(Source: P.A. 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-813,
21eff. 7-13-12; 98-104, eff. 7-22-13; 98-115, eff. 10-1-13;
22revised 8-9-13.)
23 (10 ILCS 5/10-4) (from Ch. 46, par. 10-4)
24 Sec. 10-4. Form of petition for nomination. All petitions

09800SB2640ham001- 40 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1for nomination under this Article 10 for candidates for public
2office in this State, shall in addition to other requirements
3provided by law, be as follows: Such petitions shall consist of
4sheets of uniform size and each sheet shall contain, above the
5space for signature, an appropriate heading, giving the
6information as to name of candidate or candidates in whose
7behalf such petition is signed; the office; the party; place of
8residence; and such other information or wording as required to
9make same valid, and the heading of each sheet shall be the
10same. Such petition shall be signed by the qualified voters in
11their own proper persons only, and opposite the signature of
12each signer his residence address shall be written or printed.
13The residence address required to be written or printed
14opposite each qualified primary elector's name shall include
15the street address or rural route number of the signer, as the
16case may be, as well as the signer's county, and city, village
17or town, and state. However, the county or city, village or
18town, and state of residence of such electors may be printed on
19the petition forms where all of the such electors signing the
20petition reside in the same county or city, village or town,
21and state. Standard abbreviations may be used in writing the
22residence address, including street number, if any. No
23signature shall be valid or be counted in considering the
24validity or sufficiency of such petition unless the
25requirements of this Section are complied with. At the bottom
26of each sheet of such petition shall be added a circulator's

09800SB2640ham001- 41 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1statement, signed by a person 18 years of age or older who is a
2citizen of the United States; stating the street address or
3rural route number, as the case may be, as well as the county,
4city, village or town, and state; certifying that the
5signatures on that sheet of the petition were signed in his or
6her presence; certifying that the signatures are genuine; and
7either (1) indicating the dates on which that sheet was
8circulated, or (2) indicating the first and last dates on which
9the sheet was circulated, or (3) certifying that none of the
10signatures on the sheet were signed more than 90 days preceding
11the last day for the filing of the petition; and certifying
12that to the best of his knowledge and belief the persons so
13signing were at the time of signing the petition duly
14registered voters under Articles 4, 5 or 6 of the Code of the
15political subdivision or district for which the candidate or
16candidates shall be nominated, and certifying that their
17respective residences are correctly stated therein. Such
18statement shall be sworn to before some officer authorized to
19administer oaths in this State. No petition sheet shall be
20circulated more than 90 days preceding the last day provided in
21Section 10-6 for the filing of such petition. Such sheets,
22before being presented to the electoral board or filed with the
23proper officer of the electoral district or division of the
24state or municipality, as the case may be, shall be neatly
25fastened together in book form, by placing the sheets in a pile
26and fastening them together at one edge in a secure and

09800SB2640ham001- 42 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1suitable manner, and the sheets shall then be numbered
2consecutively. The sheets shall not be fastened by pasting them
3together end to end, so as to form a continuous strip or roll.
4All petition sheets which are filed with the proper local
5election officials, election authorities or the State Board of
6Elections shall be the original sheets which have been signed
7by the voters and by the circulator, and not photocopies or
8duplicates of such sheets. A petition, when presented or filed,
9shall not be withdrawn, altered, or added to, and no signature
10shall be revoked except by revocation in writing presented or
11filed with the officers or officer with whom the petition is
12required to be presented or filed, and before the presentment
13or filing of such petition. Whoever forges any name of a signer
14upon any petition shall be deemed guilty of a forgery, and on
15conviction thereof, shall be punished accordingly. The word
16"petition" or "petition for nomination", as used herein, shall
17mean what is sometimes known as nomination papers, in
18distinction to what is known as a certificate of nomination.
19The words "political division for which the candidate is
20nominated", or its equivalent, shall mean the largest political
21division in which all qualified voters may vote upon such
22candidate or candidates, as the state in the case of state
23officers; the township in the case of township officers et
24cetera. Provided, further, that no person shall circulate or
25certify petitions for candidates of more than one political
26party, or for an independent candidate or candidates in

09800SB2640ham001- 43 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1addition to one political party, to be voted upon at the next
2primary or general election, or for such candidates and parties
3with respect to the same political subdivision at the next
4consolidated election.
5(Source: P.A. 91-57, eff. 6-30-99; 92-129, eff. 7-20-01;
6revised 9-4-13.)
7 (10 ILCS 5/19-4) (from Ch. 46, par. 19-4)
8 Sec. 19-4. Mailing or delivery of ballots; time. ballots -
9Time.) Immediately upon the receipt of such application either
10by mail or electronic means, not more than 40 days nor less
11than 5 days prior to such election, or by personal delivery not
12more than 40 days nor less than one day prior to such election,
13at the office of such election authority, it shall be the duty
14of such election authority to examine the records to ascertain
15whether or not such applicant is lawfully entitled to vote as
16requested, including a verification of the applicant's
17signature by comparison with the signature on the official
18registration record card, and if found so to be entitled to
19vote, to post within one business day thereafter the name,
20street address, ward and precinct number or township and
21district number, as the case may be, of such applicant given on
22a list, the pages of which are to be numbered consecutively to
23be kept by such election authority for such purpose in a
24conspicuous, open and public place accessible to the public at
25the entrance of the office of such election authority, and in

09800SB2640ham001- 44 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1such a manner that such list may be viewed without necessity of
2requesting permission therefor. Within one day after posting
3the name and other information of an applicant for an absentee
4ballot, the election authority shall transmit by electronic
5means pursuant to a process established by the State Board of
6Elections that name and other posted information to the State
7Board of Elections, which shall maintain those names and other
8information in an electronic format on its website, arranged by
9county and accessible to State and local political committees.
10Within 2 business days after posting a name and other
11information on the list within its office, the election
12authority shall mail, postage prepaid, or deliver in person in
13such office an official ballot or ballots if more than one are
14to be voted at said election. Mail delivery of Temporarily
15Absent Student ballot applications pursuant to Section 19-12.3
16shall be by nonforwardable mail. However, for the consolidated
17election, absentee ballots for certain precincts may be
18delivered to applicants not less than 25 days before the
19election if so much time is required to have prepared and
20printed the ballots containing the names of persons nominated
21for offices at the consolidated primary. The election authority
22shall enclose with each absentee ballot or application written
23instructions on how voting assistance shall be provided
24pursuant to Section 17-14 and a document, written and approved
25by the State Board of Elections, enumerating the circumstances
26under which a person is authorized to vote by absentee ballot

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1pursuant to this Article; such document shall also include a
2statement informing the applicant that if he or she falsifies
3or is solicited by another to falsify his or her eligibility to
4cast an absentee ballot, such applicant or other is subject to
5penalties pursuant to Section 29-10 and Section 29-20 of the
6Election Code. Each election authority shall maintain a list of
7the name, street address, ward and precinct, or township and
8district number, as the case may be, of all applicants who have
9returned absentee ballots to such authority, and the name of
10such absent voter shall be added to such list within one
11business day from receipt of such ballot. If the absentee
12ballot envelope indicates that the voter was assisted in
13casting the ballot, the name of the person so assisting shall
14be included on the list. The list, the pages of which are to be
15numbered consecutively, shall be kept by each election
16authority in a conspicuous, open, and public place accessible
17to the public at the entrance of the office of the election
18authority and in a manner that the list may be viewed without
19necessity of requesting permission for viewing.
20 Each election authority shall maintain a list for each
21election of the voters to whom it has issued absentee ballots.
22The list shall be maintained for each precinct within the
23jurisdiction of the election authority. Prior to the opening of
24the polls on election day, the election authority shall deliver
25to the judges of election in each precinct the list of
26registered voters in that precinct to whom absentee ballots

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1have been issued by mail.
2 Each election authority shall maintain a list for each
3election of voters to whom it has issued temporarily absent
4student ballots. The list shall be maintained for each election
5jurisdiction within which such voters temporarily abide.
6Immediately after the close of the period during which
7application may be made by mail or electronic means for
8absentee ballots, each election authority shall mail to each
9other election authority within the State a certified list of
10all such voters temporarily abiding within the jurisdiction of
11the other election authority.
12 In the event that the return address of an application for
13ballot by a physically incapacitated elector is that of a
14facility licensed or certified under the Nursing Home Care Act,
15the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, or
16the ID/DD Community Care Act, within the jurisdiction of the
17election authority, and the applicant is a registered voter in
18the precinct in which such facility is located, the ballots
19shall be prepared and transmitted to a responsible judge of
20election no later than 9 a.m. on the Saturday, Sunday or Monday
21immediately preceding the election as designated by the
22election authority under Section 19-12.2. Such judge shall
23deliver in person on the designated day the ballot to the
24applicant on the premises of the facility from which
25application was made. The election authority shall by mail
26notify the applicant in such facility that the ballot will be

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1delivered by a judge of election on the designated day.
2 All applications for absentee ballots shall be available at
3the office of the election authority for public inspection upon
4request from the time of receipt thereof by the election
5authority until 30 days after the election, except during the
6time such applications are kept in the office of the election
7authority pursuant to Section 19-7, and except during the time
8such applications are in the possession of the judges of
9election.
10(Source: P.A. 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-813,
11eff. 7-13-12; 98-104, eff. 7-22-13; 98-115, eff. 7-29-13;
12revised 8-9-13.)
13 (10 ILCS 5/24A-15.1) (from Ch. 46, par. 24A-15.1)
14 Sec. 24A-15.1. Except as herein provided, discovery
15recounts and election contests shall be conducted as otherwise
16provided for in "The Election Code", as amended. The automatic
17tabulating equipment shall be tested prior to the discovery
18recount or election contest as provided in Section 24A-9, and
19then the official ballots or ballot cards shall be recounted on
20the automatic tabulating equipment. In addition, (1) the ballot
21or ballot cards shall be checked for the presence or absence of
22judges' initials and other distinguishing marks, and (2) the
23ballots marked "Rejected", "Defective", Objected to",
24"Absentee Ballot", and "Early Ballot" shall be examined to
25determine the propriety of the such labels, and (3) the

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1"Duplicate Absentee Ballots", "Duplicate Early Ballots",
2"Duplicate Overvoted Ballots" and "Duplicate Damaged Ballots"
3shall be compared with their respective originals to determine
4the correctness of the duplicates.
5 Any person who has filed a petition for discovery recount
6may request that a redundant count be conducted in those
7precincts in which the discovery recount is being conducted.
8The additional costs of such a redundant count shall be borne
9by the requesting party.
10 The log of the computer operator and all materials retained
11by the election authority in relation to vote tabulation and
12canvass shall be made available for any discovery recount or
13election contest.
14(Source: P.A. 94-645, eff. 8-22-05; revised 9-4-13.)
15 (10 ILCS 5/24A-16) (from Ch. 46, par. 24A-16)
16 Sec. 24A-16. The State Board of Elections shall approve all
17voting systems provided by this Article.
18 No voting system shall be approved unless it fulfills the
19following requirements:
20 (1) It enables a voter to vote in absolute secrecy;
21 (2) (Blank);
22 (3) It enables a voter to vote a ticket selected in
23 part from the nominees of one party, and in part from the
24 nominees of any or all parties, and in part from
25 independent candidates and in part of candidates whose

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1 names are written in by the voter;
2 (4) It enables a voter to vote a written or printed
3 ticket of his own selection for any person for any office
4 for whom he may desire to vote;
5 (5) It will reject all votes for an office or upon a
6 proposition when the voter has cast more votes for such
7 office or upon such proposition than he is entitled to
8 cast;
9 (5.5) It will identify when a voter has not voted for
10 all statewide constitutional offices;
11 (6) It will accommodate all propositions to be
12 submitted to the voters in the form provided by law or,
13 where no such form is provided, then in brief form, not to
14 exceed 75 words; .
15 (7) It will accommodate the tabulation programming
16 requirements of Sections 24A-6.2, 24B-6.2, and 24C-6.2.
17 The State Board of Elections shall not approve any voting
18equipment or system that includes an external Infrared Data
19Association (IrDA) communications port.
20 The State Board of Elections is authorized to withdraw its
21approval of a voting system if the system fails to fulfill the
22above requirements.
23 The vendor, person, or other private entity shall be solely
24responsible for the production and cost of: all application
25fees; all ballots; additional temporary workers; and other
26equipment or facilities needed and used in the testing of the

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1vendor's, person's, or other private entity's respective
2equipment and software.
3 Any voting system vendor, person, or other private entity
4seeking the State Board of Elections' approval of a voting
5system shall, as part of the approval application, submit to
6the State Board a non-refundable fee. The State Board of
7Elections by rule shall establish an appropriate fee structure,
8taking into account the type of voting system approval that is
9requested (such as approval of a new system, a modification of
10an existing system, the size of the modification, etc.). No
11voting system or modification of a voting system shall be
12approved unless the fee is paid.
13 No vendor, person, or other entity may sell, lease, or
14loan, or have a written contract, including a contract
15contingent upon State Board approval of the voting system or
16voting system component, to sell, lease, or loan, a voting
17system or voting system component to any election jurisdiction
18unless the voting system or voting system component is first
19approved by the State Board of Elections pursuant to this
20Section.
21(Source: P.A. 98-115, eff. 7-29-13; revised 9-4-13.)
22 (10 ILCS 5/28-3) (from Ch. 46, par. 28-3)
23 Sec. 28-3. Form of petition for public question. Petitions
24for the submission of public questions shall consist of sheets
25of uniform size and each sheet shall contain, above the space

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1for signature, an appropriate heading, giving the information
2as to the question of public policy to be submitted, and
3specifying the state at large or the political subdivision or
4district or precinct or combination of precincts or other
5territory in which it is to be submitted and, where by law the
6public question must be submitted at a particular election, the
7election at which it is to be submitted. In the case of a
8petition for the submission of a public question described in
9subsection (b) of Section 28-6, the heading shall also specify
10the regular election at which the question is to be submitted
11and include the precincts included in the territory concerning
12which the public question is to be submitted, as well as a
13common description of such territory in plain and nonlegal
14language, such description to describe the territory by
15reference to streets, natural or artificial landmarks,
16addresses or any other method which would enable a voter
17signing the petition to be informed of the territory concerning
18which the question is to be submitted. The heading of each
19sheet shall be the same. Such petition shall be signed by the
20registered voters of the political subdivision or district or
21precinct or combination of precincts in which the question of
22public policy is to be submitted in their own proper persons
23only, and opposite the signature of each signer his residence
24address shall be written or printed, which residence address
25shall include the street address or rural route number of the
26signer, as the case may be, as well as the signer's county, and

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1city, village or town, and state; provided that the county or
2city, village or town, and state of residence of such electors
3may be printed on the petition forms where all of the such
4electors signing the petition reside in the same county or
5city, village or town, and state. Standard abbreviations may be
6used in writing the residence address, including street number,
7if any. No signature shall be valid or be counted in
8considering the validity or sufficiency of such petition unless
9the requirements of this Section are complied with.
10 At the bottom of each sheet of such petition shall be added
11a circulator's statement, signed by a person 18 years of age or
12older who is a citizen of the United States, stating the street
13address or rural route number, as the case may be, as well as
14the county, city, village or town, and state; certifying that
15the signatures on that sheet of the petition were signed in his
16or her presence and are genuine, and that to the best of his or
17her knowledge and belief the persons so signing were at the
18time of signing the petition registered voters of the political
19subdivision or district or precinct or combination of precincts
20in which the question of public policy is to be submitted and
21that their respective residences are correctly stated therein.
22Such statement shall be sworn to before some officer authorized
23to administer oaths in this State.
24 Such sheets, before being filed with the proper officer or
25board shall be bound securely and numbered consecutively. The
26sheets shall not be fastened by pasting them together end to

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1end, so as to form a continuous strip or roll. All petition
2sheets which are filed with the proper local election
3officials, election authorities or the State Board of Elections
4shall be the original sheets which have been signed by the
5voters and by the circulator, and not photocopies or duplicates
6of such sheets. A petition, when presented or filed, shall not
7be withdrawn, altered, or added to, and no signature shall be
8revoked except by revocation in writing presented or filed with
9the board or officer with whom the petition is required to be
10presented or filed, and before the presentment or filing of
11such petition, except as may otherwise be provided in another
12statute which authorize the public question. Whoever forges any
13name of a signer upon any petition shall be deemed guilty of a
14forgery, and on conviction thereof, shall be punished
15accordingly.
16 In addition to the foregoing requirements, a petition
17proposing an amendment to Article IV of the Constitution
18pursuant to Section 3 of Article XIV of the Constitution or a
19petition proposing a question of public policy to be submitted
20to the voters of the entire State shall be in conformity with
21the requirements of Section 28-9 of this Article.
22 If multiple sets of petitions for submission of the same
23public questions are filed, the State Board of Elections,
24appropriate election authority or local election official
25where the petitions are filed shall within 2 business days
26notify the proponent of his or her multiple petition filings

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1and that proponent has 3 business days after receipt of the
2notice to notify the State Board of Elections, appropriate
3election authority or local election official that he or she
4may cancel prior sets of petitions. If the proponent notifies
5the State Board of Elections, appropriate election authority or
6local election official, the last set of petitions filed shall
7be the only petitions to be considered valid by the State Board
8of Elections, appropriate election authority or local election
9official. If the proponent fails to notify the State Board of
10Elections, appropriate election authority or local election
11official then only the first set of petitions filed shall be
12valid and all subsequent petitions shall be void.
13(Source: P.A. 91-57, eff. 6-30-99; 92-129, eff. 7-20-01;
14revised 9-12-13.)
15 Section 40. The Executive Reorganization Implementation
16Act is amended by changing Section 5 as follows:
17 (15 ILCS 15/5) (from Ch. 127, par. 1805)
18 Sec. 5. An executive order of the Governor proposing
19reorganization may not provide for, and a reorganization under
20this Act may not have the effect of:
21 (a) continuing Continuing any function beyond the period
22authorized by law for its exercise, or beyond the time when it
23would have terminated if the reorganization had not been made;
24 (b) authorizing Authorizing any agency to exercise any

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1function which is not expressly authorized by law to be
2exercised by an agency in the executive branch when the
3executive order is transmitted to the General Assembly;
4 (c) increasing Increasing the term of any office beyond
5that provided by law for the office; or
6 (d) eliminating any qualifications of or procedures for
7selecting or appointing any agency or department head or
8commission or board member; or
9 (e) abolishing Abolishing any agency created by the
10Illinois Constitution, or transferring to any other agency any
11function conferred by the Illinois Constitution on an agency
12created by that Constitution.
13(Source: P.A. 81-984; revised 9-4-13.)
14 Section 45. The Illinois Identification Card Act is amended
15by changing Section 4 as follows:
16 (15 ILCS 335/4) (from Ch. 124, par. 24)
17 Sec. 4. Identification Card.
18 (a) The Secretary of State shall issue a standard Illinois
19Identification Card to any natural person who is a resident of
20the State of Illinois who applies for such card, or renewal
21thereof, or who applies for a standard Illinois Identification
22Card upon release as a committed person on parole, mandatory
23supervised release, aftercare release, final discharge, or
24pardon from the Department of Corrections or Department of

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1Juvenile Justice by submitting an identification card issued by
2the Department of Corrections or Department of Juvenile Justice
3under Section 3-14-1 or Section 3-2.5-70 of the Unified Code of
4Corrections, together with the prescribed fees. No
5identification card shall be issued to any person who holds a
6valid foreign state identification card, license, or permit
7unless the person first surrenders to the Secretary of State
8the valid foreign state identification card, license, or
9permit. The card shall be prepared and supplied by the
10Secretary of State and shall include a photograph and signature
11or mark of the applicant. However, the Secretary of State may
12provide by rule for the issuance of Illinois Identification
13Cards without photographs if the applicant has a bona fide
14religious objection to being photographed or to the display of
15his or her photograph. The Illinois Identification Card may be
16used for identification purposes in any lawful situation only
17by the person to whom it was issued. As used in this Act,
18"photograph" means any color photograph or digitally produced
19and captured image of an applicant for an identification card.
20As used in this Act, "signature" means the name of a person as
21written by that person and captured in a manner acceptable to
22the Secretary of State.
23 (a-5) If an applicant for an identification card has a
24current driver's license or instruction permit issued by the
25Secretary of State, the Secretary may require the applicant to
26utilize the same residence address and name on the

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1identification card, driver's license, and instruction permit
2records maintained by the Secretary. The Secretary may
3promulgate rules to implement this provision.
4 (a-10) If the applicant is a judicial officer as defined in
5Section 1-10 of the Judicial Privacy Act or a peace officer,
6the applicant may elect to have his or her office or work
7address listed on the card instead of the applicant's residence
8or mailing address. The Secretary may promulgate rules to
9implement this provision. For the purposes of this subsection
10(a-10), "peace officer" means any person who by virtue of his
11or her office or public employment is vested by law with a duty
12to maintain public order or to make arrests for a violation of
13any penal statute of this State, whether that duty extends to
14all violations or is limited to specific violations.
15 (b) The Secretary of State shall issue a special Illinois
16Identification Card, which shall be known as an Illinois Person
17with a Disability Identification Card, to any natural person
18who is a resident of the State of Illinois, who is a person
19with a disability as defined in Section 4A of this Act, who
20applies for such card, or renewal thereof. No Illinois Person
21with a Disability Identification Card shall be issued to any
22person who holds a valid foreign state identification card,
23license, or permit unless the person first surrenders to the
24Secretary of State the valid foreign state identification card,
25license, or permit. The Secretary of State shall charge no fee
26to issue such card. The card shall be prepared and supplied by

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1the Secretary of State, and shall include a photograph and
2signature or mark of the applicant, a designation indicating
3that the card is an Illinois Person with a Disability
4Identification Card, and shall include a comprehensible
5designation of the type and classification of the applicant's
6disability as set out in Section 4A of this Act. However, the
7Secretary of State may provide by rule for the issuance of
8Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Cards without
9photographs if the applicant has a bona fide religious
10objection to being photographed or to the display of his or her
11photograph. If the applicant so requests, the card shall
12include a description of the applicant's disability and any
13information about the applicant's disability or medical
14history which the Secretary determines would be helpful to the
15applicant in securing emergency medical care. If a mark is used
16in lieu of a signature, such mark shall be affixed to the card
17in the presence of two witnesses who attest to the authenticity
18of the mark. The Illinois Person with a Disability
19Identification Card may be used for identification purposes in
20any lawful situation by the person to whom it was issued.
21 The Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card
22may be used as adequate documentation of disability in lieu of
23a physician's determination of disability, a determination of
24disability from a physician assistant who has been delegated
25the authority to make this determination by his or her
26supervising physician, a determination of disability from an

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1advanced practice nurse who has a written collaborative
2agreement with a collaborating physician that authorizes the
3advanced practice nurse to make this determination, or any
4other documentation of disability whenever any State law
5requires that a disabled person provide such documentation of
6disability, however an Illinois Person with a Disability
7Identification Card shall not qualify the cardholder to
8participate in any program or to receive any benefit which is
9not available to all persons with like disabilities.
10Notwithstanding any other provisions of law, an Illinois Person
11with a Disability Identification Card, or evidence that the
12Secretary of State has issued an Illinois Person with a
13Disability Identification Card, shall not be used by any person
14other than the person named on such card to prove that the
15person named on such card is a disabled person or for any other
16purpose unless the card is used for the benefit of the person
17named on such card, and the person named on such card consents
18to such use at the time the card is so used.
19 An optometrist's determination of a visual disability
20under Section 4A of this Act is acceptable as documentation for
21the purpose of issuing an Illinois Person with a Disability
22Identification Card.
23 When medical information is contained on an Illinois Person
24with a Disability Identification Card, the Office of the
25Secretary of State shall not be liable for any actions taken
26based upon that medical information.

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1 (c) The Secretary of State shall provide that each original
2or renewal Illinois Identification Card or Illinois Person with
3a Disability Identification Card issued to a person under the
4age of 21 shall be of a distinct nature from those Illinois
5Identification Cards or Illinois Person with a Disability
6Identification Cards issued to individuals 21 years of age or
7older. The color designated for Illinois Identification Cards
8or Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Cards for
9persons under the age of 21 shall be at the discretion of the
10Secretary of State.
11 (c-1) Each original or renewal Illinois Identification
12Card or Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card
13issued to a person under the age of 21 shall display the date
14upon which the person becomes 18 years of age and the date upon
15which the person becomes 21 years of age.
16 (c-3) The General Assembly recognizes the need to identify
17military veterans living in this State for the purpose of
18ensuring that they receive all of the services and benefits to
19which they are legally entitled, including healthcare,
20education assistance, and job placement. To assist the State in
21identifying these veterans and delivering these vital services
22and benefits, the Secretary of State is authorized to issue
23Illinois Identification Cards and Illinois Person with a
24Disability Identification Cards with the word "veteran"
25appearing on the face of the cards. This authorization is
26predicated on the unique status of veterans. The Secretary may

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1not issue any other identification card which identifies an
2occupation, status, affiliation, hobby, or other unique
3characteristics of the identification card holder which is
4unrelated to the purpose of the identification card.
5 (c-5) Beginning on or before July 1, 2015, the Secretary of
6State shall designate a space on each original or renewal
7identification card where, at the request of the applicant, the
8word "veteran" shall be placed. The veteran designation shall
9be available to a person identified as a veteran under
10subsection (b) of Section 5 of this Act who was discharged or
11separated under honorable conditions.
12 (d) The Secretary of State may issue a Senior Citizen
13discount card, to any natural person who is a resident of the
14State of Illinois who is 60 years of age or older and who
15applies for such a card or renewal thereof. The Secretary of
16State shall charge no fee to issue such card. The card shall be
17issued in every county and applications shall be made available
18at, but not limited to, nutrition sites, senior citizen centers
19and Area Agencies on Aging. The applicant, upon receipt of such
20card and prior to its use for any purpose, shall have affixed
21thereon in the space provided therefor his signature or mark.
22 (e) The Secretary of State, in his or her discretion, may
23designate on each Illinois Identification Card or Illinois
24Person with a Disability Identification Card a space where the
25card holder may place a sticker or decal, issued by the
26Secretary of State, of uniform size as the Secretary may

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1specify, that shall indicate in appropriate language that the
2card holder has renewed his or her Illinois Identification Card
3or Illinois Person with a Disability Identification Card.
4(Source: P.A. 97-371, eff. 1-1-12; 97-739, eff. 1-1-13; 97-847,
5eff. 1-1-13; 97-1064, eff. 1-1-13; 98-323, eff. 1-1-14; 98-463,
6eff. 8-16-13; 98-558, eff. 1-1-14; revised 9-4-13.)
7 Section 50. The State Comptroller Act is amended by
8changing Sections 10 and 10.10 as follows:
9 (15 ILCS 405/10) (from Ch. 15, par. 210)
10 Sec. 10. Warrants; procedure Warrants- Procedure. The
11powers and duties of the Comptroller comptroller as respects
12warrants are set out in the Sections following this Section and
13preceding Section 11 Sections 10.01 through 10.15.
14(Source: P.A. 77-2807; revised 9-4-13.)
15 (15 ILCS 405/10.10) (from Ch. 15, par. 210.10)
16 Sec. 10.10. (a) If any Comptroller's warrant is lost,
17mislaid or destroyed, or becomes void after issuance, so that
18it cannot be presented for payment by the person entitled
19thereto, the Comptroller, at any time before that warrant is
20paid by the State Treasurer, but within 5 years of the date of
21issuance, may issue a replacement warrant to the person
22entitled thereto. If the original warrant was not cancelled or
23did not become void, the Comptroller, before issuing the

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1replacement warrant, shall issue a stop payment order on the
2State Treasurer and receive a confirmation of the stop payment
3order on the original warrant from the State Treasurer.
4 (b) Only the person entitled to the original warrant, or
5his heirs or legal representatives, or a third party to whom it
6was properly negotiated or the heirs or legal representatives
7of such party, may request a replacement warrant. In the case
8of a warrant issued to a payee who dies before the warrant is
9paid by the State Treasurer and whose estate has been probated
10pursuant to law, the Comptroller, upon receipt of a certified
11copy of a judicial order establishing the person or entity
12entitled to payment, may issue a replacement warrant to such
13person or entity.
14 (c) Within 12 months from the date of issuance of the
15original warrant, if the original warrant has not been canceled
16for redeposit, the Comptroller may issue a replacement warrant
17on the original voucher drawing upon the same fund and charging
18the same appropriation or other expenditure authorization as
19the original warrant.
20 (d) Within 12 months from the date of issuance of the
21original warrant, if the original warrant has been canceled for
22redeposit, and if the issuance of the replacement warrant would
23not over-obligate the appropriation or other expenditure
24authority against which it is drawn, the Comptroller may issue
25the replacement warrant. If the original warrant was issued
26against an appropriation or other expenditure authority which

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1has lapsed, the replacement warrant shall be drawn on the
2Warrant Escheat Fund. If the appropriation or other
3obligational authority against which the replacement warrant
4is drawn has not lapsed, the Comptroller shall notify the
5originating agency of the request for a replacement warrant and
6shall receive a replacement voucher from that agency before
7drawing the replacement warrant, which shall be drawn on the
8same fund and charged to the same appropriation or other
9expenditure authority as the original warrant.
10 (e) Within 12 months from the date of issuance of the
11original warrant, if the original warrant has been canceled for
12redeposit, the Comptroller may not issue a replacement warrant
13where such issuance would over-obligate the appropriation or
14other expenditure authority against which the original warrant
15was drawn. Whenever the Comptroller is presented with a request
16for a replacement warrant which may not be issued under the
17limitation of this subsection, if the appropriation or other
18expenditure authority against which the original warrant was
19drawn has not lapsed, the Comptroller shall immediately inform
20the originating agency of the request and that the request may
21not be honored because of the resulting over-obligation, and
22shall request the agency to determine whether or not that
23agency will take some corrective action before the applicable
24expenditure authorization lapses. The originating agency shall
25respond to the Comptroller's inquiry within 5 business days.
26 (f) After 12 months from the date of issuance of the

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1original warrant, if the original warrant has not been
2cancelled for redeposit, the Comptroller shall issue the
3replacement warrant on the Warrant Escheat Fund.
4 (f-5) After 5 years from the date of issuance of the
5original warrant but no later than 10 years after that date,
6the Comptroller may issue a replacement warrant on the Warrant
7Escheat Fund to a person or entity entitled thereto, as those
8persons and entities are described in subsection (b) of this
9Section, if the following requirements are met:
10 (1) the person or entity verifies that the person or
11 entity is they are entitled to the original warrant;
12 (2) in the case of a warrant that is not presented by
13 the requestor, the paying agency certifies that the
14 original payee is still entitled to the payment; and
15 (3) the Comptroller's records are available and
16 confirm that the warrant was not replaced.
17 (g) Except as provided in this Section, requests for
18replacement warrants for more than $500 shall show entitlement
19to such warrant by including an affidavit, in writing, sworn
20before a person authorized to administer oaths and
21affirmations, stating the loss or destruction of the warrant,
22or the fact that the warrant is void. However, when the written
23request for a replacement warrant submitted by the person to
24whom the original warrant was issued is accompanied by the
25original warrant, no affidavit is required. Requests for
26replacement warrants for $500 or less shall show entitlement to

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1such warrant by submitting a written statement of the loss or
2destruction of the warrant, or the fact that the warrant is
3void on an application form prescribed by the Comptroller. If
4the person requesting the replacement is in possession of the
5original warrant, or any part thereof, the original warrant or
6the part thereof must accompany the request for replacement.
7The Comptroller shall then draw such replacement warrant, and
8the treasurer shall pay the replacement warrant. If at the time
9of a loss or destruction a warrant was negotiated to a third
10party, however (which fact shall be ascertained by the oath of
11the party making the application, or otherwise), before the
12replacement warrant is drawn by the Comptroller, the person
13requesting the replacement warrant must give the Comptroller a
14bond or bonds with sufficient sureties, to be approved by the
15Comptroller, when required by regulation of the Comptroller,
16payable to the People of the State of Illinois, for the
17refunding of the amount, together with all costs and charges,
18should the State afterwards be compelled to pay the original
19warrant.
20(Source: P.A. 98-411, eff. 8-16-13; revised 11-14-13.)
21 Section 55. The Illinois Act on the Aging is amended by
22changing Section 4.01 as follows:
23 (20 ILCS 105/4.01) (from Ch. 23, par. 6104.01)
24 Sec. 4.01. Additional powers and duties of the Department.

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1In addition to powers and duties otherwise provided by law, the
2Department shall have the following powers and duties:
3 (1) To evaluate all programs, services, and facilities for
4the aged and for minority senior citizens within the State and
5determine the extent to which present public or private
6programs, services and facilities meet the needs of the aged.
7 (2) To coordinate and evaluate all programs, services, and
8facilities for the Aging and for minority senior citizens
9presently furnished by State agencies and make appropriate
10recommendations regarding such services, programs and
11facilities to the Governor and/or the General Assembly.
12 (2-a) To request, receive, and share information
13electronically through the use of data-sharing agreements for
14the purpose of (i) establishing and verifying the initial and
15continuing eligibility of older adults to participate in
16programs administered by the Department; (ii) maximizing
17federal financial participation in State assistance
18expenditures; and (iii) investigating allegations of fraud or
19other abuse of publicly funded benefits. Notwithstanding any
20other law to the contrary, but only for the limited purposes
21identified in the preceding sentence, this paragraph (2-a)
22expressly authorizes the exchanges of income, identification,
23and other pertinent eligibility information by and among the
24Department and the Social Security Administration, the
25Department of Employment Security, the Department of
26Healthcare and Family Services, the Department of Human

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1Services, the Department of Revenue, the Secretary of State,
2the U.S. Department of Veterans Affairs, and any other
3governmental entity. The confidentiality of information
4otherwise shall be maintained as required by law. In addition,
5the Department on Aging shall verify employment information at
6the request of a community care provider for the purpose of
7ensuring program integrity under the Community Care Program.
8 (3) To function as the sole State agency to develop a
9comprehensive plan to meet the needs of the State's senior
10citizens and the State's minority senior citizens.
11 (4) To receive and disburse State and federal funds made
12available directly to the Department including those funds made
13available under the Older Americans Act and the Senior
14Community Service Employment Program for providing services
15for senior citizens and minority senior citizens or for
16purposes related thereto, and shall develop and administer any
17State Plan for the Aging required by federal law.
18 (5) To solicit, accept, hold, and administer in behalf of
19the State any grants or legacies of money, securities, or
20property to the State of Illinois for services to senior
21citizens and minority senior citizens or purposes related
22thereto.
23 (6) To provide consultation and assistance to communities,
24area agencies on aging, and groups developing local services
25for senior citizens and minority senior citizens.
26 (7) To promote community education regarding the problems

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1of senior citizens and minority senior citizens through
2institutes, publications, radio, television and the local
3press.
4 (8) To cooperate with agencies of the federal government in
5studies and conferences designed to examine the needs of senior
6citizens and minority senior citizens and to prepare programs
7and facilities to meet those needs.
8 (9) To establish and maintain information and referral
9sources throughout the State when not provided by other
10agencies.
11 (10) To provide the staff support that may reasonably be
12required by the Council.
13 (11) To make and enforce rules and regulations necessary
14and proper to the performance of its duties.
15 (12) To establish and fund programs or projects or
16experimental facilities that are specially designed as
17alternatives to institutional care.
18 (13) To develop a training program to train the counselors
19presently employed by the Department's aging network to provide
20Medicare beneficiaries with counseling and advocacy in
21Medicare, private health insurance, and related health care
22coverage plans. The Department shall report to the General
23Assembly on the implementation of the training program on or
24before December 1, 1986.
25 (14) To make a grant to an institution of higher learning
26to study the feasibility of establishing and implementing an

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1affirmative action employment plan for the recruitment,
2hiring, training and retraining of persons 60 or more years old
3for jobs for which their employment would not be precluded by
4law.
5 (15) To present one award annually in each of the
6categories of community service, education, the performance
7and graphic arts, and the labor force to outstanding Illinois
8senior citizens and minority senior citizens in recognition of
9their individual contributions to either community service,
10education, the performance and graphic arts, or the labor
11force. The awards shall be presented to 4 senior citizens and
12minority senior citizens selected from a list of 44 nominees
13compiled annually by the Department. Nominations shall be
14solicited from senior citizens' service providers, area
15agencies on aging, senior citizens' centers, and senior
16citizens' organizations. The Department shall establish a
17central location within the State to be designated as the
18Senior Illinoisans Hall of Fame for the public display of all
19the annual awards, or replicas thereof.
20 (16) To establish multipurpose senior centers through area
21agencies on aging and to fund those new and existing
22multipurpose senior centers through area agencies on aging, the
23establishment and funding to begin in such areas of the State
24as the Department shall designate by rule and as specifically
25appropriated funds become available.
26 (17) To develop the content and format of the

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1acknowledgment regarding non-recourse reverse mortgage loans
2under Section 6.1 of the Illinois Banking Act; to provide
3independent consumer information on reverse mortgages and
4alternatives; and to refer consumers to independent counseling
5services with expertise in reverse mortgages.
6 (18) To develop a pamphlet in English and Spanish which may
7be used by physicians licensed to practice medicine in all of
8its branches pursuant to the Medical Practice Act of 1987,
9pharmacists licensed pursuant to the Pharmacy Practice Act, and
10Illinois residents 65 years of age or older for the purpose of
11assisting physicians, pharmacists, and patients in monitoring
12prescriptions provided by various physicians and to aid persons
1365 years of age or older in complying with directions for
14proper use of pharmaceutical prescriptions. The pamphlet may
15provide space for recording information including but not
16limited to the following:
17 (a) name and telephone number of the patient;
18 (b) name and telephone number of the prescribing
19 physician;
20 (c) date of prescription;
21 (d) name of drug prescribed;
22 (e) directions for patient compliance; and
23 (f) name and telephone number of dispensing pharmacy.
24 In developing the pamphlet, the Department shall consult
25with the Illinois State Medical Society, the Center for
26Minority Health Services, the Illinois Pharmacists Association

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1and senior citizens organizations. The Department shall
2distribute the pamphlets to physicians, pharmacists and
3persons 65 years of age or older or various senior citizen
4organizations throughout the State.
5 (19) To conduct a study of the feasibility of implementing
6the Senior Companion Program throughout the State.
7 (20) The reimbursement rates paid through the community
8care program for chore housekeeping services and home care
9aides shall be the same.
10 (21) From funds appropriated to the Department from the
11Meals on Wheels Fund, a special fund in the State treasury that
12is hereby created, and in accordance with State and federal
13guidelines and the intrastate funding formula, to make grants
14to area agencies on aging, designated by the Department, for
15the sole purpose of delivering meals to homebound persons 60
16years of age and older.
17 (22) To distribute, through its area agencies on aging,
18information alerting seniors on safety issues regarding
19emergency weather conditions, including extreme heat and cold,
20flooding, tornadoes, electrical storms, and other severe storm
21weather. The information shall include all necessary
22instructions for safety and all emergency telephone numbers of
23organizations that will provide additional information and
24assistance.
25 (23) To develop guidelines for the organization and
26implementation of Volunteer Services Credit Programs to be

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1administered by Area Agencies on Aging or community based
2senior service organizations. The Department shall hold public
3hearings on the proposed guidelines for public comment,
4suggestion, and determination of public interest. The
5guidelines shall be based on the findings of other states and
6of community organizations in Illinois that are currently
7operating volunteer services credit programs or demonstration
8volunteer services credit programs. The Department shall offer
9guidelines for all aspects of the programs including, but not
10limited to, the following:
11 (a) types of services to be offered by volunteers;
12 (b) types of services to be received upon the
13 redemption of service credits;
14 (c) issues of liability for the volunteers and the
15 administering organizations;
16 (d) methods of tracking service credits earned and
17 service credits redeemed;
18 (e) issues of time limits for redemption of service
19 credits;
20 (f) methods of recruitment of volunteers;
21 (g) utilization of community volunteers, community
22 service groups, and other resources for delivering
23 services to be received by service credit program clients;
24 (h) accountability and assurance that services will be
25 available to individuals who have earned service credits;
26 and

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1 (i) volunteer screening and qualifications.
2The Department shall submit a written copy of the guidelines to
3the General Assembly by July 1, 1998.
4 (24) To function as the sole State agency to receive and
5disburse State and federal funds for providing adult protective
6services in a domestic living situation in accordance with the
7Adult Protective Services Act.
8 (25) (24) To hold conferences, trainings, and other
9programs for which the Department shall determine by rule a
10reasonable fee to cover related administrative costs. Rules to
11implement the fee authority granted by this paragraph (25) (24)
12must be adopted in accordance with all provisions of the
13Illinois Administrative Procedure Act and all rules and
14procedures of the Joint Committee on Administrative Rules; any
15purported rule not so adopted, for whatever reason, is
16unauthorized.
17(Source: P.A. 98-8, eff. 5-3-13; 98-49, eff. 7-1-13; 98-380,
18eff. 8-16-13; revised 9-4-13.)
19 Section 60. The Department of Central Management Services
20Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois is amended by
21changing Sections 405-120 and 405-335 as follows:
22 (20 ILCS 405/405-120) (was 20 ILCS 405/67.29)
23 Sec. 405-120. Hispanic, Asian-American, and bilingual
24employees. The Department shall develop and implement plans to

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1increase the number of Hispanics employed by State government
2and the number of bilingual persons employed in State
3government at supervisory, technical, professional, and
4managerial levels.
5 The Department shall prepare and revise annually a State
6Hispanic Employment Plan and a State Asian-American Employment
7Plan in consultation with individuals and organizations
8informed on these subjects, including the Hispanic Employment
9Plan Advisory Council and the Asian-American Employment Plan
10Advisory Council. The Department shall report to the General
11Assembly by February 1 of each year each State agency's
12activities in implementing the State Hispanic Employment Plan
13and the State Asian-American Employment Plan.
14(Source: P.A. 97-856, eff. 7-27-12; 98-329, eff. 1-1-14;
15revised 10-8-13.)
16 (20 ILCS 405/405-335)
17 Sec. 405-335. Illinois Transparency and Accountability
18Portal (ITAP).
19 (a) The Department, within 12 months after the effective
20date of this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly, shall
21establish and maintain a website, known as the Illinois
22Transparency and Accountability Portal (ITAP), with a
23full-time webmaster tasked with compiling and updating the ITAP
24database with information received from all State agencies as
25defined in this Section. Subject to appropriation, the

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1full-time webmaster must also compile and update the ITAP
2database with information received from all counties,
3townships, library districts, and municipalities.
4 (b) For purposes of this Section:
5 "State agency" means the offices of the constitutional
6officers identified in Article V of the Illinois Constitution,
7executive agencies, and departments, boards, commissions, and
8Authorities under the Governor.
9 "Contracts" means payment obligations with vendors on file
10with the Office of the Comptroller to purchase goods and
11services exceeding $10,000 in value (or, in the case of
12professional or artistic services, exceeding $5,000 in value).
13 "Appropriation" means line-item detail of spending
14approved by the General Assembly and Governor, categorized by
15object of expenditure.
16 "Individual consultants" means temporary workers eligible
17to receive State benefits paid on a State payroll.
18 "Recipients" means State agencies receiving
19appropriations.
20 (c) The ITAP shall provide direct access to each of the
21following:
22 (1) A database of all current State employees and
23 individual consultants, except sworn law enforcement
24 officers, sorted separately by:
25 (i) Name.
26 (ii) Employing State agency.

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1 (iii) Employing State division.
2 (iv) Employment position title.
3 (v) Current pay rate and year-to-date pay.
4 (2) A database of all current State expenditures,
5 sorted separately by agency, category, recipient, and
6 Representative District.
7 (3) A database of all development assistance
8 reportable pursuant to the Corporate Accountability for
9 Tax Expenditures Act, sorted separately by tax credit
10 category, taxpayer, and Representative District.
11 (4) A database of all revocations and suspensions of
12 State occupation and use tax certificates of registration
13 and all revocations and suspensions of State professional
14 licenses, sorted separately by name, geographic location,
15 and certificate of registration number or license number,
16 as applicable. Professional license revocations and
17 suspensions shall be posted only if resulting from a
18 failure to pay taxes, license fees, or child support.
19 (5) A database of all current State contracts, sorted
20 separately by contractor name, awarding officer or agency,
21 contract value, and goods or services provided.
22 (6) A database of all employees hired after the
23 effective date of this amendatory Act of 2010, sorted
24 searchably by each of the following at the time of
25 employment:
26 (i) Name.

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1 (ii) Employing State agency.
2 (iii) Employing State division.
3 (iv) Employment position title.
4 (v) Current pay rate and year-to-date pay.
5 (vi) County of employment location.
6 (vii) Rutan status.
7 (viii) Status of position as subject to collective
8 bargaining, subject to merit compensation, or exempt
9 under Section 4d of the Personnel Code.
10 (ix) Employment status as probationary, trainee,
11 intern, certified, or exempt from certification.
12 (x) Status as a military veteran.
13 (7) A searchable database of all current county,
14 township, library district, and municipal employees sorted
15 separately by:
16 (i) Employing unit of local government.
17 (ii) Employment position title.
18 (iii) Current pay rate and year-to-date pay.
19 (8) A searchable database of all county, township, and
20 municipal employees hired on or after the effective date of
21 this amendatory Act of the 97th General Assembly, sorted
22 separately by each of the following at the time of
23 employment:
24 (i) Employing unit of local government.
25 (ii) Employment position title.
26 (iii) Current pay rate and year-to-date pay.

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1 (9) A searchable database of all library district
2 employees hired on or after August 9, 2013 (the effective
3 date of Public Act 98-246) this amendatory Act of the 98th
4 General Assembly, sorted separately by each of the
5 following at the time of employment:
6 (i) Employing unit of local government.
7 (ii) Employment position title.
8 (iii) Current pay rate and year-to-date pay.
9 (d) The ITAP shall include all information required to be
10published by subsection (c) of this Section that is available
11to the Department in a format the Department can compile and
12publish on the ITAP. The Department shall update the ITAP as
13additional information becomes available in a format that can
14be compiled and published on the ITAP by the Department.
15 (e) Each State agency, county, township, library district,
16and municipality shall cooperate with the Department in
17furnishing the information necessary for the implementation of
18this Section within a timeframe specified by the Department.
19 (f) Each county, township, library district, or
20municipality submitting information to be displayed on the
21Illinois Transparency and Accountability Portal (ITAP) is
22responsible for the accuracy of the information provided.
23 (g) The Department, within 6 months after January 1, 2014
24(the effective date of Public Act 98-283) this amendatory Act
25of the 98th General Assembly, shall distribute a spreadsheet or
26otherwise make data entry available to each State agency to

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1facilitate the collection of data on the State's annual
2workforce characteristics, workforce compensation, and
3employee mobility. The Department shall determine the data to
4be collected by each State agency. Each State agency shall
5cooperate with the Department in furnishing the data necessary
6for the implementation of this subsection within the timeframe
7specified by the Department. The Department shall publish the
8data received from each State agency on the ITAP or another
9open data site annually.
10(Source: P.A. 97-744, eff. 1-1-13; 98-246, eff. 8-9-13; 98-283,
11eff. 1-1-14; revised 9-4-13.)
12 Section 65. The Children and Family Services Act is amended
13by changing Section 5 as follows:
14 (20 ILCS 505/5) (from Ch. 23, par. 5005)
15 Sec. 5. Direct child welfare services; Department of
16Children and Family Services. To provide direct child welfare
17services when not available through other public or private
18child care or program facilities.
19 (a) For purposes of this Section:
20 (1) "Children" means persons found within the State who
21 are under the age of 18 years. The term also includes
22 persons under age 21 who:
23 (A) were committed to the Department pursuant to
24 the Juvenile Court Act or the Juvenile Court Act of

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1 1987, as amended, prior to the age of 18 and who
2 continue under the jurisdiction of the court; or
3 (B) were accepted for care, service and training by
4 the Department prior to the age of 18 and whose best
5 interest in the discretion of the Department would be
6 served by continuing that care, service and training
7 because of severe emotional disturbances, physical
8 disability, social adjustment or any combination
9 thereof, or because of the need to complete an
10 educational or vocational training program.
11 (2) "Homeless youth" means persons found within the
12 State who are under the age of 19, are not in a safe and
13 stable living situation and cannot be reunited with their
14 families.
15 (3) "Child welfare services" means public social
16 services which are directed toward the accomplishment of
17 the following purposes:
18 (A) protecting and promoting the health, safety
19 and welfare of children, including homeless, dependent
20 or neglected children;
21 (B) remedying, or assisting in the solution of
22 problems which may result in, the neglect, abuse,
23 exploitation or delinquency of children;
24 (C) preventing the unnecessary separation of
25 children from their families by identifying family
26 problems, assisting families in resolving their

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1 problems, and preventing the breakup of the family
2 where the prevention of child removal is desirable and
3 possible when the child can be cared for at home
4 without endangering the child's health and safety;
5 (D) restoring to their families children who have
6 been removed, by the provision of services to the child
7 and the families when the child can be cared for at
8 home without endangering the child's health and
9 safety;
10 (E) placing children in suitable adoptive homes,
11 in cases where restoration to the biological family is
12 not safe, possible or appropriate;
13 (F) assuring safe and adequate care of children
14 away from their homes, in cases where the child cannot
15 be returned home or cannot be placed for adoption. At
16 the time of placement, the Department shall consider
17 concurrent planning, as described in subsection (l-1)
18 of this Section so that permanency may occur at the
19 earliest opportunity. Consideration should be given so
20 that if reunification fails or is delayed, the
21 placement made is the best available placement to
22 provide permanency for the child;
23 (G) (blank);
24 (H) (blank); and
25 (I) placing and maintaining children in facilities
26 that provide separate living quarters for children

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1 under the age of 18 and for children 18 years of age
2 and older, unless a child 18 years of age is in the
3 last year of high school education or vocational
4 training, in an approved individual or group treatment
5 program, in a licensed shelter facility, or secure
6 child care facility. The Department is not required to
7 place or maintain children:
8 (i) who are in a foster home, or
9 (ii) who are persons with a developmental
10 disability, as defined in the Mental Health and
11 Developmental Disabilities Code, or
12 (iii) who are female children who are
13 pregnant, pregnant and parenting or parenting, or
14 (iv) who are siblings, in facilities that
15 provide separate living quarters for children 18
16 years of age and older and for children under 18
17 years of age.
18 (b) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to authorize
19the expenditure of public funds for the purpose of performing
20abortions.
21 (c) The Department shall establish and maintain
22tax-supported child welfare services and extend and seek to
23improve voluntary services throughout the State, to the end
24that services and care shall be available on an equal basis
25throughout the State to children requiring such services.
26 (d) The Director may authorize advance disbursements for

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1any new program initiative to any agency contracting with the
2Department. As a prerequisite for an advance disbursement, the
3contractor must post a surety bond in the amount of the advance
4disbursement and have a purchase of service contract approved
5by the Department. The Department may pay up to 2 months
6operational expenses in advance. The amount of the advance
7disbursement shall be prorated over the life of the contract or
8the remaining months of the fiscal year, whichever is less, and
9the installment amount shall then be deducted from future
10bills. Advance disbursement authorizations for new initiatives
11shall not be made to any agency after that agency has operated
12during 2 consecutive fiscal years. The requirements of this
13Section concerning advance disbursements shall not apply with
14respect to the following: payments to local public agencies for
15child day care services as authorized by Section 5a of this
16Act; and youth service programs receiving grant funds under
17Section 17a-4.
18 (e) (Blank).
19 (f) (Blank).
20 (g) The Department shall establish rules and regulations
21concerning its operation of programs designed to meet the goals
22of child safety and protection, family preservation, family
23reunification, and adoption, including but not limited to:
24 (1) adoption;
25 (2) foster care;
26 (3) family counseling;

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1 (4) protective services;
2 (5) (blank);
3 (6) homemaker service;
4 (7) return of runaway children;
5 (8) (blank);
6 (9) placement under Section 5-7 of the Juvenile Court
7 Act or Section 2-27, 3-28, 4-25 or 5-740 of the Juvenile
8 Court Act of 1987 in accordance with the federal Adoption
9 Assistance and Child Welfare Act of 1980; and
10 (10) interstate services.
11 Rules and regulations established by the Department shall
12include provisions for training Department staff and the staff
13of Department grantees, through contracts with other agencies
14or resources, in alcohol and drug abuse screening techniques
15approved by the Department of Human Services, as a successor to
16the Department of Alcoholism and Substance Abuse, for the
17purpose of identifying children and adults who should be
18referred to an alcohol and drug abuse treatment program for
19professional evaluation.
20 (h) If the Department finds that there is no appropriate
21program or facility within or available to the Department for a
22ward and that no licensed private facility has an adequate and
23appropriate program or none agrees to accept the ward, the
24Department shall create an appropriate individualized,
25program-oriented plan for such ward. The plan may be developed
26within the Department or through purchase of services by the

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1Department to the extent that it is within its statutory
2authority to do.
3 (i) Service programs shall be available throughout the
4State and shall include but not be limited to the following
5services:
6 (1) case management;
7 (2) homemakers;
8 (3) counseling;
9 (4) parent education;
10 (5) day care; and
11 (6) emergency assistance and advocacy.
12 In addition, the following services may be made available
13to assess and meet the needs of children and families:
14 (1) comprehensive family-based services;
15 (2) assessments;
16 (3) respite care; and
17 (4) in-home health services.
18 The Department shall provide transportation for any of the
19services it makes available to children or families or for
20which it refers children or families.
21 (j) The Department may provide categories of financial
22assistance and education assistance grants, and shall
23establish rules and regulations concerning the assistance and
24grants, to persons who adopt physically or mentally
25handicapped, older and other hard-to-place children who (i)
26immediately prior to their adoption were legal wards of the

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1Department or (ii) were determined eligible for financial
2assistance with respect to a prior adoption and who become
3available for adoption because the prior adoption has been
4dissolved and the parental rights of the adoptive parents have
5been terminated or because the child's adoptive parents have
6died. The Department may continue to provide financial
7assistance and education assistance grants for a child who was
8determined eligible for financial assistance under this
9subsection (j) in the interim period beginning when the child's
10adoptive parents died and ending with the finalization of the
11new adoption of the child by another adoptive parent or
12parents. The Department may also provide categories of
13financial assistance and education assistance grants, and
14shall establish rules and regulations for the assistance and
15grants, to persons appointed guardian of the person under
16Section 5-7 of the Juvenile Court Act or Section 2-27, 3-28,
174-25 or 5-740 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 for children
18who were wards of the Department for 12 months immediately
19prior to the appointment of the guardian.
20 The amount of assistance may vary, depending upon the needs
21of the child and the adoptive parents, as set forth in the
22annual assistance agreement. Special purpose grants are
23allowed where the child requires special service but such costs
24may not exceed the amounts which similar services would cost
25the Department if it were to provide or secure them as guardian
26of the child.

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1 Any financial assistance provided under this subsection is
2inalienable by assignment, sale, execution, attachment,
3garnishment, or any other remedy for recovery or collection of
4a judgment or debt.
5 (j-5) The Department shall not deny or delay the placement
6of a child for adoption if an approved family is available
7either outside of the Department region handling the case, or
8outside of the State of Illinois.
9 (k) The Department shall accept for care and training any
10child who has been adjudicated neglected or abused, or
11dependent committed to it pursuant to the Juvenile Court Act or
12the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.
13 (l) The Department shall offer family preservation
14services, as defined in Section 8.2 of the Abused and Neglected
15Child Reporting Act, to help families, including adoptive and
16extended families. Family preservation services shall be
17offered (i) to prevent the placement of children in substitute
18care when the children can be cared for at home or in the
19custody of the person responsible for the children's welfare,
20(ii) to reunite children with their families, or (iii) to
21maintain an adoptive placement. Family preservation services
22shall only be offered when doing so will not endanger the
23children's health or safety. With respect to children who are
24in substitute care pursuant to the Juvenile Court Act of 1987,
25family preservation services shall not be offered if a goal
26other than those of subdivisions (A), (B), or (B-1) of

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1subsection (2) of Section 2-28 of that Act has been set.
2Nothing in this paragraph shall be construed to create a
3private right of action or claim on the part of any individual
4or child welfare agency, except that when a child is the
5subject of an action under Article II of the Juvenile Court Act
6of 1987 and the child's service plan calls for services to
7facilitate achievement of the permanency goal, the court
8hearing the action under Article II of the Juvenile Court Act
9of 1987 may order the Department to provide the services set
10out in the plan, if those services are not provided with
11reasonable promptness and if those services are available.
12 The Department shall notify the child and his family of the
13Department's responsibility to offer and provide family
14preservation services as identified in the service plan. The
15child and his family shall be eligible for services as soon as
16the report is determined to be "indicated". The Department may
17offer services to any child or family with respect to whom a
18report of suspected child abuse or neglect has been filed,
19prior to concluding its investigation under Section 7.12 of the
20Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act. However, the child's
21or family's willingness to accept services shall not be
22considered in the investigation. The Department may also
23provide services to any child or family who is the subject of
24any report of suspected child abuse or neglect or may refer
25such child or family to services available from other agencies
26in the community, even if the report is determined to be

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1unfounded, if the conditions in the child's or family's home
2are reasonably likely to subject the child or family to future
3reports of suspected child abuse or neglect. Acceptance of such
4services shall be voluntary. The Department may also provide
5services to any child or family after completion of a family
6assessment, as an alternative to an investigation, as provided
7under the "differential response program" provided for in
8subsection (a-5) of Section 7.4 of the Abused and Neglected
9Child Reporting Act.
10 The Department may, at its discretion except for those
11children also adjudicated neglected or dependent, accept for
12care and training any child who has been adjudicated addicted,
13as a truant minor in need of supervision or as a minor
14requiring authoritative intervention, under the Juvenile Court
15Act or the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, but no such child shall
16be committed to the Department by any court without the
17approval of the Department. A minor charged with a criminal
18offense under the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of
192012 or adjudicated delinquent shall not be placed in the
20custody of or committed to the Department by any court, except
21(i) a minor less than 15 years of age committed to the
22Department under Section 5-710 of the Juvenile Court Act of
231987, (ii) a minor for whom an independent basis of abuse,
24neglect, or dependency exists, which must be defined by
25departmental rule, or (iii) a minor for whom the court has
26granted a supplemental petition to reinstate wardship pursuant

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1to subsection (2) of Section 2-33 of the Juvenile Court Act of
21987. An independent basis exists when the allegations or
3adjudication of abuse, neglect, or dependency do not arise from
4the same facts, incident, or circumstances which give rise to a
5charge or adjudication of delinquency.
6 As soon as is possible after August 7, 2009 (the effective
7date of Public Act 96-134), the Department shall develop and
8implement a special program of family preservation services to
9support intact, foster, and adoptive families who are
10experiencing extreme hardships due to the difficulty and stress
11of caring for a child who has been diagnosed with a pervasive
12developmental disorder if the Department determines that those
13services are necessary to ensure the health and safety of the
14child. The Department may offer services to any family whether
15or not a report has been filed under the Abused and Neglected
16Child Reporting Act. The Department may refer the child or
17family to services available from other agencies in the
18community if the conditions in the child's or family's home are
19reasonably likely to subject the child or family to future
20reports of suspected child abuse or neglect. Acceptance of
21these services shall be voluntary. The Department shall develop
22and implement a public information campaign to alert health and
23social service providers and the general public about these
24special family preservation services. The nature and scope of
25the services offered and the number of families served under
26the special program implemented under this paragraph shall be

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1determined by the level of funding that the Department annually
2allocates for this purpose. The term "pervasive developmental
3disorder" under this paragraph means a neurological condition,
4including but not limited to, Asperger's Syndrome and autism,
5as defined in the most recent edition of the Diagnostic and
6Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders of the American
7Psychiatric Association.
8 (l-1) The legislature recognizes that the best interests of
9the child require that the child be placed in the most
10permanent living arrangement as soon as is practically
11possible. To achieve this goal, the legislature directs the
12Department of Children and Family Services to conduct
13concurrent planning so that permanency may occur at the
14earliest opportunity. Permanent living arrangements may
15include prevention of placement of a child outside the home of
16the family when the child can be cared for at home without
17endangering the child's health or safety; reunification with
18the family, when safe and appropriate, if temporary placement
19is necessary; or movement of the child toward the most
20permanent living arrangement and permanent legal status.
21 When determining reasonable efforts to be made with respect
22to a child, as described in this subsection, and in making such
23reasonable efforts, the child's health and safety shall be the
24paramount concern.
25 When a child is placed in foster care, the Department shall
26ensure and document that reasonable efforts were made to

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1prevent or eliminate the need to remove the child from the
2child's home. The Department must make reasonable efforts to
3reunify the family when temporary placement of the child occurs
4unless otherwise required, pursuant to the Juvenile Court Act
5of 1987. At any time after the dispositional hearing where the
6Department believes that further reunification services would
7be ineffective, it may request a finding from the court that
8reasonable efforts are no longer appropriate. The Department is
9not required to provide further reunification services after
10such a finding.
11 A decision to place a child in substitute care shall be
12made with considerations of the child's health, safety, and
13best interests. At the time of placement, consideration should
14also be given so that if reunification fails or is delayed, the
15placement made is the best available placement to provide
16permanency for the child.
17 The Department shall adopt rules addressing concurrent
18planning for reunification and permanency. The Department
19shall consider the following factors when determining
20appropriateness of concurrent planning:
21 (1) the likelihood of prompt reunification;
22 (2) the past history of the family;
23 (3) the barriers to reunification being addressed by
24 the family;
25 (4) the level of cooperation of the family;
26 (5) the foster parents' willingness to work with the

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1 family to reunite;
2 (6) the willingness and ability of the foster family to
3 provide an adoptive home or long-term placement;
4 (7) the age of the child;
5 (8) placement of siblings.
6 (m) The Department may assume temporary custody of any
7child if:
8 (1) it has received a written consent to such temporary
9 custody signed by the parents of the child or by the parent
10 having custody of the child if the parents are not living
11 together or by the guardian or custodian of the child if
12 the child is not in the custody of either parent, or
13 (2) the child is found in the State and neither a
14 parent, guardian nor custodian of the child can be located.
15If the child is found in his or her residence without a parent,
16guardian, custodian or responsible caretaker, the Department
17may, instead of removing the child and assuming temporary
18custody, place an authorized representative of the Department
19in that residence until such time as a parent, guardian or
20custodian enters the home and expresses a willingness and
21apparent ability to ensure the child's health and safety and
22resume permanent charge of the child, or until a relative
23enters the home and is willing and able to ensure the child's
24health and safety and assume charge of the child until a
25parent, guardian or custodian enters the home and expresses
26such willingness and ability to ensure the child's safety and

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1resume permanent charge. After a caretaker has remained in the
2home for a period not to exceed 12 hours, the Department must
3follow those procedures outlined in Section 2-9, 3-11, 4-8, or
45-415 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.
5 The Department shall have the authority, responsibilities
6and duties that a legal custodian of the child would have
7pursuant to subsection (9) of Section 1-3 of the Juvenile Court
8Act of 1987. Whenever a child is taken into temporary custody
9pursuant to an investigation under the Abused and Neglected
10Child Reporting Act, or pursuant to a referral and acceptance
11under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 of a minor in limited
12custody, the Department, during the period of temporary custody
13and before the child is brought before a judicial officer as
14required by Section 2-9, 3-11, 4-8, or 5-415 of the Juvenile
15Court Act of 1987, shall have the authority, responsibilities
16and duties that a legal custodian of the child would have under
17subsection (9) of Section 1-3 of the Juvenile Court Act of
181987.
19 The Department shall ensure that any child taken into
20custody is scheduled for an appointment for a medical
21examination.
22 A parent, guardian or custodian of a child in the temporary
23custody of the Department who would have custody of the child
24if he were not in the temporary custody of the Department may
25deliver to the Department a signed request that the Department
26surrender the temporary custody of the child. The Department

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1may retain temporary custody of the child for 10 days after the
2receipt of the request, during which period the Department may
3cause to be filed a petition pursuant to the Juvenile Court Act
4of 1987. If a petition is so filed, the Department shall retain
5temporary custody of the child until the court orders
6otherwise. If a petition is not filed within the 10 day period,
7the child shall be surrendered to the custody of the requesting
8parent, guardian or custodian not later than the expiration of
9the 10 day period, at which time the authority and duties of
10the Department with respect to the temporary custody of the
11child shall terminate.
12 (m-1) The Department may place children under 18 years of
13age in a secure child care facility licensed by the Department
14that cares for children who are in need of secure living
15arrangements for their health, safety, and well-being after a
16determination is made by the facility director and the Director
17or the Director's designate prior to admission to the facility
18subject to Section 2-27.1 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.
19This subsection (m-1) does not apply to a child who is subject
20to placement in a correctional facility operated pursuant to
21Section 3-15-2 of the Unified Code of Corrections, unless the
22child is a ward who was placed under the care of the Department
23before being subject to placement in a correctional facility
24and a court of competent jurisdiction has ordered placement of
25the child in a secure care facility.
26 (n) The Department may place children under 18 years of age

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1in licensed child care facilities when in the opinion of the
2Department, appropriate services aimed at family preservation
3have been unsuccessful and cannot ensure the child's health and
4safety or are unavailable and such placement would be for their
5best interest. Payment for board, clothing, care, training and
6supervision of any child placed in a licensed child care
7facility may be made by the Department, by the parents or
8guardians of the estates of those children, or by both the
9Department and the parents or guardians, except that no
10payments shall be made by the Department for any child placed
11in a licensed child care facility for board, clothing, care,
12training and supervision of such a child that exceed the
13average per capita cost of maintaining and of caring for a
14child in institutions for dependent or neglected children
15operated by the Department. However, such restriction on
16payments does not apply in cases where children require
17specialized care and treatment for problems of severe emotional
18disturbance, physical disability, social adjustment, or any
19combination thereof and suitable facilities for the placement
20of such children are not available at payment rates within the
21limitations set forth in this Section. All reimbursements for
22services delivered shall be absolutely inalienable by
23assignment, sale, attachment, garnishment or otherwise.
24 (n-1) The Department shall provide or authorize child
25welfare services, aimed at assisting minors to achieve
26sustainable self-sufficiency as independent adults, for any

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1minor eligible for the reinstatement of wardship pursuant to
2subsection (2) of Section 2-33 of the Juvenile Court Act of
31987, whether or not such reinstatement is sought or allowed,
4provided that the minor consents to such services and has not
5yet attained the age of 21. The Department shall have
6responsibility for the development and delivery of services
7under this Section. An eligible youth may access services under
8this Section through the Department of Children and Family
9Services or by referral from the Department of Human Services.
10Youth participating in services under this Section shall
11cooperate with the assigned case manager in developing an
12agreement identifying the services to be provided and how the
13youth will increase skills to achieve self-sufficiency. A
14homeless shelter is not considered appropriate housing for any
15youth receiving child welfare services under this Section. The
16Department shall continue child welfare services under this
17Section to any eligible minor until the minor becomes 21 years
18of age, no longer consents to participate, or achieves
19self-sufficiency as identified in the minor's service plan. The
20Department of Children and Family Services shall create clear,
21readable notice of the rights of former foster youth to child
22welfare services under this Section and how such services may
23be obtained. The Department of Children and Family Services and
24the Department of Human Services shall disseminate this
25information statewide. The Department shall adopt regulations
26describing services intended to assist minors in achieving

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1sustainable self-sufficiency as independent adults.
2 (o) The Department shall establish an administrative
3review and appeal process for children and families who request
4or receive child welfare services from the Department. Children
5who are wards of the Department and are placed by private child
6welfare agencies, and foster families with whom those children
7are placed, shall be afforded the same procedural and appeal
8rights as children and families in the case of placement by the
9Department, including the right to an initial review of a
10private agency decision by that agency. The Department shall
11insure that any private child welfare agency, which accepts
12wards of the Department for placement, affords those rights to
13children and foster families. The Department shall accept for
14administrative review and an appeal hearing a complaint made by
15(i) a child or foster family concerning a decision following an
16initial review by a private child welfare agency or (ii) a
17prospective adoptive parent who alleges a violation of
18subsection (j-5) of this Section. An appeal of a decision
19concerning a change in the placement of a child shall be
20conducted in an expedited manner. A court determination that a
21current foster home placement is necessary and appropriate
22under Section 2-28 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 does not
23constitute a judicial determination on the merits of an
24administrative appeal, filed by a former foster parent,
25involving a change of placement decision.
26 (p) There is hereby created the Department of Children and

09800SB2640ham001- 100 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1Family Services Emergency Assistance Fund from which the
2Department may provide special financial assistance to
3families which are in economic crisis when such assistance is
4not available through other public or private sources and the
5assistance is deemed necessary to prevent dissolution of the
6family unit or to reunite families which have been separated
7due to child abuse and neglect. The Department shall establish
8administrative rules specifying the criteria for determining
9eligibility for and the amount and nature of assistance to be
10provided. The Department may also enter into written agreements
11with private and public social service agencies to provide
12emergency financial services to families referred by the
13Department. Special financial assistance payments shall be
14available to a family no more than once during each fiscal year
15and the total payments to a family may not exceed $500 during a
16fiscal year.
17 (q) The Department may receive and use, in their entirety,
18for the benefit of children any gift, donation or bequest of
19money or other property which is received on behalf of such
20children, or any financial benefits to which such children are
21or may become entitled while under the jurisdiction or care of
22the Department.
23 The Department shall set up and administer no-cost,
24interest-bearing accounts in appropriate financial
25institutions for children for whom the Department is legally
26responsible and who have been determined eligible for Veterans'

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1Benefits, Social Security benefits, assistance allotments from
2the armed forces, court ordered payments, parental voluntary
3payments, Supplemental Security Income, Railroad Retirement
4payments, Black Lung benefits, or other miscellaneous
5payments. Interest earned by each account shall be credited to
6the account, unless disbursed in accordance with this
7subsection.
8 In disbursing funds from children's accounts, the
9Department shall:
10 (1) Establish standards in accordance with State and
11 federal laws for disbursing money from children's
12 accounts. In all circumstances, the Department's
13 "Guardianship Administrator" or his or her designee must
14 approve disbursements from children's accounts. The
15 Department shall be responsible for keeping complete
16 records of all disbursements for each account for any
17 purpose.
18 (2) Calculate on a monthly basis the amounts paid from
19 State funds for the child's board and care, medical care
20 not covered under Medicaid, and social services; and
21 utilize funds from the child's account, as covered by
22 regulation, to reimburse those costs. Monthly,
23 disbursements from all children's accounts, up to 1/12 of
24 $13,000,000, shall be deposited by the Department into the
25 General Revenue Fund and the balance over 1/12 of
26 $13,000,000 into the DCFS Children's Services Fund.

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1 (3) Maintain any balance remaining after reimbursing
2 for the child's costs of care, as specified in item (2).
3 The balance shall accumulate in accordance with relevant
4 State and federal laws and shall be disbursed to the child
5 or his or her guardian, or to the issuing agency.
6 (r) The Department shall promulgate regulations
7encouraging all adoption agencies to voluntarily forward to the
8Department or its agent names and addresses of all persons who
9have applied for and have been approved for adoption of a
10hard-to-place or handicapped child and the names of such
11children who have not been placed for adoption. A list of such
12names and addresses shall be maintained by the Department or
13its agent, and coded lists which maintain the confidentiality
14of the person seeking to adopt the child and of the child shall
15be made available, without charge, to every adoption agency in
16the State to assist the agencies in placing such children for
17adoption. The Department may delegate to an agent its duty to
18maintain and make available such lists. The Department shall
19ensure that such agent maintains the confidentiality of the
20person seeking to adopt the child and of the child.
21 (s) The Department of Children and Family Services may
22establish and implement a program to reimburse Department and
23private child welfare agency foster parents licensed by the
24Department of Children and Family Services for damages
25sustained by the foster parents as a result of the malicious or
26negligent acts of foster children, as well as providing third

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1party coverage for such foster parents with regard to actions
2of foster children to other individuals. Such coverage will be
3secondary to the foster parent liability insurance policy, if
4applicable. The program shall be funded through appropriations
5from the General Revenue Fund, specifically designated for such
6purposes.
7 (t) The Department shall perform home studies and
8investigations and shall exercise supervision over visitation
9as ordered by a court pursuant to the Illinois Marriage and
10Dissolution of Marriage Act or the Adoption Act only if:
11 (1) an order entered by an Illinois court specifically
12 directs the Department to perform such services; and
13 (2) the court has ordered one or both of the parties to
14 the proceeding to reimburse the Department for its
15 reasonable costs for providing such services in accordance
16 with Department rules, or has determined that neither party
17 is financially able to pay.
18 The Department shall provide written notification to the
19court of the specific arrangements for supervised visitation
20and projected monthly costs within 60 days of the court order.
21The Department shall send to the court information related to
22the costs incurred except in cases where the court has
23determined the parties are financially unable to pay. The court
24may order additional periodic reports as appropriate.
25 (u) In addition to other information that must be provided,
26whenever the Department places a child with a prospective

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1adoptive parent or parents or in a licensed foster home, group
2home, child care institution, or in a relative home, the
3Department shall provide to the prospective adoptive parent or
4parents or other caretaker:
5 (1) available detailed information concerning the
6 child's educational and health history, copies of
7 immunization records (including insurance and medical card
8 information), a history of the child's previous
9 placements, if any, and reasons for placement changes
10 excluding any information that identifies or reveals the
11 location of any previous caretaker;
12 (2) a copy of the child's portion of the client service
13 plan, including any visitation arrangement, and all
14 amendments or revisions to it as related to the child; and
15 (3) information containing details of the child's
16 individualized educational plan when the child is
17 receiving special education services.
18 The caretaker shall be informed of any known social or
19behavioral information (including, but not limited to,
20criminal background, fire setting, perpetuation of sexual
21abuse, destructive behavior, and substance abuse) necessary to
22care for and safeguard the children to be placed or currently
23in the home. The Department may prepare a written summary of
24the information required by this paragraph, which may be
25provided to the foster or prospective adoptive parent in
26advance of a placement. The foster or prospective adoptive

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1parent may review the supporting documents in the child's file
2in the presence of casework staff. In the case of an emergency
3placement, casework staff shall at least provide known
4information verbally, if necessary, and must subsequently
5provide the information in writing as required by this
6subsection.
7 The information described in this subsection shall be
8provided in writing. In the case of emergency placements when
9time does not allow prior review, preparation, and collection
10of written information, the Department shall provide such
11information as it becomes available. Within 10 business days
12after placement, the Department shall obtain from the
13prospective adoptive parent or parents or other caretaker a
14signed verification of receipt of the information provided.
15Within 10 business days after placement, the Department shall
16provide to the child's guardian ad litem a copy of the
17information provided to the prospective adoptive parent or
18parents or other caretaker. The information provided to the
19prospective adoptive parent or parents or other caretaker shall
20be reviewed and approved regarding accuracy at the supervisory
21level.
22 (u-5) Effective July 1, 1995, only foster care placements
23licensed as foster family homes pursuant to the Child Care Act
24of 1969 shall be eligible to receive foster care payments from
25the Department. Relative caregivers who, as of July 1, 1995,
26were approved pursuant to approved relative placement rules

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1previously promulgated by the Department at 89 Ill. Adm. Code
2335 and had submitted an application for licensure as a foster
3family home may continue to receive foster care payments only
4until the Department determines that they may be licensed as a
5foster family home or that their application for licensure is
6denied or until September 30, 1995, whichever occurs first.
7 (v) The Department shall access criminal history record
8information as defined in the Illinois Uniform Conviction
9Information Act and information maintained in the adjudicatory
10and dispositional record system as defined in Section 2605-355
11of the Department of State Police Law (20 ILCS 2605/2605-355)
12if the Department determines the information is necessary to
13perform its duties under the Abused and Neglected Child
14Reporting Act, the Child Care Act of 1969, and the Children and
15Family Services Act. The Department shall provide for
16interactive computerized communication and processing
17equipment that permits direct on-line communication with the
18Department of State Police's central criminal history data
19repository. The Department shall comply with all certification
20requirements and provide certified operators who have been
21trained by personnel from the Department of State Police. In
22addition, one Office of the Inspector General investigator
23shall have training in the use of the criminal history
24information access system and have access to the terminal. The
25Department of Children and Family Services and its employees
26shall abide by rules and regulations established by the

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1Department of State Police relating to the access and
2dissemination of this information.
3 (v-1) Prior to final approval for placement of a child, the
4Department shall conduct a criminal records background check of
5the prospective foster or adoptive parent, including
6fingerprint-based checks of national crime information
7databases. Final approval for placement shall not be granted if
8the record check reveals a felony conviction for child abuse or
9neglect, for spousal abuse, for a crime against children, or
10for a crime involving violence, including rape, sexual assault,
11or homicide, but not including other physical assault or
12battery, or if there is a felony conviction for physical
13assault, battery, or a drug-related offense committed within
14the past 5 years.
15 (v-2) Prior to final approval for placement of a child, the
16Department shall check its child abuse and neglect registry for
17information concerning prospective foster and adoptive
18parents, and any adult living in the home. If any prospective
19foster or adoptive parent or other adult living in the home has
20resided in another state in the preceding 5 years, the
21Department shall request a check of that other state's child
22abuse and neglect registry.
23 (w) Within 120 days of August 20, 1995 (the effective date
24of Public Act 89-392), the Department shall prepare and submit
25to the Governor and the General Assembly, a written plan for
26the development of in-state licensed secure child care

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1facilities that care for children who are in need of secure
2living arrangements for their health, safety, and well-being.
3For purposes of this subsection, secure care facility shall
4mean a facility that is designed and operated to ensure that
5all entrances and exits from the facility, a building or a
6distinct part of the building, are under the exclusive control
7of the staff of the facility, whether or not the child has the
8freedom of movement within the perimeter of the facility,
9building, or distinct part of the building. The plan shall
10include descriptions of the types of facilities that are needed
11in Illinois; the cost of developing these secure care
12facilities; the estimated number of placements; the potential
13cost savings resulting from the movement of children currently
14out-of-state who are projected to be returned to Illinois; the
15necessary geographic distribution of these facilities in
16Illinois; and a proposed timetable for development of such
17facilities.
18 (x) The Department shall conduct annual credit history
19checks to determine the financial history of children placed
20under its guardianship pursuant to the Juvenile Court Act of
211987. The Department shall conduct such credit checks starting
22when a ward turns 12 years old and each year thereafter for the
23duration of the guardianship as terminated pursuant to the
24Juvenile Court Act of 1987. The Department shall determine if
25financial exploitation of the child's personal information has
26occurred. If financial exploitation appears to have taken place

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1or is presently ongoing, the Department shall notify the proper
2law enforcement agency, the proper State's Attorney, or the
3Attorney General.
4 (y) Beginning on the effective date of this amendatory Act
5of the 96th General Assembly, a child with a disability who
6receives residential and educational services from the
7Department shall be eligible to receive transition services in
8accordance with Article 14 of the School Code from the age of
914.5 through age 21, inclusive, notwithstanding the child's
10residential services arrangement. For purposes of this
11subsection, "child with a disability" means a child with a
12disability as defined by the federal Individuals with
13Disabilities Education Improvement Act of 2004.
14 (z) The Department shall access criminal history record
15information as defined as "background information" in this
16subsection and criminal history record information as defined
17in the Illinois Uniform Conviction Information Act for each
18Department employee or Department applicant. Each Department
19employee or Department applicant shall submit his or her
20fingerprints to the Department of State Police in the form and
21manner prescribed by the Department of State Police. These
22fingerprints shall be checked against the fingerprint records
23now and hereafter filed in the Department of State Police and
24the Federal Bureau of Investigation criminal history records
25databases. The Department of State Police shall charge a fee
26for conducting the criminal history record check, which shall

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1be deposited into the State Police Services Fund and shall not
2exceed the actual cost of the record check. The Department of
3State Police shall furnish, pursuant to positive
4identification, all Illinois conviction information to the
5Department of Children and Family Services.
6 For purposes of this subsection:
7 "Background information" means all of the following:
8 (i) Upon the request of the Department of Children and
9 Family Services, conviction information obtained from the
10 Department of State Police as a result of a
11 fingerprint-based criminal history records check of the
12 Illinois criminal history records database and the Federal
13 Bureau of Investigation criminal history records database
14 concerning a Department employee or Department applicant.
15 (ii) Information obtained by the Department of
16 Children and Family Services after performing a check of
17 the Department of State Police's Sex Offender Database, as
18 authorized by Section 120 of the Sex Offender Community
19 Notification Law, concerning a Department employee or
20 Department applicant.
21 (iii) Information obtained by the Department of
22 Children and Family Services after performing a check of
23 the Child Abuse and Neglect Tracking System (CANTS)
24 operated and maintained by the Department.
25 "Department employee" means a full-time or temporary
26employee coded or certified within the State of Illinois

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1Personnel System.
2 "Department applicant" means an individual who has
3conditional Department full-time or part-time work, a
4contractor, an individual used to replace or supplement staff,
5an academic intern, a volunteer in Department offices or on
6Department contracts, a work-study student, an individual or
7entity licensed by the Department, or an unlicensed service
8provider who works as a condition of a contract or an agreement
9and whose work may bring the unlicensed service provider into
10contact with Department clients or client records.
11(Source: P.A. 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13; 98-249, eff. 1-1-14;
1298-570, eff. 8-27-13; revised 9-4-13.)
13 Section 70. The Department of Commerce and Economic
14Opportunity Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois is
15amended by changing Sections 605-300 and 605-320 as follows:
16 (20 ILCS 605/605-300) (was 20 ILCS 605/46.2)
17 Sec. 605-300. Economic and business development plans;
18Illinois Business Development Council.
19 (a) Economic development plans. The Department shall
20develop a strategic economic development plan for the State by
21July 1, 2014. By no later than July 1, 2015, and by July 1
22annually thereafter, the Department shall make modifications
23to the plan as modifications are warranted by changes in
24economic conditions or by other factors, including changes in

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1policy. In addition to the annual modification, the plan shall
2be reviewed and redeveloped in full every 5 years. In the
3development of the annual economic development plan, the
4Department shall consult with representatives of the private
5sector, other State agencies, academic institutions, local
6economic development organizations, local governments, and
7not-for-profit organizations. The annual economic development
8plan shall set specific, measurable, attainable, relevant, and
9time-sensitive goals and shall include a focus on areas of high
10unemployment or poverty.
11 The term "economic development" shall be construed broadly
12by the Department and may include, but is not limited to, job
13creation, job retention, tax base enhancements, development of
14human capital, workforce productivity, critical
15infrastructure, regional competitiveness, social inclusion,
16standard of living, environmental sustainability, energy
17independence, quality of life, the effective use of financial
18incentives, the utilization of public private partnerships
19where appropriate, and other metrics determined by the
20Department.
21 The plan shall be based on relevant economic data, focus on
22economic development as prescribed by this Section, and
23emphasize strategies to retain and create jobs.
24 The plan shall identify and develop specific strategies for
25utilizing the assets of regions within the State defined as
26counties and municipalities or other political subdivisions in

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1close geographical proximity that share common economic traits
2such as commuting zones, labor market areas, or other
3economically integrated characteristics.
4 If the plan includes strategies that have a fiscal impact
5on the Department or any other agency, the plan shall include a
6detailed description of the estimated fiscal impact of such
7strategies.
8 Prior to publishing the plan in its final form, the
9Department shall allow for a reasonable time for public input.
10 The Department shall transmit copies of the economic
11development plan to the Governor and the General Assembly no
12later than July 1, 2014, and by July 1 annually thereafter. The
13plan and its corresponding modifications shall be published and
14made available to the public in both paper and electronic
15media, on the Department's website, and by any other method
16that the Department deems appropriate.
17 The Department shall annually submit legislation to
18implement the strategic economic development plan or
19modifications to the strategic economic development plan to the
20Governor, the President and Minority Leader of the Senate, and
21the Speaker and the Minority Leader of the House of
22Representatives. The legislation shall be in the form of one or
23more substantive bills drafted by the Legislative Reference
24Bureau.
25 (b) Business development plans; Illinois Business
26Development Council.

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1 (1) There is created the Illinois Business Development
2 Council, hereinafter referred to as the Council. The
3 Council shall consist of the Director, who shall serve as
4 co-chairperson, and 12 voting members who shall be
5 appointed by the Governor with the advice and consent of
6 the Senate.
7 (A) The voting members of the Council shall include
8 one representative from each of the following
9 businesses and groups: small business, coal,
10 healthcare, large manufacturing, small or specialized
11 manufacturing, agriculture, high technology or applied
12 science, local economic development entities, private
13 sector organized labor, a local or state business
14 association or chamber of commerce.
15 (B) There shall be 2 at-large voting members who
16 reside within areas of high unemployment within
17 counties or municipalities that have had an annual
18 average unemployment rate of at least 120% of the
19 State's annual average unemployment rate as reported
20 by the Department of Employment Security for the 5
21 years preceding the date of appointment.
22 (2) All appointments shall be made in a geographically
23 diverse manner.
24 (3) For the initial appointments to the Council, 6
25 voting members shall be appointed to serve a 2-year term
26 and 6 voting members shall be appointed to serve a 4-year

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1 term. Thereafter, all appointments shall be for terms of 4
2 years. The initial term of voting members shall commence on
3 the first Wednesday in February 2014. Thereafter, the terms
4 of voting members shall commence on the first Wednesday in
5 February, except in the case of an appointment to fill a
6 vacancy. Vacancies occurring among the members shall be
7 filled in the same manner as the original appointment for
8 the remainder of the unexpired term. For a vacancy
9 occurring when the Senate is not in session, the Governor
10 may make a temporary appointment until the next meeting of
11 the Senate when a person shall be nominated to fill the
12 office, and, upon confirmation by the Senate, he or she
13 shall hold office during the remainder of the term. A
14 vacancy in membership does not impair the ability of a
15 quorum to exercise all rights and perform all duties of the
16 Council. A member is eligible for reappointment.
17 (4) Members shall serve without compensation, but may
18 be reimbursed for necessary expenses incurred in the
19 performance of their duties from funds appropriated for
20 that purpose.
21 (5) In addition, the following shall serve as ex
22 officio, non-voting members of the Council in order to
23 provide specialized advice and support to the Council: the
24 Secretary of Transportation, or his or her designee; the
25 Director of Employment Security, or his or her designee;
26 the Executive Director of the Illinois Finance Authority,

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1 or his or her designee; the Director of Agriculture, or his
2 or her designee; the Director of Revenue, or his or her
3 designee; the Director of Labor, or his or her designee;
4 and the Director of the Environmental Protection Agency, or
5 his or her designee. Ex officio Ex-officio members shall
6 provide staff and technical assistance to the Council when
7 appropriate.
8 (6) In addition to the Director, the voting members
9 shall elect a co-chairperson.
10 (7) The Council shall meet at least twice annually and
11 at such other times as the co-chairpersons or any 5 voting
12 members consider necessary. Seven voting members shall
13 constitute a quorum of the Council.
14 (8) The Department shall provide staff assistance to
15 the Council.
16 (9) The Council shall provide the Department relevant
17 information in a timely manner pursuant to its duties as
18 enumerated in this Section that can be used by the
19 Department to enhance the State's strategic economic
20 development plan.
21 (10) The Council shall:
22 (A) Develop an overall strategic business
23 development plan for the State of Illinois and update
24 the plan at least annually.
25 (B) Develop business marketing plans for the State
26 of Illinois to effectively solicit new company

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1 investment and existing business expansion. Insofar as
2 allowed under the Illinois Procurement Code, and
3 subject to appropriations made by the General Assembly
4 for such purposes, the Council may assist the
5 Department in the procurement of outside vendors to
6 carry out such marketing plans.
7 (C) Seek input from local economic development
8 officials to develop specific strategies to
9 effectively link State and local business development
10 and marketing efforts focusing on areas of high
11 unemployment or poverty.
12 (D) Provide the Department with advice on
13 strategic business development and business marketing
14 for the State of Illinois.
15 (E) Provide the Department research and recommend
16 best practices for developing investment tools for
17 business attraction and retention.
18(Source: P.A. 98-397, eff. 8-16-13; revised 10-8-13.)
19 (20 ILCS 605/605-320) (was 20 ILCS 605/46.5)
20 Sec. 605-320. Encouragement of existing industries. To
21encourage the growth and expansion of industries now existing
22within the State by providing comprehensive business services
23and promoting interdepartmental cooperation for assistance to
24industries.
25 As a condition of any financial incentives provided by the

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1Department in the form of (1) tax credits and tax exemptions
2(other than given under tax increment financing) given as an
3incentive to a recipient business organization pursuant to an
4initial certification or an initial designation made by the
5Department under the Economic Development for a Growing Economy
6Tax Credit Act, the River Edge Redevelopment Zone Act, and the
7Illinois Enterprise Zone Act, including the High Impact
8Business program, (2) grants or loans given to a recipient as
9an incentive to a business organization pursuant to the River
10Edge Redevelopment Zone Act, the Large Business Development
11Program, the Business Development Public Infrastructure
12Program, or the Industrial Training Program, the Department
13shall require the recipient of such financial incentives to
14report at least quarterly the number of jobs to be created or
15retained, or both created and retained, by the recipient as a
16result of the financial incentives, including the number of
17full-time, permanent jobs, the number of part-time jobs, and
18the number of temporary jobs. Further, the recipient of such
19financial incentives shall provide the Department at least
20annually a detailed list of the occupation or job
21classifications and number of new employees or retained
22employees to be hired in full-time, permanent jobs, a schedule
23of anticipated starting dates of the new hires and the actual
24average wage by occupation or job classification and total
25payroll to be created as a result of the financial incentives.
26(Source: P.A. 98-397, eff. 8-16-13; revised 10-8-13.)

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1 Section 75. The Lake Michigan Wind Energy Act is amended by
2changing Section 20 as follows:
3 (20 ILCS 896/20)
4 Sec. 20. Offshore Wind Energy Economic Development Policy
5Task Force.
6 (a) The Governor shall convene an Offshore Wind Energy
7Economic Development Policy Task Force, to be chaired by the
8Director of Commerce and Economic Opportunity, or his or her
9designee, to analyze and evaluate policy and economic options
10to facilitate the development of offshore wind energy, and to
11propose an appropriate Illinois mechanism for purchasing and
12selling power from possible offshore wind energy projects. The
13Task Force shall examine mechanisms used in other states and
14jurisdictions, including, without limitation, feed-in tariffs
15feed-in-tariffs, renewable energy certificates, renewable
16energy certificate carve-outs, power purchase agreements, and
17pilot projects. The Task Force shall report its findings and
18recommendations to the Governor and General Assembly by
19December 31, 2013.
20 (b) The Director of the Illinois Power Agency (or his or
21her designee), the Executive Director of the Illinois Commerce
22Commission (or his or her designee), the Director of Natural
23Resources (or his or her designee), and the Attorney General
24(or his or her designee) shall serve as ex officio members of

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1the Task Force.
2 (c) The Governor shall appoint the following public members
3to serve on the Task Force:
4 (1) one individual from an institution of higher
5 education in Illinois representing the discipline of
6 economics with experience in the study of renewable energy;
7 (2) one individual representing an energy industry
8 with experience in renewable energy markets;
9 (3) one individual representing a Statewide consumer
10 or electric ratepayer organization;
11 (4) one individual representing the offshore wind
12 energy industry;
13 (5) one individual representing the wind energy supply
14 chain industry;
15 (6) one individual representing an Illinois electrical
16 cooperative, municipal electrical utility, or association
17 of such cooperatives or utilities;
18 (7) one individual representing an Illinois industrial
19 union involved in the construction, maintenance, or
20 transportation of electrical generation, distribution, or
21 transmission equipment or components;
22 (8) one individual representing an Illinois commercial
23 or industrial electrical consumer;
24 (9) one individual representing an Illinois public
25 education electrical consumer;
26 (10) one individual representing an independent

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1 transmission company;
2 (11) one individual from the Illinois legal community
3 with experience in contracts, utility law, municipal law,
4 and constitutional law;
5 (12) one individual representing a Great Lakes
6 regional organization with experience assessing or
7 studying wind energy;
8 (13) one individual representing a Statewide
9 environmental organization;
10 (14) one resident of the State representing an
11 organization advocating for persons of low or limited
12 incomes;
13 (15) one individual representing Argonne National
14 Laboratory; and
15 (16) one individual representing a local community
16 that has aggregated the purchase of electricity.
17 (d) The Governor may appoint additional public members to
18the Task Force.
19 (e) The Speaker of the House of Representatives, Minority
20Leader of the House of Representatives, Senate President, and
21Minority Leader of the Senate shall each appoint one member of
22the General Assembly to serve on the Task Force.
23 (f) Members of the Task Force shall serve without
24compensation.
25(Source: P.A. 98-447, eff. 8-16-13; revised 10-7-13.)

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1 Section 80. The Mental Health and Developmental
2Disabilities Administrative Act is amended by changing Section
314 as follows:
4 (20 ILCS 1705/14) (from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 100-14)
5 Sec. 14. Chester Mental Health Center. To maintain and
6operate a facility for the care, custody, and treatment of
7persons with mental illness or habilitation of persons with
8developmental disabilities hereinafter designated, to be known
9as the Chester Mental Health Center.
10 Within the Chester Mental Health Center there shall be
11confined the following classes of persons, whose history, in
12the opinion of the Department, discloses dangerous or violent
13tendencies and who, upon examination under the direction of the
14Department, have been found a fit subject for confinement in
15that facility:
16 (a) Any male person who is charged with the commission
17 of a crime but has been acquitted by reason of insanity as
18 provided in Section 5-2-4 of the Unified Code of
19 Corrections.
20 (b) Any male person who is charged with the commission
21 of a crime but has been found unfit under Article 104 of
22 the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963.
23 (c) Any male person with mental illness or
24 developmental disabilities or person in need of mental
25 treatment now confined under the supervision of the

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1 Department or hereafter admitted to any facility thereof or
2 committed thereto by any court of competent jurisdiction.
3 If and when it shall appear to the facility director of the
4Chester Mental Health Center that it is necessary to confine
5persons in order to maintain security or provide for the
6protection and safety of recipients and staff, the Chester
7Mental Health Center may confine all persons on a unit to their
8rooms. This period of confinement shall not exceed 10 hours in
9a 24 hour period, including the recipient's scheduled hours of
10sleep, unless approved by the Secretary of the Department.
11During the period of confinement, the persons confined shall be
12observed at least every 15 minutes. A record shall be kept of
13the observations. This confinement shall not be considered
14seclusion as defined in the Mental Health and Developmental
15Disabilities Code.
16 The facility director of the Chester Mental Health Center
17may authorize the temporary use of handcuffs on a recipient for
18a period not to exceed 10 minutes when necessary in the course
19of transport of the recipient within the facility to maintain
20custody or security. Use of handcuffs is subject to the
21provisions of Section 2-108 of the Mental Health and
22Developmental Disabilities Code. The facility shall keep a
23monthly record listing each instance in which handcuffs are
24used, circumstances indicating the need for use of handcuffs,
25and time of application of handcuffs and time of release
26therefrom. The facility director shall allow the Illinois

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1Guardianship and Advocacy Commission, the agency designated by
2the Governor under Section 1 of the Protection and Advocacy for
3Developmentally Disabled Persons Act, and the Department to
4examine and copy such record upon request.
5 The facility director of the Chester Mental Health Center
6may authorize the temporary use of transport devices on a civil
7recipient when necessary in the course of transport of the
8civil recipient outside the facility to maintain custody or
9security. The decision whether to use any transport devices
10shall be reviewed and approved on an individualized basis by a
11physician based upon a determination of the civil recipient's:
12(1) history of violence, (2) history of violence during
13transports, (3) history of escapes and escape attempts, (4)
14history of trauma, (5) history of incidents of restraint or
15seclusion and use of involuntary medication, (6) current
16functioning level and medical status, and (7) prior experience
17during similar transports, and (8) the length, duration, and
18purpose of the transport. The least restrictive transport
19device consistent with the individual's need shall be used.
20Staff transporting the individual shall be trained in the use
21of the transport devices, recognizing and responding to a
22person in distress, and shall observe and monitor the
23individual while being transported. The facility shall keep a
24monthly record listing all transports, including those
25transports for which use of transport devices was were not
26sought, those for which use of transport devices was were

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1sought but denied, and each instance in which transport devices
2are used, circumstances indicating the need for use of
3transport devices, time of application of transport devices,
4time of release from those devices, and any adverse events. The
5facility director shall allow the Illinois Guardianship and
6Advocacy Commission, the agency designated by the Governor
7under Section 1 of the Protection and Advocacy for
8Developmentally Disabled Persons Act, and the Department to
9examine and copy the record upon request. This use of transport
10devices shall not be considered restraint as defined in the
11Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code. For the
12purpose of this Section "transport device" means ankle cuffs,
13handcuffs, waist chains or wrist-waist devices designed to
14restrict an individual's range of motion while being
15transported. These devices must be approved by the Division of
16Mental Health, used in accordance with the manufacturer's
17instructions, and used only by qualified staff members who have
18completed all training required to be eligible to transport
19patients and all other required training relating to the safe
20use and application of transport devices, including
21recognizing and responding to signs of distress in an
22individual whose movement is being restricted by a transport
23device.
24 If and when it shall appear to the satisfaction of the
25Department that any person confined in the Chester Mental
26Health Center is not or has ceased to be such a source of

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1danger to the public as to require his subjection to the
2regimen of the center, the Department is hereby authorized to
3transfer such person to any State facility for treatment of
4persons with mental illness or habilitation of persons with
5developmental disabilities, as the nature of the individual
6case may require.
7 Subject to the provisions of this Section, the Department,
8except where otherwise provided by law, shall, with respect to
9the management, conduct and control of the Chester Mental
10Health Center and the discipline, custody and treatment of the
11persons confined therein, have and exercise the same rights and
12powers as are vested by law in the Department with respect to
13any and all of the State facilities for treatment of persons
14with mental illness or habilitation of persons with
15developmental disabilities, and the recipients thereof, and
16shall be subject to the same duties as are imposed by law upon
17the Department with respect to such facilities and the
18recipients thereof.
19 The Department may elect to place persons who have been
20ordered by the court to be detained under the Sexually Violent
21Persons Commitment Act in a distinct portion of the Chester
22Mental Health Center. The persons so placed shall be separated
23and shall not comingle with the recipients of the Chester
24Mental Health Center. The portion of Chester Mental Health
25Center that is used for the persons detained under the Sexually
26Violent Persons Commitment Act shall not be a part of the

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1mental health facility for the enforcement and implementation
2of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code nor
3shall their care and treatment be subject to the provisions of
4the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code. The
5changes added to this Section by this amendatory Act of the
698th General Assembly are inoperative on and after June 30,
72015.
8(Source: P.A. 98-79, eff. 7-15-13; 98-356, eff. 8-16-13;
9revised 9-4-13.)
10 Section 85. The Department of Professional Regulation Law
11of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois is amended by
12changing Section 2105-15 as follows:
13 (20 ILCS 2105/2105-15)
14 Sec. 2105-15. General powers and duties.
15 (a) The Department has, subject to the provisions of the
16Civil Administrative Code of Illinois, the following powers and
17duties:
18 (1) To authorize examinations in English to ascertain
19 the qualifications and fitness of applicants to exercise
20 the profession, trade, or occupation for which the
21 examination is held.
22 (2) To prescribe rules and regulations for a fair and
23 wholly impartial method of examination of candidates to
24 exercise the respective professions, trades, or

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1 occupations.
2 (3) To pass upon the qualifications of applicants for
3 licenses, certificates, and authorities, whether by
4 examination, by reciprocity, or by endorsement.
5 (4) To prescribe rules and regulations defining, for
6 the respective professions, trades, and occupations, what
7 shall constitute a school, college, or university, or
8 department of a university, or other institution,
9 reputable and in good standing, and to determine the
10 reputability and good standing of a school, college, or
11 university, or department of a university, or other
12 institution, reputable and in good standing, by reference
13 to a compliance with those rules and regulations; provided,
14 that no school, college, or university, or department of a
15 university, or other institution that refuses admittance
16 to applicants solely on account of race, color, creed, sex,
17 or national origin shall be considered reputable and in
18 good standing.
19 (5) To conduct hearings on proceedings to revoke,
20 suspend, refuse to renew, place on probationary status, or
21 take other disciplinary action as authorized in any
22 licensing Act administered by the Department with regard to
23 licenses, certificates, or authorities of persons
24 exercising the respective professions, trades, or
25 occupations and to revoke, suspend, refuse to renew, place
26 on probationary status, or take other disciplinary action

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1 as authorized in any licensing Act administered by the
2 Department with regard to those licenses, certificates, or
3 authorities. The Department shall issue a monthly
4 disciplinary report. The Department shall deny any license
5 or renewal authorized by the Civil Administrative Code of
6 Illinois to any person who has defaulted on an educational
7 loan or scholarship provided by or guaranteed by the
8 Illinois Student Assistance Commission or any governmental
9 agency of this State; however, the Department may issue a
10 license or renewal if the aforementioned persons have
11 established a satisfactory repayment record as determined
12 by the Illinois Student Assistance Commission or other
13 appropriate governmental agency of this State.
14 Additionally, beginning June 1, 1996, any license issued by
15 the Department may be suspended or revoked if the
16 Department, after the opportunity for a hearing under the
17 appropriate licensing Act, finds that the licensee has
18 failed to make satisfactory repayment to the Illinois
19 Student Assistance Commission for a delinquent or
20 defaulted loan. For the purposes of this Section,
21 "satisfactory repayment record" shall be defined by rule.
22 The Department shall refuse to issue or renew a license to,
23 or shall suspend or revoke a license of, any person who,
24 after receiving notice, fails to comply with a subpoena or
25 warrant relating to a paternity or child support
26 proceeding. However, the Department may issue a license or

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1 renewal upon compliance with the subpoena or warrant.
2 The Department, without further process or hearings,
3 shall revoke, suspend, or deny any license or renewal
4 authorized by the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois to
5 a person who is certified by the Department of Healthcare
6 and Family Services (formerly Illinois Department of
7 Public Aid) as being more than 30 days delinquent in
8 complying with a child support order or who is certified by
9 a court as being in violation of the Non-Support Punishment
10 Act for more than 60 days. The Department may, however,
11 issue a license or renewal if the person has established a
12 satisfactory repayment record as determined by the
13 Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly
14 Illinois Department of Public Aid) or if the person is
15 determined by the court to be in compliance with the
16 Non-Support Punishment Act. The Department may implement
17 this paragraph as added by Public Act 89-6 through the use
18 of emergency rules in accordance with Section 5-45 of the
19 Illinois Administrative Procedure Act. For purposes of the
20 Illinois Administrative Procedure Act, the adoption of
21 rules to implement this paragraph shall be considered an
22 emergency and necessary for the public interest, safety,
23 and welfare.
24 (6) To transfer jurisdiction of any realty under the
25 control of the Department to any other department of the
26 State Government or to acquire or accept federal lands when

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1 the transfer, acquisition, or acceptance is advantageous
2 to the State and is approved in writing by the Governor.
3 (7) To formulate rules and regulations necessary for
4 the enforcement of any Act administered by the Department.
5 (8) To exchange with the Department of Healthcare and
6 Family Services information that may be necessary for the
7 enforcement of child support orders entered pursuant to the
8 Illinois Public Aid Code, the Illinois Marriage and
9 Dissolution of Marriage Act, the Non-Support of Spouse and
10 Children Act, the Non-Support Punishment Act, the Revised
11 Uniform Reciprocal Enforcement of Support Act, the Uniform
12 Interstate Family Support Act, or the Illinois Parentage
13 Act of 1984. Notwithstanding any provisions in this Code to
14 the contrary, the Department of Professional Regulation
15 shall not be liable under any federal or State law to any
16 person for any disclosure of information to the Department
17 of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Illinois
18 Department of Public Aid) under this paragraph (8) or for
19 any other action taken in good faith to comply with the
20 requirements of this paragraph (8).
21 (9) To perform other duties prescribed by law.
22 (a-5) Except in cases involving default on an educational
23loan or scholarship provided by or guaranteed by the Illinois
24Student Assistance Commission or any governmental agency of
25this State or in cases involving delinquency in complying with
26a child support order or violation of the Non-Support

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1Punishment Act, no person or entity whose license, certificate,
2or authority has been revoked as authorized in any licensing
3Act administered by the Department may apply for restoration of
4that license, certification, or authority until 3 years after
5the effective date of the revocation.
6 (b) The Department may, when a fee is payable to the
7Department for a wall certificate of registration provided by
8the Department of Central Management Services, require that
9portion of the payment for printing and distribution costs be
10made directly or through the Department to the Department of
11Central Management Services for deposit into the Paper and
12Printing Revolving Fund. The remainder shall be deposited into
13the General Revenue Fund.
14 (c) For the purpose of securing and preparing evidence, and
15for the purchase of controlled substances, professional
16services, and equipment necessary for enforcement activities,
17recoupment of investigative costs, and other activities
18directed at suppressing the misuse and abuse of controlled
19substances, including those activities set forth in Sections
20504 and 508 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, the
21Director and agents appointed and authorized by the Director
22may expend sums from the Professional Regulation Evidence Fund
23that the Director deems necessary from the amounts appropriated
24for that purpose. Those sums may be advanced to the agent when
25the Director deems that procedure to be in the public interest.
26Sums for the purchase of controlled substances, professional

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1services, and equipment necessary for enforcement activities
2and other activities as set forth in this Section shall be
3advanced to the agent who is to make the purchase from the
4Professional Regulation Evidence Fund on vouchers signed by the
5Director. The Director and those agents are authorized to
6maintain one or more commercial checking accounts with any
7State banking corporation or corporations organized under or
8subject to the Illinois Banking Act for the deposit and
9withdrawal of moneys to be used for the purposes set forth in
10this Section; provided, that no check may be written nor any
11withdrawal made from any such account except upon the written
12signatures of 2 persons designated by the Director to write
13those checks and make those withdrawals. Vouchers for those
14expenditures must be signed by the Director. All such
15expenditures shall be audited by the Director, and the audit
16shall be submitted to the Department of Central Management
17Services for approval.
18 (d) Whenever the Department is authorized or required by
19law to consider some aspect of criminal history record
20information for the purpose of carrying out its statutory
21powers and responsibilities, then, upon request and payment of
22fees in conformance with the requirements of Section 2605-400
23of the Department of State Police Law (20 ILCS 2605/2605-400),
24the Department of State Police is authorized to furnish,
25pursuant to positive identification, the information contained
26in State files that is necessary to fulfill the request.

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1 (e) The provisions of this Section do not apply to private
2business and vocational schools as defined by Section 15 of the
3Private Business and Vocational Schools Act of 2012.
4 (f) Beginning July 1, 1995, this Section does not apply to
5those professions, trades, and occupations licensed under the
6Real Estate License Act of 2000, nor does it apply to any
7permits, certificates, or other authorizations to do business
8provided for in the Land Sales Registration Act of 1989 or the
9Illinois Real Estate Time-Share Act.
10 (g) Notwithstanding anything that may appear in any
11individual licensing statute or administrative rule, the
12Department shall deny any license application or renewal
13authorized under any licensing Act administered by the
14Department to any person who has failed to file a return, or to
15pay the tax, penalty, or interest shown in a filed return, or
16to pay any final assessment of tax, penalty, or interest, as
17required by any tax Act administered by the Illinois Department
18of Revenue, until such time as the requirement of any such tax
19Act are satisfied; however, the Department may issue a license
20or renewal if the person has established a satisfactory
21repayment record as determined by the Illinois Department of
22Revenue. For the purpose of this Section, "satisfactory
23repayment record" shall be defined by rule.
24 In addition, a complaint filed with the Department by the
25Illinois Department of Revenue that includes a certification,
26signed by its Director or designee, attesting to the amount of

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1the unpaid tax liability or the years for which a return was
2not filed, or both, is prima facie facia evidence of the
3licensee's failure to comply with the tax laws administered by
4the Illinois Department of Revenue. Upon receipt of that
5certification, the Department shall, without a hearing,
6immediately suspend all licenses held by the licensee.
7Enforcement of the Department's order shall be stayed for 60
8days. The Department shall provide notice of the suspension to
9the licensee by mailing a copy of the Department's order by
10certified and regular mail to the licensee's last known address
11as registered with the Department. The notice shall advise the
12licensee that the suspension shall be effective 60 days after
13the issuance of the Department's order unless the Department
14receives, from the licensee, a request for a hearing before the
15Department to dispute the matters contained in the order.
16 Any suspension imposed under this subsection (g) shall be
17terminated by the Department upon notification from the
18Illinois Department of Revenue that the licensee is in
19compliance with all tax laws administered by the Illinois
20Department of Revenue.
21 The Department shall promulgate rules for the
22administration of this subsection (g).
23 (h) The Department may grant the title "Retired", to be
24used immediately adjacent to the title of a profession
25regulated by the Department, to eligible retirees. The use of
26the title "Retired" shall not constitute representation of

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1current licensure, registration, or certification. Any person
2without an active license, registration, or certificate in a
3profession that requires licensure, registration, or
4certification shall not be permitted to practice that
5profession.
6 (i) Within 180 days after December 23, 2009 (the effective
7date of Public Act 96-852), the Department shall promulgate
8rules which permit a person with a criminal record, who seeks a
9license or certificate in an occupation for which a criminal
10record is not expressly a per se bar, to apply to the
11Department for a non-binding, advisory opinion to be provided
12by the Board or body with the authority to issue the license or
13certificate as to whether his or her criminal record would bar
14the individual from the licensure or certification sought,
15should the individual meet all other licensure requirements
16including, but not limited to, the successful completion of the
17relevant examinations.
18(Source: P.A. 96-459, eff. 8-14-09; 96-852, eff. 12-23-09;
1996-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 97-650, eff. 2-1-12; revised 9-9-13.)
20 Section 90. The Department of Public Health Powers and
21Duties Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois is
22amended by setting forth, renumbering, and changing multiple
23versions of Section 2310-665 as follows:
24 (20 ILCS 2310/2310-665)

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1 Sec. 2310-665. Educational materials on streptococcal
2infection. The Department, in conjunction with the Illinois
3State Board of Education, shall develop educational material on
4streptococcal infection for distribution in elementary and
5secondary schools. The material shall include, but not be
6limited to:
7 (1) a process to notify parents or guardians of an
8 outbreak in the school;
9 (2) a process to provide information on all of the
10 symptoms of streptococcal infection to teachers, parents,
11 and students; and
12 (3) guidelines for schools to control the spread of
13 streptococcal infections.
14(Source: P.A. 98-236, eff. 8-9-13; revised 9-12-13.)
15 (20 ILCS 2310/2310-670)
16 Sec. 2310-670 2310-665. Breast cancer patient education.
17 (a) The General Assembly makes the following findings:
18 (1) Annually, about 207,090 new cases of breast cancer
19 are diagnosed, according to the American Cancer Society.
20 (2) Breast cancer has a disproportionate and
21 detrimental impact on African-American women and is the
22 most common cancer among Hispanic and Latina women.
23 (3) African-American women under the age of 40 have a
24 greater incidence of breast cancer than Caucasian women of
25 the same age.

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1 (4) Individuals undergoing surgery for breast cancer
2 should give due consideration to the option of breast
3 reconstructive surgery, either at the same time as the
4 breast cancer surgery or at a later date.
5 (5) According to the American Cancer Society,
6 immediate breast reconstruction offers the advantage of
7 combining the breast cancer surgery with the
8 reconstructive surgery and is cost effective.
9 (6) According to the American Cancer Society, delayed
10 breast reconstruction may be advantageous in women who
11 require post-surgical radiation or other treatments.
12 (7) A woman suffering from the loss of her breast may
13 not be a candidate for surgical breast reconstruction or
14 may choose not to undergo additional surgery and instead
15 choose breast prostheses.
16 (8) The federal Women's Health and Cancer Rights Act of
17 1998 requires health plans that offer breast cancer
18 coverage to also provide for breast reconstruction.
19 (9) Required coverage for breast reconstruction
20 includes all the necessary stages of reconstruction.
21 Surgery of the opposite breast for symmetry may be
22 required. Breast prostheses may be necessary. Other
23 sequelae of breast cancer treatment, such as lymphedema,
24 must be covered.
25 (10) Several states have enacted laws to require that
26 women receive information on their breast cancer treatment

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1 and reconstruction options.
2 (b) In this Section:
3 "Hispanic" has the same meaning as in Section 1707 of
4 the federal Public Health Services Act.
5 "Racial and ethnic minority group" has the same meaning
6 as in Section 1707 of the federal Public Health Services
7 Act.
8 (c) The Director shall provide for the planning and
9implementation of an education campaign to inform breast cancer
10patients, especially those in racial and ethnic minority
11groups, anticipating surgery regarding the availability and
12coverage of breast reconstruction, prostheses, and other
13options. The campaign shall include the dissemination, at a
14minimum, on relevant State health Internet websites, including
15the Department of Public Health's Internet website, of the
16following information:
17 (1) Breast reconstruction is possible at the time of
18 breast cancer surgery or in a delayed fashion.
19 (2) Prostheses or breast forms may be available.
20 (3) Federal law mandates both public and private health
21 plans to include coverage of breast reconstruction and
22 prostheses.
23 (4) The patient has a right to choose the provider of
24 reconstructive care, including the potential transfer of
25 care to a surgeon that provides breast reconstructive care.
26 (5) The patient may opt to undergo breast

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1 reconstruction in a delayed fashion for personal reasons or
2 after completion of all other breast cancer treatments.
3 The campaign may include dissemination of such other
4information, whether developed by the Director or by other
5entities, as the Director determines relevant. The campaign
6shall not specify, or be designed to serve as a tool to limit,
7the health care providers available to patients.
8 (d) In developing the information to be disseminated under
9this Section, the Director shall consult with appropriate
10medical societies and patient advocates related to breast
11cancer, patient advocates representing racial and ethnic
12minority groups, with a special emphasis on African-American
13and Hispanic populations' population's breast reconstructive
14surgery, and breast prostheses and breast forms.
15 (e) Beginning no later than January 1, 2016 (2 years after
16the effective date of Public Act 98-479) this amendatory Act of
17the 98th General Assembly and continuing each second year
18thereafter, the Director shall submit to the General Assembly a
19report describing the activities carried out under this Section
20during the preceding 2 fiscal years, including evaluating the
21extent to which the activities have been effective in improving
22the health of racial and ethnic minority groups.
23(Source: P.A. 98-479, eff. 1-1-14; revised 9-12-13.)
24 (20 ILCS 2310/2310-675)
25 (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2016)

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1 Sec. 2310-675 2310-665. Hepatitis C Task Force.
2 (a) The General Assembly finds and declares the following:
3 (1) Viral hepatitis is a contagious and
4 life-threatening disease that has a substantial and
5 increasing effect upon the lifespans and quality of life of
6 at least 5,000,000 persons living in the United States and
7 as many as 180,000,000 worldwide. According to the U.S.
8 Department of Health and Human Services (HHS), the chronic
9 form of the hepatitis C virus (HCV) and hepatitis B virus
10 (HBV) account for the vast majority of hepatitis-related
11 mortalities in the U.S., yet as many as 65% to 75% of
12 infected Americans remain unaware that they are infected
13 with the virus, prompting the U.S. Centers for Disease
14 Control and Prevention (CDC) to label these viruses as the
15 silent epidemic. HCV and HBV are major public health
16 problems that cause chronic liver diseases, such as
17 cirrhosis, liver failure, and liver cancer. The 5-year
18 survival rate for primary liver cancer is less than 5%.
19 These viruses are also the leading cause of liver
20 transplantation in the United States. While there is a
21 vaccine for HBV, no vaccine exists for HCV. However, there
22 are anti-viral treatments for HCV that can improve the
23 prognosis or actually clear the virus from the patient's
24 system. Unfortunately, the vast majority of infected
25 patients remain unaware that they have the virus since
26 there are generally no symptoms. Therefore, there is a dire

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1 need to aid the public in identifying certain risk factors
2 that would warrant testing for these viruses. Millions of
3 infected patients remain undiagnosed and continue to be at
4 elevated risks for developing more serious complications.
5 More needs to be done to educate the public about this
6 disease and the risk factors that warrant testing. In some
7 cases, infected patients play an unknowing role in further
8 spreading this infectious disease.
9 (2) The existence of HCV was definitively published and
10 discovered by medical researchers in 1989. Prior to this
11 date, HCV is believed to have spread unchecked. The
12 American Association for the Study of Liver Diseases
13 (AASLD) recommends that primary care physicians screen all
14 patients for a history of any viral hepatitis risk factor
15 and test those individuals with at least one identifiable
16 risk factor for the virus. Some of the most common risk
17 factors have been identified by AASLD, HHS, and the U.S.
18 Department of Veterans Affairs, as well as other public
19 health and medical research organizations, and include the
20 following:
21 (A) anyone who has received a blood transfusion
22 prior to 1992;
23 (B) anyone who is a Vietnam-era veteran;
24 (C) anyone who has abnormal liver function tests;
25 (D) anyone infected with the HIV virus;
26 (E) anyone who has used a needle to inject drugs;

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1 (F) any health care, emergency medical, or public
2 safety worker who has been stuck by a needle or exposed
3 to any mucosal fluids of an HCV-infected person; and
4 (G) any children born to HCV-infected mothers.
5 A 1994 study determined that Caucasian Americans
6 statistically accounted for the most number of infected
7 persons in the United States, while the highest incidence
8 rates were among African and Hispanic Americans.
9 (3) In January of 2010, the Institute of Medicine
10 (IOM), commissioned by the CDC, issued a comprehensive
11 report entitled Hepatitis and Liver Cancer: A National
12 Strategy for Prevention and Control of Hepatitis B and C.
13 The key findings and recommendations from the IOM's report
14 are (A) there is a lack of knowledge and awareness about
15 chronic viral hepatitis on the part of health care and
16 social service providers, (B) there is a lack of knowledge
17 and awareness about chronic viral hepatitis among at-risk
18 populations, members of the public, and policy makers, and
19 (C) there is insufficient understanding about the extent
20 and seriousness of the public health problem, so inadequate
21 public resources are being allocated to prevention,
22 control, and surveillance programs.
23 (4) In this same 2010 IOM report, researchers compared
24 the prevalence and incidences of HCV, HBV, and HIV and
25 found that, although there are only 1,100,000 HIV/AIDS
26 infected persons in the United States and over 4,000,000

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1 Americans infected with viral hepatitis, the percentage of
2 those with HIV that are unaware they have HIV is only 21%
3 as opposed to approximately 70% of those with viral
4 hepatitis being unaware that they have viral hepatitis. It
5 appears that public awareness of risk factors associated
6 with each of these diseases could be a major factor in the
7 alarming disparity between the percentage of the
8 population that is infected with one of these blood
9 viruses, but unaware that they are infected.
10 (5) In light of the widely varied nature of the risk
11 factors mentioned in this subsection (a), the previous
12 findings by the Institute of Medicine, and the clear
13 evidence of the disproportional public awareness between
14 HIV and viral hepatitis, it is clearly in the public
15 interest for this State to establish a task force to gather
16 testimony and develop an action plan to (A) increase public
17 awareness of the risk factors for these viruses, (B)
18 improve access to screening for these viruses, and (C)
19 provide those infected with information about the
20 prognosis, treatment options, and elevated risk of
21 developing cirrhosis and liver cancer. There is clear and
22 increasing evidence that many adults in Illinois and in the
23 United States have at least one of the risk factors
24 mentioned in this subsection (a).
25 (6) The General Assembly also finds that it is in the
26 public interest to bring communities of Illinois-based

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1 veterans of American military service into familiarity
2 with the issues created by this disease, because many
3 veterans, especially Vietnam-era veterans, have at least
4 one of the previously enumerated risk factors and are
5 especially prone to being affected by this disease; and
6 because veterans of American military service should enjoy
7 in all cases, and do enjoy in most cases, adequate access
8 to health care services that include medical management and
9 care for preexisting and long-term medical conditions,
10 such as infection with the hepatitis virus.
11 (b) There is established the Hepatitis C Task Force within
12the Department of Public Health. The purpose of the Task Force
13shall be to:
14 (1) develop strategies to identify and address the
15 unmet needs of persons with hepatitis C in order to enhance
16 the quality of life of persons with hepatitis C by
17 maximizing productivity and independence and addressing
18 emotional, social, financial, and vocational challenges of
19 persons with hepatitis C;
20 (2) develop strategies to provide persons with
21 hepatitis C greater access to various treatments and other
22 therapeutic options that may be available; and
23 (3) develop strategies to improve hepatitis C
24 education and awareness.
25 (c) The Task Force shall consist of 17 members as follows:
26 (1) the Director of Public Health, the Director of

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1 Veterans' Affairs, and the Director of Human Services, or
2 their designees, who shall serve ex officio;
3 (2) ten public members who shall be appointed by the
4 Director of Public Health from the medical, patient, and
5 service provider communities, including, but not limited
6 to, HCV Support, Inc.; and
7 (3) four members of the General Assembly, appointed one
8 each by the President of the Senate, the Minority Leader of
9 the Senate, the Speaker of the House of Representatives,
10 and the Minority Leader of the House of Representatives.
11 Vacancies in the membership of the Task Force shall be
12filled in the same manner provided for in the original
13appointments.
14 (d) The Task Force shall organize within 120 days following
15the appointment of a majority of its members and shall select a
16chairperson and vice-chairperson from among the members. The
17chairperson shall appoint a secretary, who need not be a member
18of the Task Force.
19 (e) The public members shall serve without compensation and
20shall not be reimbursed for necessary expenses incurred in the
21performance of their duties, unless funds become available to
22the Task Force.
23 (f) The Task Force shall be entitled to call to its
24assistance and avail itself of the services of the employees of
25any State, county, or municipal department, board, bureau,
26commission, or agency as it may require and as may be available

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1to it for its purposes.
2 (g) The Task Force may meet and hold hearings as it deems
3appropriate.
4 (h) The Department of Public Health shall provide staff
5support to the Task Force.
6 (i) The Task Force shall report its findings and
7recommendations to the Governor and to the General Assembly,
8along with any legislative bills that it desires to recommend
9for adoption by the General Assembly, no later than December
1031, 2015.
11 (j) The Task Force is abolished and this Section is
12repealed on January 1, 2016.
13(Source: P.A. 98-493, eff. 8-16-13; revised 9-12-13.)
14 (20 ILCS 2310/2310-680)
15 (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2016)
16 Sec. 2310-680 2310-665. Multiple Sclerosis Task Force.
17 (a) The General Assembly finds and declares the following:
18 (1) Multiple sclerosis (MS) is a chronic, often
19 disabling, disease that attacks the central nervous
20 system, which is comprised of the brain, spinal cord, and
21 optic nerves. MS is the number one disabling disease among
22 young adults, striking in the prime of life. It is a
23 disease in which the body, through its immune system,
24 launches a defensive and damaging attack against its own
25 tissues. MS damages the nerve-insulating myelin sheath

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1 that surrounds and protects the brain. The damage to the
2 myelin sheath slows down or blocks messages between the
3 brain and the body.
4 (2) Most people experience their first symptoms of MS
5 between the ages of 20 and 40, but MS can appear in young
6 children and teens as well as much older adults. MS
7 symptoms can include visual disturbances, muscle weakness,
8 trouble with coordination and balance, sensations such as
9 numbness, prickling or pins and needles, and thought and
10 memory problems. MS patients can also experience partial or
11 complete paralysis, speech impediments, tremors,
12 dizziness, stiffness and spasms, fatigue, paresthesias,
13 pain, and loss of sensation.
14 (3) The cause of MS remains unknown; however, having a
15 first-degree relative, such as a parent or sibling, with MS
16 significantly increases a person's risk of developing the
17 disease. According to the National Institute of
18 Neurological Disorders and Stroke, it is estimated that
19 there are approximately 250,000 to 350,000 persons in the
20 United States who are diagnosed with MS. This estimate
21 suggests that approximately 200 new cases are diagnosed
22 each week. Other sources report a population of at least
23 400,000 in the United States. The estimate of persons with
24 MS in Illinois is 20,000, with at least 2 areas of MS
25 clusters identified in Illinois.
26 (4) Presently, there is no cure for MS. The complex and

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1 variable nature of the disease makes it very difficult to
2 diagnose, treat, and research. The cost to the family,
3 often with young children, can be overwhelming. Among
4 common diagnoses, non-stroke neurologic illnesses, such as
5 multiple sclerosis, were associated with the highest
6 out-of-pocket expenditures (a mean of $34,167), followed
7 by diabetes ($26,971), injuries ($25,096), stroke
8 ($23,380), mental illnesses ($23,178), and heart disease
9 ($21,955). Median out-of-pocket costs for health care
10 among people with MS, excluding insurance premiums, were
11 almost twice as much as the general population. The costs
12 associated with MS increase with greater disability. Costs
13 for severely disabled individuals are more than twice those
14 for persons with a relatively mild form of the disease. A
15 recent study of medical bankruptcy found that 62.1% of all
16 personal bankruptcies in the United States were related to
17 medical costs.
18 (5) Therefore, it is in the public interest for the
19 State to establish a Multiple Sclerosis Task Force in order
20 to identify and address the unmet needs of persons with MS
21 and develop ways to enhance their quality of life.
22 (b) There is established the Multiple Sclerosis Task Force
23in the Department of Public Health. The purpose of the Task
24Force shall be to:
25 (1) develop strategies to identify and address the
26 unmet needs of persons with MS in order to enhance the

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1 quality of life of persons with MS by maximizing
2 productivity and independence and addressing emotional,
3 social, financial, and vocational challenges of persons
4 with MS;
5 (2) develop strategies to provide persons with MS
6 greater access to various treatments and other therapeutic
7 options that may be available; and
8 (3) develop strategies to improve multiple sclerosis
9 education and awareness.
10 (c) The Task Force shall consist of 16 members as follows:
11 (1) the Director of Public Health and the Director of
12 Human Services, or their designees, who shall serve ex
13 officio; and
14 (2) fourteen public members, who shall be appointed by
15 the Director of Public Health as follows: 2 neurologists
16 licensed to practice medicine in this State; 3 registered
17 nurses or other health professionals with MS certification
18 and extensive expertise with progressed MS; one person upon
19 the recommendation of the National Multiple Sclerosis
20 Society; 3 persons who represent agencies that provide
21 services or support to individuals with MS in this State; 3
22 persons who have MS, at least one of whom having progressed
23 MS; and 2 members of the public with a demonstrated
24 expertise in issues relating to the work of the Task Force.
25 Vacancies in the membership of the Task Force shall be
26filled in the same manner provided for in the original

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1appointments.
2 (d) The Task Force shall organize within 120 days following
3the appointment of a majority of its members and shall select a
4chairperson and vice-chairperson from among the members. The
5chairperson shall appoint a secretary who need not be a member
6of the Task Force.
7 (e) The public members shall serve without compensation and
8shall not be reimbursed for necessary expenses incurred in the
9performance of their duties unless funds become available to
10the Task Force.
11 (f) The Task Force may meet and hold hearings as it deems
12appropriate.
13 (g) The Department of Public Health shall provide staff
14support to the Task Force.
15 (h) The Task Force shall report its findings and
16recommendations to the Governor and to the General Assembly,
17along with any legislative bills that it desires to recommend
18for adoption by the General Assembly, no later than December
1931, 2015.
20 (i) The Task Force is abolished and this Section is
21repealed on January 1, 2016.
22(Source: P.A. 98-530, eff. 8-23-13; revised 9-12-13.)
23 Section 95. The Disabilities Services Act of 2003 is
24amended by changing Section 10 as follows:

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1 (20 ILCS 2407/10)
2 Sec. 10. Application of Act; definitions.
3 (a) This Act applies to persons with disabilities. The
4disabilities included are defined for purposes of this Act as
5follows:
6 "Disability" means a disability as defined by the Americans
7with Disabilities Act of 1990 that is attributable to a
8developmental disability, a mental illness, or a physical
9disability, or combination of those.
10 "Developmental disability" means a disability that is
11attributable to an intellectual disability or a related
12condition. A related condition must meet all of the following
13conditions:
14 (1) It must be attributable to cerebral palsy,
15 epilepsy, or any other condition (other than mental
16 illness) found to be closely related to an intellectual
17 disability because that condition results in impairment of
18 general intellectual functioning or adaptive behavior
19 similar to that of individuals with an intellectual
20 disability, and requires treatment or services similar to
21 those required for those individuals. For purposes of this
22 Section, autism is considered a related condition.
23 (2) It must be manifested before the individual reaches
24 age 22.
25 (3) It must be likely to continue indefinitely.
26 (4) It must result in substantial functional

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1 limitations in 3 or more of the following areas of major
2 life activity: self-care, language, learning, mobility,
3 self-direction, and capacity for independent living.
4 "Mental Illness" means a mental or emotional disorder
5verified by a diagnosis contained in the Diagnostic and
6Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders-Fourth Edition,
7published by the American Psychiatric Association (DSM-IV), or
8its successor, or International Classification of Diseases,
99th Revision, Clinical Modification (ICD-9-CM), or its
10successor, that substantially impairs a person's cognitive,
11emotional, or behavioral functioning, or any combination of
12those, excluding (i) conditions that may be the focus of
13clinical attention but are not of sufficient duration or
14severity to be categorized as a mental illness, such as
15parent-child relational problems, partner-relational problems,
16sexual abuse of a child, bereavement, academic problems,
17phase-of-life problems, and occupational problems
18(collectively, "V codes"), (ii) organic disorders such as
19substance intoxication dementia, substance withdrawal
20dementia, Alzheimer's disease, vascular dementia, dementia due
21to HIV infection, and dementia due to Creutzfeldt-Jakob
22Creutzfeld-Jakob disease and disorders associated with known
23or unknown physical conditions such as hallucinosis, amnestic
24disorders and delirium, and psychoactive substance-induced
25organic disorders, and (iii) an intellectual disability or
26psychoactive substance use disorders.

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1 "Intellectual disability" means significantly sub-average
2general intellectual functioning existing concurrently with
3deficits in adaptive behavior and manifested before the age of
422 years.
5 "Physical disability" means a disability as defined by the
6Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990 that meets the
7following criteria:
8 (1) It is attributable to a physical impairment.
9 (2) It results in a substantial functional limitation
10 in any of the following areas of major life activity: (i)
11 self-care, (ii) receptive and expressive language, (iii)
12 learning, (iv) mobility, (v) self-direction, (vi) capacity
13 for independent living, and (vii) economic sufficiency.
14 (3) It reflects the person's need for a combination and
15 sequence of special, interdisciplinary, or general care,
16 treatment, or other services that are of lifelong or of
17 extended duration and must be individually planned and
18 coordinated.
19 (b) In this Act:
20 "Chronological age-appropriate services" means services,
21activities, and strategies for persons with disabilities that
22are representative of the lifestyle activities of nondisabled
23peers of similar age in the community.
24 "Comprehensive evaluation" means procedures used by
25qualified professionals selectively with an individual to
26determine whether a person has a disability and the nature and

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1extent of the services that the person with a disability needs.
2 "Department" means the Department on Aging, the Department
3of Human Services, the Department of Public Health, the
4Department of Public Aid (now Department Healthcare and Family
5Services), the University of Illinois Division of Specialized
6Care for Children, the Department of Children and Family
7Services, and the Illinois State Board of Education, where
8appropriate, as designated in the implementation plan
9developed under Section 20.
10 "Family" means a natural, adoptive, or foster parent or
11parents or other person or persons responsible for the care of
12an individual with a disability in a family setting.
13 "Family or individual support" means those resources and
14services that are necessary to maintain an individual with a
15disability within the family home or his or her own home. These
16services may include, but are not limited to, cash subsidy,
17respite care, and counseling services.
18 "Independent service coordination" means a social service
19that enables persons with developmental disabilities and their
20families to locate, use, and coordinate resources and
21opportunities in their communities on the basis of individual
22need. Independent service coordination is independent of
23providers of services and funding sources and is designed to
24ensure accessibility, continuity of care, and accountability
25and to maximize the potential of persons with developmental
26disabilities for independence, productivity, and integration

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1into the community. Independent service coordination includes,
2at a minimum: (i) outreach to identify eligible individuals;
3(ii) assessment and periodic reassessment to determine each
4individual's strengths, functional limitations, and need for
5specific services; (iii) participation in the development of a
6comprehensive individual service or treatment plan; (iv)
7referral to and linkage with needed services and supports; (v)
8monitoring to ensure the delivery of appropriate services and
9to determine individual progress in meeting goals and
10objectives; and (vi) advocacy to assist the person in obtaining
11all services for which he or she is eligible or entitled.
12 "Individual service or treatment plan" means a recorded
13assessment of the needs of a person with a disability, a
14description of the services recommended, the goals of each type
15of element of service, an anticipated timetable for the
16accomplishment of the goals, and a designation of the qualified
17professionals responsible for the implementation of the plan.
18 "Least restrictive environment" means an environment that
19represents the least departure from the normal patterns of
20living and that effectively meets the needs of the person
21receiving the service.
22(Source: P.A. 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; revised 9-4-13.)
23 Section 100. The Department of State Police Law of the
24Civil Administrative Code of Illinois is amended by setting
25forth and renumbering multiple versions of Section 2605-595 as

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1follows:
2 (20 ILCS 2605/2605-595)
3 Sec. 2605-595. State Police Firearm Services Fund.
4 (a) There is created in the State treasury a special fund
5known as the State Police Firearm Services Fund. The Fund shall
6receive revenue under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act and
7Section 5 of the Firearm Owners Identification Card Act. The
8Fund may also receive revenue from grants, pass-through grants,
9donations, appropriations, and any other legal source.
10 (b) The Department of State Police may use moneys in the
11Fund to finance any of its lawful purposes, mandates,
12functions, and duties under the Firearm Owners Identification
13Card Act and the Firearm Concealed Carry Act, including the
14cost of sending notices of expiration of Firearm Owner's
15Identification Cards, concealed carry licenses, the prompt and
16efficient processing of applications under the Firearm Owners
17Identification Card Act and the Firearm Concealed Carry Act,
18the improved efficiency and reporting of the LEADS and federal
19NICS law enforcement data systems, and support for
20investigations required under these Acts and law. Any surplus
21funds beyond what is needed to comply with the aforementioned
22purposes shall be used by the Department to improve the Law
23Enforcement Agencies Data System (LEADS) and criminal history
24background check system.
25 (c) Investment income that is attributable to the

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1investment of moneys in the Fund shall be retained in the Fund
2for the uses specified in this Section.
3(Source: P.A. 98-63, eff. 7-9-13.)
4 (20 ILCS 2605/2605-600)
5 Sec. 2605-600 2605-595. Crimes Against Police Officers
6Advisory.
7 (a) For purposes of this Section:
8 "Attempt" has the meaning ascribed to that term in
9 Section 8-4 of the Criminal Code of 2012.
10 "Concealment of homicidal death" has the meaning
11 ascribed to that term in Section 9-3.4 of the Criminal Code
12 of 2012.
13 "First degree murder" has the meaning ascribed to that
14 term in Section 9-1 of the Criminal Code of 2012.
15 "Involuntary manslaughter" and "reckless homicide"
16 have the meanings ascribed to those terms in Section 9-3 of
17 the Criminal Code of 2012.
18 "Second degree murder" has the meaning ascribed to that
19 term in Section 9-2 of the Criminal Code of 2012.
20 (b) A coordinated program known as the Crimes Against
21Police Officers Advisory is established within the Department
22of State Police. The purpose of the Crimes Against Police
23Officers Advisory is to provide a regional system for the rapid
24dissemination of information regarding a person who is
25suspected of committing or attempting to commit any of the

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1offenses described in subsection (c).
2 (c) The Department of State Police shall develop an
3advisory to assist law enforcement agencies when the commission
4or attempted commission of the following offenses against a
5peace officer occur:
6 (1) first degree murder;
7 (2) second degree murder;
8 (3) involuntary manslaughter;
9 (4) reckless homicide; and
10 (5) concealment of homicidal death.
11 (d) Law enforcement agencies participating in the advisory
12may request assistance when:
13 (1) the agency believes that a suspect has not been
14 apprehended;
15 (2) the agency believes that the suspect may be a
16 serious threat to the public; and
17 (3) sufficient information is available to disseminate
18 to the public that could assist in locating the suspect.
19 (e) The Department of State Police shall reserve the
20authority to determine if dissemination of the information will
21pose a significant risk to the public or jeopardize the
22investigation.
23 (f) The Department of State Police may partner with media
24and may request a media broadcast concerning details of the
25suspect in order to obtain the public's assistance in locating
26the suspect or vehicle used in the offense, or both.

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1(Source: P.A. 98-263, eff. 1-1-14; revised 10-17-13.)
2 Section 105. The Criminal Identification Act is amended by
3changing Sections 4 and 5.2 as follows:
4 (20 ILCS 2630/4) (from Ch. 38, par. 206-4)
5 Sec. 4. The Department may use the following systems of
6identification: the Bertillon The Bertillion system, the
7finger print system, and any system of measurement or
8identification that may be adopted by law or rule in the
9various penal institutions or bureaus of identification
10wherever located.
11 The Department shall make a record consisting of duplicates
12of all measurements, processes, operations, signalletic cards,
13plates, photographs, outline pictures, measurements,
14descriptions of and data relating to all persons confined in
15penal institutions wherever located, so far as the same are
16obtainable, in accordance with whatever system or systems may
17be found most efficient and practical.
18(Source: Laws 1957, p. 1422; revised 9-4-13.)
19 (20 ILCS 2630/5.2)
20 Sec. 5.2. Expungement and sealing.
21 (a) General Provisions.
22 (1) Definitions. In this Act, words and phrases have
23 the meanings set forth in this subsection, except when a

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1 particular context clearly requires a different meaning.
2 (A) The following terms shall have the meanings
3 ascribed to them in the Unified Code of Corrections,
4 730 ILCS 5/5-1-2 through 5/5-1-22:
5 (i) Business Offense (730 ILCS 5/5-1-2),
6 (ii) Charge (730 ILCS 5/5-1-3),
7 (iii) Court (730 ILCS 5/5-1-6),
8 (iv) Defendant (730 ILCS 5/5-1-7),
9 (v) Felony (730 ILCS 5/5-1-9),
10 (vi) Imprisonment (730 ILCS 5/5-1-10),
11 (vii) Judgment (730 ILCS 5/5-1-12),
12 (viii) Misdemeanor (730 ILCS 5/5-1-14),
13 (ix) Offense (730 ILCS 5/5-1-15),
14 (x) Parole (730 ILCS 5/5-1-16),
15 (xi) Petty Offense (730 ILCS 5/5-1-17),
16 (xii) Probation (730 ILCS 5/5-1-18),
17 (xiii) Sentence (730 ILCS 5/5-1-19),
18 (xiv) Supervision (730 ILCS 5/5-1-21), and
19 (xv) Victim (730 ILCS 5/5-1-22).
20 (B) As used in this Section, "charge not initiated
21 by arrest" means a charge (as defined by 730 ILCS
22 5/5-1-3) brought against a defendant where the
23 defendant is not arrested prior to or as a direct
24 result of the charge.
25 (C) "Conviction" means a judgment of conviction or
26 sentence entered upon a plea of guilty or upon a

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1 verdict or finding of guilty of an offense, rendered by
2 a legally constituted jury or by a court of competent
3 jurisdiction authorized to try the case without a jury.
4 An order of supervision successfully completed by the
5 petitioner is not a conviction. An order of qualified
6 probation (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(J))
7 successfully completed by the petitioner is not a
8 conviction. An order of supervision or an order of
9 qualified probation that is terminated
10 unsatisfactorily is a conviction, unless the
11 unsatisfactory termination is reversed, vacated, or
12 modified and the judgment of conviction, if any, is
13 reversed or vacated.
14 (D) "Criminal offense" means a petty offense,
15 business offense, misdemeanor, felony, or municipal
16 ordinance violation (as defined in subsection
17 (a)(1)(H)). As used in this Section, a minor traffic
18 offense (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(G)) shall not
19 be considered a criminal offense.
20 (E) "Expunge" means to physically destroy the
21 records or return them to the petitioner and to
22 obliterate the petitioner's name from any official
23 index or public record, or both. Nothing in this Act
24 shall require the physical destruction of the circuit
25 court file, but such records relating to arrests or
26 charges, or both, ordered expunged shall be impounded

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1 as required by subsections (d)(9)(A)(ii) and
2 (d)(9)(B)(ii).
3 (F) As used in this Section, "last sentence" means
4 the sentence, order of supervision, or order of
5 qualified probation (as defined by subsection
6 (a)(1)(J)), for a criminal offense (as defined by
7 subsection (a)(1)(D)) that terminates last in time in
8 any jurisdiction, regardless of whether the petitioner
9 has included the criminal offense for which the
10 sentence or order of supervision or qualified
11 probation was imposed in his or her petition. If
12 multiple sentences, orders of supervision, or orders
13 of qualified probation terminate on the same day and
14 are last in time, they shall be collectively considered
15 the "last sentence" regardless of whether they were
16 ordered to run concurrently.
17 (G) "Minor traffic offense" means a petty offense,
18 business offense, or Class C misdemeanor under the
19 Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of a
20 municipal or local ordinance.
21 (H) "Municipal ordinance violation" means an
22 offense defined by a municipal or local ordinance that
23 is criminal in nature and with which the petitioner was
24 charged or for which the petitioner was arrested and
25 released without charging.
26 (I) "Petitioner" means an adult or a minor

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1 prosecuted as an adult who has applied for relief under
2 this Section.
3 (J) "Qualified probation" means an order of
4 probation under Section 10 of the Cannabis Control Act,
5 Section 410 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act,
6 Section 70 of the Methamphetamine Control and
7 Community Protection Act, Section 5-6-3.3 or 5-6-3.4
8 of the Unified Code of Corrections, Section
9 12-4.3(b)(1) and (2) of the Criminal Code of 1961 (as
10 those provisions existed before their deletion by
11 Public Act 89-313), Section 10-102 of the Illinois
12 Alcoholism and Other Drug Dependency Act, Section
13 40-10 of the Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and
14 Dependency Act, or Section 10 of the Steroid Control
15 Act. For the purpose of this Section, "successful
16 completion" of an order of qualified probation under
17 Section 10-102 of the Illinois Alcoholism and Other
18 Drug Dependency Act and Section 40-10 of the Alcoholism
19 and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act means that the
20 probation was terminated satisfactorily and the
21 judgment of conviction was vacated.
22 (K) "Seal" means to physically and electronically
23 maintain the records, unless the records would
24 otherwise be destroyed due to age, but to make the
25 records unavailable without a court order, subject to
26 the exceptions in Sections 12 and 13 of this Act. The

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1 petitioner's name shall also be obliterated from the
2 official index required to be kept by the circuit court
3 clerk under Section 16 of the Clerks of Courts Act, but
4 any index issued by the circuit court clerk before the
5 entry of the order to seal shall not be affected.
6 (L) "Sexual offense committed against a minor"
7 includes but is not limited to the offenses of indecent
8 solicitation of a child or criminal sexual abuse when
9 the victim of such offense is under 18 years of age.
10 (M) "Terminate" as it relates to a sentence or
11 order of supervision or qualified probation includes
12 either satisfactory or unsatisfactory termination of
13 the sentence, unless otherwise specified in this
14 Section.
15 (2) Minor Traffic Offenses. Orders of supervision or
16 convictions for minor traffic offenses shall not affect a
17 petitioner's eligibility to expunge or seal records
18 pursuant to this Section.
19 (3) Exclusions. Except as otherwise provided in
20 subsections (b)(5), (b)(6), (b)(8), (e), (e-5), and (e-6)
21 of this Section, the court shall not order:
22 (A) the sealing or expungement of the records of
23 arrests or charges not initiated by arrest that result
24 in an order of supervision for or conviction of: (i)
25 any sexual offense committed against a minor; (ii)
26 Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a

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1 similar provision of a local ordinance; or (iii)
2 Section 11-503 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a
3 similar provision of a local ordinance, unless the
4 arrest or charge is for a misdemeanor violation of
5 subsection (a) of Section 11-503 or a similar provision
6 of a local ordinance, that occurred prior to the
7 offender reaching the age of 25 years and the offender
8 has no other conviction for violating Section 11-501 or
9 11-503 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar
10 provision of a local ordinance.
11 (B) the sealing or expungement of records of minor
12 traffic offenses (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(G)),
13 unless the petitioner was arrested and released
14 without charging.
15 (C) the sealing of the records of arrests or
16 charges not initiated by arrest which result in an
17 order of supervision, an order of qualified probation
18 (as defined in subsection (a)(1)(J)), or a conviction
19 for the following offenses:
20 (i) offenses included in Article 11 of the
21 Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012
22 or a similar provision of a local ordinance, except
23 Section 11-14 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the
24 Criminal Code of 2012, or a similar provision of a
25 local ordinance;
26 (ii) Section 11-1.50, 12-3.4, 12-15, 12-30,

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1 26-5, or 48-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the
2 Criminal Code of 2012, or a similar provision of a
3 local ordinance;
4 (iii) offenses defined as "crimes of violence"
5 in Section 2 of the Crime Victims Compensation Act
6 or a similar provision of a local ordinance;
7 (iv) offenses which are Class A misdemeanors
8 under the Humane Care for Animals Act; or
9 (v) any offense or attempted offense that
10 would subject a person to registration under the
11 Sex Offender Registration Act.
12 (D) the sealing of the records of an arrest which
13 results in the petitioner being charged with a felony
14 offense or records of a charge not initiated by arrest
15 for a felony offense unless:
16 (i) the charge is amended to a misdemeanor and
17 is otherwise eligible to be sealed pursuant to
18 subsection (c);
19 (ii) the charge is brought along with another
20 charge as a part of one case and the charge results
21 in acquittal, dismissal, or conviction when the
22 conviction was reversed or vacated, and another
23 charge brought in the same case results in a
24 disposition for a misdemeanor offense that is
25 eligible to be sealed pursuant to subsection (c) or
26 a disposition listed in paragraph (i), (iii), or

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1 (iv) of this subsection;
2 (iii) the charge results in first offender
3 probation as set forth in subsection (c)(2)(E);
4 (iv) the charge is for a felony offense listed
5 in subsection (c)(2)(F) or the charge is amended to
6 a felony offense listed in subsection (c)(2)(F);
7 (v) the charge results in acquittal,
8 dismissal, or the petitioner's release without
9 conviction; or
10 (vi) the charge results in a conviction, but
11 the conviction was reversed or vacated.
12 (b) Expungement.
13 (1) A petitioner may petition the circuit court to
14 expunge the records of his or her arrests and charges not
15 initiated by arrest when:
16 (A) He or she has never been convicted of a
17 criminal offense; and
18 (B) Each arrest or charge not initiated by arrest
19 sought to be expunged resulted in: (i) acquittal,
20 dismissal, or the petitioner's release without
21 charging, unless excluded by subsection (a)(3)(B);
22 (ii) a conviction which was vacated or reversed, unless
23 excluded by subsection (a)(3)(B); (iii) an order of
24 supervision and such supervision was successfully
25 completed by the petitioner, unless excluded by
26 subsection (a)(3)(A) or (a)(3)(B); or (iv) an order of

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1 qualified probation (as defined in subsection
2 (a)(1)(J)) and such probation was successfully
3 completed by the petitioner.
4 (2) Time frame for filing a petition to expunge.
5 (A) When the arrest or charge not initiated by
6 arrest sought to be expunged resulted in an acquittal,
7 dismissal, the petitioner's release without charging,
8 or the reversal or vacation of a conviction, there is
9 no waiting period to petition for the expungement of
10 such records.
11 (B) When the arrest or charge not initiated by
12 arrest sought to be expunged resulted in an order of
13 supervision, successfully completed by the petitioner,
14 the following time frames will apply:
15 (i) Those arrests or charges that resulted in
16 orders of supervision under Section 3-707, 3-708,
17 3-710, or 5-401.3 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or a
18 similar provision of a local ordinance, or under
19 Section 11-1.50, 12-3.2, or 12-15 of the Criminal
20 Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or a
21 similar provision of a local ordinance, shall not
22 be eligible for expungement until 5 years have
23 passed following the satisfactory termination of
24 the supervision.
25 (i-5) Those arrests or charges that resulted
26 in orders of supervision for a misdemeanor

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1 violation of subsection (a) of Section 11-503 of
2 the Illinois Vehicle Code or a similar provision of
3 a local ordinance, that occurred prior to the
4 offender reaching the age of 25 years and the
5 offender has no other conviction for violating
6 Section 11-501 or 11-503 of the Illinois Vehicle
7 Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance
8 shall not be eligible for expungement until the
9 petitioner has reached the age of 25 years.
10 (ii) Those arrests or charges that resulted in
11 orders of supervision for any other offenses shall
12 not be eligible for expungement until 2 years have
13 passed following the satisfactory termination of
14 the supervision.
15 (C) When the arrest or charge not initiated by
16 arrest sought to be expunged resulted in an order of
17 qualified probation, successfully completed by the
18 petitioner, such records shall not be eligible for
19 expungement until 5 years have passed following the
20 satisfactory termination of the probation.
21 (3) Those records maintained by the Department for
22 persons arrested prior to their 17th birthday shall be
23 expunged as provided in Section 5-915 of the Juvenile Court
24 Act of 1987.
25 (4) Whenever a person has been arrested for or
26 convicted of any offense, in the name of a person whose

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1 identity he or she has stolen or otherwise come into
2 possession of, the aggrieved person from whom the identity
3 was stolen or otherwise obtained without authorization,
4 upon learning of the person having been arrested using his
5 or her identity, may, upon verified petition to the chief
6 judge of the circuit wherein the arrest was made, have a
7 court order entered nunc pro tunc by the Chief Judge to
8 correct the arrest record, conviction record, if any, and
9 all official records of the arresting authority, the
10 Department, other criminal justice agencies, the
11 prosecutor, and the trial court concerning such arrest, if
12 any, by removing his or her name from all such records in
13 connection with the arrest and conviction, if any, and by
14 inserting in the records the name of the offender, if known
15 or ascertainable, in lieu of the aggrieved's name. The
16 records of the circuit court clerk shall be sealed until
17 further order of the court upon good cause shown and the
18 name of the aggrieved person obliterated on the official
19 index required to be kept by the circuit court clerk under
20 Section 16 of the Clerks of Courts Act, but the order shall
21 not affect any index issued by the circuit court clerk
22 before the entry of the order. Nothing in this Section
23 shall limit the Department of State Police or other
24 criminal justice agencies or prosecutors from listing
25 under an offender's name the false names he or she has
26 used.

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1 (5) Whenever a person has been convicted of criminal
2 sexual assault, aggravated criminal sexual assault,
3 predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, criminal
4 sexual abuse, or aggravated criminal sexual abuse, the
5 victim of that offense may request that the State's
6 Attorney of the county in which the conviction occurred
7 file a verified petition with the presiding trial judge at
8 the petitioner's trial to have a court order entered to
9 seal the records of the circuit court clerk in connection
10 with the proceedings of the trial court concerning that
11 offense. However, the records of the arresting authority
12 and the Department of State Police concerning the offense
13 shall not be sealed. The court, upon good cause shown,
14 shall make the records of the circuit court clerk in
15 connection with the proceedings of the trial court
16 concerning the offense available for public inspection.
17 (6) If a conviction has been set aside on direct review
18 or on collateral attack and the court determines by clear
19 and convincing evidence that the petitioner was factually
20 innocent of the charge, the court that finds the petitioner
21 factually innocent of the charge shall enter an expungement
22 order for the conviction for which the petitioner has been
23 determined to be innocent as provided in subsection (b) of
24 Section 5-5-4 of the Unified Code of Corrections.
25 (7) Nothing in this Section shall prevent the
26 Department of State Police from maintaining all records of

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1 any person who is admitted to probation upon terms and
2 conditions and who fulfills those terms and conditions
3 pursuant to Section 10 of the Cannabis Control Act, Section
4 410 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, Section 70
5 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection
6 Act, Section 5-6-3.3 or 5-6-3.4 of the Unified Code of
7 Corrections, Section 12-4.3 or subdivision (b)(1) of
8 Section 12-3.05 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the
9 Criminal Code of 2012, Section 10-102 of the Illinois
10 Alcoholism and Other Drug Dependency Act, Section 40-10 of
11 the Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act, or
12 Section 10 of the Steroid Control Act.
13 (8) If the petitioner has been granted a certificate of
14 innocence under Section 2-702 of the Code of Civil
15 Procedure, the court that grants the certificate of
16 innocence shall also enter an order expunging the
17 conviction for which the petitioner has been determined to
18 be innocent as provided in subsection (h) of Section 2-702
19 of the Code of Civil Procedure.
20 (c) Sealing.
21 (1) Applicability. Notwithstanding any other provision
22 of this Act to the contrary, and cumulative with any rights
23 to expungement of criminal records, this subsection
24 authorizes the sealing of criminal records of adults and of
25 minors prosecuted as adults.
26 (2) Eligible Records. The following records may be

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1 sealed:
2 (A) All arrests resulting in release without
3 charging;
4 (B) Arrests or charges not initiated by arrest
5 resulting in acquittal, dismissal, or conviction when
6 the conviction was reversed or vacated, except as
7 excluded by subsection (a)(3)(B);
8 (C) Arrests or charges not initiated by arrest
9 resulting in orders of supervision successfully
10 completed by the petitioner, unless excluded by
11 subsection (a)(3);
12 (D) Arrests or charges not initiated by arrest
13 resulting in convictions unless excluded by subsection
14 (a)(3);
15 (E) Arrests or charges not initiated by arrest
16 resulting in orders of first offender probation under
17 Section 10 of the Cannabis Control Act, Section 410 of
18 the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, Section 70 of
19 the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection
20 Act, or Section 5-6-3.3 of the Unified Code of
21 Corrections; and
22 (F) Arrests or charges not initiated by arrest
23 resulting in felony convictions for the following
24 offenses:
25 (i) Class 4 felony convictions for:
26 Prostitution under Section 11-14 of the

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1 Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of
2 2012.
3 Possession of cannabis under Section 4 of
4 the Cannabis Control Act.
5 Possession of a controlled substance under
6 Section 402 of the Illinois Controlled
7 Substances Act.
8 Offenses under the Methamphetamine
9 Precursor Control Act.
10 Offenses under the Steroid Control Act.
11 Theft under Section 16-1 of the Criminal
12 Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.
13 Retail theft under Section 16A-3 or
14 paragraph (a) of 16-25 of the Criminal Code of
15 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.
16 Deceptive practices under Section 17-1 of
17 the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code
18 of 2012.
19 Forgery under Section 17-3 of the Criminal
20 Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.
21 Possession of burglary tools under Section
22 19-2 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the
23 Criminal Code of 2012.
24 (ii) Class 3 felony convictions for:
25 Theft under Section 16-1 of the Criminal
26 Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.

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1 Retail theft under Section 16A-3 or
2 paragraph (a) of 16-25 of the Criminal Code of
3 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.
4 Deceptive practices under Section 17-1 of
5 the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code
6 of 2012.
7 Forgery under Section 17-3 of the Criminal
8 Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.
9 Possession with intent to manufacture or
10 deliver a controlled substance under Section
11 401 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act.
12 (3) When Records Are Eligible to Be Sealed. Records
13 identified as eligible under subsection (c)(2) may be
14 sealed as follows:
15 (A) Records identified as eligible under
16 subsection (c)(2)(A) and (c)(2)(B) may be sealed at any
17 time.
18 (B) Records identified as eligible under
19 subsection (c)(2)(C) may be sealed (i) 3 years after
20 the termination of petitioner's last sentence (as
21 defined in subsection (a)(1)(F)) if the petitioner has
22 never been convicted of a criminal offense (as defined
23 in subsection (a)(1)(D)); or (ii) 4 years after the
24 termination of the petitioner's last sentence (as
25 defined in subsection (a)(1)(F)) if the petitioner has
26 ever been convicted of a criminal offense (as defined

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1 in subsection (a)(1)(D)).
2 (C) Records identified as eligible under
3 subsections (c)(2)(D), (c)(2)(E), and (c)(2)(F) may be
4 sealed 4 years after the termination of the
5 petitioner's last sentence (as defined in subsection
6 (a)(1)(F)).
7 (D) Records identified in subsection
8 (a)(3)(A)(iii) may be sealed after the petitioner has
9 reached the age of 25 years.
10 (4) Subsequent felony convictions. A person may not
11 have subsequent felony conviction records sealed as
12 provided in this subsection (c) if he or she is convicted
13 of any felony offense after the date of the sealing of
14 prior felony convictions as provided in this subsection
15 (c). The court may, upon conviction for a subsequent felony
16 offense, order the unsealing of prior felony conviction
17 records previously ordered sealed by the court.
18 (5) Notice of eligibility for sealing. Upon entry of a
19 disposition for an eligible record under this subsection
20 (c), the petitioner shall be informed by the court of the
21 right to have the records sealed and the procedures for the
22 sealing of the records.
23 (d) Procedure. The following procedures apply to
24expungement under subsections (b), (e), and (e-6) and sealing
25under subsections (c) and (e-5):
26 (1) Filing the petition. Upon becoming eligible to

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1 petition for the expungement or sealing of records under
2 this Section, the petitioner shall file a petition
3 requesting the expungement or sealing of records with the
4 clerk of the court where the arrests occurred or the
5 charges were brought, or both. If arrests occurred or
6 charges were brought in multiple jurisdictions, a petition
7 must be filed in each such jurisdiction. The petitioner
8 shall pay the applicable fee, if not waived.
9 (2) Contents of petition. The petition shall be
10 verified and shall contain the petitioner's name, date of
11 birth, current address and, for each arrest or charge not
12 initiated by arrest sought to be sealed or expunged, the
13 case number, the date of arrest (if any), the identity of
14 the arresting authority, and such other information as the
15 court may require. During the pendency of the proceeding,
16 the petitioner shall promptly notify the circuit court
17 clerk of any change of his or her address. If the
18 petitioner has received a certificate of eligibility for
19 sealing from the Prisoner Review Board under paragraph (10)
20 of subsection (a) of Section 3-3-2 of the Unified Code of
21 Corrections, the certificate shall be attached to the
22 petition.
23 (3) Drug test. The petitioner must attach to the
24 petition proof that the petitioner has passed a test taken
25 within 30 days before the filing of the petition showing
26 the absence within his or her body of all illegal

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1 substances as defined by the Illinois Controlled
2 Substances Act, the Methamphetamine Control and Community
3 Protection Act, and the Cannabis Control Act if he or she
4 is petitioning to:
5 (A) seal felony records under clause (c)(2)(E);
6 (B) seal felony records for a violation of the
7 Illinois Controlled Substances Act, the
8 Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act,
9 or the Cannabis Control Act under clause (c)(2)(F);
10 (C) seal felony records under subsection (e-5); or
11 (D) expunge felony records of a qualified
12 probation under clause (b)(1)(B)(iv).
13 (4) Service of petition. The circuit court clerk shall
14 promptly serve a copy of the petition and documentation to
15 support the petition under subsection (e), (e-5), or (e-6)
16 on the State's Attorney or prosecutor charged with the duty
17 of prosecuting the offense, the Department of State Police,
18 the arresting agency and the chief legal officer of the
19 unit of local government effecting the arrest.
20 (5) Objections.
21 (A) Any party entitled to notice of the petition
22 may file an objection to the petition. All objections
23 shall be in writing, shall be filed with the circuit
24 court clerk, and shall state with specificity the basis
25 of the objection.
26 (B) Objections to a petition to expunge or seal

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1 must be filed within 60 days of the date of service of
2 the petition.
3 (6) Entry of order.
4 (A) The Chief Judge of the circuit wherein the
5 charge was brought, any judge of that circuit
6 designated by the Chief Judge, or in counties of less
7 than 3,000,000 inhabitants, the presiding trial judge
8 at the petitioner's trial, if any, shall rule on the
9 petition to expunge or seal as set forth in this
10 subsection (d)(6).
11 (B) Unless the State's Attorney or prosecutor, the
12 Department of State Police, the arresting agency, or
13 the chief legal officer files an objection to the
14 petition to expunge or seal within 60 days from the
15 date of service of the petition, the court shall enter
16 an order granting or denying the petition.
17 (7) Hearings. If an objection is filed, the court shall
18 set a date for a hearing and notify the petitioner and all
19 parties entitled to notice of the petition of the hearing
20 date at least 30 days prior to the hearing. Prior to the
21 hearing, the State's Attorney shall consult with the
22 Department as to the appropriateness of the relief sought
23 in the petition to expunge or seal. At the hearing, the
24 court shall hear evidence on whether the petition should or
25 should not be granted, and shall grant or deny the petition
26 to expunge or seal the records based on the evidence

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1 presented at the hearing. The court may consider the
2 following:
3 (A) the strength of the evidence supporting the
4 defendant's conviction;
5 (B) the reasons for retention of the conviction
6 records by the State;
7 (C) the petitioner's age, criminal record history,
8 and employment history;
9 (D) the period of time between the petitioner's
10 arrest on the charge resulting in the conviction and
11 the filing of the petition under this Section; and
12 (E) the specific adverse consequences the
13 petitioner may be subject to if the petition is denied.
14 (8) Service of order. After entering an order to
15 expunge or seal records, the court must provide copies of
16 the order to the Department, in a form and manner
17 prescribed by the Department, to the petitioner, to the
18 State's Attorney or prosecutor charged with the duty of
19 prosecuting the offense, to the arresting agency, to the
20 chief legal officer of the unit of local government
21 effecting the arrest, and to such other criminal justice
22 agencies as may be ordered by the court.
23 (9) Implementation of order.
24 (A) Upon entry of an order to expunge records
25 pursuant to (b)(2)(A) or (b)(2)(B)(ii), or both:
26 (i) the records shall be expunged (as defined

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1 in subsection (a)(1)(E)) by the arresting agency,
2 the Department, and any other agency as ordered by
3 the court, within 60 days of the date of service of
4 the order, unless a motion to vacate, modify, or
5 reconsider the order is filed pursuant to
6 paragraph (12) of subsection (d) of this Section;
7 (ii) the records of the circuit court clerk
8 shall be impounded until further order of the court
9 upon good cause shown and the name of the
10 petitioner obliterated on the official index
11 required to be kept by the circuit court clerk
12 under Section 16 of the Clerks of Courts Act, but
13 the order shall not affect any index issued by the
14 circuit court clerk before the entry of the order;
15 and
16 (iii) in response to an inquiry for expunged
17 records, the court, the Department, or the agency
18 receiving such inquiry, shall reply as it does in
19 response to inquiries when no records ever
20 existed.
21 (B) Upon entry of an order to expunge records
22 pursuant to (b)(2)(B)(i) or (b)(2)(C), or both:
23 (i) the records shall be expunged (as defined
24 in subsection (a)(1)(E)) by the arresting agency
25 and any other agency as ordered by the court,
26 within 60 days of the date of service of the order,

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1 unless a motion to vacate, modify, or reconsider
2 the order is filed pursuant to paragraph (12) of
3 subsection (d) of this Section;
4 (ii) the records of the circuit court clerk
5 shall be impounded until further order of the court
6 upon good cause shown and the name of the
7 petitioner obliterated on the official index
8 required to be kept by the circuit court clerk
9 under Section 16 of the Clerks of Courts Act, but
10 the order shall not affect any index issued by the
11 circuit court clerk before the entry of the order;
12 (iii) the records shall be impounded by the
13 Department within 60 days of the date of service of
14 the order as ordered by the court, unless a motion
15 to vacate, modify, or reconsider the order is filed
16 pursuant to paragraph (12) of subsection (d) of
17 this Section;
18 (iv) records impounded by the Department may
19 be disseminated by the Department only as required
20 by law or to the arresting authority, the State's
21 Attorney, and the court upon a later arrest for the
22 same or a similar offense or for the purpose of
23 sentencing for any subsequent felony, and to the
24 Department of Corrections upon conviction for any
25 offense; and
26 (v) in response to an inquiry for such records

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1 from anyone not authorized by law to access such
2 records, the court, the Department, or the agency
3 receiving such inquiry shall reply as it does in
4 response to inquiries when no records ever
5 existed.
6 (B-5) Upon entry of an order to expunge records
7 under subsection (e-6):
8 (i) the records shall be expunged (as defined
9 in subsection (a)(1)(E)) by the arresting agency
10 and any other agency as ordered by the court,
11 within 60 days of the date of service of the order,
12 unless a motion to vacate, modify, or reconsider
13 the order is filed under paragraph (12) of
14 subsection (d) of this Section;
15 (ii) the records of the circuit court clerk
16 shall be impounded until further order of the court
17 upon good cause shown and the name of the
18 petitioner obliterated on the official index
19 required to be kept by the circuit court clerk
20 under Section 16 of the Clerks of Courts Act, but
21 the order shall not affect any index issued by the
22 circuit court clerk before the entry of the order;
23 (iii) the records shall be impounded by the
24 Department within 60 days of the date of service of
25 the order as ordered by the court, unless a motion
26 to vacate, modify, or reconsider the order is filed

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1 under paragraph (12) of subsection (d) of this
2 Section;
3 (iv) records impounded by the Department may
4 be disseminated by the Department only as required
5 by law or to the arresting authority, the State's
6 Attorney, and the court upon a later arrest for the
7 same or a similar offense or for the purpose of
8 sentencing for any subsequent felony, and to the
9 Department of Corrections upon conviction for any
10 offense; and
11 (v) in response to an inquiry for these records
12 from anyone not authorized by law to access the
13 records, the court, the Department, or the agency
14 receiving the inquiry shall reply as it does in
15 response to inquiries when no records ever
16 existed.
17 (C) Upon entry of an order to seal records under
18 subsection (c), the arresting agency, any other agency
19 as ordered by the court, the Department, and the court
20 shall seal the records (as defined in subsection
21 (a)(1)(K)). In response to an inquiry for such records
22 from anyone not authorized by law to access such
23 records, the court, the Department, or the agency
24 receiving such inquiry shall reply as it does in
25 response to inquiries when no records ever existed.
26 (D) The Department shall send written notice to the

09800SB2640ham001- 186 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 petitioner of its compliance with each order to expunge
2 or seal records within 60 days of the date of service
3 of that order or, if a motion to vacate, modify, or
4 reconsider is filed, within 60 days of service of the
5 order resolving the motion, if that order requires the
6 Department to expunge or seal records. In the event of
7 an appeal from the circuit court order, the Department
8 shall send written notice to the petitioner of its
9 compliance with an Appellate Court or Supreme Court
10 judgment to expunge or seal records within 60 days of
11 the issuance of the court's mandate. The notice is not
12 required while any motion to vacate, modify, or
13 reconsider, or any appeal or petition for
14 discretionary appellate review, is pending.
15 (10) Fees. The Department may charge the petitioner a
16 fee equivalent to the cost of processing any order to
17 expunge or seal records. Notwithstanding any provision of
18 the Clerks of Courts Act to the contrary, the circuit court
19 clerk may charge a fee equivalent to the cost associated
20 with the sealing or expungement of records by the circuit
21 court clerk. From the total filing fee collected for the
22 petition to seal or expunge, the circuit court clerk shall
23 deposit $10 into the Circuit Court Clerk Operation and
24 Administrative Fund, to be used to offset the costs
25 incurred by the circuit court clerk in performing the
26 additional duties required to serve the petition to seal or

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1 expunge on all parties. The circuit court clerk shall
2 collect and forward the Department of State Police portion
3 of the fee to the Department and it shall be deposited in
4 the State Police Services Fund.
5 (11) Final Order. No court order issued under the
6 expungement or sealing provisions of this Section shall
7 become final for purposes of appeal until 30 days after
8 service of the order on the petitioner and all parties
9 entitled to notice of the petition.
10 (12) Motion to Vacate, Modify, or Reconsider. Under
11 Section 2-1203 of the Code of Civil Procedure, the
12 petitioner or any party entitled to notice may file a
13 motion to vacate, modify, or reconsider the order granting
14 or denying the petition to expunge or seal within 60 days
15 of service of the order. If filed more than 60 days after
16 service of the order, a petition to vacate, modify, or
17 reconsider shall comply with subsection (c) of Section
18 2-1401 of the Code of Civil Procedure. Upon filing of a
19 motion to vacate, modify, or reconsider, notice of the
20 motion shall be served upon the petitioner and all parties
21 entitled to notice of the petition.
22 (13) Effect of Order. An order granting a petition
23 under the expungement or sealing provisions of this Section
24 shall not be considered void because it fails to comply
25 with the provisions of this Section or because of any error
26 asserted in a motion to vacate, modify, or reconsider. The

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1 circuit court retains jurisdiction to determine whether
2 the order is voidable and to vacate, modify, or reconsider
3 its terms based on a motion filed under paragraph (12) of
4 this subsection (d).
5 (14) Compliance with Order Granting Petition to Seal
6 Records. Unless a court has entered a stay of an order
7 granting a petition to seal, all parties entitled to notice
8 of the petition must fully comply with the terms of the
9 order within 60 days of service of the order even if a
10 party is seeking relief from the order through a motion
11 filed under paragraph (12) of this subsection (d) or is
12 appealing the order.
13 (15) Compliance with Order Granting Petition to
14 Expunge Records. While a party is seeking relief from the
15 order granting the petition to expunge through a motion
16 filed under paragraph (12) of this subsection (d) or is
17 appealing the order, and unless a court has entered a stay
18 of that order, the parties entitled to notice of the
19 petition must seal, but need not expunge, the records until
20 there is a final order on the motion for relief or, in the
21 case of an appeal, the issuance of that court's mandate.
22 (16) The changes to this subsection (d) made by Public
23 Act 98-163 this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly
24 apply to all petitions pending on August 5, 2013 (the
25 effective date of Public Act 98-163) this amendatory Act of
26 the 98th General Assembly and to all orders ruling on a

09800SB2640ham001- 189 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 petition to expunge or seal on or after August 5, 2013 (the
2 effective date of Public Act 98-163) this amendatory Act of
3 the 98th General Assembly.
4 (e) Whenever a person who has been convicted of an offense
5is granted a pardon by the Governor which specifically
6authorizes expungement, he or she may, upon verified petition
7to the Chief Judge of the circuit where the person had been
8convicted, any judge of the circuit designated by the Chief
9Judge, or in counties of less than 3,000,000 inhabitants, the
10presiding trial judge at the defendant's trial, have a court
11order entered expunging the record of arrest from the official
12records of the arresting authority and order that the records
13of the circuit court clerk and the Department be sealed until
14further order of the court upon good cause shown or as
15otherwise provided herein, and the name of the defendant
16obliterated from the official index requested to be kept by the
17circuit court clerk under Section 16 of the Clerks of Courts
18Act in connection with the arrest and conviction for the
19offense for which he or she had been pardoned but the order
20shall not affect any index issued by the circuit court clerk
21before the entry of the order. All records sealed by the
22Department may be disseminated by the Department only to the
23arresting authority, the State's Attorney, and the court upon a
24later arrest for the same or similar offense or for the purpose
25of sentencing for any subsequent felony. Upon conviction for
26any subsequent offense, the Department of Corrections shall

09800SB2640ham001- 190 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1have access to all sealed records of the Department pertaining
2to that individual. Upon entry of the order of expungement, the
3circuit court clerk shall promptly mail a copy of the order to
4the person who was pardoned.
5 (e-5) Whenever a person who has been convicted of an
6offense is granted a certificate of eligibility for sealing by
7the Prisoner Review Board which specifically authorizes
8sealing, he or she may, upon verified petition to the Chief
9Judge of the circuit where the person had been convicted, any
10judge of the circuit designated by the Chief Judge, or in
11counties of less than 3,000,000 inhabitants, the presiding
12trial judge at the petitioner's trial, have a court order
13entered sealing the record of arrest from the official records
14of the arresting authority and order that the records of the
15circuit court clerk and the Department be sealed until further
16order of the court upon good cause shown or as otherwise
17provided herein, and the name of the petitioner obliterated
18from the official index requested to be kept by the circuit
19court clerk under Section 16 of the Clerks of Courts Act in
20connection with the arrest and conviction for the offense for
21which he or she had been granted the certificate but the order
22shall not affect any index issued by the circuit court clerk
23before the entry of the order. All records sealed by the
24Department may be disseminated by the Department only as
25required by this Act or to the arresting authority, a law
26enforcement agency, the State's Attorney, and the court upon a

09800SB2640ham001- 191 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1later arrest for the same or similar offense or for the purpose
2of sentencing for any subsequent felony. Upon conviction for
3any subsequent offense, the Department of Corrections shall
4have access to all sealed records of the Department pertaining
5to that individual. Upon entry of the order of sealing, the
6circuit court clerk shall promptly mail a copy of the order to
7the person who was granted the certificate of eligibility for
8sealing.
9 (e-6) Whenever a person who has been convicted of an
10offense is granted a certificate of eligibility for expungement
11by the Prisoner Review Board which specifically authorizes
12expungement, he or she may, upon verified petition to the Chief
13Judge of the circuit where the person had been convicted, any
14judge of the circuit designated by the Chief Judge, or in
15counties of less than 3,000,000 inhabitants, the presiding
16trial judge at the petitioner's trial, have a court order
17entered expunging the record of arrest from the official
18records of the arresting authority and order that the records
19of the circuit court clerk and the Department be sealed until
20further order of the court upon good cause shown or as
21otherwise provided herein, and the name of the petitioner
22obliterated from the official index requested to be kept by the
23circuit court clerk under Section 16 of the Clerks of Courts
24Act in connection with the arrest and conviction for the
25offense for which he or she had been granted the certificate
26but the order shall not affect any index issued by the circuit

09800SB2640ham001- 192 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1court clerk before the entry of the order. All records sealed
2by the Department may be disseminated by the Department only as
3required by this Act or to the arresting authority, a law
4enforcement agency, the State's Attorney, and the court upon a
5later arrest for the same or similar offense or for the purpose
6of sentencing for any subsequent felony. Upon conviction for
7any subsequent offense, the Department of Corrections shall
8have access to all expunged records of the Department
9pertaining to that individual. Upon entry of the order of
10expungement, the circuit court clerk shall promptly mail a copy
11of the order to the person who was granted the certificate of
12eligibility for expungement.
13 (f) Subject to available funding, the Illinois Department
14of Corrections shall conduct a study of the impact of sealing,
15especially on employment and recidivism rates, utilizing a
16random sample of those who apply for the sealing of their
17criminal records under Public Act 93-211. At the request of the
18Illinois Department of Corrections, records of the Illinois
19Department of Employment Security shall be utilized as
20appropriate to assist in the study. The study shall not
21disclose any data in a manner that would allow the
22identification of any particular individual or employing unit.
23The study shall be made available to the General Assembly no
24later than September 1, 2010.
25(Source: P.A. 97-443, eff. 8-19-11; 97-698, eff. 1-1-13;
2697-1026, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1109, eff.

09800SB2640ham001- 193 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
11-1-13; 97-1118, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1120, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1150,
2eff. 1-25-13; 98-133, eff. 1-1-14; 98-142, eff. 1-1-14; 98-163,
3eff. 8-5-13; 98-164, eff. 1-1-14; 98-399, eff. 8-16-13; revised
49-4-13.)
5 Section 110. The Governor's Office of Management and Budget
6Act is amended by changing Section 2.7 as follows:
7 (20 ILCS 3005/2.7)
8 Sec. 2.7. Securities information. To assist those entities
9underwriting securities that are payable from State
10appropriations, whether issued by the State or by others, by
11providing financial and other information regarding the State
12to securities investors, nationally recognized securities
13information repositories, or the federal Municipal Securities
14Rulemaking Board, and to any State information depository as
15required by the federal Securities and Exchange Act of 1934 and
16the rules promulgated thereunder. The Governor's Office of
17Management and Budget is the only State office authorized to
18provide such information.
19(Source: P.A. 93-25, eff. 6-20-03; revised 9-4-13.)
20 Section 115. The Capital Development Board Act is amended
21by changing Section 14 as follows:
22 (20 ILCS 3105/14) (from Ch. 127, par. 783.01)

09800SB2640ham001- 194 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 Sec. 14. (a) It is the purpose of this Act to provide for
2the promotion and preservation of the arts by securing suitable
3works of art for the adornment of public buildings constructed
4or subjected to major renovation by the State or which utilize
5State funds, and thereby reflecting the diverse cultural
6heritage of Illinois, with emphasis on the works of Illinois
7artists.
8 (b) As used in this Act, "works : "Works of art" shall apply
9to and include paintings, prints, sculptures, graphics, mural
10decorations, stained glass, statues, bas reliefs, ornaments,
11fountains, ornamental gateways, or other creative works which
12reflect form, beauty and aesthetic perceptions.
13 (c) Beginning with the fiscal year ending June 30, 1979,
14and for each succeeding fiscal year thereafter, for
15construction projects managed by the Capital Development
16Board, the Capital Development Board shall set aside 1/2 of 1
17percent of the amount authorized and appropriated for
18construction or reconstruction of each public building
19financed in whole or in part by State funds and generally
20accessible to and used by the public for purchase and placement
21of suitable works of art in such public buildings. The location
22and character of the work or works of art to be installed in
23such public buildings shall be determined by the Chairperson of
24the Illinois Arts Council, in consultation with the designing
25architect. The work or works of art shall be in a permanent and
26prominent location..

09800SB2640ham001- 195 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 (d) There is created a Fine Arts Review Committee
2consisting of the designing architect, the Chairperson of the
3Illinois Arts Council or his or her designee, who shall serve
4as the chair of the Committee, the Director of the Illinois
5State Museum or his or her designee, and a representative of
6the using agency. The Committee, after such study as it deems
7necessary, shall recommend three artists or works of art in
8order of preference. The Chairperson of the Illinois Arts
9Council will make the final selection from among the
10recommendations submitted. The Illinois Arts Council shall
11provide administrative support for the Fine Arts Review
12Committee and may promulgate rules to implement this
13subsection.
14 (e) Subsection (c) does not apply to construction projects
15for which the amount appropriated is less than $1,000,000.
16 (f) The Capital Development Board shall enter into a
17contract with the artist, or with the owner of the work or
18works of art, selected by the Chairperson of the Illinois Arts
19Council as provided in subsection (d) of this Section. The
20total amount of the contract or contracts shall not exceed the
21amount set aside pursuant to subsection (c) of this Section. If
22the Capital Development Board cannot reach an agreement with
23the artist or owner of the work or works of art, then the Board
24shall notify the Chairperson of the Illinois Arts Council, and
25the Chairperson may select a different artist or work or works
26of art from the three recommendations made by the Fine Arts

09800SB2640ham001- 196 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1Review Committee.
2(Source: P.A. 98-572, eff. 1-1-14; revised 11-12-13.)
3 Section 120. The Illinois Emergency Management Agency Act
4is amended by changing Section 21 as follows:
5 (20 ILCS 3305/21) (from Ch. 127, par. 1071)
6 Sec. 21. No Private Liability.
7 (a) Any person owning or controlling real estate or other
8premises who voluntarily and without compensation grants a
9license or privilege, or otherwise permits the designation or
10use of the whole or any part or parts of such real estate or
11premises for the purpose of sheltering persons during an actual
12or impending disaster, or an a exercise together with his or
13her successors in interest, if any, shall not be civilly liable
14for negligently causing the death of, or injury to, any person
15on or about such real estate or premises under such license,
16privilege or other permission, or for negligently causing loss
17of, or damage to, the property of such person.
18 (b) Any private person, firm or corporation and employees
19and agents of such person, firm or corporation in the
20performance of a contract with, and under the direction of, the
21State, or any political subdivision of the State under the
22provisions of this Act shall not be civilly liable for causing
23the death of, or injury to, any person or damage to any
24property except in the event of willful misconduct.

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1 (c) Any private person, firm or corporation, and any
2employee or agent of such person, firm or corporation, who
3renders assistance or advice at the request of the State, or
4any political subdivision of the State under this Act during an
5actual or impending disaster, shall not be civilly liable for
6causing the death of, or injury to, any person or damage to any
7property except in the event of willful misconduct.
8 The immunities provided in this subsection (c) shall not
9apply to any private person, firm or corporation, or to any
10employee or agent of such person, firm or corporation whose act
11or omission caused in whole or in part such actual or impending
12disaster and who would otherwise be liable therefor.
13(Source: P.A. 92-73, eff. 1-1-02; revised 10-7-13.)
14 Section 125. The Illinois Finance Authority Act is amended
15by changing Section 801-10 as follows:
16 (20 ILCS 3501/801-10)
17 Sec. 801-10. Definitions. The following terms, whenever
18used or referred to in this Act, shall have the following
19meanings, except in such instances where the context may
20clearly indicate otherwise:
21 (a) The term "Authority" means the Illinois Finance
22Authority created by this Act.
23 (b) The term "project" means an industrial project,
24conservation project, housing project, public purpose project,

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1higher education project, health facility project, cultural
2institution project, municipal bond program project,
3agricultural facility or agribusiness, and "project" may
4include any combination of one or more of the foregoing
5undertaken jointly by any person with one or more other
6persons.
7 (c) The term "public purpose project" means any project or
8facility, including without limitation land, buildings,
9structures, machinery, equipment and all other real and
10personal property, which is authorized or required by law to be
11acquired, constructed, improved, rehabilitated, reconstructed,
12replaced or maintained by any unit of government or any other
13lawful public purpose which is authorized or required by law to
14be undertaken by any unit of government.
15 (d) The term "industrial project" means the acquisition,
16construction, refurbishment, creation, development or
17redevelopment of any facility, equipment, machinery, real
18property or personal property for use by any instrumentality of
19the State or its political subdivisions, for use by any person
20or institution, public or private, for profit or not for
21profit, or for use in any trade or business, including, but not
22limited to, any industrial, manufacturing or commercial
23enterprise that is located within or outside the State,
24provided that, with respect to a project involving property
25located outside the State, the property must be owned,
26operated, leased or managed by an entity located within the

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1State or an entity affiliated with an entity located within the
2State, and which is (1) a capital project, including, but not
3limited to: (i) land and any rights therein, one or more
4buildings, structures or other improvements, machinery and
5equipment, whether now existing or hereafter acquired, and
6whether or not located on the same site or sites; (ii) all
7appurtenances and facilities incidental to the foregoing,
8including, but not limited to, utilities, access roads,
9railroad sidings, track, docking and similar facilities,
10parking facilities, dockage, wharfage, railroad roadbed,
11track, trestle, depot, terminal, switching and signaling or
12related equipment, site preparation and landscaping; and (iii)
13all non-capital costs and expenses relating thereto or (2) any
14addition to, renovation, rehabilitation or improvement of a
15capital project or (3) any activity or undertaking within or
16outside the State, provided that, with respect to a project
17involving property located outside the State, the property must
18be owned, operated, leased or managed by an entity located
19within the State or an entity affiliated with an entity located
20within the State, which the Authority determines will aid,
21assist or encourage economic growth, development or
22redevelopment within the State or any area thereof, will
23promote the expansion, retention or diversification of
24employment opportunities within the State or any area thereof
25or will aid in stabilizing or developing any industry or
26economic sector of the State economy. The term "industrial

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1project" also means the production of motion pictures.
2 (e) The term "bond" or "bonds" shall include bonds, notes
3(including bond, grant or revenue anticipation notes),
4certificates and/or other evidences of indebtedness
5representing an obligation to pay money, including refunding
6bonds.
7 (f) The terms "lease agreement" and "loan agreement" shall
8mean: (i) an agreement whereby a project acquired by the
9Authority by purchase, gift or lease is leased to any person,
10corporation or unit of local government which will use or cause
11the project to be used as a project as heretofore defined upon
12terms providing for lease rental payments at least sufficient
13to pay when due all principal of, interest and premium, if any,
14on any bonds of the Authority issued with respect to such
15project, providing for the maintenance, insuring and operation
16of the project on terms satisfactory to the Authority,
17providing for disposition of the project upon termination of
18the lease term, including purchase options or abandonment of
19the premises, and such other terms as may be deemed desirable
20by the Authority, or (ii) any agreement pursuant to which the
21Authority agrees to loan the proceeds of its bonds issued with
22respect to a project or other funds of the Authority to any
23person which will use or cause the project to be used as a
24project as heretofore defined upon terms providing for loan
25repayment installments at least sufficient to pay when due all
26principal of, interest and premium, if any, on any bonds of the

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1Authority, if any, issued with respect to the project, and
2providing for maintenance, insurance and other matters as may
3be deemed desirable by the Authority.
4 (g) The term "financial aid" means the expenditure of
5Authority funds or funds provided by the Authority through the
6issuance of its bonds, notes or other evidences of indebtedness
7or from other sources for the development, construction,
8acquisition or improvement of a project.
9 (h) The term "person" means an individual, corporation,
10unit of government, business trust, estate, trust, partnership
11or association, 2 or more persons having a joint or common
12interest, or any other legal entity.
13 (i) The term "unit of government" means the federal
14government, the State or unit of local government, a school
15district, or any agency or instrumentality, office, officer,
16department, division, bureau, commission, college or
17university thereof.
18 (j) The term "health facility" means: (a) any public or
19private institution, place, building, or agency required to be
20licensed under the Hospital Licensing Act; (b) any public or
21private institution, place, building, or agency required to be
22licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized
23Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, or the ID/DD
24Community Care Act; (c) any public or licensed private hospital
25as defined in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities
26Code; (d) any such facility exempted from such licensure when

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1the Director of Public Health attests that such exempted
2facility meets the statutory definition of a facility subject
3to licensure; (e) any other public or private health service
4institution, place, building, or agency which the Director of
5Public Health attests is subject to certification by the
6Secretary, U.S. Department of Health and Human Services under
7the Social Security Act, as now or hereafter amended, or which
8the Director of Public Health attests is subject to
9standard-setting by a recognized public or voluntary
10accrediting or standard-setting agency; (f) any public or
11private institution, place, building or agency engaged in
12providing one or more supporting services to a health facility;
13(g) any public or private institution, place, building or
14agency engaged in providing training in the healing arts,
15including, but not limited to, schools of medicine, dentistry,
16osteopathy, optometry, podiatry, pharmacy or nursing, schools
17for the training of x-ray, laboratory or other health care
18technicians and schools for the training of para-professionals
19in the health care field; (h) any public or private congregate,
20life or extended care or elderly housing facility or any public
21or private home for the aged or infirm, including, without
22limitation, any Facility as defined in the Life Care Facilities
23Act; (i) any public or private mental, emotional or physical
24rehabilitation facility or any public or private educational,
25counseling, or rehabilitation facility or home, for those
26persons with a developmental disability, those who are

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1physically ill or disabled, the emotionally disturbed, those
2persons with a mental illness or persons with learning or
3similar disabilities or problems; (j) any public or private
4alcohol, drug or substance abuse diagnosis, counseling
5treatment or rehabilitation facility, (k) any public or private
6institution, place, building or agency licensed by the
7Department of Children and Family Services or which is not so
8licensed but which the Director of Children and Family Services
9attests provides child care, child welfare or other services of
10the type provided by facilities subject to such licensure; (l)
11any public or private adoption agency or facility; and (m) any
12public or private blood bank or blood center. "Health facility"
13also means a public or private structure or structures suitable
14primarily for use as a laboratory, laundry, nurses or interns
15residence or other housing or hotel facility used in whole or
16in part for staff, employees or students and their families,
17patients or relatives of patients admitted for treatment or
18care in a health facility, or persons conducting business with
19a health facility, physician's facility, surgicenter,
20administration building, research facility, maintenance,
21storage or utility facility and all structures or facilities
22related to any of the foregoing or required or useful for the
23operation of a health facility, including parking or other
24facilities or other supporting service structures required or
25useful for the orderly conduct of such health facility. "Health
26facility" also means, with respect to a project located outside

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1the State, any public or private institution, place, building,
2or agency which provides services similar to those described
3above, provided that such project is owned, operated, leased or
4managed by a participating health institution located within
5the State, or a participating health institution affiliated
6with an entity located within the State.
7 (k) The term "participating health institution" means (i) a
8private corporation or association or (ii) a public entity of
9this State, in either case authorized by the laws of this State
10or the applicable state to provide or operate a health facility
11as defined in this Act and which, pursuant to the provisions of
12this Act, undertakes the financing, construction or
13acquisition of a project or undertakes the refunding or
14refinancing of obligations, loans, indebtedness or advances as
15provided in this Act.
16 (l) The term "health facility project", means a specific
17health facility work or improvement to be financed or
18refinanced (including without limitation through reimbursement
19of prior expenditures), acquired, constructed, enlarged,
20remodeled, renovated, improved, furnished, or equipped, with
21funds provided in whole or in part hereunder, any accounts
22receivable, working capital, liability or insurance cost or
23operating expense financing or refinancing program of a health
24facility with or involving funds provided in whole or in part
25hereunder, or any combination thereof.
26 (m) The term "bond resolution" means the resolution or

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1resolutions authorizing the issuance of, or providing terms and
2conditions related to, bonds issued under this Act and
3includes, where appropriate, any trust agreement, trust
4indenture, indenture of mortgage or deed of trust providing
5terms and conditions for such bonds.
6 (n) The term "property" means any real, personal or mixed
7property, whether tangible or intangible, or any interest
8therein, including, without limitation, any real estate,
9leasehold interests, appurtenances, buildings, easements,
10equipment, furnishings, furniture, improvements, machinery,
11rights of way, structures, accounts, contract rights or any
12interest therein.
13 (o) The term "revenues" means, with respect to any project,
14the rents, fees, charges, interest, principal repayments,
15collections and other income or profit derived therefrom.
16 (p) The term "higher education project" means, in the case
17of a private institution of higher education, an educational
18facility to be acquired, constructed, enlarged, remodeled,
19renovated, improved, furnished, or equipped, or any
20combination thereof.
21 (q) The term "cultural institution project" means, in the
22case of a cultural institution, a cultural facility to be
23acquired, constructed, enlarged, remodeled, renovated,
24improved, furnished, or equipped, or any combination thereof.
25 (r) The term "educational facility" means any property
26located within the State, or any property located outside the

09800SB2640ham001- 206 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1State, provided that, if the property is located outside the
2State, it must be owned, operated, leased or managed by an
3entity located within the State or an entity affiliated with an
4entity located within the State, in each case constructed or
5acquired before or after the effective date of this Act, which
6is or will be, in whole or in part, suitable for the
7instruction, feeding, recreation or housing of students, the
8conducting of research or other work of a private institution
9of higher education, the use by a private institution of higher
10education in connection with any educational, research or
11related or incidental activities then being or to be conducted
12by it, or any combination of the foregoing, including, without
13limitation, any such property suitable for use as or in
14connection with any one or more of the following: an academic
15facility, administrative facility, agricultural facility,
16assembly hall, athletic facility, auditorium, boating
17facility, campus, communication facility, computer facility,
18continuing education facility, classroom, dining hall,
19dormitory, exhibition hall, fire fighting facility, fire
20prevention facility, food service and preparation facility,
21gymnasium, greenhouse, health care facility, hospital,
22housing, instructional facility, laboratory, library,
23maintenance facility, medical facility, museum, offices,
24parking area, physical education facility, recreational
25facility, research facility, stadium, storage facility,
26student union, study facility, theatre or utility.

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1 (s) The term "cultural facility" means any property located
2within the State, or any property located outside the State,
3provided that, if the property is located outside the State, it
4must be owned, operated, leased or managed by an entity located
5within the State or an entity affiliated with an entity located
6within the State, in each case constructed or acquired before
7or after the effective date of this Act, which is or will be,
8in whole or in part, suitable for the particular purposes or
9needs of a cultural institution, including, without
10limitation, any such property suitable for use as or in
11connection with any one or more of the following: an
12administrative facility, aquarium, assembly hall, auditorium,
13botanical garden, exhibition hall, gallery, greenhouse,
14library, museum, scientific laboratory, theater or zoological
15facility, and shall also include, without limitation, books,
16works of art or music, animal, plant or aquatic life or other
17items for display, exhibition or performance. The term
18"cultural facility" includes buildings on the National
19Register of Historic Places which are owned or operated by
20nonprofit entities.
21 (t) "Private institution of higher education" means a
22not-for-profit educational institution which is not owned by
23the State or any political subdivision, agency,
24instrumentality, district or municipality thereof, which is
25authorized by law to provide a program of education beyond the
26high school level and which:

09800SB2640ham001- 208 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 (1) Admits as regular students only individuals having
2 a certificate of graduation from a high school, or the
3 recognized equivalent of such a certificate;
4 (2) Provides an educational program for which it awards
5 a bachelor's degree, or provides an educational program,
6 admission into which is conditioned upon the prior
7 attainment of a bachelor's degree or its equivalent, for
8 which it awards a postgraduate degree, or provides not less
9 than a 2-year program which is acceptable for full credit
10 toward such a degree, or offers a 2-year program in
11 engineering, mathematics, or the physical or biological
12 sciences which is designed to prepare the student to work
13 as a technician and at a semiprofessional level in
14 engineering, scientific, or other technological fields
15 which require the understanding and application of basic
16 engineering, scientific, or mathematical principles or
17 knowledge;
18 (3) Is accredited by a nationally recognized
19 accrediting agency or association or, if not so accredited,
20 is an institution whose credits are accepted, on transfer,
21 by not less than 3 institutions which are so accredited,
22 for credit on the same basis as if transferred from an
23 institution so accredited, and holds an unrevoked
24 certificate of approval under the Private College Act from
25 the Board of Higher Education, or is qualified as a "degree
26 granting institution" under the Academic Degree Act; and

09800SB2640ham001- 209 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 (4) Does not discriminate in the admission of students
2 on the basis of race or color. "Private institution of
3 higher education" also includes any "academic
4 institution".
5 (u) The term "academic institution" means any
6not-for-profit institution which is not owned by the State or
7any political subdivision, agency, instrumentality, district
8or municipality thereof, which institution engages in, or
9facilitates academic, scientific, educational or professional
10research or learning in a field or fields of study taught at a
11private institution of higher education. Academic institutions
12include, without limitation, libraries, archives, academic,
13scientific, educational or professional societies,
14institutions, associations or foundations having such
15purposes.
16 (v) The term "cultural institution" means any
17not-for-profit institution which is not owned by the State or
18any political subdivision, agency, instrumentality, district
19or municipality thereof, which institution engages in the
20cultural, intellectual, scientific, educational or artistic
21enrichment of the people of the State. Cultural institutions
22include, without limitation, aquaria, botanical societies,
23historical societies, libraries, museums, performing arts
24associations or societies, scientific societies and zoological
25societies.
26 (w) The term "affiliate" means, with respect to financing

09800SB2640ham001- 210 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1of an agricultural facility or an agribusiness, any lender, any
2person, firm or corporation controlled by, or under common
3control with, such lender, and any person, firm or corporation
4controlling such lender.
5 (x) The term "agricultural facility" means land, any
6building or other improvement thereon or thereto, and any
7personal properties deemed necessary or suitable for use,
8whether or not now in existence, in farming, ranching, the
9production of agricultural commodities (including, without
10limitation, the products of aquaculture, hydroponics and
11silviculture) or the treating, processing or storing of such
12agricultural commodities when such activities are customarily
13engaged in by farmers as a part of farming and which land,
14building, improvement or personal property is located within
15the State, or is located outside the State, provided, that, if
16such property is located outside the State, it must be owned,
17operated, leased, or managed by an entity located within the
18State or an entity affiliated with an entity located within the
19State.
20 (y) The term "lender" with respect to financing of an
21agricultural facility or an agribusiness, means any federal or
22State chartered bank, Federal Land Bank, Production Credit
23Association, Bank for Cooperatives, federal or State chartered
24savings and loan association or building and loan association,
25Small Business Investment Company or any other institution
26qualified within this State to originate and service loans,

09800SB2640ham001- 211 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1including, but without limitation to, insurance companies,
2credit unions and mortgage loan companies. "Lender" also means
3a wholly owned subsidiary of a manufacturer, seller or
4distributor of goods or services that makes loans to businesses
5or individuals, commonly known as a "captive finance company".
6 (z) The term "agribusiness" means any sole proprietorship,
7limited partnership, co-partnership, joint venture,
8corporation or cooperative which operates or will operate a
9facility located within the State or outside the State,
10provided, that, if any facility is located outside the State,
11it must be owned, operated, leased, or managed by an entity
12located within the State or an entity affiliated with an entity
13located within the State, that is related to the processing of
14agricultural commodities (including, without limitation, the
15products of aquaculture, hydroponics and silviculture) or the
16manufacturing, production or construction of agricultural
17buildings, structures, equipment, implements, and supplies, or
18any other facilities or processes used in agricultural
19production. Agribusiness includes but is not limited to the
20following:
21 (1) grain handling and processing, including grain
22 storage, drying, treatment, conditioning, mailing and
23 packaging;
24 (2) seed and feed grain development and processing;
25 (3) fruit and vegetable processing, including
26 preparation, canning and packaging;

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1 (4) processing of livestock and livestock products,
2 dairy products, poultry and poultry products, fish or
3 apiarian products, including slaughter, shearing,
4 collecting, preparation, canning and packaging;
5 (5) fertilizer and agricultural chemical
6 manufacturing, processing, application and supplying;
7 (6) farm machinery, equipment and implement
8 manufacturing and supplying;
9 (7) manufacturing and supplying of agricultural
10 commodity processing machinery and equipment, including
11 machinery and equipment used in slaughter, treatment,
12 handling, collecting, preparation, canning or packaging of
13 agricultural commodities;
14 (8) farm building and farm structure manufacturing,
15 construction and supplying;
16 (9) construction, manufacturing, implementation,
17 supplying or servicing of irrigation, drainage and soil and
18 water conservation devices or equipment;
19 (10) fuel processing and development facilities that
20 produce fuel from agricultural commodities or byproducts;
21 (11) facilities and equipment for processing and
22 packaging agricultural commodities specifically for
23 export;
24 (12) facilities and equipment for forestry product
25 processing and supplying, including sawmilling operations,
26 wood chip operations, timber harvesting operations, and

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1 manufacturing of prefabricated buildings, paper, furniture
2 or other goods from forestry products;
3 (13) facilities and equipment for research and
4 development of products, processes and equipment for the
5 production, processing, preparation or packaging of
6 agricultural commodities and byproducts.
7 (aa) The term "asset" with respect to financing of any
8agricultural facility or any agribusiness, means, but is not
9limited to the following: cash crops or feed on hand; livestock
10held for sale; breeding stock; marketable bonds and securities;
11securities not readily marketable; accounts receivable; notes
12receivable; cash invested in growing crops; net cash value of
13life insurance; machinery and equipment; cars and trucks; farm
14and other real estate including life estates and personal
15residence; value of beneficial interests in trusts; government
16payments or grants; and any other assets.
17 (bb) The term "liability" with respect to financing of any
18agricultural facility or any agribusiness shall include, but
19not be limited to the following: accounts payable; notes or
20other indebtedness owed to any source; taxes; rent; amounts
21owed on real estate contracts or real estate mortgages;
22judgments; accrued interest payable; and any other liability.
23 (cc) The term "Predecessor Authorities" means those
24authorities as described in Section 845-75.
25 (dd) The term "housing project" means a specific work or
26improvement located within the State or outside the State and

09800SB2640ham001- 214 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1undertaken to provide residential dwelling accommodations,
2including the acquisition, construction or rehabilitation of
3lands, buildings and community facilities and in connection
4therewith to provide nonhousing facilities which are part of
5the housing project, including land, buildings, improvements,
6equipment and all ancillary facilities for use for offices,
7stores, retirement homes, hotels, financial institutions,
8service, health care, education, recreation or research
9establishments, or any other commercial purpose which are or
10are to be related to a housing development, provided that any
11work or improvement located outside the State is owned,
12operated, leased or managed by an entity located within the
13State, or any entity affiliated with an entity located within
14the State.
15 (ee) The term "conservation project" means any project
16including the acquisition, construction, rehabilitation,
17maintenance, operation, or upgrade that is intended to create
18or expand open space or to reduce energy usage through
19efficiency measures. For the purpose of this definition, "open
20space" has the definition set forth under Section 10 of the
21Illinois Open Land Trust Act.
22 (ff) The term "significant presence" means the existence
23within the State of the national or regional headquarters of an
24entity or group or such other facility of an entity or group of
25entities where a significant amount of the business functions
26are performed for such entity or group of entities.

09800SB2640ham001- 215 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 (gg) The term "municipal bond issuer" means the State or
2any other state or commonwealth of the United States, or any
3unit of local government, school district, agency or
4instrumentality, office, department, division, bureau,
5commission, college or university thereof located in the State
6or any other state or commonwealth of the United States.
7 (hh) The term "municipal bond program project" means a
8program for the funding of the purchase of bonds, notes or
9other obligations issued by or on behalf of a municipal bond
10issuer.
11(Source: P.A. 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-813,
12eff. 7-13-12; 98-90, eff. 7-15-13; 98-104, eff. 7-22-13;
13revised 8-9-13.)
14 Section 130. The Illinois Power Agency Act is amended by
15changing Sections 1-57 and 1-92 as follows:
16 (20 ILCS 3855/1-57)
17 Sec. 1-57. Facility financing.
18 (a) The Agency shall have the power (1) to borrow from the
19Authority, through one or more Agency loan agreements, the net
20proceeds of revenue bonds for costs incurred in connection with
21the development and construction of a facility, provided that
22the stated maturity date of any of those revenue bonds shall
23not exceed 40 years from their respective issuance dates, (2)
24to accept prepayments from purchasers of electric energy from a

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1project and to apply the same to costs incurred in connection
2with the development and construction of a facility, subject to
3any obligation to refund the same under the circumstances
4specified in the purchasers' contract for the purchase and sale
5of electric energy from that project, (3) to enter into leases
6or similar arrangements to finance the property constituting a
7part of a project and associated costs incurred in connection
8with the development and construction of a facility, provided
9that the term of any such lease or similar arrangement shall
10not exceed 40 years from its inception, and (4) to enter into
11agreements for the sale of revenue bonds that bear interest at
12a rate or rates not exceeding the maximum rate permitted by the
13Bond Authorization Act. All Agency loan agreements shall
14include terms making the obligations thereunder subject to
15redemption before maturity.
16 (b) The Agency may from time to time engage the services of
17the Authority, attorneys, appraisers, architects, engineers,
18accountants, credit analysts, bond underwriters, bond
19trustees, credit enhancement providers, and other financial
20professionals and consultants, if the Agency deems it
21advisable.
22 (c) The Agency may pledge, as security for the payment of
23its revenue bonds in respect of a project, (1) revenues derived
24from the operation of the project in part or whole, (2) the
25real and personal property, machinery, equipment, structures,
26fixtures, and inventories directly associated with the

09800SB2640ham001- 217 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1project, (3) grants or other revenues or taxes expected to be
2received by the Agency directly linked to the project, (4)
3payments to be made by another governmental unit or other
4entity pursuant to a service, user, or other similar agreement
5with that governmental unit or other entity that is a result of
6the project, (5) any other revenues or moneys deposited or to
7be deposited directly linked to the project, (6) all design,
8engineering, procurement, construction, installation,
9management, and operation agreements associated with the
10project, (7) any reserve or debt service funds created under
11the agreements governing the indebtedness, (8) the Illinois
12Power Agency Facilities Fund or the Illinois Power Agency Debt
13Service Fund, or (9) any combination thereof. Any such pledge
14shall be authorized in a writing, signed by the Director of the
15Agency, and then signed by the Governor of Illinois. At no time
16shall the funds contained in the Illinois Power Agency Trust
17Fund be pledged or used in any way to pay for the indebtedness
18of the Agency. The Director shall not authorize the issuance or
19grant of any pledge until he or she has certified that any
20associated project is in full compliance with Sections 1-85 and
211-86 of this Act. The certification shall be duly attached or
22referenced in the agreements reflecting the pledge. Any such
23pledge made by the Agency shall be valid and binding from the
24time the pledge is made. The revenues, property, or funds that
25are pledged and thereafter received by the Agency shall
26immediately be subject to the lien of the pledge without any

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1physical delivery thereof or further act; and, subject only to
2the provisions of prior liens, the lien of the pledge shall be
3valid and binding as against all parties having claims of any
4kind in tort, contract, or otherwise against the Agency
5irrespective of whether the parties have notice thereof. All
6bonds issued on behalf of the Agency must be issued by the
7Authority and must be revenue bonds. These revenue bonds may be
8taxable or tax-exempt.
9 (d) All indebtedness issued by or on behalf of the Agency,
10including, without limitation, any revenue bonds issued by the
11Authority on behalf of the Agency, shall not be a debt of the
12State, the Authority, any political subdivision thereof (other
13than the Agency to the extent provided in agreements governing
14the indebtedness), any local government, any governmental
15aggregator as defined in the this Act, or any local government,
16and none of the State, the Authority, any political subdivision
17thereof (other than the Agency to the extent provided in
18agreements governing the indebtedness), any local government,
19or any government aggregator shall be liable thereon. Neither
20the Authority nor the Agency shall have the power to pledge the
21credit, the revenues, or the taxing power of the State, any
22political subdivision thereof (other than the Agency), any
23governmental aggregator, or of any local government, and
24neither the credit, the revenues, nor the taxing power of the
25State, any political subdivision thereof (other than the
26Agency), any governmental aggregator, or any local government

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1shall be, or shall be deemed to be, pledged to the payment of
2any revenue bonds, notes, or other obligations of the Agency.
3In addition, the agreements governing any issue of indebtedness
4shall provide that all holders of that indebtedness, by virtue
5of their acquisition thereof, have agreed to waive and release
6all claims and causes of action against the State of Illinois
7in respect of the indebtedness or any project associated
8therewith based on any theory of law. However, the waiver shall
9not prohibit the holders of indebtedness issued on behalf of
10the Agency from filing any cause of action against or
11recovering damages from the Agency, recovering from any
12property or funds pledged to secure the indebtedness, or
13recovering from any property or funds to which the Agency holds
14title, provided the property or funds are directly associated
15with the project for which the indebtedness was specifically
16issued. Each evidence of indebtedness of the Agency, including
17the revenue bonds issued by the Authority on behalf of the
18Agency, shall contain a clear and explicit statement of the
19provisions of this Section.
20 (e) The Agency may from time to time enter into an
21agreement or agreements to defease indebtedness issued on its
22behalf or to refund, at maturity, at a redemption date or in
23advance of either, any indebtedness issued on its behalf or
24pursuant to redemption provisions or at any time before
25maturity. All such refunding indebtedness shall be subject to
26the requirements set forth in subsections (a), (c), and (d) of

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1this Section. No revenue bonds issued to refund or advance
2refund revenue bonds issued under this Section may mature later
3than the longest maturity date of the series of bonds being
4refunded. After the aggregate original principal amount of
5revenue bonds authorized in this Section has been issued, the
6payment of any principal amount of those revenue bonds does not
7authorize the issuance of additional revenue bonds (except
8refunding revenue bonds).
9 (f) If the Agency fails to pay the principal of, interest,
10or premium, if any, on any indebtedness as the same becomes
11due, a civil action to compel payment may be instituted in the
12appropriate circuit court by the holder or holders of the
13indebtedness on which the default of payment exists or by any
14administrative agent, collateral agent, or indenture trustee
15acting on behalf of those holders. Delivery of a summons and a
16copy of the complaint to the Director of the Agency shall
17constitute sufficient service to give the circuit court
18jurisdiction over the subject matter of the suit and
19jurisdiction over the Agency and its officers named as
20defendants for the purpose of compelling that payment. Any
21case, controversy, or cause of action concerning the validity
22of this Act shall relate to the revenue of the Agency. Any such
23claims and related proceedings are subject in all respects to
24the provisions of subsection (d) of this Section. The State of
25Illinois shall not be liable or in any other way financially
26responsible for any indebtedness issued by or on behalf of the

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1Agency or the performance or non-performance of any covenants
2associated with any such indebtedness. The foregoing statement
3shall not prohibit the holders of any indebtedness issued on
4behalf of the Agency from filing any cause of action against or
5recovering damages from the Agency recovering from any property
6pledged to secure that indebtedness or recovering from any
7property or funds to which the Agency holds title provided such
8property or funds are directly associated with the project for
9which the indebtedness is specifically issued.
10 (g) Upon each delivery of the revenue bonds authorized to
11be issued by the Authority under this Act, the Agency shall
12compute and certify to the State Comptroller the total amount
13of principal of and interest on the Agency loan agreement
14supporting the revenue bonds issued that will be payable in
15order to retire those revenue bonds and the amount of principal
16of and interest on the Agency loan agreement that will be
17payable on each payment date during the then current and each
18succeeding fiscal year. As soon as possible after the first day
19of each month, beginning on the date set forth in the Agency
20loan agreement where that date specifies when the Agency shall
21begin setting aside revenues and other moneys for repayment of
22the revenue bonds per the agreed to schedule, the Agency shall
23certify to the Comptroller and the Comptroller shall order
24transferred and the Treasurer shall transfer from the Illinois
25Power Agency Facilities Fund to the Illinois Power Agency Debt
26Service Fund for each month remaining in the State fiscal year

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1a sum of money, appropriated for that purpose, equal to the
2result of the amount of principal of and interest on those
3revenue bonds payable on the next payment date divided by the
4number of full calendar months between the date of those
5revenue bonds, and the first such payment date, and thereafter
6divided by the number of months between each succeeding payment
7date after the first. The Comptroller is authorized and
8directed to draw warrants on the State Treasurer from the
9Illinois Power Agency Facilities Fund and the Illinois Power
10Agency Debt Service Fund for the amount of all payments of
11principal and interest on the Agency loan agreement relating to
12the Authority revenue bonds issued under this Act. The State
13Treasurer or the State Comptroller shall deposit or cause to be
14deposited any amount of grants or other revenues expected to be
15received by the Agency that the Agency has pledged to the
16payment of revenue bonds directly into the Illinois Power
17Agency Debt Service Fund.
18(Source: P.A. 95-481, eff. 8-28-07; revised 9-12-13.)
19 (20 ILCS 3855/1-92)
20 Sec. 1-92. Aggregation of electrical load by
21municipalities, townships, and counties.
22 (a) The corporate authorities of a municipality, township
23board, or county board of a county may adopt an ordinance under
24which it may aggregate in accordance with this Section
25residential and small commercial retail electrical loads

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1located, respectively, within the municipality, the township,
2or the unincorporated areas of the county and, for that
3purpose, may solicit bids and enter into service agreements to
4facilitate for those loads the sale and purchase of electricity
5and related services and equipment.
6 The corporate authorities, township board, or county board
7may also exercise such authority jointly with any other
8municipality, township, or county. Two or more municipalities,
9townships, or counties, or a combination of both, may initiate
10a process jointly to authorize aggregation by a majority vote
11of each particular municipality, township, or county as
12required by this Section.
13 If the corporate authorities, township board, or the county
14board seek to operate the aggregation program as an opt-out
15program for residential and small commercial retail customers,
16then prior to the adoption of an ordinance with respect to
17aggregation of residential and small commercial retail
18electric loads, the corporate authorities of a municipality,
19the township board, or the county board of a county shall
20submit a referendum to its residents to determine whether or
21not the aggregation program shall operate as an opt-out program
22for residential and small commercial retail customers. Any
23county board that seeks to submit such a referendum to its
24residents shall do so only in unincorporated areas of the
25county where no electric aggregation ordinance has been
26adopted.

09800SB2640ham001- 224 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 In addition to the notice and conduct requirements of the
2general election law, notice of the referendum shall state
3briefly the purpose of the referendum. The question of whether
4the corporate authorities, the township board, or the county
5board shall adopt an opt-out aggregation program for
6residential and small commercial retail customers shall be
7submitted to the electors of the municipality, township board,
8or county board at a regular election and approved by a
9majority of the electors voting on the question. The corporate
10authorities, township board, or county board must certify to
11the proper election authority, which must submit the question
12at an election in accordance with the Election Code.
13 The election authority must submit the question in
14substantially the following form:
15 Shall the (municipality, township, or county in which
16 the question is being voted upon) have the authority to
17 arrange for the supply of electricity for its residential
18 and small commercial retail customers who have not opted
19 out of such program?
20The election authority must record the votes as "Yes" or "No".
21 If a majority of the electors voting on the question vote
22in the affirmative, then the corporate authorities, township
23board, or county board may implement an opt-out aggregation
24program for residential and small commercial retail customers.
25 A referendum must pass in each particular municipality,
26township, or county that is engaged in the aggregation program.

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1If the referendum fails, then the corporate authorities,
2township board, or county board shall operate the aggregation
3program as an opt-in program for residential and small
4commercial retail customers.
5 An ordinance under this Section shall specify whether the
6aggregation will occur only with the prior consent of each
7person owning, occupying, controlling, or using an electric
8load center proposed to be aggregated. Nothing in this Section,
9however, authorizes the aggregation of electric loads that are
10served or authorized to be served by an electric cooperative as
11defined by and pursuant to the Electric Supplier Act or loads
12served by a municipality that owns and operates its own
13electric distribution system. No aggregation shall take effect
14unless approved by a majority of the members of the corporate
15authority, township board, or county board voting upon the
16ordinance.
17 A governmental aggregator under this Section is not a
18public utility or an alternative retail electric supplier.
19 For purposes of this Section, "township" means the portion
20of a township that is an unincorporated portion of a county
21that is not otherwise a part of a municipality. In addition to
22such other limitations as are included in this Section, a
23township board shall only have authority to aggregate
24residential and small commercial customer loads in accordance
25with this Section if the county board of the county in which
26the township is located (i) is not also submitting a referendum

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1to its residents at the same general election that the township
2board proposes to submit a referendum under this subsection
3(a), (ii) has not received authorization through passage of a
4referendum to operate an opt-out aggregation program for
5residential and small commercial retail customers under this
6subsection (a), and (iii) has not otherwise enacted an
7ordinance under this subsection (a) authorizing the operation
8of an opt-in aggregation program for residential and small
9commercial retail customers as described in this Section.
10 (b) Upon the applicable requisite authority under this
11Section, the corporate authorities, the township board, or the
12county board, with assistance from the Illinois Power Agency,
13shall develop a plan of operation and governance for the
14aggregation program so authorized. Before adopting a plan under
15this Section, the corporate authorities, township board, or
16county board shall hold at least 2 public hearings on the plan.
17Before the first hearing, the corporate authorities, township
18board, or county board shall publish notice of the hearings
19once a week for 2 consecutive weeks in a newspaper of general
20circulation in the jurisdiction. The notice shall summarize the
21plan and state the date, time, and location of each hearing.
22Any load aggregation plan established pursuant to this Section
23shall:
24 (1) provide for universal access to all applicable
25 residential customers and equitable treatment of
26 applicable residential customers;

09800SB2640ham001- 227 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 (2) describe demand management and energy efficiency
2 services to be provided to each class of customers; and
3 (3) meet any requirements established by law
4 concerning aggregated service offered pursuant to this
5 Section.
6 (c) The process for soliciting bids for electricity and
7other related services and awarding proposed agreements for the
8purchase of electricity and other related services shall be
9conducted in the following order:
10 (1) The corporate authorities, township board, or
11 county board may solicit bids for electricity and other
12 related services. The bid specifications may include a
13 provision requiring the bidder to disclose the fuel type of
14 electricity to be procured or generated on behalf of the
15 aggregation program customers. The corporate authorities,
16 township board, or county board may consider the proposed
17 source of electricity to be procured or generated to be put
18 into the grid on behalf of aggregation program customers in
19 the competitive bidding process. The Agency and Commission
20 may collaborate to issue joint guidance on voluntary
21 uniform standards for bidder disclosures of the source of
22 electricity to be procured or generated to be put into the
23 grid on behalf of aggregation program customers.
24 (1.5) A township board shall request from the electric
25 utility those residential and small commercial customers
26 within their aggregate area either by zip code or zip codes

09800SB2640ham001- 228 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 or other means as determined by the electric utility. The
2 electric utility shall then provide to the township board
3 the residential and small commercial customers, including
4 the names and addresses of residential and small commercial
5 customers, electronically. The township board shall be
6 responsible for authenticating the residential and small
7 commercial customers contained in this listing and
8 providing edits of the data to affirm, add, or delete the
9 residential and small commercial customers located within
10 its jurisdiction. The township board shall provide the
11 edited list to the electric utility in an electronic format
12 or other means selected by the electric utility and certify
13 that the information is accurate.
14 (2) Notwithstanding Section 16-122 of the Public
15 Utilities Act and Section 2HH of the Consumer Fraud and
16 Deceptive Business Practices Act, an electric utility that
17 provides residential and small commercial retail electric
18 service in the aggregate area must, upon request of the
19 corporate authorities, township board, or the county board
20 in the aggregate area, submit to the requesting party, in
21 an electronic format, those account numbers, names, and
22 addresses of residential and small commercial retail
23 customers in the aggregate area that are reflected in the
24 electric utility's records at the time of the request;
25 provided, however, that any township board has first
26 provided an accurate customer list to the electric utility

09800SB2640ham001- 229 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 as provided for herein.
2 Any corporate authority, township board, or county board
3receiving customer information from an electric utility shall
4be subject to the limitations on the disclosure of the
5information described in Section 16-122 of the Public Utilities
6Act and Section 2HH of the Consumer Fraud and Deceptive
7Business Practices Act, and an electric utility shall not be
8held liable for any claims arising out of the provision of
9information pursuant to this item (2).
10 (d) If the corporate authorities, township board, or county
11board operate under an opt-in program for residential and small
12commercial retail customers, then the corporate authorities,
13township board, or county board shall comply with all of the
14following:
15 (1) Within 60 days after receiving the bids, the
16 corporate authorities, township board, or county board
17 shall allow residential and small commercial retail
18 customers to commit to the terms and conditions of a bid
19 that has been selected by the corporate authorities,
20 township board, or county board.
21 (2) If (A) the corporate authorities, township board,
22 or county board award proposed agreements for the purchase
23 of electricity and other related services and (B) an
24 agreement is reached between the corporate authorities,
25 township board, or county board for those services, then
26 customers committed to the terms and conditions according

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1 to item (1) of this subsection (d) shall be committed to
2 the agreement.
3 (e) If the corporate authorities, township board, or county
4board operate as an opt-out program for residential and small
5commercial retail customers, then it shall be the duty of the
6aggregated entity to fully inform residential and small
7commercial retail customers in advance that they have the right
8to opt out of the aggregation program. The disclosure shall
9prominently state all charges to be made and shall include full
10disclosure of the cost to obtain service pursuant to Section
1116-103 of the Public Utilities Act, how to access it, and the
12fact that it is available to them without penalty, if they are
13currently receiving service under that Section. The Illinois
14Power Agency shall furnish, without charge, to any citizen a
15list of all supply options available to them in a format that
16allows comparison of prices and products.
17 (f) Any person or entity retained by a municipality or
18county, or jointly by more than one such unit of local
19government, to provide input, guidance, or advice in the
20selection of an electricity supplier for an aggregation program
21shall disclose in writing to the involved units of local
22government the nature of any relationship through which the
23person or entity may receive, either directly or indirectly,
24commissions or other remuneration as a result of the selection
25of any particular electricity supplier. The written disclosure
26must be made prior to formal approval by the involved units of

09800SB2640ham001- 231 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1local government of any professional services agreement with
2the person or entity, or no later than October 1, 2012 with
3respect to any such professional services agreement entered
4into prior to the effective date of this amendatory Act of the
597th General Assembly. The disclosure shall cover all direct
6and indirect relationships through which commissions or
7remuneration may result, including the pooling of commissions
8or remuneration among multiple persons or entities, and shall
9identify all involved electricity suppliers. The disclosure
10requirements in this subsection (f) are to be liberally
11construed to ensure that the nature of financial interests are
12fully revealed, and these disclosure requirements shall apply
13regardless of whether the involved person or entity is licensed
14under Section 16-115C of the Public Utilities Act. Any person
15or entity that fails to make the disclosure required under this
16subsection (f) is liable to the involved units of local
17government in an amount equal to all compensation paid to such
18person or entity by the units of local government for the
19input, guidance, or advice in the selection of an electricity
20supplier, plus reasonable attorneys fees and court costs
21incurred by the units of local government in connection with
22obtaining such amount.
23 (g) The Illinois Power Agency shall provide assistance to
24municipalities, townships, counties, or associations working
25with municipalities to help complete the plan and bidding
26process.

09800SB2640ham001- 232 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 (h) This Section does not prohibit municipalities or
2counties from entering into an intergovernmental agreement to
3aggregate residential and small commercial retail electric
4loads.
5(Source: P.A. 97-338, eff. 8-12-11; 97-823, eff. 7-18-12;
697-1067, eff. 8-24-12; 98-404, eff. 1-1-14; 98-434, eff.
71-1-14; 98-463, eff. 8-16-13; revised 9-24-13.)
8 Section 135. The Addison Creek Restoration Commission Act
9is amended by changing Section 20 as follows:
10 (20 ILCS 3901/20)
11 (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2015)
12 Sec. 20. Taxing powers.
13 (a) After the first Monday in October and by the first
14Monday in December in each year, the Commission shall levy the
15general taxes for the Commission by general categories for the
16next fiscal year. A certified copy of the levy ordinance shall
17be filed with the county clerk of each county in which the that
18part of the territory of the Commission that is within the
19Addison Creek floodplain is located by the last Tuesday in
20December each year.
21 (b) The amount of taxes levied for general corporate
22purposes for a fiscal year may not exceed the rate of .01% of
23the value, as equalized or assessed by the Department of
24Revenue, of the taxable property located within that part of

09800SB2640ham001- 233 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1the territory of the Commission that is within the Addison
2Creek floodplain, provided that the total amount levied and
3extended under this Section and Section 17, in the aggregate,
4in any single taxable year, shall not exceed $10,000,000.
5 (c) This tax and tax rate are exclusive of the taxes
6required for the payment of the principal of and interest on
7bonds.
8 (d) The rate of the tax levied for general corporate
9purposes of the Commission may be initially imposed or
10thereafter increased, up to the maximum rate identified in
11subsection (b), by the Commission by a resolution calling for
12the submission of the question of imposing or increasing the
13rate to the voters of that part of the territory of the
14Commission that is within the Addison Creek floodplain in
15accordance with the general election law. The question must be
16in substantially the following form:
17 Shall the Commission be authorized to establish its
18 general corporate tax rate at (insert rate) on the
19 equalized assessed value on all taxable property located
20 within that part of the territory of the Commission that is
21 within the Addison Creek floodplain for its general
22 purposes?
23 The ballot must have printed on it, but not as part of the
24proposition submitted, the following: "The approximate impact
25of the proposed (tax rate or increase) on the owner of a single
26family home having a market value of (insert value) would be

09800SB2640ham001- 234 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1(insert amount) in the first year of the (tax rate or increase)
2if the (tax rate or increase) is fully implemented." The ballot
3may have printed on it, but not as part of the proposition, one
4or both of the following: "The last tax rate extended for the
5purposes of the Commission was (insert rate). The last rate
6increase approved for the purposes of the Commission was in
7(insert year)." No other information needs to be included on
8the ballot.
9 The votes must be recorded as "Yes" or "No".
10 If a majority of the electors voting on the question vote
11in the affirmative, the Commission may thereafter levy the tax.
12(Source: P.A. 93-948, eff. 8-19-04; 94-682, eff. 11-3-05;
13revised 9-24-13.)
14 Section 140. The Illinois Criminal Justice Information Act
15is amended by changing Sections 3 and 14 as follows:
16 (20 ILCS 3930/3) (from Ch. 38, par. 210-3)
17 (Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 98-528)
18 Sec. 3. Definitions. Whenever used in this Act, and for the
19purposes of this Act unless the context clearly denotes
20otherwise:
21 (a) The term "criminal justice system" includes all
22activities by public agencies pertaining to the prevention or
23reduction of crime or enforcement of the criminal law, and
24particularly, but without limitation, the prevention,

09800SB2640ham001- 235 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1detection, and investigation of crime; the apprehension of
2offenders; the protection of victims and witnesses; the
3administration of juvenile justice; the prosecution and
4defense of criminal cases; the trial, conviction, and
5sentencing of offenders; as well as the correction and
6rehabilitation of offenders, which includes imprisonment,
7probation, parole, aftercare release, and treatment.
8 (b) The term "Authority" means the Illinois Criminal
9Justice Information Authority created by this Act.
10 (c) The term "criminal justice information" means any and
11every type of information that is collected, transmitted, or
12maintained by the criminal justice system.
13 (d) The term "criminal history record information" means
14data identifiable to an individual and consisting of
15descriptions or notations of arrests, detentions, indictments,
16informations, pre-trial proceedings, trials, or other formal
17events in the criminal justice system or descriptions or
18notations of criminal charges (including criminal violations
19of local municipal ordinances) and the nature of any
20disposition arising therefrom, including sentencing, court or
21correctional supervision, rehabilitation, and release. The
22term does not apply to statistical records and reports in which
23individuals are not identified and from which their identities
24are not ascertainable, or to information that is for criminal
25investigative or intelligence purposes.
26 (e) The term "unit of general local government" means any

09800SB2640ham001- 236 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1county, municipality or other general purpose political
2subdivision of this State.
3(Source: P.A. 98-558, eff. 1-1-14.)
4 (Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 98-528)
5 Sec. 3. Definitions. Whenever used in this Act, and for the
6purposes of this Act unless the context clearly denotes
7otherwise:
8 (a) The term "criminal justice system" includes all
9activities by public agencies pertaining to the prevention or
10reduction of crime or enforcement of the criminal law, and
11particularly, but without limitation, the prevention,
12detection, and investigation of crime; the apprehension of
13offenders; the protection of victims and witnesses; the
14administration of juvenile justice; the prosecution and
15defense of criminal cases; the trial, conviction, and
16sentencing of offenders; as well as the correction and
17rehabilitation of offenders, which includes imprisonment,
18probation, parole, aftercare release, and treatment.
19 (b) The term "Authority" means the Illinois Criminal
20Justice Information Authority created by this Act.
21 (c) The term "criminal justice information" means any and
22every type of information that is collected, transmitted, or
23maintained by the criminal justice system.
24 (d) The term "criminal history record information" means
25data identifiable to an individual, including information

09800SB2640ham001- 237 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1collected under Section 4.5 of the Criminal Identification Act,
2and consisting of descriptions or notations of arrests,
3detentions, indictments, informations, pre-trial proceedings,
4trials, or other formal events in the criminal justice system
5or descriptions or notations of criminal charges (including
6criminal violations of local municipal ordinances) and the
7nature of any disposition arising therefrom, including
8sentencing, court or correctional supervision, rehabilitation,
9and release. The term does not apply to statistical records and
10reports in which individuals are not identified and from which
11their identities are not ascertainable, or to information that
12is for criminal investigative or intelligence purposes.
13 (e) The term "unit of general local government" means any
14county, municipality or other general purpose political
15subdivision of this State.
16(Source: P.A. 98-528, eff. 1-1-15; 98-558, eff. 1-1-14; revised
179-4-13.)
18 (20 ILCS 3930/14) (from Ch. 38, par. 210-14)
19 Sec. 14. Illinois Law Enforcement Commission. Effective
20April 1, 1983:
21 (a) The position of Executive Director of the Illinois Law
22Enforcement Commission is abolished;
23 (b) The Illinois Law Enforcement Commission is abolished,
24and the terms and appointments of its members and Chairman are
25terminated; and

09800SB2640ham001- 238 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 (Ch. 38, rep. pars. 209-1 through 209-16)
2 (c) "An Act creating an Illinois Law Enforcement Commission
3and defining its powers and duties", approved September 20,
41977, as now or hereafter amended, is repealed.
5(Source: P.A. 82-1039; revised 11-14-13.)
6 Section 145. The Violence Prevention Task Force Act is
7amended by changing Section 5 as follows:
8 (20 ILCS 4028/5)
9 Sec. 5. Violence Prevention Task Force; members.
10 (a) There is created the Violence Prevention Task Force
11(hereinafter referred to as the Task Force) consisting of 6
12members appointed as follows:
13 (1) one member of the Senate appointed by the
14 President of the Senate;
15 (2) one member of the Senate appointed by the
16 Minority Leader of the Senate;
17 (3) one member of the House of Representatives
18 appointed by the Speaker of the House of
19 Representatives;
20 (4) one member of the House of Representatives
21 appointed by the Minority Leader of the House of
22 Representatives; and
23 (5) 2 members appointed by the Governor, one of
24 whom shall be designated the chairperson by the

09800SB2640ham001- 239 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 Governor.
2 (b) The members of the Task Force shall serve without
3compensation but shall be reimbursed for their reasonable and
4necessary expenses from funds appropriated for that purpose.
5 (c) The Task Force may employ skilled experts with the
6approval of the chairperson, and shall receive the cooperation
7of those State agencies it deems appropriate to assist the Task
8Force in carrying out its duties.
9 (d) The Illinois African-American African American Family
10Commission, the Illinois Department of Public Health, and the
11Illinois Latino Family Commission shall provide administrative
12and other support to the Task Force.
13(Source: P.A. 98-194, eff. 8-7-13; revised 9-4-13.)
14 Section 150. The State Finance Act is amended by setting
15forth and renumbering multiple versions of Sections 5.826,
165.827, 5i, and 6z-98 and by changing Section 25 as follows:
17 (30 ILCS 105/5.826)
18 Sec. 5.826. The Driver Services Administration Fund.
19(Source: P.A. 97-1157, eff. 11-28-13.)
20 (30 ILCS 105/5.827)
21 Sec. 5.827. The Illinois State Museum Fund.
22(Source: P.A. 97-1136, eff. 1-1-13; 98-463, eff. 8-16-13.)

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1 (30 ILCS 105/5.830)
2 Sec. 5.830 5.826. The Chicago State University Education
3Improvement Fund.
4(Source: P.A. 98-18, eff. 6-7-13; revised 10-17-13.)
5 (30 ILCS 105/5.831)
6 Sec. 5.831 5.826. The Foreclosure Prevention Program
7Graduated Fund.
8(Source: P.A. 98-20, eff. 6-11-13; revised 10-17-13.)
9 (30 ILCS 105/5.832)
10 Sec. 5.832 5.826. The Mines and Minerals Regulatory Fund.
11(Source: P.A. 98-22, eff. 6-17-13; revised 10-17-13.)
12 (30 ILCS 105/5.833)
13 Sec. 5.833 5.826. The Gang Crime Witness Protection Program
14Fund.
15(Source: P.A. 98-58, eff. 7-8-13; revised 10-17-13.)
16 (30 ILCS 105/5.834)
17 Sec. 5.834 5.826. The Mental Health Reporting Fund.
18(Source: P.A. 98-63, eff. 7-9-13; revised 10-17-13.)
19 (30 ILCS 105/5.835)
20 Sec. 5.835 5.826. The National Wild Turkey Federation Fund.
21(Source: P.A. 98-66, eff. 1-1-14; revised 10-17-13.)

09800SB2640ham001- 241 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 (30 ILCS 105/5.836)
2 Sec. 5.836 5.826. The Medicaid Research and Education
3Support Fund.
4(Source: P.A. 98-104, eff. 7-22-13; revised 10-17-13.)
5 (30 ILCS 105/5.837)
6 Sec. 5.837 5.826. The South Suburban Airport Improvement
7Fund.
8(Source: P.A. 98-109, eff. 7-25-13; revised 10-17-13.)
9 (30 ILCS 105/5.838)
10 Sec. 5.838 5.826. The Working Capital Revolving Loan Fund.
11(Source: P.A. 98-117, eff. 7-30-13; revised 10-17-13.)
12 (30 ILCS 105/5.839)
13 Sec. 5.839 5.826. The Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis
14Fund.
15(Source: P.A. 98-122, eff. 1-1-14; revised 10-17-13.)
16 (30 ILCS 105/5.840)
17 Sec. 5.840 5.826. The Illinois Nurses Foundation Fund.
18(Source: P.A. 98-150, eff. 1-1-14; revised 10-17-13.)
19 (30 ILCS 105/5.841)
20 Sec. 5.841 5.826. The American Red Cross Fund.

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1(Source: P.A. 98-151, eff. 1-1-14; revised 10-17-13.)
2 (30 ILCS 105/5.842)
3 Sec. 5.842 5.826. The Illinois Police Benevolent and
4Protective Association Fund.
5(Source: P.A. 98-233, eff. 1-1-14; revised 10-17-13.)
6 (30 ILCS 105/5.843)
7 Sec. 5.843 5.826. The Alzheimer's Awareness Fund.
8(Source: P.A. 98-259, eff. 1-1-14; revised 10-17-13.)
9 (30 ILCS 105/5.844)
10 Sec. 5.844 5.826. The Supreme Court Special Purposes Fund.
11(Source: P.A. 98-324, eff. 10-1-13; revised 10-17-13.)
12 (30 ILCS 105/5.845)
13 Sec. 5.845 5.826. The Access to Justice Fund.
14(Source: P.A. 98-351, eff. 8-15-13; revised 10-17-13.)
15 (30 ILCS 105/5.846)
16 Sec. 5.846 5.826. The Illinois Police K-9 Memorial Fund.
17(Source: P.A. 98-360, eff. 1-1-14; revised 10-17-13.)
18 (30 ILCS 105/5.847)
19 Sec. 5.847 5.826. The Public Safety Diver Fund.
20(Source: P.A. 98-376, eff. 1-1-14; revised 10-17-13.)

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1 (30 ILCS 105/5.848)
2 Sec. 5.848 5.826. The Committed to a Cure Fund.
3(Source: P.A. 98-382, eff. 1-1-14; revised 10-17-13.)
4 (30 ILCS 105/5.849)
5 Sec. 5.849 5.826. The Illinois Sheriffs' Association
6Scholarship and Training Fund.
7(Source: P.A. 98-395, eff. 1-1-14; revised 10-17-13.)
8 (30 ILCS 105/5.850)
9 Sec. 5.850 5.826. The Illinois State Police Memorial Park
10Fund.
11(Source: P.A. 98-469, eff. 8-16-13; revised 10-17-13.)
12 (30 ILCS 105/5.851)
13 Sec. 5.851 5.826. The Amusement Ride and Patron Safety
14Fund.
15(Source: P.A. 98-541, eff. 8-23-13; revised 10-17-13.)
16 (30 ILCS 105/5.852)
17 Sec. 5.852 5.827. The State Police Firearm Services Fund.
18(Source: P.A. 98-63, eff. 7-9-13; revised 10-17-13.)
19 (30 ILCS 105/5.853)
20 Sec. 5.853 5.827. The Curing Childhood Cancer Fund.

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1(Source: P.A. 98-66, eff. 1-1-14; revised 10-17-13.)
2 (30 ILCS 105/5.854)
3 Sec. 5.854 5.827. The South Suburban Brownfields
4Redevelopment Fund.
5(Source: P.A. 98-109, eff. 7-25-13; revised 10-17-13.)
6 (30 ILCS 105/5i)
7 Sec. 5i. Transfers. Each year, the Governor's Office of
8Management and Budget shall, at the time set forth for the
9submission of the State budget under Section 50-5 of the State
10Budget Law, provide to the Chairperson and the Minority
11Spokesperson of each of the appropriations committees of the
12House of Representatives and the Senate a report of (i) all
13full fiscal year transfers from State general funds to any
14other special fund of the State in the previous fiscal year and
15during the current fiscal year to date, and (ii) all projected
16full fiscal year transfers from State general funds to those
17funds for the remainder of the current fiscal year and the next
18fiscal year, based on estimates prepared by the Governor's
19Office of Management and Budget. The report shall include a
20detailed summary of the estimates upon which the projected
21transfers are based. The report shall also indicate, for each
22transfer:
23 (1) whether or not there is statutory authority for the
24 transfer;

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1 (2) if there is statutory authority for the transfer,
2 whether that statutory authority exists for the next fiscal
3 year; and
4 (3) whether there is debt service associated with the
5 transfer.
6 The General Assembly shall consider the report in the
7appropriations process.
8(Source: P.A. 98-24, eff. 6-19-13.)
9 (30 ILCS 105/5j)
10 Sec. 5j 5i. Closure of State mental health facilities or
11developmental disabilities facilities. Consistent with the
12provisions of Sections 4.4 and 4.5 of the Community Services
13Act, whenever a State mental health facility operated by the
14Department of Human Services or a State developmental
15disabilities facility operated by the Department of Human
16Services is closed, the Department of Human Services, at the
17direction of the Governor, shall transfer funds from the closed
18facility to the appropriate line item providing appropriation
19authority for the new venue of care to facilitate the
20transition of services to the new venue of care, provided that
21the new venue of care is a Department of Human Services funded
22provider or facility.
23 As used in this Section, the terms "mental health facility"
24and "developmental disabilities facility" have the meanings
25ascribed to those terms in the Mental Health and Developmental

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1Disabilities Code.
2(Source: P.A. 98-403, eff. 1-1-14; revised 10-17-13.)
3 (30 ILCS 105/6z-98)
4 Sec. 6z-98. The Chicago State University Education
5Improvement Fund. The Chicago State University Education
6Improvement Fund is hereby created as a special fund in the
7State treasury. The moneys deposited into the Fund shall be
8used by Chicago State University, subject to appropriation, for
9expenses incurred by the University. All interest earned on
10moneys in the Fund shall remain in the Fund.
11(Source: P.A. 98-18, eff. 6-7-13.)
12 (30 ILCS 105/6z-99)
13 Sec. 6z-99 6z-98. The Mental Health Reporting Fund.
14 (a) There is created in the State treasury a special fund
15known as the Mental Health Reporting Fund. The Fund shall
16receive revenue under the Firearm Concealed Carry Act. The Fund
17may also receive revenue from grants, pass-through grants,
18donations, appropriations, and any other legal source.
19 (b) The Department of State Police and Department of Human
20Services shall coordinate to use moneys in the Fund to finance
21their respective duties of collecting and reporting data on
22mental health records and ensuring that mental health firearm
23possession prohibitors are enforced as set forth under the
24Firearm Concealed Carry Act and the Firearm Owners

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1Identification Card Act. Any surplus in the Fund beyond what is
2necessary to ensure compliance with mental health reporting
3under these Acts shall be used by the Department of Human
4Services for mental health treatment programs.
5 (c) Investment income that is attributable to the
6investment of moneys in the Fund shall be retained in the Fund
7for the uses specified in this Section.
8(Source: P.A. 98-63, eff. 7-9-13; revised 7-19-13.)
9 (30 ILCS 105/25) (from Ch. 127, par. 161)
10 Sec. 25. Fiscal year limitations.
11 (a) All appropriations shall be available for expenditure
12for the fiscal year or for a lesser period if the Act making
13that appropriation so specifies. A deficiency or emergency
14appropriation shall be available for expenditure only through
15June 30 of the year when the Act making that appropriation is
16enacted unless that Act otherwise provides.
17 (b) Outstanding liabilities as of June 30, payable from
18appropriations which have otherwise expired, may be paid out of
19the expiring appropriations during the 2-month period ending at
20the close of business on August 31. Any service involving
21professional or artistic skills or any personal services by an
22employee whose compensation is subject to income tax
23withholding must be performed as of June 30 of the fiscal year
24in order to be considered an "outstanding liability as of June
2530" that is thereby eligible for payment out of the expiring

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1appropriation.
2 (b-1) However, payment of tuition reimbursement claims
3under Section 14-7.03 or 18-3 of the School Code may be made by
4the State Board of Education from its appropriations for those
5respective purposes for any fiscal year, even though the claims
6reimbursed by the payment may be claims attributable to a prior
7fiscal year, and payments may be made at the direction of the
8State Superintendent of Education from the fund from which the
9appropriation is made without regard to any fiscal year
10limitations, except as required by subsection (j) of this
11Section. Beginning on June 30, 2021, payment of tuition
12reimbursement claims under Section 14-7.03 or 18-3 of the
13School Code as of June 30, payable from appropriations that
14have otherwise expired, may be paid out of the expiring
15appropriation during the 4-month period ending at the close of
16business on October 31.
17 (b-2) All outstanding liabilities as of June 30, 2010,
18payable from appropriations that would otherwise expire at the
19conclusion of the lapse period for fiscal year 2010, and
20interest penalties payable on those liabilities under the State
21Prompt Payment Act, may be paid out of the expiring
22appropriations until December 31, 2010, without regard to the
23fiscal year in which the payment is made, as long as vouchers
24for the liabilities are received by the Comptroller no later
25than August 31, 2010.
26 (b-2.5) All outstanding liabilities as of June 30, 2011,

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1payable from appropriations that would otherwise expire at the
2conclusion of the lapse period for fiscal year 2011, and
3interest penalties payable on those liabilities under the State
4Prompt Payment Act, may be paid out of the expiring
5appropriations until December 31, 2011, without regard to the
6fiscal year in which the payment is made, as long as vouchers
7for the liabilities are received by the Comptroller no later
8than August 31, 2011.
9 (b-2.6) All outstanding liabilities as of June 30, 2012,
10payable from appropriations that would otherwise expire at the
11conclusion of the lapse period for fiscal year 2012, and
12interest penalties payable on those liabilities under the State
13Prompt Payment Act, may be paid out of the expiring
14appropriations until December 31, 2012, without regard to the
15fiscal year in which the payment is made, as long as vouchers
16for the liabilities are received by the Comptroller no later
17than August 31, 2012.
18 (b-2.7) For fiscal years 2012, 2013, and 2014, interest
19penalties payable under the State Prompt Payment Act associated
20with a voucher for which payment is issued after June 30 may be
21paid out of the next fiscal year's appropriation. The future
22year appropriation must be for the same purpose and from the
23same fund as the original payment. An interest penalty voucher
24submitted against a future year appropriation must be submitted
25within 60 days after the issuance of the associated voucher,
26and the Comptroller must issue the interest payment within 60

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1days after acceptance of the interest voucher.
2 (b-3) Medical payments may be made by the Department of
3Veterans' Affairs from its appropriations for those purposes
4for any fiscal year, without regard to the fact that the
5medical services being compensated for by such payment may have
6been rendered in a prior fiscal year, except as required by
7subsection (j) of this Section. Beginning on June 30, 2021,
8medical payments payable from appropriations that have
9otherwise expired may be paid out of the expiring appropriation
10during the 4-month period ending at the close of business on
11October 31.
12 (b-4) Medical payments and child care payments may be made
13by the Department of Human Services (as successor to the
14Department of Public Aid) from appropriations for those
15purposes for any fiscal year, without regard to the fact that
16the medical or child care services being compensated for by
17such payment may have been rendered in a prior fiscal year; and
18payments may be made at the direction of the Department of
19Healthcare and Family Services (or successor agency) from the
20Health Insurance Reserve Fund without regard to any fiscal year
21limitations, except as required by subsection (j) of this
22Section. Beginning on June 30, 2021, medical and child care
23payments made by the Department of Human Services and payments
24made at the discretion of the Department of Healthcare and
25Family Services (or successor agency) from the Health Insurance
26Reserve Fund and payable from appropriations that have

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1otherwise expired may be paid out of the expiring appropriation
2during the 4-month period ending at the close of business on
3October 31.
4 (b-5) Medical payments may be made by the Department of
5Human Services from its appropriations relating to substance
6abuse treatment services for any fiscal year, without regard to
7the fact that the medical services being compensated for by
8such payment may have been rendered in a prior fiscal year,
9provided the payments are made on a fee-for-service basis
10consistent with requirements established for Medicaid
11reimbursement by the Department of Healthcare and Family
12Services, except as required by subsection (j) of this Section.
13Beginning on June 30, 2021, medical payments made by the
14Department of Human Services relating to substance abuse
15treatment services payable from appropriations that have
16otherwise expired may be paid out of the expiring appropriation
17during the 4-month period ending at the close of business on
18October 31.
19 (b-6) Additionally, payments may be made by the Department
20of Human Services from its appropriations, or any other State
21agency from its appropriations with the approval of the
22Department of Human Services, from the Immigration Reform and
23Control Fund for purposes authorized pursuant to the
24Immigration Reform and Control Act of 1986, without regard to
25any fiscal year limitations, except as required by subsection
26(j) of this Section. Beginning on June 30, 2021, payments made

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1by the Department of Human Services from the Immigration Reform
2and Control Fund for purposes authorized pursuant to the
3Immigration Reform and Control Act of 1986 payable from
4appropriations that have otherwise expired may be paid out of
5the expiring appropriation during the 4-month period ending at
6the close of business on October 31.
7 (b-7) Payments may be made in accordance with a plan
8authorized by paragraph (11) or (12) of Section 405-105 of the
9Department of Central Management Services Law from
10appropriations for those payments without regard to fiscal year
11limitations.
12 (b-8) Reimbursements to eligible airport sponsors for the
13construction or upgrading of Automated Weather Observation
14Systems may be made by the Department of Transportation from
15appropriations for those purposes for any fiscal year, without
16regard to the fact that the qualification or obligation may
17have occurred in a prior fiscal year, provided that at the time
18the expenditure was made the project had been approved by the
19Department of Transportation prior to June 1, 2012 and, as a
20result of recent changes in federal funding formulas, can no
21longer receive federal reimbursement.
22 (b-9) Medical payments not exceeding $150,000,000 may be
23made by the Department on Aging from its appropriations
24relating to the Community Care Program for fiscal year 2014,
25without regard to the fact that the medical services being
26compensated for by such payment may have been rendered in a

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1prior fiscal year, provided the payments are made on a
2fee-for-service basis consistent with requirements established
3for Medicaid reimbursement by the Department of Healthcare and
4Family Services, except as required by subsection (j) of this
5Section.
6 (c) Further, payments may be made by the Department of
7Public Health and the Department of Human Services (acting as
8successor to the Department of Public Health under the
9Department of Human Services Act) from their respective
10appropriations for grants for medical care to or on behalf of
11premature and high-mortality risk infants and their mothers and
12for grants for supplemental food supplies provided under the
13United States Department of Agriculture Women, Infants and
14Children Nutrition Program, for any fiscal year without regard
15to the fact that the services being compensated for by such
16payment may have been rendered in a prior fiscal year, except
17as required by subsection (j) of this Section. Beginning on
18June 30, 2021, payments made by the Department of Public Health
19and the Department of Human Services from their respective
20appropriations for grants for medical care to or on behalf of
21premature and high-mortality risk infants and their mothers and
22for grants for supplemental food supplies provided under the
23United States Department of Agriculture Women, Infants and
24Children Nutrition Program payable from appropriations that
25have otherwise expired may be paid out of the expiring
26appropriations during the 4-month period ending at the close of

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1business on October 31.
2 (d) The Department of Public Health and the Department of
3Human Services (acting as successor to the Department of Public
4Health under the Department of Human Services Act) shall each
5annually submit to the State Comptroller, Senate President,
6Senate Minority Leader, Speaker of the House, House Minority
7Leader, and the respective Chairmen and Minority Spokesmen of
8the Appropriations Committees of the Senate and the House, on
9or before December 31, a report of fiscal year funds used to
10pay for services provided in any prior fiscal year. This report
11shall document by program or service category those
12expenditures from the most recently completed fiscal year used
13to pay for services provided in prior fiscal years.
14 (e) The Department of Healthcare and Family Services, the
15Department of Human Services (acting as successor to the
16Department of Public Aid), and the Department of Human Services
17making fee-for-service payments relating to substance abuse
18treatment services provided during a previous fiscal year shall
19each annually submit to the State Comptroller, Senate
20President, Senate Minority Leader, Speaker of the House, House
21Minority Leader, the respective Chairmen and Minority
22Spokesmen of the Appropriations Committees of the Senate and
23the House, on or before November 30, a report that shall
24document by program or service category those expenditures from
25the most recently completed fiscal year used to pay for (i)
26services provided in prior fiscal years and (ii) services for

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1which claims were received in prior fiscal years.
2 (f) The Department of Human Services (as successor to the
3Department of Public Aid) shall annually submit to the State
4Comptroller, Senate President, Senate Minority Leader, Speaker
5of the House, House Minority Leader, and the respective
6Chairmen and Minority Spokesmen of the Appropriations
7Committees of the Senate and the House, on or before December
831, a report of fiscal year funds used to pay for services
9(other than medical care) provided in any prior fiscal year.
10This report shall document by program or service category those
11expenditures from the most recently completed fiscal year used
12to pay for services provided in prior fiscal years.
13 (g) In addition, each annual report required to be
14submitted by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services
15under subsection (e) shall include the following information
16with respect to the State's Medicaid program:
17 (1) Explanations of the exact causes of the variance
18 between the previous year's estimated and actual
19 liabilities.
20 (2) Factors affecting the Department of Healthcare and
21 Family Services' liabilities, including but not limited to
22 numbers of aid recipients, levels of medical service
23 utilization by aid recipients, and inflation in the cost of
24 medical services.
25 (3) The results of the Department's efforts to combat
26 fraud and abuse.

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1 (h) As provided in Section 4 of the General Assembly
2Compensation Act, any utility bill for service provided to a
3General Assembly member's district office for a period
4including portions of 2 consecutive fiscal years may be paid
5from funds appropriated for such expenditure in either fiscal
6year.
7 (i) An agency which administers a fund classified by the
8Comptroller as an internal service fund may issue rules for:
9 (1) billing user agencies in advance for payments or
10 authorized inter-fund transfers based on estimated charges
11 for goods or services;
12 (2) issuing credits, refunding through inter-fund
13 transfers, or reducing future inter-fund transfers during
14 the subsequent fiscal year for all user agency payments or
15 authorized inter-fund transfers received during the prior
16 fiscal year which were in excess of the final amounts owed
17 by the user agency for that period; and
18 (3) issuing catch-up billings to user agencies during
19 the subsequent fiscal year for amounts remaining due when
20 payments or authorized inter-fund transfers received from
21 the user agency during the prior fiscal year were less than
22 the total amount owed for that period.
23User agencies are authorized to reimburse internal service
24funds for catch-up billings by vouchers drawn against their
25respective appropriations for the fiscal year in which the
26catch-up billing was issued or by increasing an authorized

09800SB2640ham001- 257 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1inter-fund transfer during the current fiscal year. For the
2purposes of this Act, "inter-fund transfers" means transfers
3without the use of the voucher-warrant process, as authorized
4by Section 9.01 of the State Comptroller Act.
5 (i-1) Beginning on July 1, 2021, all outstanding
6liabilities, not payable during the 4-month lapse period as
7described in subsections (b-1), (b-3), (b-4), (b-5), (b-6), and
8(c) of this Section, that are made from appropriations for that
9purpose for any fiscal year, without regard to the fact that
10the services being compensated for by those payments may have
11been rendered in a prior fiscal year, are limited to only those
12claims that have been incurred but for which a proper bill or
13invoice as defined by the State Prompt Payment Act has not been
14received by September 30th following the end of the fiscal year
15in which the service was rendered.
16 (j) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Act, the
17aggregate amount of payments to be made without regard for
18fiscal year limitations as contained in subsections (b-1),
19(b-3), (b-4), (b-5), (b-6), and (c) of this Section, and
20determined by using Generally Accepted Accounting Principles,
21shall not exceed the following amounts:
22 (1) $6,000,000,000 for outstanding liabilities related
23 to fiscal year 2012;
24 (2) $5,300,000,000 for outstanding liabilities related
25 to fiscal year 2013;
26 (3) $4,600,000,000 for outstanding liabilities related

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1 to fiscal year 2014;
2 (4) $4,000,000,000 for outstanding liabilities related
3 to fiscal year 2015;
4 (5) $3,300,000,000 for outstanding liabilities related
5 to fiscal year 2016;
6 (6) $2,600,000,000 for outstanding liabilities related
7 to fiscal year 2017;
8 (7) $2,000,000,000 for outstanding liabilities related
9 to fiscal year 2018;
10 (8) $1,300,000,000 for outstanding liabilities related
11 to fiscal year 2019;
12 (9) $600,000,000 for outstanding liabilities related
13 to fiscal year 2020; and
14 (10) $0 for outstanding liabilities related to fiscal
15 year 2021 and fiscal years thereafter.
16 (k) Department of Healthcare and Family Services Medical
17Assistance Payments.
18 (1) Definition of Medical Assistance.
19 For purposes of this subsection, the term "Medical
20 Assistance" shall include, but not necessarily be
21 limited to, medical programs and services authorized
22 under Titles XIX and XXI of the Social Security Act,
23 the Illinois Public Aid Code, the Children's Health
24 Insurance Program Act, the Covering ALL KIDS Health
25 Insurance Act, the Long Term Acute Care Hospital
26 Quality Improvement Transfer Program Act, and medical

09800SB2640ham001- 259 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 care to or on behalf of persons suffering from chronic
2 renal disease, persons suffering from hemophilia, and
3 victims of sexual assault.
4 (2) Limitations on Medical Assistance payments that
5 may be paid from future fiscal year appropriations.
6 (A) The maximum amounts of annual unpaid Medical
7 Assistance bills received and recorded by the
8 Department of Healthcare and Family Services on or
9 before June 30th of a particular fiscal year
10 attributable in aggregate to the General Revenue Fund,
11 Healthcare Provider Relief Fund, Tobacco Settlement
12 Recovery Fund, Long-Term Care Provider Fund, and the
13 Drug Rebate Fund that may be paid in total by the
14 Department from future fiscal year Medical Assistance
15 appropriations to those funds are: $700,000,000 for
16 fiscal year 2013 and $100,000,000 for fiscal year 2014
17 and each fiscal year thereafter.
18 (B) Bills for Medical Assistance services rendered
19 in a particular fiscal year, but received and recorded
20 by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services
21 after June 30th of that fiscal year, may be paid from
22 either appropriations for that fiscal year or future
23 fiscal year appropriations for Medical Assistance.
24 Such payments shall not be subject to the requirements
25 of subparagraph (A).
26 (C) Medical Assistance bills received by the

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1 Department of Healthcare and Family Services in a
2 particular fiscal year, but subject to payment amount
3 adjustments in a future fiscal year may be paid from a
4 future fiscal year's appropriation for Medical
5 Assistance. Such payments shall not be subject to the
6 requirements of subparagraph (A).
7 (D) Medical Assistance payments made by the
8 Department of Healthcare and Family Services from
9 funds other than those specifically referenced in
10 subparagraph (A) may be made from appropriations for
11 those purposes for any fiscal year without regard to
12 the fact that the Medical Assistance services being
13 compensated for by such payment may have been rendered
14 in a prior fiscal year. Such payments shall not be
15 subject to the requirements of subparagraph (A).
16 (3) Extended lapse period for Department of Healthcare
17 and Family Services Medical Assistance payments.
18 Notwithstanding any other State law to the contrary,
19 outstanding Department of Healthcare and Family Services
20 Medical Assistance liabilities, as of June 30th, payable
21 from appropriations which have otherwise expired, may be
22 paid out of the expiring appropriations during the 6-month
23 period ending at the close of business on December 31st.
24 (l) The changes to this Section made by Public Act 97-691
25shall be effective for payment of Medical Assistance bills
26incurred in fiscal year 2013 and future fiscal years. The

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1changes to this Section made by Public Act 97-691 shall not be
2applied to Medical Assistance bills incurred in fiscal year
32012 or prior fiscal years.
4 (m) The Comptroller must issue payments against
5outstanding liabilities that were received prior to the lapse
6period deadlines set forth in this Section as soon thereafter
7as practical, but no payment may be issued after the 4 months
8following the lapse period deadline without the signed
9authorization of the Comptroller and the Governor.
10(Source: P.A. 97-75, eff. 6-30-11; 97-333, eff. 8-12-11;
1197-691, eff. 7-1-12; 97-732, eff. 6-30-12; 97-932, eff.
128-10-12; 98-8, eff. 5-3-13; 98-24, eff. 6-19-13; 98-215, eff.
138-9-13; 98-463, eff. 8-16-13; revised 9-9-13.)
14 Section 155. The Public Funds Investment Act is amended by
15changing Sections 2 and 6.5 as follows:
16 (30 ILCS 235/2) (from Ch. 85, par. 902)
17 Sec. 2. Authorized investments.
18 (a) Any public agency may invest any public funds as
19follows:
20 (1) in bonds, notes, certificates of indebtedness,
21 treasury bills or other securities now or hereafter issued,
22 which are guaranteed by the full faith and credit of the
23 United States of America as to principal and interest;
24 (2) in bonds, notes, debentures, or other similar

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1 obligations of the United States of America, its agencies,
2 and its instrumentalities;
3 (3) in interest-bearing savings accounts,
4 interest-bearing certificates of deposit or
5 interest-bearing time deposits or any other investments
6 constituting direct obligations of any bank as defined by
7 the Illinois Banking Act;
8 (4) in short term obligations of corporations
9 organized in the United States with assets exceeding
10 $500,000,000 if (i) such obligations are rated at the time
11 of purchase at one of the 3 highest classifications
12 established by at least 2 standard rating services and
13 which mature not later than 270 days from the date of
14 purchase, (ii) such purchases do not exceed 10% of the
15 corporation's outstanding obligations and (iii) no more
16 than one-third of the public agency's funds may be invested
17 in short term obligations of corporations; or
18 (5) in money market mutual funds registered under the
19 Investment Company Act of 1940, provided that the portfolio
20 of any such money market mutual fund is limited to
21 obligations described in paragraph (1) or (2) of this
22 subsection and to agreements to repurchase such
23 obligations.
24 (a-1) In addition to any other investments authorized under
25this Act, a municipality, park district, forest preserve
26district, conservation district, county, or other governmental

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1unit may invest its public funds in interest bearing bonds of
2any county, township, city, village, incorporated town,
3municipal corporation, or school district, of the State of
4Illinois, of any other state, or of any political subdivision
5or agency of the State of Illinois or of any other state,
6whether the interest earned thereon is taxable or tax-exempt
7under federal law. The bonds shall be registered in the name of
8the municipality, park district, forest preserve district,
9conservation district, county, or other governmental unit, or
10held under a custodial agreement at a bank. The bonds shall be
11rated at the time of purchase within the 4 highest general
12classifications established by a rating service of nationally
13recognized expertise in rating bonds of states and their
14political subdivisions.
15 (b) Investments may be made only in banks which are insured
16by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation. Any public agency
17may invest any public funds in short term discount obligations
18of the Federal National Mortgage Association or in shares or
19other forms of securities legally issuable by savings banks or
20savings and loan associations incorporated under the laws of
21this State or any other state or under the laws of the United
22States. Investments may be made only in those savings banks or
23savings and loan associations the shares, or investment
24certificates of which are insured by the Federal Deposit
25Insurance Corporation. Any such securities may be purchased at
26the offering or market price thereof at the time of such

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1purchase. All such securities so purchased shall mature or be
2redeemable on a date or dates prior to the time when, in the
3judgment of such governing authority, the public funds so
4invested will be required for expenditure by such public agency
5or its governing authority. The expressed judgment of any such
6governing authority as to the time when any public funds will
7be required for expenditure or be redeemable is final and
8conclusive. Any public agency may invest any public funds in
9dividend-bearing share accounts, share certificate accounts or
10class of share accounts of a credit union chartered under the
11laws of this State or the laws of the United States; provided,
12however, the principal office of any such credit union must be
13located within the State of Illinois. Investments may be made
14only in those credit unions the accounts of which are insured
15by applicable law.
16 (c) For purposes of this Section, the term "agencies of the
17United States of America" includes: (i) the federal land banks,
18federal intermediate credit banks, banks for cooperative,
19federal farm credit banks, or any other entity authorized to
20issue debt obligations under the Farm Credit Act of 1971 (12
21U.S.C. 2001 et seq.) and Acts amendatory thereto; (ii) the
22federal home loan banks and the federal home loan mortgage
23corporation; and (iii) any other agency created by Act of
24Congress.
25 (d) Except for pecuniary interests permitted under
26subsection (f) of Section 3-14-4 of the Illinois Municipal Code

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1or under Section 3.2 of the Public Officer Prohibited Practices
2Act, no person acting as treasurer or financial officer or who
3is employed in any similar capacity by or for a public agency
4may do any of the following:
5 (1) have any interest, directly or indirectly, in any
6 investments in which the agency is authorized to invest.
7 (2) have any interest, directly or indirectly, in the
8 sellers, sponsors, or managers of those investments.
9 (3) receive, in any manner, compensation of any kind
10 from any investments in which the agency is authorized to
11 invest.
12 (e) Any public agency may also invest any public funds in a
13Public Treasurers' Investment Pool created under Section 17 of
14the State Treasurer Act. Any public agency may also invest any
15public funds in a fund managed, operated, and administered by a
16bank, subsidiary of a bank, or subsidiary of a bank holding
17company or use the services of such an entity to hold and
18invest or advise regarding the investment of any public funds.
19 (f) To the extent a public agency has custody of funds not
20owned by it or another public agency and does not otherwise
21have authority to invest such funds, the public agency may
22invest such funds as if they were its own. Such funds must be
23released to the appropriate person at the earliest reasonable
24time, but in no case exceeding 31 days, after the private
25person becomes entitled to the receipt of them. All earnings
26accruing on any investments or deposits made pursuant to the

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1provisions of this Act shall be credited to the public agency
2by or for which such investments or deposits were made, except
3as provided otherwise in Section 4.1 of the State Finance Act
4or the Local Governmental Tax Collection Act, and except where
5by specific statutory provisions such earnings are directed to
6be credited to and paid to a particular fund.
7 (g) A public agency may purchase or invest in repurchase
8agreements of government securities having the meaning set out
9in the Government Securities Act of 1986, as now or hereafter
10amended or succeeded, subject to the provisions of said Act and
11the regulations issued thereunder. The government securities,
12unless registered or inscribed in the name of the public
13agency, shall be purchased through banks or trust companies
14authorized to do business in the State of Illinois.
15 (h) Except for repurchase agreements of government
16securities which are subject to the Government Securities Act
17of 1986, as now or hereafter amended or succeeded, no public
18agency may purchase or invest in instruments which constitute
19repurchase agreements, and no financial institution may enter
20into such an agreement with or on behalf of any public agency
21unless the instrument and the transaction meet the following
22requirements:
23 (1) The securities, unless registered or inscribed in
24 the name of the public agency, are purchased through banks
25 or trust companies authorized to do business in the State
26 of Illinois.

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1 (2) An authorized public officer after ascertaining
2 which firm will give the most favorable rate of interest,
3 directs the custodial bank to "purchase" specified
4 securities from a designated institution. The "custodial
5 bank" is the bank or trust company, or agency of
6 government, which acts for the public agency in connection
7 with repurchase agreements involving the investment of
8 funds by the public agency. The State Treasurer may act as
9 custodial bank for public agencies executing repurchase
10 agreements. To the extent the Treasurer acts in this
11 capacity, he is hereby authorized to pass through to such
12 public agencies any charges assessed by the Federal Reserve
13 Bank.
14 (3) A custodial bank must be a member bank of the
15 Federal Reserve System or maintain accounts with member
16 banks. All transfers of book-entry securities must be
17 accomplished on a Reserve Bank's computer records through a
18 member bank of the Federal Reserve System. These securities
19 must be credited to the public agency on the records of the
20 custodial bank and the transaction must be confirmed in
21 writing to the public agency by the custodial bank.
22 (4) Trading partners shall be limited to banks or trust
23 companies authorized to do business in the State of
24 Illinois or to registered primary reporting dealers.
25 (5) The security interest must be perfected.
26 (6) The public agency enters into a written master

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1 repurchase agreement which outlines the basic
2 responsibilities and liabilities of both buyer and seller.
3 (7) Agreements shall be for periods of 330 days or
4 less.
5 (8) The authorized public officer of the public agency
6 informs the custodial bank in writing of the maturity
7 details of the repurchase agreement.
8 (9) The custodial bank must take delivery of and
9 maintain the securities in its custody for the account of
10 the public agency and confirm the transaction in writing to
11 the public agency. The Custodial Undertaking shall provide
12 that the custodian takes possession of the securities
13 exclusively for the public agency; that the securities are
14 free of any claims against the trading partner; and any
15 claims by the custodian are subordinate to the public
16 agency's claims to rights to those securities.
17 (10) The obligations purchased by a public agency may
18 only be sold or presented for redemption or payment by the
19 fiscal agent bank or trust company holding the obligations
20 upon the written instruction of the public agency or
21 officer authorized to make such investments.
22 (11) The custodial bank shall be liable to the public
23 agency for any monetary loss suffered by the public agency
24 due to the failure of the custodial bank to take and
25 maintain possession of such securities.
26 (i) Notwithstanding the foregoing restrictions on

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1investment in instruments constituting repurchase agreements
2the Illinois Housing Development Authority may invest in, and
3any financial institution with capital of at least $250,000,000
4may act as custodian for, instruments that constitute
5repurchase agreements, provided that the Illinois Housing
6Development Authority, in making each such investment,
7complies with the safety and soundness guidelines for engaging
8in repurchase transactions applicable to federally insured
9banks, savings banks, savings and loan associations or other
10depository institutions as set forth in the Federal Financial
11Institutions Examination Council Policy Statement Regarding
12Repurchase Agreements and any regulations issued, or which may
13be issued by the supervisory federal authority pertaining
14thereto and any amendments thereto; provided further that the
15securities shall be either (i) direct general obligations of,
16or obligations the payment of the principal of and/or interest
17on which are unconditionally guaranteed by, the United States
18of America or (ii) any obligations of any agency, corporation
19or subsidiary thereof controlled or supervised by and acting as
20an instrumentality of the United States Government pursuant to
21authority granted by the Congress of the United States and
22provided further that the security interest must be perfected
23by either the Illinois Housing Development Authority, its
24custodian or its agent receiving possession of the securities
25either physically or transferred through a nationally
26recognized book entry system.

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1 (j) In addition to all other investments authorized under
2this Section, a community college district may invest public
3funds in any mutual funds that invest primarily in corporate
4investment grade or global government short term bonds.
5Purchases of mutual funds that invest primarily in global
6government short term bonds shall be limited to funds with
7assets of at least $100 million and that are rated at the time
8of purchase as one of the 10 highest classifications
9established by a recognized rating service. The investments
10shall be subject to approval by the local community college
11board of trustees. Each community college board of trustees
12shall develop a policy regarding the percentage of the
13college's investment portfolio that can be invested in such
14funds.
15 Nothing in this Section shall be construed to authorize an
16intergovernmental risk management entity to accept the deposit
17of public funds except for risk management purposes.
18(Source: P.A. 97-129, eff. 7-14-11; 98-297, eff. 1-1-14;
1998-390, eff. 8-16-13; revised 9-10-13.)
20 (30 ILCS 235/6.5)
21 Sec. 6.5. Federally insured deposits at Illinois financial
22institutions.
23 (a) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Act or any
24other statute, whenever a public agency invests public funds in
25an interest-bearing savings account, interest-bearing

09800SB2640ham001- 271 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1certificate of deposit, or interest-bearing time deposit under
2Section 2 of this Act, the provisions of Section 6 of this Act
3and any other statutory requirements pertaining to the
4eligibility of a bank to receive or hold public deposits or to
5the pledging of collateral by a bank to secure public deposits
6do not apply to any bank receiving or holding all or part of
7the invested public funds if (i) the public agency initiates
8the investment at or through a bank located in Illinois and
9(ii) the invested public funds are at all times time fully
10insured by an agency or instrumentality of the federal
11government.
12 (b) Nothing in this Section is intended to:
13 (1) prohibit a public agency from requiring the bank at
14 or through which the investment of public funds is
15 initiated to provide the public agency with the information
16 otherwise required by subsection subsections (a), (b), or
17 (c) of Section 6 of this Act as a condition of investing
18 the public funds at or through that bank; or
19 (2) permit a bank to receive or hold public deposits if
20 that bank is prohibited from doing so by any rule,
21 sanction, or order issued by a regulatory agency or by a
22 court.
23 (c) For purposes of this Section, the term "bank" includes
24any person doing a banking business whether subject to the laws
25of this or any other jurisdiction.
26(Source: P.A. 93-756, eff. 7-16-04; revised 10-7-13.)

09800SB2640ham001- 272 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 Section 160. The Illinois Procurement Code is amended by
2changing Section 1-10 as follows:
3 (30 ILCS 500/1-10)
4 Sec. 1-10. Application.
5 (a) This Code applies only to procurements for which
6contractors were first solicited on or after July 1, 1998. This
7Code shall not be construed to affect or impair any contract,
8or any provision of a contract, entered into based on a
9solicitation prior to the implementation date of this Code as
10described in Article 99, including but not limited to any
11covenant entered into with respect to any revenue bonds or
12similar instruments. All procurements for which contracts are
13solicited between the effective date of Articles 50 and 99 and
14July 1, 1998 shall be substantially in accordance with this
15Code and its intent.
16 (b) This Code shall apply regardless of the source of the
17funds with which the contracts are paid, including federal
18assistance moneys. This Code shall not apply to:
19 (1) Contracts between the State and its political
20 subdivisions or other governments, or between State
21 governmental bodies except as specifically provided in
22 this Code.
23 (2) Grants, except for the filing requirements of
24 Section 20-80.

09800SB2640ham001- 273 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 (3) Purchase of care.
2 (4) Hiring of an individual as employee and not as an
3 independent contractor, whether pursuant to an employment
4 code or policy or by contract directly with that
5 individual.
6 (5) Collective bargaining contracts.
7 (6) Purchase of real estate, except that notice of this
8 type of contract with a value of more than $25,000 must be
9 published in the Procurement Bulletin within 7 days after
10 the deed is recorded in the county of jurisdiction. The
11 notice shall identify the real estate purchased, the names
12 of all parties to the contract, the value of the contract,
13 and the effective date of the contract.
14 (7) Contracts necessary to prepare for anticipated
15 litigation, enforcement actions, or investigations,
16 provided that the chief legal counsel to the Governor shall
17 give his or her prior approval when the procuring agency is
18 one subject to the jurisdiction of the Governor, and
19 provided that the chief legal counsel of any other
20 procuring entity subject to this Code shall give his or her
21 prior approval when the procuring entity is not one subject
22 to the jurisdiction of the Governor.
23 (8) Contracts for services to Northern Illinois
24 University by a person, acting as an independent
25 contractor, who is qualified by education, experience, and
26 technical ability and is selected by negotiation for the

09800SB2640ham001- 274 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 purpose of providing non-credit educational service
2 activities or products by means of specialized programs
3 offered by the university.
4 (9) Procurement expenditures by the Illinois
5 Conservation Foundation when only private funds are used.
6 (10) Procurement expenditures by the Illinois Health
7 Information Exchange Authority involving private funds
8 from the Health Information Exchange Fund. "Private funds"
9 means gifts, donations, and private grants.
10 (11) Public-private agreements entered into according
11 to the procurement requirements of Section 20 of the
12 Public-Private Partnerships for Transportation Act and
13 design-build agreements entered into according to the
14 procurement requirements of Section 25 of the
15 Public-Private Partnerships for Transportation Act.
16 (12) Contracts for legal, financial, and other
17 professional and artistic services entered into on or
18 before December 31, 2018 by the Illinois Finance Authority
19 in which the State of Illinois is not obligated. Such
20 contracts shall be awarded through a competitive process
21 authorized by the Board of the Illinois Finance Authority
22 and are subject to Sections 5-30, 20-160, 50-13, 50-20,
23 50-35, and 50-37 of this Code, as well as the final
24 approval by the Board of the Illinois Finance Authority of
25 the terms of the contract.
26 Notwithstanding any other provision of law, contracts

09800SB2640ham001- 275 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1entered into under item (12) of this subsection (b) shall be
2published in the Procurement Bulletin within 14 days after
3contract execution. The chief procurement officer shall
4prescribe the form and content of the notice. The Illinois
5Finance Authority shall provide the chief procurement officer,
6on a monthly basis, in the form and content prescribed by the
7chief procurement officer, a report of contracts that are
8related to the procurement of goods and services identified in
9item (12) of this subsection (b). At a minimum, this report
10shall include the name of the contractor, a description of the
11supply or service provided, the total amount of the contract,
12the term of the contract, and the exception to the Code
13utilized. A copy of each of these contracts shall be made
14available to the chief procurement officer immediately upon
15request. The chief procurement officer shall submit a report to
16the Governor and General Assembly no later than November 1 of
17each year that shall include, at a minimum, an annual summary
18of the monthly information reported to the chief procurement
19officer.
20 (c) This Code does not apply to the electric power
21procurement process provided for under Section 1-75 of the
22Illinois Power Agency Act and Section 16-111.5 of the Public
23Utilities Act.
24 (d) Except for Section 20-160 and Article 50 of this Code,
25and as expressly required by Section 9.1 of the Illinois
26Lottery Law, the provisions of this Code do not apply to the

09800SB2640ham001- 276 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1procurement process provided for under Section 9.1 of the
2Illinois Lottery Law.
3 (e) This Code does not apply to the process used by the
4Capital Development Board to retain a person or entity to
5assist the Capital Development Board with its duties related to
6the determination of costs of a clean coal SNG brownfield
7facility, as defined by Section 1-10 of the Illinois Power
8Agency Act, as required in subsection (h-3) of Section 9-220 of
9the Public Utilities Act, including calculating the range of
10capital costs, the range of operating and maintenance costs, or
11the sequestration costs or monitoring the construction of clean
12coal SNG brownfield facility for the full duration of
13construction.
14 (f) This Code does not apply to the process used by the
15Illinois Power Agency to retain a mediator to mediate sourcing
16agreement disputes between gas utilities and the clean coal SNG
17brownfield facility, as defined in Section 1-10 of the Illinois
18Power Agency Act, as required under subsection (h-1) of Section
199-220 of the Public Utilities Act.
20 (g) This Code does not apply to the processes used by the
21Illinois Power Agency to retain a mediator to mediate contract
22disputes between gas utilities and the clean coal SNG facility
23and to retain an expert to assist in the review of contracts
24under subsection (h) of Section 9-220 of the Public Utilities
25Act. This Code does not apply to the process used by the
26Illinois Commerce Commission to retain an expert to assist in

09800SB2640ham001- 277 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1determining the actual incurred costs of the clean coal SNG
2facility and the reasonableness of those costs as required
3under subsection (h) of Section 9-220 of the Public Utilities
4Act.
5 (h) This Code does not apply to the process to procure or
6contracts entered into in accordance with Sections 11-5.2 and
711-5.3 of the Illinois Public Aid Code.
8 (i) Each chief procurement officer may access records
9necessary to review whether a contract, purchase, or other
10expenditure is or is not subject to the provisions of this
11Code, unless such records would be subject to attorney-client
12privilege.
13 (j) This Code does not apply to the process used by the
14Capital Development Board to retain an artist or work or works
15of art as required in Section 14 of the Capital Development
16Board Act.
17(Source: P.A. 97-96, eff. 7-13-11; 97-239, eff. 8-2-11; 97-502,
18eff. 8-23-11; 97-689, eff. 6-14-12; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12;
1997-895, eff. 8-3-12; 98-90, eff. 7-15-13; 98-463, eff. 8-16-13;
2098-572, eff. 1-1-14; revised 9-9-13.)
21 Section 165. The State Mandates Act is amended by changing
22Section 8.37 as follows:
23 (30 ILCS 805/8.37)
24 Sec. 8.37. Exempt mandate. Notwithstanding Sections 6 and 8

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1of this Act, no reimbursement by the State is required for the
2implementation of any mandate created by Public Act 98-218,
398-389, 98-391, 98-427, 98-599, or 98-622 this amendatory Act
4of the 98th General Assembly.
5(Source: P.A. 98-218, eff. 8-9-13; 98-389, eff. 8-16-13;
698-391, eff. 8-16-13; 98-427, eff. 8-16-13; 98-599, eff.
76-1-14; 98-622, eff. 6-1-14; revised 1-15-14.)
8 Section 170. The Illinois Income Tax Act is amended by
9changing Sections 201 and 304 as follows:
10 (35 ILCS 5/201) (from Ch. 120, par. 2-201)
11 Sec. 201. Tax Imposed.
12 (a) In general. A tax measured by net income is hereby
13imposed on every individual, corporation, trust and estate for
14each taxable year ending after July 31, 1969 on the privilege
15of earning or receiving income in or as a resident of this
16State. Such tax shall be in addition to all other occupation or
17privilege taxes imposed by this State or by any municipal
18corporation or political subdivision thereof.
19 (b) Rates. The tax imposed by subsection (a) of this
20Section shall be determined as follows, except as adjusted by
21subsection (d-1):
22 (1) In the case of an individual, trust or estate, for
23 taxable years ending prior to July 1, 1989, an amount equal
24 to 2 1/2% of the taxpayer's net income for the taxable

09800SB2640ham001- 279 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 year.
2 (2) In the case of an individual, trust or estate, for
3 taxable years beginning prior to July 1, 1989 and ending
4 after June 30, 1989, an amount equal to the sum of (i) 2
5 1/2% of the taxpayer's net income for the period prior to
6 July 1, 1989, as calculated under Section 202.3, and (ii)
7 3% of the taxpayer's net income for the period after June
8 30, 1989, as calculated under Section 202.3.
9 (3) In the case of an individual, trust or estate, for
10 taxable years beginning after June 30, 1989, and ending
11 prior to January 1, 2011, an amount equal to 3% of the
12 taxpayer's net income for the taxable year.
13 (4) In the case of an individual, trust, or estate, for
14 taxable years beginning prior to January 1, 2011, and
15 ending after December 31, 2010, an amount equal to the sum
16 of (i) 3% of the taxpayer's net income for the period prior
17 to January 1, 2011, as calculated under Section 202.5, and
18 (ii) 5% of the taxpayer's net income for the period after
19 December 31, 2010, as calculated under Section 202.5.
20 (5) In the case of an individual, trust, or estate, for
21 taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 2011, and
22 ending prior to January 1, 2015, an amount equal to 5% of
23 the taxpayer's net income for the taxable year.
24 (5.1) In the case of an individual, trust, or estate,
25 for taxable years beginning prior to January 1, 2015, and
26 ending after December 31, 2014, an amount equal to the sum

09800SB2640ham001- 280 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 of (i) 5% of the taxpayer's net income for the period prior
2 to January 1, 2015, as calculated under Section 202.5, and
3 (ii) 3.75% of the taxpayer's net income for the period
4 after December 31, 2014, as calculated under Section 202.5.
5 (5.2) In the case of an individual, trust, or estate,
6 for taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 2015,
7 and ending prior to January 1, 2025, an amount equal to
8 3.75% of the taxpayer's net income for the taxable year.
9 (5.3) In the case of an individual, trust, or estate,
10 for taxable years beginning prior to January 1, 2025, and
11 ending after December 31, 2024, an amount equal to the sum
12 of (i) 3.75% of the taxpayer's net income for the period
13 prior to January 1, 2025, as calculated under Section
14 202.5, and (ii) 3.25% of the taxpayer's net income for the
15 period after December 31, 2024, as calculated under Section
16 202.5.
17 (5.4) In the case of an individual, trust, or estate,
18 for taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 2025, an
19 amount equal to 3.25% of the taxpayer's net income for the
20 taxable year.
21 (6) In the case of a corporation, for taxable years
22 ending prior to July 1, 1989, an amount equal to 4% of the
23 taxpayer's net income for the taxable year.
24 (7) In the case of a corporation, for taxable years
25 beginning prior to July 1, 1989 and ending after June 30,
26 1989, an amount equal to the sum of (i) 4% of the

09800SB2640ham001- 281 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 taxpayer's net income for the period prior to July 1, 1989,
2 as calculated under Section 202.3, and (ii) 4.8% of the
3 taxpayer's net income for the period after June 30, 1989,
4 as calculated under Section 202.3.
5 (8) In the case of a corporation, for taxable years
6 beginning after June 30, 1989, and ending prior to January
7 1, 2011, an amount equal to 4.8% of the taxpayer's net
8 income for the taxable year.
9 (9) In the case of a corporation, for taxable years
10 beginning prior to January 1, 2011, and ending after
11 December 31, 2010, an amount equal to the sum of (i) 4.8%
12 of the taxpayer's net income for the period prior to
13 January 1, 2011, as calculated under Section 202.5, and
14 (ii) 7% of the taxpayer's net income for the period after
15 December 31, 2010, as calculated under Section 202.5.
16 (10) In the case of a corporation, for taxable years
17 beginning on or after January 1, 2011, and ending prior to
18 January 1, 2015, an amount equal to 7% of the taxpayer's
19 net income for the taxable year.
20 (11) In the case of a corporation, for taxable years
21 beginning prior to January 1, 2015, and ending after
22 December 31, 2014, an amount equal to the sum of (i) 7% of
23 the taxpayer's net income for the period prior to January
24 1, 2015, as calculated under Section 202.5, and (ii) 5.25%
25 of the taxpayer's net income for the period after December
26 31, 2014, as calculated under Section 202.5.

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1 (12) In the case of a corporation, for taxable years
2 beginning on or after January 1, 2015, and ending prior to
3 January 1, 2025, an amount equal to 5.25% of the taxpayer's
4 net income for the taxable year.
5 (13) In the case of a corporation, for taxable years
6 beginning prior to January 1, 2025, and ending after
7 December 31, 2024, an amount equal to the sum of (i) 5.25%
8 of the taxpayer's net income for the period prior to
9 January 1, 2025, as calculated under Section 202.5, and
10 (ii) 4.8% of the taxpayer's net income for the period after
11 December 31, 2024, as calculated under Section 202.5.
12 (14) In the case of a corporation, for taxable years
13 beginning on or after January 1, 2025, an amount equal to
14 4.8% of the taxpayer's net income for the taxable year.
15 The rates under this subsection (b) are subject to the
16provisions of Section 201.5.
17 (c) Personal Property Tax Replacement Income Tax.
18Beginning on July 1, 1979 and thereafter, in addition to such
19income tax, there is also hereby imposed the Personal Property
20Tax Replacement Income Tax measured by net income on every
21corporation (including Subchapter S corporations), partnership
22and trust, for each taxable year ending after June 30, 1979.
23Such taxes are imposed on the privilege of earning or receiving
24income in or as a resident of this State. The Personal Property
25Tax Replacement Income Tax shall be in addition to the income
26tax imposed by subsections (a) and (b) of this Section and in

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1addition to all other occupation or privilege taxes imposed by
2this State or by any municipal corporation or political
3subdivision thereof.
4 (d) Additional Personal Property Tax Replacement Income
5Tax Rates. The personal property tax replacement income tax
6imposed by this subsection and subsection (c) of this Section
7in the case of a corporation, other than a Subchapter S
8corporation and except as adjusted by subsection (d-1), shall
9be an additional amount equal to 2.85% of such taxpayer's net
10income for the taxable year, except that beginning on January
111, 1981, and thereafter, the rate of 2.85% specified in this
12subsection shall be reduced to 2.5%, and in the case of a
13partnership, trust or a Subchapter S corporation shall be an
14additional amount equal to 1.5% of such taxpayer's net income
15for the taxable year.
16 (d-1) Rate reduction for certain foreign insurers. In the
17case of a foreign insurer, as defined by Section 35A-5 of the
18Illinois Insurance Code, whose state or country of domicile
19imposes on insurers domiciled in Illinois a retaliatory tax
20(excluding any insurer whose premiums from reinsurance assumed
21are 50% or more of its total insurance premiums as determined
22under paragraph (2) of subsection (b) of Section 304, except
23that for purposes of this determination premiums from
24reinsurance do not include premiums from inter-affiliate
25reinsurance arrangements), beginning with taxable years ending
26on or after December 31, 1999, the sum of the rates of tax

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1imposed by subsections (b) and (d) shall be reduced (but not
2increased) to the rate at which the total amount of tax imposed
3under this Act, net of all credits allowed under this Act,
4shall equal (i) the total amount of tax that would be imposed
5on the foreign insurer's net income allocable to Illinois for
6the taxable year by such foreign insurer's state or country of
7domicile if that net income were subject to all income taxes
8and taxes measured by net income imposed by such foreign
9insurer's state or country of domicile, net of all credits
10allowed or (ii) a rate of zero if no such tax is imposed on such
11income by the foreign insurer's state of domicile. For the
12purposes of this subsection (d-1), an inter-affiliate includes
13a mutual insurer under common management.
14 (1) For the purposes of subsection (d-1), in no event
15 shall the sum of the rates of tax imposed by subsections
16 (b) and (d) be reduced below the rate at which the sum of:
17 (A) the total amount of tax imposed on such foreign
18 insurer under this Act for a taxable year, net of all
19 credits allowed under this Act, plus
20 (B) the privilege tax imposed by Section 409 of the
21 Illinois Insurance Code, the fire insurance company
22 tax imposed by Section 12 of the Fire Investigation
23 Act, and the fire department taxes imposed under
24 Section 11-10-1 of the Illinois Municipal Code,
25 equals 1.25% for taxable years ending prior to December 31,
26 2003, or 1.75% for taxable years ending on or after

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1 December 31, 2003, of the net taxable premiums written for
2 the taxable year, as described by subsection (1) of Section
3 409 of the Illinois Insurance Code. This paragraph will in
4 no event increase the rates imposed under subsections (b)
5 and (d).
6 (2) Any reduction in the rates of tax imposed by this
7 subsection shall be applied first against the rates imposed
8 by subsection (b) and only after the tax imposed by
9 subsection (a) net of all credits allowed under this
10 Section other than the credit allowed under subsection (i)
11 has been reduced to zero, against the rates imposed by
12 subsection (d).
13 This subsection (d-1) is exempt from the provisions of
14Section 250.
15 (e) Investment credit. A taxpayer shall be allowed a credit
16against the Personal Property Tax Replacement Income Tax for
17investment in qualified property.
18 (1) A taxpayer shall be allowed a credit equal to .5%
19 of the basis of qualified property placed in service during
20 the taxable year, provided such property is placed in
21 service on or after July 1, 1984. There shall be allowed an
22 additional credit equal to .5% of the basis of qualified
23 property placed in service during the taxable year,
24 provided such property is placed in service on or after
25 July 1, 1986, and the taxpayer's base employment within
26 Illinois has increased by 1% or more over the preceding

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1 year as determined by the taxpayer's employment records
2 filed with the Illinois Department of Employment Security.
3 Taxpayers who are new to Illinois shall be deemed to have
4 met the 1% growth in base employment for the first year in
5 which they file employment records with the Illinois
6 Department of Employment Security. The provisions added to
7 this Section by Public Act 85-1200 (and restored by Public
8 Act 87-895) shall be construed as declaratory of existing
9 law and not as a new enactment. If, in any year, the
10 increase in base employment within Illinois over the
11 preceding year is less than 1%, the additional credit shall
12 be limited to that percentage times a fraction, the
13 numerator of which is .5% and the denominator of which is
14 1%, but shall not exceed .5%. The investment credit shall
15 not be allowed to the extent that it would reduce a
16 taxpayer's liability in any tax year below zero, nor may
17 any credit for qualified property be allowed for any year
18 other than the year in which the property was placed in
19 service in Illinois. For tax years ending on or after
20 December 31, 1987, and on or before December 31, 1988, the
21 credit shall be allowed for the tax year in which the
22 property is placed in service, or, if the amount of the
23 credit exceeds the tax liability for that year, whether it
24 exceeds the original liability or the liability as later
25 amended, such excess may be carried forward and applied to
26 the tax liability of the 5 taxable years following the

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1 excess credit years if the taxpayer (i) makes investments
2 which cause the creation of a minimum of 2,000 full-time
3 equivalent jobs in Illinois, (ii) is located in an
4 enterprise zone established pursuant to the Illinois
5 Enterprise Zone Act and (iii) is certified by the
6 Department of Commerce and Community Affairs (now
7 Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity) as
8 complying with the requirements specified in clause (i) and
9 (ii) by July 1, 1986. The Department of Commerce and
10 Community Affairs (now Department of Commerce and Economic
11 Opportunity) shall notify the Department of Revenue of all
12 such certifications immediately. For tax years ending
13 after December 31, 1988, the credit shall be allowed for
14 the tax year in which the property is placed in service,
15 or, if the amount of the credit exceeds the tax liability
16 for that year, whether it exceeds the original liability or
17 the liability as later amended, such excess may be carried
18 forward and applied to the tax liability of the 5 taxable
19 years following the excess credit years. The credit shall
20 be applied to the earliest year for which there is a
21 liability. If there is credit from more than one tax year
22 that is available to offset a liability, earlier credit
23 shall be applied first.
24 (2) The term "qualified property" means property
25 which:
26 (A) is tangible, whether new or used, including

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1 buildings and structural components of buildings and
2 signs that are real property, but not including land or
3 improvements to real property that are not a structural
4 component of a building such as landscaping, sewer
5 lines, local access roads, fencing, parking lots, and
6 other appurtenances;
7 (B) is depreciable pursuant to Section 167 of the
8 Internal Revenue Code, except that "3-year property"
9 as defined in Section 168(c)(2)(A) of that Code is not
10 eligible for the credit provided by this subsection
11 (e);
12 (C) is acquired by purchase as defined in Section
13 179(d) of the Internal Revenue Code;
14 (D) is used in Illinois by a taxpayer who is
15 primarily engaged in manufacturing, or in mining coal
16 or fluorite, or in retailing, or was placed in service
17 on or after July 1, 2006 in a River Edge Redevelopment
18 Zone established pursuant to the River Edge
19 Redevelopment Zone Act; and
20 (E) has not previously been used in Illinois in
21 such a manner and by such a person as would qualify for
22 the credit provided by this subsection (e) or
23 subsection (f).
24 (3) For purposes of this subsection (e),
25 "manufacturing" means the material staging and production
26 of tangible personal property by procedures commonly

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1 regarded as manufacturing, processing, fabrication, or
2 assembling which changes some existing material into new
3 shapes, new qualities, or new combinations. For purposes of
4 this subsection (e) the term "mining" shall have the same
5 meaning as the term "mining" in Section 613(c) of the
6 Internal Revenue Code. For purposes of this subsection (e),
7 the term "retailing" means the sale of tangible personal
8 property for use or consumption and not for resale, or
9 services rendered in conjunction with the sale of tangible
10 personal property for use or consumption and not for
11 resale. For purposes of this subsection (e), "tangible
12 personal property" has the same meaning as when that term
13 is used in the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, and, for
14 taxable years ending after December 31, 2008, does not
15 include the generation, transmission, or distribution of
16 electricity.
17 (4) The basis of qualified property shall be the basis
18 used to compute the depreciation deduction for federal
19 income tax purposes.
20 (5) If the basis of the property for federal income tax
21 depreciation purposes is increased after it has been placed
22 in service in Illinois by the taxpayer, the amount of such
23 increase shall be deemed property placed in service on the
24 date of such increase in basis.
25 (6) The term "placed in service" shall have the same
26 meaning as under Section 46 of the Internal Revenue Code.

09800SB2640ham001- 290 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 (7) If during any taxable year, any property ceases to
2 be qualified property in the hands of the taxpayer within
3 48 months after being placed in service, or the situs of
4 any qualified property is moved outside Illinois within 48
5 months after being placed in service, the Personal Property
6 Tax Replacement Income Tax for such taxable year shall be
7 increased. Such increase shall be determined by (i)
8 recomputing the investment credit which would have been
9 allowed for the year in which credit for such property was
10 originally allowed by eliminating such property from such
11 computation and, (ii) subtracting such recomputed credit
12 from the amount of credit previously allowed. For the
13 purposes of this paragraph (7), a reduction of the basis of
14 qualified property resulting from a redetermination of the
15 purchase price shall be deemed a disposition of qualified
16 property to the extent of such reduction.
17 (8) Unless the investment credit is extended by law,
18 the basis of qualified property shall not include costs
19 incurred after December 31, 2018, except for costs incurred
20 pursuant to a binding contract entered into on or before
21 December 31, 2018.
22 (9) Each taxable year ending before December 31, 2000,
23 a partnership may elect to pass through to its partners the
24 credits to which the partnership is entitled under this
25 subsection (e) for the taxable year. A partner may use the
26 credit allocated to him or her under this paragraph only

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1 against the tax imposed in subsections (c) and (d) of this
2 Section. If the partnership makes that election, those
3 credits shall be allocated among the partners in the
4 partnership in accordance with the rules set forth in
5 Section 704(b) of the Internal Revenue Code, and the rules
6 promulgated under that Section, and the allocated amount of
7 the credits shall be allowed to the partners for that
8 taxable year. The partnership shall make this election on
9 its Personal Property Tax Replacement Income Tax return for
10 that taxable year. The election to pass through the credits
11 shall be irrevocable.
12 For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2000,
13 a partner that qualifies its partnership for a subtraction
14 under subparagraph (I) of paragraph (2) of subsection (d)
15 of Section 203 or a shareholder that qualifies a Subchapter
16 S corporation for a subtraction under subparagraph (S) of
17 paragraph (2) of subsection (b) of Section 203 shall be
18 allowed a credit under this subsection (e) equal to its
19 share of the credit earned under this subsection (e) during
20 the taxable year by the partnership or Subchapter S
21 corporation, determined in accordance with the
22 determination of income and distributive share of income
23 under Sections 702 and 704 and Subchapter S of the Internal
24 Revenue Code. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions
25 of Section 250.
26 (f) Investment credit; Enterprise Zone; River Edge

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1Redevelopment Zone.
2 (1) A taxpayer shall be allowed a credit against the
3 tax imposed by subsections (a) and (b) of this Section for
4 investment in qualified property which is placed in service
5 in an Enterprise Zone created pursuant to the Illinois
6 Enterprise Zone Act or, for property placed in service on
7 or after July 1, 2006, a River Edge Redevelopment Zone
8 established pursuant to the River Edge Redevelopment Zone
9 Act. For partners, shareholders of Subchapter S
10 corporations, and owners of limited liability companies,
11 if the liability company is treated as a partnership for
12 purposes of federal and State income taxation, there shall
13 be allowed a credit under this subsection (f) to be
14 determined in accordance with the determination of income
15 and distributive share of income under Sections 702 and 704
16 and Subchapter S of the Internal Revenue Code. The credit
17 shall be .5% of the basis for such property. The credit
18 shall be available only in the taxable year in which the
19 property is placed in service in the Enterprise Zone or
20 River Edge Redevelopment Zone and shall not be allowed to
21 the extent that it would reduce a taxpayer's liability for
22 the tax imposed by subsections (a) and (b) of this Section
23 to below zero. For tax years ending on or after December
24 31, 1985, the credit shall be allowed for the tax year in
25 which the property is placed in service, or, if the amount
26 of the credit exceeds the tax liability for that year,

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1 whether it exceeds the original liability or the liability
2 as later amended, such excess may be carried forward and
3 applied to the tax liability of the 5 taxable years
4 following the excess credit year. The credit shall be
5 applied to the earliest year for which there is a
6 liability. If there is credit from more than one tax year
7 that is available to offset a liability, the credit
8 accruing first in time shall be applied first.
9 (2) The term qualified property means property which:
10 (A) is tangible, whether new or used, including
11 buildings and structural components of buildings;
12 (B) is depreciable pursuant to Section 167 of the
13 Internal Revenue Code, except that "3-year property"
14 as defined in Section 168(c)(2)(A) of that Code is not
15 eligible for the credit provided by this subsection
16 (f);
17 (C) is acquired by purchase as defined in Section
18 179(d) of the Internal Revenue Code;
19 (D) is used in the Enterprise Zone or River Edge
20 Redevelopment Zone by the taxpayer; and
21 (E) has not been previously used in Illinois in
22 such a manner and by such a person as would qualify for
23 the credit provided by this subsection (f) or
24 subsection (e).
25 (3) The basis of qualified property shall be the basis
26 used to compute the depreciation deduction for federal

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1 income tax purposes.
2 (4) If the basis of the property for federal income tax
3 depreciation purposes is increased after it has been placed
4 in service in the Enterprise Zone or River Edge
5 Redevelopment Zone by the taxpayer, the amount of such
6 increase shall be deemed property placed in service on the
7 date of such increase in basis.
8 (5) The term "placed in service" shall have the same
9 meaning as under Section 46 of the Internal Revenue Code.
10 (6) If during any taxable year, any property ceases to
11 be qualified property in the hands of the taxpayer within
12 48 months after being placed in service, or the situs of
13 any qualified property is moved outside the Enterprise Zone
14 or River Edge Redevelopment Zone within 48 months after
15 being placed in service, the tax imposed under subsections
16 (a) and (b) of this Section for such taxable year shall be
17 increased. Such increase shall be determined by (i)
18 recomputing the investment credit which would have been
19 allowed for the year in which credit for such property was
20 originally allowed by eliminating such property from such
21 computation, and (ii) subtracting such recomputed credit
22 from the amount of credit previously allowed. For the
23 purposes of this paragraph (6), a reduction of the basis of
24 qualified property resulting from a redetermination of the
25 purchase price shall be deemed a disposition of qualified
26 property to the extent of such reduction.

09800SB2640ham001- 295 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 (7) There shall be allowed an additional credit equal
2 to 0.5% of the basis of qualified property placed in
3 service during the taxable year in a River Edge
4 Redevelopment Zone, provided such property is placed in
5 service on or after July 1, 2006, and the taxpayer's base
6 employment within Illinois has increased by 1% or more over
7 the preceding year as determined by the taxpayer's
8 employment records filed with the Illinois Department of
9 Employment Security. Taxpayers who are new to Illinois
10 shall be deemed to have met the 1% growth in base
11 employment for the first year in which they file employment
12 records with the Illinois Department of Employment
13 Security. If, in any year, the increase in base employment
14 within Illinois over the preceding year is less than 1%,
15 the additional credit shall be limited to that percentage
16 times a fraction, the numerator of which is 0.5% and the
17 denominator of which is 1%, but shall not exceed 0.5%.
18 (g) (Blank).
19 (h) Investment credit; High Impact Business.
20 (1) Subject to subsections (b) and (b-5) of Section 5.5
21 of the Illinois Enterprise Zone Act, a taxpayer shall be
22 allowed a credit against the tax imposed by subsections (a)
23 and (b) of this Section for investment in qualified
24 property which is placed in service by a Department of
25 Commerce and Economic Opportunity designated High Impact
26 Business. The credit shall be .5% of the basis for such

09800SB2640ham001- 296 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 property. The credit shall not be available (i) until the
2 minimum investments in qualified property set forth in
3 subdivision (a)(3)(A) of Section 5.5 of the Illinois
4 Enterprise Zone Act have been satisfied or (ii) until the
5 time authorized in subsection (b-5) of the Illinois
6 Enterprise Zone Act for entities designated as High Impact
7 Businesses under subdivisions (a)(3)(B), (a)(3)(C), and
8 (a)(3)(D) of Section 5.5 of the Illinois Enterprise Zone
9 Act, and shall not be allowed to the extent that it would
10 reduce a taxpayer's liability for the tax imposed by
11 subsections (a) and (b) of this Section to below zero. The
12 credit applicable to such investments shall be taken in the
13 taxable year in which such investments have been completed.
14 The credit for additional investments beyond the minimum
15 investment by a designated high impact business authorized
16 under subdivision (a)(3)(A) of Section 5.5 of the Illinois
17 Enterprise Zone Act shall be available only in the taxable
18 year in which the property is placed in service and shall
19 not be allowed to the extent that it would reduce a
20 taxpayer's liability for the tax imposed by subsections (a)
21 and (b) of this Section to below zero. For tax years ending
22 on or after December 31, 1987, the credit shall be allowed
23 for the tax year in which the property is placed in
24 service, or, if the amount of the credit exceeds the tax
25 liability for that year, whether it exceeds the original
26 liability or the liability as later amended, such excess

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1 may be carried forward and applied to the tax liability of
2 the 5 taxable years following the excess credit year. The
3 credit shall be applied to the earliest year for which
4 there is a liability. If there is credit from more than one
5 tax year that is available to offset a liability, the
6 credit accruing first in time shall be applied first.
7 Changes made in this subdivision (h)(1) by Public Act
8 88-670 restore changes made by Public Act 85-1182 and
9 reflect existing law.
10 (2) The term qualified property means property which:
11 (A) is tangible, whether new or used, including
12 buildings and structural components of buildings;
13 (B) is depreciable pursuant to Section 167 of the
14 Internal Revenue Code, except that "3-year property"
15 as defined in Section 168(c)(2)(A) of that Code is not
16 eligible for the credit provided by this subsection
17 (h);
18 (C) is acquired by purchase as defined in Section
19 179(d) of the Internal Revenue Code; and
20 (D) is not eligible for the Enterprise Zone
21 Investment Credit provided by subsection (f) of this
22 Section.
23 (3) The basis of qualified property shall be the basis
24 used to compute the depreciation deduction for federal
25 income tax purposes.
26 (4) If the basis of the property for federal income tax

09800SB2640ham001- 298 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 depreciation purposes is increased after it has been placed
2 in service in a federally designated Foreign Trade Zone or
3 Sub-Zone located in Illinois by the taxpayer, the amount of
4 such increase shall be deemed property placed in service on
5 the date of such increase in basis.
6 (5) The term "placed in service" shall have the same
7 meaning as under Section 46 of the Internal Revenue Code.
8 (6) If during any taxable year ending on or before
9 December 31, 1996, any property ceases to be qualified
10 property in the hands of the taxpayer within 48 months
11 after being placed in service, or the situs of any
12 qualified property is moved outside Illinois within 48
13 months after being placed in service, the tax imposed under
14 subsections (a) and (b) of this Section for such taxable
15 year shall be increased. Such increase shall be determined
16 by (i) recomputing the investment credit which would have
17 been allowed for the year in which credit for such property
18 was originally allowed by eliminating such property from
19 such computation, and (ii) subtracting such recomputed
20 credit from the amount of credit previously allowed. For
21 the purposes of this paragraph (6), a reduction of the
22 basis of qualified property resulting from a
23 redetermination of the purchase price shall be deemed a
24 disposition of qualified property to the extent of such
25 reduction.
26 (7) Beginning with tax years ending after December 31,

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1 1996, if a taxpayer qualifies for the credit under this
2 subsection (h) and thereby is granted a tax abatement and
3 the taxpayer relocates its entire facility in violation of
4 the explicit terms and length of the contract under Section
5 18-183 of the Property Tax Code, the tax imposed under
6 subsections (a) and (b) of this Section shall be increased
7 for the taxable year in which the taxpayer relocated its
8 facility by an amount equal to the amount of credit
9 received by the taxpayer under this subsection (h).
10 (i) Credit for Personal Property Tax Replacement Income
11Tax. For tax years ending prior to December 31, 2003, a credit
12shall be allowed against the tax imposed by subsections (a) and
13(b) of this Section for the tax imposed by subsections (c) and
14(d) of this Section. This credit shall be computed by
15multiplying the tax imposed by subsections (c) and (d) of this
16Section by a fraction, the numerator of which is base income
17allocable to Illinois and the denominator of which is Illinois
18base income, and further multiplying the product by the tax
19rate imposed by subsections (a) and (b) of this Section.
20 Any credit earned on or after December 31, 1986 under this
21subsection which is unused in the year the credit is computed
22because it exceeds the tax liability imposed by subsections (a)
23and (b) for that year (whether it exceeds the original
24liability or the liability as later amended) may be carried
25forward and applied to the tax liability imposed by subsections
26(a) and (b) of the 5 taxable years following the excess credit

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1year, provided that no credit may be carried forward to any
2year ending on or after December 31, 2003. This credit shall be
3applied first to the earliest year for which there is a
4liability. If there is a credit under this subsection from more
5than one tax year that is available to offset a liability the
6earliest credit arising under this subsection shall be applied
7first.
8 If, during any taxable year ending on or after December 31,
91986, the tax imposed by subsections (c) and (d) of this
10Section for which a taxpayer has claimed a credit under this
11subsection (i) is reduced, the amount of credit for such tax
12shall also be reduced. Such reduction shall be determined by
13recomputing the credit to take into account the reduced tax
14imposed by subsections (c) and (d). If any portion of the
15reduced amount of credit has been carried to a different
16taxable year, an amended return shall be filed for such taxable
17year to reduce the amount of credit claimed.
18 (j) Training expense credit. Beginning with tax years
19ending on or after December 31, 1986 and prior to December 31,
202003, a taxpayer shall be allowed a credit against the tax
21imposed by subsections (a) and (b) under this Section for all
22amounts paid or accrued, on behalf of all persons employed by
23the taxpayer in Illinois or Illinois residents employed outside
24of Illinois by a taxpayer, for educational or vocational
25training in semi-technical or technical fields or semi-skilled
26or skilled fields, which were deducted from gross income in the

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1computation of taxable income. The credit against the tax
2imposed by subsections (a) and (b) shall be 1.6% of such
3training expenses. For partners, shareholders of subchapter S
4corporations, and owners of limited liability companies, if the
5liability company is treated as a partnership for purposes of
6federal and State income taxation, there shall be allowed a
7credit under this subsection (j) to be determined in accordance
8with the determination of income and distributive share of
9income under Sections 702 and 704 and subchapter S of the
10Internal Revenue Code.
11 Any credit allowed under this subsection which is unused in
12the year the credit is earned may be carried forward to each of
13the 5 taxable years following the year for which the credit is
14first computed until it is used. This credit shall be applied
15first to the earliest year for which there is a liability. If
16there is a credit under this subsection from more than one tax
17year that is available to offset a liability the earliest
18credit arising under this subsection shall be applied first. No
19carryforward credit may be claimed in any tax year ending on or
20after December 31, 2003.
21 (k) Research and development credit. For tax years ending
22after July 1, 1990 and prior to December 31, 2003, and
23beginning again for tax years ending on or after December 31,
242004, and ending prior to January 1, 2016, a taxpayer shall be
25allowed a credit against the tax imposed by subsections (a) and
26(b) of this Section for increasing research activities in this

09800SB2640ham001- 302 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1State. The credit allowed against the tax imposed by
2subsections (a) and (b) shall be equal to 6 1/2% of the
3qualifying expenditures for increasing research activities in
4this State. For partners, shareholders of subchapter S
5corporations, and owners of limited liability companies, if the
6liability company is treated as a partnership for purposes of
7federal and State income taxation, there shall be allowed a
8credit under this subsection to be determined in accordance
9with the determination of income and distributive share of
10income under Sections 702 and 704 and subchapter S of the
11Internal Revenue Code.
12 For purposes of this subsection, "qualifying expenditures"
13means the qualifying expenditures as defined for the federal
14credit for increasing research activities which would be
15allowable under Section 41 of the Internal Revenue Code and
16which are conducted in this State, "qualifying expenditures for
17increasing research activities in this State" means the excess
18of qualifying expenditures for the taxable year in which
19incurred over qualifying expenditures for the base period,
20"qualifying expenditures for the base period" means the average
21of the qualifying expenditures for each year in the base
22period, and "base period" means the 3 taxable years immediately
23preceding the taxable year for which the determination is being
24made.
25 Any credit in excess of the tax liability for the taxable
26year may be carried forward. A taxpayer may elect to have the

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1unused credit shown on its final completed return carried over
2as a credit against the tax liability for the following 5
3taxable years or until it has been fully used, whichever occurs
4first; provided that no credit earned in a tax year ending
5prior to December 31, 2003 may be carried forward to any year
6ending on or after December 31, 2003.
7 If an unused credit is carried forward to a given year from
82 or more earlier years, that credit arising in the earliest
9year will be applied first against the tax liability for the
10given year. If a tax liability for the given year still
11remains, the credit from the next earliest year will then be
12applied, and so on, until all credits have been used or no tax
13liability for the given year remains. Any remaining unused
14credit or credits then will be carried forward to the next
15following year in which a tax liability is incurred, except
16that no credit can be carried forward to a year which is more
17than 5 years after the year in which the expense for which the
18credit is given was incurred.
19 No inference shall be drawn from this amendatory Act of the
2091st General Assembly in construing this Section for taxable
21years beginning before January 1, 1999.
22 (l) Environmental Remediation Tax Credit.
23 (i) For tax years ending after December 31, 1997 and on
24 or before December 31, 2001, a taxpayer shall be allowed a
25 credit against the tax imposed by subsections (a) and (b)
26 of this Section for certain amounts paid for unreimbursed

09800SB2640ham001- 304 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 eligible remediation costs, as specified in this
2 subsection. For purposes of this Section, "unreimbursed
3 eligible remediation costs" means costs approved by the
4 Illinois Environmental Protection Agency ("Agency") under
5 Section 58.14 of the Environmental Protection Act that were
6 paid in performing environmental remediation at a site for
7 which a No Further Remediation Letter was issued by the
8 Agency and recorded under Section 58.10 of the
9 Environmental Protection Act. The credit must be claimed
10 for the taxable year in which Agency approval of the
11 eligible remediation costs is granted. The credit is not
12 available to any taxpayer if the taxpayer or any related
13 party caused or contributed to, in any material respect, a
14 release of regulated substances on, in, or under the site
15 that was identified and addressed by the remedial action
16 pursuant to the Site Remediation Program of the
17 Environmental Protection Act. After the Pollution Control
18 Board rules are adopted pursuant to the Illinois
19 Administrative Procedure Act for the administration and
20 enforcement of Section 58.9 of the Environmental
21 Protection Act, determinations as to credit availability
22 for purposes of this Section shall be made consistent with
23 those rules. For purposes of this Section, "taxpayer"
24 includes a person whose tax attributes the taxpayer has
25 succeeded to under Section 381 of the Internal Revenue Code
26 and "related party" includes the persons disallowed a

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1 deduction for losses by paragraphs (b), (c), and (f)(1) of
2 Section 267 of the Internal Revenue Code by virtue of being
3 a related taxpayer, as well as any of its partners. The
4 credit allowed against the tax imposed by subsections (a)
5 and (b) shall be equal to 25% of the unreimbursed eligible
6 remediation costs in excess of $100,000 per site, except
7 that the $100,000 threshold shall not apply to any site
8 contained in an enterprise zone as determined by the
9 Department of Commerce and Community Affairs (now
10 Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity). The
11 total credit allowed shall not exceed $40,000 per year with
12 a maximum total of $150,000 per site. For partners and
13 shareholders of subchapter S corporations, there shall be
14 allowed a credit under this subsection to be determined in
15 accordance with the determination of income and
16 distributive share of income under Sections 702 and 704 and
17 subchapter S of the Internal Revenue Code.
18 (ii) A credit allowed under this subsection that is
19 unused in the year the credit is earned may be carried
20 forward to each of the 5 taxable years following the year
21 for which the credit is first earned until it is used. The
22 term "unused credit" does not include any amounts of
23 unreimbursed eligible remediation costs in excess of the
24 maximum credit per site authorized under paragraph (i).
25 This credit shall be applied first to the earliest year for
26 which there is a liability. If there is a credit under this

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1 subsection from more than one tax year that is available to
2 offset a liability, the earliest credit arising under this
3 subsection shall be applied first. A credit allowed under
4 this subsection may be sold to a buyer as part of a sale of
5 all or part of the remediation site for which the credit
6 was granted. The purchaser of a remediation site and the
7 tax credit shall succeed to the unused credit and remaining
8 carry-forward period of the seller. To perfect the
9 transfer, the assignor shall record the transfer in the
10 chain of title for the site and provide written notice to
11 the Director of the Illinois Department of Revenue of the
12 assignor's intent to sell the remediation site and the
13 amount of the tax credit to be transferred as a portion of
14 the sale. In no event may a credit be transferred to any
15 taxpayer if the taxpayer or a related party would not be
16 eligible under the provisions of subsection (i).
17 (iii) For purposes of this Section, the term "site"
18 shall have the same meaning as under Section 58.2 of the
19 Environmental Protection Act.
20 (m) Education expense credit. Beginning with tax years
21ending after December 31, 1999, a taxpayer who is the custodian
22of one or more qualifying pupils shall be allowed a credit
23against the tax imposed by subsections (a) and (b) of this
24Section for qualified education expenses incurred on behalf of
25the qualifying pupils. The credit shall be equal to 25% of
26qualified education expenses, but in no event may the total

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1credit under this subsection claimed by a family that is the
2custodian of qualifying pupils exceed $500. In no event shall a
3credit under this subsection reduce the taxpayer's liability
4under this Act to less than zero. This subsection is exempt
5from the provisions of Section 250 of this Act.
6 For purposes of this subsection:
7 "Qualifying pupils" means individuals who (i) are
8residents of the State of Illinois, (ii) are under the age of
921 at the close of the school year for which a credit is
10sought, and (iii) during the school year for which a credit is
11sought were full-time pupils enrolled in a kindergarten through
12twelfth grade education program at any school, as defined in
13this subsection.
14 "Qualified education expense" means the amount incurred on
15behalf of a qualifying pupil in excess of $250 for tuition,
16book fees, and lab fees at the school in which the pupil is
17enrolled during the regular school year.
18 "School" means any public or nonpublic elementary or
19secondary school in Illinois that is in compliance with Title
20VI of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 and attendance at which
21satisfies the requirements of Section 26-1 of the School Code,
22except that nothing shall be construed to require a child to
23attend any particular public or nonpublic school to qualify for
24the credit under this Section.
25 "Custodian" means, with respect to qualifying pupils, an
26Illinois resident who is a parent, the parents, a legal

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1guardian, or the legal guardians of the qualifying pupils.
2 (n) River Edge Redevelopment Zone site remediation tax
3credit.
4 (i) For tax years ending on or after December 31, 2006,
5 a taxpayer shall be allowed a credit against the tax
6 imposed by subsections (a) and (b) of this Section for
7 certain amounts paid for unreimbursed eligible remediation
8 costs, as specified in this subsection. For purposes of
9 this Section, "unreimbursed eligible remediation costs"
10 means costs approved by the Illinois Environmental
11 Protection Agency ("Agency") under Section 58.14a of the
12 Environmental Protection Act that were paid in performing
13 environmental remediation at a site within a River Edge
14 Redevelopment Zone for which a No Further Remediation
15 Letter was issued by the Agency and recorded under Section
16 58.10 of the Environmental Protection Act. The credit must
17 be claimed for the taxable year in which Agency approval of
18 the eligible remediation costs is granted. The credit is
19 not available to any taxpayer if the taxpayer or any
20 related party caused or contributed to, in any material
21 respect, a release of regulated substances on, in, or under
22 the site that was identified and addressed by the remedial
23 action pursuant to the Site Remediation Program of the
24 Environmental Protection Act. Determinations as to credit
25 availability for purposes of this Section shall be made
26 consistent with rules adopted by the Pollution Control

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1 Board pursuant to the Illinois Administrative Procedure
2 Act for the administration and enforcement of Section 58.9
3 of the Environmental Protection Act. For purposes of this
4 Section, "taxpayer" includes a person whose tax attributes
5 the taxpayer has succeeded to under Section 381 of the
6 Internal Revenue Code and "related party" includes the
7 persons disallowed a deduction for losses by paragraphs
8 (b), (c), and (f)(1) of Section 267 of the Internal Revenue
9 Code by virtue of being a related taxpayer, as well as any
10 of its partners. The credit allowed against the tax imposed
11 by subsections (a) and (b) shall be equal to 25% of the
12 unreimbursed eligible remediation costs in excess of
13 $100,000 per site.
14 (ii) A credit allowed under this subsection that is
15 unused in the year the credit is earned may be carried
16 forward to each of the 5 taxable years following the year
17 for which the credit is first earned until it is used. This
18 credit shall be applied first to the earliest year for
19 which there is a liability. If there is a credit under this
20 subsection from more than one tax year that is available to
21 offset a liability, the earliest credit arising under this
22 subsection shall be applied first. A credit allowed under
23 this subsection may be sold to a buyer as part of a sale of
24 all or part of the remediation site for which the credit
25 was granted. The purchaser of a remediation site and the
26 tax credit shall succeed to the unused credit and remaining

09800SB2640ham001- 310 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 carry-forward period of the seller. To perfect the
2 transfer, the assignor shall record the transfer in the
3 chain of title for the site and provide written notice to
4 the Director of the Illinois Department of Revenue of the
5 assignor's intent to sell the remediation site and the
6 amount of the tax credit to be transferred as a portion of
7 the sale. In no event may a credit be transferred to any
8 taxpayer if the taxpayer or a related party would not be
9 eligible under the provisions of subsection (i).
10 (iii) For purposes of this Section, the term "site"
11 shall have the same meaning as under Section 58.2 of the
12 Environmental Protection Act.
13 (o) For each of taxable years during the Compassionate Use
14of Medical Cannabis Pilot Program, a surcharge is imposed on
15all taxpayers on income arising from the sale or exchange of
16capital assets, depreciable business property, real property
17used in the trade or business, and Section 197 intangibles of
18an organization registrant under the Compassionate Use of
19Medical Cannabis Pilot Program Act. The amount of the surcharge
20is equal to the amount of federal income tax liability for the
21taxable year attributable to those sales and exchanges. The
22surcharge imposed does not apply if:
23 (1) the medical cannabis cultivation center
24 registration, medical cannabis dispensary registration, or
25 the property of a registration is transferred as a result
26 of any of the following:

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1 (A) bankruptcy, a receivership, or a debt
2 adjustment initiated by or against the initial
3 registration or the substantial owners of the initial
4 registration;
5 (B) cancellation, revocation, or termination of
6 any registration by the Illinois Department of Public
7 Health;
8 (C) a determination by the Illinois Department of
9 Public Health that transfer of the registration is in
10 the best interests of Illinois qualifying patients as
11 defined by the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis
12 Pilot Program Act;
13 (D) the death of an owner of the equity interest in
14 a registrant;
15 (E) the acquisition of a controlling interest in
16 the stock or substantially all of the assets of a
17 publicly traded company;
18 (F) a transfer by a parent company to a wholly
19 owned subsidiary; or
20 (G) the transfer or sale to or by one person to
21 another person where both persons were initial owners
22 of the registration when the registration was issued;
23 or
24 (2) the cannabis cultivation center registration,
25 medical cannabis dispensary registration, or the
26 controlling interest in a registrant's property is

09800SB2640ham001- 312 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 transferred in a transaction to lineal descendants in which
2 no gain or loss is recognized or as a result of a
3 transaction in accordance with Section 351 of the Internal
4 Revenue Code in which no gain or loss is recognized.
5(Source: P.A. 97-2, eff. 5-6-11; 97-636, eff. 6-1-12; 97-905,
6eff. 8-7-12; 98-109, eff. 7-25-13; 98-122, eff. 1-1-14; revised
78-9-13.)
8 (35 ILCS 5/304) (from Ch. 120, par. 3-304)
9 Sec. 304. Business income of persons other than residents.
10 (a) In general. The business income of a person other than
11a resident shall be allocated to this State if such person's
12business income is derived solely from this State. If a person
13other than a resident derives business income from this State
14and one or more other states, then, for tax years ending on or
15before December 30, 1998, and except as otherwise provided by
16this Section, such person's business income shall be
17apportioned to this State by multiplying the income by a
18fraction, the numerator of which is the sum of the property
19factor (if any), the payroll factor (if any) and 200% of the
20sales factor (if any), and the denominator of which is 4
21reduced by the number of factors other than the sales factor
22which have a denominator of zero and by an additional 2 if the
23sales factor has a denominator of zero. For tax years ending on
24or after December 31, 1998, and except as otherwise provided by
25this Section, persons other than residents who derive business

09800SB2640ham001- 313 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1income from this State and one or more other states shall
2compute their apportionment factor by weighting their
3property, payroll, and sales factors as provided in subsection
4(h) of this Section.
5 (1) Property factor.
6 (A) The property factor is a fraction, the numerator of
7 which is the average value of the person's real and
8 tangible personal property owned or rented and used in the
9 trade or business in this State during the taxable year and
10 the denominator of which is the average value of all the
11 person's real and tangible personal property owned or
12 rented and used in the trade or business during the taxable
13 year.
14 (B) Property owned by the person is valued at its
15 original cost. Property rented by the person is valued at 8
16 times the net annual rental rate. Net annual rental rate is
17 the annual rental rate paid by the person less any annual
18 rental rate received by the person from sub-rentals.
19 (C) The average value of property shall be determined
20 by averaging the values at the beginning and ending of the
21 taxable year but the Director may require the averaging of
22 monthly values during the taxable year if reasonably
23 required to reflect properly the average value of the
24 person's property.
25 (2) Payroll factor.
26 (A) The payroll factor is a fraction, the numerator of

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1 which is the total amount paid in this State during the
2 taxable year by the person for compensation, and the
3 denominator of which is the total compensation paid
4 everywhere during the taxable year.
5 (B) Compensation is paid in this State if:
6 (i) The individual's service is performed entirely
7 within this State;
8 (ii) The individual's service is performed both
9 within and without this State, but the service
10 performed without this State is incidental to the
11 individual's service performed within this State; or
12 (iii) Some of the service is performed within this
13 State and either the base of operations, or if there is
14 no base of operations, the place from which the service
15 is directed or controlled is within this State, or the
16 base of operations or the place from which the service
17 is directed or controlled is not in any state in which
18 some part of the service is performed, but the
19 individual's residence is in this State.
20 (iv) Compensation paid to nonresident professional
21 athletes.
22 (a) General. The Illinois source income of a
23 nonresident individual who is a member of a
24 professional athletic team includes the portion of the
25 individual's total compensation for services performed
26 as a member of a professional athletic team during the

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1 taxable year which the number of duty days spent within
2 this State performing services for the team in any
3 manner during the taxable year bears to the total
4 number of duty days spent both within and without this
5 State during the taxable year.
6 (b) Travel days. Travel days that do not involve
7 either a game, practice, team meeting, or other similar
8 team event are not considered duty days spent in this
9 State. However, such travel days are considered in the
10 total duty days spent both within and without this
11 State.
12 (c) Definitions. For purposes of this subpart
13 (iv):
14 (1) The term "professional athletic team"
15 includes, but is not limited to, any professional
16 baseball, basketball, football, soccer, or hockey
17 team.
18 (2) The term "member of a professional
19 athletic team" includes those employees who are
20 active players, players on the disabled list, and
21 any other persons required to travel and who travel
22 with and perform services on behalf of a
23 professional athletic team on a regular basis.
24 This includes, but is not limited to, coaches,
25 managers, and trainers.
26 (3) Except as provided in items (C) and (D) of

09800SB2640ham001- 316 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 this subpart (3), the term "duty days" means all
2 days during the taxable year from the beginning of
3 the professional athletic team's official
4 pre-season training period through the last game
5 in which the team competes or is scheduled to
6 compete. Duty days shall be counted for the year in
7 which they occur, including where a team's
8 official pre-season training period through the
9 last game in which the team competes or is
10 scheduled to compete, occurs during more than one
11 tax year.
12 (A) Duty days shall also include days on
13 which a member of a professional athletic team
14 performs service for a team on a date that does
15 not fall within the foregoing period (e.g.,
16 participation in instructional leagues, the
17 "All Star Game", or promotional "caravans").
18 Performing a service for a professional
19 athletic team includes conducting training and
20 rehabilitation activities, when such
21 activities are conducted at team facilities.
22 (B) Also included in duty days are game
23 days, practice days, days spent at team
24 meetings, promotional caravans, preseason
25 training camps, and days served with the team
26 through all post-season games in which the team

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1 competes or is scheduled to compete.
2 (C) Duty days for any person who joins a
3 team during the period from the beginning of
4 the professional athletic team's official
5 pre-season training period through the last
6 game in which the team competes, or is
7 scheduled to compete, shall begin on the day
8 that person joins the team. Conversely, duty
9 days for any person who leaves a team during
10 this period shall end on the day that person
11 leaves the team. Where a person switches teams
12 during a taxable year, a separate duty-day
13 calculation shall be made for the period the
14 person was with each team.
15 (D) Days for which a member of a
16 professional athletic team is not compensated
17 and is not performing services for the team in
18 any manner, including days when such member of
19 a professional athletic team has been
20 suspended without pay and prohibited from
21 performing any services for the team, shall not
22 be treated as duty days.
23 (E) Days for which a member of a
24 professional athletic team is on the disabled
25 list and does not conduct rehabilitation
26 activities at facilities of the team, and is

09800SB2640ham001- 318 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 not otherwise performing services for the team
2 in Illinois, shall not be considered duty days
3 spent in this State. All days on the disabled
4 list, however, are considered to be included in
5 total duty days spent both within and without
6 this State.
7 (4) The term "total compensation for services
8 performed as a member of a professional athletic
9 team" means the total compensation received during
10 the taxable year for services performed:
11 (A) from the beginning of the official
12 pre-season training period through the last
13 game in which the team competes or is scheduled
14 to compete during that taxable year; and
15 (B) during the taxable year on a date which
16 does not fall within the foregoing period
17 (e.g., participation in instructional leagues,
18 the "All Star Game", or promotional caravans).
19 This compensation shall include, but is not
20 limited to, salaries, wages, bonuses as described
21 in this subpart, and any other type of compensation
22 paid during the taxable year to a member of a
23 professional athletic team for services performed
24 in that year. This compensation does not include
25 strike benefits, severance pay, termination pay,
26 contract or option year buy-out payments,

09800SB2640ham001- 319 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 expansion or relocation payments, or any other
2 payments not related to services performed for the
3 team.
4 For purposes of this subparagraph, "bonuses"
5 included in "total compensation for services
6 performed as a member of a professional athletic
7 team" subject to the allocation described in
8 Section 302(c)(1) are: bonuses earned as a result
9 of play (i.e., performance bonuses) during the
10 season, including bonuses paid for championship,
11 playoff or "bowl" games played by a team, or for
12 selection to all-star league or other honorary
13 positions; and bonuses paid for signing a
14 contract, unless the payment of the signing bonus
15 is not conditional upon the signee playing any
16 games for the team or performing any subsequent
17 services for the team or even making the team, the
18 signing bonus is payable separately from the
19 salary and any other compensation, and the signing
20 bonus is nonrefundable.
21 (3) Sales factor.
22 (A) The sales factor is a fraction, the numerator of
23 which is the total sales of the person in this State during
24 the taxable year, and the denominator of which is the total
25 sales of the person everywhere during the taxable year.
26 (B) Sales of tangible personal property are in this

09800SB2640ham001- 320 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 State if:
2 (i) The property is delivered or shipped to a
3 purchaser, other than the United States government,
4 within this State regardless of the f. o. b. point or
5 other conditions of the sale; or
6 (ii) The property is shipped from an office, store,
7 warehouse, factory or other place of storage in this
8 State and either the purchaser is the United States
9 government or the person is not taxable in the state of
10 the purchaser; provided, however, that premises owned
11 or leased by a person who has independently contracted
12 with the seller for the printing of newspapers,
13 periodicals or books shall not be deemed to be an
14 office, store, warehouse, factory or other place of
15 storage for purposes of this Section. Sales of tangible
16 personal property are not in this State if the seller
17 and purchaser would be members of the same unitary
18 business group but for the fact that either the seller
19 or purchaser is a person with 80% or more of total
20 business activity outside of the United States and the
21 property is purchased for resale.
22 (B-1) Patents, copyrights, trademarks, and similar
23 items of intangible personal property.
24 (i) Gross receipts from the licensing, sale, or
25 other disposition of a patent, copyright, trademark,
26 or similar item of intangible personal property, other

09800SB2640ham001- 321 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 than gross receipts governed by paragraph (B-7) of this
2 item (3), are in this State to the extent the item is
3 utilized in this State during the year the gross
4 receipts are included in gross income.
5 (ii) Place of utilization.
6 (I) A patent is utilized in a state to the
7 extent that it is employed in production,
8 fabrication, manufacturing, or other processing in
9 the state or to the extent that a patented product
10 is produced in the state. If a patent is utilized
11 in more than one state, the extent to which it is
12 utilized in any one state shall be a fraction equal
13 to the gross receipts of the licensee or purchaser
14 from sales or leases of items produced,
15 fabricated, manufactured, or processed within that
16 state using the patent and of patented items
17 produced within that state, divided by the total of
18 such gross receipts for all states in which the
19 patent is utilized.
20 (II) A copyright is utilized in a state to the
21 extent that printing or other publication
22 originates in the state. If a copyright is utilized
23 in more than one state, the extent to which it is
24 utilized in any one state shall be a fraction equal
25 to the gross receipts from sales or licenses of
26 materials printed or published in that state

09800SB2640ham001- 322 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 divided by the total of such gross receipts for all
2 states in which the copyright is utilized.
3 (III) Trademarks and other items of intangible
4 personal property governed by this paragraph (B-1)
5 are utilized in the state in which the commercial
6 domicile of the licensee or purchaser is located.
7 (iii) If the state of utilization of an item of
8 property governed by this paragraph (B-1) cannot be
9 determined from the taxpayer's books and records or
10 from the books and records of any person related to the
11 taxpayer within the meaning of Section 267(b) of the
12 Internal Revenue Code, 26 U.S.C. 267, the gross
13 receipts attributable to that item shall be excluded
14 from both the numerator and the denominator of the
15 sales factor.
16 (B-2) Gross receipts from the license, sale, or other
17 disposition of patents, copyrights, trademarks, and
18 similar items of intangible personal property, other than
19 gross receipts governed by paragraph (B-7) of this item
20 (3), may be included in the numerator or denominator of the
21 sales factor only if gross receipts from licenses, sales,
22 or other disposition of such items comprise more than 50%
23 of the taxpayer's total gross receipts included in gross
24 income during the tax year and during each of the 2
25 immediately preceding tax years; provided that, when a
26 taxpayer is a member of a unitary business group, such

09800SB2640ham001- 323 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 determination shall be made on the basis of the gross
2 receipts of the entire unitary business group.
3 (B-5) For taxable years ending on or after December 31,
4 2008, except as provided in subsections (ii) through (vii),
5 receipts from the sale of telecommunications service or
6 mobile telecommunications service are in this State if the
7 customer's service address is in this State.
8 (i) For purposes of this subparagraph (B-5), the
9 following terms have the following meanings:
10 "Ancillary services" means services that are
11 associated with or incidental to the provision of
12 "telecommunications services", including but not
13 limited to "detailed telecommunications billing",
14 "directory assistance", "vertical service", and "voice
15 mail services".
16 "Air-to-Ground Radiotelephone service" means a
17 radio service, as that term is defined in 47 CFR 22.99,
18 in which common carriers are authorized to offer and
19 provide radio telecommunications service for hire to
20 subscribers in aircraft.
21 "Call-by-call Basis" means any method of charging
22 for telecommunications services where the price is
23 measured by individual calls.
24 "Communications Channel" means a physical or
25 virtual path of communications over which signals are
26 transmitted between or among customer channel

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1 termination points.
2 "Conference bridging service" means an "ancillary
3 service" that links two or more participants of an
4 audio or video conference call and may include the
5 provision of a telephone number. "Conference bridging
6 service" does not include the "telecommunications
7 services" used to reach the conference bridge.
8 "Customer Channel Termination Point" means the
9 location where the customer either inputs or receives
10 the communications.
11 "Detailed telecommunications billing service"
12 means an "ancillary service" of separately stating
13 information pertaining to individual calls on a
14 customer's billing statement.
15 "Directory assistance" means an "ancillary
16 service" of providing telephone number information,
17 and/or address information.
18 "Home service provider" means the facilities based
19 carrier or reseller with which the customer contracts
20 for the provision of mobile telecommunications
21 services.
22 "Mobile telecommunications service" means
23 commercial mobile radio service, as defined in Section
24 20.3 of Title 47 of the Code of Federal Regulations as
25 in effect on June 1, 1999.
26 "Place of primary use" means the street address

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1 representative of where the customer's use of the
2 telecommunications service primarily occurs, which
3 must be the residential street address or the primary
4 business street address of the customer. In the case of
5 mobile telecommunications services, "place of primary
6 use" must be within the licensed service area of the
7 home service provider.
8 "Post-paid telecommunication service" means the
9 telecommunications service obtained by making a
10 payment on a call-by-call basis either through the use
11 of a credit card or payment mechanism such as a bank
12 card, travel card, credit card, or debit card, or by
13 charge made to a telephone number which is not
14 associated with the origination or termination of the
15 telecommunications service. A post-paid calling
16 service includes telecommunications service, except a
17 prepaid wireless calling service, that would be a
18 prepaid calling service except it is not exclusively a
19 telecommunication service.
20 "Prepaid telecommunication service" means the
21 right to access exclusively telecommunications
22 services, which must be paid for in advance and which
23 enables the origination of calls using an access number
24 or authorization code, whether manually or
25 electronically dialed, and that is sold in
26 predetermined units or dollars of which the number

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1 declines with use in a known amount.
2 "Prepaid Mobile telecommunication service" means a
3 telecommunications service that provides the right to
4 utilize mobile wireless service as well as other
5 non-telecommunication services, including but not
6 limited to ancillary services, which must be paid for
7 in advance that is sold in predetermined units or
8 dollars of which the number declines with use in a
9 known amount.
10 "Private communication service" means a
11 telecommunication service that entitles the customer
12 to exclusive or priority use of a communications
13 channel or group of channels between or among
14 termination points, regardless of the manner in which
15 such channel or channels are connected, and includes
16 switching capacity, extension lines, stations, and any
17 other associated services that are provided in
18 connection with the use of such channel or channels.
19 "Service address" means:
20 (a) The location of the telecommunications
21 equipment to which a customer's call is charged and
22 from which the call originates or terminates,
23 regardless of where the call is billed or paid;
24 (b) If the location in line (a) is not known,
25 service address means the origination point of the
26 signal of the telecommunications services first

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1 identified by either the seller's
2 telecommunications system or in information
3 received by the seller from its service provider
4 where the system used to transport such signals is
5 not that of the seller; and
6 (c) If the locations in line (a) and line (b)
7 are not known, the service address means the
8 location of the customer's place of primary use.
9 "Telecommunications service" means the electronic
10 transmission, conveyance, or routing of voice, data,
11 audio, video, or any other information or signals to a
12 point, or between or among points. The term
13 "telecommunications service" includes such
14 transmission, conveyance, or routing in which computer
15 processing applications are used to act on the form,
16 code or protocol of the content for purposes of
17 transmission, conveyance or routing without regard to
18 whether such service is referred to as voice over
19 Internet protocol services or is classified by the
20 Federal Communications Commission as enhanced or value
21 added. "Telecommunications service" does not include:
22 (a) Data processing and information services
23 that allow data to be generated, acquired, stored,
24 processed, or retrieved and delivered by an
25 electronic transmission to a purchaser when such
26 purchaser's primary purpose for the underlying

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1 transaction is the processed data or information;
2 (b) Installation or maintenance of wiring or
3 equipment on a customer's premises;
4 (c) Tangible personal property;
5 (d) Advertising, including but not limited to
6 directory advertising.
7 (e) Billing and collection services provided
8 to third parties;
9 (f) Internet access service;
10 (g) Radio and television audio and video
11 programming services, regardless of the medium,
12 including the furnishing of transmission,
13 conveyance and routing of such services by the
14 programming service provider. Radio and television
15 audio and video programming services shall include
16 but not be limited to cable service as defined in
17 47 USC 522(6) and audio and video programming
18 services delivered by commercial mobile radio
19 service providers, as defined in 47 CFR 20.3;
20 (h) "Ancillary services"; or
21 (i) Digital products "delivered
22 electronically", including but not limited to
23 software, music, video, reading materials or ring
24 tones.
25 "Vertical service" means an "ancillary service"
26 that is offered in connection with one or more

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1 "telecommunications services", which offers advanced
2 calling features that allow customers to identify
3 callers and to manage multiple calls and call
4 connections, including "conference bridging services".
5 "Voice mail service" means an "ancillary service"
6 that enables the customer to store, send or receive
7 recorded messages. "Voice mail service" does not
8 include any "vertical services" that the customer may
9 be required to have in order to utilize the "voice mail
10 service".
11 (ii) Receipts from the sale of telecommunications
12 service sold on an individual call-by-call basis are in
13 this State if either of the following applies:
14 (a) The call both originates and terminates in
15 this State.
16 (b) The call either originates or terminates
17 in this State and the service address is located in
18 this State.
19 (iii) Receipts from the sale of postpaid
20 telecommunications service at retail are in this State
21 if the origination point of the telecommunication
22 signal, as first identified by the service provider's
23 telecommunication system or as identified by
24 information received by the seller from its service
25 provider if the system used to transport
26 telecommunication signals is not the seller's, is

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1 located in this State.
2 (iv) Receipts from the sale of prepaid
3 telecommunications service or prepaid mobile
4 telecommunications service at retail are in this State
5 if the purchaser obtains the prepaid card or similar
6 means of conveyance at a location in this State.
7 Receipts from recharging a prepaid telecommunications
8 service or mobile telecommunications service is in
9 this State if the purchaser's billing information
10 indicates a location in this State.
11 (v) Receipts from the sale of private
12 communication services are in this State as follows:
13 (a) 100% of receipts from charges imposed at
14 each channel termination point in this State.
15 (b) 100% of receipts from charges for the total
16 channel mileage between each channel termination
17 point in this State.
18 (c) 50% of the total receipts from charges for
19 service segments when those segments are between 2
20 customer channel termination points, 1 of which is
21 located in this State and the other is located
22 outside of this State, which segments are
23 separately charged.
24 (d) The receipts from charges for service
25 segments with a channel termination point located
26 in this State and in two or more other states, and

09800SB2640ham001- 331 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 which segments are not separately billed, are in
2 this State based on a percentage determined by
3 dividing the number of customer channel
4 termination points in this State by the total
5 number of customer channel termination points.
6 (vi) Receipts from charges for ancillary services
7 for telecommunications service sold to customers at
8 retail are in this State if the customer's primary
9 place of use of telecommunications services associated
10 with those ancillary services is in this State. If the
11 seller of those ancillary services cannot determine
12 where the associated telecommunications are located,
13 then the ancillary services shall be based on the
14 location of the purchaser.
15 (vii) Receipts to access a carrier's network or
16 from the sale of telecommunication services or
17 ancillary services for resale are in this State as
18 follows:
19 (a) 100% of the receipts from access fees
20 attributable to intrastate telecommunications
21 service that both originates and terminates in
22 this State.
23 (b) 50% of the receipts from access fees
24 attributable to interstate telecommunications
25 service if the interstate call either originates
26 or terminates in this State.

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1 (c) 100% of the receipts from interstate end
2 user access line charges, if the customer's
3 service address is in this State. As used in this
4 subdivision, "interstate end user access line
5 charges" includes, but is not limited to, the
6 surcharge approved by the federal communications
7 commission and levied pursuant to 47 CFR 69.
8 (d) Gross receipts from sales of
9 telecommunication services or from ancillary
10 services for telecommunications services sold to
11 other telecommunication service providers for
12 resale shall be sourced to this State using the
13 apportionment concepts used for non-resale
14 receipts of telecommunications services if the
15 information is readily available to make that
16 determination. If the information is not readily
17 available, then the taxpayer may use any other
18 reasonable and consistent method.
19 (B-7) For taxable years ending on or after December 31,
20 2008, receipts from the sale of broadcasting services are
21 in this State if the broadcasting services are received in
22 this State. For purposes of this paragraph (B-7), the
23 following terms have the following meanings:
24 "Advertising revenue" means consideration received
25 by the taxpayer in exchange for broadcasting services
26 or allowing the broadcasting of commercials or

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1 announcements in connection with the broadcasting of
2 film or radio programming, from sponsorships of the
3 programming, or from product placements in the
4 programming.
5 "Audience factor" means the ratio that the
6 audience or subscribers located in this State of a
7 station, a network, or a cable system bears to the
8 total audience or total subscribers for that station,
9 network, or cable system. The audience factor for film
10 or radio programming shall be determined by reference
11 to the books and records of the taxpayer or by
12 reference to published rating statistics provided the
13 method used by the taxpayer is consistently used from
14 year to year for this purpose and fairly represents the
15 taxpayer's activity in this State.
16 "Broadcast" or "broadcasting" or "broadcasting
17 services" means the transmission or provision of film
18 or radio programming, whether through the public
19 airwaves, by cable, by direct or indirect satellite
20 transmission, or by any other means of communication,
21 either through a station, a network, or a cable system.
22 "Film" or "film programming" means the broadcast
23 on television of any and all performances, events, or
24 productions, including but not limited to news,
25 sporting events, plays, stories, or other literary,
26 commercial, educational, or artistic works, either

09800SB2640ham001- 334 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 live or through the use of video tape, disc, or any
2 other type of format or medium. Each episode of a
3 series of films produced for television shall
4 constitute separate "film" notwithstanding that the
5 series relates to the same principal subject and is
6 produced during one or more tax periods.
7 "Radio" or "radio programming" means the broadcast
8 on radio of any and all performances, events, or
9 productions, including but not limited to news,
10 sporting events, plays, stories, or other literary,
11 commercial, educational, or artistic works, either
12 live or through the use of an audio tape, disc, or any
13 other format or medium. Each episode in a series of
14 radio programming produced for radio broadcast shall
15 constitute a separate "radio programming"
16 notwithstanding that the series relates to the same
17 principal subject and is produced during one or more
18 tax periods.
19 (i) In the case of advertising revenue from
20 broadcasting, the customer is the advertiser and
21 the service is received in this State if the
22 commercial domicile of the advertiser is in this
23 State.
24 (ii) In the case where film or radio
25 programming is broadcast by a station, a network,
26 or a cable system for a fee or other remuneration

09800SB2640ham001- 335 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 received from the recipient of the broadcast, the
2 portion of the service that is received in this
3 State is measured by the portion of the recipients
4 of the broadcast located in this State.
5 Accordingly, the fee or other remuneration for
6 such service that is included in the Illinois
7 numerator of the sales factor is the total of those
8 fees or other remuneration received from
9 recipients in Illinois. For purposes of this
10 paragraph, a taxpayer may determine the location
11 of the recipients of its broadcast using the
12 address of the recipient shown in its contracts
13 with the recipient or using the billing address of
14 the recipient in the taxpayer's records.
15 (iii) In the case where film or radio
16 programming is broadcast by a station, a network,
17 or a cable system for a fee or other remuneration
18 from the person providing the programming, the
19 portion of the broadcast service that is received
20 by such station, network, or cable system in this
21 State is measured by the portion of recipients of
22 the broadcast located in this State. Accordingly,
23 the amount of revenue related to such an
24 arrangement that is included in the Illinois
25 numerator of the sales factor is the total fee or
26 other total remuneration from the person providing

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1 the programming related to that broadcast
2 multiplied by the Illinois audience factor for
3 that broadcast.
4 (iv) In the case where film or radio
5 programming is provided by a taxpayer that is a
6 network or station to a customer for broadcast in
7 exchange for a fee or other remuneration from that
8 customer the broadcasting service is received at
9 the location of the office of the customer from
10 which the services were ordered in the regular
11 course of the customer's trade or business.
12 Accordingly, in such a case the revenue derived by
13 the taxpayer that is included in the taxpayer's
14 Illinois numerator of the sales factor is the
15 revenue from such customers who receive the
16 broadcasting service in Illinois.
17 (v) In the case where film or radio programming
18 is provided by a taxpayer that is not a network or
19 station to another person for broadcasting in
20 exchange for a fee or other remuneration from that
21 person, the broadcasting service is received at
22 the location of the office of the customer from
23 which the services were ordered in the regular
24 course of the customer's trade or business.
25 Accordingly, in such a case the revenue derived by
26 the taxpayer that is included in the taxpayer's

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1 Illinois numerator of the sales factor is the
2 revenue from such customers who receive the
3 broadcasting service in Illinois.
4 (B-8) Gross receipts from winnings under the Illinois
5 Lottery Law from the assignment of a prize under Section
6 13-1 of the Illinois Lottery Law are received in this
7 State. This paragraph (B-8) applies only to taxable years
8 ending on or after December 31, 2013.
9 (C) For taxable years ending before December 31, 2008,
10 sales, other than sales governed by paragraphs (B), (B-1),
11 (B-2), and (B-8) are in this State if:
12 (i) The income-producing activity is performed in
13 this State; or
14 (ii) The income-producing activity is performed
15 both within and without this State and a greater
16 proportion of the income-producing activity is
17 performed within this State than without this State,
18 based on performance costs.
19 (C-5) For taxable years ending on or after December 31,
20 2008, sales, other than sales governed by paragraphs (B),
21 (B-1), (B-2), (B-5), and (B-7), are in this State if any of
22 the following criteria are met:
23 (i) Sales from the sale or lease of real property
24 are in this State if the property is located in this
25 State.
26 (ii) Sales from the lease or rental of tangible

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1 personal property are in this State if the property is
2 located in this State during the rental period. Sales
3 from the lease or rental of tangible personal property
4 that is characteristically moving property, including,
5 but not limited to, motor vehicles, rolling stock,
6 aircraft, vessels, or mobile equipment are in this
7 State to the extent that the property is used in this
8 State.
9 (iii) In the case of interest, net gains (but not
10 less than zero) and other items of income from
11 intangible personal property, the sale is in this State
12 if:
13 (a) in the case of a taxpayer who is a dealer
14 in the item of intangible personal property within
15 the meaning of Section 475 of the Internal Revenue
16 Code, the income or gain is received from a
17 customer in this State. For purposes of this
18 subparagraph, a customer is in this State if the
19 customer is an individual, trust or estate who is a
20 resident of this State and, for all other
21 customers, if the customer's commercial domicile
22 is in this State. Unless the dealer has actual
23 knowledge of the residence or commercial domicile
24 of a customer during a taxable year, the customer
25 shall be deemed to be a customer in this State if
26 the billing address of the customer, as shown in

09800SB2640ham001- 339 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 the records of the dealer, is in this State; or
2 (b) in all other cases, if the
3 income-producing activity of the taxpayer is
4 performed in this State or, if the
5 income-producing activity of the taxpayer is
6 performed both within and without this State, if a
7 greater proportion of the income-producing
8 activity of the taxpayer is performed within this
9 State than in any other state, based on performance
10 costs.
11 (iv) Sales of services are in this State if the
12 services are received in this State. For the purposes
13 of this section, gross receipts from the performance of
14 services provided to a corporation, partnership, or
15 trust may only be attributed to a state where that
16 corporation, partnership, or trust has a fixed place of
17 business. If the state where the services are received
18 is not readily determinable or is a state where the
19 corporation, partnership, or trust receiving the
20 service does not have a fixed place of business, the
21 services shall be deemed to be received at the location
22 of the office of the customer from which the services
23 were ordered in the regular course of the customer's
24 trade or business. If the ordering office cannot be
25 determined, the services shall be deemed to be received
26 at the office of the customer to which the services are

09800SB2640ham001- 340 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 billed. If the taxpayer is not taxable in the state in
2 which the services are received, the sale must be
3 excluded from both the numerator and the denominator of
4 the sales factor. The Department shall adopt rules
5 prescribing where specific types of service are
6 received, including, but not limited to, publishing,
7 and utility service.
8 (D) For taxable years ending on or after December 31,
9 1995, the following items of income shall not be included
10 in the numerator or denominator of the sales factor:
11 dividends; amounts included under Section 78 of the
12 Internal Revenue Code; and Subpart F income as defined in
13 Section 952 of the Internal Revenue Code. No inference
14 shall be drawn from the enactment of this paragraph (D) in
15 construing this Section for taxable years ending before
16 December 31, 1995.
17 (E) Paragraphs (B-1) and (B-2) shall apply to tax years
18 ending on or after December 31, 1999, provided that a
19 taxpayer may elect to apply the provisions of these
20 paragraphs to prior tax years. Such election shall be made
21 in the form and manner prescribed by the Department, shall
22 be irrevocable, and shall apply to all tax years; provided
23 that, if a taxpayer's Illinois income tax liability for any
24 tax year, as assessed under Section 903 prior to January 1,
25 1999, was computed in a manner contrary to the provisions
26 of paragraphs (B-1) or (B-2), no refund shall be payable to

09800SB2640ham001- 341 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 the taxpayer for that tax year to the extent such refund is
2 the result of applying the provisions of paragraph (B-1) or
3 (B-2) retroactively. In the case of a unitary business
4 group, such election shall apply to all members of such
5 group for every tax year such group is in existence, but
6 shall not apply to any taxpayer for any period during which
7 that taxpayer is not a member of such group.
8 (b) Insurance companies.
9 (1) In general. Except as otherwise provided by
10 paragraph (2), business income of an insurance company for
11 a taxable year shall be apportioned to this State by
12 multiplying such income by a fraction, the numerator of
13 which is the direct premiums written for insurance upon
14 property or risk in this State, and the denominator of
15 which is the direct premiums written for insurance upon
16 property or risk everywhere. For purposes of this
17 subsection, the term "direct premiums written" means the
18 total amount of direct premiums written, assessments and
19 annuity considerations as reported for the taxable year on
20 the annual statement filed by the company with the Illinois
21 Director of Insurance in the form approved by the National
22 Convention of Insurance Commissioners or such other form as
23 may be prescribed in lieu thereof.
24 (2) Reinsurance. If the principal source of premiums
25 written by an insurance company consists of premiums for
26 reinsurance accepted by it, the business income of such

09800SB2640ham001- 342 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 company shall be apportioned to this State by multiplying
2 such income by a fraction, the numerator of which is the
3 sum of (i) direct premiums written for insurance upon
4 property or risk in this State, plus (ii) premiums written
5 for reinsurance accepted in respect of property or risk in
6 this State, and the denominator of which is the sum of
7 (iii) direct premiums written for insurance upon property
8 or risk everywhere, plus (iv) premiums written for
9 reinsurance accepted in respect of property or risk
10 everywhere. For purposes of this paragraph, premiums
11 written for reinsurance accepted in respect of property or
12 risk in this State, whether or not otherwise determinable,
13 may, at the election of the company, be determined on the
14 basis of the proportion which premiums written for
15 reinsurance accepted from companies commercially domiciled
16 in Illinois bears to premiums written for reinsurance
17 accepted from all sources, or, alternatively, in the
18 proportion which the sum of the direct premiums written for
19 insurance upon property or risk in this State by each
20 ceding company from which reinsurance is accepted bears to
21 the sum of the total direct premiums written by each such
22 ceding company for the taxable year. The election made by a
23 company under this paragraph for its first taxable year
24 ending on or after December 31, 2011, shall be binding for
25 that company for that taxable year and for all subsequent
26 taxable years, and may be altered only with the written

09800SB2640ham001- 343 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 permission of the Department, which shall not be
2 unreasonably withheld.
3 (c) Financial organizations.
4 (1) In general. For taxable years ending before
5 December 31, 2008, business income of a financial
6 organization shall be apportioned to this State by
7 multiplying such income by a fraction, the numerator of
8 which is its business income from sources within this
9 State, and the denominator of which is its business income
10 from all sources. For the purposes of this subsection, the
11 business income of a financial organization from sources
12 within this State is the sum of the amounts referred to in
13 subparagraphs (A) through (E) following, but excluding the
14 adjusted income of an international banking facility as
15 determined in paragraph (2):
16 (A) Fees, commissions or other compensation for
17 financial services rendered within this State;
18 (B) Gross profits from trading in stocks, bonds or
19 other securities managed within this State;
20 (C) Dividends, and interest from Illinois
21 customers, which are received within this State;
22 (D) Interest charged to customers at places of
23 business maintained within this State for carrying
24 debit balances of margin accounts, without deduction
25 of any costs incurred in carrying such accounts; and
26 (E) Any other gross income resulting from the

09800SB2640ham001- 344 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 operation as a financial organization within this
2 State. In computing the amounts referred to in
3 paragraphs (A) through (E) of this subsection, any
4 amount received by a member of an affiliated group
5 (determined under Section 1504(a) of the Internal
6 Revenue Code but without reference to whether any such
7 corporation is an "includible corporation" under
8 Section 1504(b) of the Internal Revenue Code) from
9 another member of such group shall be included only to
10 the extent such amount exceeds expenses of the
11 recipient directly related thereto.
12 (2) International Banking Facility. For taxable years
13 ending before December 31, 2008:
14 (A) Adjusted Income. The adjusted income of an
15 international banking facility is its income reduced
16 by the amount of the floor amount.
17 (B) Floor Amount. The floor amount shall be the
18 amount, if any, determined by multiplying the income of
19 the international banking facility by a fraction, not
20 greater than one, which is determined as follows:
21 (i) The numerator shall be:
22 The average aggregate, determined on a
23 quarterly basis, of the financial organization's
24 loans to banks in foreign countries, to foreign
25 domiciled borrowers (except where secured
26 primarily by real estate) and to foreign

09800SB2640ham001- 345 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 governments and other foreign official
2 institutions, as reported for its branches,
3 agencies and offices within the state on its
4 "Consolidated Report of Condition", Schedule A,
5 Lines 2.c., 5.b., and 7.a., which was filed with
6 the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation and
7 other regulatory authorities, for the year 1980,
8 minus
9 The average aggregate, determined on a
10 quarterly basis, of such loans (other than loans of
11 an international banking facility), as reported by
12 the financial institution for its branches,
13 agencies and offices within the state, on the
14 corresponding Schedule and lines of the
15 Consolidated Report of Condition for the current
16 taxable year, provided, however, that in no case
17 shall the amount determined in this clause (the
18 subtrahend) exceed the amount determined in the
19 preceding clause (the minuend); and
20 (ii) the denominator shall be the average
21 aggregate, determined on a quarterly basis, of the
22 international banking facility's loans to banks in
23 foreign countries, to foreign domiciled borrowers
24 (except where secured primarily by real estate)
25 and to foreign governments and other foreign
26 official institutions, which were recorded in its

09800SB2640ham001- 346 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 financial accounts for the current taxable year.
2 (C) Change to Consolidated Report of Condition and
3 in Qualification. In the event the Consolidated Report
4 of Condition which is filed with the Federal Deposit
5 Insurance Corporation and other regulatory authorities
6 is altered so that the information required for
7 determining the floor amount is not found on Schedule
8 A, lines 2.c., 5.b. and 7.a., the financial institution
9 shall notify the Department and the Department may, by
10 regulations or otherwise, prescribe or authorize the
11 use of an alternative source for such information. The
12 financial institution shall also notify the Department
13 should its international banking facility fail to
14 qualify as such, in whole or in part, or should there
15 be any amendment or change to the Consolidated Report
16 of Condition, as originally filed, to the extent such
17 amendment or change alters the information used in
18 determining the floor amount.
19 (3) For taxable years ending on or after December 31,
20 2008, the business income of a financial organization shall
21 be apportioned to this State by multiplying such income by
22 a fraction, the numerator of which is its gross receipts
23 from sources in this State or otherwise attributable to
24 this State's marketplace and the denominator of which is
25 its gross receipts everywhere during the taxable year.
26 "Gross receipts" for purposes of this subparagraph (3)

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1 means gross income, including net taxable gain on
2 disposition of assets, including securities and money
3 market instruments, when derived from transactions and
4 activities in the regular course of the financial
5 organization's trade or business. The following examples
6 are illustrative:
7 (i) Receipts from the lease or rental of real or
8 tangible personal property are in this State if the
9 property is located in this State during the rental
10 period. Receipts from the lease or rental of tangible
11 personal property that is characteristically moving
12 property, including, but not limited to, motor
13 vehicles, rolling stock, aircraft, vessels, or mobile
14 equipment are from sources in this State to the extent
15 that the property is used in this State.
16 (ii) Interest income, commissions, fees, gains on
17 disposition, and other receipts from assets in the
18 nature of loans that are secured primarily by real
19 estate or tangible personal property are from sources
20 in this State if the security is located in this State.
21 (iii) Interest income, commissions, fees, gains on
22 disposition, and other receipts from consumer loans
23 that are not secured by real or tangible personal
24 property are from sources in this State if the debtor
25 is a resident of this State.
26 (iv) Interest income, commissions, fees, gains on

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1 disposition, and other receipts from commercial loans
2 and installment obligations that are not secured by
3 real or tangible personal property are from sources in
4 this State if the proceeds of the loan are to be
5 applied in this State. If it cannot be determined where
6 the funds are to be applied, the income and receipts
7 are from sources in this State if the office of the
8 borrower from which the loan was negotiated in the
9 regular course of business is located in this State. If
10 the location of this office cannot be determined, the
11 income and receipts shall be excluded from the
12 numerator and denominator of the sales factor.
13 (v) Interest income, fees, gains on disposition,
14 service charges, merchant discount income, and other
15 receipts from credit card receivables are from sources
16 in this State if the card charges are regularly billed
17 to a customer in this State.
18 (vi) Receipts from the performance of services,
19 including, but not limited to, fiduciary, advisory,
20 and brokerage services, are in this State if the
21 services are received in this State within the meaning
22 of subparagraph (a)(3)(C-5)(iv) of this Section.
23 (vii) Receipts from the issuance of travelers
24 checks and money orders are from sources in this State
25 if the checks and money orders are issued from a
26 location within this State.

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1 (viii) Receipts from investment assets and
2 activities and trading assets and activities are
3 included in the receipts factor as follows:
4 (1) Interest, dividends, net gains (but not
5 less than zero) and other income from investment
6 assets and activities from trading assets and
7 activities shall be included in the receipts
8 factor. Investment assets and activities and
9 trading assets and activities include but are not
10 limited to: investment securities; trading account
11 assets; federal funds; securities purchased and
12 sold under agreements to resell or repurchase;
13 options; futures contracts; forward contracts;
14 notional principal contracts such as swaps;
15 equities; and foreign currency transactions. With
16 respect to the investment and trading assets and
17 activities described in subparagraphs (A) and (B)
18 of this paragraph, the receipts factor shall
19 include the amounts described in such
20 subparagraphs.
21 (A) The receipts factor shall include the
22 amount by which interest from federal funds
23 sold and securities purchased under resale
24 agreements exceeds interest expense on federal
25 funds purchased and securities sold under
26 repurchase agreements.

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1 (B) The receipts factor shall include the
2 amount by which interest, dividends, gains and
3 other income from trading assets and
4 activities, including but not limited to
5 assets and activities in the matched book, in
6 the arbitrage book, and foreign currency
7 transactions, exceed amounts paid in lieu of
8 interest, amounts paid in lieu of dividends,
9 and losses from such assets and activities.
10 (2) The numerator of the receipts factor
11 includes interest, dividends, net gains (but not
12 less than zero), and other income from investment
13 assets and activities and from trading assets and
14 activities described in paragraph (1) of this
15 subsection that are attributable to this State.
16 (A) The amount of interest, dividends, net
17 gains (but not less than zero), and other
18 income from investment assets and activities
19 in the investment account to be attributed to
20 this State and included in the numerator is
21 determined by multiplying all such income from
22 such assets and activities by a fraction, the
23 numerator of which is the gross income from
24 such assets and activities which are properly
25 assigned to a fixed place of business of the
26 taxpayer within this State and the denominator

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1 of which is the gross income from all such
2 assets and activities.
3 (B) The amount of interest from federal
4 funds sold and purchased and from securities
5 purchased under resale agreements and
6 securities sold under repurchase agreements
7 attributable to this State and included in the
8 numerator is determined by multiplying the
9 amount described in subparagraph (A) of
10 paragraph (1) of this subsection from such
11 funds and such securities by a fraction, the
12 numerator of which is the gross income from
13 such funds and such securities which are
14 properly assigned to a fixed place of business
15 of the taxpayer within this State and the
16 denominator of which is the gross income from
17 all such funds and such securities.
18 (C) The amount of interest, dividends,
19 gains, and other income from trading assets and
20 activities, including but not limited to
21 assets and activities in the matched book, in
22 the arbitrage book and foreign currency
23 transactions (but excluding amounts described
24 in subparagraphs (A) or (B) of this paragraph),
25 attributable to this State and included in the
26 numerator is determined by multiplying the

09800SB2640ham001- 352 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 amount described in subparagraph (B) of
2 paragraph (1) of this subsection by a fraction,
3 the numerator of which is the gross income from
4 such trading assets and activities which are
5 properly assigned to a fixed place of business
6 of the taxpayer within this State and the
7 denominator of which is the gross income from
8 all such assets and activities.
9 (D) Properly assigned, for purposes of
10 this paragraph (2) of this subsection, means
11 the investment or trading asset or activity is
12 assigned to the fixed place of business with
13 which it has a preponderance of substantive
14 contacts. An investment or trading asset or
15 activity assigned by the taxpayer to a fixed
16 place of business without the State shall be
17 presumed to have been properly assigned if:
18 (i) the taxpayer has assigned, in the
19 regular course of its business, such asset
20 or activity on its records to a fixed place
21 of business consistent with federal or
22 state regulatory requirements;
23 (ii) such assignment on its records is
24 based upon substantive contacts of the
25 asset or activity to such fixed place of
26 business; and

09800SB2640ham001- 353 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 (iii) the taxpayer uses such records
2 reflecting assignment of such assets or
3 activities for the filing of all state and
4 local tax returns for which an assignment
5 of such assets or activities to a fixed
6 place of business is required.
7 (E) The presumption of proper assignment
8 of an investment or trading asset or activity
9 provided in subparagraph (D) of paragraph (2)
10 of this subsection may be rebutted upon a
11 showing by the Department, supported by a
12 preponderance of the evidence, that the
13 preponderance of substantive contacts
14 regarding such asset or activity did not occur
15 at the fixed place of business to which it was
16 assigned on the taxpayer's records. If the
17 fixed place of business that has a
18 preponderance of substantive contacts cannot
19 be determined for an investment or trading
20 asset or activity to which the presumption in
21 subparagraph (D) of paragraph (2) of this
22 subsection does not apply or with respect to
23 which that presumption has been rebutted, that
24 asset or activity is properly assigned to the
25 state in which the taxpayer's commercial
26 domicile is located. For purposes of this

09800SB2640ham001- 354 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 subparagraph (E), it shall be presumed,
2 subject to rebuttal, that taxpayer's
3 commercial domicile is in the state of the
4 United States or the District of Columbia to
5 which the greatest number of employees are
6 regularly connected with the management of the
7 investment or trading income or out of which
8 they are working, irrespective of where the
9 services of such employees are performed, as of
10 the last day of the taxable year.
11 (4) (Blank).
12 (5) (Blank).
13 (c-1) Federally regulated exchanges. For taxable years
14ending on or after December 31, 2012, business income of a
15federally regulated exchange shall, at the option of the
16federally regulated exchange, be apportioned to this State by
17multiplying such income by a fraction, the numerator of which
18is its business income from sources within this State, and the
19denominator of which is its business income from all sources.
20For purposes of this subsection, the business income within
21this State of a federally regulated exchange is the sum of the
22following:
23 (1) Receipts attributable to transactions executed on
24 a physical trading floor if that physical trading floor is
25 located in this State.
26 (2) Receipts attributable to all other matching,

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1 execution, or clearing transactions, including without
2 limitation receipts from the provision of matching,
3 execution, or clearing services to another entity,
4 multiplied by (i) for taxable years ending on or after
5 December 31, 2012 but before December 31, 2013, 63.77%; and
6 (ii) for taxable years ending on or after December 31,
7 2013, 27.54%.
8 (3) All other receipts not governed by subparagraphs
9 (1) or (2) of this subsection (c-1), to the extent the
10 receipts would be characterized as "sales in this State"
11 under item (3) of subsection (a) of this Section.
12 "Federally regulated exchange" means (i) a "registered
13entity" within the meaning of 7 U.S.C. Section 1a(40)(A), (B),
14or (C), (ii) an "exchange" or "clearing agency" within the
15meaning of 15 U.S.C. Section 78c (a)(1) or (23), (iii) any such
16entities regulated under any successor regulatory structure to
17the foregoing, and (iv) all taxpayers who are members of the
18same unitary business group as a federally regulated exchange,
19determined without regard to the prohibition in Section
201501(a)(27) of this Act against including in a unitary business
21group taxpayers who are ordinarily required to apportion
22business income under different subsections of this Section;
23provided that this subparagraph (iv) shall apply only if 50% or
24more of the business receipts of the unitary business group
25determined by application of this subparagraph (iv) for the
26taxable year are attributable to the matching, execution, or

09800SB2640ham001- 356 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1clearing of transactions conducted by an entity described in
2subparagraph (i), (ii), or (iii) of this paragraph.
3 In no event shall the Illinois apportionment percentage
4computed in accordance with this subsection (c-1) for any
5taxpayer for any tax year be less than the Illinois
6apportionment percentage computed under this subsection (c-1)
7for that taxpayer for the first full tax year ending on or
8after December 31, 2013 for which this subsection (c-1) applied
9to the taxpayer.
10 (d) Transportation services. For taxable years ending
11before December 31, 2008, business income derived from
12furnishing transportation services shall be apportioned to
13this State in accordance with paragraphs (1) and (2):
14 (1) Such business income (other than that derived from
15 transportation by pipeline) shall be apportioned to this
16 State by multiplying such income by a fraction, the
17 numerator of which is the revenue miles of the person in
18 this State, and the denominator of which is the revenue
19 miles of the person everywhere. For purposes of this
20 paragraph, a revenue mile is the transportation of 1
21 passenger or 1 net ton of freight the distance of 1 mile
22 for a consideration. Where a person is engaged in the
23 transportation of both passengers and freight, the
24 fraction above referred to shall be determined by means of
25 an average of the passenger revenue mile fraction and the
26 freight revenue mile fraction, weighted to reflect the

09800SB2640ham001- 357 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 person's
2 (A) relative railway operating income from total
3 passenger and total freight service, as reported to the
4 Interstate Commerce Commission, in the case of
5 transportation by railroad, and
6 (B) relative gross receipts from passenger and
7 freight transportation, in case of transportation
8 other than by railroad.
9 (2) Such business income derived from transportation
10 by pipeline shall be apportioned to this State by
11 multiplying such income by a fraction, the numerator of
12 which is the revenue miles of the person in this State, and
13 the denominator of which is the revenue miles of the person
14 everywhere. For the purposes of this paragraph, a revenue
15 mile is the transportation by pipeline of 1 barrel of oil,
16 1,000 cubic feet of gas, or of any specified quantity of
17 any other substance, the distance of 1 mile for a
18 consideration.
19 (3) For taxable years ending on or after December 31,
20 2008, business income derived from providing
21 transportation services other than airline services shall
22 be apportioned to this State by using a fraction, (a) the
23 numerator of which shall be (i) all receipts from any
24 movement or shipment of people, goods, mail, oil, gas, or
25 any other substance (other than by airline) that both
26 originates and terminates in this State, plus (ii) that

09800SB2640ham001- 358 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 portion of the person's gross receipts from movements or
2 shipments of people, goods, mail, oil, gas, or any other
3 substance (other than by airline) that originates in one
4 state or jurisdiction and terminates in another state or
5 jurisdiction, that is determined by the ratio that the
6 miles traveled in this State bears to total miles
7 everywhere and (b) the denominator of which shall be all
8 revenue derived from the movement or shipment of people,
9 goods, mail, oil, gas, or any other substance (other than
10 by airline). Where a taxpayer is engaged in the
11 transportation of both passengers and freight, the
12 fraction above referred to shall first be determined
13 separately for passenger miles and freight miles. Then an
14 average of the passenger miles fraction and the freight
15 miles fraction shall be weighted to reflect the taxpayer's:
16 (A) relative railway operating income from total
17 passenger and total freight service, as reported to the
18 Surface Transportation Board, in the case of
19 transportation by railroad; and
20 (B) relative gross receipts from passenger and
21 freight transportation, in case of transportation
22 other than by railroad.
23 (4) For taxable years ending on or after December 31,
24 2008, business income derived from furnishing airline
25 transportation services shall be apportioned to this State
26 by multiplying such income by a fraction, the numerator of

09800SB2640ham001- 359 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 which is the revenue miles of the person in this State, and
2 the denominator of which is the revenue miles of the person
3 everywhere. For purposes of this paragraph, a revenue mile
4 is the transportation of one passenger or one net ton of
5 freight the distance of one mile for a consideration. If a
6 person is engaged in the transportation of both passengers
7 and freight, the fraction above referred to shall be
8 determined by means of an average of the passenger revenue
9 mile fraction and the freight revenue mile fraction,
10 weighted to reflect the person's relative gross receipts
11 from passenger and freight airline transportation.
12 (e) Combined apportionment. Where 2 or more persons are
13engaged in a unitary business as described in subsection
14(a)(27) of Section 1501, a part of which is conducted in this
15State by one or more members of the group, the business income
16attributable to this State by any such member or members shall
17be apportioned by means of the combined apportionment method.
18 (f) Alternative allocation. If the allocation and
19apportionment provisions of subsections (a) through (e) and of
20subsection (h) do not, for taxable years ending before December
2131, 2008, fairly represent the extent of a person's business
22activity in this State, or, for taxable years ending on or
23after December 31, 2008, fairly represent the market for the
24person's goods, services, or other sources of business income,
25the person may petition for, or the Director may, without a
26petition, permit or require, in respect of all or any part of

09800SB2640ham001- 360 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1the person's business activity, if reasonable:
2 (1) Separate accounting;
3 (2) The exclusion of any one or more factors;
4 (3) The inclusion of one or more additional factors
5 which will fairly represent the person's business
6 activities or market in this State; or
7 (4) The employment of any other method to effectuate an
8 equitable allocation and apportionment of the person's
9 business income.
10 (g) Cross reference. For allocation of business income by
11residents, see Section 301(a).
12 (h) For tax years ending on or after December 31, 1998, the
13apportionment factor of persons who apportion their business
14income to this State under subsection (a) shall be equal to:
15 (1) for tax years ending on or after December 31, 1998
16 and before December 31, 1999, 16 2/3% of the property
17 factor plus 16 2/3% of the payroll factor plus 66 2/3% of
18 the sales factor;
19 (2) for tax years ending on or after December 31, 1999
20 and before December 31, 2000, 8 1/3% of the property factor
21 plus 8 1/3% of the payroll factor plus 83 1/3% of the sales
22 factor;
23 (3) for tax years ending on or after December 31, 2000,
24 the sales factor.
25If, in any tax year ending on or after December 31, 1998 and
26before December 31, 2000, the denominator of the payroll,

09800SB2640ham001- 361 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1property, or sales factor is zero, the apportionment factor
2computed in paragraph (1) or (2) of this subsection for that
3year shall be divided by an amount equal to 100% minus the
4percentage weight given to each factor whose denominator is
5equal to zero.
6(Source: P.A. 97-507, eff. 8-23-11; 97-636, eff. 6-1-12;
798-478, eff. 1-1-14; 98-496, eff. 1-1-14; revised 9-9-13.)
8 Section 175. The Use Tax Act is amended by changing
9Sections 3-5 and 9 as follows:
10 (35 ILCS 105/3-5)
11 Sec. 3-5. Exemptions. Use of the following tangible
12personal property is exempt from the tax imposed by this Act:
13 (1) Personal property purchased from a corporation,
14society, association, foundation, institution, or
15organization, other than a limited liability company, that is
16organized and operated as a not-for-profit service enterprise
17for the benefit of persons 65 years of age or older if the
18personal property was not purchased by the enterprise for the
19purpose of resale by the enterprise.
20 (2) Personal property purchased by a not-for-profit
21Illinois county fair association for use in conducting,
22operating, or promoting the county fair.
23 (3) Personal property purchased by a not-for-profit arts or
24cultural organization that establishes, by proof required by

09800SB2640ham001- 362 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1the Department by rule, that it has received an exemption under
2Section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code and that is
3organized and operated primarily for the presentation or
4support of arts or cultural programming, activities, or
5services. These organizations include, but are not limited to,
6music and dramatic arts organizations such as symphony
7orchestras and theatrical groups, arts and cultural service
8organizations, local arts councils, visual arts organizations,
9and media arts organizations. On and after the effective date
10of this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly, however,
11an entity otherwise eligible for this exemption shall not make
12tax-free purchases unless it has an active identification
13number issued by the Department.
14 (4) Personal property purchased by a governmental body, by
15a corporation, society, association, foundation, or
16institution organized and operated exclusively for charitable,
17religious, or educational purposes, or by a not-for-profit
18corporation, society, association, foundation, institution, or
19organization that has no compensated officers or employees and
20that is organized and operated primarily for the recreation of
21persons 55 years of age or older. A limited liability company
22may qualify for the exemption under this paragraph only if the
23limited liability company is organized and operated
24exclusively for educational purposes. On and after July 1,
251987, however, no entity otherwise eligible for this exemption
26shall make tax-free purchases unless it has an active exemption

09800SB2640ham001- 363 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1identification number issued by the Department.
2 (5) Until July 1, 2003, a passenger car that is a
3replacement vehicle to the extent that the purchase price of
4the car is subject to the Replacement Vehicle Tax.
5 (6) Until July 1, 2003 and beginning again on September 1,
62004 through August 30, 2014, graphic arts machinery and
7equipment, including repair and replacement parts, both new and
8used, and including that manufactured on special order,
9certified by the purchaser to be used primarily for graphic
10arts production, and including machinery and equipment
11purchased for lease. Equipment includes chemicals or chemicals
12acting as catalysts but only if the chemicals or chemicals
13acting as catalysts effect a direct and immediate change upon a
14graphic arts product.
15 (7) Farm chemicals.
16 (8) Legal tender, currency, medallions, or gold or silver
17coinage issued by the State of Illinois, the government of the
18United States of America, or the government of any foreign
19country, and bullion.
20 (9) Personal property purchased from a teacher-sponsored
21student organization affiliated with an elementary or
22secondary school located in Illinois.
23 (10) A motor vehicle that is used for automobile renting,
24as defined in the Automobile Renting Occupation and Use Tax
25Act.
26 (11) Farm machinery and equipment, both new and used,

09800SB2640ham001- 364 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1including that manufactured on special order, certified by the
2purchaser to be used primarily for production agriculture or
3State or federal agricultural programs, including individual
4replacement parts for the machinery and equipment, including
5machinery and equipment purchased for lease, and including
6implements of husbandry defined in Section 1-130 of the
7Illinois Vehicle Code, farm machinery and agricultural
8chemical and fertilizer spreaders, and nurse wagons required to
9be registered under Section 3-809 of the Illinois Vehicle Code,
10but excluding other motor vehicles required to be registered
11under the Illinois Vehicle Code. Horticultural polyhouses or
12hoop houses used for propagating, growing, or overwintering
13plants shall be considered farm machinery and equipment under
14this item (11). Agricultural chemical tender tanks and dry
15boxes shall include units sold separately from a motor vehicle
16required to be licensed and units sold mounted on a motor
17vehicle required to be licensed if the selling price of the
18tender is separately stated.
19 Farm machinery and equipment shall include precision
20farming equipment that is installed or purchased to be
21installed on farm machinery and equipment including, but not
22limited to, tractors, harvesters, sprayers, planters, seeders,
23or spreaders. Precision farming equipment includes, but is not
24limited to, soil testing sensors, computers, monitors,
25software, global positioning and mapping systems, and other
26such equipment.

09800SB2640ham001- 365 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 Farm machinery and equipment also includes computers,
2sensors, software, and related equipment used primarily in the
3computer-assisted operation of production agriculture
4facilities, equipment, and activities such as, but not limited
5to, the collection, monitoring, and correlation of animal and
6crop data for the purpose of formulating animal diets and
7agricultural chemicals. This item (11) is exempt from the
8provisions of Section 3-90.
9 (12) Until June 30, 2013, fuel and petroleum products sold
10to or used by an air common carrier, certified by the carrier
11to be used for consumption, shipment, or storage in the conduct
12of its business as an air common carrier, for a flight destined
13for or returning from a location or locations outside the
14United States without regard to previous or subsequent domestic
15stopovers.
16 Beginning July 1, 2013, fuel and petroleum products sold to
17or used by an air carrier, certified by the carrier to be used
18for consumption, shipment, or storage in the conduct of its
19business as an air common carrier, for a flight that (i) is
20engaged in foreign trade or is engaged in trade between the
21United States and any of its possessions and (ii) transports at
22least one individual or package for hire from the city of
23origination to the city of final destination on the same
24aircraft, without regard to a change in the flight number of
25that aircraft.
26 (13) Proceeds of mandatory service charges separately

09800SB2640ham001- 366 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1stated on customers' bills for the purchase and consumption of
2food and beverages purchased at retail from a retailer, to the
3extent that the proceeds of the service charge are in fact
4turned over as tips or as a substitute for tips to the
5employees who participate directly in preparing, serving,
6hosting or cleaning up the food or beverage function with
7respect to which the service charge is imposed.
8 (14) Until July 1, 2003, oil field exploration, drilling,
9and production equipment, including (i) rigs and parts of rigs,
10rotary rigs, cable tool rigs, and workover rigs, (ii) pipe and
11tubular goods, including casing and drill strings, (iii) pumps
12and pump-jack units, (iv) storage tanks and flow lines, (v) any
13individual replacement part for oil field exploration,
14drilling, and production equipment, and (vi) machinery and
15equipment purchased for lease; but excluding motor vehicles
16required to be registered under the Illinois Vehicle Code.
17 (15) Photoprocessing machinery and equipment, including
18repair and replacement parts, both new and used, including that
19manufactured on special order, certified by the purchaser to be
20used primarily for photoprocessing, and including
21photoprocessing machinery and equipment purchased for lease.
22 (16) Coal and aggregate exploration, mining, off-highway
23offhighway hauling, processing, maintenance, and reclamation
24equipment, including replacement parts and equipment, and
25including equipment purchased for lease, but excluding motor
26vehicles required to be registered under the Illinois Vehicle

09800SB2640ham001- 367 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1Code. The changes made to this Section by Public Act 97-767
2apply on and after July 1, 2003, but no claim for credit or
3refund is allowed on or after August 16, 2013 (the effective
4date of Public Act 98-456) this amendatory Act of the 98th
5General Assembly for such taxes paid during the period
6beginning July 1, 2003 and ending on August 16, 2013 (the
7effective date of Public Act 98-456) this amendatory Act of the
898th General Assembly.
9 (17) Until July 1, 2003, distillation machinery and
10equipment, sold as a unit or kit, assembled or installed by the
11retailer, certified by the user to be used only for the
12production of ethyl alcohol that will be used for consumption
13as motor fuel or as a component of motor fuel for the personal
14use of the user, and not subject to sale or resale.
15 (18) Manufacturing and assembling machinery and equipment
16used primarily in the process of manufacturing or assembling
17tangible personal property for wholesale or retail sale or
18lease, whether that sale or lease is made directly by the
19manufacturer or by some other person, whether the materials
20used in the process are owned by the manufacturer or some other
21person, or whether that sale or lease is made apart from or as
22an incident to the seller's engaging in the service occupation
23of producing machines, tools, dies, jigs, patterns, gauges, or
24other similar items of no commercial value on special order for
25a particular purchaser. The exemption provided by this
26paragraph (18) does not include machinery and equipment used in

09800SB2640ham001- 368 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1(i) the generation of electricity for wholesale or retail sale;
2(ii) the generation or treatment of natural or artificial gas
3for wholesale or retail sale that is delivered to customers
4through pipes, pipelines, or mains; or (iii) the treatment of
5water for wholesale or retail sale that is delivered to
6customers through pipes, pipelines, or mains. The provisions of
7Public Act 98-583 this amendatory Act of the 98th General
8Assembly are declaratory of existing law as to the meaning and
9scope of this exemption.
10 (19) Personal property delivered to a purchaser or
11purchaser's donee inside Illinois when the purchase order for
12that personal property was received by a florist located
13outside Illinois who has a florist located inside Illinois
14deliver the personal property.
15 (20) Semen used for artificial insemination of livestock
16for direct agricultural production.
17 (21) Horses, or interests in horses, registered with and
18meeting the requirements of any of the Arabian Horse Club
19Registry of America, Appaloosa Horse Club, American Quarter
20Horse Association, United States Trotting Association, or
21Jockey Club, as appropriate, used for purposes of breeding or
22racing for prizes. This item (21) is exempt from the provisions
23of Section 3-90, and the exemption provided for under this item
24(21) applies for all periods beginning May 30, 1995, but no
25claim for credit or refund is allowed on or after January 1,
262008 for such taxes paid during the period beginning May 30,

09800SB2640ham001- 369 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
12000 and ending on January 1, 2008.
2 (22) Computers and communications equipment utilized for
3any hospital purpose and equipment used in the diagnosis,
4analysis, or treatment of hospital patients purchased by a
5lessor who leases the equipment, under a lease of one year or
6longer executed or in effect at the time the lessor would
7otherwise be subject to the tax imposed by this Act, to a
8hospital that has been issued an active tax exemption
9identification number by the Department under Section 1g of the
10Retailers' Occupation Tax Act. If the equipment is leased in a
11manner that does not qualify for this exemption or is used in
12any other non-exempt manner, the lessor shall be liable for the
13tax imposed under this Act or the Service Use Tax Act, as the
14case may be, based on the fair market value of the property at
15the time the non-qualifying use occurs. No lessor shall collect
16or attempt to collect an amount (however designated) that
17purports to reimburse that lessor for the tax imposed by this
18Act or the Service Use Tax Act, as the case may be, if the tax
19has not been paid by the lessor. If a lessor improperly
20collects any such amount from the lessee, the lessee shall have
21a legal right to claim a refund of that amount from the lessor.
22If, however, that amount is not refunded to the lessee for any
23reason, the lessor is liable to pay that amount to the
24Department.
25 (23) Personal property purchased by a lessor who leases the
26property, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in

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1effect at the time the lessor would otherwise be subject to the
2tax imposed by this Act, to a governmental body that has been
3issued an active sales tax exemption identification number by
4the Department under Section 1g of the Retailers' Occupation
5Tax Act. If the property is leased in a manner that does not
6qualify for this exemption or used in any other non-exempt
7manner, the lessor shall be liable for the tax imposed under
8this Act or the Service Use Tax Act, as the case may be, based
9on the fair market value of the property at the time the
10non-qualifying use occurs. No lessor shall collect or attempt
11to collect an amount (however designated) that purports to
12reimburse that lessor for the tax imposed by this Act or the
13Service Use Tax Act, as the case may be, if the tax has not been
14paid by the lessor. If a lessor improperly collects any such
15amount from the lessee, the lessee shall have a legal right to
16claim a refund of that amount from the lessor. If, however,
17that amount is not refunded to the lessee for any reason, the
18lessor is liable to pay that amount to the Department.
19 (24) Beginning with taxable years ending on or after
20December 31, 1995 and ending with taxable years ending on or
21before December 31, 2004, personal property that is donated for
22disaster relief to be used in a State or federally declared
23disaster area in Illinois or bordering Illinois by a
24manufacturer or retailer that is registered in this State to a
25corporation, society, association, foundation, or institution
26that has been issued a sales tax exemption identification

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1number by the Department that assists victims of the disaster
2who reside within the declared disaster area.
3 (25) Beginning with taxable years ending on or after
4December 31, 1995 and ending with taxable years ending on or
5before December 31, 2004, personal property that is used in the
6performance of infrastructure repairs in this State, including
7but not limited to municipal roads and streets, access roads,
8bridges, sidewalks, waste disposal systems, water and sewer
9line extensions, water distribution and purification
10facilities, storm water drainage and retention facilities, and
11sewage treatment facilities, resulting from a State or
12federally declared disaster in Illinois or bordering Illinois
13when such repairs are initiated on facilities located in the
14declared disaster area within 6 months after the disaster.
15 (26) Beginning July 1, 1999, game or game birds purchased
16at a "game breeding and hunting preserve area" as that term is
17used in the Wildlife Code. This paragraph is exempt from the
18provisions of Section 3-90.
19 (27) A motor vehicle, as that term is defined in Section
201-146 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, that is donated to a
21corporation, limited liability company, society, association,
22foundation, or institution that is determined by the Department
23to be organized and operated exclusively for educational
24purposes. For purposes of this exemption, "a corporation,
25limited liability company, society, association, foundation,
26or institution organized and operated exclusively for

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1educational purposes" means all tax-supported public schools,
2private schools that offer systematic instruction in useful
3branches of learning by methods common to public schools and
4that compare favorably in their scope and intensity with the
5course of study presented in tax-supported schools, and
6vocational or technical schools or institutes organized and
7operated exclusively to provide a course of study of not less
8than 6 weeks duration and designed to prepare individuals to
9follow a trade or to pursue a manual, technical, mechanical,
10industrial, business, or commercial occupation.
11 (28) Beginning January 1, 2000, personal property,
12including food, purchased through fundraising events for the
13benefit of a public or private elementary or secondary school,
14a group of those schools, or one or more school districts if
15the events are sponsored by an entity recognized by the school
16district that consists primarily of volunteers and includes
17parents and teachers of the school children. This paragraph
18does not apply to fundraising events (i) for the benefit of
19private home instruction or (ii) for which the fundraising
20entity purchases the personal property sold at the events from
21another individual or entity that sold the property for the
22purpose of resale by the fundraising entity and that profits
23from the sale to the fundraising entity. This paragraph is
24exempt from the provisions of Section 3-90.
25 (29) Beginning January 1, 2000 and through December 31,
262001, new or used automatic vending machines that prepare and

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1serve hot food and beverages, including coffee, soup, and other
2items, and replacement parts for these machines. Beginning
3January 1, 2002 and through June 30, 2003, machines and parts
4for machines used in commercial, coin-operated amusement and
5vending business if a use or occupation tax is paid on the
6gross receipts derived from the use of the commercial,
7coin-operated amusement and vending machines. This paragraph
8is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-90.
9 (30) Beginning January 1, 2001 and through June 30, 2016,
10food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the
11premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, soft
12drinks, and food that has been prepared for immediate
13consumption) and prescription and nonprescription medicines,
14drugs, medical appliances, and insulin, urine testing
15materials, syringes, and needles used by diabetics, for human
16use, when purchased for use by a person receiving medical
17assistance under Article V of the Illinois Public Aid Code who
18resides in a licensed long-term care facility, as defined in
19the Nursing Home Care Act, or in a licensed facility as defined
20in the ID/DD Community Care Act or the Specialized Mental
21Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013.
22 (31) Beginning on the effective date of this amendatory Act
23of the 92nd General Assembly, computers and communications
24equipment utilized for any hospital purpose and equipment used
25in the diagnosis, analysis, or treatment of hospital patients
26purchased by a lessor who leases the equipment, under a lease

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1of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time the
2lessor would otherwise be subject to the tax imposed by this
3Act, to a hospital that has been issued an active tax exemption
4identification number by the Department under Section 1g of the
5Retailers' Occupation Tax Act. If the equipment is leased in a
6manner that does not qualify for this exemption or is used in
7any other nonexempt manner, the lessor shall be liable for the
8tax imposed under this Act or the Service Use Tax Act, as the
9case may be, based on the fair market value of the property at
10the time the nonqualifying use occurs. No lessor shall collect
11or attempt to collect an amount (however designated) that
12purports to reimburse that lessor for the tax imposed by this
13Act or the Service Use Tax Act, as the case may be, if the tax
14has not been paid by the lessor. If a lessor improperly
15collects any such amount from the lessee, the lessee shall have
16a legal right to claim a refund of that amount from the lessor.
17If, however, that amount is not refunded to the lessee for any
18reason, the lessor is liable to pay that amount to the
19Department. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of
20Section 3-90.
21 (32) Beginning on the effective date of this amendatory Act
22of the 92nd General Assembly, personal property purchased by a
23lessor who leases the property, under a lease of one year or
24longer executed or in effect at the time the lessor would
25otherwise be subject to the tax imposed by this Act, to a
26governmental body that has been issued an active sales tax

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1exemption identification number by the Department under
2Section 1g of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act. If the
3property is leased in a manner that does not qualify for this
4exemption or used in any other nonexempt manner, the lessor
5shall be liable for the tax imposed under this Act or the
6Service Use Tax Act, as the case may be, based on the fair
7market value of the property at the time the nonqualifying use
8occurs. No lessor shall collect or attempt to collect an amount
9(however designated) that purports to reimburse that lessor for
10the tax imposed by this Act or the Service Use Tax Act, as the
11case may be, if the tax has not been paid by the lessor. If a
12lessor improperly collects any such amount from the lessee, the
13lessee shall have a legal right to claim a refund of that
14amount from the lessor. If, however, that amount is not
15refunded to the lessee for any reason, the lessor is liable to
16pay that amount to the Department. This paragraph is exempt
17from the provisions of Section 3-90.
18 (33) On and after July 1, 2003 and through June 30, 2004,
19the use in this State of motor vehicles of the second division
20with a gross vehicle weight in excess of 8,000 pounds and that
21are subject to the commercial distribution fee imposed under
22Section 3-815.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code. Beginning on July
231, 2004 and through June 30, 2005, the use in this State of
24motor vehicles of the second division: (i) with a gross vehicle
25weight rating in excess of 8,000 pounds; (ii) that are subject
26to the commercial distribution fee imposed under Section

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13-815.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code; and (iii) that are
2primarily used for commercial purposes. Through June 30, 2005,
3this exemption applies to repair and replacement parts added
4after the initial purchase of such a motor vehicle if that
5motor vehicle is used in a manner that would qualify for the
6rolling stock exemption otherwise provided for in this Act. For
7purposes of this paragraph, the term "used for commercial
8purposes" means the transportation of persons or property in
9furtherance of any commercial or industrial enterprise,
10whether for-hire or not.
11 (34) Beginning January 1, 2008, tangible personal property
12used in the construction or maintenance of a community water
13supply, as defined under Section 3.145 of the Environmental
14Protection Act, that is operated by a not-for-profit
15corporation that holds a valid water supply permit issued under
16Title IV of the Environmental Protection Act. This paragraph is
17exempt from the provisions of Section 3-90.
18 (35) Beginning January 1, 2010, materials, parts,
19equipment, components, and furnishings incorporated into or
20upon an aircraft as part of the modification, refurbishment,
21completion, replacement, repair, or maintenance of the
22aircraft. This exemption includes consumable supplies used in
23the modification, refurbishment, completion, replacement,
24repair, and maintenance of aircraft, but excludes any
25materials, parts, equipment, components, and consumable
26supplies used in the modification, replacement, repair, and

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1maintenance of aircraft engines or power plants, whether such
2engines or power plants are installed or uninstalled upon any
3such aircraft. "Consumable supplies" include, but are not
4limited to, adhesive, tape, sandpaper, general purpose
5lubricants, cleaning solution, latex gloves, and protective
6films. This exemption applies only to the use of qualifying
7tangible personal property by persons who modify, refurbish,
8complete, repair, replace, or maintain aircraft and who (i)
9hold an Air Agency Certificate and are empowered to operate an
10approved repair station by the Federal Aviation
11Administration, (ii) have a Class IV Rating, and (iii) conduct
12operations in accordance with Part 145 of the Federal Aviation
13Regulations. The exemption does not include aircraft operated
14by a commercial air carrier providing scheduled passenger air
15service pursuant to authority issued under Part 121 or Part 129
16of the Federal Aviation Regulations. The changes made to this
17paragraph (35) by Public Act 98-534 this amendatory Act of the
1898th General Assembly are declarative of existing law.
19 (36) Tangible personal property purchased by a
20public-facilities corporation, as described in Section
2111-65-10 of the Illinois Municipal Code, for purposes of
22constructing or furnishing a municipal convention hall, but
23only if the legal title to the municipal convention hall is
24transferred to the municipality without any further
25consideration by or on behalf of the municipality at the time
26of the completion of the municipal convention hall or upon the

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1retirement or redemption of any bonds or other debt instruments
2issued by the public-facilities corporation in connection with
3the development of the municipal convention hall. This
4exemption includes existing public-facilities corporations as
5provided in Section 11-65-25 of the Illinois Municipal Code.
6This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-90.
7(Source: P.A. 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-431,
8eff. 8-16-11; 97-636, eff. 6-1-12; 97-767, eff. 7-9-12; 98-104,
9eff. 7-22-13; 98-422, eff. 8-16-13; 98-456, eff. 8-16-13;
1098-534, eff. 8-23-13; 98-574, eff. 1-1-14; 98-583, eff. 1-1-14;
11revised 9-9-13.)
12 (35 ILCS 105/9) (from Ch. 120, par. 439.9)
13 Sec. 9. Except as to motor vehicles, watercraft, aircraft,
14and trailers that are required to be registered with an agency
15of this State, each retailer required or authorized to collect
16the tax imposed by this Act shall pay to the Department the
17amount of such tax (except as otherwise provided) at the time
18when he is required to file his return for the period during
19which such tax was collected, less a discount of 2.1% prior to
20January 1, 1990, and 1.75% on and after January 1, 1990, or $5
21per calendar year, whichever is greater, which is allowed to
22reimburse the retailer for expenses incurred in collecting the
23tax, keeping records, preparing and filing returns, remitting
24the tax and supplying data to the Department on request. In the
25case of retailers who report and pay the tax on a transaction

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1by transaction basis, as provided in this Section, such
2discount shall be taken with each such tax remittance instead
3of when such retailer files his periodic return. The Department
4may disallow the discount for retailers whose certificate of
5registration is revoked at the time the return is filed, but
6only if the Department's decision to revoke the certificate of
7registration has become final. A retailer need not remit that
8part of any tax collected by him to the extent that he is
9required to remit and does remit the tax imposed by the
10Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, with respect to the sale of the
11same property.
12 Where such tangible personal property is sold under a
13conditional sales contract, or under any other form of sale
14wherein the payment of the principal sum, or a part thereof, is
15extended beyond the close of the period for which the return is
16filed, the retailer, in collecting the tax (except as to motor
17vehicles, watercraft, aircraft, and trailers that are required
18to be registered with an agency of this State), may collect for
19each tax return period, only the tax applicable to that part of
20the selling price actually received during such tax return
21period.
22 Except as provided in this Section, on or before the
23twentieth day of each calendar month, such retailer shall file
24a return for the preceding calendar month. Such return shall be
25filed on forms prescribed by the Department and shall furnish
26such information as the Department may reasonably require.

09800SB2640ham001- 380 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 The Department may require returns to be filed on a
2quarterly basis. If so required, a return for each calendar
3quarter shall be filed on or before the twentieth day of the
4calendar month following the end of such calendar quarter. The
5taxpayer shall also file a return with the Department for each
6of the first two months of each calendar quarter, on or before
7the twentieth day of the following calendar month, stating:
8 1. The name of the seller;
9 2. The address of the principal place of business from
10 which he engages in the business of selling tangible
11 personal property at retail in this State;
12 3. The total amount of taxable receipts received by him
13 during the preceding calendar month from sales of tangible
14 personal property by him during such preceding calendar
15 month, including receipts from charge and time sales, but
16 less all deductions allowed by law;
17 4. The amount of credit provided in Section 2d of this
18 Act;
19 5. The amount of tax due;
20 5-5. The signature of the taxpayer; and
21 6. Such other reasonable information as the Department
22 may require.
23 If a taxpayer fails to sign a return within 30 days after
24the proper notice and demand for signature by the Department,
25the return shall be considered valid and any amount shown to be
26due on the return shall be deemed assessed.

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1 Beginning October 1, 1993, a taxpayer who has an average
2monthly tax liability of $150,000 or more shall make all
3payments required by rules of the Department by electronic
4funds transfer. Beginning October 1, 1994, a taxpayer who has
5an average monthly tax liability of $100,000 or more shall make
6all payments required by rules of the Department by electronic
7funds transfer. Beginning October 1, 1995, a taxpayer who has
8an average monthly tax liability of $50,000 or more shall make
9all payments required by rules of the Department by electronic
10funds transfer. Beginning October 1, 2000, a taxpayer who has
11an annual tax liability of $200,000 or more shall make all
12payments required by rules of the Department by electronic
13funds transfer. The term "annual tax liability" shall be the
14sum of the taxpayer's liabilities under this Act, and under all
15other State and local occupation and use tax laws administered
16by the Department, for the immediately preceding calendar year.
17The term "average monthly tax liability" means the sum of the
18taxpayer's liabilities under this Act, and under all other
19State and local occupation and use tax laws administered by the
20Department, for the immediately preceding calendar year
21divided by 12. Beginning on October 1, 2002, a taxpayer who has
22a tax liability in the amount set forth in subsection (b) of
23Section 2505-210 of the Department of Revenue Law shall make
24all payments required by rules of the Department by electronic
25funds transfer.
26 Before August 1 of each year beginning in 1993, the

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1Department shall notify all taxpayers required to make payments
2by electronic funds transfer. All taxpayers required to make
3payments by electronic funds transfer shall make those payments
4for a minimum of one year beginning on October 1.
5 Any taxpayer not required to make payments by electronic
6funds transfer may make payments by electronic funds transfer
7with the permission of the Department.
8 All taxpayers required to make payment by electronic funds
9transfer and any taxpayers authorized to voluntarily make
10payments by electronic funds transfer shall make those payments
11in the manner authorized by the Department.
12 The Department shall adopt such rules as are necessary to
13effectuate a program of electronic funds transfer and the
14requirements of this Section.
15 Before October 1, 2000, if the taxpayer's average monthly
16tax liability to the Department under this Act, the Retailers'
17Occupation Tax Act, the Service Occupation Tax Act, the Service
18Use Tax Act was $10,000 or more during the preceding 4 complete
19calendar quarters, he shall file a return with the Department
20each month by the 20th day of the month next following the
21month during which such tax liability is incurred and shall
22make payments to the Department on or before the 7th, 15th,
2322nd and last day of the month during which such liability is
24incurred. On and after October 1, 2000, if the taxpayer's
25average monthly tax liability to the Department under this Act,
26the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, the Service Occupation Tax

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1Act, and the Service Use Tax Act was $20,000 or more during the
2preceding 4 complete calendar quarters, he shall file a return
3with the Department each month by the 20th day of the month
4next following the month during which such tax liability is
5incurred and shall make payment to the Department on or before
6the 7th, 15th, 22nd and last day of the month during which such
7liability is incurred. If the month during which such tax
8liability is incurred began prior to January 1, 1985, each
9payment shall be in an amount equal to 1/4 of the taxpayer's
10actual liability for the month or an amount set by the
11Department not to exceed 1/4 of the average monthly liability
12of the taxpayer to the Department for the preceding 4 complete
13calendar quarters (excluding the month of highest liability and
14the month of lowest liability in such 4 quarter period). If the
15month during which such tax liability is incurred begins on or
16after January 1, 1985, and prior to January 1, 1987, each
17payment shall be in an amount equal to 22.5% of the taxpayer's
18actual liability for the month or 27.5% of the taxpayer's
19liability for the same calendar month of the preceding year. If
20the month during which such tax liability is incurred begins on
21or after January 1, 1987, and prior to January 1, 1988, each
22payment shall be in an amount equal to 22.5% of the taxpayer's
23actual liability for the month or 26.25% of the taxpayer's
24liability for the same calendar month of the preceding year. If
25the month during which such tax liability is incurred begins on
26or after January 1, 1988, and prior to January 1, 1989, or

09800SB2640ham001- 384 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1begins on or after January 1, 1996, each payment shall be in an
2amount equal to 22.5% of the taxpayer's actual liability for
3the month or 25% of the taxpayer's liability for the same
4calendar month of the preceding year. If the month during which
5such tax liability is incurred begins on or after January 1,
61989, and prior to January 1, 1996, each payment shall be in an
7amount equal to 22.5% of the taxpayer's actual liability for
8the month or 25% of the taxpayer's liability for the same
9calendar month of the preceding year or 100% of the taxpayer's
10actual liability for the quarter monthly reporting period. The
11amount of such quarter monthly payments shall be credited
12against the final tax liability of the taxpayer's return for
13that month. Before October 1, 2000, once applicable, the
14requirement of the making of quarter monthly payments to the
15Department shall continue until such taxpayer's average
16monthly liability to the Department during the preceding 4
17complete calendar quarters (excluding the month of highest
18liability and the month of lowest liability) is less than
19$9,000, or until such taxpayer's average monthly liability to
20the Department as computed for each calendar quarter of the 4
21preceding complete calendar quarter period is less than
22$10,000. However, if a taxpayer can show the Department that a
23substantial change in the taxpayer's business has occurred
24which causes the taxpayer to anticipate that his average
25monthly tax liability for the reasonably foreseeable future
26will fall below the $10,000 threshold stated above, then such

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1taxpayer may petition the Department for change in such
2taxpayer's reporting status. On and after October 1, 2000, once
3applicable, the requirement of the making of quarter monthly
4payments to the Department shall continue until such taxpayer's
5average monthly liability to the Department during the
6preceding 4 complete calendar quarters (excluding the month of
7highest liability and the month of lowest liability) is less
8than $19,000 or until such taxpayer's average monthly liability
9to the Department as computed for each calendar quarter of the
104 preceding complete calendar quarter period is less than
11$20,000. However, if a taxpayer can show the Department that a
12substantial change in the taxpayer's business has occurred
13which causes the taxpayer to anticipate that his average
14monthly tax liability for the reasonably foreseeable future
15will fall below the $20,000 threshold stated above, then such
16taxpayer may petition the Department for a change in such
17taxpayer's reporting status. The Department shall change such
18taxpayer's reporting status unless it finds that such change is
19seasonal in nature and not likely to be long term. If any such
20quarter monthly payment is not paid at the time or in the
21amount required by this Section, then the taxpayer shall be
22liable for penalties and interest on the difference between the
23minimum amount due and the amount of such quarter monthly
24payment actually and timely paid, except insofar as the
25taxpayer has previously made payments for that month to the
26Department in excess of the minimum payments previously due as

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1provided in this Section. The Department shall make reasonable
2rules and regulations to govern the quarter monthly payment
3amount and quarter monthly payment dates for taxpayers who file
4on other than a calendar monthly basis.
5 If any such payment provided for in this Section exceeds
6the taxpayer's liabilities under this Act, the Retailers'
7Occupation Tax Act, the Service Occupation Tax Act and the
8Service Use Tax Act, as shown by an original monthly return,
9the Department shall issue to the taxpayer a credit memorandum
10no later than 30 days after the date of payment, which
11memorandum may be submitted by the taxpayer to the Department
12in payment of tax liability subsequently to be remitted by the
13taxpayer to the Department or be assigned by the taxpayer to a
14similar taxpayer under this Act, the Retailers' Occupation Tax
15Act, the Service Occupation Tax Act or the Service Use Tax Act,
16in accordance with reasonable rules and regulations to be
17prescribed by the Department, except that if such excess
18payment is shown on an original monthly return and is made
19after December 31, 1986, no credit memorandum shall be issued,
20unless requested by the taxpayer. If no such request is made,
21the taxpayer may credit such excess payment against tax
22liability subsequently to be remitted by the taxpayer to the
23Department under this Act, the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act,
24the Service Occupation Tax Act or the Service Use Tax Act, in
25accordance with reasonable rules and regulations prescribed by
26the Department. If the Department subsequently determines that

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1all or any part of the credit taken was not actually due to the
2taxpayer, the taxpayer's 2.1% or 1.75% vendor's discount shall
3be reduced by 2.1% or 1.75% of the difference between the
4credit taken and that actually due, and the taxpayer shall be
5liable for penalties and interest on such difference.
6 If the retailer is otherwise required to file a monthly
7return and if the retailer's average monthly tax liability to
8the Department does not exceed $200, the Department may
9authorize his returns to be filed on a quarter annual basis,
10with the return for January, February, and March of a given
11year being due by April 20 of such year; with the return for
12April, May and June of a given year being due by July 20 of such
13year; with the return for July, August and September of a given
14year being due by October 20 of such year, and with the return
15for October, November and December of a given year being due by
16January 20 of the following year.
17 If the retailer is otherwise required to file a monthly or
18quarterly return and if the retailer's average monthly tax
19liability to the Department does not exceed $50, the Department
20may authorize his returns to be filed on an annual basis, with
21the return for a given year being due by January 20 of the
22following year.
23 Such quarter annual and annual returns, as to form and
24substance, shall be subject to the same requirements as monthly
25returns.
26 Notwithstanding any other provision in this Act concerning

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1the time within which a retailer may file his return, in the
2case of any retailer who ceases to engage in a kind of business
3which makes him responsible for filing returns under this Act,
4such retailer shall file a final return under this Act with the
5Department not more than one month after discontinuing such
6business.
7 In addition, with respect to motor vehicles, watercraft,
8aircraft, and trailers that are required to be registered with
9an agency of this State, every retailer selling this kind of
10tangible personal property shall file, with the Department,
11upon a form to be prescribed and supplied by the Department, a
12separate return for each such item of tangible personal
13property which the retailer sells, except that if, in the same
14transaction, (i) a retailer of aircraft, watercraft, motor
15vehicles or trailers transfers more than one aircraft,
16watercraft, motor vehicle or trailer to another aircraft,
17watercraft, motor vehicle or trailer retailer for the purpose
18of resale or (ii) a retailer of aircraft, watercraft, motor
19vehicles, or trailers transfers more than one aircraft,
20watercraft, motor vehicle, or trailer to a purchaser for use as
21a qualifying rolling stock as provided in Section 3-55 of this
22Act, then that seller may report the transfer of all the
23aircraft, watercraft, motor vehicles or trailers involved in
24that transaction to the Department on the same uniform
25invoice-transaction reporting return form. For purposes of
26this Section, "watercraft" means a Class 2, Class 3, or Class 4

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1watercraft as defined in Section 3-2 of the Boat Registration
2and Safety Act, a personal watercraft, or any boat equipped
3with an inboard motor.
4 The transaction reporting return in the case of motor
5vehicles or trailers that are required to be registered with an
6agency of this State, shall be the same document as the Uniform
7Invoice referred to in Section 5-402 of the Illinois Vehicle
8Code and must show the name and address of the seller; the name
9and address of the purchaser; the amount of the selling price
10including the amount allowed by the retailer for traded-in
11property, if any; the amount allowed by the retailer for the
12traded-in tangible personal property, if any, to the extent to
13which Section 2 of this Act allows an exemption for the value
14of traded-in property; the balance payable after deducting such
15trade-in allowance from the total selling price; the amount of
16tax due from the retailer with respect to such transaction; the
17amount of tax collected from the purchaser by the retailer on
18such transaction (or satisfactory evidence that such tax is not
19due in that particular instance, if that is claimed to be the
20fact); the place and date of the sale; a sufficient
21identification of the property sold; such other information as
22is required in Section 5-402 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, and
23such other information as the Department may reasonably
24require.
25 The transaction reporting return in the case of watercraft
26and aircraft must show the name and address of the seller; the

09800SB2640ham001- 390 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1name and address of the purchaser; the amount of the selling
2price including the amount allowed by the retailer for
3traded-in property, if any; the amount allowed by the retailer
4for the traded-in tangible personal property, if any, to the
5extent to which Section 2 of this Act allows an exemption for
6the value of traded-in property; the balance payable after
7deducting such trade-in allowance from the total selling price;
8the amount of tax due from the retailer with respect to such
9transaction; the amount of tax collected from the purchaser by
10the retailer on such transaction (or satisfactory evidence that
11such tax is not due in that particular instance, if that is
12claimed to be the fact); the place and date of the sale, a
13sufficient identification of the property sold, and such other
14information as the Department may reasonably require.
15 Such transaction reporting return shall be filed not later
16than 20 days after the date of delivery of the item that is
17being sold, but may be filed by the retailer at any time sooner
18than that if he chooses to do so. The transaction reporting
19return and tax remittance or proof of exemption from the tax
20that is imposed by this Act may be transmitted to the
21Department by way of the State agency with which, or State
22officer with whom, the tangible personal property must be
23titled or registered (if titling or registration is required)
24if the Department and such agency or State officer determine
25that this procedure will expedite the processing of
26applications for title or registration.

09800SB2640ham001- 391 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 With each such transaction reporting return, the retailer
2shall remit the proper amount of tax due (or shall submit
3satisfactory evidence that the sale is not taxable if that is
4the case), to the Department or its agents, whereupon the
5Department shall issue, in the purchaser's name, a tax receipt
6(or a certificate of exemption if the Department is satisfied
7that the particular sale is tax exempt) which such purchaser
8may submit to the agency with which, or State officer with
9whom, he must title or register the tangible personal property
10that is involved (if titling or registration is required) in
11support of such purchaser's application for an Illinois
12certificate or other evidence of title or registration to such
13tangible personal property.
14 No retailer's failure or refusal to remit tax under this
15Act precludes a user, who has paid the proper tax to the
16retailer, from obtaining his certificate of title or other
17evidence of title or registration (if titling or registration
18is required) upon satisfying the Department that such user has
19paid the proper tax (if tax is due) to the retailer. The
20Department shall adopt appropriate rules to carry out the
21mandate of this paragraph.
22 If the user who would otherwise pay tax to the retailer
23wants the transaction reporting return filed and the payment of
24tax or proof of exemption made to the Department before the
25retailer is willing to take these actions and such user has not
26paid the tax to the retailer, such user may certify to the fact

09800SB2640ham001- 392 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1of such delay by the retailer, and may (upon the Department
2being satisfied of the truth of such certification) transmit
3the information required by the transaction reporting return
4and the remittance for tax or proof of exemption directly to
5the Department and obtain his tax receipt or exemption
6determination, in which event the transaction reporting return
7and tax remittance (if a tax payment was required) shall be
8credited by the Department to the proper retailer's account
9with the Department, but without the 2.1% or 1.75% discount
10provided for in this Section being allowed. When the user pays
11the tax directly to the Department, he shall pay the tax in the
12same amount and in the same form in which it would be remitted
13if the tax had been remitted to the Department by the retailer.
14 Where a retailer collects the tax with respect to the
15selling price of tangible personal property which he sells and
16the purchaser thereafter returns such tangible personal
17property and the retailer refunds the selling price thereof to
18the purchaser, such retailer shall also refund, to the
19purchaser, the tax so collected from the purchaser. When filing
20his return for the period in which he refunds such tax to the
21purchaser, the retailer may deduct the amount of the tax so
22refunded by him to the purchaser from any other use tax which
23such retailer may be required to pay or remit to the
24Department, as shown by such return, if the amount of the tax
25to be deducted was previously remitted to the Department by
26such retailer. If the retailer has not previously remitted the

09800SB2640ham001- 393 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1amount of such tax to the Department, he is entitled to no
2deduction under this Act upon refunding such tax to the
3purchaser.
4 Any retailer filing a return under this Section shall also
5include (for the purpose of paying tax thereon) the total tax
6covered by such return upon the selling price of tangible
7personal property purchased by him at retail from a retailer,
8but as to which the tax imposed by this Act was not collected
9from the retailer filing such return, and such retailer shall
10remit the amount of such tax to the Department when filing such
11return.
12 If experience indicates such action to be practicable, the
13Department may prescribe and furnish a combination or joint
14return which will enable retailers, who are required to file
15returns hereunder and also under the Retailers' Occupation Tax
16Act, to furnish all the return information required by both
17Acts on the one form.
18 Where the retailer has more than one business registered
19with the Department under separate registration under this Act,
20such retailer may not file each return that is due as a single
21return covering all such registered businesses, but shall file
22separate returns for each such registered business.
23 Beginning January 1, 1990, each month the Department shall
24pay into the State and Local Sales Tax Reform Fund, a special
25fund in the State Treasury which is hereby created, the net
26revenue realized for the preceding month from the 1% tax on

09800SB2640ham001- 394 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1sales of food for human consumption which is to be consumed off
2the premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages,
3soft drinks and food which has been prepared for immediate
4consumption) and prescription and nonprescription medicines,
5drugs, medical appliances and insulin, urine testing
6materials, syringes and needles used by diabetics.
7 Beginning January 1, 1990, each month the Department shall
8pay into the County and Mass Transit District Fund 4% of the
9net revenue realized for the preceding month from the 6.25%
10general rate on the selling price of tangible personal property
11which is purchased outside Illinois at retail from a retailer
12and which is titled or registered by an agency of this State's
13government.
14 Beginning January 1, 1990, each month the Department shall
15pay into the State and Local Sales Tax Reform Fund, a special
16fund in the State Treasury, 20% of the net revenue realized for
17the preceding month from the 6.25% general rate on the selling
18price of tangible personal property, other than tangible
19personal property which is purchased outside Illinois at retail
20from a retailer and which is titled or registered by an agency
21of this State's government.
22 Beginning August 1, 2000, each month the Department shall
23pay into the State and Local Sales Tax Reform Fund 100% of the
24net revenue realized for the preceding month from the 1.25%
25rate on the selling price of motor fuel and gasohol. Beginning
26September 1, 2010, each month the Department shall pay into the

09800SB2640ham001- 395 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1State and Local Sales Tax Reform Fund 100% of the net revenue
2realized for the preceding month from the 1.25% rate on the
3selling price of sales tax holiday items.
4 Beginning January 1, 1990, each month the Department shall
5pay into the Local Government Tax Fund 16% of the net revenue
6realized for the preceding month from the 6.25% general rate on
7the selling price of tangible personal property which is
8purchased outside Illinois at retail from a retailer and which
9is titled or registered by an agency of this State's
10government.
11 Beginning October 1, 2009, each month the Department shall
12pay into the Capital Projects Fund an amount that is equal to
13an amount estimated by the Department to represent 80% of the
14net revenue realized for the preceding month from the sale of
15candy, grooming and hygiene products, and soft drinks that had
16been taxed at a rate of 1% prior to September 1, 2009 but that
17are is now taxed at 6.25%.
18 Beginning July 1, 2011, each month the Department shall pay
19into the Clean Air Act (CAA) Permit Fund 80% of the net revenue
20realized for the preceding month from the 6.25% general rate on
21the selling price of sorbents used in Illinois in the process
22of sorbent injection as used to comply with the Environmental
23Protection Act or the federal Clean Air Act, but the total
24payment into the Clean Air Act (CAA) Permit Fund under this Act
25and the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act shall not exceed
26$2,000,000 in any fiscal year.

09800SB2640ham001- 396 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 Beginning July 1, 2013, each month the Department shall pay
2into the Underground Storage Tank Fund from the proceeds
3collected under this Act, the Service Use Tax Act, the Service
4Occupation Tax Act, and the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act an
5amount equal to the average monthly deficit in the Underground
6Storage Tank Fund during the prior year, as certified annually
7by the Illinois Environmental Protection Agency, but the total
8payment into the Underground Storage Tank Fund under this Act,
9the Service Use Tax Act, the Service Occupation Tax Act, and
10the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act shall not exceed $18,000,000
11in any State fiscal year. As used in this paragraph, the
12"average monthly deficit" shall be equal to the difference
13between the average monthly claims for payment by the fund and
14the average monthly revenues deposited into the fund, excluding
15payments made pursuant to this paragraph.
16 Of the remainder of the moneys received by the Department
17pursuant to this Act, (a) 1.75% thereof shall be paid into the
18Build Illinois Fund and (b) prior to July 1, 1989, 2.2% and on
19and after July 1, 1989, 3.8% thereof shall be paid into the
20Build Illinois Fund; provided, however, that if in any fiscal
21year the sum of (1) the aggregate of 2.2% or 3.8%, as the case
22may be, of the moneys received by the Department and required
23to be paid into the Build Illinois Fund pursuant to Section 3
24of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, Section 9 of the Use Tax
25Act, Section 9 of the Service Use Tax Act, and Section 9 of the
26Service Occupation Tax Act, such Acts being hereinafter called

09800SB2640ham001- 397 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1the "Tax Acts" and such aggregate of 2.2% or 3.8%, as the case
2may be, of moneys being hereinafter called the "Tax Act
3Amount", and (2) the amount transferred to the Build Illinois
4Fund from the State and Local Sales Tax Reform Fund shall be
5less than the Annual Specified Amount (as defined in Section 3
6of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act), an amount equal to the
7difference shall be immediately paid into the Build Illinois
8Fund from other moneys received by the Department pursuant to
9the Tax Acts; and further provided, that if on the last
10business day of any month the sum of (1) the Tax Act Amount
11required to be deposited into the Build Illinois Bond Account
12in the Build Illinois Fund during such month and (2) the amount
13transferred during such month to the Build Illinois Fund from
14the State and Local Sales Tax Reform Fund shall have been less
15than 1/12 of the Annual Specified Amount, an amount equal to
16the difference shall be immediately paid into the Build
17Illinois Fund from other moneys received by the Department
18pursuant to the Tax Acts; and, further provided, that in no
19event shall the payments required under the preceding proviso
20result in aggregate payments into the Build Illinois Fund
21pursuant to this clause (b) for any fiscal year in excess of
22the greater of (i) the Tax Act Amount or (ii) the Annual
23Specified Amount for such fiscal year; and, further provided,
24that the amounts payable into the Build Illinois Fund under
25this clause (b) shall be payable only until such time as the
26aggregate amount on deposit under each trust indenture securing

09800SB2640ham001- 398 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1Bonds issued and outstanding pursuant to the Build Illinois
2Bond Act is sufficient, taking into account any future
3investment income, to fully provide, in accordance with such
4indenture, for the defeasance of or the payment of the
5principal of, premium, if any, and interest on the Bonds
6secured by such indenture and on any Bonds expected to be
7issued thereafter and all fees and costs payable with respect
8thereto, all as certified by the Director of the Bureau of the
9Budget (now Governor's Office of Management and Budget). If on
10the last business day of any month in which Bonds are
11outstanding pursuant to the Build Illinois Bond Act, the
12aggregate of the moneys deposited in the Build Illinois Bond
13Account in the Build Illinois Fund in such month shall be less
14than the amount required to be transferred in such month from
15the Build Illinois Bond Account to the Build Illinois Bond
16Retirement and Interest Fund pursuant to Section 13 of the
17Build Illinois Bond Act, an amount equal to such deficiency
18shall be immediately paid from other moneys received by the
19Department pursuant to the Tax Acts to the Build Illinois Fund;
20provided, however, that any amounts paid to the Build Illinois
21Fund in any fiscal year pursuant to this sentence shall be
22deemed to constitute payments pursuant to clause (b) of the
23preceding sentence and shall reduce the amount otherwise
24payable for such fiscal year pursuant to clause (b) of the
25preceding sentence. The moneys received by the Department
26pursuant to this Act and required to be deposited into the

09800SB2640ham001- 399 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1Build Illinois Fund are subject to the pledge, claim and charge
2set forth in Section 12 of the Build Illinois Bond Act.
3 Subject to payment of amounts into the Build Illinois Fund
4as provided in the preceding paragraph or in any amendment
5thereto hereafter enacted, the following specified monthly
6installment of the amount requested in the certificate of the
7Chairman of the Metropolitan Pier and Exposition Authority
8provided under Section 8.25f of the State Finance Act, but not
9in excess of the sums designated as "Total Deposit", shall be
10deposited in the aggregate from collections under Section 9 of
11the Use Tax Act, Section 9 of the Service Use Tax Act, Section
129 of the Service Occupation Tax Act, and Section 3 of the
13Retailers' Occupation Tax Act into the McCormick Place
14Expansion Project Fund in the specified fiscal years.
15Fiscal YearTotal Deposit
161993 $0
171994 53,000,000
181995 58,000,000
191996 61,000,000
201997 64,000,000
211998 68,000,000
221999 71,000,000
232000 75,000,000
242001 80,000,000
252002 93,000,000
262003 99,000,000

09800SB2640ham001- 400 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
12004103,000,000
22005108,000,000
32006113,000,000
42007119,000,000
52008126,000,000
62009132,000,000
72010139,000,000
82011146,000,000
92012153,000,000
102013161,000,000
112014170,000,000
122015179,000,000
132016189,000,000
142017199,000,000
152018210,000,000
162019221,000,000
172020233,000,000
182021246,000,000
192022260,000,000
202023275,000,000
212024 275,000,000
222025 275,000,000
232026 279,000,000
242027 292,000,000
252028 307,000,000
262029 322,000,000

09800SB2640ham001- 401 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
12030 338,000,000
22031 350,000,000
32032 350,000,000
4and
5each fiscal year
6thereafter that bonds
7are outstanding under
8Section 13.2 of the
9Metropolitan Pier and
10Exposition Authority Act,
11but not after fiscal year 2060.
12 Beginning July 20, 1993 and in each month of each fiscal
13year thereafter, one-eighth of the amount requested in the
14certificate of the Chairman of the Metropolitan Pier and
15Exposition Authority for that fiscal year, less the amount
16deposited into the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund by
17the State Treasurer in the respective month under subsection
18(g) of Section 13 of the Metropolitan Pier and Exposition
19Authority Act, plus cumulative deficiencies in the deposits
20required under this Section for previous months and years,
21shall be deposited into the McCormick Place Expansion Project
22Fund, until the full amount requested for the fiscal year, but
23not in excess of the amount specified above as "Total Deposit",
24has been deposited.
25 Subject to payment of amounts into the Build Illinois Fund
26and the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund pursuant to the

09800SB2640ham001- 402 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1preceding paragraphs or in any amendments thereto hereafter
2enacted, beginning July 1, 1993 and ending on September 30,
32013, the Department shall each month pay into the Illinois Tax
4Increment Fund 0.27% of 80% of the net revenue realized for the
5preceding month from the 6.25% general rate on the selling
6price of tangible personal property.
7 Subject to payment of amounts into the Build Illinois Fund
8and the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund pursuant to the
9preceding paragraphs or in any amendments thereto hereafter
10enacted, beginning with the receipt of the first report of
11taxes paid by an eligible business and continuing for a 25-year
12period, the Department shall each month pay into the Energy
13Infrastructure Fund 80% of the net revenue realized from the
146.25% general rate on the selling price of Illinois-mined coal
15that was sold to an eligible business. For purposes of this
16paragraph, the term "eligible business" means a new electric
17generating facility certified pursuant to Section 605-332 of
18the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity Law of the
19Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.
20 Of the remainder of the moneys received by the Department
21pursuant to this Act, 75% thereof shall be paid into the State
22Treasury and 25% shall be reserved in a special account and
23used only for the transfer to the Common School Fund as part of
24the monthly transfer from the General Revenue Fund in
25accordance with Section 8a of the State Finance Act.
26 As soon as possible after the first day of each month, upon

09800SB2640ham001- 403 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1certification of the Department of Revenue, the Comptroller
2shall order transferred and the Treasurer shall transfer from
3the General Revenue Fund to the Motor Fuel Tax Fund an amount
4equal to 1.7% of 80% of the net revenue realized under this Act
5for the second preceding month. Beginning April 1, 2000, this
6transfer is no longer required and shall not be made.
7 Net revenue realized for a month shall be the revenue
8collected by the State pursuant to this Act, less the amount
9paid out during that month as refunds to taxpayers for
10overpayment of liability.
11 For greater simplicity of administration, manufacturers,
12importers and wholesalers whose products are sold at retail in
13Illinois by numerous retailers, and who wish to do so, may
14assume the responsibility for accounting and paying to the
15Department all tax accruing under this Act with respect to such
16sales, if the retailers who are affected do not make written
17objection to the Department to this arrangement.
18(Source: P.A. 97-95, eff. 7-12-11; 97-333, eff. 8-12-11; 98-24,
19eff. 6-19-13; 98-109, eff. 7-25-13; 98-496, eff. 1-1-14;
20revised 9-9-13.)
21 Section 180. The Service Use Tax Act is amended by changing
22Sections 3-5, 3-10, and 9 as follows:
23 (35 ILCS 110/3-5)
24 Sec. 3-5. Exemptions. Use of the following tangible

09800SB2640ham001- 404 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1personal property is exempt from the tax imposed by this Act:
2 (1) Personal property purchased from a corporation,
3society, association, foundation, institution, or
4organization, other than a limited liability company, that is
5organized and operated as a not-for-profit service enterprise
6for the benefit of persons 65 years of age or older if the
7personal property was not purchased by the enterprise for the
8purpose of resale by the enterprise.
9 (2) Personal property purchased by a non-profit Illinois
10county fair association for use in conducting, operating, or
11promoting the county fair.
12 (3) Personal property purchased by a not-for-profit arts or
13cultural organization that establishes, by proof required by
14the Department by rule, that it has received an exemption under
15Section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code and that is
16organized and operated primarily for the presentation or
17support of arts or cultural programming, activities, or
18services. These organizations include, but are not limited to,
19music and dramatic arts organizations such as symphony
20orchestras and theatrical groups, arts and cultural service
21organizations, local arts councils, visual arts organizations,
22and media arts organizations. On and after the effective date
23of this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly, however,
24an entity otherwise eligible for this exemption shall not make
25tax-free purchases unless it has an active identification
26number issued by the Department.

09800SB2640ham001- 405 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 (4) Legal tender, currency, medallions, or gold or silver
2coinage issued by the State of Illinois, the government of the
3United States of America, or the government of any foreign
4country, and bullion.
5 (5) Until July 1, 2003 and beginning again on September 1,
62004 through August 30, 2014, graphic arts machinery and
7equipment, including repair and replacement parts, both new and
8used, and including that manufactured on special order or
9purchased for lease, certified by the purchaser to be used
10primarily for graphic arts production. Equipment includes
11chemicals or chemicals acting as catalysts but only if the
12chemicals or chemicals acting as catalysts effect a direct and
13immediate change upon a graphic arts product.
14 (6) Personal property purchased from a teacher-sponsored
15student organization affiliated with an elementary or
16secondary school located in Illinois.
17 (7) Farm machinery and equipment, both new and used,
18including that manufactured on special order, certified by the
19purchaser to be used primarily for production agriculture or
20State or federal agricultural programs, including individual
21replacement parts for the machinery and equipment, including
22machinery and equipment purchased for lease, and including
23implements of husbandry defined in Section 1-130 of the
24Illinois Vehicle Code, farm machinery and agricultural
25chemical and fertilizer spreaders, and nurse wagons required to
26be registered under Section 3-809 of the Illinois Vehicle Code,

09800SB2640ham001- 406 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1but excluding other motor vehicles required to be registered
2under the Illinois Vehicle Code. Horticultural polyhouses or
3hoop houses used for propagating, growing, or overwintering
4plants shall be considered farm machinery and equipment under
5this item (7). Agricultural chemical tender tanks and dry boxes
6shall include units sold separately from a motor vehicle
7required to be licensed and units sold mounted on a motor
8vehicle required to be licensed if the selling price of the
9tender is separately stated.
10 Farm machinery and equipment shall include precision
11farming equipment that is installed or purchased to be
12installed on farm machinery and equipment including, but not
13limited to, tractors, harvesters, sprayers, planters, seeders,
14or spreaders. Precision farming equipment includes, but is not
15limited to, soil testing sensors, computers, monitors,
16software, global positioning and mapping systems, and other
17such equipment.
18 Farm machinery and equipment also includes computers,
19sensors, software, and related equipment used primarily in the
20computer-assisted operation of production agriculture
21facilities, equipment, and activities such as, but not limited
22to, the collection, monitoring, and correlation of animal and
23crop data for the purpose of formulating animal diets and
24agricultural chemicals. This item (7) is exempt from the
25provisions of Section 3-75.
26 (8) Until June 30, 2013, fuel and petroleum products sold

09800SB2640ham001- 407 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1to or used by an air common carrier, certified by the carrier
2to be used for consumption, shipment, or storage in the conduct
3of its business as an air common carrier, for a flight destined
4for or returning from a location or locations outside the
5United States without regard to previous or subsequent domestic
6stopovers.
7 Beginning July 1, 2013, fuel and petroleum products sold to
8or used by an air carrier, certified by the carrier to be used
9for consumption, shipment, or storage in the conduct of its
10business as an air common carrier, for a flight that (i) is
11engaged in foreign trade or is engaged in trade between the
12United States and any of its possessions and (ii) transports at
13least one individual or package for hire from the city of
14origination to the city of final destination on the same
15aircraft, without regard to a change in the flight number of
16that aircraft.
17 (9) Proceeds of mandatory service charges separately
18stated on customers' bills for the purchase and consumption of
19food and beverages acquired as an incident to the purchase of a
20service from a serviceman, to the extent that the proceeds of
21the service charge are in fact turned over as tips or as a
22substitute for tips to the employees who participate directly
23in preparing, serving, hosting or cleaning up the food or
24beverage function with respect to which the service charge is
25imposed.
26 (10) Until July 1, 2003, oil field exploration, drilling,

09800SB2640ham001- 408 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1and production equipment, including (i) rigs and parts of rigs,
2rotary rigs, cable tool rigs, and workover rigs, (ii) pipe and
3tubular goods, including casing and drill strings, (iii) pumps
4and pump-jack units, (iv) storage tanks and flow lines, (v) any
5individual replacement part for oil field exploration,
6drilling, and production equipment, and (vi) machinery and
7equipment purchased for lease; but excluding motor vehicles
8required to be registered under the Illinois Vehicle Code.
9 (11) Proceeds from the sale of photoprocessing machinery
10and equipment, including repair and replacement parts, both new
11and used, including that manufactured on special order,
12certified by the purchaser to be used primarily for
13photoprocessing, and including photoprocessing machinery and
14equipment purchased for lease.
15 (12) Coal and aggregate exploration, mining, off-highway
16offhighway hauling, processing, maintenance, and reclamation
17equipment, including replacement parts and equipment, and
18including equipment purchased for lease, but excluding motor
19vehicles required to be registered under the Illinois Vehicle
20Code. The changes made to this Section by Public Act 97-767
21apply on and after July 1, 2003, but no claim for credit or
22refund is allowed on or after August 16, 2013 (the effective
23date of Public Act 98-456) this amendatory Act of the 98th
24General Assembly for such taxes paid during the period
25beginning July 1, 2003 and ending on August 16, 2013 (the
26effective date of Public Act 98-456) this amendatory Act of the

09800SB2640ham001- 409 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
198th General Assembly.
2 (13) Semen used for artificial insemination of livestock
3for direct agricultural production.
4 (14) Horses, or interests in horses, registered with and
5meeting the requirements of any of the Arabian Horse Club
6Registry of America, Appaloosa Horse Club, American Quarter
7Horse Association, United States Trotting Association, or
8Jockey Club, as appropriate, used for purposes of breeding or
9racing for prizes. This item (14) is exempt from the provisions
10of Section 3-75, and the exemption provided for under this item
11(14) applies for all periods beginning May 30, 1995, but no
12claim for credit or refund is allowed on or after the effective
13date of this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly for
14such taxes paid during the period beginning May 30, 2000 and
15ending on the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 95th
16General Assembly.
17 (15) Computers and communications equipment utilized for
18any hospital purpose and equipment used in the diagnosis,
19analysis, or treatment of hospital patients purchased by a
20lessor who leases the equipment, under a lease of one year or
21longer executed or in effect at the time the lessor would
22otherwise be subject to the tax imposed by this Act, to a
23hospital that has been issued an active tax exemption
24identification number by the Department under Section 1g of the
25Retailers' Occupation Tax Act. If the equipment is leased in a
26manner that does not qualify for this exemption or is used in

09800SB2640ham001- 410 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1any other non-exempt manner, the lessor shall be liable for the
2tax imposed under this Act or the Use Tax Act, as the case may
3be, based on the fair market value of the property at the time
4the non-qualifying use occurs. No lessor shall collect or
5attempt to collect an amount (however designated) that purports
6to reimburse that lessor for the tax imposed by this Act or the
7Use Tax Act, as the case may be, if the tax has not been paid by
8the lessor. If a lessor improperly collects any such amount
9from the lessee, the lessee shall have a legal right to claim a
10refund of that amount from the lessor. If, however, that amount
11is not refunded to the lessee for any reason, the lessor is
12liable to pay that amount to the Department.
13 (16) Personal property purchased by a lessor who leases the
14property, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in
15effect at the time the lessor would otherwise be subject to the
16tax imposed by this Act, to a governmental body that has been
17issued an active tax exemption identification number by the
18Department under Section 1g of the Retailers' Occupation Tax
19Act. If the property is leased in a manner that does not
20qualify for this exemption or is used in any other non-exempt
21manner, the lessor shall be liable for the tax imposed under
22this Act or the Use Tax Act, as the case may be, based on the
23fair market value of the property at the time the
24non-qualifying use occurs. No lessor shall collect or attempt
25to collect an amount (however designated) that purports to
26reimburse that lessor for the tax imposed by this Act or the

09800SB2640ham001- 411 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1Use Tax Act, as the case may be, if the tax has not been paid by
2the lessor. If a lessor improperly collects any such amount
3from the lessee, the lessee shall have a legal right to claim a
4refund of that amount from the lessor. If, however, that amount
5is not refunded to the lessee for any reason, the lessor is
6liable to pay that amount to the Department.
7 (17) Beginning with taxable years ending on or after
8December 31, 1995 and ending with taxable years ending on or
9before December 31, 2004, personal property that is donated for
10disaster relief to be used in a State or federally declared
11disaster area in Illinois or bordering Illinois by a
12manufacturer or retailer that is registered in this State to a
13corporation, society, association, foundation, or institution
14that has been issued a sales tax exemption identification
15number by the Department that assists victims of the disaster
16who reside within the declared disaster area.
17 (18) Beginning with taxable years ending on or after
18December 31, 1995 and ending with taxable years ending on or
19before December 31, 2004, personal property that is used in the
20performance of infrastructure repairs in this State, including
21but not limited to municipal roads and streets, access roads,
22bridges, sidewalks, waste disposal systems, water and sewer
23line extensions, water distribution and purification
24facilities, storm water drainage and retention facilities, and
25sewage treatment facilities, resulting from a State or
26federally declared disaster in Illinois or bordering Illinois

09800SB2640ham001- 412 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1when such repairs are initiated on facilities located in the
2declared disaster area within 6 months after the disaster.
3 (19) Beginning July 1, 1999, game or game birds purchased
4at a "game breeding and hunting preserve area" as that term is
5used in the Wildlife Code. This paragraph is exempt from the
6provisions of Section 3-75.
7 (20) A motor vehicle, as that term is defined in Section
81-146 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, that is donated to a
9corporation, limited liability company, society, association,
10foundation, or institution that is determined by the Department
11to be organized and operated exclusively for educational
12purposes. For purposes of this exemption, "a corporation,
13limited liability company, society, association, foundation,
14or institution organized and operated exclusively for
15educational purposes" means all tax-supported public schools,
16private schools that offer systematic instruction in useful
17branches of learning by methods common to public schools and
18that compare favorably in their scope and intensity with the
19course of study presented in tax-supported schools, and
20vocational or technical schools or institutes organized and
21operated exclusively to provide a course of study of not less
22than 6 weeks duration and designed to prepare individuals to
23follow a trade or to pursue a manual, technical, mechanical,
24industrial, business, or commercial occupation.
25 (21) Beginning January 1, 2000, personal property,
26including food, purchased through fundraising events for the

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1benefit of a public or private elementary or secondary school,
2a group of those schools, or one or more school districts if
3the events are sponsored by an entity recognized by the school
4district that consists primarily of volunteers and includes
5parents and teachers of the school children. This paragraph
6does not apply to fundraising events (i) for the benefit of
7private home instruction or (ii) for which the fundraising
8entity purchases the personal property sold at the events from
9another individual or entity that sold the property for the
10purpose of resale by the fundraising entity and that profits
11from the sale to the fundraising entity. This paragraph is
12exempt from the provisions of Section 3-75.
13 (22) Beginning January 1, 2000 and through December 31,
142001, new or used automatic vending machines that prepare and
15serve hot food and beverages, including coffee, soup, and other
16items, and replacement parts for these machines. Beginning
17January 1, 2002 and through June 30, 2003, machines and parts
18for machines used in commercial, coin-operated amusement and
19vending business if a use or occupation tax is paid on the
20gross receipts derived from the use of the commercial,
21coin-operated amusement and vending machines. This paragraph
22is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-75.
23 (23) Beginning August 23, 2001 and through June 30, 2016,
24food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the
25premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, soft
26drinks, and food that has been prepared for immediate

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1consumption) and prescription and nonprescription medicines,
2drugs, medical appliances, and insulin, urine testing
3materials, syringes, and needles used by diabetics, for human
4use, when purchased for use by a person receiving medical
5assistance under Article V of the Illinois Public Aid Code who
6resides in a licensed long-term care facility, as defined in
7the Nursing Home Care Act, or in a licensed facility as defined
8in the ID/DD Community Care Act or the Specialized Mental
9Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013.
10 (24) Beginning on the effective date of this amendatory Act
11of the 92nd General Assembly, computers and communications
12equipment utilized for any hospital purpose and equipment used
13in the diagnosis, analysis, or treatment of hospital patients
14purchased by a lessor who leases the equipment, under a lease
15of one year or longer executed or in effect at the time the
16lessor would otherwise be subject to the tax imposed by this
17Act, to a hospital that has been issued an active tax exemption
18identification number by the Department under Section 1g of the
19Retailers' Occupation Tax Act. If the equipment is leased in a
20manner that does not qualify for this exemption or is used in
21any other nonexempt manner, the lessor shall be liable for the
22tax imposed under this Act or the Use Tax Act, as the case may
23be, based on the fair market value of the property at the time
24the nonqualifying use occurs. No lessor shall collect or
25attempt to collect an amount (however designated) that purports
26to reimburse that lessor for the tax imposed by this Act or the

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1Use Tax Act, as the case may be, if the tax has not been paid by
2the lessor. If a lessor improperly collects any such amount
3from the lessee, the lessee shall have a legal right to claim a
4refund of that amount from the lessor. If, however, that amount
5is not refunded to the lessee for any reason, the lessor is
6liable to pay that amount to the Department. This paragraph is
7exempt from the provisions of Section 3-75.
8 (25) Beginning on the effective date of this amendatory Act
9of the 92nd General Assembly, personal property purchased by a
10lessor who leases the property, under a lease of one year or
11longer executed or in effect at the time the lessor would
12otherwise be subject to the tax imposed by this Act, to a
13governmental body that has been issued an active tax exemption
14identification number by the Department under Section 1g of the
15Retailers' Occupation Tax Act. If the property is leased in a
16manner that does not qualify for this exemption or is used in
17any other nonexempt manner, the lessor shall be liable for the
18tax imposed under this Act or the Use Tax Act, as the case may
19be, based on the fair market value of the property at the time
20the nonqualifying use occurs. No lessor shall collect or
21attempt to collect an amount (however designated) that purports
22to reimburse that lessor for the tax imposed by this Act or the
23Use Tax Act, as the case may be, if the tax has not been paid by
24the lessor. If a lessor improperly collects any such amount
25from the lessee, the lessee shall have a legal right to claim a
26refund of that amount from the lessor. If, however, that amount

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1is not refunded to the lessee for any reason, the lessor is
2liable to pay that amount to the Department. This paragraph is
3exempt from the provisions of Section 3-75.
4 (26) Beginning January 1, 2008, tangible personal property
5used in the construction or maintenance of a community water
6supply, as defined under Section 3.145 of the Environmental
7Protection Act, that is operated by a not-for-profit
8corporation that holds a valid water supply permit issued under
9Title IV of the Environmental Protection Act. This paragraph is
10exempt from the provisions of Section 3-75.
11 (27) Beginning January 1, 2010, materials, parts,
12equipment, components, and furnishings incorporated into or
13upon an aircraft as part of the modification, refurbishment,
14completion, replacement, repair, or maintenance of the
15aircraft. This exemption includes consumable supplies used in
16the modification, refurbishment, completion, replacement,
17repair, and maintenance of aircraft, but excludes any
18materials, parts, equipment, components, and consumable
19supplies used in the modification, replacement, repair, and
20maintenance of aircraft engines or power plants, whether such
21engines or power plants are installed or uninstalled upon any
22such aircraft. "Consumable supplies" include, but are not
23limited to, adhesive, tape, sandpaper, general purpose
24lubricants, cleaning solution, latex gloves, and protective
25films. This exemption applies only to the use of qualifying
26tangible personal property transferred incident to the

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1modification, refurbishment, completion, replacement, repair,
2or maintenance of aircraft by persons who (i) hold an Air
3Agency Certificate and are empowered to operate an approved
4repair station by the Federal Aviation Administration, (ii)
5have a Class IV Rating, and (iii) conduct operations in
6accordance with Part 145 of the Federal Aviation Regulations.
7The exemption does not include aircraft operated by a
8commercial air carrier providing scheduled passenger air
9service pursuant to authority issued under Part 121 or Part 129
10of the Federal Aviation Regulations. The changes made to this
11paragraph (27) by Public Act 98-534 this amendatory Act of the
1298th General Assembly are declarative of existing law.
13 (28) Tangible personal property purchased by a
14public-facilities corporation, as described in Section
1511-65-10 of the Illinois Municipal Code, for purposes of
16constructing or furnishing a municipal convention hall, but
17only if the legal title to the municipal convention hall is
18transferred to the municipality without any further
19consideration by or on behalf of the municipality at the time
20of the completion of the municipal convention hall or upon the
21retirement or redemption of any bonds or other debt instruments
22issued by the public-facilities corporation in connection with
23the development of the municipal convention hall. This
24exemption includes existing public-facilities corporations as
25provided in Section 11-65-25 of the Illinois Municipal Code.
26This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-75.

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1(Source: P.A. 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-431,
2eff. 8-16-11; 97-636, eff. 6-1-12; 97-767, eff. 7-9-12; 98-104,
3eff. 7-22-13; 98-422, eff. 8-16-13; 98-456, eff. 8-16-13;
498-534, eff. 8-23-13; revised 9-9-13.)
5 (35 ILCS 110/3-10) (from Ch. 120, par. 439.33-10)
6 Sec. 3-10. Rate of tax. Unless otherwise provided in this
7Section, the tax imposed by this Act is at the rate of 6.25% of
8the selling price of tangible personal property transferred as
9an incident to the sale of service, but, for the purpose of
10computing this tax, in no event shall the selling price be less
11than the cost price of the property to the serviceman.
12 Beginning on July 1, 2000 and through December 31, 2000,
13with respect to motor fuel, as defined in Section 1.1 of the
14Motor Fuel Tax Law, and gasohol, as defined in Section 3-40 of
15the Use Tax Act, the tax is imposed at the rate of 1.25%.
16 With respect to gasohol, as defined in the Use Tax Act, the
17tax imposed by this Act applies to (i) 70% of the selling price
18of property transferred as an incident to the sale of service
19on or after January 1, 1990, and before July 1, 2003, (ii) 80%
20of the selling price of property transferred as an incident to
21the sale of service on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before
22December 31, 2018, and (iii) 100% of the selling price
23thereafter. If, at any time, however, the tax under this Act on
24sales of gasohol, as defined in the Use Tax Act, is imposed at
25the rate of 1.25%, then the tax imposed by this Act applies to

09800SB2640ham001- 419 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1100% of the proceeds of sales of gasohol made during that time.
2 With respect to majority blended ethanol fuel, as defined
3in the Use Tax Act, the tax imposed by this Act does not apply
4to the selling price of property transferred as an incident to
5the sale of service on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before
6December 31, 2018 but applies to 100% of the selling price
7thereafter.
8 With respect to biodiesel blends, as defined in the Use Tax
9Act, with no less than 1% and no more than 10% biodiesel, the
10tax imposed by this Act applies to (i) 80% of the selling price
11of property transferred as an incident to the sale of service
12on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before December 31, 2018 and
13(ii) 100% of the proceeds of the selling price thereafter. If,
14at any time, however, the tax under this Act on sales of
15biodiesel blends, as defined in the Use Tax Act, with no less
16than 1% and no more than 10% biodiesel is imposed at the rate
17of 1.25%, then the tax imposed by this Act applies to 100% of
18the proceeds of sales of biodiesel blends with no less than 1%
19and no more than 10% biodiesel made during that time.
20 With respect to 100% biodiesel, as defined in the Use Tax
21Act, and biodiesel blends, as defined in the Use Tax Act, with
22more than 10% but no more than 99% biodiesel, the tax imposed
23by this Act does not apply to the proceeds of the selling price
24of property transferred as an incident to the sale of service
25on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before December 31, 2018 but
26applies to 100% of the selling price thereafter.

09800SB2640ham001- 420 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 At the election of any registered serviceman made for each
2fiscal year, sales of service in which the aggregate annual
3cost price of tangible personal property transferred as an
4incident to the sales of service is less than 35%, or 75% in
5the case of servicemen transferring prescription drugs or
6servicemen engaged in graphic arts production, of the aggregate
7annual total gross receipts from all sales of service, the tax
8imposed by this Act shall be based on the serviceman's cost
9price of the tangible personal property transferred as an
10incident to the sale of those services.
11 The tax shall be imposed at the rate of 1% on food prepared
12for immediate consumption and transferred incident to a sale of
13service subject to this Act or the Service Occupation Tax Act
14by an entity licensed under the Hospital Licensing Act, the
15Nursing Home Care Act, the ID/DD Community Care Act, the
16Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, or the
17Child Care Act of 1969. The tax shall also be imposed at the
18rate of 1% on food for human consumption that is to be consumed
19off the premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic
20beverages, soft drinks, and food that has been prepared for
21immediate consumption and is not otherwise included in this
22paragraph) and prescription and nonprescription medicines,
23drugs, medical appliances, modifications to a motor vehicle for
24the purpose of rendering it usable by a disabled person, and
25insulin, urine testing materials, syringes, and needles used by
26diabetics, for human use. For the purposes of this Section,

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1until September 1, 2009: the term "soft drinks" means any
2complete, finished, ready-to-use, non-alcoholic drink, whether
3carbonated or not, including but not limited to soda water,
4cola, fruit juice, vegetable juice, carbonated water, and all
5other preparations commonly known as soft drinks of whatever
6kind or description that are contained in any closed or sealed
7bottle, can, carton, or container, regardless of size; but
8"soft drinks" does not include coffee, tea, non-carbonated
9water, infant formula, milk or milk products as defined in the
10Grade A Pasteurized Milk and Milk Products Act, or drinks
11containing 50% or more natural fruit or vegetable juice.
12 Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act,
13beginning September 1, 2009, "soft drinks" means non-alcoholic
14beverages that contain natural or artificial sweeteners. "Soft
15drinks" do not include beverages that contain milk or milk
16products, soy, rice or similar milk substitutes, or greater
17than 50% of vegetable or fruit juice by volume.
18 Until August 1, 2009, and notwithstanding any other
19provisions of this Act, "food for human consumption that is to
20be consumed off the premises where it is sold" includes all
21food sold through a vending machine, except soft drinks and
22food products that are dispensed hot from a vending machine,
23regardless of the location of the vending machine. Beginning
24August 1, 2009, and notwithstanding any other provisions of
25this Act, "food for human consumption that is to be consumed
26off the premises where it is sold" includes all food sold

09800SB2640ham001- 422 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1through a vending machine, except soft drinks, candy, and food
2products that are dispensed hot from a vending machine,
3regardless of the location of the vending machine.
4 Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act,
5beginning September 1, 2009, "food for human consumption that
6is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold" does not
7include candy. For purposes of this Section, "candy" means a
8preparation of sugar, honey, or other natural or artificial
9sweeteners in combination with chocolate, fruits, nuts or other
10ingredients or flavorings in the form of bars, drops, or
11pieces. "Candy" does not include any preparation that contains
12flour or requires refrigeration.
13 Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act,
14beginning September 1, 2009, "nonprescription medicines and
15drugs" does not include grooming and hygiene products. For
16purposes of this Section, "grooming and hygiene products"
17includes, but is not limited to, soaps and cleaning solutions,
18shampoo, toothpaste, mouthwash, antiperspirants, and sun tan
19lotions and screens, unless those products are available by
20prescription only, regardless of whether the products meet the
21definition of "over-the-counter-drugs". For the purposes of
22this paragraph, "over-the-counter-drug" means a drug for human
23use that contains a label that identifies the product as a drug
24as required by 21 C.F.R. § 201.66. The "over-the-counter-drug"
25label includes:
26 (A) A "Drug Facts" panel; or

09800SB2640ham001- 423 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 (B) A statement of the "active ingredient(s)" with a
2 list of those ingredients contained in the compound,
3 substance or preparation.
4 Beginning on January 1, 2014 (the effective date of Public
5Act 98-122) this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly,
6"prescription and nonprescription medicines and drugs"
7includes medical cannabis purchased from a registered
8dispensing organization under the Compassionate Use of Medical
9Cannabis Pilot Program Act.
10 If the property that is acquired from a serviceman is
11acquired outside Illinois and used outside Illinois before
12being brought to Illinois for use here and is taxable under
13this Act, the "selling price" on which the tax is computed
14shall be reduced by an amount that represents a reasonable
15allowance for depreciation for the period of prior out-of-state
16use.
17(Source: P.A. 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-636,
18eff. 6-1-12; 98-104, eff. 7-22-13; 98-122, eff. 1-1-14; revised
198-9-13.)
20 (35 ILCS 110/9) (from Ch. 120, par. 439.39)
21 Sec. 9. Each serviceman required or authorized to collect
22the tax herein imposed shall pay to the Department the amount
23of such tax (except as otherwise provided) at the time when he
24is required to file his return for the period during which such
25tax was collected, less a discount of 2.1% prior to January 1,

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11990 and 1.75% on and after January 1, 1990, or $5 per calendar
2year, whichever is greater, which is allowed to reimburse the
3serviceman for expenses incurred in collecting the tax, keeping
4records, preparing and filing returns, remitting the tax and
5supplying data to the Department on request. The Department may
6disallow the discount for servicemen whose certificate of
7registration is revoked at the time the return is filed, but
8only if the Department's decision to revoke the certificate of
9registration has become final. A serviceman need not remit that
10part of any tax collected by him to the extent that he is
11required to pay and does pay the tax imposed by the Service
12Occupation Tax Act with respect to his sale of service
13involving the incidental transfer by him of the same property.
14 Except as provided hereinafter in this Section, on or
15before the twentieth day of each calendar month, such
16serviceman shall file a return for the preceding calendar month
17in accordance with reasonable Rules and Regulations to be
18promulgated by the Department. Such return shall be filed on a
19form prescribed by the Department and shall contain such
20information as the Department may reasonably require.
21 The Department may require returns to be filed on a
22quarterly basis. If so required, a return for each calendar
23quarter shall be filed on or before the twentieth day of the
24calendar month following the end of such calendar quarter. The
25taxpayer shall also file a return with the Department for each
26of the first two months of each calendar quarter, on or before

09800SB2640ham001- 425 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1the twentieth day of the following calendar month, stating:
2 1. The name of the seller;
3 2. The address of the principal place of business from
4 which he engages in business as a serviceman in this State;
5 3. The total amount of taxable receipts received by him
6 during the preceding calendar month, including receipts
7 from charge and time sales, but less all deductions allowed
8 by law;
9 4. The amount of credit provided in Section 2d of this
10 Act;
11 5. The amount of tax due;
12 5-5. The signature of the taxpayer; and
13 6. Such other reasonable information as the Department
14 may require.
15 If a taxpayer fails to sign a return within 30 days after
16the proper notice and demand for signature by the Department,
17the return shall be considered valid and any amount shown to be
18due on the return shall be deemed assessed.
19 Beginning October 1, 1993, a taxpayer who has an average
20monthly tax liability of $150,000 or more shall make all
21payments required by rules of the Department by electronic
22funds transfer. Beginning October 1, 1994, a taxpayer who has
23an average monthly tax liability of $100,000 or more shall make
24all payments required by rules of the Department by electronic
25funds transfer. Beginning October 1, 1995, a taxpayer who has
26an average monthly tax liability of $50,000 or more shall make

09800SB2640ham001- 426 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1all payments required by rules of the Department by electronic
2funds transfer. Beginning October 1, 2000, a taxpayer who has
3an annual tax liability of $200,000 or more shall make all
4payments required by rules of the Department by electronic
5funds transfer. The term "annual tax liability" shall be the
6sum of the taxpayer's liabilities under this Act, and under all
7other State and local occupation and use tax laws administered
8by the Department, for the immediately preceding calendar year.
9The term "average monthly tax liability" means the sum of the
10taxpayer's liabilities under this Act, and under all other
11State and local occupation and use tax laws administered by the
12Department, for the immediately preceding calendar year
13divided by 12. Beginning on October 1, 2002, a taxpayer who has
14a tax liability in the amount set forth in subsection (b) of
15Section 2505-210 of the Department of Revenue Law shall make
16all payments required by rules of the Department by electronic
17funds transfer.
18 Before August 1 of each year beginning in 1993, the
19Department shall notify all taxpayers required to make payments
20by electronic funds transfer. All taxpayers required to make
21payments by electronic funds transfer shall make those payments
22for a minimum of one year beginning on October 1.
23 Any taxpayer not required to make payments by electronic
24funds transfer may make payments by electronic funds transfer
25with the permission of the Department.
26 All taxpayers required to make payment by electronic funds

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1transfer and any taxpayers authorized to voluntarily make
2payments by electronic funds transfer shall make those payments
3in the manner authorized by the Department.
4 The Department shall adopt such rules as are necessary to
5effectuate a program of electronic funds transfer and the
6requirements of this Section.
7 If the serviceman is otherwise required to file a monthly
8return and if the serviceman's average monthly tax liability to
9the Department does not exceed $200, the Department may
10authorize his returns to be filed on a quarter annual basis,
11with the return for January, February and March of a given year
12being due by April 20 of such year; with the return for April,
13May and June of a given year being due by July 20 of such year;
14with the return for July, August and September of a given year
15being due by October 20 of such year, and with the return for
16October, November and December of a given year being due by
17January 20 of the following year.
18 If the serviceman is otherwise required to file a monthly
19or quarterly return and if the serviceman's average monthly tax
20liability to the Department does not exceed $50, the Department
21may authorize his returns to be filed on an annual basis, with
22the return for a given year being due by January 20 of the
23following year.
24 Such quarter annual and annual returns, as to form and
25substance, shall be subject to the same requirements as monthly
26returns.

09800SB2640ham001- 428 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 Notwithstanding any other provision in this Act concerning
2the time within which a serviceman may file his return, in the
3case of any serviceman who ceases to engage in a kind of
4business which makes him responsible for filing returns under
5this Act, such serviceman shall file a final return under this
6Act with the Department not more than 1 month after
7discontinuing such business.
8 Where a serviceman collects the tax with respect to the
9selling price of property which he sells and the purchaser
10thereafter returns such property and the serviceman refunds the
11selling price thereof to the purchaser, such serviceman shall
12also refund, to the purchaser, the tax so collected from the
13purchaser. When filing his return for the period in which he
14refunds such tax to the purchaser, the serviceman may deduct
15the amount of the tax so refunded by him to the purchaser from
16any other Service Use Tax, Service Occupation Tax, retailers'
17occupation tax or use tax which such serviceman may be required
18to pay or remit to the Department, as shown by such return,
19provided that the amount of the tax to be deducted shall
20previously have been remitted to the Department by such
21serviceman. If the serviceman shall not previously have
22remitted the amount of such tax to the Department, he shall be
23entitled to no deduction hereunder upon refunding such tax to
24the purchaser.
25 Any serviceman filing a return hereunder shall also include
26the total tax upon the selling price of tangible personal

09800SB2640ham001- 429 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1property purchased for use by him as an incident to a sale of
2service, and such serviceman shall remit the amount of such tax
3to the Department when filing such return.
4 If experience indicates such action to be practicable, the
5Department may prescribe and furnish a combination or joint
6return which will enable servicemen, who are required to file
7returns hereunder and also under the Service Occupation Tax
8Act, to furnish all the return information required by both
9Acts on the one form.
10 Where the serviceman has more than one business registered
11with the Department under separate registration hereunder,
12such serviceman shall not file each return that is due as a
13single return covering all such registered businesses, but
14shall file separate returns for each such registered business.
15 Beginning January 1, 1990, each month the Department shall
16pay into the State and Local Tax Reform Fund, a special fund in
17the State Treasury, the net revenue realized for the preceding
18month from the 1% tax on sales of food for human consumption
19which is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold
20(other than alcoholic beverages, soft drinks and food which has
21been prepared for immediate consumption) and prescription and
22nonprescription medicines, drugs, medical appliances and
23insulin, urine testing materials, syringes and needles used by
24diabetics.
25 Beginning January 1, 1990, each month the Department shall
26pay into the State and Local Sales Tax Reform Fund 20% of the

09800SB2640ham001- 430 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1net revenue realized for the preceding month from the 6.25%
2general rate on transfers of tangible personal property, other
3than tangible personal property which is purchased outside
4Illinois at retail from a retailer and which is titled or
5registered by an agency of this State's government.
6 Beginning August 1, 2000, each month the Department shall
7pay into the State and Local Sales Tax Reform Fund 100% of the
8net revenue realized for the preceding month from the 1.25%
9rate on the selling price of motor fuel and gasohol.
10 Beginning October 1, 2009, each month the Department shall
11pay into the Capital Projects Fund an amount that is equal to
12an amount estimated by the Department to represent 80% of the
13net revenue realized for the preceding month from the sale of
14candy, grooming and hygiene products, and soft drinks that had
15been taxed at a rate of 1% prior to September 1, 2009 but that
16are is now taxed at 6.25%.
17 Beginning July 1, 2013, each month the Department shall pay
18into the Underground Storage Tank Fund from the proceeds
19collected under this Act, the Use Tax Act, the Service
20Occupation Tax Act, and the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act an
21amount equal to the average monthly deficit in the Underground
22Storage Tank Fund during the prior year, as certified annually
23by the Illinois Environmental Protection Agency, but the total
24payment into the Underground Storage Tank Fund under this Act,
25the Use Tax Act, the Service Occupation Tax Act, and the
26Retailers' Occupation Tax Act shall not exceed $18,000,000 in

09800SB2640ham001- 431 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1any State fiscal year. As used in this paragraph, the "average
2monthly deficit" shall be equal to the difference between the
3average monthly claims for payment by the fund and the average
4monthly revenues deposited into the fund, excluding payments
5made pursuant to this paragraph.
6 Of the remainder of the moneys received by the Department
7pursuant to this Act, (a) 1.75% thereof shall be paid into the
8Build Illinois Fund and (b) prior to July 1, 1989, 2.2% and on
9and after July 1, 1989, 3.8% thereof shall be paid into the
10Build Illinois Fund; provided, however, that if in any fiscal
11year the sum of (1) the aggregate of 2.2% or 3.8%, as the case
12may be, of the moneys received by the Department and required
13to be paid into the Build Illinois Fund pursuant to Section 3
14of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, Section 9 of the Use Tax
15Act, Section 9 of the Service Use Tax Act, and Section 9 of the
16Service Occupation Tax Act, such Acts being hereinafter called
17the "Tax Acts" and such aggregate of 2.2% or 3.8%, as the case
18may be, of moneys being hereinafter called the "Tax Act
19Amount", and (2) the amount transferred to the Build Illinois
20Fund from the State and Local Sales Tax Reform Fund shall be
21less than the Annual Specified Amount (as defined in Section 3
22of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act), an amount equal to the
23difference shall be immediately paid into the Build Illinois
24Fund from other moneys received by the Department pursuant to
25the Tax Acts; and further provided, that if on the last
26business day of any month the sum of (1) the Tax Act Amount

09800SB2640ham001- 432 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1required to be deposited into the Build Illinois Bond Account
2in the Build Illinois Fund during such month and (2) the amount
3transferred during such month to the Build Illinois Fund from
4the State and Local Sales Tax Reform Fund shall have been less
5than 1/12 of the Annual Specified Amount, an amount equal to
6the difference shall be immediately paid into the Build
7Illinois Fund from other moneys received by the Department
8pursuant to the Tax Acts; and, further provided, that in no
9event shall the payments required under the preceding proviso
10result in aggregate payments into the Build Illinois Fund
11pursuant to this clause (b) for any fiscal year in excess of
12the greater of (i) the Tax Act Amount or (ii) the Annual
13Specified Amount for such fiscal year; and, further provided,
14that the amounts payable into the Build Illinois Fund under
15this clause (b) shall be payable only until such time as the
16aggregate amount on deposit under each trust indenture securing
17Bonds issued and outstanding pursuant to the Build Illinois
18Bond Act is sufficient, taking into account any future
19investment income, to fully provide, in accordance with such
20indenture, for the defeasance of or the payment of the
21principal of, premium, if any, and interest on the Bonds
22secured by such indenture and on any Bonds expected to be
23issued thereafter and all fees and costs payable with respect
24thereto, all as certified by the Director of the Bureau of the
25Budget (now Governor's Office of Management and Budget). If on
26the last business day of any month in which Bonds are

09800SB2640ham001- 433 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1outstanding pursuant to the Build Illinois Bond Act, the
2aggregate of the moneys deposited in the Build Illinois Bond
3Account in the Build Illinois Fund in such month shall be less
4than the amount required to be transferred in such month from
5the Build Illinois Bond Account to the Build Illinois Bond
6Retirement and Interest Fund pursuant to Section 13 of the
7Build Illinois Bond Act, an amount equal to such deficiency
8shall be immediately paid from other moneys received by the
9Department pursuant to the Tax Acts to the Build Illinois Fund;
10provided, however, that any amounts paid to the Build Illinois
11Fund in any fiscal year pursuant to this sentence shall be
12deemed to constitute payments pursuant to clause (b) of the
13preceding sentence and shall reduce the amount otherwise
14payable for such fiscal year pursuant to clause (b) of the
15preceding sentence. The moneys received by the Department
16pursuant to this Act and required to be deposited into the
17Build Illinois Fund are subject to the pledge, claim and charge
18set forth in Section 12 of the Build Illinois Bond Act.
19 Subject to payment of amounts into the Build Illinois Fund
20as provided in the preceding paragraph or in any amendment
21thereto hereafter enacted, the following specified monthly
22installment of the amount requested in the certificate of the
23Chairman of the Metropolitan Pier and Exposition Authority
24provided under Section 8.25f of the State Finance Act, but not
25in excess of the sums designated as "Total Deposit", shall be
26deposited in the aggregate from collections under Section 9 of

09800SB2640ham001- 434 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1the Use Tax Act, Section 9 of the Service Use Tax Act, Section
29 of the Service Occupation Tax Act, and Section 3 of the
3Retailers' Occupation Tax Act into the McCormick Place
4Expansion Project Fund in the specified fiscal years.
5Fiscal YearTotal Deposit
61993 $0
71994 53,000,000
81995 58,000,000
91996 61,000,000
101997 64,000,000
111998 68,000,000
121999 71,000,000
132000 75,000,000
142001 80,000,000
152002 93,000,000
162003 99,000,000
172004103,000,000
182005108,000,000
192006113,000,000
202007119,000,000
212008126,000,000
222009132,000,000
232010139,000,000
242011146,000,000
252012153,000,000

09800SB2640ham001- 435 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
12013161,000,000
22014170,000,000
32015179,000,000
42016189,000,000
52017199,000,000
62018210,000,000
72019221,000,000
82020233,000,000
92021246,000,000
102022260,000,000
112023275,000,000
122024 275,000,000
132025 275,000,000
142026 279,000,000
152027 292,000,000
162028 307,000,000
172029 322,000,000
182030 338,000,000
192031 350,000,000
202032 350,000,000
21and
22each fiscal year
23thereafter that bonds
24are outstanding under
25Section 13.2 of the
26Metropolitan Pier and

09800SB2640ham001- 436 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1Exposition Authority Act,
2but not after fiscal year 2060.
3 Beginning July 20, 1993 and in each month of each fiscal
4year thereafter, one-eighth of the amount requested in the
5certificate of the Chairman of the Metropolitan Pier and
6Exposition Authority for that fiscal year, less the amount
7deposited into the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund by
8the State Treasurer in the respective month under subsection
9(g) of Section 13 of the Metropolitan Pier and Exposition
10Authority Act, plus cumulative deficiencies in the deposits
11required under this Section for previous months and years,
12shall be deposited into the McCormick Place Expansion Project
13Fund, until the full amount requested for the fiscal year, but
14not in excess of the amount specified above as "Total Deposit",
15has been deposited.
16 Subject to payment of amounts into the Build Illinois Fund
17and the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund pursuant to the
18preceding paragraphs or in any amendments thereto hereafter
19enacted, beginning July 1, 1993 and ending on September 30,
202013, the Department shall each month pay into the Illinois Tax
21Increment Fund 0.27% of 80% of the net revenue realized for the
22preceding month from the 6.25% general rate on the selling
23price of tangible personal property.
24 Subject to payment of amounts into the Build Illinois Fund
25and the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund pursuant to the
26preceding paragraphs or in any amendments thereto hereafter

09800SB2640ham001- 437 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1enacted, beginning with the receipt of the first report of
2taxes paid by an eligible business and continuing for a 25-year
3period, the Department shall each month pay into the Energy
4Infrastructure Fund 80% of the net revenue realized from the
56.25% general rate on the selling price of Illinois-mined coal
6that was sold to an eligible business. For purposes of this
7paragraph, the term "eligible business" means a new electric
8generating facility certified pursuant to Section 605-332 of
9the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity Law of the
10Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.
11 Of the remainder of the moneys received by the Department
12pursuant to this Act, 75% thereof shall be paid into the
13General Revenue Fund of the State Treasury and 25% shall be
14reserved in a special account and used only for the transfer to
15the Common School Fund as part of the monthly transfer from the
16General Revenue Fund in accordance with Section 8a of the State
17Finance Act.
18 As soon as possible after the first day of each month, upon
19certification of the Department of Revenue, the Comptroller
20shall order transferred and the Treasurer shall transfer from
21the General Revenue Fund to the Motor Fuel Tax Fund an amount
22equal to 1.7% of 80% of the net revenue realized under this Act
23for the second preceding month. Beginning April 1, 2000, this
24transfer is no longer required and shall not be made.
25 Net revenue realized for a month shall be the revenue
26collected by the State pursuant to this Act, less the amount

09800SB2640ham001- 438 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1paid out during that month as refunds to taxpayers for
2overpayment of liability.
3(Source: P.A. 98-24, eff. 6-19-13; 98-109, eff. 7-25-13;
498-298, eff. 8-9-13; 98-496, eff. 1-1-14; revised 9-9-13.)
5 Section 185. The Service Occupation Tax Act is amended by
6changing Sections 3-5, 3-10, and 9 as follows:
7 (35 ILCS 115/3-5)
8 Sec. 3-5. Exemptions. The following tangible personal
9property is exempt from the tax imposed by this Act:
10 (1) Personal property sold by a corporation, society,
11association, foundation, institution, or organization, other
12than a limited liability company, that is organized and
13operated as a not-for-profit service enterprise for the benefit
14of persons 65 years of age or older if the personal property
15was not purchased by the enterprise for the purpose of resale
16by the enterprise.
17 (2) Personal property purchased by a not-for-profit
18Illinois county fair association for use in conducting,
19operating, or promoting the county fair.
20 (3) Personal property purchased by any not-for-profit arts
21or cultural organization that establishes, by proof required by
22the Department by rule, that it has received an exemption under
23Section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code and that is
24organized and operated primarily for the presentation or

09800SB2640ham001- 439 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1support of arts or cultural programming, activities, or
2services. These organizations include, but are not limited to,
3music and dramatic arts organizations such as symphony
4orchestras and theatrical groups, arts and cultural service
5organizations, local arts councils, visual arts organizations,
6and media arts organizations. On and after the effective date
7of this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly, however,
8an entity otherwise eligible for this exemption shall not make
9tax-free purchases unless it has an active identification
10number issued by the Department.
11 (4) Legal tender, currency, medallions, or gold or silver
12coinage issued by the State of Illinois, the government of the
13United States of America, or the government of any foreign
14country, and bullion.
15 (5) Until July 1, 2003 and beginning again on September 1,
162004 through August 30, 2014, graphic arts machinery and
17equipment, including repair and replacement parts, both new and
18used, and including that manufactured on special order or
19purchased for lease, certified by the purchaser to be used
20primarily for graphic arts production. Equipment includes
21chemicals or chemicals acting as catalysts but only if the
22chemicals or chemicals acting as catalysts effect a direct and
23immediate change upon a graphic arts product.
24 (6) Personal property sold by a teacher-sponsored student
25organization affiliated with an elementary or secondary school
26located in Illinois.

09800SB2640ham001- 440 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 (7) Farm machinery and equipment, both new and used,
2including that manufactured on special order, certified by the
3purchaser to be used primarily for production agriculture or
4State or federal agricultural programs, including individual
5replacement parts for the machinery and equipment, including
6machinery and equipment purchased for lease, and including
7implements of husbandry defined in Section 1-130 of the
8Illinois Vehicle Code, farm machinery and agricultural
9chemical and fertilizer spreaders, and nurse wagons required to
10be registered under Section 3-809 of the Illinois Vehicle Code,
11but excluding other motor vehicles required to be registered
12under the Illinois Vehicle Code. Horticultural polyhouses or
13hoop houses used for propagating, growing, or overwintering
14plants shall be considered farm machinery and equipment under
15this item (7). Agricultural chemical tender tanks and dry boxes
16shall include units sold separately from a motor vehicle
17required to be licensed and units sold mounted on a motor
18vehicle required to be licensed if the selling price of the
19tender is separately stated.
20 Farm machinery and equipment shall include precision
21farming equipment that is installed or purchased to be
22installed on farm machinery and equipment including, but not
23limited to, tractors, harvesters, sprayers, planters, seeders,
24or spreaders. Precision farming equipment includes, but is not
25limited to, soil testing sensors, computers, monitors,
26software, global positioning and mapping systems, and other

09800SB2640ham001- 441 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1such equipment.
2 Farm machinery and equipment also includes computers,
3sensors, software, and related equipment used primarily in the
4computer-assisted operation of production agriculture
5facilities, equipment, and activities such as, but not limited
6to, the collection, monitoring, and correlation of animal and
7crop data for the purpose of formulating animal diets and
8agricultural chemicals. This item (7) is exempt from the
9provisions of Section 3-55.
10 (8) Until June 30, 2013, fuel and petroleum products sold
11to or used by an air common carrier, certified by the carrier
12to be used for consumption, shipment, or storage in the conduct
13of its business as an air common carrier, for a flight destined
14for or returning from a location or locations outside the
15United States without regard to previous or subsequent domestic
16stopovers.
17 Beginning July 1, 2013, fuel and petroleum products sold to
18or used by an air carrier, certified by the carrier to be used
19for consumption, shipment, or storage in the conduct of its
20business as an air common carrier, for a flight that (i) is
21engaged in foreign trade or is engaged in trade between the
22United States and any of its possessions and (ii) transports at
23least one individual or package for hire from the city of
24origination to the city of final destination on the same
25aircraft, without regard to a change in the flight number of
26that aircraft.

09800SB2640ham001- 442 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 (9) Proceeds of mandatory service charges separately
2stated on customers' bills for the purchase and consumption of
3food and beverages, to the extent that the proceeds of the
4service charge are in fact turned over as tips or as a
5substitute for tips to the employees who participate directly
6in preparing, serving, hosting or cleaning up the food or
7beverage function with respect to which the service charge is
8imposed.
9 (10) Until July 1, 2003, oil field exploration, drilling,
10and production equipment, including (i) rigs and parts of rigs,
11rotary rigs, cable tool rigs, and workover rigs, (ii) pipe and
12tubular goods, including casing and drill strings, (iii) pumps
13and pump-jack units, (iv) storage tanks and flow lines, (v) any
14individual replacement part for oil field exploration,
15drilling, and production equipment, and (vi) machinery and
16equipment purchased for lease; but excluding motor vehicles
17required to be registered under the Illinois Vehicle Code.
18 (11) Photoprocessing machinery and equipment, including
19repair and replacement parts, both new and used, including that
20manufactured on special order, certified by the purchaser to be
21used primarily for photoprocessing, and including
22photoprocessing machinery and equipment purchased for lease.
23 (12) Coal and aggregate exploration, mining, off-highway
24offhighway hauling, processing, maintenance, and reclamation
25equipment, including replacement parts and equipment, and
26including equipment purchased for lease, but excluding motor

09800SB2640ham001- 443 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1vehicles required to be registered under the Illinois Vehicle
2Code. The changes made to this Section by Public Act 97-767
3apply on and after July 1, 2003, but no claim for credit or
4refund is allowed on or after August 16, 2013 (the effective
5date of Public Act 98-456) this amendatory Act of the 98th
6General Assembly for such taxes paid during the period
7beginning July 1, 2003 and ending on August 16, 2013 (the
8effective date of Public Act 98-456) this amendatory Act of the
998th General Assembly.
10 (13) Beginning January 1, 1992 and through June 30, 2016,
11food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the
12premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, soft
13drinks and food that has been prepared for immediate
14consumption) and prescription and non-prescription medicines,
15drugs, medical appliances, and insulin, urine testing
16materials, syringes, and needles used by diabetics, for human
17use, when purchased for use by a person receiving medical
18assistance under Article V of the Illinois Public Aid Code who
19resides in a licensed long-term care facility, as defined in
20the Nursing Home Care Act, or in a licensed facility as defined
21in the ID/DD Community Care Act or the Specialized Mental
22Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013.
23 (14) Semen used for artificial insemination of livestock
24for direct agricultural production.
25 (15) Horses, or interests in horses, registered with and
26meeting the requirements of any of the Arabian Horse Club

09800SB2640ham001- 444 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1Registry of America, Appaloosa Horse Club, American Quarter
2Horse Association, United States Trotting Association, or
3Jockey Club, as appropriate, used for purposes of breeding or
4racing for prizes. This item (15) is exempt from the provisions
5of Section 3-55, and the exemption provided for under this item
6(15) applies for all periods beginning May 30, 1995, but no
7claim for credit or refund is allowed on or after January 1,
82008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-88) for such taxes
9paid during the period beginning May 30, 2000 and ending on
10January 1, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-88).
11 (16) Computers and communications equipment utilized for
12any hospital purpose and equipment used in the diagnosis,
13analysis, or treatment of hospital patients sold to a lessor
14who leases the equipment, under a lease of one year or longer
15executed or in effect at the time of the purchase, to a
16hospital that has been issued an active tax exemption
17identification number by the Department under Section 1g of the
18Retailers' Occupation Tax Act.
19 (17) Personal property sold to a lessor who leases the
20property, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in
21effect at the time of the purchase, to a governmental body that
22has been issued an active tax exemption identification number
23by the Department under Section 1g of the Retailers' Occupation
24Tax Act.
25 (18) Beginning with taxable years ending on or after
26December 31, 1995 and ending with taxable years ending on or

09800SB2640ham001- 445 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1before December 31, 2004, personal property that is donated for
2disaster relief to be used in a State or federally declared
3disaster area in Illinois or bordering Illinois by a
4manufacturer or retailer that is registered in this State to a
5corporation, society, association, foundation, or institution
6that has been issued a sales tax exemption identification
7number by the Department that assists victims of the disaster
8who reside within the declared disaster area.
9 (19) Beginning with taxable years ending on or after
10December 31, 1995 and ending with taxable years ending on or
11before December 31, 2004, personal property that is used in the
12performance of infrastructure repairs in this State, including
13but not limited to municipal roads and streets, access roads,
14bridges, sidewalks, waste disposal systems, water and sewer
15line extensions, water distribution and purification
16facilities, storm water drainage and retention facilities, and
17sewage treatment facilities, resulting from a State or
18federally declared disaster in Illinois or bordering Illinois
19when such repairs are initiated on facilities located in the
20declared disaster area within 6 months after the disaster.
21 (20) Beginning July 1, 1999, game or game birds sold at a
22"game breeding and hunting preserve area" as that term is used
23in the Wildlife Code. This paragraph is exempt from the
24provisions of Section 3-55.
25 (21) A motor vehicle, as that term is defined in Section
261-146 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, that is donated to a

09800SB2640ham001- 446 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1corporation, limited liability company, society, association,
2foundation, or institution that is determined by the Department
3to be organized and operated exclusively for educational
4purposes. For purposes of this exemption, "a corporation,
5limited liability company, society, association, foundation,
6or institution organized and operated exclusively for
7educational purposes" means all tax-supported public schools,
8private schools that offer systematic instruction in useful
9branches of learning by methods common to public schools and
10that compare favorably in their scope and intensity with the
11course of study presented in tax-supported schools, and
12vocational or technical schools or institutes organized and
13operated exclusively to provide a course of study of not less
14than 6 weeks duration and designed to prepare individuals to
15follow a trade or to pursue a manual, technical, mechanical,
16industrial, business, or commercial occupation.
17 (22) Beginning January 1, 2000, personal property,
18including food, purchased through fundraising events for the
19benefit of a public or private elementary or secondary school,
20a group of those schools, or one or more school districts if
21the events are sponsored by an entity recognized by the school
22district that consists primarily of volunteers and includes
23parents and teachers of the school children. This paragraph
24does not apply to fundraising events (i) for the benefit of
25private home instruction or (ii) for which the fundraising
26entity purchases the personal property sold at the events from

09800SB2640ham001- 447 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1another individual or entity that sold the property for the
2purpose of resale by the fundraising entity and that profits
3from the sale to the fundraising entity. This paragraph is
4exempt from the provisions of Section 3-55.
5 (23) Beginning January 1, 2000 and through December 31,
62001, new or used automatic vending machines that prepare and
7serve hot food and beverages, including coffee, soup, and other
8items, and replacement parts for these machines. Beginning
9January 1, 2002 and through June 30, 2003, machines and parts
10for machines used in commercial, coin-operated amusement and
11vending business if a use or occupation tax is paid on the
12gross receipts derived from the use of the commercial,
13coin-operated amusement and vending machines. This paragraph
14is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-55.
15 (24) Beginning on the effective date of this amendatory Act
16of the 92nd General Assembly, computers and communications
17equipment utilized for any hospital purpose and equipment used
18in the diagnosis, analysis, or treatment of hospital patients
19sold to a lessor who leases the equipment, under a lease of one
20year or longer executed or in effect at the time of the
21purchase, to a hospital that has been issued an active tax
22exemption identification number by the Department under
23Section 1g of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act. This paragraph
24is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-55.
25 (25) Beginning on the effective date of this amendatory Act
26of the 92nd General Assembly, personal property sold to a

09800SB2640ham001- 448 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1lessor who leases the property, under a lease of one year or
2longer executed or in effect at the time of the purchase, to a
3governmental body that has been issued an active tax exemption
4identification number by the Department under Section 1g of the
5Retailers' Occupation Tax Act. This paragraph is exempt from
6the provisions of Section 3-55.
7 (26) Beginning on January 1, 2002 and through June 30,
82016, tangible personal property purchased from an Illinois
9retailer by a taxpayer engaged in centralized purchasing
10activities in Illinois who will, upon receipt of the property
11in Illinois, temporarily store the property in Illinois (i) for
12the purpose of subsequently transporting it outside this State
13for use or consumption thereafter solely outside this State or
14(ii) for the purpose of being processed, fabricated, or
15manufactured into, attached to, or incorporated into other
16tangible personal property to be transported outside this State
17and thereafter used or consumed solely outside this State. The
18Director of Revenue shall, pursuant to rules adopted in
19accordance with the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act,
20issue a permit to any taxpayer in good standing with the
21Department who is eligible for the exemption under this
22paragraph (26). The permit issued under this paragraph (26)
23shall authorize the holder, to the extent and in the manner
24specified in the rules adopted under this Act, to purchase
25tangible personal property from a retailer exempt from the
26taxes imposed by this Act. Taxpayers shall maintain all

09800SB2640ham001- 449 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1necessary books and records to substantiate the use and
2consumption of all such tangible personal property outside of
3the State of Illinois.
4 (27) Beginning January 1, 2008, tangible personal property
5used in the construction or maintenance of a community water
6supply, as defined under Section 3.145 of the Environmental
7Protection Act, that is operated by a not-for-profit
8corporation that holds a valid water supply permit issued under
9Title IV of the Environmental Protection Act. This paragraph is
10exempt from the provisions of Section 3-55.
11 (28) Tangible personal property sold to a
12public-facilities corporation, as described in Section
1311-65-10 of the Illinois Municipal Code, for purposes of
14constructing or furnishing a municipal convention hall, but
15only if the legal title to the municipal convention hall is
16transferred to the municipality without any further
17consideration by or on behalf of the municipality at the time
18of the completion of the municipal convention hall or upon the
19retirement or redemption of any bonds or other debt instruments
20issued by the public-facilities corporation in connection with
21the development of the municipal convention hall. This
22exemption includes existing public-facilities corporations as
23provided in Section 11-65-25 of the Illinois Municipal Code.
24This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 3-55.
25 (29) Beginning January 1, 2010, materials, parts,
26equipment, components, and furnishings incorporated into or

09800SB2640ham001- 450 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1upon an aircraft as part of the modification, refurbishment,
2completion, replacement, repair, or maintenance of the
3aircraft. This exemption includes consumable supplies used in
4the modification, refurbishment, completion, replacement,
5repair, and maintenance of aircraft, but excludes any
6materials, parts, equipment, components, and consumable
7supplies used in the modification, replacement, repair, and
8maintenance of aircraft engines or power plants, whether such
9engines or power plants are installed or uninstalled upon any
10such aircraft. "Consumable supplies" include, but are not
11limited to, adhesive, tape, sandpaper, general purpose
12lubricants, cleaning solution, latex gloves, and protective
13films. This exemption applies only to the transfer of
14qualifying tangible personal property incident to the
15modification, refurbishment, completion, replacement, repair,
16or maintenance of an aircraft by persons who (i) hold an Air
17Agency Certificate and are empowered to operate an approved
18repair station by the Federal Aviation Administration, (ii)
19have a Class IV Rating, and (iii) conduct operations in
20accordance with Part 145 of the Federal Aviation Regulations.
21The exemption does not include aircraft operated by a
22commercial air carrier providing scheduled passenger air
23service pursuant to authority issued under Part 121 or Part 129
24of the Federal Aviation Regulations. The changes made to this
25paragraph (29) by Public Act 98-534 this amendatory Act of the
2698th General Assembly are declarative of existing law.

09800SB2640ham001- 451 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1(Source: P.A. 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-73, eff. 6-30-11; 97-227,
2eff. 1-1-12; 97-431, eff. 8-16-11; 97-636, eff. 6-1-12; 97-767,
3eff. 7-9-12; 98-104, eff. 7-22-13; 98-422, eff. 8-16-13;
498-456, eff. 8-16-13; 98-534, eff. 8-23-13; revised 9-9-13.)
5 (35 ILCS 115/3-10) (from Ch. 120, par. 439.103-10)
6 Sec. 3-10. Rate of tax. Unless otherwise provided in this
7Section, the tax imposed by this Act is at the rate of 6.25% of
8the "selling price", as defined in Section 2 of the Service Use
9Tax Act, of the tangible personal property. For the purpose of
10computing this tax, in no event shall the "selling price" be
11less than the cost price to the serviceman of the tangible
12personal property transferred. The selling price of each item
13of tangible personal property transferred as an incident of a
14sale of service may be shown as a distinct and separate item on
15the serviceman's billing to the service customer. If the
16selling price is not so shown, the selling price of the
17tangible personal property is deemed to be 50% of the
18serviceman's entire billing to the service customer. When,
19however, a serviceman contracts to design, develop, and produce
20special order machinery or equipment, the tax imposed by this
21Act shall be based on the serviceman's cost price of the
22tangible personal property transferred incident to the
23completion of the contract.
24 Beginning on July 1, 2000 and through December 31, 2000,
25with respect to motor fuel, as defined in Section 1.1 of the

09800SB2640ham001- 452 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1Motor Fuel Tax Law, and gasohol, as defined in Section 3-40 of
2the Use Tax Act, the tax is imposed at the rate of 1.25%.
3 With respect to gasohol, as defined in the Use Tax Act, the
4tax imposed by this Act shall apply to (i) 70% of the cost
5price of property transferred as an incident to the sale of
6service on or after January 1, 1990, and before July 1, 2003,
7(ii) 80% of the selling price of property transferred as an
8incident to the sale of service on or after July 1, 2003 and on
9or before December 31, 2018, and (iii) 100% of the cost price
10thereafter. If, at any time, however, the tax under this Act on
11sales of gasohol, as defined in the Use Tax Act, is imposed at
12the rate of 1.25%, then the tax imposed by this Act applies to
13100% of the proceeds of sales of gasohol made during that time.
14 With respect to majority blended ethanol fuel, as defined
15in the Use Tax Act, the tax imposed by this Act does not apply
16to the selling price of property transferred as an incident to
17the sale of service on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before
18December 31, 2018 but applies to 100% of the selling price
19thereafter.
20 With respect to biodiesel blends, as defined in the Use Tax
21Act, with no less than 1% and no more than 10% biodiesel, the
22tax imposed by this Act applies to (i) 80% of the selling price
23of property transferred as an incident to the sale of service
24on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before December 31, 2018 and
25(ii) 100% of the proceeds of the selling price thereafter. If,
26at any time, however, the tax under this Act on sales of

09800SB2640ham001- 453 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1biodiesel blends, as defined in the Use Tax Act, with no less
2than 1% and no more than 10% biodiesel is imposed at the rate
3of 1.25%, then the tax imposed by this Act applies to 100% of
4the proceeds of sales of biodiesel blends with no less than 1%
5and no more than 10% biodiesel made during that time.
6 With respect to 100% biodiesel, as defined in the Use Tax
7Act, and biodiesel blends, as defined in the Use Tax Act, with
8more than 10% but no more than 99% biodiesel material, the tax
9imposed by this Act does not apply to the proceeds of the
10selling price of property transferred as an incident to the
11sale of service on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before
12December 31, 2018 but applies to 100% of the selling price
13thereafter.
14 At the election of any registered serviceman made for each
15fiscal year, sales of service in which the aggregate annual
16cost price of tangible personal property transferred as an
17incident to the sales of service is less than 35%, or 75% in
18the case of servicemen transferring prescription drugs or
19servicemen engaged in graphic arts production, of the aggregate
20annual total gross receipts from all sales of service, the tax
21imposed by this Act shall be based on the serviceman's cost
22price of the tangible personal property transferred incident to
23the sale of those services.
24 The tax shall be imposed at the rate of 1% on food prepared
25for immediate consumption and transferred incident to a sale of
26service subject to this Act or the Service Occupation Tax Act

09800SB2640ham001- 454 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1by an entity licensed under the Hospital Licensing Act, the
2Nursing Home Care Act, the ID/DD Community Care Act, the
3Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, or the
4Child Care Act of 1969. The tax shall also be imposed at the
5rate of 1% on food for human consumption that is to be consumed
6off the premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic
7beverages, soft drinks, and food that has been prepared for
8immediate consumption and is not otherwise included in this
9paragraph) and prescription and nonprescription medicines,
10drugs, medical appliances, modifications to a motor vehicle for
11the purpose of rendering it usable by a disabled person, and
12insulin, urine testing materials, syringes, and needles used by
13diabetics, for human use. For the purposes of this Section,
14until September 1, 2009: the term "soft drinks" means any
15complete, finished, ready-to-use, non-alcoholic drink, whether
16carbonated or not, including but not limited to soda water,
17cola, fruit juice, vegetable juice, carbonated water, and all
18other preparations commonly known as soft drinks of whatever
19kind or description that are contained in any closed or sealed
20can, carton, or container, regardless of size; but "soft
21drinks" does not include coffee, tea, non-carbonated water,
22infant formula, milk or milk products as defined in the Grade A
23Pasteurized Milk and Milk Products Act, or drinks containing
2450% or more natural fruit or vegetable juice.
25 Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act,
26beginning September 1, 2009, "soft drinks" means non-alcoholic

09800SB2640ham001- 455 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1beverages that contain natural or artificial sweeteners. "Soft
2drinks" do not include beverages that contain milk or milk
3products, soy, rice or similar milk substitutes, or greater
4than 50% of vegetable or fruit juice by volume.
5 Until August 1, 2009, and notwithstanding any other
6provisions of this Act, "food for human consumption that is to
7be consumed off the premises where it is sold" includes all
8food sold through a vending machine, except soft drinks and
9food products that are dispensed hot from a vending machine,
10regardless of the location of the vending machine. Beginning
11August 1, 2009, and notwithstanding any other provisions of
12this Act, "food for human consumption that is to be consumed
13off the premises where it is sold" includes all food sold
14through a vending machine, except soft drinks, candy, and food
15products that are dispensed hot from a vending machine,
16regardless of the location of the vending machine.
17 Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act,
18beginning September 1, 2009, "food for human consumption that
19is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold" does not
20include candy. For purposes of this Section, "candy" means a
21preparation of sugar, honey, or other natural or artificial
22sweeteners in combination with chocolate, fruits, nuts or other
23ingredients or flavorings in the form of bars, drops, or
24pieces. "Candy" does not include any preparation that contains
25flour or requires refrigeration.
26 Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act,

09800SB2640ham001- 456 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1beginning September 1, 2009, "nonprescription medicines and
2drugs" does not include grooming and hygiene products. For
3purposes of this Section, "grooming and hygiene products"
4includes, but is not limited to, soaps and cleaning solutions,
5shampoo, toothpaste, mouthwash, antiperspirants, and sun tan
6lotions and screens, unless those products are available by
7prescription only, regardless of whether the products meet the
8definition of "over-the-counter-drugs". For the purposes of
9this paragraph, "over-the-counter-drug" means a drug for human
10use that contains a label that identifies the product as a drug
11as required by 21 C.F.R. § 201.66. The "over-the-counter-drug"
12label includes:
13 (A) A "Drug Facts" panel; or
14 (B) A statement of the "active ingredient(s)" with a
15 list of those ingredients contained in the compound,
16 substance or preparation.
17 Beginning on January 1, 2014 (the effective date of Public
18Act 98-122) this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly,
19"prescription and nonprescription medicines and drugs"
20includes medical cannabis purchased from a registered
21dispensing organization under the Compassionate Use of Medical
22Cannabis Pilot Program Act.
23(Source: P.A. 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-636,
24eff. 6-1-12; 98-104, eff. 7-22-13; 98-122, eff. 1-1-14; revised
258-9-13.)

09800SB2640ham001- 457 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 (35 ILCS 115/9) (from Ch. 120, par. 439.109)
2 Sec. 9. Each serviceman required or authorized to collect
3the tax herein imposed shall pay to the Department the amount
4of such tax at the time when he is required to file his return
5for the period during which such tax was collectible, less a
6discount of 2.1% prior to January 1, 1990, and 1.75% on and
7after January 1, 1990, or $5 per calendar year, whichever is
8greater, which is allowed to reimburse the serviceman for
9expenses incurred in collecting the tax, keeping records,
10preparing and filing returns, remitting the tax and supplying
11data to the Department on request. The Department may disallow
12the discount for servicemen whose certificate of registration
13is revoked at the time the return is filed, but only if the
14Department's decision to revoke the certificate of
15registration has become final.
16 Where such tangible personal property is sold under a
17conditional sales contract, or under any other form of sale
18wherein the payment of the principal sum, or a part thereof, is
19extended beyond the close of the period for which the return is
20filed, the serviceman, in collecting the tax may collect, for
21each tax return period, only the tax applicable to the part of
22the selling price actually received during such tax return
23period.
24 Except as provided hereinafter in this Section, on or
25before the twentieth day of each calendar month, such
26serviceman shall file a return for the preceding calendar month

09800SB2640ham001- 458 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1in accordance with reasonable rules and regulations to be
2promulgated by the Department of Revenue. Such return shall be
3filed on a form prescribed by the Department and shall contain
4such information as the Department may reasonably require.
5 The Department may require returns to be filed on a
6quarterly basis. If so required, a return for each calendar
7quarter shall be filed on or before the twentieth day of the
8calendar month following the end of such calendar quarter. The
9taxpayer shall also file a return with the Department for each
10of the first two months of each calendar quarter, on or before
11the twentieth day of the following calendar month, stating:
12 1. The name of the seller;
13 2. The address of the principal place of business from
14 which he engages in business as a serviceman in this State;
15 3. The total amount of taxable receipts received by him
16 during the preceding calendar month, including receipts
17 from charge and time sales, but less all deductions allowed
18 by law;
19 4. The amount of credit provided in Section 2d of this
20 Act;
21 5. The amount of tax due;
22 5-5. The signature of the taxpayer; and
23 6. Such other reasonable information as the Department
24 may require.
25 If a taxpayer fails to sign a return within 30 days after
26the proper notice and demand for signature by the Department,

09800SB2640ham001- 459 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1the return shall be considered valid and any amount shown to be
2due on the return shall be deemed assessed.
3 Prior to October 1, 2003, and on and after September 1,
42004 a serviceman may accept a Manufacturer's Purchase Credit
5certification from a purchaser in satisfaction of Service Use
6Tax as provided in Section 3-70 of the Service Use Tax Act if
7the purchaser provides the appropriate documentation as
8required by Section 3-70 of the Service Use Tax Act. A
9Manufacturer's Purchase Credit certification, accepted prior
10to October 1, 2003 or on or after September 1, 2004 by a
11serviceman as provided in Section 3-70 of the Service Use Tax
12Act, may be used by that serviceman to satisfy Service
13Occupation Tax liability in the amount claimed in the
14certification, not to exceed 6.25% of the receipts subject to
15tax from a qualifying purchase. A Manufacturer's Purchase
16Credit reported on any original or amended return filed under
17this Act after October 20, 2003 for reporting periods prior to
18September 1, 2004 shall be disallowed. Manufacturer's Purchase
19Credit reported on annual returns due on or after January 1,
202005 will be disallowed for periods prior to September 1, 2004.
21No Manufacturer's Purchase Credit may be used after September
2230, 2003 through August 31, 2004 to satisfy any tax liability
23imposed under this Act, including any audit liability.
24 If the serviceman's average monthly tax liability to the
25Department does not exceed $200, the Department may authorize
26his returns to be filed on a quarter annual basis, with the

09800SB2640ham001- 460 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1return for January, February and March of a given year being
2due by April 20 of such year; with the return for April, May
3and June of a given year being due by July 20 of such year; with
4the return for July, August and September of a given year being
5due by October 20 of such year, and with the return for
6October, November and December of a given year being due by
7January 20 of the following year.
8 If the serviceman's average monthly tax liability to the
9Department does not exceed $50, the Department may authorize
10his returns to be filed on an annual basis, with the return for
11a given year being due by January 20 of the following year.
12 Such quarter annual and annual returns, as to form and
13substance, shall be subject to the same requirements as monthly
14returns.
15 Notwithstanding any other provision in this Act concerning
16the time within which a serviceman may file his return, in the
17case of any serviceman who ceases to engage in a kind of
18business which makes him responsible for filing returns under
19this Act, such serviceman shall file a final return under this
20Act with the Department not more than 1 month after
21discontinuing such business.
22 Beginning October 1, 1993, a taxpayer who has an average
23monthly tax liability of $150,000 or more shall make all
24payments required by rules of the Department by electronic
25funds transfer. Beginning October 1, 1994, a taxpayer who has
26an average monthly tax liability of $100,000 or more shall make

09800SB2640ham001- 461 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1all payments required by rules of the Department by electronic
2funds transfer. Beginning October 1, 1995, a taxpayer who has
3an average monthly tax liability of $50,000 or more shall make
4all payments required by rules of the Department by electronic
5funds transfer. Beginning October 1, 2000, a taxpayer who has
6an annual tax liability of $200,000 or more shall make all
7payments required by rules of the Department by electronic
8funds transfer. The term "annual tax liability" shall be the
9sum of the taxpayer's liabilities under this Act, and under all
10other State and local occupation and use tax laws administered
11by the Department, for the immediately preceding calendar year.
12The term "average monthly tax liability" means the sum of the
13taxpayer's liabilities under this Act, and under all other
14State and local occupation and use tax laws administered by the
15Department, for the immediately preceding calendar year
16divided by 12. Beginning on October 1, 2002, a taxpayer who has
17a tax liability in the amount set forth in subsection (b) of
18Section 2505-210 of the Department of Revenue Law shall make
19all payments required by rules of the Department by electronic
20funds transfer.
21 Before August 1 of each year beginning in 1993, the
22Department shall notify all taxpayers required to make payments
23by electronic funds transfer. All taxpayers required to make
24payments by electronic funds transfer shall make those payments
25for a minimum of one year beginning on October 1.
26 Any taxpayer not required to make payments by electronic

09800SB2640ham001- 462 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1funds transfer may make payments by electronic funds transfer
2with the permission of the Department.
3 All taxpayers required to make payment by electronic funds
4transfer and any taxpayers authorized to voluntarily make
5payments by electronic funds transfer shall make those payments
6in the manner authorized by the Department.
7 The Department shall adopt such rules as are necessary to
8effectuate a program of electronic funds transfer and the
9requirements of this Section.
10 Where a serviceman collects the tax with respect to the
11selling price of tangible personal property which he sells and
12the purchaser thereafter returns such tangible personal
13property and the serviceman refunds the selling price thereof
14to the purchaser, such serviceman shall also refund, to the
15purchaser, the tax so collected from the purchaser. When filing
16his return for the period in which he refunds such tax to the
17purchaser, the serviceman may deduct the amount of the tax so
18refunded by him to the purchaser from any other Service
19Occupation Tax, Service Use Tax, Retailers' Occupation Tax or
20Use Tax which such serviceman may be required to pay or remit
21to the Department, as shown by such return, provided that the
22amount of the tax to be deducted shall previously have been
23remitted to the Department by such serviceman. If the
24serviceman shall not previously have remitted the amount of
25such tax to the Department, he shall be entitled to no
26deduction hereunder upon refunding such tax to the purchaser.

09800SB2640ham001- 463 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 If experience indicates such action to be practicable, the
2Department may prescribe and furnish a combination or joint
3return which will enable servicemen, who are required to file
4returns hereunder and also under the Retailers' Occupation Tax
5Act, the Use Tax Act or the Service Use Tax Act, to furnish all
6the return information required by all said Acts on the one
7form.
8 Where the serviceman has more than one business registered
9with the Department under separate registrations hereunder,
10such serviceman shall file separate returns for each registered
11business.
12 Beginning January 1, 1990, each month the Department shall
13pay into the Local Government Tax Fund the revenue realized for
14the preceding month from the 1% tax on sales of food for human
15consumption which is to be consumed off the premises where it
16is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, soft drinks and food
17which has been prepared for immediate consumption) and
18prescription and nonprescription medicines, drugs, medical
19appliances and insulin, urine testing materials, syringes and
20needles used by diabetics.
21 Beginning January 1, 1990, each month the Department shall
22pay into the County and Mass Transit District Fund 4% of the
23revenue realized for the preceding month from the 6.25% general
24rate.
25 Beginning August 1, 2000, each month the Department shall
26pay into the County and Mass Transit District Fund 20% of the

09800SB2640ham001- 464 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1net revenue realized for the preceding month from the 1.25%
2rate on the selling price of motor fuel and gasohol.
3 Beginning January 1, 1990, each month the Department shall
4pay into the Local Government Tax Fund 16% of the revenue
5realized for the preceding month from the 6.25% general rate on
6transfers of tangible personal property.
7 Beginning August 1, 2000, each month the Department shall
8pay into the Local Government Tax Fund 80% of the net revenue
9realized for the preceding month from the 1.25% rate on the
10selling price of motor fuel and gasohol.
11 Beginning October 1, 2009, each month the Department shall
12pay into the Capital Projects Fund an amount that is equal to
13an amount estimated by the Department to represent 80% of the
14net revenue realized for the preceding month from the sale of
15candy, grooming and hygiene products, and soft drinks that had
16been taxed at a rate of 1% prior to September 1, 2009 but that
17are is now taxed at 6.25%.
18 Beginning July 1, 2013, each month the Department shall pay
19into the Underground Storage Tank Fund from the proceeds
20collected under this Act, the Use Tax Act, the Service Use Tax
21Act, and the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act an amount equal to
22the average monthly deficit in the Underground Storage Tank
23Fund during the prior year, as certified annually by the
24Illinois Environmental Protection Agency, but the total
25payment into the Underground Storage Tank Fund under this Act,
26the Use Tax Act, the Service Use Tax Act, and the Retailers'

09800SB2640ham001- 465 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1Occupation Tax Act shall not exceed $18,000,000 in any State
2fiscal year. As used in this paragraph, the "average monthly
3deficit" shall be equal to the difference between the average
4monthly claims for payment by the fund and the average monthly
5revenues deposited into the fund, excluding payments made
6pursuant to this paragraph.
7 Of the remainder of the moneys received by the Department
8pursuant to this Act, (a) 1.75% thereof shall be paid into the
9Build Illinois Fund and (b) prior to July 1, 1989, 2.2% and on
10and after July 1, 1989, 3.8% thereof shall be paid into the
11Build Illinois Fund; provided, however, that if in any fiscal
12year the sum of (1) the aggregate of 2.2% or 3.8%, as the case
13may be, of the moneys received by the Department and required
14to be paid into the Build Illinois Fund pursuant to Section 3
15of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, Section 9 of the Use Tax
16Act, Section 9 of the Service Use Tax Act, and Section 9 of the
17Service Occupation Tax Act, such Acts being hereinafter called
18the "Tax Acts" and such aggregate of 2.2% or 3.8%, as the case
19may be, of moneys being hereinafter called the "Tax Act
20Amount", and (2) the amount transferred to the Build Illinois
21Fund from the State and Local Sales Tax Reform Fund shall be
22less than the Annual Specified Amount (as defined in Section 3
23of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act), an amount equal to the
24difference shall be immediately paid into the Build Illinois
25Fund from other moneys received by the Department pursuant to
26the Tax Acts; and further provided, that if on the last

09800SB2640ham001- 466 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1business day of any month the sum of (1) the Tax Act Amount
2required to be deposited into the Build Illinois Account in the
3Build Illinois Fund during such month and (2) the amount
4transferred during such month to the Build Illinois Fund from
5the State and Local Sales Tax Reform Fund shall have been less
6than 1/12 of the Annual Specified Amount, an amount equal to
7the difference shall be immediately paid into the Build
8Illinois Fund from other moneys received by the Department
9pursuant to the Tax Acts; and, further provided, that in no
10event shall the payments required under the preceding proviso
11result in aggregate payments into the Build Illinois Fund
12pursuant to this clause (b) for any fiscal year in excess of
13the greater of (i) the Tax Act Amount or (ii) the Annual
14Specified Amount for such fiscal year; and, further provided,
15that the amounts payable into the Build Illinois Fund under
16this clause (b) shall be payable only until such time as the
17aggregate amount on deposit under each trust indenture securing
18Bonds issued and outstanding pursuant to the Build Illinois
19Bond Act is sufficient, taking into account any future
20investment income, to fully provide, in accordance with such
21indenture, for the defeasance of or the payment of the
22principal of, premium, if any, and interest on the Bonds
23secured by such indenture and on any Bonds expected to be
24issued thereafter and all fees and costs payable with respect
25thereto, all as certified by the Director of the Bureau of the
26Budget (now Governor's Office of Management and Budget). If on

09800SB2640ham001- 467 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1the last business day of any month in which Bonds are
2outstanding pursuant to the Build Illinois Bond Act, the
3aggregate of the moneys deposited in the Build Illinois Bond
4Account in the Build Illinois Fund in such month shall be less
5than the amount required to be transferred in such month from
6the Build Illinois Bond Account to the Build Illinois Bond
7Retirement and Interest Fund pursuant to Section 13 of the
8Build Illinois Bond Act, an amount equal to such deficiency
9shall be immediately paid from other moneys received by the
10Department pursuant to the Tax Acts to the Build Illinois Fund;
11provided, however, that any amounts paid to the Build Illinois
12Fund in any fiscal year pursuant to this sentence shall be
13deemed to constitute payments pursuant to clause (b) of the
14preceding sentence and shall reduce the amount otherwise
15payable for such fiscal year pursuant to clause (b) of the
16preceding sentence. The moneys received by the Department
17pursuant to this Act and required to be deposited into the
18Build Illinois Fund are subject to the pledge, claim and charge
19set forth in Section 12 of the Build Illinois Bond Act.
20 Subject to payment of amounts into the Build Illinois Fund
21as provided in the preceding paragraph or in any amendment
22thereto hereafter enacted, the following specified monthly
23installment of the amount requested in the certificate of the
24Chairman of the Metropolitan Pier and Exposition Authority
25provided under Section 8.25f of the State Finance Act, but not
26in excess of the sums designated as "Total Deposit", shall be

09800SB2640ham001- 468 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1deposited in the aggregate from collections under Section 9 of
2the Use Tax Act, Section 9 of the Service Use Tax Act, Section
39 of the Service Occupation Tax Act, and Section 3 of the
4Retailers' Occupation Tax Act into the McCormick Place
5Expansion Project Fund in the specified fiscal years.
6Fiscal YearTotal Deposit
71993 $0
81994 53,000,000
91995 58,000,000
101996 61,000,000
111997 64,000,000
121998 68,000,000
131999 71,000,000
142000 75,000,000
152001 80,000,000
162002 93,000,000
172003 99,000,000
182004103,000,000
192005108,000,000
202006113,000,000
212007119,000,000
222008126,000,000
232009132,000,000
242010139,000,000
252011146,000,000

09800SB2640ham001- 469 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
12012153,000,000
22013161,000,000
32014170,000,000
42015179,000,000
52016189,000,000
62017199,000,000
72018210,000,000
82019221,000,000
92020233,000,000
102021246,000,000
112022260,000,000
122023275,000,000
132024 275,000,000
142025 275,000,000
152026 279,000,000
162027 292,000,000
172028 307,000,000
182029 322,000,000
192030 338,000,000
202031 350,000,000
212032 350,000,000
22and
23each fiscal year
24thereafter that bonds
25are outstanding under
26Section 13.2 of the

09800SB2640ham001- 470 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1Metropolitan Pier and
2Exposition Authority Act,
3but not after fiscal year 2060.
4 Beginning July 20, 1993 and in each month of each fiscal
5year thereafter, one-eighth of the amount requested in the
6certificate of the Chairman of the Metropolitan Pier and
7Exposition Authority for that fiscal year, less the amount
8deposited into the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund by
9the State Treasurer in the respective month under subsection
10(g) of Section 13 of the Metropolitan Pier and Exposition
11Authority Act, plus cumulative deficiencies in the deposits
12required under this Section for previous months and years,
13shall be deposited into the McCormick Place Expansion Project
14Fund, until the full amount requested for the fiscal year, but
15not in excess of the amount specified above as "Total Deposit",
16has been deposited.
17 Subject to payment of amounts into the Build Illinois Fund
18and the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund pursuant to the
19preceding paragraphs or in any amendments thereto hereafter
20enacted, beginning July 1, 1993 and ending on September 30,
212013, the Department shall each month pay into the Illinois Tax
22Increment Fund 0.27% of 80% of the net revenue realized for the
23preceding month from the 6.25% general rate on the selling
24price of tangible personal property.
25 Subject to payment of amounts into the Build Illinois Fund
26and the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund pursuant to the

09800SB2640ham001- 471 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1preceding paragraphs or in any amendments thereto hereafter
2enacted, beginning with the receipt of the first report of
3taxes paid by an eligible business and continuing for a 25-year
4period, the Department shall each month pay into the Energy
5Infrastructure Fund 80% of the net revenue realized from the
66.25% general rate on the selling price of Illinois-mined coal
7that was sold to an eligible business. For purposes of this
8paragraph, the term "eligible business" means a new electric
9generating facility certified pursuant to Section 605-332 of
10the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity Law of the
11Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.
12 Of the remainder of the moneys received by the Department
13pursuant to this Act, 75% shall be paid into the General
14Revenue Fund of the State Treasury and 25% shall be reserved in
15a special account and used only for the transfer to the Common
16School Fund as part of the monthly transfer from the General
17Revenue Fund in accordance with Section 8a of the State Finance
18Act.
19 The Department may, upon separate written notice to a
20taxpayer, require the taxpayer to prepare and file with the
21Department on a form prescribed by the Department within not
22less than 60 days after receipt of the notice an annual
23information return for the tax year specified in the notice.
24Such annual return to the Department shall include a statement
25of gross receipts as shown by the taxpayer's last Federal
26income tax return. If the total receipts of the business as

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1reported in the Federal income tax return do not agree with the
2gross receipts reported to the Department of Revenue for the
3same period, the taxpayer shall attach to his annual return a
4schedule showing a reconciliation of the 2 amounts and the
5reasons for the difference. The taxpayer's annual return to the
6Department shall also disclose the cost of goods sold by the
7taxpayer during the year covered by such return, opening and
8closing inventories of such goods for such year, cost of goods
9used from stock or taken from stock and given away by the
10taxpayer during such year, pay roll information of the
11taxpayer's business during such year and any additional
12reasonable information which the Department deems would be
13helpful in determining the accuracy of the monthly, quarterly
14or annual returns filed by such taxpayer as hereinbefore
15provided for in this Section.
16 If the annual information return required by this Section
17is not filed when and as required, the taxpayer shall be liable
18as follows:
19 (i) Until January 1, 1994, the taxpayer shall be liable
20 for a penalty equal to 1/6 of 1% of the tax due from such
21 taxpayer under this Act during the period to be covered by
22 the annual return for each month or fraction of a month
23 until such return is filed as required, the penalty to be
24 assessed and collected in the same manner as any other
25 penalty provided for in this Act.
26 (ii) On and after January 1, 1994, the taxpayer shall

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1 be liable for a penalty as described in Section 3-4 of the
2 Uniform Penalty and Interest Act.
3 The chief executive officer, proprietor, owner or highest
4ranking manager shall sign the annual return to certify the
5accuracy of the information contained therein. Any person who
6willfully signs the annual return containing false or
7inaccurate information shall be guilty of perjury and punished
8accordingly. The annual return form prescribed by the
9Department shall include a warning that the person signing the
10return may be liable for perjury.
11 The foregoing portion of this Section concerning the filing
12of an annual information return shall not apply to a serviceman
13who is not required to file an income tax return with the
14United States Government.
15 As soon as possible after the first day of each month, upon
16certification of the Department of Revenue, the Comptroller
17shall order transferred and the Treasurer shall transfer from
18the General Revenue Fund to the Motor Fuel Tax Fund an amount
19equal to 1.7% of 80% of the net revenue realized under this Act
20for the second preceding month. Beginning April 1, 2000, this
21transfer is no longer required and shall not be made.
22 Net revenue realized for a month shall be the revenue
23collected by the State pursuant to this Act, less the amount
24paid out during that month as refunds to taxpayers for
25overpayment of liability.
26 For greater simplicity of administration, it shall be

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1permissible for manufacturers, importers and wholesalers whose
2products are sold by numerous servicemen in Illinois, and who
3wish to do so, to assume the responsibility for accounting and
4paying to the Department all tax accruing under this Act with
5respect to such sales, if the servicemen who are affected do
6not make written objection to the Department to this
7arrangement.
8(Source: P.A. 98-24, eff. 6-19-13; 98-109, eff. 7-25-13;
998-298, eff. 8-9-13; 98-496, eff. 1-1-14; revised 9-9-13.)
10 Section 190. The Retailers' Occupation Tax Act is amended
11by changing Sections 2-5, 2a, and 3 as follows:
12 (35 ILCS 120/2-5)
13 Sec. 2-5. Exemptions. Gross receipts from proceeds from the
14sale of the following tangible personal property are exempt
15from the tax imposed by this Act:
16 (1) Farm chemicals.
17 (2) Farm machinery and equipment, both new and used,
18including that manufactured on special order, certified by the
19purchaser to be used primarily for production agriculture or
20State or federal agricultural programs, including individual
21replacement parts for the machinery and equipment, including
22machinery and equipment purchased for lease, and including
23implements of husbandry defined in Section 1-130 of the
24Illinois Vehicle Code, farm machinery and agricultural

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1chemical and fertilizer spreaders, and nurse wagons required to
2be registered under Section 3-809 of the Illinois Vehicle Code,
3but excluding other motor vehicles required to be registered
4under the Illinois Vehicle Code. Horticultural polyhouses or
5hoop houses used for propagating, growing, or overwintering
6plants shall be considered farm machinery and equipment under
7this item (2). Agricultural chemical tender tanks and dry boxes
8shall include units sold separately from a motor vehicle
9required to be licensed and units sold mounted on a motor
10vehicle required to be licensed, if the selling price of the
11tender is separately stated.
12 Farm machinery and equipment shall include precision
13farming equipment that is installed or purchased to be
14installed on farm machinery and equipment including, but not
15limited to, tractors, harvesters, sprayers, planters, seeders,
16or spreaders. Precision farming equipment includes, but is not
17limited to, soil testing sensors, computers, monitors,
18software, global positioning and mapping systems, and other
19such equipment.
20 Farm machinery and equipment also includes computers,
21sensors, software, and related equipment used primarily in the
22computer-assisted operation of production agriculture
23facilities, equipment, and activities such as, but not limited
24to, the collection, monitoring, and correlation of animal and
25crop data for the purpose of formulating animal diets and
26agricultural chemicals. This item (2) is exempt from the

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1provisions of Section 2-70.
2 (3) Until July 1, 2003, distillation machinery and
3equipment, sold as a unit or kit, assembled or installed by the
4retailer, certified by the user to be used only for the
5production of ethyl alcohol that will be used for consumption
6as motor fuel or as a component of motor fuel for the personal
7use of the user, and not subject to sale or resale.
8 (4) Until July 1, 2003 and beginning again September 1,
92004 through August 30, 2014, graphic arts machinery and
10equipment, including repair and replacement parts, both new and
11used, and including that manufactured on special order or
12purchased for lease, certified by the purchaser to be used
13primarily for graphic arts production. Equipment includes
14chemicals or chemicals acting as catalysts but only if the
15chemicals or chemicals acting as catalysts effect a direct and
16immediate change upon a graphic arts product.
17 (5) A motor vehicle that is used for automobile renting, as
18defined in the Automobile Renting Occupation and Use Tax Act.
19This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 2-70.
20 (6) Personal property sold by a teacher-sponsored student
21organization affiliated with an elementary or secondary school
22located in Illinois.
23 (7) Until July 1, 2003, proceeds of that portion of the
24selling price of a passenger car the sale of which is subject
25to the Replacement Vehicle Tax.
26 (8) Personal property sold to an Illinois county fair

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1association for use in conducting, operating, or promoting the
2county fair.
3 (9) Personal property sold to a not-for-profit arts or
4cultural organization that establishes, by proof required by
5the Department by rule, that it has received an exemption under
6Section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code and that is
7organized and operated primarily for the presentation or
8support of arts or cultural programming, activities, or
9services. These organizations include, but are not limited to,
10music and dramatic arts organizations such as symphony
11orchestras and theatrical groups, arts and cultural service
12organizations, local arts councils, visual arts organizations,
13and media arts organizations. On and after the effective date
14of this amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly, however,
15an entity otherwise eligible for this exemption shall not make
16tax-free purchases unless it has an active identification
17number issued by the Department.
18 (10) Personal property sold by a corporation, society,
19association, foundation, institution, or organization, other
20than a limited liability company, that is organized and
21operated as a not-for-profit service enterprise for the benefit
22of persons 65 years of age or older if the personal property
23was not purchased by the enterprise for the purpose of resale
24by the enterprise.
25 (11) Personal property sold to a governmental body, to a
26corporation, society, association, foundation, or institution

09800SB2640ham001- 478 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1organized and operated exclusively for charitable, religious,
2or educational purposes, or to a not-for-profit corporation,
3society, association, foundation, institution, or organization
4that has no compensated officers or employees and that is
5organized and operated primarily for the recreation of persons
655 years of age or older. A limited liability company may
7qualify for the exemption under this paragraph only if the
8limited liability company is organized and operated
9exclusively for educational purposes. On and after July 1,
101987, however, no entity otherwise eligible for this exemption
11shall make tax-free purchases unless it has an active
12identification number issued by the Department.
13 (12) Tangible personal property sold to interstate
14carriers for hire for use as rolling stock moving in interstate
15commerce or to lessors under leases of one year or longer
16executed or in effect at the time of purchase by interstate
17carriers for hire for use as rolling stock moving in interstate
18commerce and equipment operated by a telecommunications
19provider, licensed as a common carrier by the Federal
20Communications Commission, which is permanently installed in
21or affixed to aircraft moving in interstate commerce.
22 (12-5) On and after July 1, 2003 and through June 30, 2004,
23motor vehicles of the second division with a gross vehicle
24weight in excess of 8,000 pounds that are subject to the
25commercial distribution fee imposed under Section 3-815.1 of
26the Illinois Vehicle Code. Beginning on July 1, 2004 and

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1through June 30, 2005, the use in this State of motor vehicles
2of the second division: (i) with a gross vehicle weight rating
3in excess of 8,000 pounds; (ii) that are subject to the
4commercial distribution fee imposed under Section 3-815.1 of
5the Illinois Vehicle Code; and (iii) that are primarily used
6for commercial purposes. Through June 30, 2005, this exemption
7applies to repair and replacement parts added after the initial
8purchase of such a motor vehicle if that motor vehicle is used
9in a manner that would qualify for the rolling stock exemption
10otherwise provided for in this Act. For purposes of this
11paragraph, "used for commercial purposes" means the
12transportation of persons or property in furtherance of any
13commercial or industrial enterprise whether for-hire or not.
14 (13) Proceeds from sales to owners, lessors, or shippers of
15tangible personal property that is utilized by interstate
16carriers for hire for use as rolling stock moving in interstate
17commerce and equipment operated by a telecommunications
18provider, licensed as a common carrier by the Federal
19Communications Commission, which is permanently installed in
20or affixed to aircraft moving in interstate commerce.
21 (14) Machinery and equipment that will be used by the
22purchaser, or a lessee of the purchaser, primarily in the
23process of manufacturing or assembling tangible personal
24property for wholesale or retail sale or lease, whether the
25sale or lease is made directly by the manufacturer or by some
26other person, whether the materials used in the process are

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1owned by the manufacturer or some other person, or whether the
2sale or lease is made apart from or as an incident to the
3seller's engaging in the service occupation of producing
4machines, tools, dies, jigs, patterns, gauges, or other similar
5items of no commercial value on special order for a particular
6purchaser. The exemption provided by this paragraph (14) does
7not include machinery and equipment used in (i) the generation
8of electricity for wholesale or retail sale; (ii) the
9generation or treatment of natural or artificial gas for
10wholesale or retail sale that is delivered to customers through
11pipes, pipelines, or mains; or (iii) the treatment of water for
12wholesale or retail sale that is delivered to customers through
13pipes, pipelines, or mains. The provisions of Public Act 98-583
14this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly are
15declaratory of existing law as to the meaning and scope of this
16exemption.
17 (15) Proceeds of mandatory service charges separately
18stated on customers' bills for purchase and consumption of food
19and beverages, to the extent that the proceeds of the service
20charge are in fact turned over as tips or as a substitute for
21tips to the employees who participate directly in preparing,
22serving, hosting or cleaning up the food or beverage function
23with respect to which the service charge is imposed.
24 (16) Petroleum products sold to a purchaser if the seller
25is prohibited by federal law from charging tax to the
26purchaser.

09800SB2640ham001- 481 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 (17) Tangible personal property sold to a common carrier by
2rail or motor that receives the physical possession of the
3property in Illinois and that transports the property, or
4shares with another common carrier in the transportation of the
5property, out of Illinois on a standard uniform bill of lading
6showing the seller of the property as the shipper or consignor
7of the property to a destination outside Illinois, for use
8outside Illinois.
9 (18) Legal tender, currency, medallions, or gold or silver
10coinage issued by the State of Illinois, the government of the
11United States of America, or the government of any foreign
12country, and bullion.
13 (19) Until July 1 2003, oil field exploration, drilling,
14and production equipment, including (i) rigs and parts of rigs,
15rotary rigs, cable tool rigs, and workover rigs, (ii) pipe and
16tubular goods, including casing and drill strings, (iii) pumps
17and pump-jack units, (iv) storage tanks and flow lines, (v) any
18individual replacement part for oil field exploration,
19drilling, and production equipment, and (vi) machinery and
20equipment purchased for lease; but excluding motor vehicles
21required to be registered under the Illinois Vehicle Code.
22 (20) Photoprocessing machinery and equipment, including
23repair and replacement parts, both new and used, including that
24manufactured on special order, certified by the purchaser to be
25used primarily for photoprocessing, and including
26photoprocessing machinery and equipment purchased for lease.

09800SB2640ham001- 482 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 (21) Coal and aggregate exploration, mining, off-highway
2offhighway hauling, processing, maintenance, and reclamation
3equipment, including replacement parts and equipment, and
4including equipment purchased for lease, but excluding motor
5vehicles required to be registered under the Illinois Vehicle
6Code. The changes made to this Section by Public Act 97-767
7apply on and after July 1, 2003, but no claim for credit or
8refund is allowed on or after August 16, 2013 (the effective
9date of Public Act 98-456) this amendatory Act of the 98th
10General Assembly for such taxes paid during the period
11beginning July 1, 2003 and ending on August 16, 2013 (the
12effective date of Public Act 98-456) this amendatory Act of the
1398th General Assembly.
14 (22) Until June 30, 2013, fuel and petroleum products sold
15to or used by an air carrier, certified by the carrier to be
16used for consumption, shipment, or storage in the conduct of
17its business as an air common carrier, for a flight destined
18for or returning from a location or locations outside the
19United States without regard to previous or subsequent domestic
20stopovers.
21 Beginning July 1, 2013, fuel and petroleum products sold to
22or used by an air carrier, certified by the carrier to be used
23for consumption, shipment, or storage in the conduct of its
24business as an air common carrier, for a flight that (i) is
25engaged in foreign trade or is engaged in trade between the
26United States and any of its possessions and (ii) transports at

09800SB2640ham001- 483 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1least one individual or package for hire from the city of
2origination to the city of final destination on the same
3aircraft, without regard to a change in the flight number of
4that aircraft.
5 (23) A transaction in which the purchase order is received
6by a florist who is located outside Illinois, but who has a
7florist located in Illinois deliver the property to the
8purchaser or the purchaser's donee in Illinois.
9 (24) Fuel consumed or used in the operation of ships,
10barges, or vessels that are used primarily in or for the
11transportation of property or the conveyance of persons for
12hire on rivers bordering on this State if the fuel is delivered
13by the seller to the purchaser's barge, ship, or vessel while
14it is afloat upon that bordering river.
15 (25) Except as provided in item (25-5) of this Section, a
16motor vehicle sold in this State to a nonresident even though
17the motor vehicle is delivered to the nonresident in this
18State, if the motor vehicle is not to be titled in this State,
19and if a drive-away permit is issued to the motor vehicle as
20provided in Section 3-603 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or if
21the nonresident purchaser has vehicle registration plates to
22transfer to the motor vehicle upon returning to his or her home
23state. The issuance of the drive-away permit or having the
24out-of-state registration plates to be transferred is prima
25facie evidence that the motor vehicle will not be titled in
26this State.

09800SB2640ham001- 484 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 (25-5) The exemption under item (25) does not apply if the
2state in which the motor vehicle will be titled does not allow
3a reciprocal exemption for a motor vehicle sold and delivered
4in that state to an Illinois resident but titled in Illinois.
5The tax collected under this Act on the sale of a motor vehicle
6in this State to a resident of another state that does not
7allow a reciprocal exemption shall be imposed at a rate equal
8to the state's rate of tax on taxable property in the state in
9which the purchaser is a resident, except that the tax shall
10not exceed the tax that would otherwise be imposed under this
11Act. At the time of the sale, the purchaser shall execute a
12statement, signed under penalty of perjury, of his or her
13intent to title the vehicle in the state in which the purchaser
14is a resident within 30 days after the sale and of the fact of
15the payment to the State of Illinois of tax in an amount
16equivalent to the state's rate of tax on taxable property in
17his or her state of residence and shall submit the statement to
18the appropriate tax collection agency in his or her state of
19residence. In addition, the retailer must retain a signed copy
20of the statement in his or her records. Nothing in this item
21shall be construed to require the removal of the vehicle from
22this state following the filing of an intent to title the
23vehicle in the purchaser's state of residence if the purchaser
24titles the vehicle in his or her state of residence within 30
25days after the date of sale. The tax collected under this Act
26in accordance with this item (25-5) shall be proportionately

09800SB2640ham001- 485 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1distributed as if the tax were collected at the 6.25% general
2rate imposed under this Act.
3 (25-7) Beginning on July 1, 2007, no tax is imposed under
4this Act on the sale of an aircraft, as defined in Section 3 of
5the Illinois Aeronautics Act, if all of the following
6conditions are met:
7 (1) the aircraft leaves this State within 15 days after
8 the later of either the issuance of the final billing for
9 the sale of the aircraft, or the authorized approval for
10 return to service, completion of the maintenance record
11 entry, and completion of the test flight and ground test
12 for inspection, as required by 14 C.F.R. 91.407;
13 (2) the aircraft is not based or registered in this
14 State after the sale of the aircraft; and
15 (3) the seller retains in his or her books and records
16 and provides to the Department a signed and dated
17 certification from the purchaser, on a form prescribed by
18 the Department, certifying that the requirements of this
19 item (25-7) are met. The certificate must also include the
20 name and address of the purchaser, the address of the
21 location where the aircraft is to be titled or registered,
22 the address of the primary physical location of the
23 aircraft, and other information that the Department may
24 reasonably require.
25 For purposes of this item (25-7):
26 "Based in this State" means hangared, stored, or otherwise

09800SB2640ham001- 486 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1used, excluding post-sale customizations as defined in this
2Section, for 10 or more days in each 12-month period
3immediately following the date of the sale of the aircraft.
4 "Registered in this State" means an aircraft registered
5with the Department of Transportation, Aeronautics Division,
6or titled or registered with the Federal Aviation
7Administration to an address located in this State.
8 This paragraph (25-7) is exempt from the provisions of
9Section 2-70.
10 (26) Semen used for artificial insemination of livestock
11for direct agricultural production.
12 (27) Horses, or interests in horses, registered with and
13meeting the requirements of any of the Arabian Horse Club
14Registry of America, Appaloosa Horse Club, American Quarter
15Horse Association, United States Trotting Association, or
16Jockey Club, as appropriate, used for purposes of breeding or
17racing for prizes. This item (27) is exempt from the provisions
18of Section 2-70, and the exemption provided for under this item
19(27) applies for all periods beginning May 30, 1995, but no
20claim for credit or refund is allowed on or after January 1,
212008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-88) for such taxes
22paid during the period beginning May 30, 2000 and ending on
23January 1, 2008 (the effective date of Public Act 95-88).
24 (28) Computers and communications equipment utilized for
25any hospital purpose and equipment used in the diagnosis,
26analysis, or treatment of hospital patients sold to a lessor

09800SB2640ham001- 487 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1who leases the equipment, under a lease of one year or longer
2executed or in effect at the time of the purchase, to a
3hospital that has been issued an active tax exemption
4identification number by the Department under Section 1g of
5this Act.
6 (29) Personal property sold to a lessor who leases the
7property, under a lease of one year or longer executed or in
8effect at the time of the purchase, to a governmental body that
9has been issued an active tax exemption identification number
10by the Department under Section 1g of this Act.
11 (30) Beginning with taxable years ending on or after
12December 31, 1995 and ending with taxable years ending on or
13before December 31, 2004, personal property that is donated for
14disaster relief to be used in a State or federally declared
15disaster area in Illinois or bordering Illinois by a
16manufacturer or retailer that is registered in this State to a
17corporation, society, association, foundation, or institution
18that has been issued a sales tax exemption identification
19number by the Department that assists victims of the disaster
20who reside within the declared disaster area.
21 (31) Beginning with taxable years ending on or after
22December 31, 1995 and ending with taxable years ending on or
23before December 31, 2004, personal property that is used in the
24performance of infrastructure repairs in this State, including
25but not limited to municipal roads and streets, access roads,
26bridges, sidewalks, waste disposal systems, water and sewer

09800SB2640ham001- 488 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1line extensions, water distribution and purification
2facilities, storm water drainage and retention facilities, and
3sewage treatment facilities, resulting from a State or
4federally declared disaster in Illinois or bordering Illinois
5when such repairs are initiated on facilities located in the
6declared disaster area within 6 months after the disaster.
7 (32) Beginning July 1, 1999, game or game birds sold at a
8"game breeding and hunting preserve area" as that term is used
9in the Wildlife Code. This paragraph is exempt from the
10provisions of Section 2-70.
11 (33) A motor vehicle, as that term is defined in Section
121-146 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, that is donated to a
13corporation, limited liability company, society, association,
14foundation, or institution that is determined by the Department
15to be organized and operated exclusively for educational
16purposes. For purposes of this exemption, "a corporation,
17limited liability company, society, association, foundation,
18or institution organized and operated exclusively for
19educational purposes" means all tax-supported public schools,
20private schools that offer systematic instruction in useful
21branches of learning by methods common to public schools and
22that compare favorably in their scope and intensity with the
23course of study presented in tax-supported schools, and
24vocational or technical schools or institutes organized and
25operated exclusively to provide a course of study of not less
26than 6 weeks duration and designed to prepare individuals to

09800SB2640ham001- 489 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1follow a trade or to pursue a manual, technical, mechanical,
2industrial, business, or commercial occupation.
3 (34) Beginning January 1, 2000, personal property,
4including food, purchased through fundraising events for the
5benefit of a public or private elementary or secondary school,
6a group of those schools, or one or more school districts if
7the events are sponsored by an entity recognized by the school
8district that consists primarily of volunteers and includes
9parents and teachers of the school children. This paragraph
10does not apply to fundraising events (i) for the benefit of
11private home instruction or (ii) for which the fundraising
12entity purchases the personal property sold at the events from
13another individual or entity that sold the property for the
14purpose of resale by the fundraising entity and that profits
15from the sale to the fundraising entity. This paragraph is
16exempt from the provisions of Section 2-70.
17 (35) Beginning January 1, 2000 and through December 31,
182001, new or used automatic vending machines that prepare and
19serve hot food and beverages, including coffee, soup, and other
20items, and replacement parts for these machines. Beginning
21January 1, 2002 and through June 30, 2003, machines and parts
22for machines used in commercial, coin-operated amusement and
23vending business if a use or occupation tax is paid on the
24gross receipts derived from the use of the commercial,
25coin-operated amusement and vending machines. This paragraph
26is exempt from the provisions of Section 2-70.

09800SB2640ham001- 490 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 (35-5) Beginning August 23, 2001 and through June 30, 2016,
2food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the
3premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, soft
4drinks, and food that has been prepared for immediate
5consumption) and prescription and nonprescription medicines,
6drugs, medical appliances, and insulin, urine testing
7materials, syringes, and needles used by diabetics, for human
8use, when purchased for use by a person receiving medical
9assistance under Article V of the Illinois Public Aid Code who
10resides in a licensed long-term care facility, as defined in
11the Nursing Home Care Act, or a licensed facility as defined in
12the ID/DD Community Care Act or the Specialized Mental Health
13Rehabilitation Act of 2013.
14 (36) Beginning August 2, 2001, computers and
15communications equipment utilized for any hospital purpose and
16equipment used in the diagnosis, analysis, or treatment of
17hospital patients sold to a lessor who leases the equipment,
18under a lease of one year or longer executed or in effect at
19the time of the purchase, to a hospital that has been issued an
20active tax exemption identification number by the Department
21under Section 1g of this Act. This paragraph is exempt from the
22provisions of Section 2-70.
23 (37) Beginning August 2, 2001, personal property sold to a
24lessor who leases the property, under a lease of one year or
25longer executed or in effect at the time of the purchase, to a
26governmental body that has been issued an active tax exemption

09800SB2640ham001- 491 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1identification number by the Department under Section 1g of
2this Act. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of
3Section 2-70.
4 (38) Beginning on January 1, 2002 and through June 30,
52016, tangible personal property purchased from an Illinois
6retailer by a taxpayer engaged in centralized purchasing
7activities in Illinois who will, upon receipt of the property
8in Illinois, temporarily store the property in Illinois (i) for
9the purpose of subsequently transporting it outside this State
10for use or consumption thereafter solely outside this State or
11(ii) for the purpose of being processed, fabricated, or
12manufactured into, attached to, or incorporated into other
13tangible personal property to be transported outside this State
14and thereafter used or consumed solely outside this State. The
15Director of Revenue shall, pursuant to rules adopted in
16accordance with the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act,
17issue a permit to any taxpayer in good standing with the
18Department who is eligible for the exemption under this
19paragraph (38). The permit issued under this paragraph (38)
20shall authorize the holder, to the extent and in the manner
21specified in the rules adopted under this Act, to purchase
22tangible personal property from a retailer exempt from the
23taxes imposed by this Act. Taxpayers shall maintain all
24necessary books and records to substantiate the use and
25consumption of all such tangible personal property outside of
26the State of Illinois.

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1 (39) Beginning January 1, 2008, tangible personal property
2used in the construction or maintenance of a community water
3supply, as defined under Section 3.145 of the Environmental
4Protection Act, that is operated by a not-for-profit
5corporation that holds a valid water supply permit issued under
6Title IV of the Environmental Protection Act. This paragraph is
7exempt from the provisions of Section 2-70.
8 (40) Beginning January 1, 2010, materials, parts,
9equipment, components, and furnishings incorporated into or
10upon an aircraft as part of the modification, refurbishment,
11completion, replacement, repair, or maintenance of the
12aircraft. This exemption includes consumable supplies used in
13the modification, refurbishment, completion, replacement,
14repair, and maintenance of aircraft, but excludes any
15materials, parts, equipment, components, and consumable
16supplies used in the modification, replacement, repair, and
17maintenance of aircraft engines or power plants, whether such
18engines or power plants are installed or uninstalled upon any
19such aircraft. "Consumable supplies" include, but are not
20limited to, adhesive, tape, sandpaper, general purpose
21lubricants, cleaning solution, latex gloves, and protective
22films. This exemption applies only to the sale of qualifying
23tangible personal property to persons who modify, refurbish,
24complete, replace, or maintain an aircraft and who (i) hold an
25Air Agency Certificate and are empowered to operate an approved
26repair station by the Federal Aviation Administration, (ii)

09800SB2640ham001- 493 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1have a Class IV Rating, and (iii) conduct operations in
2accordance with Part 145 of the Federal Aviation Regulations.
3The exemption does not include aircraft operated by a
4commercial air carrier providing scheduled passenger air
5service pursuant to authority issued under Part 121 or Part 129
6of the Federal Aviation Regulations. The changes made to this
7paragraph (40) by Public Act 98-534 this amendatory Act of the
898th General Assembly are declarative of existing law.
9 (41) Tangible personal property sold to a
10public-facilities corporation, as described in Section
1111-65-10 of the Illinois Municipal Code, for purposes of
12constructing or furnishing a municipal convention hall, but
13only if the legal title to the municipal convention hall is
14transferred to the municipality without any further
15consideration by or on behalf of the municipality at the time
16of the completion of the municipal convention hall or upon the
17retirement or redemption of any bonds or other debt instruments
18issued by the public-facilities corporation in connection with
19the development of the municipal convention hall. This
20exemption includes existing public-facilities corporations as
21provided in Section 11-65-25 of the Illinois Municipal Code.
22This paragraph is exempt from the provisions of Section 2-70.
23(Source: P.A. 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-73, eff. 6-30-11; 97-227,
24eff. 1-1-12; 97-431, eff. 8-16-11; 97-636, eff. 6-1-12; 97-767,
25eff. 7-9-12; 98-104, eff. 7-22-13; 98-422, eff. 8-16-13;
2698-456, eff. 8-16-13; 98-534, eff. 8-23-13; 98-574, eff.

09800SB2640ham001- 494 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
11-1-14; 98-583, eff. 1-1-14; revised 9-9-13.)
2 (35 ILCS 120/2a) (from Ch. 120, par. 441a)
3 Sec. 2a. It is unlawful for any person to engage in the
4business of selling tangible personal property at retail in
5this State without a certificate of registration from the
6Department. Application for a certificate of registration
7shall be made to the Department upon forms furnished by it.
8Each such application shall be signed and verified and shall
9state: (1) the name and social security number of the
10applicant; (2) the address of his principal place of business;
11(3) the address of the principal place of business from which
12he engages in the business of selling tangible personal
13property at retail in this State and the addresses of all other
14places of business, if any (enumerating such addresses, if any,
15in a separate list attached to and made a part of the
16application), from which he engages in the business of selling
17tangible personal property at retail in this State; (4) the
18name and address of the person or persons who will be
19responsible for filing returns and payment of taxes due under
20this Act; (5) in the case of a publicly traded corporation, the
21name and title of the Chief Financial Officer, Chief Operating
22Officer, and any other officer or employee with responsibility
23for preparing tax returns under this Act, along with the last 4
24digits of each of their social security numbers, and, in the
25case of all other corporations, the name, title, and social

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1security number of each corporate officer; (6) in the case of a
2limited liability company, the name, social security number,
3and FEIN number of each manager and member; and (7) such other
4information as the Department may reasonably require. The
5application shall contain an acceptance of responsibility
6signed by the person or persons who will be responsible for
7filing returns and payment of the taxes due under this Act. If
8the applicant will sell tangible personal property at retail
9through vending machines, his application to register shall
10indicate the number of vending machines to be so operated. If
11requested by the Department at any time, that person shall
12verify the total number of vending machines he or she uses in
13his or her business of selling tangible personal property at
14retail.
15 The Department may deny a certificate of registration to
16any applicant if a person who is named as the owner, a partner,
17a manager or member of a limited liability company, or a
18corporate officer of the applicant on the application for the
19certificate of registration, is or has been named as the owner,
20a partner, a manager or member of a limited liability company,
21or a corporate officer, on the application for the certificate
22of registration of another retailer that is in default for
23moneys due under this Act or any other tax or fee Act
24administered by the Department. For purposes of this paragraph
25only, in determining whether a person is in default for moneys
26due, the Department shall include only amounts established as a

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1final liability within the 20 years prior to the date of the
2Department's notice of denial of a certificate of registration.
3 The Department may require an applicant for a certificate
4of registration hereunder to, at the time of filing such
5application, furnish a bond from a surety company authorized to
6do business in the State of Illinois, or an irrevocable bank
7letter of credit or a bond signed by 2 personal sureties who
8have filed, with the Department, sworn statements disclosing
9net assets equal to at least 3 times the amount of the bond to
10be required of such applicant, or a bond secured by an
11assignment of a bank account or certificate of deposit, stocks
12or bonds, conditioned upon the applicant paying to the State of
13Illinois all moneys becoming due under this Act and under any
14other State tax law or municipal or county tax ordinance or
15resolution under which the certificate of registration that is
16issued to the applicant under this Act will permit the
17applicant to engage in business without registering separately
18under such other law, ordinance or resolution. In making a
19determination as to whether to require a bond or other
20security, the Department shall take into consideration whether
21the owner, any partner, any manager or member of a limited
22liability company, or a corporate officer of the applicant is
23or has been the owner, a partner, a manager or member of a
24limited liability company, or a corporate officer of another
25retailer that is in default for moneys due under this Act or
26any other tax or fee Act administered by the Department; and

09800SB2640ham001- 497 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1whether the owner, any partner, any manager or member of a
2limited liability company, or a corporate officer of the
3applicant is or has been the owner, a partner, a manager or
4member of a limited liability company, or a corporate officer
5of another retailer whose certificate of registration has been
6revoked within the previous 5 years under this Act or any other
7tax or fee Act administered by the Department. If a bond or
8other security is required, the Department shall fix the amount
9of the bond or other security, taking into consideration the
10amount of money expected to become due from the applicant under
11this Act and under any other State tax law or municipal or
12county tax ordinance or resolution under which the certificate
13of registration that is issued to the applicant under this Act
14will permit the applicant to engage in business without
15registering separately under such other law, ordinance, or
16resolution. The amount of security required by the Department
17shall be such as, in its opinion, will protect the State of
18Illinois against failure to pay the amount which may become due
19from the applicant under this Act and under any other State tax
20law or municipal or county tax ordinance or resolution under
21which the certificate of registration that is issued to the
22applicant under this Act will permit the applicant to engage in
23business without registering separately under such other law,
24ordinance or resolution, but the amount of the security
25required by the Department shall not exceed three times the
26amount of the applicant's average monthly tax liability, or

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1$50,000.00, whichever amount is lower.
2 No certificate of registration under this Act shall be
3issued by the Department until the applicant provides the
4Department with satisfactory security, if required, as herein
5provided for.
6 Upon receipt of the application for certificate of
7registration in proper form, and upon approval by the
8Department of the security furnished by the applicant, if
9required, the Department shall issue to such applicant a
10certificate of registration which shall permit the person to
11whom it is issued to engage in the business of selling tangible
12personal property at retail in this State. The certificate of
13registration shall be conspicuously displayed at the place of
14business which the person so registered states in his
15application to be the principal place of business from which he
16engages in the business of selling tangible personal property
17at retail in this State.
18 No certificate of registration issued to a taxpayer who
19files returns required by this Act on a monthly basis shall be
20valid after the expiration of 5 years from the date of its
21issuance or last renewal. The expiration date of a
22sub-certificate of registration shall be that of the
23certificate of registration to which the sub-certificate
24relates. A certificate of registration shall automatically be
25renewed, subject to revocation as provided by this Act, for an
26additional 5 years from the date of its expiration unless

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1otherwise notified by the Department as provided by this
2paragraph. Where a taxpayer to whom a certificate of
3registration is issued under this Act is in default to the
4State of Illinois for delinquent returns or for moneys due
5under this Act or any other State tax law or municipal or
6county ordinance administered or enforced by the Department,
7the Department shall, not less than 120 days before the
8expiration date of such certificate of registration, give
9notice to the taxpayer to whom the certificate was issued of
10the account period of the delinquent returns, the amount of
11tax, penalty and interest due and owing from the taxpayer, and
12that the certificate of registration shall not be automatically
13renewed upon its expiration date unless the taxpayer, on or
14before the date of expiration, has filed and paid the
15delinquent returns or paid the defaulted amount in full. A
16taxpayer to whom such a notice is issued shall be deemed an
17applicant for renewal. The Department shall promulgate
18regulations establishing procedures for taxpayers who file
19returns on a monthly basis but desire and qualify to change to
20a quarterly or yearly filing basis and will no longer be
21subject to renewal under this Section, and for taxpayers who
22file returns on a yearly or quarterly basis but who desire or
23are required to change to a monthly filing basis and will be
24subject to renewal under this Section.
25 The Department may in its discretion approve renewal by an
26applicant who is in default if, at the time of application for

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1renewal, the applicant files all of the delinquent returns or
2pays to the Department such percentage of the defaulted amount
3as may be determined by the Department and agrees in writing to
4waive all limitations upon the Department for collection of the
5remaining defaulted amount to the Department over a period not
6to exceed 5 years from the date of renewal of the certificate;
7however, no renewal application submitted by an applicant who
8is in default shall be approved if the immediately preceding
9renewal by the applicant was conditioned upon the installment
10payment agreement described in this Section. The payment
11agreement herein provided for shall be in addition to and not
12in lieu of the security that may be required by this Section of
13a taxpayer who is no longer considered a prior continuous
14compliance taxpayer. The execution of the payment agreement as
15provided in this Act shall not toll the accrual of interest at
16the statutory rate.
17 The Department may suspend a certificate of registration if
18the Department finds that the person to whom the certificate of
19registration has been issued knowingly sold contraband
20cigarettes.
21 A certificate of registration issued under this Act more
22than 5 years before the effective date of this amendatory Act
23of 1989 shall expire and be subject to the renewal provisions
24of this Section on the next anniversary of the date of issuance
25of such certificate which occurs more than 6 months after the
26effective date of this amendatory Act of 1989. A certificate of

09800SB2640ham001- 501 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1registration issued less than 5 years before the effective date
2of this amendatory Act of 1989 shall expire and be subject to
3the renewal provisions of this Section on the 5th anniversary
4of the issuance of the certificate.
5 If the person so registered states that he operates other
6places of business from which he engages in the business of
7selling tangible personal property at retail in this State, the
8Department shall furnish him with a sub-certificate of
9registration for each such place of business, and the applicant
10shall display the appropriate sub-certificate of registration
11at each such place of business. All sub-certificates of
12registration shall bear the same registration number as that
13appearing upon the certificate of registration to which such
14sub-certificates relate.
15 If the applicant will sell tangible personal property at
16retail through vending machines, the Department shall furnish
17him with a sub-certificate of registration for each such
18vending machine, and the applicant shall display the
19appropriate sub-certificate of registration on each such
20vending machine by attaching the sub-certificate of
21registration to a conspicuous part of such vending machine. If
22a person who is registered to sell tangible personal property
23at retail through vending machines adds an additional vending
24machine or additional vending machines to the number of vending
25machines he or she uses in his or her business of selling
26tangible personal property at retail, he or she shall notify

09800SB2640ham001- 502 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1the Department, on a form prescribed by the Department, to
2request an additional sub-certificate or additional
3sub-certificates of registration, as applicable. With each
4such request, the applicant shall report the number of
5sub-certificates of registration he or she is requesting as
6well as the total number of vending machines from which he or
7she makes retail sales.
8 Where the same person engages in 2 or more businesses of
9selling tangible personal property at retail in this State,
10which businesses are substantially different in character or
11engaged in under different trade names or engaged in under
12other substantially dissimilar circumstances (so that it is
13more practicable, from an accounting, auditing or bookkeeping
14standpoint, for such businesses to be separately registered),
15the Department may require or permit such person (subject to
16the same requirements concerning the furnishing of security as
17those that are provided for hereinbefore in this Section as to
18each application for a certificate of registration) to apply
19for and obtain a separate certificate of registration for each
20such business or for any of such businesses, under a single
21certificate of registration supplemented by related
22sub-certificates of registration.
23 Any person who is registered under the "Retailers'
24Occupation Tax Act" as of March 8, 1963, and who, during the
253-year period immediately prior to March 8, 1963, or during a
26continuous 3-year period part of which passed immediately

09800SB2640ham001- 503 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1before and the remainder of which passes immediately after
2March 8, 1963, has been so registered continuously and who is
3determined by the Department not to have been either delinquent
4or deficient in the payment of tax liability during that period
5under this Act or under any other State tax law or municipal or
6county tax ordinance or resolution under which the certificate
7of registration that is issued to the registrant under this Act
8will permit the registrant to engage in business without
9registering separately under such other law, ordinance or
10resolution, shall be considered to be a Prior Continuous
11Compliance taxpayer. Also any taxpayer who has, as verified by
12the Department, faithfully and continuously complied with the
13condition of his bond or other security under the provisions of
14this Act for a period of 3 consecutive years shall be
15considered to be a Prior Continuous Compliance taxpayer.
16 Every Prior Continuous Compliance taxpayer shall be exempt
17from all requirements under this Act concerning the furnishing
18of a bond or other security as a condition precedent to his
19being authorized to engage in the business of selling tangible
20personal property at retail in this State. This exemption shall
21continue for each such taxpayer until such time as he may be
22determined by the Department to be delinquent in the filing of
23any returns, or is determined by the Department (either through
24the Department's issuance of a final assessment which has
25become final under the Act, or by the taxpayer's filing of a
26return which admits tax that is not paid to be due) to be

09800SB2640ham001- 504 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1delinquent or deficient in the paying of any tax under this Act
2or under any other State tax law or municipal or county tax
3ordinance or resolution under which the certificate of
4registration that is issued to the registrant under this Act
5will permit the registrant to engage in business without
6registering separately under such other law, ordinance or
7resolution, at which time that taxpayer shall become subject to
8all the financial responsibility requirements of this Act and,
9as a condition of being allowed to continue to engage in the
10business of selling tangible personal property at retail, may
11be required to post bond or other acceptable security with the
12Department covering liability which such taxpayer may
13thereafter incur. Any taxpayer who fails to pay an admitted or
14established liability under this Act may also be required to
15post bond or other acceptable security with this Department
16guaranteeing the payment of such admitted or established
17liability.
18 No certificate of registration shall be issued to any
19person who is in default to the State of Illinois for moneys
20due under this Act or under any other State tax law or
21municipal or county tax ordinance or resolution under which the
22certificate of registration that is issued to the applicant
23under this Act will permit the applicant to engage in business
24without registering separately under such other law, ordinance
25or resolution.
26 Any person aggrieved by any decision of the Department

09800SB2640ham001- 505 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1under this Section may, within 20 days after notice of such
2decision, protest and request a hearing, whereupon the
3Department shall give notice to such person of the time and
4place fixed for such hearing and shall hold a hearing in
5conformity with the provisions of this Act and then issue its
6final administrative decision in the matter to such person. In
7the absence of such a protest within 20 days, the Department's
8decision shall become final without any further determination
9being made or notice given.
10 With respect to security other than bonds (upon which the
11Department may sue in the event of a forfeiture), if the
12taxpayer fails to pay, when due, any amount whose payment such
13security guarantees, the Department shall, after such
14liability is admitted by the taxpayer or established by the
15Department through the issuance of a final assessment that has
16become final under the law, convert the security which that
17taxpayer has furnished into money for the State, after first
18giving the taxpayer at least 10 days' written notice, by
19registered or certified mail, to pay the liability or forfeit
20such security to the Department. If the security consists of
21stocks or bonds or other securities which are listed on a
22public exchange, the Department shall sell such securities
23through such public exchange. If the security consists of an
24irrevocable bank letter of credit, the Department shall convert
25the security in the manner provided for in the Uniform
26Commercial Code. If the security consists of a bank certificate

09800SB2640ham001- 506 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1of deposit, the Department shall convert the security into
2money by demanding and collecting the amount of such bank
3certificate of deposit from the bank which issued such
4certificate. If the security consists of a type of stocks or
5other securities which are not listed on a public exchange, the
6Department shall sell such security to the highest and best
7bidder after giving at least 10 days' notice of the date, time
8and place of the intended sale by publication in the "State
9Official Newspaper". If the Department realizes more than the
10amount of such liability from the security, plus the expenses
11incurred by the Department in converting the security into
12money, the Department shall pay such excess to the taxpayer who
13furnished such security, and the balance shall be paid into the
14State Treasury.
15 The Department shall discharge any surety and shall release
16and return any security deposited, assigned, pledged or
17otherwise provided to it by a taxpayer under this Section
18within 30 days after:
19 (1) such taxpayer becomes a Prior Continuous
20 Compliance taxpayer; or
21 (2) such taxpayer has ceased to collect receipts on
22 which he is required to remit tax to the Department, has
23 filed a final tax return, and has paid to the Department an
24 amount sufficient to discharge his remaining tax
25 liability, as determined by the Department, under this Act
26 and under every other State tax law or municipal or county

09800SB2640ham001- 507 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 tax ordinance or resolution under which the certificate of
2 registration issued under this Act permits the registrant
3 to engage in business without registering separately under
4 such other law, ordinance or resolution. The Department
5 shall make a final determination of the taxpayer's
6 outstanding tax liability as expeditiously as possible
7 after his final tax return has been filed; if the
8 Department cannot make such final determination within 45
9 days after receiving the final tax return, within such
10 period it shall so notify the taxpayer, stating its reasons
11 therefor.
12(Source: P.A. 97-335, eff. 1-1-12; 98-496, eff. 1-1-14; 98-583,
13eff. 1-1-14; revised 9-9-13.)
14 (35 ILCS 120/3) (from Ch. 120, par. 442)
15 Sec. 3. Except as provided in this Section, on or before
16the twentieth day of each calendar month, every person engaged
17in the business of selling tangible personal property at retail
18in this State during the preceding calendar month shall file a
19return with the Department, stating:
20 1. The name of the seller;
21 2. His residence address and the address of his
22 principal place of business and the address of the
23 principal place of business (if that is a different
24 address) from which he engages in the business of selling
25 tangible personal property at retail in this State;

09800SB2640ham001- 508 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 3. Total amount of receipts received by him during the
2 preceding calendar month or quarter, as the case may be,
3 from sales of tangible personal property, and from services
4 furnished, by him during such preceding calendar month or
5 quarter;
6 4. Total amount received by him during the preceding
7 calendar month or quarter on charge and time sales of
8 tangible personal property, and from services furnished,
9 by him prior to the month or quarter for which the return
10 is filed;
11 5. Deductions allowed by law;
12 6. Gross receipts which were received by him during the
13 preceding calendar month or quarter and upon the basis of
14 which the tax is imposed;
15 7. The amount of credit provided in Section 2d of this
16 Act;
17 8. The amount of tax due;
18 9. The signature of the taxpayer; and
19 10. Such other reasonable information as the
20 Department may require.
21 If a taxpayer fails to sign a return within 30 days after
22the proper notice and demand for signature by the Department,
23the return shall be considered valid and any amount shown to be
24due on the return shall be deemed assessed.
25 Each return shall be accompanied by the statement of
26prepaid tax issued pursuant to Section 2e for which credit is

09800SB2640ham001- 509 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1claimed.
2 Prior to October 1, 2003, and on and after September 1,
32004 a retailer may accept a Manufacturer's Purchase Credit
4certification from a purchaser in satisfaction of Use Tax as
5provided in Section 3-85 of the Use Tax Act if the purchaser
6provides the appropriate documentation as required by Section
73-85 of the Use Tax Act. A Manufacturer's Purchase Credit
8certification, accepted by a retailer prior to October 1, 2003
9and on and after September 1, 2004 as provided in Section 3-85
10of the Use Tax Act, may be used by that retailer to satisfy
11Retailers' Occupation Tax liability in the amount claimed in
12the certification, not to exceed 6.25% of the receipts subject
13to tax from a qualifying purchase. A Manufacturer's Purchase
14Credit reported on any original or amended return filed under
15this Act after October 20, 2003 for reporting periods prior to
16September 1, 2004 shall be disallowed. Manufacturer's
17Purchaser Credit reported on annual returns due on or after
18January 1, 2005 will be disallowed for periods prior to
19September 1, 2004. No Manufacturer's Purchase Credit may be
20used after September 30, 2003 through August 31, 2004 to
21satisfy any tax liability imposed under this Act, including any
22audit liability.
23 The Department may require returns to be filed on a
24quarterly basis. If so required, a return for each calendar
25quarter shall be filed on or before the twentieth day of the
26calendar month following the end of such calendar quarter. The

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1taxpayer shall also file a return with the Department for each
2of the first two months of each calendar quarter, on or before
3the twentieth day of the following calendar month, stating:
4 1. The name of the seller;
5 2. The address of the principal place of business from
6 which he engages in the business of selling tangible
7 personal property at retail in this State;
8 3. The total amount of taxable receipts received by him
9 during the preceding calendar month from sales of tangible
10 personal property by him during such preceding calendar
11 month, including receipts from charge and time sales, but
12 less all deductions allowed by law;
13 4. The amount of credit provided in Section 2d of this
14 Act;
15 5. The amount of tax due; and
16 6. Such other reasonable information as the Department
17 may require.
18 Beginning on October 1, 2003, any person who is not a
19licensed distributor, importing distributor, or manufacturer,
20as defined in the Liquor Control Act of 1934, but is engaged in
21the business of selling, at retail, alcoholic liquor shall file
22a statement with the Department of Revenue, in a format and at
23a time prescribed by the Department, showing the total amount
24paid for alcoholic liquor purchased during the preceding month
25and such other information as is reasonably required by the
26Department. The Department may adopt rules to require that this

09800SB2640ham001- 511 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1statement be filed in an electronic or telephonic format. Such
2rules may provide for exceptions from the filing requirements
3of this paragraph. For the purposes of this paragraph, the term
4"alcoholic liquor" shall have the meaning prescribed in the
5Liquor Control Act of 1934.
6 Beginning on October 1, 2003, every distributor, importing
7distributor, and manufacturer of alcoholic liquor as defined in
8the Liquor Control Act of 1934, shall file a statement with the
9Department of Revenue, no later than the 10th day of the month
10for the preceding month during which transactions occurred, by
11electronic means, showing the total amount of gross receipts
12from the sale of alcoholic liquor sold or distributed during
13the preceding month to purchasers; identifying the purchaser to
14whom it was sold or distributed; the purchaser's tax
15registration number; and such other information reasonably
16required by the Department. A distributor, importing
17distributor, or manufacturer of alcoholic liquor must
18personally deliver, mail, or provide by electronic means to
19each retailer listed on the monthly statement a report
20containing a cumulative total of that distributor's, importing
21distributor's, or manufacturer's total sales of alcoholic
22liquor to that retailer no later than the 10th day of the month
23for the preceding month during which the transaction occurred.
24The distributor, importing distributor, or manufacturer shall
25notify the retailer as to the method by which the distributor,
26importing distributor, or manufacturer will provide the sales

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1information. If the retailer is unable to receive the sales
2information by electronic means, the distributor, importing
3distributor, or manufacturer shall furnish the sales
4information by personal delivery or by mail. For purposes of
5this paragraph, the term "electronic means" includes, but is
6not limited to, the use of a secure Internet website, e-mail,
7or facsimile.
8 If a total amount of less than $1 is payable, refundable or
9creditable, such amount shall be disregarded if it is less than
1050 cents and shall be increased to $1 if it is 50 cents or more.
11 Beginning October 1, 1993, a taxpayer who has an average
12monthly tax liability of $150,000 or more shall make all
13payments required by rules of the Department by electronic
14funds transfer. Beginning October 1, 1994, a taxpayer who has
15an average monthly tax liability of $100,000 or more shall make
16all payments required by rules of the Department by electronic
17funds transfer. Beginning October 1, 1995, a taxpayer who has
18an average monthly tax liability of $50,000 or more shall make
19all payments required by rules of the Department by electronic
20funds transfer. Beginning October 1, 2000, a taxpayer who has
21an annual tax liability of $200,000 or more shall make all
22payments required by rules of the Department by electronic
23funds transfer. The term "annual tax liability" shall be the
24sum of the taxpayer's liabilities under this Act, and under all
25other State and local occupation and use tax laws administered
26by the Department, for the immediately preceding calendar year.

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1The term "average monthly tax liability" shall be the sum of
2the taxpayer's liabilities under this Act, and under all other
3State and local occupation and use tax laws administered by the
4Department, for the immediately preceding calendar year
5divided by 12. Beginning on October 1, 2002, a taxpayer who has
6a tax liability in the amount set forth in subsection (b) of
7Section 2505-210 of the Department of Revenue Law shall make
8all payments required by rules of the Department by electronic
9funds transfer.
10 Before August 1 of each year beginning in 1993, the
11Department shall notify all taxpayers required to make payments
12by electronic funds transfer. All taxpayers required to make
13payments by electronic funds transfer shall make those payments
14for a minimum of one year beginning on October 1.
15 Any taxpayer not required to make payments by electronic
16funds transfer may make payments by electronic funds transfer
17with the permission of the Department.
18 All taxpayers required to make payment by electronic funds
19transfer and any taxpayers authorized to voluntarily make
20payments by electronic funds transfer shall make those payments
21in the manner authorized by the Department.
22 The Department shall adopt such rules as are necessary to
23effectuate a program of electronic funds transfer and the
24requirements of this Section.
25 Any amount which is required to be shown or reported on any
26return or other document under this Act shall, if such amount

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1is not a whole-dollar amount, be increased to the nearest
2whole-dollar amount in any case where the fractional part of a
3dollar is 50 cents or more, and decreased to the nearest
4whole-dollar amount where the fractional part of a dollar is
5less than 50 cents.
6 If the retailer is otherwise required to file a monthly
7return and if the retailer's average monthly tax liability to
8the Department does not exceed $200, the Department may
9authorize his returns to be filed on a quarter annual basis,
10with the return for January, February and March of a given year
11being due by April 20 of such year; with the return for April,
12May and June of a given year being due by July 20 of such year;
13with the return for July, August and September of a given year
14being due by October 20 of such year, and with the return for
15October, November and December of a given year being due by
16January 20 of the following year.
17 If the retailer is otherwise required to file a monthly or
18quarterly return and if the retailer's average monthly tax
19liability with the Department does not exceed $50, the
20Department may authorize his returns to be filed on an annual
21basis, with the return for a given year being due by January 20
22of the following year.
23 Such quarter annual and annual returns, as to form and
24substance, shall be subject to the same requirements as monthly
25returns.
26 Notwithstanding any other provision in this Act concerning

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1the time within which a retailer may file his return, in the
2case of any retailer who ceases to engage in a kind of business
3which makes him responsible for filing returns under this Act,
4such retailer shall file a final return under this Act with the
5Department not more than one month after discontinuing such
6business.
7 Where the same person has more than one business registered
8with the Department under separate registrations under this
9Act, such person may not file each return that is due as a
10single return covering all such registered businesses, but
11shall file separate returns for each such registered business.
12 In addition, with respect to motor vehicles, watercraft,
13aircraft, and trailers that are required to be registered with
14an agency of this State, every retailer selling this kind of
15tangible personal property shall file, with the Department,
16upon a form to be prescribed and supplied by the Department, a
17separate return for each such item of tangible personal
18property which the retailer sells, except that if, in the same
19transaction, (i) a retailer of aircraft, watercraft, motor
20vehicles or trailers transfers more than one aircraft,
21watercraft, motor vehicle or trailer to another aircraft,
22watercraft, motor vehicle retailer or trailer retailer for the
23purpose of resale or (ii) a retailer of aircraft, watercraft,
24motor vehicles, or trailers transfers more than one aircraft,
25watercraft, motor vehicle, or trailer to a purchaser for use as
26a qualifying rolling stock as provided in Section 2-5 of this

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1Act, then that seller may report the transfer of all aircraft,
2watercraft, motor vehicles or trailers involved in that
3transaction to the Department on the same uniform
4invoice-transaction reporting return form. For purposes of
5this Section, "watercraft" means a Class 2, Class 3, or Class 4
6watercraft as defined in Section 3-2 of the Boat Registration
7and Safety Act, a personal watercraft, or any boat equipped
8with an inboard motor.
9 Any retailer who sells only motor vehicles, watercraft,
10aircraft, or trailers that are required to be registered with
11an agency of this State, so that all retailers' occupation tax
12liability is required to be reported, and is reported, on such
13transaction reporting returns and who is not otherwise required
14to file monthly or quarterly returns, need not file monthly or
15quarterly returns. However, those retailers shall be required
16to file returns on an annual basis.
17 The transaction reporting return, in the case of motor
18vehicles or trailers that are required to be registered with an
19agency of this State, shall be the same document as the Uniform
20Invoice referred to in Section 5-402 of The Illinois Vehicle
21Code and must show the name and address of the seller; the name
22and address of the purchaser; the amount of the selling price
23including the amount allowed by the retailer for traded-in
24property, if any; the amount allowed by the retailer for the
25traded-in tangible personal property, if any, to the extent to
26which Section 1 of this Act allows an exemption for the value

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1of traded-in property; the balance payable after deducting such
2trade-in allowance from the total selling price; the amount of
3tax due from the retailer with respect to such transaction; the
4amount of tax collected from the purchaser by the retailer on
5such transaction (or satisfactory evidence that such tax is not
6due in that particular instance, if that is claimed to be the
7fact); the place and date of the sale; a sufficient
8identification of the property sold; such other information as
9is required in Section 5-402 of The Illinois Vehicle Code, and
10such other information as the Department may reasonably
11require.
12 The transaction reporting return in the case of watercraft
13or aircraft must show the name and address of the seller; the
14name and address of the purchaser; the amount of the selling
15price including the amount allowed by the retailer for
16traded-in property, if any; the amount allowed by the retailer
17for the traded-in tangible personal property, if any, to the
18extent to which Section 1 of this Act allows an exemption for
19the value of traded-in property; the balance payable after
20deducting such trade-in allowance from the total selling price;
21the amount of tax due from the retailer with respect to such
22transaction; the amount of tax collected from the purchaser by
23the retailer on such transaction (or satisfactory evidence that
24such tax is not due in that particular instance, if that is
25claimed to be the fact); the place and date of the sale, a
26sufficient identification of the property sold, and such other

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1information as the Department may reasonably require.
2 Such transaction reporting return shall be filed not later
3than 20 days after the day of delivery of the item that is
4being sold, but may be filed by the retailer at any time sooner
5than that if he chooses to do so. The transaction reporting
6return and tax remittance or proof of exemption from the
7Illinois use tax may be transmitted to the Department by way of
8the State agency with which, or State officer with whom the
9tangible personal property must be titled or registered (if
10titling or registration is required) if the Department and such
11agency or State officer determine that this procedure will
12expedite the processing of applications for title or
13registration.
14 With each such transaction reporting return, the retailer
15shall remit the proper amount of tax due (or shall submit
16satisfactory evidence that the sale is not taxable if that is
17the case), to the Department or its agents, whereupon the
18Department shall issue, in the purchaser's name, a use tax
19receipt (or a certificate of exemption if the Department is
20satisfied that the particular sale is tax exempt) which such
21purchaser may submit to the agency with which, or State officer
22with whom, he must title or register the tangible personal
23property that is involved (if titling or registration is
24required) in support of such purchaser's application for an
25Illinois certificate or other evidence of title or registration
26to such tangible personal property.

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1 No retailer's failure or refusal to remit tax under this
2Act precludes a user, who has paid the proper tax to the
3retailer, from obtaining his certificate of title or other
4evidence of title or registration (if titling or registration
5is required) upon satisfying the Department that such user has
6paid the proper tax (if tax is due) to the retailer. The
7Department shall adopt appropriate rules to carry out the
8mandate of this paragraph.
9 If the user who would otherwise pay tax to the retailer
10wants the transaction reporting return filed and the payment of
11the tax or proof of exemption made to the Department before the
12retailer is willing to take these actions and such user has not
13paid the tax to the retailer, such user may certify to the fact
14of such delay by the retailer and may (upon the Department
15being satisfied of the truth of such certification) transmit
16the information required by the transaction reporting return
17and the remittance for tax or proof of exemption directly to
18the Department and obtain his tax receipt or exemption
19determination, in which event the transaction reporting return
20and tax remittance (if a tax payment was required) shall be
21credited by the Department to the proper retailer's account
22with the Department, but without the 2.1% or 1.75% discount
23provided for in this Section being allowed. When the user pays
24the tax directly to the Department, he shall pay the tax in the
25same amount and in the same form in which it would be remitted
26if the tax had been remitted to the Department by the retailer.

09800SB2640ham001- 520 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 Refunds made by the seller during the preceding return
2period to purchasers, on account of tangible personal property
3returned to the seller, shall be allowed as a deduction under
4subdivision 5 of his monthly or quarterly return, as the case
5may be, in case the seller had theretofore included the
6receipts from the sale of such tangible personal property in a
7return filed by him and had paid the tax imposed by this Act
8with respect to such receipts.
9 Where the seller is a corporation, the return filed on
10behalf of such corporation shall be signed by the president,
11vice-president, secretary or treasurer or by the properly
12accredited agent of such corporation.
13 Where the seller is a limited liability company, the return
14filed on behalf of the limited liability company shall be
15signed by a manager, member, or properly accredited agent of
16the limited liability company.
17 Except as provided in this Section, the retailer filing the
18return under this Section shall, at the time of filing such
19return, pay to the Department the amount of tax imposed by this
20Act less a discount of 2.1% prior to January 1, 1990 and 1.75%
21on and after January 1, 1990, or $5 per calendar year,
22whichever is greater, which is allowed to reimburse the
23retailer for the expenses incurred in keeping records,
24preparing and filing returns, remitting the tax and supplying
25data to the Department on request. Any prepayment made pursuant
26to Section 2d of this Act shall be included in the amount on

09800SB2640ham001- 521 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1which such 2.1% or 1.75% discount is computed. In the case of
2retailers who report and pay the tax on a transaction by
3transaction basis, as provided in this Section, such discount
4shall be taken with each such tax remittance instead of when
5such retailer files his periodic return. The Department may
6disallow the discount for retailers whose certificate of
7registration is revoked at the time the return is filed, but
8only if the Department's decision to revoke the certificate of
9registration has become final.
10 Before October 1, 2000, if the taxpayer's average monthly
11tax liability to the Department under this Act, the Use Tax
12Act, the Service Occupation Tax Act, and the Service Use Tax
13Act, excluding any liability for prepaid sales tax to be
14remitted in accordance with Section 2d of this Act, was $10,000
15or more during the preceding 4 complete calendar quarters, he
16shall file a return with the Department each month by the 20th
17day of the month next following the month during which such tax
18liability is incurred and shall make payments to the Department
19on or before the 7th, 15th, 22nd and last day of the month
20during which such liability is incurred. On and after October
211, 2000, if the taxpayer's average monthly tax liability to the
22Department under this Act, the Use Tax Act, the Service
23Occupation Tax Act, and the Service Use Tax Act, excluding any
24liability for prepaid sales tax to be remitted in accordance
25with Section 2d of this Act, was $20,000 or more during the
26preceding 4 complete calendar quarters, he shall file a return

09800SB2640ham001- 522 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1with the Department each month by the 20th day of the month
2next following the month during which such tax liability is
3incurred and shall make payment to the Department on or before
4the 7th, 15th, 22nd and last day of the month during which such
5liability is incurred. If the month during which such tax
6liability is incurred began prior to January 1, 1985, each
7payment shall be in an amount equal to 1/4 of the taxpayer's
8actual liability for the month or an amount set by the
9Department not to exceed 1/4 of the average monthly liability
10of the taxpayer to the Department for the preceding 4 complete
11calendar quarters (excluding the month of highest liability and
12the month of lowest liability in such 4 quarter period). If the
13month during which such tax liability is incurred begins on or
14after January 1, 1985 and prior to January 1, 1987, each
15payment shall be in an amount equal to 22.5% of the taxpayer's
16actual liability for the month or 27.5% of the taxpayer's
17liability for the same calendar month of the preceding year. If
18the month during which such tax liability is incurred begins on
19or after January 1, 1987 and prior to January 1, 1988, each
20payment shall be in an amount equal to 22.5% of the taxpayer's
21actual liability for the month or 26.25% of the taxpayer's
22liability for the same calendar month of the preceding year. If
23the month during which such tax liability is incurred begins on
24or after January 1, 1988, and prior to January 1, 1989, or
25begins on or after January 1, 1996, each payment shall be in an
26amount equal to 22.5% of the taxpayer's actual liability for

09800SB2640ham001- 523 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1the month or 25% of the taxpayer's liability for the same
2calendar month of the preceding year. If the month during which
3such tax liability is incurred begins on or after January 1,
41989, and prior to January 1, 1996, each payment shall be in an
5amount equal to 22.5% of the taxpayer's actual liability for
6the month or 25% of the taxpayer's liability for the same
7calendar month of the preceding year or 100% of the taxpayer's
8actual liability for the quarter monthly reporting period. The
9amount of such quarter monthly payments shall be credited
10against the final tax liability of the taxpayer's return for
11that month. Before October 1, 2000, once applicable, the
12requirement of the making of quarter monthly payments to the
13Department by taxpayers having an average monthly tax liability
14of $10,000 or more as determined in the manner provided above
15shall continue until such taxpayer's average monthly liability
16to the Department during the preceding 4 complete calendar
17quarters (excluding the month of highest liability and the
18month of lowest liability) is less than $9,000, or until such
19taxpayer's average monthly liability to the Department as
20computed for each calendar quarter of the 4 preceding complete
21calendar quarter period is less than $10,000. However, if a
22taxpayer can show the Department that a substantial change in
23the taxpayer's business has occurred which causes the taxpayer
24to anticipate that his average monthly tax liability for the
25reasonably foreseeable future will fall below the $10,000
26threshold stated above, then such taxpayer may petition the

09800SB2640ham001- 524 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1Department for a change in such taxpayer's reporting status. On
2and after October 1, 2000, once applicable, the requirement of
3the making of quarter monthly payments to the Department by
4taxpayers having an average monthly tax liability of $20,000 or
5more as determined in the manner provided above shall continue
6until such taxpayer's average monthly liability to the
7Department during the preceding 4 complete calendar quarters
8(excluding the month of highest liability and the month of
9lowest liability) is less than $19,000 or until such taxpayer's
10average monthly liability to the Department as computed for
11each calendar quarter of the 4 preceding complete calendar
12quarter period is less than $20,000. However, if a taxpayer can
13show the Department that a substantial change in the taxpayer's
14business has occurred which causes the taxpayer to anticipate
15that his average monthly tax liability for the reasonably
16foreseeable future will fall below the $20,000 threshold stated
17above, then such taxpayer may petition the Department for a
18change in such taxpayer's reporting status. The Department
19shall change such taxpayer's reporting status unless it finds
20that such change is seasonal in nature and not likely to be
21long term. If any such quarter monthly payment is not paid at
22the time or in the amount required by this Section, then the
23taxpayer shall be liable for penalties and interest on the
24difference between the minimum amount due as a payment and the
25amount of such quarter monthly payment actually and timely
26paid, except insofar as the taxpayer has previously made

09800SB2640ham001- 525 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1payments for that month to the Department in excess of the
2minimum payments previously due as provided in this Section.
3The Department shall make reasonable rules and regulations to
4govern the quarter monthly payment amount and quarter monthly
5payment dates for taxpayers who file on other than a calendar
6monthly basis.
7 The provisions of this paragraph apply before October 1,
82001. Without regard to whether a taxpayer is required to make
9quarter monthly payments as specified above, any taxpayer who
10is required by Section 2d of this Act to collect and remit
11prepaid taxes and has collected prepaid taxes which average in
12excess of $25,000 per month during the preceding 2 complete
13calendar quarters, shall file a return with the Department as
14required by Section 2f and shall make payments to the
15Department on or before the 7th, 15th, 22nd and last day of the
16month during which such liability is incurred. If the month
17during which such tax liability is incurred began prior to the
18effective date of this amendatory Act of 1985, each payment
19shall be in an amount not less than 22.5% of the taxpayer's
20actual liability under Section 2d. If the month during which
21such tax liability is incurred begins on or after January 1,
221986, each payment shall be in an amount equal to 22.5% of the
23taxpayer's actual liability for the month or 27.5% of the
24taxpayer's liability for the same calendar month of the
25preceding calendar year. If the month during which such tax
26liability is incurred begins on or after January 1, 1987, each

09800SB2640ham001- 526 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1payment shall be in an amount equal to 22.5% of the taxpayer's
2actual liability for the month or 26.25% of the taxpayer's
3liability for the same calendar month of the preceding year.
4The amount of such quarter monthly payments shall be credited
5against the final tax liability of the taxpayer's return for
6that month filed under this Section or Section 2f, as the case
7may be. Once applicable, the requirement of the making of
8quarter monthly payments to the Department pursuant to this
9paragraph shall continue until such taxpayer's average monthly
10prepaid tax collections during the preceding 2 complete
11calendar quarters is $25,000 or less. If any such quarter
12monthly payment is not paid at the time or in the amount
13required, the taxpayer shall be liable for penalties and
14interest on such difference, except insofar as the taxpayer has
15previously made payments for that month in excess of the
16minimum payments previously due.
17 The provisions of this paragraph apply on and after October
181, 2001. Without regard to whether a taxpayer is required to
19make quarter monthly payments as specified above, any taxpayer
20who is required by Section 2d of this Act to collect and remit
21prepaid taxes and has collected prepaid taxes that average in
22excess of $20,000 per month during the preceding 4 complete
23calendar quarters shall file a return with the Department as
24required by Section 2f and shall make payments to the
25Department on or before the 7th, 15th, 22nd and last day of the
26month during which the liability is incurred. Each payment

09800SB2640ham001- 527 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1shall be in an amount equal to 22.5% of the taxpayer's actual
2liability for the month or 25% of the taxpayer's liability for
3the same calendar month of the preceding year. The amount of
4the quarter monthly payments shall be credited against the
5final tax liability of the taxpayer's return for that month
6filed under this Section or Section 2f, as the case may be.
7Once applicable, the requirement of the making of quarter
8monthly payments to the Department pursuant to this paragraph
9shall continue until the taxpayer's average monthly prepaid tax
10collections during the preceding 4 complete calendar quarters
11(excluding the month of highest liability and the month of
12lowest liability) is less than $19,000 or until such taxpayer's
13average monthly liability to the Department as computed for
14each calendar quarter of the 4 preceding complete calendar
15quarters is less than $20,000. If any such quarter monthly
16payment is not paid at the time or in the amount required, the
17taxpayer shall be liable for penalties and interest on such
18difference, except insofar as the taxpayer has previously made
19payments for that month in excess of the minimum payments
20previously due.
21 If any payment provided for in this Section exceeds the
22taxpayer's liabilities under this Act, the Use Tax Act, the
23Service Occupation Tax Act and the Service Use Tax Act, as
24shown on an original monthly return, the Department shall, if
25requested by the taxpayer, issue to the taxpayer a credit
26memorandum no later than 30 days after the date of payment. The

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1credit evidenced by such credit memorandum may be assigned by
2the taxpayer to a similar taxpayer under this Act, the Use Tax
3Act, the Service Occupation Tax Act or the Service Use Tax Act,
4in accordance with reasonable rules and regulations to be
5prescribed by the Department. If no such request is made, the
6taxpayer may credit such excess payment against tax liability
7subsequently to be remitted to the Department under this Act,
8the Use Tax Act, the Service Occupation Tax Act or the Service
9Use Tax Act, in accordance with reasonable rules and
10regulations prescribed by the Department. If the Department
11subsequently determined that all or any part of the credit
12taken was not actually due to the taxpayer, the taxpayer's 2.1%
13and 1.75% vendor's discount shall be reduced by 2.1% or 1.75%
14of the difference between the credit taken and that actually
15due, and that taxpayer shall be liable for penalties and
16interest on such difference.
17 If a retailer of motor fuel is entitled to a credit under
18Section 2d of this Act which exceeds the taxpayer's liability
19to the Department under this Act for the month which the
20taxpayer is filing a return, the Department shall issue the
21taxpayer a credit memorandum for the excess.
22 Beginning January 1, 1990, each month the Department shall
23pay into the Local Government Tax Fund, a special fund in the
24State treasury which is hereby created, the net revenue
25realized for the preceding month from the 1% tax on sales of
26food for human consumption which is to be consumed off the

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1premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, soft
2drinks and food which has been prepared for immediate
3consumption) and prescription and nonprescription medicines,
4drugs, medical appliances and insulin, urine testing
5materials, syringes and needles used by diabetics.
6 Beginning January 1, 1990, each month the Department shall
7pay into the County and Mass Transit District Fund, a special
8fund in the State treasury which is hereby created, 4% of the
9net revenue realized for the preceding month from the 6.25%
10general rate.
11 Beginning August 1, 2000, each month the Department shall
12pay into the County and Mass Transit District Fund 20% of the
13net revenue realized for the preceding month from the 1.25%
14rate on the selling price of motor fuel and gasohol. Beginning
15September 1, 2010, each month the Department shall pay into the
16County and Mass Transit District Fund 20% of the net revenue
17realized for the preceding month from the 1.25% rate on the
18selling price of sales tax holiday items.
19 Beginning January 1, 1990, each month the Department shall
20pay into the Local Government Tax Fund 16% of the net revenue
21realized for the preceding month from the 6.25% general rate on
22the selling price of tangible personal property.
23 Beginning August 1, 2000, each month the Department shall
24pay into the Local Government Tax Fund 80% of the net revenue
25realized for the preceding month from the 1.25% rate on the
26selling price of motor fuel and gasohol. Beginning September 1,

09800SB2640ham001- 530 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
12010, each month the Department shall pay into the Local
2Government Tax Fund 80% of the net revenue realized for the
3preceding month from the 1.25% rate on the selling price of
4sales tax holiday items.
5 Beginning October 1, 2009, each month the Department shall
6pay into the Capital Projects Fund an amount that is equal to
7an amount estimated by the Department to represent 80% of the
8net revenue realized for the preceding month from the sale of
9candy, grooming and hygiene products, and soft drinks that had
10been taxed at a rate of 1% prior to September 1, 2009 but that
11are is now taxed at 6.25%.
12 Beginning July 1, 2011, each month the Department shall pay
13into the Clean Air Act (CAA) Permit Fund 80% of the net revenue
14realized for the preceding month from the 6.25% general rate on
15the selling price of sorbents used in Illinois in the process
16of sorbent injection as used to comply with the Environmental
17Protection Act or the federal Clean Air Act, but the total
18payment into the Clean Air Act (CAA) Permit Fund under this Act
19and the Use Tax Act shall not exceed $2,000,000 in any fiscal
20year.
21 Beginning July 1, 2013, each month the Department shall pay
22into the Underground Storage Tank Fund from the proceeds
23collected under this Act, the Use Tax Act, the Service Use Tax
24Act, and the Service Occupation Tax Act an amount equal to the
25average monthly deficit in the Underground Storage Tank Fund
26during the prior year, as certified annually by the Illinois

09800SB2640ham001- 531 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1Environmental Protection Agency, but the total payment into the
2Underground Storage Tank Fund under this Act, the Use Tax Act,
3the Service Use Tax Act, and the Service Occupation Tax Act
4shall not exceed $18,000,000 in any State fiscal year. As used
5in this paragraph, the "average monthly deficit" shall be equal
6to the difference between the average monthly claims for
7payment by the fund and the average monthly revenues deposited
8into the fund, excluding payments made pursuant to this
9paragraph.
10 Of the remainder of the moneys received by the Department
11pursuant to this Act, (a) 1.75% thereof shall be paid into the
12Build Illinois Fund and (b) prior to July 1, 1989, 2.2% and on
13and after July 1, 1989, 3.8% thereof shall be paid into the
14Build Illinois Fund; provided, however, that if in any fiscal
15year the sum of (1) the aggregate of 2.2% or 3.8%, as the case
16may be, of the moneys received by the Department and required
17to be paid into the Build Illinois Fund pursuant to this Act,
18Section 9 of the Use Tax Act, Section 9 of the Service Use Tax
19Act, and Section 9 of the Service Occupation Tax Act, such Acts
20being hereinafter called the "Tax Acts" and such aggregate of
212.2% or 3.8%, as the case may be, of moneys being hereinafter
22called the "Tax Act Amount", and (2) the amount transferred to
23the Build Illinois Fund from the State and Local Sales Tax
24Reform Fund shall be less than the Annual Specified Amount (as
25hereinafter defined), an amount equal to the difference shall
26be immediately paid into the Build Illinois Fund from other

09800SB2640ham001- 532 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1moneys received by the Department pursuant to the Tax Acts; the
2"Annual Specified Amount" means the amounts specified below for
3fiscal years 1986 through 1993:
4Fiscal YearAnnual Specified Amount
51986$54,800,000
61987$76,650,000
71988$80,480,000
81989$88,510,000
91990$115,330,000
101991$145,470,000
111992$182,730,000
121993$206,520,000;
13and means the Certified Annual Debt Service Requirement (as
14defined in Section 13 of the Build Illinois Bond Act) or the
15Tax Act Amount, whichever is greater, for fiscal year 1994 and
16each fiscal year thereafter; and further provided, that if on
17the last business day of any month the sum of (1) the Tax Act
18Amount required to be deposited into the Build Illinois Bond
19Account in the Build Illinois Fund during such month and (2)
20the amount transferred to the Build Illinois Fund from the
21State and Local Sales Tax Reform Fund shall have been less than
221/12 of the Annual Specified Amount, an amount equal to the
23difference shall be immediately paid into the Build Illinois
24Fund from other moneys received by the Department pursuant to
25the Tax Acts; and, further provided, that in no event shall the
26payments required under the preceding proviso result in

09800SB2640ham001- 533 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1aggregate payments into the Build Illinois Fund pursuant to
2this clause (b) for any fiscal year in excess of the greater of
3(i) the Tax Act Amount or (ii) the Annual Specified Amount for
4such fiscal year. The amounts payable into the Build Illinois
5Fund under clause (b) of the first sentence in this paragraph
6shall be payable only until such time as the aggregate amount
7on deposit under each trust indenture securing Bonds issued and
8outstanding pursuant to the Build Illinois Bond Act is
9sufficient, taking into account any future investment income,
10to fully provide, in accordance with such indenture, for the
11defeasance of or the payment of the principal of, premium, if
12any, and interest on the Bonds secured by such indenture and on
13any Bonds expected to be issued thereafter and all fees and
14costs payable with respect thereto, all as certified by the
15Director of the Bureau of the Budget (now Governor's Office of
16Management and Budget). If on the last business day of any
17month in which Bonds are outstanding pursuant to the Build
18Illinois Bond Act, the aggregate of moneys deposited in the
19Build Illinois Bond Account in the Build Illinois Fund in such
20month shall be less than the amount required to be transferred
21in such month from the Build Illinois Bond Account to the Build
22Illinois Bond Retirement and Interest Fund pursuant to Section
2313 of the Build Illinois Bond Act, an amount equal to such
24deficiency shall be immediately paid from other moneys received
25by the Department pursuant to the Tax Acts to the Build
26Illinois Fund; provided, however, that any amounts paid to the

09800SB2640ham001- 534 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1Build Illinois Fund in any fiscal year pursuant to this
2sentence shall be deemed to constitute payments pursuant to
3clause (b) of the first sentence of this paragraph and shall
4reduce the amount otherwise payable for such fiscal year
5pursuant to that clause (b). The moneys received by the
6Department pursuant to this Act and required to be deposited
7into the Build Illinois Fund are subject to the pledge, claim
8and charge set forth in Section 12 of the Build Illinois Bond
9Act.
10 Subject to payment of amounts into the Build Illinois Fund
11as provided in the preceding paragraph or in any amendment
12thereto hereafter enacted, the following specified monthly
13installment of the amount requested in the certificate of the
14Chairman of the Metropolitan Pier and Exposition Authority
15provided under Section 8.25f of the State Finance Act, but not
16in excess of sums designated as "Total Deposit", shall be
17deposited in the aggregate from collections under Section 9 of
18the Use Tax Act, Section 9 of the Service Use Tax Act, Section
199 of the Service Occupation Tax Act, and Section 3 of the
20Retailers' Occupation Tax Act into the McCormick Place
21Expansion Project Fund in the specified fiscal years.
22Fiscal YearTotal Deposit
231993 $0
241994 53,000,000
251995 58,000,000

09800SB2640ham001- 535 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
11996 61,000,000
21997 64,000,000
31998 68,000,000
41999 71,000,000
52000 75,000,000
62001 80,000,000
72002 93,000,000
82003 99,000,000
92004103,000,000
102005108,000,000
112006113,000,000
122007119,000,000
132008126,000,000
142009132,000,000
152010139,000,000
162011146,000,000
172012153,000,000
182013161,000,000
192014170,000,000
202015179,000,000
212016189,000,000
222017199,000,000
232018210,000,000
242019221,000,000
252020233,000,000
262021246,000,000

09800SB2640ham001- 536 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
12022260,000,000
22023275,000,000
32024 275,000,000
42025 275,000,000
52026 279,000,000
62027 292,000,000
72028 307,000,000
82029 322,000,000
92030 338,000,000
102031 350,000,000
112032 350,000,000
12and
13each fiscal year
14thereafter that bonds
15are outstanding under
16Section 13.2 of the
17Metropolitan Pier and
18Exposition Authority Act,
19but not after fiscal year 2060.
20 Beginning July 20, 1993 and in each month of each fiscal
21year thereafter, one-eighth of the amount requested in the
22certificate of the Chairman of the Metropolitan Pier and
23Exposition Authority for that fiscal year, less the amount
24deposited into the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund by
25the State Treasurer in the respective month under subsection
26(g) of Section 13 of the Metropolitan Pier and Exposition

09800SB2640ham001- 537 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1Authority Act, plus cumulative deficiencies in the deposits
2required under this Section for previous months and years,
3shall be deposited into the McCormick Place Expansion Project
4Fund, until the full amount requested for the fiscal year, but
5not in excess of the amount specified above as "Total Deposit",
6has been deposited.
7 Subject to payment of amounts into the Build Illinois Fund
8and the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund pursuant to the
9preceding paragraphs or in any amendments thereto hereafter
10enacted, beginning July 1, 1993 and ending on September 30,
112013, the Department shall each month pay into the Illinois Tax
12Increment Fund 0.27% of 80% of the net revenue realized for the
13preceding month from the 6.25% general rate on the selling
14price of tangible personal property.
15 Subject to payment of amounts into the Build Illinois Fund
16and the McCormick Place Expansion Project Fund pursuant to the
17preceding paragraphs or in any amendments thereto hereafter
18enacted, beginning with the receipt of the first report of
19taxes paid by an eligible business and continuing for a 25-year
20period, the Department shall each month pay into the Energy
21Infrastructure Fund 80% of the net revenue realized from the
226.25% general rate on the selling price of Illinois-mined coal
23that was sold to an eligible business. For purposes of this
24paragraph, the term "eligible business" means a new electric
25generating facility certified pursuant to Section 605-332 of
26the Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity Law of the

09800SB2640ham001- 538 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.
2 Of the remainder of the moneys received by the Department
3pursuant to this Act, 75% thereof shall be paid into the State
4Treasury and 25% shall be reserved in a special account and
5used only for the transfer to the Common School Fund as part of
6the monthly transfer from the General Revenue Fund in
7accordance with Section 8a of the State Finance Act.
8 The Department may, upon separate written notice to a
9taxpayer, require the taxpayer to prepare and file with the
10Department on a form prescribed by the Department within not
11less than 60 days after receipt of the notice an annual
12information return for the tax year specified in the notice.
13Such annual return to the Department shall include a statement
14of gross receipts as shown by the retailer's last Federal
15income tax return. If the total receipts of the business as
16reported in the Federal income tax return do not agree with the
17gross receipts reported to the Department of Revenue for the
18same period, the retailer shall attach to his annual return a
19schedule showing a reconciliation of the 2 amounts and the
20reasons for the difference. The retailer's annual return to the
21Department shall also disclose the cost of goods sold by the
22retailer during the year covered by such return, opening and
23closing inventories of such goods for such year, costs of goods
24used from stock or taken from stock and given away by the
25retailer during such year, payroll information of the
26retailer's business during such year and any additional

09800SB2640ham001- 539 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1reasonable information which the Department deems would be
2helpful in determining the accuracy of the monthly, quarterly
3or annual returns filed by such retailer as provided for in
4this Section.
5 If the annual information return required by this Section
6is not filed when and as required, the taxpayer shall be liable
7as follows:
8 (i) Until January 1, 1994, the taxpayer shall be liable
9 for a penalty equal to 1/6 of 1% of the tax due from such
10 taxpayer under this Act during the period to be covered by
11 the annual return for each month or fraction of a month
12 until such return is filed as required, the penalty to be
13 assessed and collected in the same manner as any other
14 penalty provided for in this Act.
15 (ii) On and after January 1, 1994, the taxpayer shall
16 be liable for a penalty as described in Section 3-4 of the
17 Uniform Penalty and Interest Act.
18 The chief executive officer, proprietor, owner or highest
19ranking manager shall sign the annual return to certify the
20accuracy of the information contained therein. Any person who
21willfully signs the annual return containing false or
22inaccurate information shall be guilty of perjury and punished
23accordingly. The annual return form prescribed by the
24Department shall include a warning that the person signing the
25return may be liable for perjury.
26 The provisions of this Section concerning the filing of an

09800SB2640ham001- 540 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1annual information return do not apply to a retailer who is not
2required to file an income tax return with the United States
3Government.
4 As soon as possible after the first day of each month, upon
5certification of the Department of Revenue, the Comptroller
6shall order transferred and the Treasurer shall transfer from
7the General Revenue Fund to the Motor Fuel Tax Fund an amount
8equal to 1.7% of 80% of the net revenue realized under this Act
9for the second preceding month. Beginning April 1, 2000, this
10transfer is no longer required and shall not be made.
11 Net revenue realized for a month shall be the revenue
12collected by the State pursuant to this Act, less the amount
13paid out during that month as refunds to taxpayers for
14overpayment of liability.
15 For greater simplicity of administration, manufacturers,
16importers and wholesalers whose products are sold at retail in
17Illinois by numerous retailers, and who wish to do so, may
18assume the responsibility for accounting and paying to the
19Department all tax accruing under this Act with respect to such
20sales, if the retailers who are affected do not make written
21objection to the Department to this arrangement.
22 Any person who promotes, organizes, provides retail
23selling space for concessionaires or other types of sellers at
24the Illinois State Fair, DuQuoin State Fair, county fairs,
25local fairs, art shows, flea markets and similar exhibitions or
26events, including any transient merchant as defined by Section

09800SB2640ham001- 541 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
12 of the Transient Merchant Act of 1987, is required to file a
2report with the Department providing the name of the merchant's
3business, the name of the person or persons engaged in
4merchant's business, the permanent address and Illinois
5Retailers Occupation Tax Registration Number of the merchant,
6the dates and location of the event and other reasonable
7information that the Department may require. The report must be
8filed not later than the 20th day of the month next following
9the month during which the event with retail sales was held.
10Any person who fails to file a report required by this Section
11commits a business offense and is subject to a fine not to
12exceed $250.
13 Any person engaged in the business of selling tangible
14personal property at retail as a concessionaire or other type
15of seller at the Illinois State Fair, county fairs, art shows,
16flea markets and similar exhibitions or events, or any
17transient merchants, as defined by Section 2 of the Transient
18Merchant Act of 1987, may be required to make a daily report of
19the amount of such sales to the Department and to make a daily
20payment of the full amount of tax due. The Department shall
21impose this requirement when it finds that there is a
22significant risk of loss of revenue to the State at such an
23exhibition or event. Such a finding shall be based on evidence
24that a substantial number of concessionaires or other sellers
25who are not residents of Illinois will be engaging in the
26business of selling tangible personal property at retail at the

09800SB2640ham001- 542 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1exhibition or event, or other evidence of a significant risk of
2loss of revenue to the State. The Department shall notify
3concessionaires and other sellers affected by the imposition of
4this requirement. In the absence of notification by the
5Department, the concessionaires and other sellers shall file
6their returns as otherwise required in this Section.
7(Source: P.A. 97-95, eff. 7-12-11; 97-333, eff. 8-12-11; 98-24,
8eff. 6-19-13; 98-109, eff. 7-25-13; 98-496, eff. 1-1-14;
9revised 9-9-13.)
10 Section 195. The Property Tax Code is amended by changing
11Sections 9-275 and 15-170 as follows:
12 (35 ILCS 200/9-275)
13 Sec. 9-275. Erroneous homestead exemptions.
14 (a) For purposes of this Section:
15 "Erroneous homestead exemption" means a homestead
16exemption that was granted for real property in a taxable year
17if the property was not eligible for that exemption in that
18taxable year. If the taxpayer receives an erroneous homestead
19exemption under a single Section of this Code for the same
20property in multiple years, that exemption is considered a
21single erroneous homestead exemption for purposes of this
22Section. However, if the taxpayer receives erroneous homestead
23exemptions under multiple Sections of this Code for the same
24property, or if the taxpayer receives erroneous homestead

09800SB2640ham001- 543 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1exemptions under the same Section of this Code for multiple
2properties, then each of those exemptions is considered a
3separate erroneous homestead exemption for purposes of this
4Section.
5 "Homestead exemption" means an exemption under Section
615-165 (disabled veterans), 15-167 (returning veterans),
715-168 (disabled persons), 15-169 (disabled veterans standard
8homestead), 15-170 (senior citizens), 15-172 (senior citizens
9assessment freeze), 15-175 (general homestead), 15-176
10(alternative general homestead), or 15-177 (long-time
11occupant).
12 (b) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, in counties
13with 3,000,000 or more inhabitants, the chief county assessment
14officer shall include the following information with each
15assessment notice sent in a general assessment year: (1) a list
16of each homestead exemption available under Article 15 of this
17Code and a description of the eligibility criteria for that
18exemption; (2) a list of each homestead exemption applied to
19the property in the current assessment year; (3) information
20regarding penalties and interest that may be incurred under
21this Section if the property owner received an erroneous
22homestead exemption in a previous taxable year; and (4) notice
23of the 60-day grace period available under this subsection. If,
24within 60 days after receiving his or her assessment notice,
25the property owner notifies the chief county assessment officer
26that he or she received an erroneous homestead exemption in a

09800SB2640ham001- 544 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1previous assessment year, and if the property owner pays the
2principal amount of back taxes due and owing with respect to
3that exemption, plus interest as provided in subsection (f),
4then the property owner shall not be liable for the penalties
5provided in subsection (f) with respect to that exemption.
6 (c) The chief county assessment officer in a county with
73,000,000 or more inhabitants may cause a lien to be recorded
8against property that (1) is located in the county and (2)
9received one or more erroneous homestead exemptions if, upon
10determination of the chief county assessment officer, the
11property owner received: (A) one or 2 erroneous homestead
12exemptions for real property, including at least one erroneous
13homestead exemption granted for the property against which the
14lien is sought, during any of the 3 assessment years
15immediately prior to the assessment year in which the notice of
16intent to record at tax lien is served; or (B) (2) 3 or more
17erroneous homestead exemptions for real property, including at
18least one erroneous homestead exemption granted for the
19property against which the lien is sought, during any of the 6
20assessment years immediately prior to the assessment year in
21which the notice of intent to record at tax lien is served.
22Prior to recording the lien against the property, the chief
23county assessment officer shall cause to be served, by both
24regular mail and certified mail, return receipt requested, on
25the person to whom the most recent tax bill was mailed and the
26owner of record, a notice of intent to record a tax lien

09800SB2640ham001- 545 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1against the property.
2 (d) The notice of intent to record a tax lien described in
3subsection (c) shall: (1) identify, by property index number,
4the property against which the lien is being sought; (2)
5identify each specific homestead exemption that was
6erroneously granted and the year or years in which each
7exemption was granted; (3) set forth the arrearage of taxes
8that would have been due if not for the erroneous homestead
9exemptions; (4) inform the property owner that he or she may
10request a hearing within 30 days after service and may appeal
11the hearing officer's ruling to the circuit court; and (5)
12inform the property owner that he or she may pay the amount
13due, plus interest and penalties, within 30 days after service.
14 (e) The notice must also include a form that the property
15owner may return to the chief county assessment officer to
16request a hearing. The property owner may request a hearing by
17returning the form within 30 days after service. The hearing
18shall be held within 90 days after the property owner is
19served. The chief county assessment officer shall promulgate
20rules of service and procedure for the hearing. The chief
21county assessment officer must generally follow rules of
22evidence and practices that prevail in the county circuit
23courts, but, because of the nature of these proceedings, the
24chief county assessment officer is not bound by those rules in
25all particulars. The chief county assessment officer shall
26appoint a hearing officer to oversee the hearing. The property

09800SB2640ham001- 546 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1owner shall be allowed to present evidence to the hearing
2officer at the hearing. After taking into consideration all the
3relevant testimony and evidence, the hearing officer shall make
4an administrative decision on whether the property owner was
5erroneously granted a homestead exemption for the assessment
6year in question. The property owner may appeal the hearing
7officer's ruling to the circuit court of the county where the
8property is located as a final administrative decision under
9the Administrative Review Law.
10 (f) A lien against the property imposed under this Section
11shall be filed with the county recorder of deeds, but may not
12be filed sooner than 60 days after the notice was delivered to
13the property owner if the property owner does not request a
14hearing, or until the conclusion of the hearing and all appeals
15if the property owner does request a hearing. If a lien is
16filed pursuant to this Section and the property owner received
17one or 2 erroneous homestead exemptions during any of the 3
18assessment years immediately prior to the assessment year in
19which the notice of intent to record at tax lien is served,
20then the arrearages of taxes that might have been assessed for
21that property, plus 10% interest per annum, shall be charged
22against the property by the county treasurer. However, if a
23lien is filed pursuant to this Section and the property owner
24received 3 or more erroneous homestead exemptions during any of
25the 6 assessment years immediately prior to the assessment year
26in which the notice of intent to record at tax lien is served,

09800SB2640ham001- 547 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1the arrearages of taxes that might have been assessed for that
2property, plus a penalty of 50% of the total amount of unpaid
3taxes for each year for that property and 10% interest per
4annum, shall be charged against the property by the county
5treasurer.
6 (g) If a person received an erroneous homestead exemption
7under Section 15-170 and: (1) the person was the spouse, child,
8grandchild, brother, sister, niece, or nephew of the previous
9owner; and (2) the person received the property by bequest or
10inheritance; then the person is not liable for the penalties
11imposed under this subsection for any year or years during
12which the county did not require an annual application for the
13exemption. However, that person is responsible for any interest
14owed under subsection (f).
15 (h) If the erroneous homestead exemption was granted as a
16result of a clerical error or omission on the part of the chief
17county assessment officer, and if the owner has paid its tax
18bills as received for the year in which the error occurred,
19then the interest and penalties authorized by this Section with
20respect to that homestead exemption shall not be chargeable to
21the owner. However, nothing in this Section shall prevent the
22collection of the principal amount of back taxes due and owing.
23 (i) A lien under this Section is not valid as to (1) any
24bona fide purchaser for value without notice of the erroneous
25homestead exemption whose rights in and to the underlying
26parcel arose after the erroneous homestead exemption was

09800SB2640ham001- 548 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1granted but before the filing of the notice of lien; or (2) any
2mortgagee, judgment creditor, or other lienor whose rights in
3and to the underlying parcel arose before the filing of the
4notice of lien. A title insurance policy for the property that
5is issued by a title company licensed to do business in the
6State showing that the property is free and clear of any liens
7imposed under this Section shall be prima facie evidence that
8the property owner is without notice of the erroneous homestead
9exemption. Nothing in this Section shall be deemed to impair
10the rights of subsequent creditors and subsequent purchasers
11under Section 30 of the Conveyances Act.
12 (j) When a lien is filed against the property pursuant to
13this Section, the chief county assessment officer shall mail a
14copy of the lien to the person to whom the most recent tax bill
15was mailed and to the owner of record, and the outstanding
16liability created by such a lien is due and payable within 30
17days after the mailing of the lien by the chief county
18assessment officer. Payment shall be made to the chief county
19assessment officer who shall, upon receipt of the full amount
20due, provide in reasonable form a release of the lien and shall
21transmit the funds received to the county treasurer for
22distribution as provided in subsection (i) of this Section.
23This liability is deemed delinquent and shall bear interest
24beginning on the day after the due date.
25 (k) The unpaid taxes shall be paid to the appropriate
26taxing districts. Interest shall be paid to the county where

09800SB2640ham001- 549 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1the property is located. The penalty shall be paid to the chief
2county assessment officer's office for the administration of
3the provisions of this amendatory Act of the 98th General
4Assembly.
5 (l) The chief county assessment officer in a county with
63,000,000 or more inhabitants shall establish an amnesty period
7for all taxpayers owing any tax due to an erroneous homestead
8exemption granted in a tax year prior to the 2013 tax year. The
9amnesty period shall begin on the effective date of this
10amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly and shall run
11through December 31, 2013. If, during the amnesty period, the
12taxpayer pays the entire arrearage of taxes due for tax years
13prior to 2013, the county clerk shall abate and not seek to
14collect any interest or penalties that may be applicable and
15shall not seek civil or criminal prosecution for any taxpayer
16for tax years prior to 2013. Failure to pay all such taxes due
17during the amnesty period established under this Section shall
18invalidate the amnesty period for that taxpayer.
19 The chief county assessment officer in a county with
203,000,000 or more inhabitants shall (i) mail notice of the
21amnesty period with the tax bills for the second installment of
22taxes for the 2012 assessment year and (ii) as soon as possible
23after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 98th
24General Assembly, publish notice of the amnesty period in a
25newspaper of general circulation in the county. Notices shall
26include information on the amnesty period, its purpose, and the

09800SB2640ham001- 550 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1method in which to make payment.
2 Taxpayers who are a party to any criminal investigation or
3to any civil or criminal litigation that is pending in any
4circuit court or appellate court, or in the Supreme Court of
5this State, for nonpayment, delinquency, or fraud in relation
6to any property tax imposed by any taxing district located in
7the State on the effective date of this amendatory Act of the
898th General Assembly may not take advantage of the amnesty
9period.
10 A taxpayer who has claimed 3 or more homestead exemptions
11in error shall not be eligible for the amnesty period
12established under this subsection.
13(Source: P.A. 98-93, eff. 7-16-13; revised 9-11-13.)
14 (35 ILCS 200/15-170)
15 Sec. 15-170. Senior Citizens Homestead Exemption. An
16annual homestead exemption limited, except as described here
17with relation to cooperatives or life care facilities, to a
18maximum reduction set forth below from the property's value, as
19equalized or assessed by the Department, is granted for
20property that is occupied as a residence by a person 65 years
21of age or older who is liable for paying real estate taxes on
22the property and is an owner of record of the property or has a
23legal or equitable interest therein as evidenced by a written
24instrument, except for a leasehold interest, other than a
25leasehold interest of land on which a single family residence

09800SB2640ham001- 551 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1is located, which is occupied as a residence by a person 65
2years or older who has an ownership interest therein, legal,
3equitable or as a lessee, and on which he or she is liable for
4the payment of property taxes. Before taxable year 2004, the
5maximum reduction shall be $2,500 in counties with 3,000,000 or
6more inhabitants and $2,000 in all other counties. For taxable
7years 2004 through 2005, the maximum reduction shall be $3,000
8in all counties. For taxable years 2006 and 2007, the maximum
9reduction shall be $3,500. For taxable years 2008 through 2011,
10the maximum reduction is $4,000 in all counties. For taxable
11year 2012, the maximum reduction is $5,000 in counties with
123,000,000 or more inhabitants and $4,000 in all other counties.
13For taxable years 2013 and thereafter, the maximum reduction is
14$5,000 in all counties.
15 For land improved with an apartment building owned and
16operated as a cooperative, the maximum reduction from the value
17of the property, as equalized by the Department, shall be
18multiplied by the number of apartments or units occupied by a
19person 65 years of age or older who is liable, by contract with
20the owner or owners of record, for paying property taxes on the
21property and is an owner of record of a legal or equitable
22interest in the cooperative apartment building, other than a
23leasehold interest. For land improved with a life care
24facility, the maximum reduction from the value of the property,
25as equalized by the Department, shall be multiplied by the
26number of apartments or units occupied by persons 65 years of

09800SB2640ham001- 552 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1age or older, irrespective of any legal, equitable, or
2leasehold interest in the facility, who are liable, under a
3contract with the owner or owners of record of the facility,
4for paying property taxes on the property. In a cooperative or
5a life care facility where a homestead exemption has been
6granted, the cooperative association or the management firm of
7the cooperative or facility shall credit the savings resulting
8from that exemption only to the apportioned tax liability of
9the owner or resident who qualified for the exemption. Any
10person who willfully refuses to so credit the savings shall be
11guilty of a Class B misdemeanor. Under this Section and
12Sections 15-175, 15-176, and 15-177, "life care facility" means
13a facility, as defined in Section 2 of the Life Care Facilities
14Act, with which the applicant for the homestead exemption has a
15life care contract as defined in that Act.
16 When a homestead exemption has been granted under this
17Section and the person qualifying subsequently becomes a
18resident of a facility licensed under the Assisted Living and
19Shared Housing Act, the Nursing Home Care Act, the Specialized
20Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, or the ID/DD
21Community Care Act, the exemption shall continue so long as the
22residence continues to be occupied by the qualifying person's
23spouse if the spouse is 65 years of age or older, or if the
24residence remains unoccupied but is still owned by the person
25qualified for the homestead exemption.
26 A person who will be 65 years of age during the current

09800SB2640ham001- 553 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1assessment year shall be eligible to apply for the homestead
2exemption during that assessment year. Application shall be
3made during the application period in effect for the county of
4his residence.
5 Beginning with assessment year 2003, for taxes payable in
62004, property that is first occupied as a residence after
7January 1 of any assessment year by a person who is eligible
8for the senior citizens homestead exemption under this Section
9must be granted a pro-rata exemption for the assessment year.
10The amount of the pro-rata exemption is the exemption allowed
11in the county under this Section divided by 365 and multiplied
12by the number of days during the assessment year the property
13is occupied as a residence by a person eligible for the
14exemption under this Section. The chief county assessment
15officer must adopt reasonable procedures to establish
16eligibility for this pro-rata exemption.
17 The assessor or chief county assessment officer may
18determine the eligibility of a life care facility to receive
19the benefits provided by this Section, by affidavit,
20application, visual inspection, questionnaire or other
21reasonable methods in order to insure that the tax savings
22resulting from the exemption are credited by the management
23firm to the apportioned tax liability of each qualifying
24resident. The assessor may request reasonable proof that the
25management firm has so credited the exemption.
26 The chief county assessment officer of each county with

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1less than 3,000,000 inhabitants shall provide to each person
2allowed a homestead exemption under this Section a form to
3designate any other person to receive a duplicate of any notice
4of delinquency in the payment of taxes assessed and levied
5under this Code on the property of the person receiving the
6exemption. The duplicate notice shall be in addition to the
7notice required to be provided to the person receiving the
8exemption, and shall be given in the manner required by this
9Code. The person filing the request for the duplicate notice
10shall pay a fee of $5 to cover administrative costs to the
11supervisor of assessments, who shall then file the executed
12designation with the county collector. Notwithstanding any
13other provision of this Code to the contrary, the filing of
14such an executed designation requires the county collector to
15provide duplicate notices as indicated by the designation. A
16designation may be rescinded by the person who executed such
17designation at any time, in the manner and form required by the
18chief county assessment officer.
19 The assessor or chief county assessment officer may
20determine the eligibility of residential property to receive
21the homestead exemption provided by this Section by
22application, visual inspection, questionnaire or other
23reasonable methods. The determination shall be made in
24accordance with guidelines established by the Department.
25 In counties with 3,000,000 or more inhabitants, beginning
26in taxable year 2010, each taxpayer who has been granted an

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1exemption under this Section must reapply on an annual basis.
2The chief county assessment officer shall mail the application
3to the taxpayer. In counties with less than 3,000,000
4inhabitants, the county board may by resolution provide that if
5a person has been granted a homestead exemption under this
6Section, the person qualifying need not reapply for the
7exemption.
8 In counties with less than 3,000,000 inhabitants, if the
9assessor or chief county assessment officer requires annual
10application for verification of eligibility for an exemption
11once granted under this Section, the application shall be
12mailed to the taxpayer.
13 The assessor or chief county assessment officer shall
14notify each person who qualifies for an exemption under this
15Section that the person may also qualify for deferral of real
16estate taxes under the Senior Citizens Real Estate Tax Deferral
17Act. The notice shall set forth the qualifications needed for
18deferral of real estate taxes, the address and telephone number
19of county collector, and a statement that applications for
20deferral of real estate taxes may be obtained from the county
21collector.
22 Notwithstanding Sections 6 and 8 of the State Mandates Act,
23no reimbursement by the State is required for the
24implementation of any mandate created by this Section.
25(Source: P.A. 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-813,
26eff. 7-13-12; 98-7, eff. 4-23-13; 98-104, eff. 7-22-13; revised

09800SB2640ham001- 556 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
18-12-13.)
2 Section 200. The Illinois Hydraulic Fracturing Tax Act is
3amended by changing Sections 2-15, 2-45, and 2-50 as follows:
4 (35 ILCS 450/2-15)
5 Sec. 2-15. Tax imposed.
6 (a) For oil and gas removed on or after July 1, 2013, there
7is hereby imposed a tax upon the severance and production of
8oil or gas from a well on a production unit in this State
9permitted, or required to be permitted, under the Illinois
10Hydraulic Fracturing Regulatory Act, for sale, transport,
11storage, profit, or commercial use. The tax shall be applied
12equally to all portions of the value of each barrel of oil
13severed and subject to such tax and to the value of the gas
14severed and subject to such tax. For a period of 24 months from
15the month in which oil or gas was first produced from the well,
16the rate of tax shall be 3% of the value of the oil or gas
17severed from the earth or water in this State. Thereafter, the
18rate of the tax shall be as follows:
19 (1) For oil:
20 (A) where the average daily production from the
21 well during the month is less than 25 barrels, 3% of
22 the value of the oil severed from the earth or water;
23 (B) where the average daily production from the
24 well during the month is 25 or more barrels but less

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1 than 50 barrels, 4% of the value of the oil severed
2 from the earth or water;
3 (C) where the average daily production from the
4 well during the month is 50 or more barrels but less
5 than 100 barrels, 5% of the value of the oil severed
6 from the earth or water; or
7 (D) where the average daily production from the
8 well during the month is 100 or more barrels, 6% of the
9 value of the oil severed from the earth or water.
10 (2) For gas, 6% of the value of the gas severed from
11 the earth or water.
12 If a well is required to be permitted under the Illinois
13Hydraulic Fracturing Regulatory Act, the tax imposed by this
14Section applies, whether or not a permit was obtained.
15 (b) Oil produced from a well whose average daily production
16is 15 barrels or less for the 12-month period immediately
17preceding the production is exempt from the tax imposed by this
18Act.
19 (c) For the purposes of the tax imposed by this Act the
20amount of oil produced shall be measured or determined, in the
21case of oil, by tank tables, without deduction for overage or
22losses in handling. Allowance for any reasonable and bona fide
23deduction for basic sediment and water, and for correction of
24temperature to 60 degrees Fahrenheit will be allowed. For the
25purposes of the tax imposed by this Act the amount of gas
26produced shall be measured or determined, by meter readings

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1showing 100% of the full volume expressed in cubic feet at a
2standard base and flowing temperature of 60 degrees Fahrenheit,
3and at the absolute pressure at which the gas is sold and
4purchased. Correction shall be made for pressure according to
5Boyle's law, and used for specific gravity according to the
6gravity at which the gas is sold and purchased.
7 (d) The following severance and production of gas shall be
8exempt from the tax imposed by this Act: gas injected into the
9earth for the purpose of lifting oil, recycling, or
10repressuring; gas used for fuel in connection with the
11operation and development for, or production of, oil or gas in
12the production unit where severed; and gas lawfully vented or
13flared; gas inadvertently lost on the production unit by reason
14of leaks, blowouts, or other accidental losses.
15 (e) All oil and gas removed from the premises where severed
16is subject to the tax imposed by this Act unless exempt under
17the terms of this Act.
18 (f) The liability for the tax accrues at the time the oil
19or gas is removed from the production unit.
20(Source: P.A. 98-22, eff. 6-17-13; revised 10-7-13.)
21 (35 ILCS 450/2-45)
22 Sec. 2-45. Purchaser's return and tax remittance. Each
23purchaser shall make a return to the Department showing the
24quantity of oil or gas purchased during the month for which the
25return is filed, the price paid therefor therefore, total

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1value, the name and address of the operator or other person
2from whom the same was purchased, a description of the
3production unit in the manner prescribed by the Department from
4which such oil or gas was severed and the amount of tax due
5from each production unit for each calendar month. All taxes
6due, or to be remitted, by the purchaser shall accompany this
7return. The return shall be filed on or before the last day of
8the month after the calendar month for which the return is
9required. The Department shall forward the necessary
10information to each Chief County Assessment Officer for the
11administration and application of ad valorem real property
12taxes at the county level. This information shall be forwarded
13to the Chief County Assessment Officers in a yearly summary
14before March 1 of the following calendar year. The Department
15may require any additional report or information it may deem
16necessary for the proper administration of this Act.
17 Such returns shall be filed electronically in the manner
18prescribed by the Department. Purchasers shall make all
19payments of that tax to the Department by electronic funds
20transfer unless, as provided by rule, the Department grants an
21exception upon petition of a purchaser. Purchasers' returns
22must be accompanied by appropriate computer generated magnetic
23media supporting schedule data in the format required by the
24Department, unless, as provided by rule, the Department grants
25an exception upon petition of a purchaser.
26(Source: P.A. 98-22, eff. 6-17-13; 98-23, eff. 6-17-13; revised

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110-7-13.)
2 (35 ILCS 450/2-50)
3 Sec. 2-50. Operator returns; payment of tax.
4 (a) If, on or after July 1, 2013, oil or gas is transported
5off the production unit where severed by the operator, used on
6the production unit where severed, or if the manufacture and
7conversion of oil and gas into refined products occurs on the
8production unit where severed, the operator is responsible for
9remitting the tax imposed under subsection subsections (a) of
10Section 2-15 15, on or before the last day of the month
11following the end of the calendar month in which the oil and
12gas is removed from the production unit, and such payment shall
13be accompanied by a return to the Department showing the gross
14quantity of oil or gas removed during the month for which the
15return is filed, the price paid therefor therefore, and if no
16price is paid therefor therefore, the value of the oil and gas,
17a description of the production unit from which such oil or gas
18was severed, and the amount of tax. The Department may require
19any additional information it may deem necessary for the proper
20administration of this Act.
21 (b) Operators shall file all returns electronically in the
22manner prescribed by the Department unless, as provided by
23rule, the Department grants an exception upon petition of an
24operator. Operators shall make all payments of that tax to the
25Department by electronic funds transfer unless, as provided by

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1rule, the Department grants an exception upon petition of an
2operator. Operators' returns must be accompanied by
3appropriate computer generated magnetic media supporting
4schedule data in the format required by the Department, unless,
5as provided by rule, the Department grants an exception upon
6petition of a purchaser.
7 (c) Any operator who makes a monetary payment to a producer
8for his or her portion of the value of products from a
9production unit shall withhold from such payment the amount of
10tax due from the producer. Any operator who pays any tax due
11from a producer shall be entitled to reimbursement from the
12producer for the tax so paid and may take credit for such
13amount from any monetary payment to the producer for the value
14of products. To the extent that an operator required to collect
15the tax imposed by this Act has actually collected that tax,
16such tax is held in trust for the benefit of the State of
17Illinois.
18 (d) In the event the operator fails to make payment of the
19tax to the State as required herein, the operator shall be
20liable for the tax. A producer shall be entitled to bring an
21action against such operator to recover the amount of tax so
22withheld together with penalties and interest which may have
23accrued by failure to make such payment. A producer shall be
24entitled to all attorney fees and court costs incurred in such
25action. To the extent that a producer liable for the tax
26imposed by this Act collects the tax, and any penalties and

09800SB2640ham001- 562 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1interest, from an operator, such tax, penalties, and interest
2are held in trust by the producer for the benefit of the State
3of Illinois.
4 (e) When the title to any oil or gas severed from the earth
5or water is in dispute and the operator of such oil or gas is
6withholding payments on account of litigation, or for any other
7reason, such operator is hereby authorized, empowered and
8required to deduct from the gross amount thus held the amount
9of the tax imposed and to make remittance thereof to the
10Department as provided in this Section.
11 (f) An operator required to file a return and pay the tax
12under this Section shall register with the Department.
13Application for a certificate of registration shall be made to
14the Department upon forms furnished by the Department and shall
15contain any reasonable information the Department may require.
16Upon receipt of the application for a certificate of
17registration in proper form, the Department shall issue to the
18applicant a certificate of registration.
19 (g) If oil or gas is transported off the production unit
20where severed by the operator and sold to a purchaser or
21refiner, the State shall have a lien on all the oil or gas
22severed from the production unit in this State in the hands of
23the operator, the first or any subsequent purchaser thereof, or
24refiner to secure the payment of the tax. If a lien is filed by
25the Department, the purchaser or refiner shall withhold from
26the operator the amount of tax, penalty and interest identified

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1in the lien.
2(Source: P.A. 98-22, eff. 6-17-13; revised 10-7-13.)
3 Section 205. The Motor Fuel Tax Law is amended by changing
4Sections 1 and 1.13A as follows:
5 (35 ILCS 505/1) (from Ch. 120, par. 417)
6 Sec. 1. For the purposes of this Act the terms set out in
7the Sections following this Section and preceding Section 2
8Sections 1.1 through 1.21 have the meanings ascribed to them in
9those Sections.
10(Source: P.A. 86-16; 86-1028; revised 10-7-13.)
11 (35 ILCS 505/1.13A) (from Ch. 120, par. 417.13A)
12 Sec. 1.13A. "1-K Kerosene" means a special low-sulfur grade
13kerosene suitable for use in non-flue connected kerosene burner
14appliances, and in wick-fed illuminate lamps which has a
15maximum limit of .04% sulfur mass, and a freezing point of -22
16degrees Fahrenheit, and has a minimum saybolt color of +16. For
17purposes of this Law, 1-K Kerosene includes 1-K Kerosene that
18has been dyed in accordance with Section 4d of this Law.
19(Source: P.A. 91-173, eff. 1-1-00; revised 11-12-13.)
20 Section 210. The Water Company Invested Capital Tax Act is
21amended by changing Section 14 as follows:

09800SB2640ham001- 564 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 (35 ILCS 625/14) (from Ch. 120, par. 1424)
2 Sec. 14. The Illinois Administrative Procedure Act, as now
3or hereafter amended, is hereby expressly adopted and shall
4apply to all administrative rules and procedures of the
5Department of Revenue under this Act, except that (1) paragraph
6(b) of Section 5-10 of the that Act does not apply to final
7orders, decisions and opinions of the Department; (2)
8subparagraph 2 of paragraph (a) of Section 5-10 of that Act
9does not apply to forms established by the Department for use
10under this Act; and (3) the provisions of Section 10-45 of that
11Act regarding proposals for decision are excluded and not
12applicable to the Department under this Act to the extent
13Section 10-45 applies to hearings not otherwise subject to the
14Illinois Independent Tax Tribunal Act of 2012.
15(Source: P.A. 97-1129, eff. 8-28-12; revised 10-17-13.)
16 Section 215. The Electricity Infrastructure Maintenance
17Fee Law is amended by changing Section 5-6 as follows:
18 (35 ILCS 645/5-6)
19 Sec. 5-6. Validity of existing franchise fees and
20agreement; police powers.
21 (a) On and after the effective date of this Law, no
22electricity deliverer paying an infrastructure maintenance fee
23imposed under this Law may be denied the right to use, directly
24or indirectly, public rights of way because of the failure to

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1pay any other fee or charge for the right to use those rights
2of way except to the extent that the electricity deliverer
3during the Initial Period fails under any existing franchise
4agreement to pay franchise fees which are based on the gross
5receipts or gross revenues attributable to non-residential
6customers or to provide free electrical service or other
7compensation attributable to non-residential customers. A
8municipality that imposes an infrastructure maintenance fee
9pursuant to Section 5-5 shall impose no other fees or charges
10upon electricity deliverers for such use except as provided by
11subsections (b) or (c) of this Section.
12 (b) Agreements between electricity deliverers and
13municipalities regarding use of the public way shall remain
14valid according to and for their stated terms. However, a
15municipality that, pursuant to a franchise agreement in
16existence on the effective date of this Law, receives any
17franchise fees, permit fees, free electrical service or other
18compensation for use of the public rights of way, may impose an
19infrastructure maintenance fee pursuant to this Law only if the
20municipality: (1) waives its right to receive all compensation
21from the electricity deliverer for use of the public rights of
22way during the time the infrastructure maintenance fee is
23imposed, except as provided in subsection (c), and except that
24during the Initial Period any municipality may continue to
25receive franchise fees, free electrical service or other
26compensation from the electricity deliverer which are equal in

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1value to the Initial Period Compensation; and (2) provides
2written notice of this waiver to the appropriate electricity
3deliverer at the time that the municipality provides notice of
4the imposition of the infrastructure maintenance fee under
5subsection (d) of Section 5-5. For purposes of this Section,
6"Initial Period Compensation" shall mean the total amount of
7compensation due under the existing franchise agreement during
8the Initial Period less the amount of the infrastructure
9maintenance fee imposed under this Section during the Initial
10Period.
11 (c) Nothing in this Law prohibits a municipality from the
12reasonable exercise of its police powers over the public rights
13of way. In addition, a municipality may require an electricity
14deliverer to reimburse any special or extraordinary expenses or
15costs reasonably incurred by the municipality as a direct
16result of damages to its property or public rights of way, such
17as the costs of restoration of streets damaged by an a
18electricity deliverer that does not make timely repair of the
19damage, or for the loss of revenue due to the inability to use
20public facilities as a direct result of the actions of the
21electricity deliverer, such as parking meters that are required
22to be removed because of work of an electricity deliverer.
23(Source: P.A. 90-561, eff. 8-1-98; revised 10-17-13.)
24 Section 220. The Illinois Pension Code is amended by
25changing Sections 4-114, 8-138, 9-102, 11-134, and 13-809 as

09800SB2640ham001- 567 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1follows:
2 (40 ILCS 5/4-114) (from Ch. 108 1/2, par. 4-114)
3 Sec. 4-114. Pension to survivors. If a firefighter who is
4not receiving a disability pension under Section 4-110 or
54-110.1 dies (1) as a result of any illness or accident, or (2)
6from any cause while in receipt of a disability pension under
7this Article, or (3) during retirement after 20 years service,
8or (4) while vested for or in receipt of a pension payable
9under subsection (b) of Section 4-109, or (5) while a deferred
10pensioner, having made all required contributions, a pension
11shall be paid to his or her survivors, based on the monthly
12salary attached to the firefighter's rank on the last day of
13service in the fire department, as follows:
14 (a)(1) To the surviving spouse, a monthly pension of
15 40% of the monthly salary, and if there is a surviving
16 spouse, to the guardian of any minor child or children
17 including a child which has been conceived but not yet
18 born, 12% of such monthly salary for each such child until
19 attainment of age 18 or until the child's marriage,
20 whichever occurs first. Beginning July 1, 1993, the monthly
21 pension to the surviving spouse shall be 54% of the monthly
22 salary for all persons receiving a surviving spouse pension
23 under this Article, regardless of whether the deceased
24 firefighter was in service on or after the effective date
25 of this amendatory Act of 1993.

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1 (2) Beginning July 1, 2004, unless the amount provided
2 under paragraph (1) of this subsection (a) is greater, the
3 total monthly pension payable under this paragraph (a),
4 including any amount payable on account of children, to the
5 surviving spouse of a firefighter who died (i) while
6 receiving a retirement pension, (ii) while he or she was a
7 deferred pensioner with at least 20 years of creditable
8 service, or (iii) while he or she was in active service
9 having at least 20 years of creditable service, regardless
10 of age, shall be no less than 100% of the monthly
11 retirement pension earned by the deceased firefighter at
12 the time of death, regardless of whether death occurs
13 before or after attainment of age 50, including any
14 increases under Section 4-109.1. This minimum applies to
15 all such surviving spouses who are eligible to receive a
16 surviving spouse pension, regardless of whether the
17 deceased firefighter was in service on or after the
18 effective date of this amendatory Act of the 93rd General
19 Assembly, and notwithstanding any limitation on maximum
20 pension under paragraph (d) or any other provision of this
21 Article.
22 (3) If the pension paid on and after July 1, 2004 to
23 the surviving spouse of a firefighter who died on or after
24 July 1, 2004 and before the effective date of this
25 amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly was less than
26 the minimum pension payable under paragraph (1) or (2) of

09800SB2640ham001- 569 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 this subsection (a), the fund shall pay a lump sum equal to
2 the difference within 90 days after the effective date of
3 this amendatory Act of the 93rd General Assembly.
4 The pension to the surviving spouse shall terminate in
5 the event of the surviving spouse's remarriage prior to
6 July 1, 1993; remarriage on or after that date does not
7 affect the surviving spouse's pension, regardless of
8 whether the deceased firefighter was in service on or after
9 the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1993.
10 The surviving spouse's pension shall be subject to the
11 minimum established in Section 4-109.2.
12 (b) Upon the death of the surviving spouse leaving one
13 or more minor children, or upon the death of a firefighter
14 leaving one or more minor children but no surviving spouse,
15 to the duly appointed guardian of each such child, for
16 support and maintenance of each such child until the child
17 reaches age 18 or marries, whichever occurs first, a
18 monthly pension of 20% of the monthly salary.
19 In a case where the deceased firefighter left one or
20 more minor children but no surviving spouse and the
21 guardian of a child is receiving a pension of 12% of the
22 monthly salary on August 16, 2013 (the effective date of
23 Public Act 98-391) this amendatory Act, the pension is
24 increased by Public Act 98-391 this amendatory Act to 20%
25 of the monthly salary for each such child, beginning on the
26 pension payment date occurring on or next following August

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1 16, 2013 the effective date of this amendatory Act. The
2 changes to this Section made by Public Act 98-391 this
3 amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly apply without
4 regard to whether the deceased firefighter was in service
5 on or after August 16, 2013 the effective date of this
6 amendatory Act.
7 (c) If a deceased firefighter leaves no surviving
8 spouse or unmarried minor children under age 18, but leaves
9 a dependent father or mother, to each dependent parent a
10 monthly pension of 18% of the monthly salary. To qualify
11 for the pension, a dependent parent must furnish
12 satisfactory proof that the deceased firefighter was at the
13 time of his or her death the sole supporter of the parent
14 or that the parent was the deceased's dependent for federal
15 income tax purposes.
16 (d) The total pension provided under paragraphs (a),
17 (b) and (c) of this Section shall not exceed 75% of the
18 monthly salary of the deceased firefighter (1) when paid to
19 the survivor of a firefighter who has attained 20 or more
20 years of service credit and who receives or is eligible to
21 receive a retirement pension under this Article, or (2)
22 when paid to the survivor of a firefighter who dies as a
23 result of illness or accident, or (3) when paid to the
24 survivor of a firefighter who dies from any cause while in
25 receipt of a disability pension under this Article, or (4)
26 when paid to the survivor of a deferred pensioner. For all

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1 other survivors of deceased firefighters, the total
2 pension provided under paragraphs (a), (b) and (c) of this
3 Section shall not exceed 50% of the retirement annuity the
4 firefighter would have received on the date of death.
5 The maximum pension limitations in this paragraph (d)
6 do not control over any contrary provision of this Article
7 explicitly establishing a minimum amount of pension or
8 granting a one-time or annual increase in pension.
9 (e) If a firefighter leaves no eligible survivors under
10 paragraphs (a), (b) and (c), the board shall refund to the
11 firefighter's estate the amount of his or her accumulated
12 contributions, less the amount of pension payments, if any,
13 made to the firefighter while living.
14 (f) (Blank).
15 (g) If a judgment of dissolution of marriage between a
16 firefighter and spouse is judicially set aside subsequent
17 to the firefighter's death, the surviving spouse is
18 eligible for the pension provided in paragraph (a) only if
19 the judicial proceedings are filed within 2 years after the
20 date of the dissolution of marriage and within one year
21 after the firefighter's death and the board is made a party
22 to the proceedings. In such case the pension shall be
23 payable only from the date of the court's order setting
24 aside the judgment of dissolution of marriage.
25 (h) Benefits payable on account of a child under this
26 Section shall not be reduced or terminated by reason of the

09800SB2640ham001- 572 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 child's attainment of age 18 if he or she is then dependent
2 by reason of a physical or mental disability but shall
3 continue to be paid as long as such dependency continues.
4 Individuals over the age of 18 and adjudged as a disabled
5 person pursuant to Article XIa of the Probate Act of 1975,
6 except for persons receiving benefits under Article III of
7 the Illinois Public Aid Code, shall be eligible to receive
8 benefits under this Act.
9 (i) Beginning January 1, 2000, the pension of the
10 surviving spouse of a firefighter who dies on or after
11 January 1, 1994 as a result of sickness, accident, or
12 injury incurred in or resulting from the performance of an
13 act of duty or from the cumulative effects of acts of duty
14 shall not be less than 100% of the salary attached to the
15 rank held by the deceased firefighter on the last day of
16 service, notwithstanding subsection (d) or any other
17 provision of this Article.
18 (j) Beginning July 1, 2004, the pension of the
19 surviving spouse of a firefighter who dies on or after
20 January 1, 1988 as a result of sickness, accident, or
21 injury incurred in or resulting from the performance of an
22 act of duty or from the cumulative effects of acts of duty
23 shall not be less than 100% of the salary attached to the
24 rank held by the deceased firefighter on the last day of
25 service, notwithstanding subsection (d) or any other
26 provision of this Article.

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1 Notwithstanding any other provision of this Article, if a
2person who first becomes a firefighter under this Article on or
3after January 1, 2011 and who is not receiving a disability
4pension under Section 4-110 or 4-110.1 dies (1) as a result of
5any illness or accident, (2) from any cause while in receipt of
6a disability pension under this Article, (3) during retirement
7after 20 years service, (4) while vested for or in receipt of a
8pension payable under subsection (b) of Section 4-109, or (5)
9while a deferred pensioner, having made all required
10contributions, then a pension shall be paid to his or her
11survivors in the amount of 66 2/3% of the firefighter's earned
12pension at the date of death. Nothing in this Section shall act
13to diminish the survivor's benefits described in subsection (j)
14of this Section.
15 Notwithstanding any other provision of this Article, the
16monthly pension of a survivor of a person who first becomes a
17firefighter under this Article on or after January 1, 2011
18shall be increased on the January 1 after attainment of age 60
19by the recipient of the survivor's pension and each January 1
20thereafter by 3% or one-half the annual unadjusted percentage
21increase in the consumer price index-u for the 12 months ending
22with the September preceding each November 1, whichever is
23less, of the originally granted survivor's pension. If the
24annual unadjusted percentage change in the consumer price
25index-u for a 12-month period ending in September is zero or,
26when compared with the preceding period, decreases, then the

09800SB2640ham001- 574 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1survivor's pension shall not be increased.
2 For the purposes of this Section, "consumer price index-u"
3means the index published by the Bureau of Labor Statistics of
4the United States Department of Labor that measures the average
5change in prices of goods and services purchased by all urban
6consumers, United States city average, all items, 1982-84 =
7100. The new amount resulting from each annual adjustment shall
8be determined by the Public Pension Division of the Department
9of Insurance and made available to the boards of the pension
10funds.
11(Source: P.A. 98-391, eff. 8-16-13; revised 10-7-13.)
12 (40 ILCS 5/8-138) (from Ch. 108 1/2, par. 8-138)
13 Sec. 8-138. Minimum annuities - Additional provisions.
14 (a) An employee who withdraws after age 65 or more with at
15least 20 years of service, for whom the amount of age and
16service and prior service annuity combined is less than the
17amount stated in this Section, shall from the date of
18withdrawal, instead of all annuities otherwise provided, be
19entitled to receive an annuity for life of $150 a year, plus 1
201/2% for each year of service, to and including 20 years, and 1
212/3% for each year of service over 20 years, of his highest
22average annual salary for any 4 consecutive years within the
23last 10 years of service immediately preceding the date of
24withdrawal.
25 An employee who withdraws after 20 or more years of

09800SB2640ham001- 575 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1service, before age 65, shall be entitled to such annuity, to
2begin not earlier than upon attained age of 55 years if under
3such age at withdrawal, reduced by 2% for each full year or
4fractional part thereof that his attained age is less than 65,
5plus an additional 2% reduction for each full year or
6fractional part thereof that his attained age when annuity is
7to begin is less than 60 so that the total reduction at age 55
8shall be 30%.
9 (b) An employee who withdraws after July 1, 1957, at age 60
10or over, with 20 or more years of service, for whom the age and
11service and prior service annuity combined, is less than the
12amount stated in this paragraph, shall, from the date of
13withdrawal, instead of such annuities, be entitled to receive
14an annuity for life equal to 1 2/3% for each year of service,
15of the highest average annual salary for any 5 consecutive
16years within the last 10 years of service immediately preceding
17the date of withdrawal; provided, that in the case of any
18employee who withdraws on or after July 1, 1971, such employee
19age 60 or over with 20 or more years of service, shall receive
20an annuity for life equal to 1.67% for each of the first 10
21years of service; 1.90% for each of the next 10 years of
22service; 2.10% for each year of service in excess of 20 but not
23exceeding 30; and 2.30% for each year of service in excess of
2430, based on the highest average annual salary for any 4
25consecutive years within the last 10 years of service
26immediately preceding the date of withdrawal.

09800SB2640ham001- 576 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 An employee who withdraws after July 1, 1957 and before
2January 1, 1988, with 20 or more years of service, before age
360 years is entitled to annuity, to begin not earlier than upon
4attained age of 55 years, if under such age at withdrawal, as
5computed in the last preceding paragraph, reduced 0.25% for
6each full month or fractional part thereof that his attained
7age when annuity is to begin is less than 60 if the employee
8was born before January 1, 1936, or 0.5% for each such month if
9the employee was born on or after January 1, 1936.
10 Any employee born before January 1, 1936, who withdraws
11with 20 or more years of service, and any employee with 20 or
12more years of service who withdraws on or after January 1,
131988, may elect to receive, in lieu of any other employee
14annuity provided in this Section, an annuity for life equal to
151.80% for each of the first 10 years of service, 2.00% for each
16of the next 10 years of service, 2.20% for each year of service
17in excess of 20 but not exceeding 30, and 2.40% for each year
18of service in excess of 30, of the highest average annual
19salary for any 4 consecutive years within the last 10 years of
20service immediately preceding the date of withdrawal, to begin
21not earlier than upon attained age of 55 years, if under such
22age at withdrawal, reduced 0.25% for each full month or
23fractional part thereof that his attained age when annuity is
24to begin is less than 60; except that an employee retiring on
25or after January 1, 1988, at age 55 or over but less than age
2660, having at least 35 years of service, or an employee

09800SB2640ham001- 577 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1retiring on or after July 1, 1990, at age 55 or over but less
2than age 60, having at least 30 years of service, or an
3employee retiring on or after the effective date of this
4amendatory Act of 1997, at age 55 or over but less than age 60,
5having at least 25 years of service, shall not be subject to
6the reduction in retirement annuity because of retirement below
7age 60.
8 However, in the case of an employee who retired on or after
9January 1, 1985 but before January 1, 1988, at age 55 or older
10and with at least 35 years of service, and who was subject
11under this subsection (b) to the reduction in retirement
12annuity because of retirement below age 60, that reduction
13shall cease to be effective January 1, 1991, and the retirement
14annuity shall be recalculated accordingly.
15 Any employee who withdraws on or after July 1, 1990, with
1620 or more years of service, may elect to receive, in lieu of
17any other employee annuity provided in this Section, an annuity
18for life equal to 2.20% for each year of service if withdrawal
19is before January 1, 2002, or 2.40% for each year of service if
20withdrawal is on or after January 1, 2002, of the highest
21average annual salary for any 4 consecutive years within the
22last 10 years of service immediately preceding the date of
23withdrawal, to begin not earlier than upon attained age of 55
24years, if under such age at withdrawal, reduced 0.25% for each
25full month or fractional part thereof that his attained age
26when annuity is to begin is less than 60; except that an

09800SB2640ham001- 578 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1employee retiring at age 55 or over but less than age 60,
2having at least 30 years of service, shall not be subject to
3the reduction in retirement annuity because of retirement below
4age 60.
5 Any employee who withdraws on or after the effective date
6of this amendatory Act of 1997 with 20 or more years of service
7may elect to receive, in lieu of any other employee annuity
8provided in this Section, an annuity for life equal to 2.20%
9for each year of service, if withdrawal is before January 1,
102002, or 2.40% for each year of service if withdrawal is on or
11after January 1, 2002, of the highest average annual salary for
12any 4 consecutive years within the last 10 years of service
13immediately preceding the date of withdrawal, to begin not
14earlier than upon attainment of age 55 (age 50 if the employee
15has at least 30 years of service), reduced 0.25% for each full
16month or remaining fractional part thereof that the employee's
17attained age when annuity is to begin is less than 60; except
18that an employee retiring at age 50 or over with at least 30
19years of service or at age 55 or over with at least 25 years of
20service shall not be subject to the reduction in retirement
21annuity because of retirement below age 60.
22 The maximum annuity payable under part (a) and (b) of this
23Section shall not exceed 70% of highest average annual salary
24in the case of an employee who withdraws prior to July 1, 1971,
2575% if withdrawal takes place on or after July 1, 1971 and
26prior to January 1, 2002, or 80% if withdrawal takes place on

09800SB2640ham001- 579 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1or after January 1, 2002. For the purpose of the minimum
2annuity provided in this Section $1,500 is considered the
3minimum annual salary for any year; and the maximum annual
4salary for the computation of such annuity is $4,800 for any
5year before 1953, $6000 for the years 1953 to 1956, inclusive,
6and the actual annual salary, as salary is defined in this
7Article, for any year thereafter.
8 To preserve rights existing on December 31, 1959, for
9participants and contributors on that date to the fund created
10by the Court and Law Department Employees' Annuity Act, who
11became participants in the fund provided for on January 1,
121960, the maximum annual salary to be considered for such
13persons for the years 1955 and 1956 is $7,500.
14 (c) For an employee receiving disability benefit, his
15salary for annuity purposes under paragraphs (a) and (b) of
16this Section, for all periods of disability benefit subsequent
17to the year 1956, is the amount on which his disability benefit
18was based.
19 (d) An employee with 20 or more years of service, whose
20entire disability benefit credit period expires before
21attainment of age 55 while still disabled for service, is
22entitled upon withdrawal to the larger of (1) the minimum
23annuity provided above, assuming he is then age 55, and
24reducing such annuity to its actuarial equivalent as of his
25attained age on such date or (2) the annuity provided from his
26age and service and prior service annuity credits.

09800SB2640ham001- 580 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 (e) The minimum annuity provisions do not apply to any
2former municipal employee receiving an annuity from the fund
3who re-enters service as a municipal employee, unless he
4renders at least 3 years of additional service after the date
5of re-entry.
6 (f) An employee in service on July 1, 1947, or who became a
7contributor after July 1, 1947 and before attainment of age 70,
8who withdraws after age 65, with less than 20 years of service
9for whom the annuity has been fixed under this Article shall,
10instead of the annuity so fixed, receive an annuity as follows:
11 Such amount as he could have received had the accumulated
12amounts for annuity been improved with interest at the
13effective rate to the date of his withdrawal, or to attainment
14of age 70, whichever is earlier, and had the city contributed
15to such earlier date for age and service annuity the amount
16that it would have contributed had he been under age 65, after
17the date his annuity was fixed in accordance with this Article,
18and assuming his annuity were computed from such accumulations
19as of his age on such earlier date. The annuity so computed
20shall not exceed the annuity which would be payable under the
21other provisions of this Section if the employee was credited
22with 20 years of service and would qualify for annuity
23thereunder.
24 (g) Instead of the annuity provided in this Article, an
25employee having attained age 65 with at least 15 years of
26service who withdraws from service on or after July 1, 1971 and

09800SB2640ham001- 581 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1whose annuity computed under other provisions of this Article
2is less than the amount provided under this paragraph, is
3entitled to a minimum annuity for life equal to 1% of the
4highest average annual salary, as salary is defined and limited
5in this Section for any 4 consecutive years within the last 10
6years of service for each year of service, plus the sum of $25
7for each year of service. The annuity shall not exceed 60% of
8such highest average annual salary.
9 (g-1) Instead of any other retirement annuity provided in
10this Article, an employee who has at least 10 years of service
11and withdraws from service on or after January 1, 1999 may
12elect to receive a retirement annuity for life, beginning no
13earlier than upon attainment of age 60, equal to 2.2% if
14withdrawal is before January 1, 2002, or 2.4% if withdrawal is
15on or after January 1, 2002, of final average salary for each
16year of service, subject to a maximum of 75% of final average
17salary if withdrawal is before January 1, 2002, or 80% if
18withdrawal is on or after January 1, 2002. For the purpose of
19calculating this annuity, "final average salary" means the
20highest average annual salary for any 4 consecutive years in
21the last 10 years of service. Notwithstanding Nothwithstanding
22any provision of this subsection to the contrary, the "final
23average salary" for a participant that received credit under
24subsection (c) of Section 8-226 means the highest average
25salary for any 4 consecutive years (or any 8 consecutive years
26if the employee first became a participant on or after January

09800SB2640ham001- 582 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
11, 2011) in the 10 years immediately prior to the leave of
2absence, and adding to that highest average salary, the product
3of (i) that highest average salary, (ii) the average percentage
4increase in the Consumer Price Index during each 12-month
5calendar year for the calendar years during the participant's
6leave of absence, and (iii) the length of the leave of absence
7in years, provided that this shall not exceed the participant's
8salary at the local labor organization. For purposes of this
9Section, the Consumer Price Index is the Consumer Price Index
10for All Urban Consumers for all items published by the United
11States Department of Labor.
12 (h) The minimum annuities provided under this Section shall
13be paid in equal monthly installments.
14 (i) The amendatory provisions of part (b) and (g) of this
15Section shall be effective July 1, 1971 and apply in the case
16of every qualifying employee withdrawing on or after July 1,
171971.
18 (j) The amendatory provisions of this amendatory Act of
191985 (P.A. 84-23) relating to the discount of annuity because
20of retirement prior to attainment of age 60, and to the
21retirement formula, for those born before January 1, 1936,
22shall apply only to qualifying employees withdrawing on or
23after July 18, 1985.
24 (j-1) The changes made to this Section by Public Act 92-609
25(increasing the retirement formula to 2.4% per year of service
26and increasing the maximum to 80%) apply to persons who

09800SB2640ham001- 583 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1withdraw from service on or after January 1, 2002, regardless
2of whether that withdrawal takes place before the effective
3date of that Act. In the case of a person who withdraws from
4service on or after January 1, 2002 but begins to receive a
5retirement annuity before July 1, 2002, the annuity shall be
6recalculated, with the increase resulting from Public Act
792-609 accruing from the date the retirement annuity began. The
8changes made by Public Act 92-609 control over the changes made
9by Public Act 92-599, as provided in Section 95 of P.A. 92-609.
10 (k) Beginning on January 1, 1999, the minimum amount of
11employee's annuity shall be $850 per month for life for the
12following classes of employees, without regard to the fact that
13withdrawal occurred prior to the effective date of this
14amendatory Act of 1998:
15 (1) any employee annuitant alive and receiving a life
16 annuity on the effective date of this amendatory Act of
17 1998, except a reciprocal annuity;
18 (2) any employee annuitant alive and receiving a term
19 annuity on the effective date of this amendatory Act of
20 1998, except a reciprocal annuity;
21 (3) any employee annuitant alive and receiving a
22 reciprocal annuity on the effective date of this amendatory
23 Act of 1998, whose service in this fund is at least 5
24 years;
25 (4) any employee annuitant withdrawing after age 60 on
26 or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1998,

09800SB2640ham001- 584 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 with at least 10 years of service in this fund.
2 The increases granted under items (1), (2) and (3) of this
3subsection (k) shall not be limited by any other Section of
4this Act.
5(Source: P.A. 97-651, eff. 1-5-12; revised 9-16-13.)
6 (40 ILCS 5/9-102) (from Ch. 108 1/2, par. 9-102)
7 Sec. 9-102. Terms defined. The terms used in this Article
8have the meanings ascribed to them in the Sections following
9this Section and preceding Section 9-120 Sections 9-103 to
109-119, inclusive, except when the context otherwise requires.
11(Source: Laws 1963, p. 161; revised 11-13-13.)
12 (40 ILCS 5/11-134) (from Ch. 108 1/2, par. 11-134)
13 Sec. 11-134. Minimum annuities.
14 (a) An employee whose withdrawal occurs after July 1, 1957
15at age 60 or over, with 20 or more years of service, (as
16service is defined or computed in Section 11-216), for whom the
17age and service and prior service annuity combined is less than
18the amount stated in this Section, shall, from and after the
19date of withdrawal, in lieu of all annuities otherwise provided
20in this Article, be entitled to receive an annuity for life of
21an amount equal to 1 2/3% for each year of service, of the
22highest average annual salary for any 5 consecutive years
23within the last 10 years of service immediately preceding the
24date of withdrawal; provided, that in the case of any employee

09800SB2640ham001- 585 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1who withdraws on or after July 1, 1971, such employee age 60 or
2over with 20 or more years of service, shall be entitled to
3instead receive an annuity for life equal to 1.67% for each of
4the first 10 years of service; 1.90% for each of the next 10
5years of service; 2.10% for each year of service in excess of
620 but not exceeding 30; and 2.30% for each year of service in
7excess of 30, based on the highest average annual salary for
8any 4 consecutive years within the last 10 years of service
9immediately preceding the date of withdrawal.
10 An employee who withdraws after July 1, 1957 and before
11January 1, 1988, with 20 or more years of service, before age
1260, shall be entitled to an annuity, to begin not earlier than
13age 55, if under such age at withdrawal, as computed in the
14last preceding paragraph, reduced 0.25% if the employee was
15born before January 1, 1936, or 0.5% if the employee was born
16on or after January 1, 1936, for each full month or fractional
17part thereof that his attained age when such annuity is to
18begin is less than 60.
19 Any employee born before January 1, 1936 who withdraws with
2020 or more years of service, and any employee with 20 or more
21years of service who withdraws on or after January 1, 1988, may
22elect to receive, in lieu of any other employee annuity
23provided in this Section, an annuity for life equal to 1.80%
24for each of the first 10 years of service, 2.00% for each of
25the next 10 years of service, 2.20% for each year of service in
26excess of 20, but not exceeding 30, and 2.40% for each year of

09800SB2640ham001- 586 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1service in excess of 30, of the highest average annual salary
2for any 4 consecutive years within the last 10 years of service
3immediately preceding the date of withdrawal, to begin not
4earlier than upon attained age of 55 years, if under such age
5at withdrawal, reduced 0.25% for each full month or fractional
6part thereof that his attained age when annuity is to begin is
7less than 60; except that an employee retiring on or after
8January 1, 1988, at age 55 or over but less than age 60, having
9at least 35 years of service, or an employee retiring on or
10after July 1, 1990, at age 55 or over but less than age 60,
11having at least 30 years of service, or an employee retiring on
12or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1997, at
13age 55 or over but less than age 60, having at least 25 years of
14service, shall not be subject to the reduction in retirement
15annuity because of retirement below age 60.
16 However, in the case of an employee who retired on or after
17January 1, 1985 but before January 1, 1988, at age 55 or older
18and with at least 35 years of service, and who was subject
19under this subsection (a) to the reduction in retirement
20annuity because of retirement below age 60, that reduction
21shall cease to be effective January 1, 1991, and the retirement
22annuity shall be recalculated accordingly.
23 Any employee who withdraws on or after July 1, 1990, with
2420 or more years of service, may elect to receive, in lieu of
25any other employee annuity provided in this Section, an annuity
26for life equal to 2.20% for each year of service if withdrawal

09800SB2640ham001- 587 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1is before January 1, 2002, or 2.40% for each year of service if
2withdrawal is on or after January 1, 2002, of the highest
3average annual salary for any 4 consecutive years within the
4last 10 years of service immediately preceding the date of
5withdrawal, to begin not earlier than upon attained age of 55
6years, if under such age at withdrawal, reduced 0.25% for each
7full month or fractional part thereof that his attained age
8when annuity is to begin is less than 60; except that an
9employee retiring at age 55 or over but less than age 60,
10having at least 30 years of service, shall not be subject to
11the reduction in retirement annuity because of retirement below
12age 60.
13 Any employee who withdraws on or after the effective date
14of this amendatory Act of 1997 with 20 or more years of service
15may elect to receive, in lieu of any other employee annuity
16provided in this Section, an annuity for life equal to 2.20%
17for each year of service if withdrawal is before January 1,
182002, or 2.40% for each year of service if withdrawal is on or
19after January 1, 2002, of the highest average annual salary for
20any 4 consecutive years within the last 10 years of service
21immediately preceding the date of withdrawal, to begin not
22earlier than upon attainment of age 55 (age 50 if the employee
23has at least 30 years of service), reduced 0.25% for each full
24month or remaining fractional part thereof that the employee's
25attained age when annuity is to begin is less than 60; except
26that an employee retiring at age 50 or over with at least 30

09800SB2640ham001- 588 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1years of service or at age 55 or over with at least 25 years of
2service shall not be subject to the reduction in retirement
3annuity because of retirement below age 60.
4 The maximum annuity payable under this paragraph (a) of
5this Section shall not exceed 70% of highest average annual
6salary in the case of an employee who withdraws prior to July
71, 1971, 75% if withdrawal takes place on or after July 1, 1971
8and prior to January 1, 2002, or 80% if withdrawal is on or
9after January 1, 2002. For the purpose of the minimum annuity
10provided in said paragraphs $1,500 shall be considered the
11minimum annual salary for any year; and the maximum annual
12salary to be considered for the computation of such annuity
13shall be $4,800 for any year prior to 1953, $6,000 for the
14years 1953 to 1956, inclusive, and the actual annual salary, as
15salary is defined in this Article, for any year thereafter.
16 (b) For an employee receiving disability benefit, his
17salary for annuity purposes under this Section shall, for all
18periods of disability benefit subsequent to the year 1956, be
19the amount on which his disability benefit was based.
20 (c) An employee with 20 or more years of service, whose
21entire disability benefit credit period expires prior to
22attainment of age 55 while still disabled for service, shall be
23entitled upon withdrawal to the larger of (1) the minimum
24annuity provided above assuming that he is then age 55, and
25reducing such annuity to its actuarial equivalent at his
26attained age on such date, or (2) the annuity provided from his

09800SB2640ham001- 589 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1age and service and prior service annuity credits.
2 (d) The minimum annuity provisions as aforesaid shall not
3apply to any former employee receiving an annuity from the
4fund, and who re-enters service as an employee, unless he
5renders at least 3 years of additional service after the date
6of re-entry.
7 (e) An employee in service on July 1, 1947, or who became a
8contributor after July 1, 1947 and prior to July 1, 1950, or
9who shall become a contributor to the fund after July 1, 1950
10prior to attainment of age 70, who withdraws after age 65 with
11less than 20 years of service, for whom the annuity has been
12fixed under the foregoing Sections of this Article shall, in
13lieu of the annuity so fixed, receive an annuity as follows:
14 Such amount as he could have received had the accumulated
15amounts for annuity been improved with interest at the
16effective rate to the date of his withdrawal, or to attainment
17of age 70, whichever is earlier, and had the city contributed
18to such earlier date for age and service annuity the amount
19that would have been contributed had he been under age 65,
20after the date his annuity was fixed in accordance with this
21Article, and assuming his annuity were computed from such
22accumulations as of his age on such earlier date. The annuity
23so computed shall not exceed the annuity which would be payable
24under the other provisions of this Section if the employee was
25credited with 20 years of service and would qualify for annuity
26thereunder.

09800SB2640ham001- 590 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 (f) In lieu of the annuity provided in this or in any other
2Section of this Article, an employee having attained age 65
3with at least 15 years of service who withdraws from service on
4or after July 1, 1971 and whose annuity computed under other
5provisions of this Article is less than the amount provided
6under this paragraph shall be entitled to receive a minimum
7annual annuity for life equal to 1% of the highest average
8annual salary for any 4 consecutive years within the last 10
9years of service immediately preceding retirement for each year
10of his service plus the sum of $25 for each year of service.
11Such annual annuity shall not exceed the maximum percentages
12stated under paragraph (a) of this Section of such highest
13average annual salary.
14 (f-1) Instead of any other retirement annuity provided in
15this Article, an employee who has at least 10 years of service
16and withdraws from service on or after January 1, 1999 may
17elect to receive a retirement annuity for life, beginning no
18earlier than upon attainment of age 60, equal to 2.2% if
19withdrawal is before January 1, 2002, or 2.4% for each year of
20service if withdrawal is on or after January 1, 2002, of final
21average salary for each year of service, subject to a maximum
22of 75% of final average salary if withdrawal is before January
231, 2002, or 80% if withdrawal is on or after January 1, 2002.
24For the purpose of calculating this annuity, "final average
25salary" means the highest average annual salary for any 4
26consecutive years in the last 10 years of service.

09800SB2640ham001- 591 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1Notwithstanding Nothwithstanding any provision of this
2subsection to the contrary, the "final average salary" for a
3participant that received credit under item (3) of subsection
4(c) of Section 11-215 means the highest average salary for any
54 consecutive years (or any 8 consecutive years if the employee
6first became a participant on or after January 1, 2011) in the
710 years immediately prior to the leave of absence, and adding
8to that highest average salary, the product of (i) that highest
9average salary, (ii) the average percentage increase in the
10Consumer Price Index during each 12-month calendar year for the
11calendar years during the participant's leave of absence, and
12(iii) the length of the leave of absence in years, provided
13that this shall not exceed the participant's salary at the
14local labor organization. For purposes of this Section, the
15Consumer Price Index is the Consumer Price Index for All Urban
16Consumers for all items published by the United States
17Department of Labor.
18 (g) Any annuity payable under the preceding subsections of
19this Section 11-134 shall be paid in equal monthly
20installments.
21 (h) The amendatory provisions of part (a) and (f) of this
22Section shall be effective July 1, 1971 and apply in the case
23of every qualifying employee withdrawing on or after July 1,
241971.
25 (h-1) The changes made to this Section by Public Act 92-609
26(increasing the retirement formula to 2.4% per year of service

09800SB2640ham001- 592 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1and increasing the maximum to 80%) apply to persons who
2withdraw from service on or after January 1, 2002, regardless
3of whether that withdrawal takes place before the effective
4date of that Act. In the case of a person who withdraws from
5service on or after January 1, 2002 but begins to receive a
6retirement annuity before July 1, 2002, the annuity shall be
7recalculated, with the increase resulting from Public Act
892-609 accruing from the date the retirement annuity began. The
9changes made by Public Act 92-609 control over the changes made
10by Public Act 92-599, as provided in Section 95 of P.A. 92-609.
11 (i) The amendatory provisions of this amendatory Act of
121985 relating to the discount of annuity because of retirement
13prior to attainment of age 60 and increasing the retirement
14formula for those born before January 1, 1936, shall apply only
15to qualifying employees withdrawing on or after August 16,
161985.
17 (j) Beginning on January 1, 1999, the minimum amount of
18employee's annuity shall be $850 per month for life for the
19following classes of employees, without regard to the fact that
20withdrawal occurred prior to the effective date of this
21amendatory Act of 1998:
22 (1) any employee annuitant alive and receiving a life
23 annuity on the effective date of this amendatory Act of
24 1998, except a reciprocal annuity;
25 (2) any employee annuitant alive and receiving a term
26 annuity on the effective date of this amendatory Act of

09800SB2640ham001- 593 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 1998, except a reciprocal annuity;
2 (3) any employee annuitant alive and receiving a
3 reciprocal annuity on the effective date of this amendatory
4 Act of 1998, whose service in this fund is at least 5
5 years;
6 (4) any employee annuitant withdrawing after age 60 on
7 or after the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1998,
8 with at least 10 years of service in this fund.
9 The increases granted under items (1), (2) and (3) of this
10subsection (j) shall not be limited by any other Section of
11this Act.
12(Source: P.A. 97-651, eff. 1-5-12; revised 9-16-13.)
13 (40 ILCS 5/13-809) (from Ch. 108 1/2, par. 13-809)
14 Sec. 13-809. Administrative review. The provisions of the
15Administrative Review Law Act, and all amendments and
16modifications thereof and the rules adopted pursuant thereto
17shall apply to and govern all proceedings for the judicial
18review of final administrative decisions of the Retirement
19Board provided for under this Article. The term "administrative
20decision" is as defined in Section 3-101 of the Code of Civil
21Procedure.
22(Source: P.A. 87-794; revised 10-7-13.)
23 Section 225. The Illinois Police Training Act is amended by
24changing Section 7 and by setting forth and renumbering

09800SB2640ham001- 594 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1multiple versions of Section 10.14 as follows:
2 (50 ILCS 705/7) (from Ch. 85, par. 507)
3 Sec. 7. Rules and standards for schools. The Board shall
4adopt rules and minimum standards for such schools which shall
5include but not be limited to the following:
6 a. The curriculum for probationary police officers which
7shall be offered by all certified schools shall include but not
8be limited to courses of arrest, search and seizure, civil
9rights, human relations, cultural diversity, including racial
10and ethnic sensitivity, criminal law, law of criminal
11procedure, vehicle and traffic law including uniform and
12non-discriminatory enforcement of the Illinois Vehicle Code,
13traffic control and accident investigation, techniques of
14obtaining physical evidence, court testimonies, statements,
15reports, firearms training, training in the use of electronic
16control devices, including the psychological and physiological
17effects of the use of those devices on humans, first-aid
18(including cardiopulmonary resuscitation), handling of
19juvenile offenders, recognition of mental conditions which
20require immediate assistance and methods to safeguard and
21provide assistance to a person in need of mental treatment,
22recognition of abuse, neglect, financial exploitation, and
23self-neglect of adults with disabilities and older adults, as
24defined in Section 2 of the Adult Protective Services Act,
25crimes against the elderly, law of evidence, the hazards of

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1high-speed police vehicle chases with an emphasis on
2alternatives to the high-speed chase, and physical training.
3The curriculum shall include specific training in techniques
4for immediate response to and investigation of cases of
5domestic violence and of sexual assault of adults and children.
6The curriculum shall include training in techniques designed to
7promote effective communication at the initial contact with
8crime victims and ways to comprehensively explain to victims
9and witnesses their rights under the Rights of Crime Victims
10and Witnesses Act and the Crime Victims Compensation Act. The
11curriculum shall also include a block of instruction aimed at
12identifying and interacting with persons with autism and other
13developmental disabilities, reducing barriers to reporting
14crimes against persons with autism, and addressing the unique
15challenges presented by cases involving victims or witnesses
16with autism and other developmental disabilities. The
17curriculum for permanent police officers shall include but not
18be limited to (1) refresher and in-service training in any of
19the courses listed above in this subparagraph, (2) advanced
20courses in any of the subjects listed above in this
21subparagraph, (3) training for supervisory personnel, and (4)
22specialized training in subjects and fields to be selected by
23the board. The training in the use of electronic control
24devices shall be conducted for probationary police officers,
25including University police officers.
26 b. Minimum courses of study, attendance requirements and

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1equipment requirements.
2 c. Minimum requirements for instructors.
3 d. Minimum basic training requirements, which a
4probationary police officer must satisfactorily complete
5before being eligible for permanent employment as a local law
6enforcement officer for a participating local governmental
7agency. Those requirements shall include training in first aid
8(including cardiopulmonary resuscitation).
9 e. Minimum basic training requirements, which a
10probationary county corrections officer must satisfactorily
11complete before being eligible for permanent employment as a
12county corrections officer for a participating local
13governmental agency.
14 f. Minimum basic training requirements which a
15probationary court security officer must satisfactorily
16complete before being eligible for permanent employment as a
17court security officer for a participating local governmental
18agency. The Board shall establish those training requirements
19which it considers appropriate for court security officers and
20shall certify schools to conduct that training.
21 A person hired to serve as a court security officer must
22obtain from the Board a certificate (i) attesting to his or her
23successful completion of the training course; (ii) attesting to
24his or her satisfactory completion of a training program of
25similar content and number of hours that has been found
26acceptable by the Board under the provisions of this Act; or

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1(iii) attesting to the Board's determination that the training
2course is unnecessary because of the person's extensive prior
3law enforcement experience.
4 Individuals who currently serve as court security officers
5shall be deemed qualified to continue to serve in that capacity
6so long as they are certified as provided by this Act within 24
7months of the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1996.
8Failure to be so certified, absent a waiver from the Board,
9shall cause the officer to forfeit his or her position.
10 All individuals hired as court security officers on or
11after the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1996 shall
12be certified within 12 months of the date of their hire, unless
13a waiver has been obtained by the Board, or they shall forfeit
14their positions.
15 The Sheriff's Merit Commission, if one exists, or the
16Sheriff's Office if there is no Sheriff's Merit Commission,
17shall maintain a list of all individuals who have filed
18applications to become court security officers and who meet the
19eligibility requirements established under this Act. Either
20the Sheriff's Merit Commission, or the Sheriff's Office if no
21Sheriff's Merit Commission exists, shall establish a schedule
22of reasonable intervals for verification of the applicants'
23qualifications under this Act and as established by the Board.
24(Source: P.A. 97-815, eff. 1-1-13; 97-862, eff. 1-1-13; 98-49,
25eff. 7-1-13; 98-358, eff. 1-1-14; 98-463, eff. 8-16-13; revised
269-11-13.)

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1 (50 ILCS 705/10.14)
2 Sec. 10.14. Training; animal fighting awareness and humane
3response. The Illinois Law Enforcement Training Standards
4Board shall conduct or approve a training program in animal
5fighting awareness and humane response for law enforcement
6officers of local government agencies. The purpose of that
7training shall be to equip law enforcement officers of local
8government agencies to identify animal fighting operations and
9respond appropriately. This training shall also include a
10humane response component that will provide guidelines for
11appropriate law enforcement response to animal abuse, cruelty,
12and neglect, or similar condition, as well as training on
13canine behavior and nonlethal ways to subdue a canine.
14(Source: P.A. 98-311, eff. 1-1-14.)
15 (50 ILCS 705/10.15)
16 (Section scheduled to be repealed on July 1, 2016)
17 Sec. 10.15 10.14. Electronic control devices used by local
18law enforcement agencies; inspections.
19 (a) For the purposes of this Section, "electronic control
20device" means:
21 (1) any device which is powered by electrical charging
22 units, such as, batteries, and which fires one or several
23 barbs attached to a length of wire and which, upon hitting
24 a human, can send out a current capable of disrupting the

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1 person's nervous system in such a manner as to render the
2 person incapable of normal functioning; or
3 (2) any device which is powered by electrical charging
4 units, such as batteries, and which, upon contact with a
5 human or clothing worn by a human, can send out current
6 capable of disrupting the person's nervous system in such a
7 manner as to render the person incapable of normal
8 functioning.
9 (b) Beginning January 1, 2014 and ending December 31, 2015,
10the Board shall randomly inspect police departments of units of
11local government and university police departments concerning
12the use of electronic control devices by law enforcement
13officers of the departments to determine whether the officers
14received appropriate training in their use. The Board shall
15compile the information from the random inspections and analyze
16the results.
17 (c) Based on the analysis required in subsection (b), the
18Board shall issue a report and present its report and findings
19to the Governor and General Assembly on or before June 30,
202016. The Board in its report may recommend legislation
21concerning the use of electronic control devices by law
22enforcement officers and the training of law enforcement
23officers in the use of those devices.
24 (d) This Section is repealed on July 1, 2016.
25(Source: P.A. 98-358, eff. 1-1-14; revised 10-17-13.)

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1 Section 230. The Counties Code is amended by changing
2Sections 3-3016.5, 3-5018, 5-1062.3, 5-12001.2, 5-44020, and
36-27005 and by setting forth and renumbering multiple versions
4of Section 5-1134 as follows:
5 (55 ILCS 5/3-3016.5)
6 Sec. 3-3016.5. Sudden, unexpected death in epilepsy
7(SUDEP).
8 (a) All autopsies conducted in this State shall include an
9inquiry to determine whether the death was a direct result of a
10seizure or epilepsy. If the findings in an autopsy of a medical
11examiner, examining physician, or coroner are consistent with
12known or suspected sudden, unexpected death in epilepsy
13(SUDEP), then the medical examiner, examining physician, or
14coroner shall:
15 (1) cause to be indicated on the death certificate that
16 SUDEP is the cause or suspected cause of death; and
17 (2) forward a copy of the death certificate to the
18 North American SUDEP Registry at the Langone Medical Center
19 at New York University within 30 days.
20 (b) For the purposes of this Section, "sudden, unexpected
21death in epilepsy" refers to a death in a patient previously
22diagnosed with epilepsy that is not due to trauma, drowning,
23status epilepticus, or other known causes, but for which there
24is often evidence of an associated seizure. A finding of
25sudden, unexpected death in epilepsy is definite when clinical

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1criteria are met and autopsy reveals no alternative cause of
2death, such as stroke, myocardial infarction, or drug
3intoxication, although there may be evidence of a seizure.
4(Source: P.A. 98-340, eff. 1-1-14; revised 10-8-13.)
5 (55 ILCS 5/3-5018) (from Ch. 34, par. 3-5018)
6 Sec. 3-5018. Fees. The recorder elected as provided for in
7this Division shall receive such fees as are or may be provided
8for him or her by law, in case of provision therefor: otherwise
9he or she shall receive the same fees as are or may be provided
10in this Section, except when increased by county ordinance
11pursuant to the provisions of this Section, to be paid to the
12county clerk for his or her services in the office of recorder
13for like services.
14 For recording deeds or other instruments, $12 for the first
154 pages thereof, plus $1 for each additional page thereof, plus
16$1 for each additional document number therein noted. The
17aggregate minimum fee for recording any one instrument shall
18not be less than $12.
19 For recording deeds or other instruments wherein the
20premises affected thereby are referred to by document number
21and not by legal description, a fee of $1 in addition to that
22hereinabove referred to for each document number therein noted.
23 For recording assignments of mortgages, leases or liens,
24$12 for the first 4 pages thereof, plus $1 for each additional
25page thereof. However, except for leases and liens pertaining

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1to oil, gas and other minerals, whenever a mortgage, lease or
2lien assignment assigns more than one mortgage, lease or lien
3document, a $7 fee shall be charged for the recording of each
4such mortgage, lease or lien document after the first one.
5 For recording any document that affects an interest in real
6property other than documents which solely affect or relate to
7an easement for water, sewer, electricity, gas, telephone or
8other public service, the recorder shall charge a fee of $1 per
9document to all filers of documents not filed by any State
10agency, any unit of local government, or any school district.
11Fifty cents of the $1 fee hereby established shall be deposited
12into the County General Revenue Fund. The remaining $0.50 shall
13be deposited into the Recorder's Automation Fund and may not be
14appropriated or expended for any other purpose. The additional
15amounts available to the recorder for expenditure from the
16Recorder's Automation Fund shall not offset or reduce any other
17county appropriations or funding for the office of the
18recorder.
19 For recording maps or plats of additions or subdivisions
20approved by the county or municipality (including the spreading
21of the same of record in map case or other proper books) or
22plats of condominiums, $50 for the first page, plus $1 for each
23additional page thereof except that in the case of recording a
24single page, legal size 8 1/2 x 14, plat of survey in which
25there are no more than two lots or parcels of land, the fee
26shall be $12. In each county where such maps or plats are to be

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1recorded, the recorder may require the same to be accompanied
2by such number of exact, true and legible copies thereof as the
3recorder deems necessary for the efficient conduct and
4operation of his or her office.
5 For non-certified copies of records, an amount not to
6exceed one-half of the amount provided in this Section for
7certified copies, according to a standard scale of fees,
8established by county ordinance and made public. The provisions
9of this paragraph shall not be applicable to any person or
10entity who obtains non-certified copies of records in the
11following manner: (i) in bulk for all documents recorded on any
12given day in an electronic or paper format for a negotiated
13amount less than the amount provided for in this paragraph for
14non-certified copies, (ii) under a contractual relationship
15with the recorder for a negotiated amount less than the amount
16provided for in this paragraph for non-certified copies,
17or (iii) by means of Internet access pursuant to Section
185-1106.1.
19 For certified copies of records, the same fees as for
20recording, but in no case shall the fee for a certified copy of
21a map or plat of an addition, subdivision or otherwise exceed
22$10.
23 Each certificate of such recorder of the recording of the
24deed or other writing and of the date of recording the same
25signed by such recorder, shall be sufficient evidence of the
26recording thereof, and such certificate including the indexing

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1of record, shall be furnished upon the payment of the fee for
2recording the instrument, and no additional fee shall be
3allowed for the certificate or indexing.
4 The recorder shall charge an additional fee, in an amount
5equal to the fee otherwise provided by law, for recording a
6document (other than a document filed under the Plat Act or the
7Uniform Commercial Code) that does not conform to the following
8standards:
9 (1) The document shall consist of one or more
10 individual sheets measuring 8.5 inches by 11 inches, not
11 permanently bound and not a continuous form. Graphic
12 displays accompanying a document to be recorded that
13 measure up to 11 inches by 17 inches shall be recorded
14 without charging an additional fee.
15 (2) The document shall be legibly printed in black ink,
16 by hand, type, or computer. Signatures and dates may be in
17 contrasting colors if they will reproduce clearly.
18 (3) The document shall be on white paper of not less
19 than 20-pound weight and shall have a clean margin of at
20 least one-half inch on the top, the bottom, and each side.
21 Margins may be used for non-essential notations that will
22 not affect the validity of the document, including but not
23 limited to form numbers, page numbers, and customer
24 notations.
25 (4) The first page of the document shall contain a
26 blank space, measuring at least 3 inches by 5 inches, from

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1 the upper right corner.
2 (5) The document shall not have any attachment stapled
3 or otherwise affixed to any page.
4A document that does not conform to these standards shall not
5be recorded except upon payment of the additional fee required
6under this paragraph. This paragraph, as amended by this
7amendatory Act of 1995, applies only to documents dated after
8the effective date of this amendatory Act of 1995.
9 The county board of any county may provide for an
10additional charge of $3 for filing every instrument, paper, or
11notice for record, (1) in order to defray the cost of
12converting the county recorder's document storage system to
13computers or micrographics and (2) in order to defray the cost
14of providing access to records through the global information
15system known as the Internet.
16 A special fund shall be set up by the treasurer of the
17county and such funds collected pursuant to Public Act 83-1321
18shall be used (1) for a document storage system to provide the
19equipment, materials and necessary expenses incurred to help
20defray the costs of implementing and maintaining such a
21document records system and (2) for a system to provide
22electronic access to those records.
23 The county board of any county that provides and maintains
24a countywide map through a Geographic Information System (GIS)
25may provide for an additional charge of $3 for filing every
26instrument, paper, or notice for record (1) in order to defray

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1the cost of implementing or maintaining the county's Geographic
2Information System and (2) in order to defray the cost of
3providing electronic or automated access to the county's
4Geographic Information System or property records. Of that
5amount, $2 must be deposited into a special fund set up by the
6treasurer of the county, and any moneys collected pursuant to
7this amendatory Act of the 91st General Assembly and deposited
8into that fund must be used solely for the equipment,
9materials, and necessary expenses incurred in implementing and
10maintaining a Geographic Information System and in order to
11defray the cost of providing electronic access to the county's
12Geographic Information System records. The remaining $1 must be
13deposited into the recorder's special funds created under
14Section 3-5005.4. The recorder may, in his or her discretion,
15use moneys in the funds created under Section 3-5005.4 to
16defray the cost of implementing or maintaining the county's
17Geographic Information System and to defray the cost of
18providing electronic access to the county's Geographic
19Information System records.
20 The recorder shall collect a $9 Rental Housing Support
21Program State surcharge for the recordation of any real
22estate-related document. Payment of the Rental Housing Support
23Program State surcharge shall be evidenced by a receipt that
24shall be marked upon or otherwise affixed to the real
25estate-related document by the recorder. The form of this
26receipt shall be prescribed by the Department of Revenue and

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1the receipts shall be issued by the Department of Revenue to
2each county recorder.
3 The recorder shall not collect the Rental Housing Support
4Program State surcharge from any State agency, any unit of
5local government or any school district.
6 On the 15th day of each month, each county recorder shall
7report to the Department of Revenue, on a form prescribed by
8the Department, the number of real estate-related documents
9recorded for which the Rental Housing Support Program State
10surcharge was collected. Each recorder shall submit $9 of each
11surcharge collected in the preceding month to the Department of
12Revenue and the Department shall deposit these amounts in the
13Rental Housing Support Program Fund. Subject to appropriation,
14amounts in the Fund may be expended only for the purpose of
15funding and administering the Rental Housing Support Program.
16 For purposes of this Section, "real estate-related
17document" means that term as it is defined in Section 7 of the
18Rental Housing Support Program Act.
19 The foregoing fees allowed by this Section are the maximum
20fees that may be collected from any officer, agency, department
21or other instrumentality of the State. The county board may,
22however, by ordinance, increase the fees allowed by this
23Section and collect such increased fees from all persons and
24entities other than officers, agencies, departments and other
25instrumentalities of the State if the increase is justified by
26an acceptable cost study showing that the fees allowed by this

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1Section are not sufficient to cover the cost of providing the
2service. Regardless of any other provision in this Section, the
3maximum fee that may be collected from the Department of
4Revenue for filing or indexing a lien, certificate of lien
5release or subordination, or any other type of notice or other
6documentation affecting or concerning a lien is $5. Regardless
7of any other provision in this Section, the maximum fee that
8may be collected from the Department of Revenue for indexing
9each additional name in excess of one for any lien, certificate
10of lien release or subordination, or any other type of notice
11or other documentation affecting or concerning a lien is $1.
12 A statement of the costs of providing each service, program
13and activity shall be prepared by the county board. All
14supporting documents shall be public record and subject to
15public examination and audit. All direct and indirect costs, as
16defined in the United States Office of Management and Budget
17Circular A-87, may be included in the determination of the
18costs of each service, program and activity.
19(Source: P.A. 98-5, eff. 3-22-13; 98-217, eff. 8-9-13; revised
209-24-13.)
21 (55 ILCS 5/5-1062.3)
22 Sec. 5-1062.3. Stormwater management; DuPage and Peoria
23Counties.
24 (a) The purpose of this Section is to allow management and
25mitigation of the effects of urbanization on stormwater

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1drainage in the metropolitan counties of DuPage and Peoria, and
2references to "county" in this Section apply only to those
3counties. This Section does not apply to a municipality that
4only partially lies within one of these counties and, on the
5effective date of this amendatory Act of the 98th General
6Assembly, is served by an existing Section in the Counties Code
7regarding stormwater management. The purpose of this Section
8shall be achieved by:
9 (1) consolidating the existing stormwater management
10 framework into a united, countywide structure;
11 (2) setting minimum standards for floodplain and
12 stormwater management; and
13 (3) preparing a countywide plan for the management of
14 stormwater runoff, including the management of natural and
15 man-made drainageways. The countywide plan may incorporate
16 watershed plans.
17 (b) A stormwater management planning committee may be
18established by county board resolution, with its membership
19consisting of equal numbers of county board and municipal
20representatives from each county board district, and such other
21members as may be determined by the county and municipal
22members. If the county has more than 6 county board districts,
23however, the county board may by ordinance divide the county
24into not less than 6 areas of approximately equal population,
25to be used instead of county board districts for the purpose of
26determining representation on the stormwater management

09800SB2640ham001- 610 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1planning committee.
2 The county board members shall be appointed by the chairman
3of the county board. Municipal members from each county board
4district or other represented area shall be appointed by a
5majority vote of the mayors of those municipalities that have
6the greatest percentage of their respective populations
7residing in that county board district or other represented
8area. All municipal and county board representatives shall be
9entitled to a vote; the other members shall be nonvoting
10members, unless authorized to vote by the unanimous consent of
11the municipal and county board representatives. A municipality
12that is located in more than one county may choose, at the time
13of formation of the stormwater management planning committee
14and based on watershed boundaries, to participate in the
15stormwater management planning program of either county.
16Subcommittees of the stormwater management planning committee
17may be established to serve a portion of the county or a
18particular drainage basin that has similar stormwater
19management needs. The stormwater management planning committee
20shall adopt bylaws, by a majority vote of the county and
21municipal members, to govern the functions of the committee and
22its subcommittees. Officers of the committee shall include a
23chair and vice chair, one of whom shall be a county
24representative and one a municipal representative.
25 The principal duties of the committee shall be to develop a
26stormwater management plan for presentation to and approval by

09800SB2640ham001- 611 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1the county board, and to direct the plan's implementation and
2revision. The committee may retain engineering, legal, and
3financial advisors and inspection personnel. The committee
4shall meet at least quarterly and shall hold at least one
5public meeting during the preparation of the plan and prior to
6its submittal to the county board. The committee may make
7grants to units of local government that have adopted an
8ordinance requiring actions consistent with the stormwater
9management plan and to landowners for the purposes of
10stormwater management, including special projects; use of the
11grant money must be consistent with the stormwater management
12plan.
13 The committee shall not have or exercise any power of
14eminent domain.
15 (c) In the preparation of a stormwater management plan, a
16county stormwater management planning committee shall
17coordinate the planning process with each adjoining county to
18ensure that recommended stormwater projects will have no
19significant impact on the levels or flows of stormwaters in
20inter-county watersheds or on the capacity of existing and
21planned stormwater retention facilities. An adopted stormwater
22management plan shall identify steps taken by the county to
23coordinate the development of plan recommendations with
24adjoining counties.
25 (d) The stormwater management committee may not enforce any
26rules or regulations that would interfere with (i) any power

09800SB2640ham001- 612 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1granted by the Illinois Drainage Code (70 ILCS 605/) to
2operate, construct, maintain, or improve drainage systems or
3(ii) the ability to operate, maintain, or improve the drainage
4systems used on or by land or a facility used for production
5agriculture purposes, as defined in the Use Tax Act (35 ILCS
6105/), except newly constructed buildings and newly installed
7impervious paved surfaces. Disputes regarding an exception
8shall be determined by a mutually agreed upon arbitrator paid
9by the disputing party or parties.
10 (e) Before the stormwater management planning committee
11recommends to the county board a stormwater management plan for
12the county or a portion thereof, it shall submit the plan to
13the Office of Water Resources of the Department of Natural
14Resources for review and recommendations. The Office, in
15reviewing the plan, shall consider such factors as impacts on
16the levels or flows in rivers and streams and the cumulative
17effects of stormwater discharges on flood levels. The Office of
18Water Resources shall determine whether the plan or ordinances
19enacted to implement the plan complies with the requirements of
20subsection (f). Within a period not to exceed 60 days, the
21review comments and recommendations shall be submitted to the
22stormwater management planning committee for consideration.
23Any amendments to the plan shall be submitted to the Office for
24review.
25 (f) Prior to recommending the plan to the county board, the
26stormwater management planning committee shall hold at least

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1one public hearing thereon and shall afford interested persons
2an opportunity to be heard. The hearing shall be held in the
3county seat. Notice of the hearing shall be published at least
4once and no less than 15 days in advance of the hearing in a
5newspaper of general circulation published in the county. The
6notice shall state the time and place of the hearing and the
7place where copies of the proposed plan will be accessible for
8examination by interested parties. If an affected municipality
9having a stormwater management plan adopted by ordinance wishes
10to protest the proposed county plan provisions, it shall appear
11at the hearing and submit in writing specific proposals to the
12stormwater management planning committee. After consideration
13of the matters raised at the hearing, the committee may amend
14or approve the plan and recommend it to the county board for
15adoption.
16 The county board may enact the proposed plan by ordinance.
17If the proposals for modification of the plan made by an
18affected municipality having a stormwater management plan are
19not included in the proposed county plan, and the municipality
20affected by the plan opposes adoption of the county plan by
21resolution of its corporate authorities, approval of the county
22plan shall require an affirmative vote of at least two-thirds
23of the county board members present and voting. If the county
24board wishes to amend the county plan, it shall submit in
25writing specific proposals to the stormwater management
26planning committee. If the proposals are not approved by the

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1committee, or are opposed by resolution of the corporate
2authorities of an affected municipality having a municipal
3stormwater management plan, amendment of the plan shall require
4an affirmative vote of at least two-thirds of the county board
5members present and voting.
6 (g) The county board may prescribe by ordinance reasonable
7rules and regulations for floodplain management and for
8governing the location, width, course, and release rate of all
9stormwater runoff channels, streams, and basins in the county,
10in accordance with the adopted stormwater management plan.
11Land, facilities, and drainage district facilities used for
12production agriculture as defined in subsection (d) shall not
13be subjected to regulation by the county board or stormwater
14management committee under this Section for floodplain
15management and for governing location, width, course,
16maintenance, and release rate of stormwater runoff channels,
17streams and basins, or water discharged from a drainage
18district. These rules and regulations shall, at a minimum, meet
19the standards for floodplain management established by the
20Office of Water Resources and the requirements of the Federal
21Emergency Management Agency for participation in the National
22Flood Insurance Program. With respect to DuPage County only,
23the Chicago Metropolitan Agency for Planning may not impose
24more stringent regulations regarding water quality on entities
25discharging in accordance with a valid National Pollution
26Discharge Elimination System permit issued under the

09800SB2640ham001- 615 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1Environmental Protection Act.
2 (h) For the purpose of implementing this Section and for
3the development, design, planning, construction, operation,
4and maintenance of stormwater facilities provided for in the
5adopted stormwater management plan, a county board that has
6established a stormwater management planning committee
7pursuant to this Section or has participated in a stormwater
8management planning process may adopt a schedule of fees
9applicable to all real property within the county which
10benefits from the county's stormwater management facilities
11and activities, and as may be necessary to mitigate the effects
12of increased stormwater runoff resulting from development. The
13total amount of the fees assessed must be specifically and
14uniquely attributable to the actual costs of the county in the
15preparation, administration, and implementation of the adopted
16stormwater management plan, construction and maintenance of
17stormwater facilities, and other activities related to the
18management of the runoff from the property. The individual fees
19must be specifically and uniquely attributable to the portion
20of the actual cost to the county of managing the runoff from
21the property. The fees shall be used to finance activities
22undertaken by the county or its included municipalities to
23mitigate the effects of urban stormwater runoff by providing
24and maintaining stormwater collection, retention, detention,
25and particulate treatment facilities, and improving water
26bodies impacted by stormwater runoff, as identified in the

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1county plan. In establishing, maintaining, or replacing such
2facilities, the county shall not duplicate facilities operated
3by other governmental bodies within its corporate boundaries.
4The schedule of fees established by the county board shall
5include a procedure for a full or partial fee waiver for
6property owners who have taken actions or put in place
7facilities that reduce or eliminate the cost to the county of
8providing stormwater management services to their property.
9The county board may also offer tax or fee rebates or incentive
10payments to property owners who construct, maintain, and use
11approved green infrastructure stormwater management devices or
12any other methods that reduce or eliminate the cost to the
13county of providing stormwater management services to the
14property, including but not limited to facilities that reduce
15the volume, temperature, velocity, and pollutant load of the
16stormwater managed by the county, such as systems that
17infiltrate, evapotranspirate, or harvest stormwater for reuse,
18known as "green infrastructure". In exercising this authority,
19the county shall provide notice to the municipalities within
20its jurisdiction their jurisdictions of any fees proposed under
21this Section and seek the input of each municipality with
22respect to the calculation of the fees. The county shall also
23give property owners at least 2 years' notice of the fee,
24during which time the county shall provide education on green
25infrastructure practices and an opportunity to take action to
26reduce or eliminate the fee. All these fees collected by the

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1county shall be held in a separate fund, and shall be expended
2only in the watershed within which they were collected. The
3county may enter into intergovernmental agreements with other
4government bodies for the joint administration of stormwater
5management and the collection of the fees authorized in this
6Section.
7 A fee schedule authorized by this subsection must have the
8same limit as the authorized stormwater tax. In Peoria County
9only, the fee schedule shall not be adopted unless (i) a
10referendum has been passed approving a stormwater tax as
11provided in subsection (i) of this Section; or (ii) the
12question of the adoption of a fee schedule with the same limit
13as the authorized stormwater tax has been approved in a
14referendum by a majority of those voting on the question.
15 (i) In the alternative to a fee imposed under subsection
16(h), the county board may cause an annual tax of not to exceed
170.20% of the value, as equalized or assessed by the Department
18of Revenue, of all taxable property in the county to be levied
19upon all the taxable property in the county. The property tax
20shall be in addition to all other taxes authorized by law to be
21levied and collected in the county and shall be in addition to
22the maximum tax rate authorized by law for general county
23purposes. The 0.20% limitation provided in this Section may be
24increased or decreased by referendum in accordance with the
25provisions of Sections 18-120, 18-125, and 18-130 of the
26Property Tax Code (35 ILCS 200/).

09800SB2640ham001- 618 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 Any revenues generated as a result of ownership or
2operation of facilities or land acquired with the tax funds
3collected pursuant to this subsection shall be held in a
4separate fund and be used either to abate such property tax or
5for implementing this Section.
6 If at least part of the county has been declared by a
7presidential proclamation after July 1, 1986 and before
8December 31, 1987, to be a disaster area as a result of
9flooding, the tax authorized by this subsection does not
10require approval by referendum. However, in Peoria County, the
11tax authorized by this subsection shall not be levied until the
12question of its adoption, either for a specified period or
13indefinitely, has been submitted to the electors thereof and
14approved by a majority of those voting on the question. This
15question may be submitted at any election held in the county
16after the adoption of a resolution by the county board
17providing for the submission of the question to the electors of
18the county. The county board shall certify the resolution and
19proposition to the proper election officials, who shall submit
20the proposition at an election in accordance with the general
21election law. If a majority of the votes cast on the question
22is in favor of the levy of the tax, it may thereafter be levied
23in the county for the specified period or indefinitely, as
24provided in the proposition. The question shall be put in
25substantially the following form:
26 Shall an annual tax be levied for stormwater management

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1 purposes (for a period of not more than ..... years) at a
2 rate not exceeding .....% of the equalized assessed value
3 of the taxable property of ..... County?
4 Votes shall be recorded as Yes or No.
5 The following question may be submitted at any election
6held in the county after the adoption of a resolution by the
7county board providing for the submission of the question to
8the electors of the county to authorize adoption of a schedule
9of fees applicable to all real property within the county:
10 Shall the county board be authorized to adopt a
11 schedule of fees, at a rate not exceeding that of the
12 stormwater management tax, applicable to all real property
13 for preparation, administration, and implementation of an
14 adopted stormwater management plan, construction and
15 maintenance of related facilities, and management of the
16 runoff from the property?
17 Votes shall be recorded as Yes or No.
18 If these questions have been approved by a majority of
19those voting prior to the effective date of this amendatory Act
20of the 98th General Assembly, this subsection does not apply.
21 (j) For those counties that adopt a property tax in
22accordance with the provisions in this Section, the stormwater
23management committee shall offer property tax abatements or
24incentive payments to property owners who construct, maintain,
25and use approved stormwater management devices. The stormwater
26management committee is authorized to offer credits to the

09800SB2640ham001- 620 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1property tax, if applicable, based on authorized practices
2consistent with the stormwater management plan and approved by
3the committee. Expenses of staff of a stormwater management
4committee that are expended on regulatory project review may be
5no more than 20% of the annual budget of the committee,
6including funds raised under subsections (h) and (i).
7 (k) Upon the creation and implementation of a county
8stormwater management plan, the county may petition the circuit
9court to dissolve any or all drainage districts created
10pursuant to the Illinois Drainage Code or predecessor Acts
11which are located entirely within the area of the county
12covered by the plan.
13 However, any active drainage district implementing a plan
14that is consistent with and at least as stringent as the county
15stormwater management plan may petition the stormwater
16management planning committee for exception from dissolution.
17Upon filing of the petition, the committee shall set a date for
18hearing not less than 2 weeks, nor more than 4 weeks, from the
19filing thereof, and the committee shall give at least one
20week's notice of the hearing in one or more newspapers of
21general circulation within the district, and in addition shall
22cause a copy of the notice to be personally served upon each of
23the trustees of the district. At the hearing, the committee
24shall hear the district's petition and allow the district
25trustees and any interested parties an opportunity to present
26oral and written evidence. The committee shall render its

09800SB2640ham001- 621 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1decision upon the petition for exception from dissolution based
2upon the best interests of the residents of the district. In
3the event that the exception is not allowed, the district may
4file a petition within 30 days of the decision with the circuit
5court. In that case, the notice and hearing requirements for
6the court shall be the same as herein provided for the
7committee. The court shall likewise render its decision of
8whether to dissolve the district based upon the best interests
9of residents of the district.
10 The dissolution of any drainage district shall not affect
11the obligation of any bonds issued or contracts entered into by
12the district nor invalidate the levy, extension or collection
13of any taxes or special assessments upon the property in the
14former drainage district. All property and obligations of the
15former drainage district shall be assumed and managed by the
16county, and the debts of the former drainage district shall be
17discharged as soon as practicable.
18 If a drainage district lies only partly within a county
19that adopts a county stormwater management plan, the county may
20petition the circuit court to disconnect from the drainage
21district that portion of the district that lies within that
22county. The property of the drainage district within the
23disconnected area shall be assumed and managed by the county.
24The county shall also assume a portion of the drainage
25district's debt at the time of disconnection, based on the
26portion of the value of the taxable property of the drainage

09800SB2640ham001- 622 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1district which is located within the area being disconnected.
2 The operations of any drainage district that continues to
3exist in a county that has adopted a stormwater management plan
4in accordance with this Section shall be in accordance with the
5adopted plan.
6 (l) Any county that has adopted a county stormwater
7management plan under this Section may, after 10 days' days
8written notice receiving consent of the owner or occupant,
9enter upon any lands or waters within the county for the
10purpose of inspecting stormwater facilities or causing the
11removal of any obstruction to an affected watercourse. If
12consent is denied or cannot be reasonably obtained, the county
13ordinance shall provide a process or procedure for an
14administrative warrant to be obtained. The county shall be
15responsible for any damages occasioned thereby.
16 (m) Except as otherwise provided in subsection (a) of this
17Section, upon petition of the municipality, and based on a
18finding of the stormwater management planning committee, the
19county shall not enforce rules and regulations adopted by the
20county in any municipality located wholly or partly within the
21county that has a municipal stormwater management ordinance
22that is consistent with and at least as stringent as the county
23plan and ordinance, and is being enforced by the municipal
24authorities. On issues that the county ordinance is more
25stringent as deemed by the committee, the county shall only
26enforce rules and regulations adopted by the county on the more

09800SB2640ham001- 623 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1stringent issues and accept municipal permits. The county shall
2have no more than 60 days to review permits or the permits
3shall be deemed approved.
4 (n) A county may issue general obligation bonds for
5implementing any stormwater plan adopted under this Section in
6the manner prescribed in Section 5-1012; except that the
7referendum requirement of Section 5-1012 does not apply to
8bonds issued pursuant to this Section on which the principal
9and interest are to be paid entirely out of funds generated by
10the taxes and fees authorized by this Section.
11 (o) A county that has adopted a fee schedule pursuant to
12this Section may not thereafter issue any bond extensions
13related to implementing a stormwater management plan.
14 (p) The powers authorized by this Section may be
15implemented by the county board for a portion of the county
16subject to similar stormwater management needs.
17 (q) The powers and taxes authorized by this Section are in
18addition to the powers and taxes authorized by Division 5-15;
19in exercising its powers under this Section, a county shall not
20be subject to the restrictions and requirements of that
21Division.
22 (r) Stormwater management projects and actions related to
23stormwater management in a county that has adopted a fee
24schedule or tax pursuant to this Section prior to the effective
25date of this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly are
26not altered by this amendatory Act of the 98th General

09800SB2640ham001- 624 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1Assembly.
2(Source: P.A. 98-335, eff. 8-13-13; revised 10-8-13.)
3 (55 ILCS 5/5-1134)
4 Sec. 5-1134. Project labor agreements.
5 (a) Any sports, arts, or entertainment facilities that
6receive revenue from a tax imposed under subsection (b) of
7Section 5-1030 of this Code shall be considered to be public
8works within the meaning of the Prevailing Wage Act. The county
9authorities responsible for the construction, renovation,
10modification, or alteration of the sports, arts, or
11entertainment facilities shall enter into project labor
12agreements with labor organizations as defined in the National
13Labor Relations Act to assure that no labor dispute interrupts
14or interferes with the construction, renovation, modification,
15or alteration of the projects.
16 (b) The project labor agreements must include the
17following:
18 (1) provisions establishing the minimum hourly wage
19 for each class of labor organization employees;
20 (2) provisions establishing the benefits and other
21 compensation for such class of labor organization; and
22 (3) provisions establishing that no strike or disputes
23 will be engaged in by the labor organization employees.
24 The county, taxing bodies, municipalities, and the labor
25organizations shall have the authority to include other terms

09800SB2640ham001- 625 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1and conditions as they deem necessary.
2 (c) The project labor agreement shall be filed with the
3Director of the Illinois Department of Labor in accordance with
4procedures established by the Department. At a minimum, the
5project labor agreement must provide the names, addresses, and
6occupations of the owner of the facilities and the individuals
7representing the labor organization employees participating in
8the project labor agreement. The agreement must also specify
9the terms and conditions required in subsection (b) of this
10Section.
11 (d) In any agreement for the construction or rehabilitation
12of a facility using revenue generated under subsection (b) of
13Section 5-1030 of this Code, in connection with the
14prequalification of general contractors for construction or
15rehabilitation of the facility, it shall be required that a
16commitment will be submitted detailing how the general
17contractor will expend 15% or more of the aggregate dollar
18value of the project as a whole with one or more minority-owned
19businesses, female-owned businesses, or businesses owned by a
20person with a disability, as these terms are defined in Section
212 of the Business Enterprise for Minorities, Females, and
22Persons with Disabilities Act.
23(Source: P.A. 98-313, eff. 8-12-13.)
24 (55 ILCS 5/5-1135)
25 Sec. 5-1135 5-1134. Borrowing from financial institutions.

09800SB2640ham001- 626 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1The county board of a county may borrow money for any corporate
2purpose from any bank or other financial institution provided
3such money shall be repaid within 2 years from the time the
4money is borrowed. The county board chairman or county
5executive, as the case may be, shall execute a promissory note
6or similar debt instrument, but not a bond, to evidence the
7indebtedness incurred by the borrowing. The obligation to make
8the payments due under the promissory note or other debt
9instrument shall be a lawful direct general obligation of the
10county payable from the general funds of the county and such
11other sources of payment as are otherwise lawfully available.
12The promissory note or other debt instrument shall be
13authorized by an ordinance passed by the county board and shall
14be valid whether or not an appropriation with respect to that
15ordinance is included in any annual or supplemental
16appropriation adopted by the county board. The indebtedness
17incurred under this Section, when aggregated with the existing
18indebtedness of the county, may not exceed any debt limitation
19otherwise provided for by law. "Financial institution" means
20any bank subject to the Illinois Banking Act, any savings and
21loan association subject to the Illinois Savings and Loan Act
22of 1985, any savings bank subject to the Savings Bank Act, any
23credit union subject to the Illinois Credit Union Act, and any
24federally chartered commercial bank, savings and loan
25association, savings bank, or credit union organized and
26operated in this State pursuant to the laws of the United

09800SB2640ham001- 627 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1States.
2(Source: P.A. 98-525, eff. 8-23-13; revised 10-17-13.)
3 (55 ILCS 5/5-12001.2)
4 Sec. 5-12001.2. Regulation of telecommunications
5facilities; Lake County pilot project. In addition to any other
6requirements under this Division concerning the regulation of
7telecommunications facilities, the following applies to any
8new telecommunications facilities in Lake County that are not
9AM telecommunications towers or facilities:
10 (a) For every new wireless telecommunications facility
11 requiring a new tower structure, a telecommunications
12 carrier shall provide the county with documentation
13 consisting of the proposed location, a site plan, and an
14 elevation that sufficiently describes a proposed wireless
15 facility location.
16 (b) The county shall have 7 days to review the facility
17 proposal and contact the telecommunications carrier in
18 writing via e-mail or other written means as specified by
19 the telecommunications carrier. This written communication
20 shall either approve the proposed location or request a
21 meeting to review other possible alternative locations. If
22 requested, the meeting shall take place within 7 days after
23 the date of the written communication.
24 (c) At the meeting, the telecommunications carrier
25 shall provide the county documentation consisting of radio

09800SB2640ham001- 628 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 frequency engineering criteria and a corresponding
2 telecommunications facility search ring map, together with
3 documentation of the carrier's efforts to site the proposed
4 facility within the telecommunications facility search
5 ring.
6 (d) Within 21 days after receipt of the carrier's
7 documentation, the county shall propose either an
8 alternative site within the telecommunications facility
9 search ring, or an alternative site outside of the
10 telecommunications search ring that meets the radio
11 frequency engineering criteria provided by the
12 telecommunications carrier and that will not materially
13 increase the construction budget beyond what was estimated
14 on the original carrier proposed site.
15 (e) If the county's proposed alternative site meets the
16 radio frequency engineering criteria provided by the
17 telecommunications carrier, and will not materially
18 increase the construction budget beyond what was estimated
19 on the original carrier proposed site, then the
20 telecommunications carrier shall agree to build the
21 facility at the alternative location, subject to the
22 negotiation of a lease with commercially reasonable terms
23 and the obtainment of the customary building permits.
24 (f) If the telecommunications carrier can demonstrate
25 that: (i) the county's proposed alternative site does not
26 meet the radio frequency engineering criteria, (ii) the

09800SB2640ham001- 629 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 county's proposed alternative site will materially
2 increase the construction budget beyond what was estimated
3 on the original carrier proposed site, (iii) the county has
4 failed to provide an alternative alternate site, or (iv)
5 after a period of 90 days after receipt of the alternative
6 site, the telecommunications carrier has failed, after
7 acting in good faith and with due diligence, to obtain a
8 lease or, at a minimum, a letter of intent to lease the
9 alternative site at lease rates not materially greater than
10 the lease rate for the original proposed site; then the
11 carrier can proceed to permit and construct the site under
12 the provisions and standards of Section 5-12001.1 of this
13 Code.
14(Source: P.A. 98-197, eff. 8-9-13; revised 10-8-13.)
15 (55 ILCS 5/5-44020)
16 Sec. 5-44020. Definitions. In this Division 5-44:
17 "Fire protection jurisdiction" means a fire protection
18district, municipal fire department, or service organized
19under Section 5-1056.1 of the Counties Code, Sections 195 and
20200 of the Township Code, Section 10-2.1 of the Illinois
21Municipal Code, or the Illinois Fire Protection District Act.
22 "Governing board" means the individual or individuals who
23constitute the corporate authorities of a unit of local
24government. ; and
25 "Unit of local government" or "unit" means any unit of

09800SB2640ham001- 630 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1local government located entirely within one county, to which
2the county board chairman or county executive directly appoints
3a majority of its governing board with the advice and consent
4of the county board, but shall not include a fire protection
5district that directly employs any regular full-time employees
6or a special district organized under the Water Commission Act
7of 1985.
8(Source: P.A. 98-126, eff. 8-2-13; revised 9-13-13.)
9 (55 ILCS 5/6-27005) (from Ch. 34, par. 6-27005)
10 Sec. 6-27005. Transfer to general corporate fund. Moneys
11shall be transferred from said working cash fund to the general
12corporate fund only upon the authority of the county board,
13which shall from time to time by separate resolution direct the
14county treasurer to make transfers of such sums as may be
15required for the purposes herein authorized. Every such
16resolution shall set forth (a) the taxes or other moneys in
17anticipation of the collection or receipt of which such
18transfer is to be made and from which such working cash fund is
19to be reimbursed, (b) with respect only to transfers made in
20anticipation of the levy of real property taxes, the entire
21amount of taxes extended or which the county board estimates
22will be extended, for any year, by the county clerk upon the
23books of the collectors of State and county taxes within such
24county, in anticipation of the collection of all or part of
25which such transfer is to be made, (c) the aggregate amount of

09800SB2640ham001- 631 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1warrants theretofore issued in anticipation of the collection
2of such taxes, together with the amount of interest accrued,
3and/or which the county board estimates will accrue, thereon,
4(d) the aggregate amount of notes theretofore issued in
5anticipation of the collection of such taxes, together with the
6amount of the interest accrued, and/or which the county board
7estimates will accrue, thereon, and (e) the amount of moneys,
8which the county board estimates will be earned by the county
9clerk and the county collector, respectively, as fees or
10commissions for extending or collecting taxes for any year, in
11anticipation of the receipt of all or part of which such
12transfer is to be made, (f) the amount of such taxes, as by law
13now or hereafter enacted or amended, imposed by the General
14Assembly of the State of Illinois to replace revenue lost by
15units of local government and school districts as a result of
16the abolition of ad valorem personal property taxes, pursuant
17to Article IX, Section 5(c) of the Constitution of the State of
18Illinois which the county board estimates will be received by
19the county for any year, (g) the aggregate amount of receipts
20from taxes imposed to replace revenue lost by units of local
21government and school districts as a result of the abolition of
22ad valorem personal property taxes, pursuant to Article IX,
23Section 5(c) of the Constitution of the State of Illinois,
24which the corporate authorities estimate will be set aside for
25the payment of the proportionate amount of debt service and
26pension or retirement obligations, as required by Section 12 of

09800SB2640ham001- 632 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1"An Act in relation to State Revenue Sharing with local
2government entities", approved July 31, 1969, as amended, and
3(h) the aggregate amount of moneys theretofore transferred from
4the working cash fund to the general corporate fund in
5anticipation of the collection of such taxes or of the receipt
6of such other moneys to be derived from fees or commissions or
7of the receipt of such taxes, as by law now or hereafter
8enacted or amended, imposed by the General Assembly of the
9State of Illinois to replace revenue lost by units of local
10government and school districts as a result of the abolition of
11ad valorem personal property taxes, pursuant to Article IX,
12Section 5(c) of the Constitution of the State of Illinois. The
13amount which any such resolution shall direct the county
14treasurer so to transfer, in anticipation of the collection of
15taxes levied for any year, together with the aggregate amount
16of such anticipation tax warrants and notes theretofore drawn
17against such taxes and the amount of the interest accrued,, and
18the aggregate amount of such transfers theretofore made in
19anticipation of the collection of such taxes, shall not exceed
20ninety (90) per centum of the actual or estimated amount of
21such taxes extended or to be extended, as set forth in such
22resolution. The amount which any such resolution shall direct
23the county treasurer so to transfer, in anticipation of the
24receipt of any moneys to be derived from fees or commissions,
25or of the receipt of such taxes, as by law now or hereafter
26enacted or amended, imposed by the General Assembly of the

09800SB2640ham001- 633 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1State of Illinois to replace revenue lost by units of local
2government and school districts as a result of the abolition of
3ad valorem personal property taxes, pursuant to Article IX,
4Section 5(c) of the Constitution of the State of Illinois
5together with the aggregate amount theretofore transferred in
6anticipation of the receipt of any such moneys and the amount
7estimated to be required to satisfy debt service and pension or
8retirement obligations, as set forth in Section 12 of "An Act
9in relation to State revenue sharing with local government
10entities", approved July 31, 1969, as amended, shall not exceed
11the total amount which it is so estimated will be received from
12such sources. To the extent that at any time moneys are
13available in the working cash fund they shall be transferred to
14the general corporate fund and disbursed for the payment of
15salaries and other corporate expenses so as to avoid, whenever
16possible, the issuance of anticipation tax warrants or notes.
17(Source: P.A. 86-962; revised 10-8-13.)
18 Section 235. The Township Code is amended by changing
19Section 27-10 as follows:
20 (60 ILCS 1/27-10)
21 Sec. 27-10. Petition and referendum to discontinue and
22abolish a township organization within a coterminous
23municipality. Upon adoption of an ordinance adopted by the city
24council of a township described under Section 27-5 of this

09800SB2640ham001- 634 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1Article, or upon petition of at least 10% of the registered
2voters of that township, the city council shall certify and
3cause to be submitted to the voters of the township, at the
4next election or consolidated election, a proposition to
5discontinue and abolish the township organization and to
6transfer all the rights, powers, duties, assets, property,
7liabilities, obligations, and responsibilities of the township
8organization to the coterminous municipality.
9 A signature on a petition shall not be valid or counted in
10considering the petition unless the form requirements are
11complied with and the date of each signature is less than 90
12days before the last day for filing the petition. The statement
13of the person who circulates the petition must include an
14attestation (i) indicating the dates on which that sheet was
15circulated, (ii) indicating the first and last date on which
16that sheet was circulated, or (iii) certifying that none of the
17signatures on the sheet was signed more than 90 days before the
18last day for filing the petition. The petition shall be treated
19and the proposition certified in the manner provided by the
20general election law. After the proposition has once been
21submitted to the electorate, the proposition shall not be
22resubmitted for 4 years.
23 The proposition shall be in substantially the following
24form:
25 Shall the township organization be continued in [Name
26 of Township] Township?

09800SB2640ham001- 635 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 The votes shall be recorded as "Yes" or "No".
2(Source: P.A. 98-127, eff. 8-2-13; revised 10-8-13.)
3 Section 240. The Illinois Municipal Code is amended by
4changing Section 11-80-9 as follows:
5 (65 ILCS 5/11-80-9) (from Ch. 24, par. 11-80-9)
6 Sec. 11-80-9. The corporate authorities of each
7municipality may prevent and regulate all amusements and
8activities having a tendency to annoy or endanger persons or
9property on the sidewalks, streets, and other municipal
10property. However, no municipality may prohibit a charitable
11organization, as defined in Section 2 of the Charitable Games
12Act, from soliciting for charitable purposes, including
13solicitations taking place on public roadways from passing
14motorists, if all of the following requirements are met.
15 (1) The persons to be engaged in the solicitation are
16 law enforcement personnel, firefighters, or other persons
17 employed to protect the public safety of a local agency,
18 and that are soliciting solely in an area that is within
19 the service area of that local agency.
20 (2) The charitable organization files an application
21 with the municipality having jurisdiction over the
22 location or locations where the solicitation is to occur.
23 The application applications shall be filed not later than
24 10 business days before the date that the solicitation is

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1 to begin and shall include all of the following:
2 (A) The date or dates and times of day when the
3 solicitation is to occur.
4 (B) The location or locations where the
5 solicitation is to occur along with a list of 3
6 alternate locations listed in order of preference.
7 (C) The manner and conditions under which the
8 solicitation is to occur.
9 (D) Proof of a valid liability insurance policy in
10 the amount of at least $1,000,000 insuring the charity
11 or local agency against bodily injury and property
12 damage arising out of or in connection with the
13 solicitation.
14 The municipality shall approve the application within 5
15business days after the filing date of the application, but may
16impose reasonable conditions in writing that are consistent
17with the intent of this Section and are based on articulated
18public safety concerns. If the municipality determines that the
19applicant's location cannot be permitted due to significant
20safety concerns, such as high traffic volumes, poor geometrics,
21construction, maintenance operations, or past accident
22history, then the municipality may deny the application for
23that location and must approve one of the 3 alternate locations
24following the order of preference submitted by the applicant on
25the alternate location list. By acting under this Section, a
26local agency does not waive or limit any immunity from

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1liability provided by any other provision of law.
2 (3) For purposes of this Section, "local agency" means a
3municipality, special district, fire district, joint powers of
4authority, or other political subdivision of the State of
5Illinois.
6 A home rule unit may not regulate a charitable organization
7in a manner that is inconsistent with this Section. This
8Section is a limitation under subsection (i) of Section 6 of
9Article VII of the Illinois Constitution on the concurrent
10exercise by home rule units of powers and functions exercised
11by the State.
12(Source: P.A. 97-692, eff. 6-15-12; 98-134, eff. 8-2-13;
13revised 10-8-13.)
14 Section 245. The Fire Protection District Act is amended by
15changing Sections 8.20 and 11j as follows:
16 (70 ILCS 705/8.20)
17 Sec. 8.20. Open burning.
18 (a) The board of trustees of any fire protection district
19incorporated under this Act may, by ordinance, require that the
20district be notified of open burning within the district before
21it takes place, but shall not require that a permit for open
22burning be obtained from the district. The district may not
23enforce an ordinance adopted under this Section within the
24corporate limits of a county with a population of 3,000,000 or

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1more or a municipality with a population of 1,000,000 or more.
2 (b) The fire department of a fire protection district may
3extinguish any open burn that presents a clear, present, and
4unreasonable danger to persons or adjacent property or that
5presents an unreasonable risk because of wind, weather, or the
6types of combustibles. The unreasonable risk may include the
7height of flames, windblown embers, the creation of hazardous
8fumes, or an unattended fire. Fire departments may not
9unreasonably interfere with permitted and legal open burning.
10 (c) The fire protection district may provide that persons
11setting open burns on any agricultural land with an area of 50
12acres or more may voluntarily comply with the provisions of an
13ordinance adopted under this Section.
14 (d) The fire chief or any other designated officer of a
15fire department of any fire protection district incorporated
16under this Act may, with the authorization of the board of
17trustees of the fire protection district, prohibit open burning
18within the district on an emergency basis, for a limited period
19of time, if (i) the atmospheric conditions or other
20circumstances create an unreasonable risk of fire because of
21wind, weather, or the types of combustibles and (ii) the
22resources of the fire department are not sufficient to control
23and suppress a fire resulting from one or more of the
24conditions or circumstances described in clause (i) of this
25subsection. For the purposes of this subsection, "open burning"
26includes, but is not limited to, the burning of landscape

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1waste, agricultural waste, household trash, and garbage.
2 (e) The fire chief or any other designated officer of a
3fire department of any fire protection district incorporated
4under this Act may fix, charge, and collect fees associated
5with the fire department extinguishing an open burning that is
6prohibited under subsection (d) of this Section. The fee may be
7imposed against any person causing or engaging in the
8prohibited activity. The total amount collected for
9compensation of the fire protection district shall be assessed
10in accordance with both the rates provided in Section 11f(c) of
11this Act and the fire chief's determination of the cost of
12personnel and equipment utilized to extinguish the fire.
13 (f) This Section does not authorize the open burning of any
14waste. The open burning of waste is subject to the restrictions
15and prohibitions of the Environmental Protection Act and the
16rules and regulations adopted under its authority.
17(Source: P.A. 97-488, eff. 1-1-12; 98-279, eff. 8-9-13; revised
1810-8-13.)
19 (70 ILCS 705/11j)
20 Sec. 11j. Installation of access or key boxes. The board of
21trustees of any fire protection district may, by ordinance,
22require the installation of an access or key box if: (1) a
23structure is protected by an automatic fire alarm or security
24system or access to or within the structure or area is unduly
25difficult because of secured openings; and (2) immediate access

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1is necessary for life-saving purposes. In the case of a health
2care facility that is secured by an electronic code box that is
3in good working order, if the owner of the health care facility
4provides the fire department with a valid access code, then
5that health care facility is not required to be accessible by
6an access or key box. For the purposes of this Section, "health
7care facility" means: a hospital licensed under the Hospital
8Licensing Act or the University of Illinois Hospital Act; a
9nursing home or long-term care facility licensed under the
10Nursing Home Care Act; an assisted living establishment, as
11defined in the Assisted Living and Shared Housing Act; a mental
12health facility, as defined in the Mental Health and
13Developmental Disabilities Code; a supportive living facility
14certified to participate in the supportive living facilities
15program under Section 5-5.01a of the Illinois Public Aid Code;
16or a facility licensed under the Specialized Mental Health
17Rehabilitation Act of 2013. "Access or key box" means a secure
18device with a lock operable only by a fire department master
19key, and containing building entry keys and other keys that may
20be required for access in an emergency.
21 The access or key box shall be of an approved type listed
22in accordance with the most recently published version of the
23standard Underwriters Laboratories 1037 and shall contain keys
24to gain access as required by the fire chief of the fire
25protection district, or his or her designee.
26 An ordinance enacted under this Section may specify

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1particular classes or types of structures or occupancies that
2are required to install an access or key box. However, an
3ordinance enacted under this Section shall not apply to single
4family residential structures or to facilities owned or
5operated by a public utility, as that term is defined under
6Section 3-105 of the Public Utilities Act.
7(Source: P.A. 98-388, eff. 8-16-13; revised 10-8-13.)
8 Section 250. The Park District Code is amended by changing
9Section 11.2-1 as follows:
10 (70 ILCS 1205/11.2-1) (from Ch. 105, par. 11.2-1)
11 Sec. 11.2-1. In each park district a fund to be known as a
12"Working Cash Fund" may be created, set apart, maintained and
13administered in the manner prescribed in this Article, for the
14purpose of enabling the district to have in its treasury at all
15times time sufficient money to meet demands thereon for
16ordinary and necessary expenditures for corporate purposes.
17(Source: P.A. 79-1379; revised 9-24-13.)
18 Section 255. The Elmwood Park Grade Separation Authority
19Act is amended by changing Sections 10, 50, and 60 as follows:
20 (70 ILCS 1935/10)
21 Sec. 10. Legislative declaration. The General Assembly
22declares that the welfare, health, prosperity, and moral and

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1general well being of the people of the State are, in large
2measure, dependent upon the sound and orderly development of
3municipal areas. The Village of Elmwood Park, by reason of the
4location there of Grand Avenue and its use for vehicular travel
5in access to the entire west metropolitan Chicago area,
6including municipalities in 2 counties, as well as commercial
7and industrial growth patterns and accessibility to O'Hare
8International Airport, manufacturing and freight related
9services, has become and will increasingly be the hub of
10transportation from all parts of the region and throughout the
11west metropolitan area. Motor vehicle traffic, pedestrian
12travel, and the safety of both motorists and pedestrians are
13substantially aggravated by the location of a major railroad
14right-of-way that divides the Village into north and south
15halves. The presence of the railroad right-of-way has
16effectively impeded the development of highway usage and
17rights-of-way and is detrimental to the orderly expansion of
18industry and commerce and to progress throughout the region.
19Additionally, the railroad grade crossing located on Grand
20Avenue within the Village of Elmwood Park has posed a
21significant safety hazard to the public. The Illinois Commerce
22Commission Collision History illustrates that there have been 8
23fatalities and 29 injuries since 1956 at the railroad grade
24crossing located on Grand Avenue within the Village. The
25presence of the railroad right-of-way at grade crossing within
26the Village is detrimental to the safety of the public, as well

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1as to the orderly expansion of industry and commerce and to
2progress of the region. To alleviate this situation, it is
3necessary to separate the grade crossing on Grand Avenue within
4the Village, to relocate the railroad tracks and right-of-way,
5and to acquire property for separation of the railroad or
6highway, and to create an agency to facilitate and accomplish
7that grade separation.
8(Source: P.A. 98-564, eff. 8-27-13; revised 10-8-13.)
9 (70 ILCS 1935/50)
10 Sec. 50. Board; composition; qualification; compensation
11and expenses. The Authority shall be governed by a 9-member
12board consisting of members appointed by the Governor with the
13advice and consent of the Senate. Five members shall be voting
14members and 4 members shall be non-voting members. The voting
15members shall consist of the following:
16 (1) two former public officials who served within the
17 Township of Leyden or the Village of Elmwood Park and are
18 recommended to the Governor by the Village President of the
19 Village of Elmwood Park;
20 (2) two prior employees of Canadian Pacific Railway
21 with management experience; and
22 (3) one resident of the Township of Leyden or the
23 Village of Elmwood Park.
24 The non-voting members shall consist of the following:
25 (1) the Village President of the Village of Elmwood

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1 Park;
2 (2) one current employee of Canadian Pacific Railway
3 with management experience;
4 (3) one current employee of Northeast Illinois
5 Regional Commuter Railroad Corporation with management
6 experience; and
7 (4) one current employee of the Department of
8 Transportation with management experience.
9 The members of the board shall serve without compensation,
10but may be reimbursed for actual expenses incurred by them in
11the performance of their duties prescribed by the Authority.
12However, any member of the board who serves as secretary or
13treasurer may receive compensation for services as that
14officer.
15(Source: P.A. 98-564, eff. 8-27-13; revised 10-17-13.)
16 (70 ILCS 1935/60)
17 Sec. 60. Organization; chair and temporary secretary. As
18soon as possible after the effective date of this amendatory
19Act of the 98th General Assembly, the board shall organize for
20the transaction of business, select a chair from its voting
21members and a temporary secretary from its own number, and
22adopt bylaws to govern its proceedings. The initial chair and
23successors shall be elected by the board from time to time from
24among members. The Authority may act through its board members
25by entering into an agreement that a member act on the

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1Authority's behalf, in which instance the act or performance
2directed shall be deemed to be exclusively of, for, and by the
3Authority and not the individual act of the member or its
4represented person.
5(Source: P.A. 98-564, eff. 8-27-13; revised 10-8-13.)
6 Section 260. The Rescue Squad Districts Act is amended by
7changing Section 12 as follows:
8 (70 ILCS 2005/12) (from Ch. 85, par. 6862)
9 Sec. 12. A district organized under this Act, in the
10preparation of its annual budget and appropriation ordinance,
11may provide that an amount equal to not more than 0.5% of the
12total equalized assessed value of real property situated in the
13district shall be allocated to and accumulated in an a
14Equipment Repair or Replacement Fund for the purposes of
15equipment repairs or replacements of specific types of district
16equipment. Expenditures from the Equipment Repair or
17Replacement Fund shall be budgeted and appropriated for the
18fiscal year in which the equipment repair or replacement will
19occur. Upon completion or abandonment of any object or purpose
20for which an Equipment Repair or Replacement Fund has been
21initiated, monies remaining in the fund shall be transferred
22into the general corporate fund of the district on the first
23day of the fiscal year following the abandonment or completion
24resulting in the surplus moneys in such fund.

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1(Source: P.A. 86-916; revised 10-8-13.)
2 Section 265. The Regional Transportation Authority Act is
3amended by changing Section 3B.09b as follows:
4 (70 ILCS 3615/3B.09b)
5 Sec. 3B.09b. Payment of fares by credit card.
6 (a) By February 28, 2010, the Commuter Rail Board shall
7allow passengers to purchase fares by credit card (i) through
8an Internet website operated by the Board, (ii) at its LaSalle
9Street Station, Union Station, Ogilvie Transportation Center,
10and Millennium Millenium Station, (iii) at stations with
11agents, and (iv) from vending machines capable of providing
12fares by credit card at the 14 largest stations on the Metra
13Electric Line.
14 (b) The Board may not require a passenger who chooses to
15purchase a fare by credit card to pay an additional fee.
16(Source: P.A. 96-621, eff. 1-1-10; revised 9-13-13.)
17 Section 270. The School Code is amended by setting forth
18and renumbering multiple versions of Section 2-3.157 and by
19changing Sections 10-19, 20-1, 21B-30, and 27-24 as follows:
20 (105 ILCS 5/2-3.157)
21 Sec. 2-3.157. (Repealed).
22(Source: P.A. 98-578, eff. 8-27-13. Repealed internally, eff.

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11-2-14.)
2 (105 ILCS 5/2-3.158)
3 (Section scheduled to be repealed on May 31, 2015)
4 Sec. 2-3.158 2-3.157. Task Force on Civic Education.
5 (a) The State Board of Education shall establish the Task
6Force on Civic Education, to be comprised of all of the
7following members, with an emphasis on bipartisan legislative
8representation and diverse non-legislative stakeholder
9representation:
10 (1) One member appointed by the Speaker of the House of
11 Representatives.
12 (2) One member appointed by the President of the
13 Senate.
14 (3) One member appointed by the Minority Leader of the
15 House of Representatives.
16 (4) One member appointed by the Minority Leader of the
17 Senate.
18 (5) One member appointed by the head of an association
19 representing a teachers union.
20 (6) One member appointed by the head of an association
21 representing the Chicago Teachers Union.
22 (7) One member appointed by the head of an association
23 representing social studies teachers.
24 (8) One member appointed by the head of an association
25 representing school boards.

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1 (9) One member appointed by the head of an association
2 representing the media.
3 (10) One member appointed by the head of an association
4 representing the non-profit sector that promotes civic
5 education as a core mission.
6 (11) One member appointed by the head of an association
7 representing the non-profit sector that promotes civic
8 engagement among the general public.
9 (12) One member appointed by the president of an
10 institution of higher education who teaches college or
11 graduate-level government courses or facilitates a program
12 dedicated to cultivating civic leaders.
13 (13) One member appointed by the head of an association
14 representing principals or district superintendents.
15 (b) The members of the Task Force shall serve without
16compensation but shall be reimbursed for their reasonable and
17necessary expenses from funds appropriated to the State Board
18of Education for that purpose. The members of the Task Force
19shall be reimbursed for their travel expenses from
20appropriations to the State Board of Education available for
21that purpose and subject to the rules of the appropriate travel
22control board.
23 (c) The members of the Task Force shall be considered
24members with voting rights. A quorum of the Task Force shall
25consist of a simple majority of the members of the Task Force.
26All actions and recommendations of the Task Force must be

09800SB2640ham001- 649 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1approved by a simple majority vote of the members.
2 (d) The Task Force shall meet initially at the call of the
3State Superintendent of Education, shall elect one member as
4chairperson at its initial meeting through a simple majority
5vote of the Task Force, and shall thereafter meet at the call
6of the chairperson.
7 (e) The State Board of Education shall provide
8administrative and other support to the Task Force.
9 (f) The Task Force is charged with all of the following
10tasks:
11 (1) To analyze the current state of civic education in
12 this State.
13 (2) To analyze current civic education laws in other
14 jurisdictions, both mandated and permissive.
15 (3) To identify best practices in civic education in
16 other jurisdictions.
17 (4) To make recommendations to the General Assembly
18 focused on substantially increasing civic literacy and the
19 capacity of youth to obtain the requisite knowledge,
20 skills, and practices to be civically informed members of
21 the public.
22 (5) To make funding recommendations if the Task Force's
23 recommendations to the General Assembly would require a
24 fiscal commitment.
25 (g) No later than May 31, 2014, the Task Force shall
26summarize its findings and recommendations in a report to the

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1General Assembly, filed as provided in Section 3.1 of the
2General Assembly Organization Act. Upon filing its report, the
3Task Force is dissolved.
4 (h) This Section is repealed on May 31, 2015.
5(Source: P.A. 98-301, eff. 8-9-13; revised 10-4-13.)
6 (105 ILCS 5/2-3.159)
7 Sec. 2-3.159 2-3.157. State Seal of Biliteracy.
8 (a) In this Section, "foreign language" means any language
9other than English, including all modern languages, Latin,
10American Sign Language, Native American languages, and native
11languages.
12 (b) The State Seal of Biliteracy program is established to
13recognize public high school graduates who have attained a high
14level of proficiency in one or more languages in addition to
15English. The State Seal of Biliteracy shall be awarded
16beginning with the 2014-2015 school year. School district
17participation in this program is voluntary.
18 (c) The purposes of the State Seal of Biliteracy are as
19follows:
20 (1) To encourage pupils to study languages.
21 (2) To certify attainment of biliteracy.
22 (3) To provide employers with a method of identifying
23 people with language and biliteracy skills.
24 (4) To provide universities with an additional method
25 to recognize applicants seeking admission.

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1 (5) To prepare pupils with 21st century skills.
2 (6) To recognize the value of foreign language and
3 native language instruction in public schools.
4 (7) To strengthen intergroup relationships, affirm the
5 value of diversity, and honor the multiple cultures and
6 languages of a community.
7 (d) The State Seal of Biliteracy certifies attainment of a
8high level of proficiency, sufficient for meaningful use in
9college and a career, by a graduating public high school pupil
10in one or more languages in addition to English.
11 (e) The State Board of Education shall adopt such rules as
12may be necessary to establish the criteria that pupils must
13achieve to earn a State Seal of Biliteracy, which may include
14without limitation attainment of units of credit in English
15language arts and languages other than English and passage of
16such assessments of foreign language proficiency as may be
17approved by the State Board of Education for this purpose.
18 (f) The State Board of Education shall do both of the
19following:
20 (1) Prepare and deliver to participating school
21 districts an appropriate mechanism for designating the
22 State Seal of Biliteracy on the diploma and transcript of
23 the pupil indicating that the pupil has been awarded a
24 State Seal of Biliteracy by the State Board of Education.
25 (2) Provide other information the State Board of
26 Education deems necessary for school districts to

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1 successfully participate in the program.
2 (g) A school district that participates in the program
3under this Section shall do both of the following:
4 (1) Maintain appropriate records in order to identify
5 pupils who have earned a State Seal of Biliteracy.
6 (2) Make the appropriate designation on the diploma and
7 transcript of each pupil who earns a State Seal of
8 Biliteracy.
9 (h) No fee shall be charged to a pupil to receive the
10designation pursuant to this Section. Notwithstanding this
11prohibition, costs may be incurred by the pupil in
12demonstrating proficiency, including without limitation any
13assessments required under subsection (e) of this Section.
14(Source: P.A. 98-560, eff. 8-27-13; revised 10-4-13.)
15 (105 ILCS 5/10-19) (from Ch. 122, par. 10-19)
16 Sec. 10-19. Length of school term - experimental programs.
17Each school board shall annually prepare a calendar for the
18school term, specifying the opening and closing dates and
19providing a minimum term of at least 185 days to insure 176
20days of actual pupil attendance, computable under Section
2118-8.05, except that for the 1980-1981 school year only 175
22days of actual pupil attendance shall be required because of
23the closing of schools pursuant to Section 24-2 on January 29,
241981 upon the appointment by the President of that day as a day
25of thanksgiving for the freedom of the Americans who had been

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1held hostage in Iran. Any days allowed by law for teachers'
2institutes institute but not used as such or used as parental
3institutes as provided in Section 10-22.18d shall increase the
4minimum term by the school days not so used. Except as provided
5in Section 10-19.1, the board may not extend the school term
6beyond such closing date unless that extension of term is
7necessary to provide the minimum number of computable days. In
8case of such necessary extension school employees shall be paid
9for such additional time on the basis of their regular
10contracts. A school board may specify a closing date earlier
11than that set on the annual calendar when the schools of the
12district have provided the minimum number of computable days
13under this Section. Nothing in this Section prevents the board
14from employing superintendents of schools, principals and
15other nonteaching personnel for a period of 12 months, or in
16the case of superintendents for a period in accordance with
17Section 10-23.8, or prevents the board from employing other
18personnel before or after the regular school term with payment
19of salary proportionate to that received for comparable work
20during the school term.
21 A school board may make such changes in its calendar for
22the school term as may be required by any changes in the legal
23school holidays prescribed in Section 24-2. A school board may
24make changes in its calendar for the school term as may be
25necessary to reflect the utilization of teachers' institute
26days as parental institute days as provided in Section

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110-22.18d.
2 The calendar for the school term and any changes must be
3submitted to and approved by the regional superintendent of
4schools before the calendar or changes may take effect.
5 With the prior approval of the State Board of Education and
6subject to review by the State Board of Education every 3
7years, any school board may, by resolution of its board and in
8agreement with affected exclusive collective bargaining
9agents, establish experimental educational programs, including
10but not limited to programs for self-directed learning or
11outside of formal class periods, which programs when so
12approved shall be considered to comply with the requirements of
13this Section as respects numbers of days of actual pupil
14attendance and with the other requirements of this Act as
15respects courses of instruction.
16(Source: P.A. 93-1036, eff. 9-14-04; revised 11-12-13.)
17 (105 ILCS 5/20-1) (from Ch. 122, par. 20-1)
18 Sec. 20-1. Authority to create working cash fund. In each
19school district, whether organized under general law or special
20charter, having a population of less than 500,000 inhabitants,
21a fund to be known as a "Working Cash Fund" may be created and
22maintained consistent with the limitations of this Article, for
23the purpose of enabling the district to have in its treasury at
24all times time sufficient money to meet demands thereon for
25expenditures for corporate purposes.

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1(Source: P.A. 96-1277, eff. 7-26-10; revised 9-12-13.)
2 (105 ILCS 5/21B-30)
3 Sec. 21B-30. Educator testing.
4 (a) This Section applies beginning on July 1, 2012.
5 (b) The State Board of Education, in consultation with the
6State Educator Preparation and Licensure Board, shall design
7and implement a system of examinations, which shall be required
8prior to the issuance of educator licenses. These examinations
9and indicators must be based on national and State professional
10teaching standards, as determined by the State Board of
11Education, in consultation with the State Educator Preparation
12and Licensure Board. The State Board of Education may adopt
13such rules as may be necessary to implement and administer this
14Section. No score on a test required under this Section, other
15than a test of basic skills, shall be more than 5 years old at
16the time that an individual makes application for an educator
17license or endorsement.
18 (c) Applicants seeking a Professional Educator License or
19an Educator License with Stipulations shall be required to pass
20a test of basic skills before the license is issued, unless the
21endorsement the individual is seeking does not require passage
22of the test. All applicants completing Illinois-approved,
23teacher education or school service personnel preparation
24programs shall be required to pass the State Board of
25Education's recognized test of basic skills prior to starting

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1their student teaching or starting the final semester of their
2internship, unless required earlier at the discretion of the
3recognized, Illinois institution in which they are completing
4their approved program. An individual who passes a test of
5basic skills does not need to do so again for subsequent
6endorsements or other educator licenses.
7 (d) All applicants seeking a State license shall be
8required to pass a test of content area knowledge for each area
9of endorsement for which there is an applicable test. There
10shall be no exception to this requirement. No candidate shall
11be allowed to student teach or serve as the teacher of record
12until he or she has passed the applicable content area test.
13 (e) All applicants seeking a State license endorsed in a
14teaching field shall pass the assessment of professional
15teaching (APT). Passage of the APT is required for completion
16of an approved Illinois educator preparation program.
17 (f) Beginning on September 1, 2015, all candidates
18completing teacher preparation programs in this State are
19required to pass an evidence-based assessment of teacher
20effectiveness approved by the State Board of Education, in
21consultation with the State Educator Preparation and Licensure
22Board. All recognized institutions offering approved teacher
23preparation programs must begin phasing in the approved teacher
24performance assessment no later than July 1, 2013.
25 (g) Tests of basic skills and content area knowledge and
26the assessment of professional teaching shall be the tests that

09800SB2640ham001- 657 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1from time to time are designated by the State Board of
2Education, in consultation with the State Educator Preparation
3and Licensure Board, and may be tests prepared by an
4educational testing organization or tests designed by the State
5Board of Education, in consultation with the State Educator
6Preparation and Licensure Board. The areas to be covered by a
7test of basic skills shall include reading, language arts, and
8mathematics. The test of content area knowledge shall assess
9content knowledge in a specific subject field. The tests must
10be designed to be racially neutral to ensure that no person
11taking the tests is discriminated against on the basis of race,
12color, national origin, or other factors unrelated to the
13person's ability to perform as a licensed employee. The score
14required to pass the tests shall be fixed by the State Board of
15Education, in consultation with the State Educator Preparation
16and Licensure Board. The tests shall be administered not fewer
17than 3 times a year at such time and place as may be designated
18by the State Board of Education, in consultation with the State
19Educator Preparation and Licensure Board.
20 The State Board shall implement a test or tests to assess
21the speaking, reading, writing, and grammar skills of
22applicants for an endorsement or a license issued under
23subdivision (G) of paragraph (2) of Section 21B-20 of this Code
24in the English language and in the language of the transitional
25bilingual education program requested by the applicant.
26 (h) Except as provided in Section 34-6 of this Code, the

09800SB2640ham001- 658 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1provisions of this Section shall apply equally in any school
2district subject to Article 34 of this Code.
3 (i) The rules developed to implement and enforce the
4testing requirements under this Section shall include
5provisions governing test selection, test validation and
6determination of a passing score, administration of the tests,
7frequency of administration, applicant fees, frequency of
8applicants taking the tests, the years for which a score is
9valid, and appropriate special accommodations. The State Board
10of Education shall develop such rules as may be needed to
11ensure uniformity from year to year in the level of difficulty
12for each form of an assessment.
13(Source: P.A. 97-607, eff. 8-26-11; 98-361, eff. 1-1-14;
1498-581, eff. 8-27-13; revised 9-9-13.)
15 (105 ILCS 5/27-24) (from Ch. 122, par. 27-24)
16 Sec. 27-24. Short title. Sections 27-24 through 27-24.10
1727-24.8 of this Article are known and may be cited as the
18Driver Education Act.
19(Source: P.A. 76-1835; revised 11-14-13.)
20 Section 275. The Critical Health Problems and
21Comprehensive Health Education Act is amended by changing
22Section 3 as follows:
23 (105 ILCS 110/3)

09800SB2640ham001- 659 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 Sec. 3. Comprehensive Health Education Program. The
2program established under this Act shall include, but not be
3limited to, the following major educational areas as a basis
4for curricula in all elementary and secondary schools in this
5State: human ecology and health, human growth and development,
6the emotional, psychological, physiological, hygienic and
7social responsibilities of family life, including sexual
8abstinence until marriage, prevention and control of disease,
9including instruction in grades 6 through 12 on the prevention,
10transmission and spread of AIDS, age-appropriate sexual abuse
11and assault awareness and prevention education in grades
12pre-kindergarten through 12, public and environmental health,
13consumer health, safety education and disaster survival,
14mental health and illness, personal health habits, alcohol,
15drug use, and abuse including the medical and legal
16ramifications of alcohol, drug, and tobacco use, abuse during
17pregnancy, evidence-based and medically accurate information
18regarding sexual abstinence, tobacco, nutrition, and dental
19health. The program shall also provide course material and
20instruction to advise pupils of the Abandoned Newborn Infant
21Protection Act. The program shall include information about
22cancer, including without limitation types of cancer, signs and
23symptoms, risk factors, the importance of early prevention and
24detection, and information on where to go for help.
25Notwithstanding the above educational areas, the following
26areas may also be included as a basis for curricula in all

09800SB2640ham001- 660 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1elementary and secondary schools in this State: basic first aid
2(including, but not limited to, cardiopulmonary resuscitation
3and the Heimlich maneuver), heart disease, diabetes, stroke,
4the prevention of child abuse, neglect, and suicide, and teen
5dating violence in grades 7 through 12.
6 The school board of each public elementary and secondary
7school in the State shall encourage all teachers and other
8school personnel to acquire, develop, and maintain the
9knowledge and skills necessary to properly administer
10life-saving techniques, including without limitation the
11Heimlich maneuver and rescue breathing. The training shall be
12in accordance with standards of the American Red Cross, the
13American Heart Association, or another nationally recognized
14certifying organization. A school board may use the services of
15non-governmental entities whose personnel have expertise in
16life-saving techniques to instruct teachers and other school
17personnel in these techniques. Each school board is encouraged
18to have in its employ, or on its volunteer staff, at least one
19person who is certified, by the American Red Cross or by
20another qualified certifying agency, as qualified to
21administer first aid and cardiopulmonary resuscitation. In
22addition, each school board is authorized to allocate
23appropriate portions of its institute or inservice days to
24conduct training programs for teachers and other school
25personnel who have expressed an interest in becoming qualified
26to administer emergency first aid or cardiopulmonary

09800SB2640ham001- 661 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1resuscitation. School boards are urged to encourage their
2teachers and other school personnel who coach school athletic
3programs and other extracurricular school activities to
4acquire, develop, and maintain the knowledge and skills
5necessary to properly administer first aid and cardiopulmonary
6resuscitation in accordance with standards and requirements
7established by the American Red Cross or another qualified
8certifying agency. Subject to appropriation, the State Board of
9Education shall establish and administer a matching grant
10program to pay for half of the cost that a school district
11incurs in training those teachers and other school personnel
12who express an interest in becoming qualified to administer
13cardiopulmonary resuscitation (which training must be in
14accordance with standards of the American Red Cross, the
15American Heart Association, or another nationally recognized
16certifying organization) or in learning how to use an automated
17external defibrillator. A school district that applies for a
18grant must demonstrate that it has funds to pay half of the
19cost of the training for which matching grant money is sought.
20The State Board of Education shall award the grants on a
21first-come, first-serve basis.
22 No pupil shall be required to take or participate in any
23class or course on AIDS or family life instruction if his
24parent or guardian submits written objection thereto, and
25refusal to take or participate in the course or program shall
26not be reason for suspension or expulsion of the pupil.

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1 Curricula developed under programs established in
2accordance with this Act in the major educational area of
3alcohol and drug use and abuse shall include classroom
4instruction in grades 5 through 12. The instruction, which
5shall include matters relating to both the physical and legal
6effects and ramifications of drug and substance abuse, shall be
7integrated into existing curricula; and the State Board of
8Education shall develop and make available to all elementary
9and secondary schools in this State instructional materials and
10guidelines which will assist the schools in incorporating the
11instruction into their existing curricula. In addition, school
12districts may offer, as part of existing curricula during the
13school day or as part of an after school program, support
14services and instruction for pupils or pupils whose parent,
15parents, or guardians are chemically dependent.
16(Source: P.A. 97-1147, eff. 1-24-13; 98-190, eff. 8-6-13;
1798-441, eff. 1-1-14; revised 9-9-13.)
18 Section 280. The Public Community College Act is amended by
19changing Section 2-16.02 as follows:
20 (110 ILCS 805/2-16.02) (from Ch. 122, par. 102-16.02)
21 Sec. 2-16.02. Grants. Any community college district that
22maintains a community college recognized by the State Board
23shall receive, when eligible, grants enumerated in this
24Section. Funded semester credit hours or other measures or both

09800SB2640ham001- 663 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1as specified by the State Board shall be used to distribute
2grants to community colleges. Funded semester credit hours
3shall be defined, for purposes of this Section, as the greater
4of (1) the number of semester credit hours, or equivalent, in
5all funded instructional categories of students who have been
6certified as being in attendance at midterm during the
7respective terms of the base fiscal year or (2) the average of
8semester credit hours, or equivalent, in all funded
9instructional categories of students who have been certified as
10being in attendance at midterm during the respective terms of
11the base fiscal year and the 2 prior fiscal years. For purposes
12of this Section, "base fiscal year" means the fiscal year 2
13years prior to the fiscal year for which the grants are
14appropriated. Such students shall have been residents of
15Illinois and shall have been enrolled in courses that are part
16of instructional program categories approved by the State Board
17and that are applicable toward an associate degree or
18certificate. Courses that are eligible for reimbursement are
19those courses for which the district pays 50% or more of the
20program costs from unrestricted revenue sources, with the
21exception of courses offered by contract with the Department of
22Corrections in correctional institutions. For the purposes of
23this Section, "unrestricted revenue sources" means those
24revenues in which the provider of the revenue imposes no
25financial limitations upon the district as it relates to the
26expenditure of the funds. Except for Fiscal Year 2012, base

09800SB2640ham001- 664 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1operating grants shall be paid based on rates per funded
2semester credit hour or equivalent calculated by the State
3Board for funded instructional categories using cost of
4instruction, enrollment, inflation, and other relevant
5factors. For Fiscal Year 2012, the allocations for base
6operating grants to community college districts shall be the
7same as they were in Fiscal Year 2011, reduced or increased
8proportionately according to the appropriation for base
9operating grants for Fiscal Year 2012.
10 Equalization grants shall be calculated by the State Board
11by determining a local revenue factor for each district by: (A)
12adding (1) each district's Corporate Personal Property
13Replacement Fund allocations from the base fiscal year or the
14average of the base fiscal year and prior year, whichever is
15less, divided by the applicable statewide average tax rate to
16(2) the district's most recently audited year's equalized
17assessed valuation or the average of the most recently audited
18year and prior year, whichever is less, (B) then dividing by
19the district's audited full-time equivalent resident students
20for the base fiscal year or the average for the base fiscal
21year and the 2 prior fiscal years, whichever is greater, and
22(C) then multiplying by the applicable statewide average tax
23rate. The State Board shall calculate a statewide weighted
24average threshold by applying the same methodology to the
25totals of all districts' Corporate Personal Property Tax
26Replacement Fund allocations, equalized assessed valuations,

09800SB2640ham001- 665 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1and audited full-time equivalent district resident students
2and multiplying by the applicable statewide average tax rate.
3The difference between the statewide weighted average
4threshold and the local revenue factor, multiplied by the
5number of full-time equivalent resident students, shall
6determine the amount of equalization funding that each district
7is eligible to receive. A percentage factor, as determined by
8the State Board, may be applied to the statewide threshold as a
9method for allocating equalization funding. A minimum
10equalization grant of an amount per district as determined by
11the State Board shall be established for any community college
12district which qualifies for an equalization grant based upon
13the preceding criteria, but becomes ineligible for
14equalization funding, or would have received a grant of less
15than the minimum equalization grant, due to threshold
16prorations applied to reduce equalization funding. As of July
171, 2013, a community college district eligible to receive an
18equalization grant based upon the preceding criteria must
19maintain a minimum required combined in-district tuition and
20universal fee rate per semester credit hour equal to 70% of the
21State-average combined rate, as determined by the State Board,
22or the total revenue received by the community college district
23from combined in-district tuition and universal fees must be at
24least 30% of the total revenue received by the community
25college district, as determined by the State Board, for
26equalization funding. As of July 1, 2004, a community college

09800SB2640ham001- 666 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1district must maintain a minimum required operating tax rate
2equal to at least 95% of its maximum authorized tax rate to
3qualify for equalization funding. This 95% minimum tax rate
4requirement shall be based upon the maximum operating tax rate
5as limited by the Property Tax Extension Limitation Law.
6 The State Board shall distribute such other grants as may
7be authorized or appropriated by the General Assembly.
8 Each community college district entitled to State grants
9under this Section must submit a report of its enrollment to
10the State Board not later than 30 days following the end of
11each semester, quarter, or term in a format prescribed by the
12State Board. These semester credit hours, or equivalent, shall
13be certified by each district on forms provided by the State
14Board. Each district's certified semester credit hours, or
15equivalent, are subject to audit pursuant to Section 3-22.1.
16 The State Board shall certify, prepare, and submit monthly
17vouchers to the State Comptroller setting forth an amount equal
18to one-twelfth of the grants approved by the State Board for
19base operating grants and equalization grants. The State Board
20shall prepare and submit to the State Comptroller vouchers for
21payments of other grants as appropriated by the General
22Assembly. If the amount appropriated for grants is different
23from the amount provided for such grants under this Act, the
24grants shall be proportionately reduced or increased
25accordingly.
26 For the purposes of this Section, "resident student" means

09800SB2640ham001- 667 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1a student in a community college district who maintains
2residency in that district or meets other residency definitions
3established by the State Board, and who was enrolled either in
4one of the approved instructional program categories in that
5district, or in another community college district to which the
6resident's district is paying tuition under Section 6-2 or with
7which the resident's district has entered into a cooperative
8agreement in lieu of such tuition.
9 For the purposes of this Section, a "full-time equivalent"
10student is equal to 30 semester credit hours.
11 The Illinois Community College Board Contracts and Grants
12Fund is hereby created in the State Treasury. Items of income
13to this fund shall include any grants, awards, endowments, or
14like proceeds, and where appropriate, other funds made
15available through contracts with governmental, public, and
16private agencies or persons. The General Assembly shall from
17time to time make appropriations payable from such fund for the
18support, improvement, and expenses of the State Board and
19Illinois community college districts.
20(Source: P.A. 97-72, eff. 7-1-11; 97-1160, eff. 2-1-13; 98-46,
21eff. 6-28-13; revised 8-12-13.)
22 Section 285. The Pawnbroker Regulation Act is amended by
23changing Section 7 as follows:
24 (205 ILCS 510/7) (from Ch. 17, par. 4657)

09800SB2640ham001- 668 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 Sec. 7. Daily report.
2 (a) Except as provided in subsection (b), it shall be the
3duty of every pawnbroker to make out and deliver to the sheriff
4of the county in which such pawnbroker does business, on each
5day before the hours of 12 o'clock noon, a legible and exact
6copy from the standard record book, as required in Section 5 of
7this Act, that lists all personal property and any other
8valuable thing received on deposit or purchased during the
9preceding day, including the exact time when received or
10purchased, and a description of the person or person by whom
11left in pledge, or from whom the same were purchased; provided,
12that in cities or towns having 25,000 or more inhabitants, a
13copy of the such report shall at the same time also be
14delivered to the superintendent of police or the chief police
15officer of such city or town. Such report may be made by
16computer printout or input memory device if the format has been
17approved by the local law enforcement agency.
18 (b) In counties with more than 3,000,000 inhabitants, a
19pawnbroker must provide the daily report to the sheriff only if
20the pawnshop is located in an unincorporated area of the
21county. Pawnbrokers located in cities or towns in such counties
22must deliver such reports to the superintendent of police or
23the chief police officer of such city or town.
24(Source: P.A. 90-477, eff. 7-1-98; 90-602, eff. 7-1-98; revised
2511-14-13.)

09800SB2640ham001- 669 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 Section 290. The Alternative Health Care Delivery Act is
2amended by changing Section 30 as follows:
3 (210 ILCS 3/30)
4 Sec. 30. Demonstration program requirements. The
5requirements set forth in this Section shall apply to
6demonstration programs.
7 (a) (Blank).
8 (a-5) There shall be no more than the total number of
9postsurgical recovery care centers with a certificate of need
10for beds as of January 1, 2008.
11 (a-10) There shall be no more than a total of 9 children's
12respite care center alternative health care models in the
13demonstration program, which shall be located as follows:
14 (1) Two in the City of Chicago.
15 (2) One in Cook County outside the City of Chicago.
16 (3) A total of 2 in the area comprised of DuPage, Kane,
17 Lake, McHenry, and Will counties.
18 (4) A total of 2 in municipalities with a population of
19 50,000 or more and not located in the areas described in
20 paragraphs (1), (2), or (3).
21 (5) A total of 2 in rural areas, as defined by the
22 Health Facilities and Services Review Board.
23 No more than one children's respite care model owned and
24operated by a licensed skilled pediatric facility shall be
25located in each of the areas designated in this subsection

09800SB2640ham001- 670 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1(a-10).
2 (a-15) There shall be 5 authorized community-based
3residential rehabilitation center alternative health care
4models in the demonstration program.
5 (a-20) There shall be an authorized Alzheimer's disease
6management center alternative health care model in the
7demonstration program. The Alzheimer's disease management
8center shall be located in Will County, owned by a
9not-for-profit entity, and endorsed by a resolution approved by
10the county board before the effective date of this amendatory
11Act of the 91st General Assembly.
12 (a-25) There shall be no more than 10 birth center
13alternative health care models in the demonstration program,
14located as follows:
15 (1) Four in the area comprising Cook, DuPage, Kane,
16 Lake, McHenry, and Will counties, one of which shall be
17 owned or operated by a hospital and one of which shall be
18 owned or operated by a federally qualified health center.
19 (2) Three in municipalities with a population of 50,000
20 or more not located in the area described in paragraph (1)
21 of this subsection, one of which shall be owned or operated
22 by a hospital and one of which shall be owned or operated
23 by a federally qualified health center.
24 (3) Three in rural areas, one of which shall be owned
25 or operated by a hospital and one of which shall be owned
26 or operated by a federally qualified health center.

09800SB2640ham001- 671 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 The first 3 birth centers authorized to operate by the
2Department shall be located in or predominantly serve the
3residents of a health professional shortage area as determined
4by the United States Department of Health and Human Services.
5There shall be no more than 2 birth centers authorized to
6operate in any single health planning area for obstetric
7services as determined under the Illinois Health Facilities
8Planning Act. If a birth center is located outside of a health
9professional shortage area, (i) the birth center shall be
10located in a health planning area with a demonstrated need for
11obstetrical service beds, as determined by the Health
12Facilities and Services Review Board or (ii) there must be a
13reduction in the existing number of obstetrical service beds in
14the planning area so that the establishment of the birth center
15does not result in an increase in the total number of
16obstetrical service beds in the health planning area.
17 (b) Alternative health care models, other than a model
18authorized under subsection (a-10) or (a-20), shall obtain a
19certificate of need from the Health Facilities and Services
20Review Board under the Illinois Health Facilities Planning Act
21before receiving a license by the Department. If, after
22obtaining its initial certificate of need, an alternative
23health care delivery model that is a community based
24residential rehabilitation center seeks to increase the bed
25capacity of that center, it must obtain a certificate of need
26from the Health Facilities and Services Review Board before

09800SB2640ham001- 672 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1increasing the bed capacity. Alternative health care models in
2medically underserved areas shall receive priority in
3obtaining a certificate of need.
4 (c) An alternative health care model license shall be
5issued for a period of one year and shall be annually renewed
6if the facility or program is in substantial compliance with
7the Department's rules adopted under this Act. A licensed
8alternative health care model that continues to be in
9substantial compliance after the conclusion of the
10demonstration program shall be eligible for annual renewals
11unless and until a different licensure program for that type of
12health care model is established by legislation, except that a
13postsurgical recovery care center meeting the following
14requirements may apply within 3 years after August 25, 2009
15(the effective date of Public Act 96-669) for a Certificate of
16Need permit to operate as a hospital:
17 (1) The postsurgical recovery care center shall apply
18 to the Health Facilities and Services Review Board for a
19 Certificate of Need permit to discontinue the postsurgical
20 recovery care center and to establish a hospital.
21 (2) If the postsurgical recovery care center obtains a
22 Certificate of Need permit to operate as a hospital, it
23 shall apply for licensure as a hospital under the Hospital
24 Licensing Act and shall meet all statutory and regulatory
25 requirements of a hospital.
26 (3) After obtaining licensure as a hospital, any

09800SB2640ham001- 673 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 license as an ambulatory surgical treatment center and any
2 license as a postsurgical post-surgical recovery care
3 center shall be null and void.
4 (4) The former postsurgical recovery care center that
5 receives a hospital license must seek and use its best
6 efforts to maintain certification under Titles XVIII and
7 XIX of the federal Social Security Act.
8 The Department may issue a provisional license to any
9alternative health care model that does not substantially
10comply with the provisions of this Act and the rules adopted
11under this Act if (i) the Department finds that the alternative
12health care model has undertaken changes and corrections which
13upon completion will render the alternative health care model
14in substantial compliance with this Act and rules and (ii) the
15health and safety of the patients of the alternative health
16care model will be protected during the period for which the
17provisional license is issued. The Department shall advise the
18licensee of the conditions under which the provisional license
19is issued, including the manner in which the alternative health
20care model fails to comply with the provisions of this Act and
21rules, and the time within which the changes and corrections
22necessary for the alternative health care model to
23substantially comply with this Act and rules shall be
24completed.
25 (d) Alternative health care models shall seek
26certification under Titles XVIII and XIX of the federal Social

09800SB2640ham001- 674 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1Security Act. In addition, alternative health care models shall
2provide charitable care consistent with that provided by
3comparable health care providers in the geographic area.
4 (d-5) (Blank).
5 (e) Alternative health care models shall, to the extent
6possible, link and integrate their services with nearby health
7care facilities.
8 (f) Each alternative health care model shall implement a
9quality assurance program with measurable benefits and at
10reasonable cost.
11(Source: P.A. 96-31, eff. 6-30-09; 96-129, eff. 8-4-09; 96-669,
12eff. 8-25-09; 96-812, eff. 1-1-10; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10;
1396-1071, eff. 7-16-10; 96-1123, eff. 1-1-11; 97-135, eff.
147-14-11; 97-333, eff. 8-12-11; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; revised
1511-12-13.)
16 Section 295. The Illinois Clinical Laboratory and Blood
17Bank Act is amended by changing Section 7-101 as follows:
18 (210 ILCS 25/7-101) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 627-101)
19 Sec. 7-101. Examination of specimens. A clinical
20laboratory shall examine specimens only at the request of (i) a
21licensed physician, (ii) a licensed dentist, (iii) a licensed
22podiatric physician, (iv) a licensed optometrist, (v) a
23licensed physician assistant in accordance with the written
24guidelines required under subdivision (3) of Section 4 and

09800SB2640ham001- 675 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1under Section 7.5 of the Physician Assistant Practice Act of
21987, (v-A) an advanced practice nurse in accordance with the
3written collaborative agreement required under Section 65-35
4of the Nurse Practice Act, (vi) an authorized law enforcement
5agency or, in the case of blood alcohol, at the request of the
6individual for whom the test is to be performed in compliance
7with Sections 11-501 and 11-501.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code,
8or (vii) a genetic counselor with the specific authority from a
9referral to order a test or tests pursuant to subsection (b) of
10Section 20 of the Genetic Counselor Licensing Act. If the
11request to a laboratory is oral, the physician or other
12authorized person shall submit a written request to the
13laboratory within 48 hours. If the laboratory does not receive
14the written request within that period, it shall note that fact
15in its records. For purposes of this Section, a request made by
16electronic mail or fax constitutes a written request.
17(Source: P.A. 97-333, eff. 8-12-11; 98-185, eff. 1-1-14;
1898-214, eff. 8-9-13; revised 10-15-13.)
19 Section 300. The Abused and Neglected Long Term Care
20Facility Residents Reporting Act is amended by changing Section
214 as follows:
22 (210 ILCS 30/4) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 4164)
23 Sec. 4. Any long term care facility administrator, agent or
24employee or any physician, hospital, surgeon, dentist,

09800SB2640ham001- 676 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1osteopath, chiropractor, podiatric physician, accredited
2religious practitioner who provides treatment by spiritual
3means alone through prayer in accordance with the tenets and
4practices of the accrediting church, coroner, social worker,
5social services administrator, registered nurse, law
6enforcement officer, field personnel of the Department of
7Healthcare and Family Services, field personnel of the Illinois
8Department of Public Health and County or Municipal Health
9Departments, personnel of the Department of Human Services
10(acting as the successor to the Department of Mental Health and
11Developmental Disabilities or the Department of Public Aid),
12personnel of the Guardianship and Advocacy Commission,
13personnel of the State Fire Marshal, local fire department
14inspectors or other personnel, or personnel of the Illinois
15Department on Aging, or its subsidiary Agencies on Aging, or
16employee of a facility licensed under the Assisted Living and
17Shared Housing Act, having reasonable cause to believe any
18resident with whom they have direct contact has been subjected
19to abuse or neglect shall immediately report or cause a report
20to be made to the Department. Persons required to make reports
21or cause reports to be made under this Section include all
22employees of the State of Illinois who are involved in
23providing services to residents, including professionals
24providing medical or rehabilitation services and all other
25persons having direct contact with residents; and further
26include all employees of community service agencies who provide

09800SB2640ham001- 677 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1services to a resident of a public or private long term care
2facility outside of that facility. Any long term care surveyor
3of the Illinois Department of Public Health who has reasonable
4cause to believe in the course of a survey that a resident has
5been abused or neglected and initiates an investigation while
6on site at the facility shall be exempt from making a report
7under this Section but the results of any such investigation
8shall be forwarded to the central register in a manner and form
9described by the Department.
10 The requirement of this Act shall not relieve any long term
11care facility administrator, agent or employee of
12responsibility to report the abuse or neglect of a resident
13under Section 3-610 of the Nursing Home Care Act or under
14Section 3-610 of the ID/DD Community Care Act or under Section
152-107 of the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of
162013.
17 In addition to the above persons required to report
18suspected resident abuse and neglect, any other person may make
19a report to the Department, or to any law enforcement officer,
20if such person has reasonable cause to suspect a resident has
21been abused or neglected.
22 This Section also applies to residents whose death occurs
23from suspected abuse or neglect before being found or brought
24to a hospital.
25 A person required to make reports or cause reports to be
26made under this Section who fails to comply with the

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1requirements of this Section is guilty of a Class A
2misdemeanor.
3(Source: P.A. 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-813,
4eff. 7-13-12; 98-104, eff. 7-22-13; 98-214, eff. 8-9-13;
5revised 9-9-13.)
6 Section 305. The Community Living Facilities Licensing Act
7is amended by changing Section 9 as follows:
8 (210 ILCS 35/9) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 4189)
9 Sec. 9. Regular licenses.
10 (1) A regular license shall be valid for a one-year period
11from the date of authorization. A license is not transferable.
12 (2) Within 120 to 150 days prior to the date of expiration
13of the license, the licensee shall apply to the Department for
14renewal of the license. The procedure for renewing a valid
15license for a Community Living Facility shall be the same as
16for applying for the initial license, pursuant to subsections
17(1) through (4) of Section 7 of this Act. If the Department has
18determined on the basis of available documentation that the
19Community Living Facility is in substantial compliance with
20this Act and the rules promulgated under this Act, and has
21provided to the Department an accurate disclosure document in
22accordance with the Alzheimer's Disease and Related Dementias
23Special Care Disclosure Act, it shall renew the regular license
24for another one-year period.

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1 (3) Whenever ownership of a facility is transferred from
2the licensee to any other person, agency, association,
3corporation, partnership, or organization, the transferee
4transferree must obtain a new probationary license. The
5transferee transferree shall notify the Department of the
6transfer and apply for a new license at least 30 days prior to
7final transfer. The requirement for an on-site inspection in
8Section 7 may be waived if the Department has conducted a
9survey of the Community Living Facility within the past 60 days
10and the survey disclosed substantial compliance with this Act
11and rules and regulations promulgated hereunder.
12(Source: P.A. 96-990, eff. 7-2-10; revised 9-11-13.)
13 Section 310. The Nursing Home Care Act is amended by
14changing Sections 3-112 and 3-304.1 as follows:
15 (210 ILCS 45/3-112) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 4153-112)
16 Sec. 3-112. (a) Whenever ownership of a facility is
17transferred from the person named in the license to any other
18person, the transferee must obtain a new probationary license.
19The transferee shall notify the Department of the transfer and
20apply for a new license at least 30 days prior to final
21transfer.
22 (b) The transferor shall notify the Department at least 30
23days prior to final transfer. The transferor shall remain
24responsible for the operation of the facility until such time

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1as a license is issued to the transferee transferree.
2(Source: P.A. 81-223; revised 9-11-13.)
3 (210 ILCS 45/3-304.1)
4 Sec. 3-304.1. Public computer access to information.
5 (a) The Department must make information regarding nursing
6homes in the State available to the public in electronic form
7on the World Wide Web, including all of the following
8information:
9 (1) who regulates nursing homes;
10 (2) information in the possession of the Department
11 that is listed in Sections 3-210 and 3-304;
12 (3) deficiencies and plans of correction;
13 (4) enforcement remedies;
14 (5) penalty letters;
15 (6) designation of penalty monies;
16 (7) the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services'
17 Health Care Financing Administration special projects or
18 federally required inspections;
19 (8) advisory standards;
20 (9) deficiency-free surveys;
21 (10) enforcement actions and enforcement summaries;
22 (11) distressed facilities; and
23 (12) the report submitted under Section 3-518; .
24 (13) (12) a link to the most recent facility cost
25 report filed with the Department of Healthcare and Family

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1 Services;
2 (14) (13) a link to the most recent Consumer Choice
3 Information Report filed with the Department on Aging;
4 (15) (14) whether the facility is part of a chain; the
5 facility shall be deemed part of a chain if it meets
6 criteria established by the United States Department of
7 Health and Human Services that identify it as owned by a
8 chain organization;
9 (16) (15) whether the facility is a for-profit or
10 not-for-profit facility; and
11 (17) (16) whether the facility is or is part of a
12 continuing care retirement community.
13 (b) No fee or other charge may be imposed by the Department
14as a condition of accessing the information.
15 (c) The electronic public access provided through the World
16Wide Web shall be in addition to any other electronic or print
17distribution of the information.
18 (d) The information shall be made available as provided in
19this Section in the shortest practicable time after it is
20publicly available in any other form.
21(Source: P.A. 98-85, eff. 7-15-13; 98-505, eff. 1-1-14; revised
229-9-13.)
23 Section 315. The Emergency Medical Services (EMS) Systems
24Act is amended by changing Section 3.117 as follows:

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1 (210 ILCS 50/3.117)
2 Sec. 3.117. Hospital Designations.
3 (a) The Department shall attempt to designate Primary
4Stroke Centers in all areas of the State.
5 (1) The Department shall designate as many certified
6 Primary Stroke Centers as apply for that designation
7 provided they are certified by a nationally-recognized
8 certifying body, approved by the Department, and
9 certification criteria are consistent with the most
10 current nationally-recognized, evidence-based stroke
11 guidelines related to reducing the occurrence,
12 disabilities, and death associated with stroke.
13 (2) A hospital certified as a Primary Stroke Center by
14 a nationally-recognized certifying body approved by the
15 Department, shall send a copy of the Certificate to the
16 Department and shall be deemed, within 30 days of its
17 receipt by the Department, to be a State-designated Primary
18 Stroke Center.
19 (3) With respect to a hospital that is a designated
20 Primary Stroke Center, the Department shall have the
21 authority and responsibility to do the following:
22 (A) Suspend or revoke a hospital's Primary Stroke
23 Center designation upon receiving notice that the
24 hospital's Primary Stroke Center certification has
25 lapsed or has been revoked by the State recognized
26 certifying body.

09800SB2640ham001- 683 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 (B) Suspend a hospital's Primary Stroke Center
2 designation, in extreme circumstances where patients
3 may be at risk for immediate harm or death, until such
4 time as the certifying body investigates and makes a
5 final determination regarding certification.
6 (C) Restore any previously suspended or revoked
7 Department designation upon notice to the Department
8 that the certifying body has confirmed or restored the
9 Primary Stroke Center certification of that previously
10 designated hospital.
11 (D) Suspend a hospital's Primary Stroke Center
12 designation at the request of a hospital seeking to
13 suspend its own Department designation.
14 (4) Primary Stroke Center designation shall remain
15 valid at all times while the hospital maintains its
16 certification as a Primary Stroke Center, in good standing,
17 with the certifying body. The duration of a Primary Stroke
18 Center designation shall coincide with the duration of its
19 Primary Stroke Center certification. Each designated
20 Primary Stroke Center shall have its designation
21 automatically renewed upon the Department's receipt of a
22 copy of the accrediting body's certification renewal.
23 (5) A hospital that no longer meets
24 nationally-recognized, evidence-based standards for
25 Primary Stroke Centers, or loses its Primary Stroke Center
26 certification, shall immediately notify the Department and

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1 the Regional EMS Advisory Committee.
2 (b) The Department shall attempt to designate hospitals as
3Emergent Stroke Ready Hospitals capable of providing emergent
4stroke care in all areas of the State.
5 (1) The Department shall designate as many Emergent
6 Stroke Ready Hospitals as apply for that designation as
7 long as they meet the criteria in this Act.
8 (2) Hospitals may apply for, and receive, Emergent
9 Stroke Ready Hospital designation from the Department,
10 provided that the hospital attests, on a form developed by
11 the Department in consultation with the State Stroke
12 Advisory Subcommittee, that it meets, and will continue to
13 meet, the criteria for Emergent Stroke Ready Hospital
14 designation.
15 (3) Hospitals seeking Emergent Stroke Ready Hospital
16 designation shall develop policies and procedures that
17 consider nationally-recognized, evidence-based protocols
18 for the provision of emergent stroke care. Hospital
19 policies relating to emergent stroke care and stroke
20 patient outcomes shall be reviewed at least annually, or
21 more often as needed, by a hospital committee that oversees
22 quality improvement. Adjustments shall be made as
23 necessary to advance the quality of stroke care delivered.
24 Criteria for Emergent Stroke Ready Hospital designation of
25 hospitals shall be limited to the ability of a hospital to:
26 (A) create written acute care protocols related to

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1 emergent stroke care;
2 (B) maintain a written transfer agreement with one
3 or more hospitals that have neurosurgical expertise;
4 (C) designate a director of stroke care, which may
5 be a clinical member of the hospital staff or the
6 designee of the hospital administrator, to oversee the
7 hospital's stroke care policies and procedures;
8 (D) administer thrombolytic therapy, or
9 subsequently developed medical therapies that meet
10 nationally-recognized, evidence-based stroke
11 guidelines;
12 (E) conduct brain image tests at all times;
13 (F) conduct blood coagulation studies at all
14 times; and
15 (G) maintain a log of stroke patients, which shall
16 be available for review upon request by the Department
17 or any hospital that has a written transfer agreement
18 with the Emergent Stroke Ready Hospital.
19 (4) With respect to Emergent Stroke Ready Hospital
20 designation, the Department shall have the authority and
21 responsibility to do the following:
22 (A) Require hospitals applying for Emergent Stroke
23 Ready Hospital designation to attest, on a form
24 developed by the Department in consultation with the
25 State Stroke Advisory Subcommittee, that the hospital
26 meets, and will continue to meet, the criteria for an a

09800SB2640ham001- 686 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 Emergent Stroke Ready Hospital.
2 (B) Designate a hospital as an Emergent Stroke
3 Ready Hospital no more than 20 business days after
4 receipt of an attestation that meets the requirements
5 for attestation.
6 (C) Require annual written attestation, on a form
7 developed by the Department in consultation with the
8 State Stroke Advisory Subcommittee, by Emergent Stroke
9 Ready Hospitals to indicate compliance with Emergent
10 Stroke Ready Hospital criteria, as described in this
11 Section, and automatically renew Emergent Stroke Ready
12 Hospital designation of the hospital.
13 (D) Issue an Emergency Suspension of Emergent
14 Stroke Ready Hospital designation when the Director,
15 or his or her designee, has determined that the
16 hospital no longer meets the Emergent Stroke Ready
17 Hospital criteria and an immediate and serious danger
18 to the public health, safety, and welfare exists. If
19 the Emergent Stroke Ready Hospital fails to eliminate
20 the violation immediately or within a fixed period of
21 time, not exceeding 10 days, as determined by the
22 Director, the Director may immediately revoke the
23 Emergent Stroke Ready Hospital designation. The
24 Emergent Stroke Ready Hospital may appeal the
25 revocation within 15 days after receiving the
26 Director's revocation order, by requesting an

09800SB2640ham001- 687 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 administrative hearing.
2 (E) After notice and an opportunity for an
3 administrative hearing, suspend, revoke, or refuse to
4 renew an Emergent Stroke Ready Hospital designation,
5 when the Department finds the hospital is not in
6 substantial compliance with current Emergent Stroke
7 Ready Hospital criteria.
8 (c) The Department shall consult with the State Stroke
9Advisory Subcommittee for developing the designation and
10de-designation processes for Primary Stroke Centers and
11Emergent Stroke Ready Hospitals.
12(Source: P.A. 96-514, eff. 1-1-10; revised 11-12-13.)
13 Section 320. The End Stage Renal Disease Facility Act is
14amended by changing Section 60 as follows:
15 (210 ILCS 62/60)
16 Sec. 60. Notice of administrative actions; hearing
17procedures.
18 (a) Notice of all administrative actions taken under this
19Act shall be effected by registered mail, certified mail, or
20personal service and shall set forth the particular reasons for
21the proposed action and provide the applicant or licensee with
22an opportunity to request a hearing. If a hearing request is
23not received within 10 days after receipt of the notice of
24administrative action, the right to a hearing is waived.

09800SB2640ham001- 688 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 (b) The procedure governing hearings authorized by this
2Section shall be in accordance with rules promulgated by the
3Department consistent with this Act. A hearing shall be
4conducted by the Director or by an individual designated in
5writing by the Director as administrative law judge. A full and
6complete record shall be kept of all proceedings, including
7notice of hearing, complaint, and all other documents in the
8nature of pleadings, written motions filed in the proceedings,
9and the report and orders of the Director and administrative
10law judge. All testimony shall be reported but need not be
11transcribed unless the decision is appealed pursuant to Section
1270 of this Act. Any interested party may obtain a copy or
13copies of the transcript on payment of the cost of preparing
14such copy or copies.
15 (c) The Director or administrative law judge shall, upon
16his own motion or on the written request of any party to the
17proceeding, issue subpoenas requiring the attendance and
18testimony of witnesses and subpoenas duces tecum requiring the
19production of books, papers, records or memoranda. The fees of
20witnesses for attendance and travel shall be the same as the
21fees of witnesses before any circuit court of this State. Such
22fees shall be paid when the witness is excused from further
23attendance. When the witness is subpoenaed at the instance of
24the Director or administrative law judge, such fees shall be
25paid in the same manner as other expenses of the Department.
26When the witness is subpoenaed at the instance of any other

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1party to a proceeding, the Department may require that the cost
2of service of the subpoena or subpoena duces tecum and the fee
3of the witness be borne by the party at whose instance the
4witness is summoned. In such case, the Department, in its
5discretion, may require a deposit to cover the cost of such
6service and witness fees. A subpoena or subpoena duces tecum
7issued under this Section shall be served in the same manner as
8a subpoena issued by a court.
9 (d) Any circuit court of this State, upon the application
10of the Director or the application of any other party to the
11proceeding, may, in its discretion, compel the attendance of
12witnesses, the production of books, papers, records or
13memoranda, and the giving of testimony before the Director or
14administrative law judge conducting an investigation or
15holding a hearing authorized by this Act, by an attachment for
16contempt, or otherwise, in the same manner as production of
17evidence may be compelled before the court.
18 (e) The Director or administrative law judge, or any party
19in a hearing before the Department, may compel the attendance
20of witnesses and the production of books, papers, records, or
21memoranda.
22 (f) The Director or administrative law judge shall make
23findings of fact in such hearing and the Director shall render
24his decision within 60 days after the termination or waiving of
25the hearing unless he or she requires additional time for a
26proper disposition of the matter. When an a administrative law

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1judge has conducted the hearing, the Director shall review the
2record and findings of fact before rendering a decision. A copy
3of the findings of fact and decision of the Director shall be
4served upon the applicant or licensee in person, by registered
5mail or by certified mail in the same manner as the service of
6the notice of hearing. The decision denying, suspending, or
7revoking a license shall become final 35 days after it is
8mailed or served, unless the applicant or licensee, within the
935-day period, petitions for review pursuant to Section 70 of
10this Act.
11(Source: P.A. 92-794, eff. 7-1-03; revised 11-13-13.)
12 Section 325. The Hospital Emergency Service Act is amended
13by changing Section 1.3 as follows:
14 (210 ILCS 80/1.3)
15 Sec. 1.3. Long-term acute care hospitals. For the purpose
16of this Act, general acute care hospitals designated by
17Medicare as long-term acute care hospitals are not required to
18provide hospital emergency services described in Section 1 of
19this Act. Hospitals defined in this Section may provide
20hospital emergency services at their option.
21 Any hospital defined in this Section that opts to
22discontinue emergency services described in Section 1 shall:
23 (1) comply with all provisions of the federal Emergency
24 Medical Treatment and & Labor Act (EMTALA);

09800SB2640ham001- 691 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 (2) comply with all provisions required under the
2 Social Security Act;
3 (3) provide annual notice to communities in the
4 hospital's service area about available emergency medical
5 services; and
6 (4) make educational materials available to
7 individuals who are present at the hospital concerning the
8 availability of medical services within the hospital's
9 service area.
10 Long-term acute care hospitals that operate standby
11emergency services as of January 1, 2011 may discontinue
12hospital emergency services by notifying the Department of
13Public Health. Long-term acute care hospitals that operate
14basic or comprehensive emergency services must notify the
15Health Facilities and Services Review Board and follow the
16appropriate procedures.
17(Source: P.A. 97-667, eff. 1-13-12; revised 9-11-13.)
18 Section 330. The Language Assistance Services Act is
19amended by changing Section 15 as follows:
20 (210 ILCS 87/15)
21 Sec. 15. Language assistance services.
22 (a) To ensure insure access to health care information and
23services for limited-English-speaking or non-English-speaking
24residents and deaf residents, a health facility must do the

09800SB2640ham001- 692 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1following:
2 (1) Adopt and review annually a policy for providing
3 language assistance services to patients with language or
4 communication barriers. The policy shall include
5 procedures for providing, to the extent possible as
6 determined by the facility, the use of an interpreter
7 whenever a language or communication barrier exists,
8 except where the patient, after being informed of the
9 availability of the interpreter service, chooses to use a
10 family member or friend who volunteers to interpret. The
11 procedures shall be designed to maximize efficient use of
12 interpreters and minimize delays in providing interpreters
13 to patients. The procedures shall insure, to the extent
14 possible as determined by the facility, that interpreters
15 are available, either on the premises or accessible by
16 telephone, 24 hours a day. The facility shall annually
17 transmit to the Department of Public Health a copy of the
18 updated policy and shall include a description of the
19 facility's efforts to insure adequate and speedy
20 communication between patients with language or
21 communication barriers and staff.
22 (2) Develop, and post in conspicuous locations,
23 notices that advise patients and their families of the
24 availability of interpreters, the procedure for obtaining
25 an interpreter, and the telephone numbers to call for
26 filing complaints concerning interpreter service problems,

09800SB2640ham001- 693 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 including, but not limited to, a TTY number for persons who
2 are deaf or hard of hearing. The notices shall be posted,
3 at a minimum, in the emergency room, the admitting area,
4 the facility entrance, and the outpatient area. Notices
5 shall inform patients that interpreter services are
6 available on request, shall list the languages most
7 commonly encountered at the facility for which interpreter
8 services are available, and shall instruct patients to
9 direct complaints regarding interpreter services to the
10 Department of Public Health, including the telephone
11 numbers to call for that purpose.
12 (3) Notify the facility's employees of the language
13 services available at the facility and train them on how to
14 make those language services available to patients.
15 (b) In addition, a health facility may do one or more of
16the following:
17 (1) Identify and record a patient's primary language
18 and dialect on one or more of the following: a patient
19 medical chart, hospital bracelet, bedside notice, or
20 nursing card.
21 (2) Prepare and maintain, as needed, a list of
22 interpreters who have been identified as proficient in sign
23 language according to the Interpreter for the Deaf
24 Licensure Act of 2007 Interpreters for the Deaf Act and a
25 list of the languages of the population of the geographical
26 area served by the facility.

09800SB2640ham001- 694 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 (3) Review all standardized written forms, waivers,
2 documents, and informational materials available to
3 patients on admission to determine which to translate into
4 languages other than English.
5 (4) Consider providing its nonbilingual staff with
6 standardized picture and phrase sheets for use in routine
7 communications with patients who have language or
8 communication barriers.
9 (5) Develop community liaison groups to enable the
10 facility and the limited-English-speaking,
11 non-English-speaking, and deaf communities to ensure
12 insure the adequacy of the interpreter services.
13(Source: P.A. 95-667, eff. 10-11-07; revised 10-7-13.)
14 Section 335. The Mobile Home Park Act is amended by
15changing Section 2 as follows:
16 (210 ILCS 115/2) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 712)
17 Sec. 2. Unless the context clearly requires otherwise, the
18words and phrases set forth in the Sections following this
19Section and preceding Section 3 Sections 2.1 to 2.9 inclusive,
20shall have the meanings set forth in this Act.
21(Source: P.A. 78-1170; revised 11-13-13.)
22 Section 340. The Illinois Insurance Code is amended by
23changing Section 500-100 as follows:

09800SB2640ham001- 695 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 (215 ILCS 5/500-100)
2 (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2017)
3 Sec. 500-100. Limited lines producer license.
4 (a) An individual who is at least 18 years of age and whom
5the Director considers to be competent, trustworthy, and of
6good business reputation may obtain a limited lines producer
7license for one or more of the following classes:
8 (1) insurance on baggage or limited travel health,
9 accident, or trip cancellation insurance sold in
10 connection with transportation provided by a common
11 carrier;
12 (2) industrial life insurance, as defined in Section
13 228 of this Code;
14 (3) industrial accident and health insurance, as
15 defined in Section 368 of this Code;
16 (4) insurance issued by a company organized under the
17 Farm Mutual Insurance Company Act of 1986;
18 (5) legal expense insurance;
19 (6) enrollment of recipients of public aid or medicare
20 in a health maintenance organization;
21 (7) a limited health care plan issued by an
22 organization having a certificate of authority under the
23 Limited Health Service Organization Act;
24 (8) credit life and credit accident and health
25 insurance and other credit insurance policies approved or

09800SB2640ham001- 696 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 permitted by the Director; a credit insurance company must
2 conduct a training program in which an applicant shall
3 receive basic instruction about the credit insurance
4 products that he or she they will be selling.
5 (b) The application for a limited lines producer license
6must be submitted on a form prescribed by the Director by a
7designee of the insurance company, health maintenance
8organization, or limited health service organization
9appointing the limited insurance representative. The insurance
10company, health maintenance organization, or limited health
11service organization must pay the fee required by Section
12500-135.
13 (c) A limited lines producer may represent more than one
14insurance company, health maintenance organization, or limited
15health service organization.
16 (d) An applicant who has met the requirements of this
17Section shall be issued a perpetual limited lines producer
18license.
19 (e) A limited lines producer license shall remain in effect
20as long as the appointing insurance company pays the respective
21fee required by Section 500-135 prior to January 1 of each
22year, unless the license is revoked or suspended pursuant to
23Section 500-70. Failure of the insurance company to pay the
24license fee or to submit the required documents shall cause
25immediate termination of the limited line insurance producer
26license with respect to which the failure occurs.

09800SB2640ham001- 697 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 (f) A limited lines producer license may be terminated by
2the insurance company or the licensee.
3 (g) A person whom the Director considers to be competent,
4trustworthy, and of good business reputation may be issued a
5car rental limited line license. A car rental limited line
6license for a rental company shall remain in effect as long as
7the car rental limited line licensee pays the respective fee
8required by Section 500-135 prior to the next fee date unless
9the car rental license is revoked or suspended pursuant to
10Section 500-70. Failure of the car rental limited line licensee
11to pay the license fee or to submit the required documents
12shall cause immediate suspension of the car rental limited line
13license. A car rental limited line license for rental companies
14may be voluntarily terminated by the car rental limited line
15licensee. The license fee shall not be refunded upon
16termination of the car rental limited line license by the car
17rental limited line licensee.
18 (h) A limited lines producer issued a license pursuant to
19this Section is not subject to the requirements of Section
20500-30.
21 (i) A limited lines producer license must contain the name,
22address and personal identification number of the licensee, the
23date the license was issued, general conditions relative to the
24license's expiration or termination, and any other information
25the Director considers proper. A limited line producer license,
26if applicable, must also contain the name and address of the

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1appointing insurance company.
2(Source: P.A. 98-159, eff. 8-2-13; revised 11-12-13.)
3 Section 345. The Reinsurance Intermediary Act is amended by
4changing Sections 20 and 45 as follows:
5 (215 ILCS 100/20) (from Ch. 73, par. 1620)
6 Sec. 20. Books and records; reinsurance intermediary
7brokers.
8 (a) For at least 10 years after expiration of each contract
9of reinsurance transacted by it, the intermediary broker shall
10keep a complete record for each transaction showing:
11 (1) The type of contract, limits, underwriting
12 restrictions, classes or risks, and territory.
13 (2) Period of coverage, including effective and
14 expiration dates, cancellation provisions, and notice
15 required of cancellations.
16 (3) Reporting and settlement requirements of balances.
17 (4) Rate used to compute the reinsurance premium.
18 (5) Names and addresses of assuming reinsurers.
19 (6) Rates of all reinsurance commissions, including
20 the commissions on any retrocessions handled by the
21 intermediary broker.
22 (7) Related correspondence and memoranda.
23 (8) Proof of placement.
24 (9) Details regarding retrocessions handled by the

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1 intermediary broker including the identity of
2 retrocessionaires and percentage of each contract assumed
3 or ceded.
4 (10) Financial records including, but not limited to,
5 premium and loss accounts.
6 (11) When an a intermediary broker procures a
7 reinsurance contract on behalf of a licensed ceding
8 insurer:
9 (A) directly from any assuming reinsurer, written
10 evidence that the assuming reinsurer has agreed to
11 assume the risk;
12 (B) if placed through a representative of the
13 assuming reinsurer, other than an employee, written
14 evidence that the reinsurer has delegated binding
15 authority to the representative.
16 (b) The insurer shall have access and the right to copy and
17audit all accounts and records maintained by the intermediary
18broker related to its business in a form usable by the insurer.
19(Source: P.A. 87-108; revised 11-13-13.)
20 (215 ILCS 100/45) (from Ch. 73, par. 1645)
21 Sec. 45. Duties of reinsurers utilizing the services of a
22reinsurance intermediary manager.
23 (a) A reinsurer shall not engage the services of any
24person, firm, association, or corporation to act as an a
25intermediary manager on its behalf unless the person is

09800SB2640ham001- 700 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1licensed as required by Section 10.
2 (b) The reinsurer shall annually obtain a copy of
3statements, audited by an independent certified public
4accountant in a form acceptable to the Director, of the
5financial condition of each intermediary manager that the
6reinsurer has contracted.
7 (c) If an intermediary manager establishes loss reserves,
8the reinsurer shall annually obtain the opinion of an actuary
9attesting to the adequacy of loss reserves established for
10losses incurred and outstanding on business produced by the
11intermediary manager. This opinion shall be in addition to any
12other required loss reserve certification.
13 (d) Binding authority for all retrocessional contracts or
14participation in reinsurance syndicates shall rest with an
15officer of the reinsurer who shall not be affiliated with the
16intermediary manager.
17 (e) Within 30 days of termination of a contract with an
18intermediary manager, the reinsurer shall provide written
19notification of termination to the Director.
20 (f) A reinsurer shall not appoint to its board of
21directors, any officer, director, employee, controlling
22shareholder, or subproducer of its intermediary manager. This
23subsection shall not apply to relationships governed by the
24Holding Company Act.
25(Source: P.A. 87-108; revised 11-14-13.)

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1 Section 350. The Illinois Health Benefits Exchange Law is
2amended by changing Section 5-10 as follows:
3 (215 ILCS 122/5-10)
4 Sec. 5-10. Exchange functions.
5 (a) The Illinois Health Benefits Exchange shall meet the
6core functions identified by Section 1311 of the Patient
7Protection and Affordable Care Act and subsequent federal
8guidance and regulations.
9 (b) In order to meet the deadline of October 1, 2013
10established by federal law to have operational a State
11exchange, the Department of Insurance and the Commission on
12Government Governmental Forecasting and Accountability is
13authorized to apply for, accept, receive, and use as
14appropriate for and on behalf of the State any grant money
15provided by the federal government and to share federal grant
16funding with, give support to, and coordinate with other
17agencies of the State and federal government or third parties
18as determined by the Governor.
19(Source: P.A. 97-142, eff. 7-14-11; revised 9-11-13.)
20 Section 355. The Viatical Settlements Act of 2009 is
21amended by changing Section 72 as follows:
22 (215 ILCS 159/72)
23 Sec. 72. Crimes and offenses.

09800SB2640ham001- 702 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 (a) A person acting in this State as a viatical settlement
2provider without having been licensed pursuant to Section 10 of
3this Act who willfully violates any provision of this Act or
4any rule adopted or order issued under this Act is guilty of a
5Class A misdemeanor and may be subject to a fine of not more
6than $3,000. When such violation results in a loss of more than
7$10,000, the person shall be guilty of a Class 3 felony and may
8be subject to a fine of not more than $10,000.
9 (b) A person acting in this State as a viatical settlement
10broker without having met the licensure and notification
11requirements established by Section 10 of this Act who
12willfully violates any provision of this Act or any rule
13adopted or order issued under this Act is guilty of a Class A
14misdemeanor and may be subject to a fine of not more than
15$3,000. When such violation results in a loss of more than
16$10,000, the person shall be guilty of a Class 3 felony and may
17be subject to a fine of not more than $10,000.
18 (c) The Director may refer such evidence as is available
19concerning violations of this Act or any rule adopted or order
20issued under this Act or of the failure of a person to comply
21with the licensing requirements of this Act to the Attorney
22General or the proper county attorney who may, with or without
23such reference, institute the appropriate criminal proceedings
24under this Act.
25 (d) A person commits the offense of viatical settlement
26fraud when:

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1 (1) For the purpose of depriving another of property or
2 for pecuniary gain any person knowingly:
3 (A) presents, causes to be presented, or prepares
4 with knowledge or belief that it will be presented to
5 or by a viatical settlement provider, viatical
6 settlement broker, life expectancy provider, viatical
7 settlement purchaser, financing entity, insurer,
8 insurance producer, or any other person, false
9 material information, or conceals material
10 information, as part of, in support of or concerning a
11 fact material to one or more of the following:
12 (i) an application for the issuance of a
13 viatical settlement contract or insurance policy;
14 (ii) the underwriting of a viatical settlement
15 contract or insurance policy;
16 (iii) a claim for payment or benefit pursuant
17 to a viatical settlement contract or insurance
18 policy;
19 (iv) premiums paid on an insurance policy;
20 (v) payments and changes in ownership or
21 beneficiary made in accordance with the terms of a
22 viatical settlement contract or insurance policy;
23 (vi) the reinstatement or conversion of an
24 insurance policy;
25 (vii) in the solicitation, offer,
26 effectuation, or sale of a viatical settlement

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1 contract or insurance policy;
2 (viii) the issuance of written evidence of a
3 viatical settlement contract or insurance; or
4 (ix) a financing transaction; or
5 (B) employs any plan, financial structure, device,
6 scheme, or artifice to defraud related to viaticated
7 policies; or
8 (C) enters into any act, practice, or arrangement
9 which involves stranger-originated life insurance; .
10 (2) In furtherance of a scheme to defraud, to further a
11 fraud, or to prevent or hinder the detection of a scheme to
12 defraud any person knowingly does or permits his employees
13 or agents to do any of the following:
14 (A) remove, conceal, alter, destroy, or sequester
15 from the Director the assets or records of a licensee
16 or other person engaged in the business of viatical
17 settlements;
18 (B) misrepresent or conceal the financial
19 condition of a licensee, financing entity, insurer, or
20 other person;
21 (C) transact the business of viatical settlements
22 in violation of laws requiring a license, certificate
23 of authority, or other legal authority for the
24 transaction of the business of viatical settlements;
25 or
26 (D) file with the Director or the equivalent chief

09800SB2640ham001- 705 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 insurance regulatory official of another jurisdiction
2 a document containing false information or otherwise
3 conceals information about a material fact from the
4 Director;
5 (3) Any person knowingly steals, misappropriates, or
6 converts monies, funds, premiums, credits, or other
7 property of a viatical settlement provider, insurer,
8 insured, viator, insurance policyowner, or any other
9 person engaged in the business of viatical settlements or
10 insurance;
11 (4) Any person recklessly enters into, negotiates,
12 brokers, or otherwise deals in a viatical settlement
13 contract, the subject of which is a life insurance policy
14 that was obtained by presenting false information
15 concerning any fact material to the policy or by
16 concealing, for the purpose of misleading another,
17 information concerning any fact material to the policy,
18 where the person or the persons intended to defraud the
19 policy's issuer, the viatical settlement provider or the
20 viator; or
21 (5) Any person facilitates the change of state of
22 ownership of a policy or the state of residency of a viator
23 to a state or jurisdiction that does not have a law similar
24 to this Act for the express purposes of evading or avoiding
25 the provisions of this Act.
26 (e) For purposes of this Section, "person" means (i) an

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1individual, (ii) a corporation, (iii) an officer, agent, or
2employee of a corporation, (iv) a member, agent, or employee of
3a partnership, or (v) a member, manager, employee, officer,
4director, or agent of a limited liability company who, in any
5such capacity described by this subsection (e), commits
6viatical settlement fraud.
7(Source: P.A. 96-736, eff. 7-1-10; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12;
8revised 11-14-13.)
9 Section 360. The Health Carrier External Review Act is
10amended by changing Section 10 as follows:
11 (215 ILCS 180/10)
12 Sec. 10. Definitions. For the purposes of this Act:
13 "Adverse determination" means:
14 (1) a determination by a health carrier or its designee
15 utilization review organization that, based upon the
16 information provided, a request for a benefit under the
17 health carrier's health benefit plan upon application of
18 any utilization review technique does not meet the health
19 carrier's requirements for medical necessity,
20 appropriateness, health care setting, level of care, or
21 effectiveness or is determined to be experimental or
22 investigational and the requested benefit is therefore
23 denied, reduced, or terminated or payment is not provided
24 or made, in whole or in part, for the benefit;

09800SB2640ham001- 707 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 (2) the denial, reduction, or termination of or failure
2 to provide or make payment, in whole or in part, for a
3 benefit based on a determination by a health carrier or its
4 designee utilization review organization that a
5 preexisting condition was present before the effective
6 date of coverage; or
7 (3) a rescission recission of coverage determination,
8 which does not include a cancellation or discontinuance of
9 coverage that is attributable to a failure to timely pay
10 required premiums or contributions towards the cost of
11 coverage.
12 "Authorized representative" means:
13 (1) a person to whom a covered person has given express
14 written consent to represent the covered person for
15 purposes of this Law;
16 (2) a person authorized by law to provide substituted
17 consent for a covered person;
18 (3) a family member of the covered person or the
19 covered person's treating health care professional when
20 the covered person is unable to provide consent;
21 (4) a health care provider when the covered person's
22 health benefit plan requires that a request for a benefit
23 under the plan be initiated by the health care provider; or
24 (5) in the case of an urgent care request, a health
25 care provider with knowledge of the covered person's
26 medical condition.

09800SB2640ham001- 708 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 "Best evidence" means evidence based on:
2 (1) randomized clinical trials;
3 (2) if randomized clinical trials are not available,
4 then cohort studies or case-control studies;
5 (3) if items (1) and (2) are not available, then
6 case-series; or
7 (4) if items (1), (2), and (3) are not available, then
8 expert opinion.
9 "Case-series" means an evaluation of a series of patients
10with a particular outcome, without the use of a control group.
11 "Clinical review criteria" means the written screening
12procedures, decision abstracts, clinical protocols, and
13practice guidelines used by a health carrier to determine the
14necessity and appropriateness of health care services.
15 "Cohort study" means a prospective evaluation of 2 groups
16of patients with only one group of patients receiving specific
17intervention.
18 "Concurrent review" means a review conducted during a
19patient's stay or course of treatment in a facility, the office
20of a health care professional, or other inpatient or outpatient
21health care setting.
22 "Covered benefits" or "benefits" means those health care
23services to which a covered person is entitled under the terms
24of a health benefit plan.
25 "Covered person" means a policyholder, subscriber,
26enrollee, or other individual participating in a health benefit

09800SB2640ham001- 709 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1plan.
2 "Director" means the Director of the Department of
3Insurance.
4 "Emergency medical condition" means a medical condition
5manifesting itself by acute symptoms of sufficient severity,
6including, but not limited to, severe pain, such that a prudent
7layperson who possesses an average knowledge of health and
8medicine could reasonably expect the absence of immediate
9medical attention to result in:
10 (1) placing the health of the individual or, with
11 respect to a pregnant woman, the health of the woman or her
12 unborn child, in serious jeopardy;
13 (2) serious impairment to bodily functions; or
14 (3) serious dysfunction of any bodily organ or part.
15 "Emergency services" means health care items and services
16furnished or required to evaluate and treat an emergency
17medical condition.
18 "Evidence-based standard" means the conscientious,
19explicit, and judicious use of the current best evidence based
20on an overall systematic review of the research in making
21decisions about the care of individual patients.
22 "Expert opinion" means a belief or an interpretation by
23specialists with experience in a specific area about the
24scientific evidence pertaining to a particular service,
25intervention, or therapy.
26 "Facility" means an institution providing health care

09800SB2640ham001- 710 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1services or a health care setting.
2 "Final adverse determination" means an adverse
3determination involving a covered benefit that has been upheld
4by a health carrier, or its designee utilization review
5organization, at the completion of the health carrier's
6internal grievance process procedures as set forth by the
7Managed Care Reform and Patient Rights Act.
8 "Health benefit plan" means a policy, contract,
9certificate, plan, or agreement offered or issued by a health
10carrier to provide, deliver, arrange for, pay for, or reimburse
11any of the costs of health care services.
12 "Health care provider" or "provider" means a physician,
13hospital facility, or other health care practitioner licensed,
14accredited, or certified to perform specified health care
15services consistent with State law, responsible for
16recommending health care services on behalf of a covered
17person.
18 "Health care services" means services for the diagnosis,
19prevention, treatment, cure, or relief of a health condition,
20illness, injury, or disease.
21 "Health carrier" means an entity subject to the insurance
22laws and regulations of this State, or subject to the
23jurisdiction of the Director, that contracts or offers to
24contract to provide, deliver, arrange for, pay for, or
25reimburse any of the costs of health care services, including a
26sickness and accident insurance company, a health maintenance

09800SB2640ham001- 711 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1organization, or any other entity providing a plan of health
2insurance, health benefits, or health care services. "Health
3carrier" also means Limited Health Service Organizations
4(LHSO) and Voluntary Health Service Plans.
5 "Health information" means information or data, whether
6oral or recorded in any form or medium, and personal facts or
7information about events or relationships that relate to:
8 (1) the past, present, or future physical, mental, or
9 behavioral health or condition of an individual or a member
10 of the individual's family;
11 (2) the provision of health care services to an
12 individual; or
13 (3) payment for the provision of health care services
14 to an individual.
15 "Independent review organization" means an entity that
16conducts independent external reviews of adverse
17determinations and final adverse determinations.
18 "Medical or scientific evidence" means evidence found in
19the following sources:
20 (1) peer-reviewed scientific studies published in or
21 accepted for publication by medical journals that meet
22 nationally recognized requirements for scientific
23 manuscripts and that submit most of their published
24 articles for review by experts who are not part of the
25 editorial staff;
26 (2) peer-reviewed medical literature, including

09800SB2640ham001- 712 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 literature relating to therapies reviewed and approved by a
2 qualified institutional review board, biomedical
3 compendia, and other medical literature that meet the
4 criteria of the National Institutes of Health's Library of
5 Medicine for indexing in Index Medicus (Medline) and
6 Elsevier Science Ltd. for indexing in Excerpta Medicus
7 (EMBASE);
8 (3) medical journals recognized by the Secretary of
9 Health and Human Services under Section 1861(t)(2) of the
10 federal Social Security Act;
11 (4) the following standard reference compendia:
12 (a) The American Hospital Formulary Service-Drug
13 Information;
14 (b) Drug Facts and Comparisons;
15 (c) The American Dental Association Accepted
16 Dental Therapeutics; and
17 (d) The United States Pharmacopoeia-Drug
18 Information;
19 (5) findings, studies, or research conducted by or
20 under the auspices of federal government agencies and
21 nationally recognized federal research institutes,
22 including:
23 (a) the federal Agency for Healthcare Research and
24 Quality;
25 (b) the National Institutes of Health;
26 (c) the National Cancer Institute;

09800SB2640ham001- 713 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 (d) the National Academy of Sciences;
2 (e) the Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services;
3 (f) the federal Food and Drug Administration; and
4 (g) any national board recognized by the National
5 Institutes of Health for the purpose of evaluating the
6 medical value of health care services; or
7 (6) any other medical or scientific evidence that is
8 comparable to the sources listed in items (1) through (5).
9 "Person" means an individual, a corporation, a
10partnership, an association, a joint venture, a joint stock
11company, a trust, an unincorporated organization, any similar
12entity, or any combination of the foregoing.
13 "Prospective review" means a review conducted prior to an
14admission or the provision of a health care service or a course
15of treatment in accordance with a health carrier's requirement
16that the health care service or course of treatment, in whole
17or in part, be approved prior to its provision.
18 "Protected health information" means health information
19(i) that identifies an individual who is the subject of the
20information; or (ii) with respect to which there is a
21reasonable basis to believe that the information could be used
22to identify an individual.
23 "Randomized clinical trial" means a controlled prospective
24study of patients that have been randomized into an
25experimental group and a control group at the beginning of the
26study with only the experimental group of patients receiving a

09800SB2640ham001- 714 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1specific intervention, which includes study of the groups for
2variables and anticipated outcomes over time.
3 "Retrospective review" means any review of a request for a
4benefit that is not a concurrent or prospective review request.
5"Retrospective review" does not include the review of a claim
6that is limited to veracity of documentation or accuracy of
7coding.
8 "Utilization review" has the meaning provided by the
9Managed Care Reform and Patient Rights Act.
10 "Utilization review organization" means a utilization
11review program as defined in the Managed Care Reform and
12Patient Rights Act.
13(Source: P.A. 96-857, eff. 7-1-10; 97-574, eff. 8-26-11;
1497-813, eff. 7-13-12; revised 11-14-13.)
15 Section 365. The Public Utilities Act is amended by
16changing Sections 13-903 and 21-401 as follows:
17 (220 ILCS 5/13-903)
18 (Section scheduled to be repealed on July 1, 2015)
19 Sec. 13-903. Authorization, verification or notification,
20and dispute resolution for covered product and service charges
21on the telephone bill.
22 (a) Definitions. As used in this Section:
23 (1) "Subscriber" means a telecommunications carrier's
24 retail business customer served by not more than 20 lines

09800SB2640ham001- 715 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 or a retail residential customer.
2 (2) "Telecommunications carrier" has the meaning given
3 in Section 13-202 of the Public Utilities Act and includes
4 agents and employees of a telecommunications carrier,
5 except that "telecommunications carrier" does not include
6 a provider of commercial mobile radio services (as defined
7 by 47 U.S.C. 332(d)(1)).
8 (b) Applicability of Section. This Section does not apply
9to:
10 (1) changes in a subscriber's local exchange
11 telecommunications service or interexchange
12 telecommunications service;
13 (2) message telecommunications charges that are
14 initiated by dialing 1+, 0+, 0-, 1010XXX, or collect calls
15 and charges for video services if the service provider has
16 the necessary call detail record to establish the billing
17 for the call or service; and
18 (3) telecommunications services available on a
19 subscriber's line when the subscriber activates and pays
20 for the services on a per use basis.
21 (c) Requirements for billing authorized charges. A
22telecommunications carrier shall meet all of the following
23requirements before submitting charges for any product or
24service to be billed on any subscriber's telephone bill:
25 (1) Inform the subscriber. The telecommunications
26 carrier offering the product or service must thoroughly

09800SB2640ham001- 716 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 inform the subscriber of the product or service being
2 offered, including all associated charges, and explicitly
3 inform the subscriber that the associated charges for the
4 product or service will appear on the subscriber's
5 telephone bill.
6 (2) Obtain subscriber authorization. The subscriber
7 must have clearly and explicitly consented to obtaining the
8 product or service offered and to having the associated
9 charges appear on the subscriber's telephone bill. The
10 consent must be verified by the service provider in
11 accordance with subsection (d) of this Section. A record of
12 the consent must be maintained by the telecommunications
13 carrier offering the product or service for at least 24
14 months immediately after the consent and verification were
15 obtained.
16 (d) Verification or notification. Except in
17subscriber-initiated transactions with a certificated
18telecommunications carrier for which the telecommunications
19carrier has the appropriate documentation, the
20telecommunications carrier, after obtaining the subscriber's
21authorization in the required manner, shall either verify the
22authorization or notify the subscriber as follows:
23 (1) Independent third-party verification:
24 (A) Verification shall be obtained by an
25 independent third party that:
26 (i) operates from a facility physically

09800SB2640ham001- 717 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 separate from that of the telecommunications
2 carrier;
3 (ii) is not directly or indirectly managed,
4 controlled, directed, or owned wholly or in part by
5 the telecommunications carrier or the carrier's
6 marketing agent; and
7 (iii) does not derive commissions or
8 compensation based upon the number of sales
9 confirmed.
10 (B) The third-party verification agent shall
11 state, and shall obtain the subscriber's
12 acknowledgment of, the following disclosures:
13 (i) the subscriber's name, address, and the
14 telephone numbers of all telephone lines that will
15 be charged for the product or service of the
16 telecommunications carrier;
17 (ii) that the person speaking to the third
18 party verification agent is in fact the
19 subscriber;
20 (iii) that the subscriber wishes to purchase
21 the product or service of the telecommunications
22 carrier and is agreeing to do so;
23 (iv) that the subscriber understands that the
24 charges for the product or service of the
25 telecommunications carrier will appear on the
26 subscriber's telephone bill; and

09800SB2640ham001- 718 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 (v) the name and customer service telephone
2 number of the telecommunications carrier.
3 (C) The telecommunications carrier shall retain,
4 electronically or otherwise, proof of the verification
5 of sales for a minimum of 24 months.
6 (2) Notification. Written notification shall be
7 provided as follows:
8 (A) the telecommunications carrier shall mail a
9 letter to the subscriber using first class mail,
10 postage prepaid, no later than 10 days after initiation
11 of the product or service;
12 (B) the letter shall be a separate document sent
13 for the sole purpose of describing the product or
14 service of the telecommunications carrier;
15 (C) the letter shall be printed with 10-point or
16 larger type and clearly and conspicuously disclose the
17 material terms and conditions of the offer of the
18 telecommunications carrier, as described in paragraph
19 (1) of subsection (c);
20 (D) the letter shall contain a toll-free telephone
21 number the subscriber can call to cancel the product or
22 service;
23 (E) the telecommunications carrier shall retain,
24 electronically or otherwise, proof of written
25 notification for a minimum of 24 months; and
26 (F) written notification can be provided via

09800SB2640ham001- 719 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 electronic mail if consumers are given the disclosures
2 required by Section 101(c) of the Electronic
3 Signatures in Global and National Commerce Act.
4 (e) Unauthorized charges.
5 (1) Responsibilities of the billing telecommunications
6 carrier for unauthorized charges. If a subscriber's
7 telephone bill is charged for any product or service
8 without proper subscriber authorization and verification
9 or notification of authorization in compliance with this
10 Section, the telecommunications carrier that billed the
11 subscriber, on its knowledge or notification of any
12 unauthorized charge, shall promptly, but not later than 45
13 days after the date of the knowledge or notification of an
14 unauthorized charge:
15 (A) notify the product or service provider to
16 immediately cease charging the subscriber for the
17 unauthorized product or service;
18 (B) remove the unauthorized charge from the
19 subscriber's bill; and
20 (C) refund or credit to the subscriber all money
21 that the subscriber has paid for any unauthorized
22 charge.
23 (f) The Commission shall promulgate any rules necessary to
24ensure that subscribers are not billed on the telephone bill
25for products or services in a manner not in compliance with
26this Section. The rules promulgated under this Section shall

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1comport with the rules, if any, promulgated by the Attorney
2General pursuant to the Consumer Fraud and Deceptive Business
3Practices Act and with any rules promulgated by the Federal
4Communications Commission or Federal Trade Commission.
5 (g) Complaints may be filed with the Commission under this
6Section by a subscriber who has been billed on the telephone
7bill for products or services not in compliance with this
8Section or by the Commission on its own motion. Upon filing of
9the complaint, the parties may mutually agree to submit the
10complaint to the Commission's established mediation process.
11Remedies in the mediation process may include, but shall not be
12limited to, the remedies set forth in paragraphs (1) through
13(4) of this subsection. In its discretion, the Commission may
14deny the availability of the mediation process and submit the
15complaint to hearings. If the complaint is not submitted to
16mediation or if no agreement is reached during the mediation
17process, hearings shall be held on the complaint pursuant to
18Article X 10 of this Act. If after notice and hearing, the
19Commission finds that a telecommunications carrier has
20violated this Section or a rule promulgated under this Section,
21the Commission may in its discretion order any one or more of
22the following:
23 (1) Require the violating telecommunications carrier
24 to pay a fine of up to $1,000 into the Public Utility Fund
25 for each repeated and intentional violation of this
26 Section.

09800SB2640ham001- 721 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 (2) Require the violating carrier to refund or cancel
2 all charges for products or services not billed in
3 compliance with this Section.
4 (3) Issue a cease and desist order.
5 (4) For a pattern of violation of this Section or for
6 intentionally violating a cease and desist order, revoke
7 the violating telecommunications carrier's certificate of
8 service authority.
9(Source: P.A. 92-22, eff. 6-30-01; revised 11-12-13.)
10 (220 ILCS 5/21-401)
11 (Section scheduled to be repealed on July 1, 2015)
12 Sec. 21-401. Applications.
13 (a)(1) A person or entity seeking to provide cable service
14or video service pursuant to this Article shall not use the
15public rights-of-way for the installation or construction of
16facilities for the provision of cable service or video service
17or offer cable service or video service until it has obtained a
18State-issued authorization to offer or provide cable or video
19service under this Section, except as provided for in item (2)
20of this subsection (a). All cable or video providers offering
21or providing service in this State shall have authorization
22pursuant to either (i) the Cable and Video Competition Law of
232007 (220 ILCS 5/21-100 et seq.); (ii) Section 11-42-11 of the
24Illinois Municipal Code (65 ILCS 5/11-42-11); or (iii) Section
255-1095 of the Counties Code (55 ILCS 5/5-1095).

09800SB2640ham001- 722 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 (2) Nothing in this Section shall prohibit a local unit of
2government from granting a permit to a person or entity for the
3use of the public rights-of-way to install or construct
4facilities to provide cable service or video service, at its
5sole discretion. No unit of local government shall be liable
6for denial or delay of a permit prior to the issuance of a
7State-issued authorization.
8 (b) The application to the Commission for State-issued
9authorization shall contain a completed affidavit submitted by
10the applicant and signed by an officer or general partner of
11the applicant affirming all of the following:
12 (1) That the applicant has filed or will timely file
13 with the Federal Communications Commission all forms
14 required by that agency in advance of offering cable
15 service or video service in this State.
16 (2) That the applicant agrees to comply with all
17 applicable federal and State statutes and regulations.
18 (3) That the applicant agrees to comply with all
19 applicable local unit of government regulations.
20 (4) An exact description of the cable service or video
21 service area where the cable service or video service will
22 be offered during the term of the State-issued
23 authorization. The service area shall be identified in
24 terms of either (i) exchanges, as that term is defined in
25 Section 13-206 of this Act; (ii) a collection of United
26 States Census Bureau Block numbers (13 digit); (iii) if the

09800SB2640ham001- 723 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 area is smaller than the areas identified in either (i) or
2 (ii), by geographic information system digital boundaries
3 meeting or exceeding national map accuracy standards; or
4 (iv) local unit of government. The description shall
5 include the number of low-income households within the
6 service area or footprint. If an applicant is a an
7 incumbent cable operator, the incumbent cable operator and
8 any successor-in-interest shall be obligated to provide
9 access to cable services or video services within any local
10 units of government at the same levels required by the
11 local franchising authorities for the local unit of
12 government on June 30, 2007 (the effective date of Public
13 Act 95-9), and its application shall provide a description
14 of an area no smaller than the service areas contained in
15 its franchise or franchises within the jurisdiction of the
16 local unit of government in which it seeks to offer cable
17 or video service.
18 (5) The location and telephone number of the
19 applicant's principal place of business within this State
20 and the names of the applicant's principal executive
21 officers who are responsible for communications concerning
22 the application and the services to be offered pursuant to
23 the application, the applicant's legal name, and any name
24 or names under which the applicant does or will provide
25 cable services or video services in this State.
26 (6) A certification that the applicant has

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1 concurrently delivered a copy of the application to all
2 local units of government that include all or any part of
3 the service area identified in item (4) of this subsection
4 (b) within such local unit of government's jurisdictional
5 boundaries.
6 (7) The expected date that cable service or video
7 service will be initially offered in the area identified in
8 item (4) of this subsection (b). In the event that a holder
9 does not offer cable services or video services within 3
10 months after the expected date, it shall amend its
11 application and update the expected date service will be
12 offered and explain the delay in offering cable services or
13 video services.
14 (8) For any entity that received State-issued
15 authorization prior to this amendatory Act of the 98th
16 General Assembly as a cable operator and that intends to
17 proceed as a cable operator under this Article, the entity
18 shall file a written affidavit with the Commission and
19 shall serve a copy of the affidavit with any local units of
20 government affected by the authorization within 30 days
21 after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 98th
22 General Assembly stating that the holder will be providing
23 cable service under the State-issued authorization.
24 The application shall include adequate assurance that the
25applicant possesses the financial, managerial, legal, and
26technical qualifications necessary to construct and operate

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1the proposed system, to promptly repair any damage to the
2public right-of-way caused by the applicant, and to pay the
3cost of removal of its facilities. To accomplish these
4requirements, the applicant may, at the time the applicant
5seeks to use the public rights-of-way in that jurisdiction, be
6required by the State of Illinois or later be required by the
7local unit of government, or both, to post a bond, produce a
8certificate of insurance, or otherwise demonstrate its
9financial responsibility.
10 The application shall include the applicant's general
11standards related to customer service required by Section
1222-501 of this Act, which shall include, but not be limited to,
13installation, disconnection, service and repair obligations;
14appointment hours; employee ID requirements; customer service
15telephone numbers and hours; procedures for billing, charges,
16deposits, refunds, and credits; procedures for termination of
17service; notice of deletion of programming service and changes
18related to transmission of programming or changes or increases
19in rates; use and availability of parental control or lock-out
20devices; complaint procedures and procedures for bill dispute
21resolution and a description of the rights and remedies
22available to consumers if the holder does not materially meet
23their customer service standards; and special services for
24customers with visual, hearing, or mobility disabilities.
25 (c)(1) The applicant may designate information that it
26submits in its application or subsequent reports as

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1confidential or proprietary, provided that the applicant
2states the reasons the confidential designation is necessary.
3The Commission shall provide adequate protection for such
4information pursuant to Section 4-404 of this Act. If the
5Commission, a local unit of government, or any other party
6seeks public disclosure of information designated as
7confidential, the Commission shall consider the confidential
8designation in a proceeding under the Illinois Administrative
9Procedure Act, and the burden of proof to demonstrate that the
10designated information is confidential shall be upon the
11applicant. Designated information shall remain confidential
12pending the Commission's determination of whether the
13information is entitled to confidential treatment. Information
14designated as confidential shall be provided to local units of
15government for purposes of assessing compliance with this
16Article as permitted under a Protective Order issued by the
17Commission pursuant to the Commission's rules and to the
18Attorney General pursuant to Section 6.5 of the Attorney
19General Act (15 ILCS 205/6.5). Information designated as
20confidential under this Section or determined to be
21confidential upon Commission review shall only be disclosed
22pursuant to a valid and enforceable subpoena or court order or
23as required by the Freedom of Information Act. Nothing herein
24shall delay the application approval timeframes set forth in
25this Article.
26 (2) Information regarding the location of video services

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1that have been or are being offered to the public and aggregate
2information included in the reports required by this Article
3shall not be designated or treated as confidential.
4 (d)(1) The Commission shall post all applications it
5receives under this Article on its web site within 5 business
6days.
7 (2) The Commission shall notify an applicant for a cable
8service or video service authorization whether the applicant's
9application and affidavit are complete on or before the 15th
10business day after the applicant submits the application. If
11the application and affidavit are not complete, the Commission
12shall state in its notice all of the reasons the application or
13affidavit are incomplete, and the applicant shall resubmit a
14complete application. The Commission shall have 30 days after
15submission by the applicant of a complete application and
16affidavit to issue the service authorization. If the Commission
17does not notify the applicant regarding the completeness of the
18application and affidavit or issue the service authorization
19within the time periods required under this subsection, the
20application and affidavit shall be considered complete and the
21service authorization issued upon the expiration of the 30th
22day.
23 (e) Any authorization issued by the Commission will expire
24on December 31, 2015 and shall contain or include all of the
25following:
26 (1) A grant of authority, including an authorization

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1 issued prior to this amendatory Act of the 98th General
2 Assembly, to provide cable service or video service in the
3 service area footprint as requested in the application,
4 subject to the provisions of this Article in existence on
5 the date the grant of authority was issued, and any
6 modifications to this Article enacted at any time prior to
7 the date in Section 21-1601 of this Act, and to the laws of
8 the State and the ordinances, rules, and regulations of the
9 local units of government.
10 (2) A grant of authority to use, occupy, and construct
11 facilities in the public rights-of-way for the delivery of
12 cable service or video service in the service area
13 footprint, subject to the laws, ordinances, rules, or
14 regulations of this State and local units of governments.
15 (3) A statement that the grant of authority is subject
16 to lawful operation of the cable service or video service
17 by the applicant, its affiliated entities, or its
18 successors-in-interest.
19 (4) The Commission shall notify a local unit of
20 government within 3 business days of the grant of any
21 authorization within a service area footprint if that
22 authorization includes any part of the local unit of
23 government's jurisdictional boundaries and state whether
24 the holder will be providing video service or cable service
25 under the authorization.
26 (f) The authorization issued pursuant to this Section by

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1the Commission may be transferred to any successor-in-interest
2to the applicant to which it is initially granted without
3further Commission action if the successor-in-interest (i)
4submits an application and the information required by
5subsection (b) of this Section for the successor-in-interest
6and (ii) is not in violation of this Article or of any federal,
7State, or local law, ordinance, rule, or regulation. A
8successor-in-interest shall file its application and notice of
9transfer with the Commission and the relevant local units of
10government no less than 15 business days prior to the
11completion of the transfer. The Commission is not required or
12authorized to act upon the notice of transfer; however, the
13transfer is not effective until the Commission approves the
14successor-in-interest's application. A local unit of
15government or the Attorney General may seek to bar a transfer
16of ownership by filing suit in a court of competent
17jurisdiction predicated on the existence of a material and
18continuing breach of this Article by the holder, a pattern of
19noncompliance with customer service standards by the potential
20successor-in-interest, or the insolvency of the potential
21successor-in-interest. If a transfer is made when there are
22violations of this Article or of any federal, State, or local
23law, ordinance, rule, or regulation, the successor-in-interest
24shall be subject to 3 times the penalties provided for in this
25Article.
26 (g) The authorization issued pursuant to Section 21-401 of

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1this Article by the Commission may be terminated, or its cable
2service or video service area footprint may be modified, by the
3cable service provider or video service provider by submitting
4notice to the Commission and to the relevant local unit of
5government containing a description of the change on the same
6terms as the initial description pursuant to item (4) of
7subsection (b) of this Section. The Commission is not required
8or authorized to act upon that notice. It shall be a violation
9of this Article for a holder to discriminate against potential
10residential subscribers because of the race or income of the
11residents in the local area in which the group resides by
12terminating or modifying its cable service or video service
13area footprint. It shall be a violation of this Article for a
14holder to terminate or modify its cable service or video
15service area footprint if it leaves an area with no cable
16service or video service from any provider.
17 (h) The Commission's authority to administer this Article
18is limited to the powers and duties explicitly provided under
19this Article. Its authority under this Article does not include
20or limit the powers and duties that the Commission has under
21the other Articles of this Act, the Illinois Administrative
22Procedure Act, or any other law or regulation to conduct
23proceedings, other than as provided in subsection (c), or has
24to promulgate rules or regulations. The Commission shall not
25have the authority to limit or expand the obligations and
26requirements provided in this Section or to regulate or control

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1a person or entity to the extent that person or entity is
2providing cable service or video service, except as provided in
3this Article.
4(Source: P.A. 98-45, eff. 6-28-13; revised 11-12-13.)
5 Section 370. The Illinois Gas Pipeline Safety Act is
6amended by changing Section 2 as follows:
7 (220 ILCS 20/2) (from Ch. 111 2/3, par. 552)
8 Sec. 2. As used in this Act, unless the context, otherwise
9requires, the terms specified in the Sections following this
10Section and preceding Section 3 Sections 2.01 through 2.07 have
11the meanings ascribed to them in those Sections.
12(Source: P.A. 76-1588; revised 11-14-13.)
13 Section 375. The Child Care Act of 1969 is amended by
14changing Section 2 as follows:
15 (225 ILCS 10/2) (from Ch. 23, par. 2212)
16 Sec. 2. Terms used in this Act, unless the context
17otherwise requires, have the meanings ascribed to them in the
18Sections following this Section and preceding Section 3
19Sections 2.01 through 2.27.
20(Source: P.A. 94-586, eff. 8-15-05; revised 11-14-13.)
21 Section 380. The Clinical Social Work and Social Work

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1Practice Act is amended by changing Section 19 as follows:
2 (225 ILCS 20/19) (from Ch. 111, par. 6369)
3 (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)
4 Sec. 19. Grounds for disciplinary action.
5 (1) The Department may refuse to issue, refuse to renew,
6suspend, or revoke any license, or may place on probation,
7censure, reprimand, or take other disciplinary or
8non-disciplinary action deemed appropriate by the Department,
9including the imposition of fines not to exceed $10,000 for
10each violation, with regard to any license issued under the
11provisions of this Act for any one or a combination of the
12following reasons:
13 (a) material misstatements of fact in furnishing
14 information to the Department or to any other State agency
15 or in furnishing information to any insurance company with
16 respect to a claim on behalf of a licensee or a patient;
17 (b) violations or negligent or intentional disregard
18 of this Act, or any of the rules promulgated hereunder;
19 (c) conviction of or entry of a plea of guilty or nolo
20 contendere to any crime that is a felony under the laws of
21 the United States or any state or territory thereof or that
22 is a misdemeanor, of which an essential element is
23 dishonesty, or any crime that is directly related to the
24 practice of the clinical social work or social work
25 professions;

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1 (d) making any misrepresentation for the purpose of
2 obtaining licenses, or violating any provision of this Act
3 or any of the rules promulgated hereunder;
4 (e) professional incompetence;
5 (f) malpractice;
6 (g) aiding or assisting another person in violating any
7 provision of or this Act or any rules;
8 (h) failing to provide information within 30 days in
9 response to a written request made by the Department;
10 (i) engaging in dishonorable, unethical or
11 unprofessional conduct of a character likely to deceive,
12 defraud or harm the public as defined by the rules of the
13 Department, or violating the rules of professional conduct
14 adopted by the Board and published by the Department;
15 (j) habitual or excessive use or addiction to alcohol,
16 narcotics, stimulants, or any other chemical agent or drug
17 that results in a clinical social worker's or social
18 worker's inability to practice with reasonable judgment,
19 skill, or safety;
20 (k) discipline by another jurisdiction, if at least one
21 of the grounds for the discipline is the same or
22 substantially equivalent to those set forth in this
23 Section;
24 (l) directly or indirectly giving to or receiving from
25 any person, firm, corporation, partnership, or association
26 any fee, commission, rebate or other form of compensation

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1 for any professional service not actually rendered.
2 Nothing in this paragraph (l) affects any bona fide
3 independent contractor or employment arrangements among
4 health care professionals, health facilities, health care
5 providers, or other entities, except as otherwise
6 prohibited by law. Any employment arrangements may include
7 provisions for compensation, health insurance, pension, or
8 other employment benefits for the provision of services
9 within the scope of the licensee's practice under this Act.
10 Nothing in this paragraph (l) shall be construed to require
11 an employment arrangement to receive professional fees for
12 services rendered;
13 (m) a finding by the Board that the licensee, after
14 having the license placed on probationary status, has
15 violated the terms of probation;
16 (n) abandonment, without cause, of a client;
17 (o) wilfully filing false reports relating to a
18 licensee's practice, including but not limited to false
19 records filed with Federal or State agencies or
20 departments;
21 (p) wilfully failing to report an instance of suspected
22 child abuse or neglect as required by the Abused and
23 Neglected Child Reporting Act;
24 (q) being named as a perpetrator in an indicated report
25 by the Department of Children and Family Services under the
26 Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act, and upon proof by

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1 clear and convincing evidence that the licensee has caused
2 a child to be or failed to take reasonable steps to prevent
3 a child from being an abused child or neglected child as
4 defined in the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act;
5 (r) physical illness, mental illness, or any other
6 impairment or disability, including, but not limited to,
7 deterioration through the aging process, or loss of motor
8 skills that results in the inability to practice the
9 profession with reasonable judgment, skill or safety;
10 (s) solicitation of professional services by using
11 false or misleading advertising; or
12 (t) violation of the Health Care Worker Self-Referral
13 Act.
14 (2) (Blank).
15 (3) The determination by a court that a licensee is subject
16to involuntary admission or judicial admission as provided in
17the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code, will
18result in an automatic suspension of his license. Such
19suspension will end upon a finding by a court that the licensee
20is no longer subject to involuntary admission or judicial
21admission and issues an order so finding and discharging the
22patient, and upon the recommendation of the Board to the
23Secretary that the licensee be allowed to resume professional
24practice.
25 (4) The Department may refuse to issue or renew or may
26suspend the license of a person who (i) fails to file a return,

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1pay the tax, penalty, or interest shown in a filed return, or
2pay any final assessment of tax, penalty, or interest, as
3required by any tax Act administered by the Department of
4Revenue, until the requirements of the tax Act are satisfied or
5(ii) has failed to pay any court-ordered child support as
6determined by a court order or by referral from the Department
7of Healthcare and Family Services.
8 (5) In enforcing this Section, the Board upon a showing of
9a possible violation may compel a person licensed to practice
10under this Act, or who has applied for licensure or
11certification pursuant to this Act, to submit to a mental or
12physical examination, or both, as required by and at the
13expense of the Department. The examining physicians shall be
14those specifically designated by the Board. The Board or the
15Department may order the examining physician to present
16testimony concerning this mental or physical examination of the
17licensee or applicant. No information shall be excluded by
18reason of any common law or statutory privilege relating to
19communications between the licensee or applicant and the
20examining physician. The person to be examined may have, at his
21or her own expense, another physician of his or her choice
22present during all aspects of the examination. Failure of any
23person to submit to a mental or physical examination, when
24directed, shall be grounds for suspension of a license until
25the person submits to the examination if the Board finds, after
26notice and hearing, that the refusal to submit to the

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1examination was without reasonable cause.
2 If the Board finds a person unable to practice because of
3the reasons set forth in this Section, the Board may require
4that person to submit to care, counseling, or treatment by
5physicians approved or designated by the Board, as a condition,
6term, or restriction for continued, reinstated, or renewed
7licensure to practice; or, in lieu of care, counseling or
8treatment, the Board may recommend to the Department to file a
9complaint to immediately suspend, revoke or otherwise
10discipline the license of the person. Any person whose license
11was granted, continued, reinstated, renewed, disciplined or
12supervised subject to such terms, conditions or restrictions,
13and who fails to comply with such terms, conditions, or
14restrictions, shall be referred to the Secretary for a
15determination as to whether the person shall have his or her
16license suspended immediately, pending a hearing by the Board.
17 In instances in which the Secretary immediately suspends a
18person's license under this Section, a hearing on that person's
19license must be convened by the Board within 30 days after the
20suspension and completed without appreciable delay. The Board
21shall have the authority to review the subject person's record
22of treatment and counseling regarding the impairment, to the
23extent permitted by applicable federal statutes and
24regulations safeguarding the confidentiality of medical
25records.
26 A person licensed under this Act and affected under this

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1Section shall be afforded an opportunity to demonstrate to the
2Board that he or she can resume practice in compliance with
3acceptable and prevailing standards under the provisions of his
4or her license.
5(Source: P.A. 95-687, eff. 10-23-07; 96-1482, eff. 11-29-10;
6revised 11-14-13.)
7 Section 385. The Illinois Dental Practice Act is amended by
8changing Section 17 as follows:
9 (225 ILCS 25/17) (from Ch. 111, par. 2317)
10 (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2016)
11 Sec. 17. Acts Constituting the Practice of Dentistry. A
12person practices dentistry, within the meaning of this Act:
13 (1) Who represents himself or herself as being able to
14 diagnose or diagnoses, treats, prescribes, or operates for
15 any disease, pain, deformity, deficiency, injury, or
16 physical condition of the human tooth, teeth, alveolar
17 process, gums or jaw; or
18 (2) Who is a manager, proprietor, operator or conductor
19 of a business where dental operations are performed; or
20 (3) Who performs dental operations of any kind; or
21 (4) Who uses an X-Ray machine or X-Ray films for dental
22 diagnostic purposes; or
23 (5) Who extracts a human tooth or teeth, or corrects or
24 attempts to correct malpositions of the human teeth or

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1 jaws; or
2 (6) Who offers or undertakes, by any means or method,
3 to diagnose, treat or remove stains, calculus, and bonding
4 materials from human teeth or jaws; or
5 (7) Who uses or administers local or general
6 anesthetics in the treatment of dental or oral diseases or
7 in any preparation incident to a dental operation of any
8 kind or character; or
9 (8) Who takes impressions of the human tooth, teeth, or
10 jaws or performs any phase of any operation incident to the
11 replacement of a part of a tooth, a tooth, teeth or
12 associated tissues by means of a filling, crown, a bridge,
13 a denture or other appliance; or
14 (9) Who offers to furnish, supply, construct,
15 reproduce or repair, or who furnishes, supplies,
16 constructs, reproduces or repairs, prosthetic dentures,
17 bridges or other substitutes for natural teeth, to the user
18 or prospective user thereof; or
19 (10) Who instructs students on clinical matters or
20 performs any clinical operation included in the curricula
21 of recognized dental schools and colleges; or
22 (11) Who takes impressions of human teeth or places his
23 or her hands in the mouth of any person for the purpose of
24 applying teeth whitening materials, or who takes
25 impressions of human teeth or places his or her hands in
26 the mouth of any person for the purpose of assisting in the

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1 application of teeth whitening materials. A person does not
2 practice dentistry when he or she discloses to the consumer
3 that he or she is not licensed as a dentist under this Act
4 and (i) discusses the use of teeth whitening materials with
5 a consumer purchasing these materials; (ii) provides
6 instruction on the use of teeth whitening materials with a
7 consumer purchasing these materials; or (iii) provides
8 appropriate equipment on-site to the consumer for the
9 consumer to self-apply teeth whitening materials.
10 The fact that any person engages in or performs, or offers
11to engage in or perform, any of the practices, acts, or
12operations set forth in this Section, shall be prima facie
13evidence that such person is engaged in the practice of
14dentistry.
15 The following practices, acts, and operations, however,
16are exempt from the operation of this Act:
17 (a) The rendering of dental relief in emergency cases
18 in the practice of his or her profession by a physician or
19 surgeon, licensed as such under the laws of this State,
20 unless he or she undertakes to reproduce or reproduces lost
21 parts of the human teeth in the mouth or to restore or
22 replace lost or missing teeth in the mouth; or
23 (b) The practice of dentistry in the discharge of their
24 official duties by dentists in any branch of the Armed
25 Services of the United States, the United States Public
26 Health Service, or the United States Veterans

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1 Administration; or
2 (c) The practice of dentistry by students in their
3 course of study in dental schools or colleges approved by
4 the Department, when acting under the direction and
5 supervision of dentists acting as instructors; or
6 (d) The practice of dentistry by clinical instructors
7 in the course of their teaching duties in dental schools or
8 colleges approved by the Department:
9 (i) when acting under the direction and
10 supervision of dentists, provided that such clinical
11 instructors have instructed continuously in this State
12 since January 1, 1986; or
13 (ii) when holding the rank of full professor at
14 such approved dental school or college and possessing a
15 current valid license or authorization to practice
16 dentistry in another country; or
17 (e) The practice of dentistry by licensed dentists of
18 other states or countries at meetings of the Illinois State
19 Dental Society or component parts thereof, alumni meetings
20 of dental colleges, or any other like dental organizations,
21 while appearing as clinicians; or
22 (f) The use of X-Ray machines for exposing X-Ray films
23 of dental or oral tissues by dental hygienists or dental
24 assistants; or
25 (g) The performance of any dental service by a dental
26 assistant, if such service is performed under the

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1 supervision and full responsibility of a dentist.
2 For purposes of this paragraph (g), "dental service" is
3 defined to mean any intraoral procedure or act which shall
4 be prescribed by rule or regulation of the Department.
5 Dental service, however, shall not include:
6 (1) Any and all diagnosis of or prescription for
7 treatment of disease, pain, deformity, deficiency,
8 injury or physical condition of the human teeth or
9 jaws, or adjacent structures.
10 (2) Removal of, or restoration of, or addition to
11 the hard or soft tissues of the oral cavity, except for
12 the placing, carving, and finishing of amalgam
13 restorations by dental assistants who have had
14 additional formal education and certification as
15 determined by the Department. A dentist utilizing
16 dental assistants shall not supervise more than 4
17 dental assistants at any one time for placing, carving,
18 and finishing of amalgam restorations.
19 (3) Any and all correction of malformation of teeth
20 or of the jaws.
21 (4) Administration of anesthetics, except for
22 monitoring of nitrous oxide, conscious sedation, deep
23 sedation, and general anesthetic as provided in
24 Section 8.1 of this Act, that may be performed only
25 after successful completion of a training program
26 approved by the Department. A dentist utilizing dental

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1 assistants shall not supervise more than 4 dental
2 assistants at any one time for the monitoring of
3 nitrous oxide.
4 (5) Removal of calculus from human teeth.
5 (6) Taking of impressions for the fabrication of
6 prosthetic appliances, crowns, bridges, inlays,
7 onlays, or other restorative or replacement dentistry.
8 (7) The operative procedure of dental hygiene
9 consisting of oral prophylactic procedures, except for
10 coronal polishing and pit and fissure sealants, which
11 may be performed by a dental assistant who has
12 successfully completed a training program approved by
13 the Department. Dental assistants may perform coronal
14 polishing under the following circumstances: (i) the
15 coronal polishing shall be limited to polishing the
16 clinical crown of the tooth and existing restorations,
17 supragingivally; (ii) the dental assistant performing
18 the coronal polishing shall be limited to the use of
19 rotary instruments using a rubber cup or brush
20 polishing method (air polishing is not permitted); and
21 (iii) the supervising dentist shall not supervise more
22 than 4 dental assistants at any one time for the task
23 of coronal polishing or pit and fissure sealants.
24 The limitations on the number of dental assistants a
25 dentist may supervise contained in items (2), (4), and (7)
26 of this paragraph (g) Section mean a limit of 4 total

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1 dental assistants or dental hygienists doing expanded
2 functions covered by these Sections being supervised by one
3 dentist.
4 (h) The practice of dentistry by an individual who:
5 (i) has applied in writing to the Department, in
6 form and substance satisfactory to the Department, for
7 a general dental license and has complied with all
8 provisions of Section 9 of this Act, except for the
9 passage of the examination specified in subsection
10 (e), of Section 9, of this Act; or
11 (ii) has applied in writing to the Department, in
12 form and substance satisfactory to the Department, for
13 a temporary dental license and has complied with all
14 provisions of subsection (c), of Section 11, of this
15 Act; and
16 (iii) has been accepted or appointed for specialty
17 or residency training by a hospital situated in this
18 State; or
19 (iv) has been accepted or appointed for specialty
20 training in an approved dental program situated in this
21 State; or
22 (v) has been accepted or appointed for specialty
23 training in a dental public health agency situated in
24 this State.
25 The applicant shall be permitted to practice dentistry
26 for a period of 3 months from the starting date of the

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1 program, unless authorized in writing by the Department to
2 continue such practice for a period specified in writing by
3 the Department.
4 The applicant shall only be entitled to perform such
5 acts as may be prescribed by and incidental to his or her
6 program of residency or specialty training and shall not
7 otherwise engage in the practice of dentistry in this
8 State.
9 The authority to practice shall terminate immediately
10 upon:
11 (1) the decision of the Department that the
12 applicant has failed the examination; or
13 (2) denial of licensure by the Department; or
14 (3) withdrawal of the application.
15(Source: P.A. 97-526, eff. 1-1-12; 97-886, eff. 8-2-12;
1697-1013, eff. 8-17-12; 98-147, eff. 1-1-14; 98-463, eff.
178-16-13; revised 11-14-13.)
18 Section 390. The Dietitian Nutritionist Practice Act is
19amended by changing Section 95 as follows:
20 (225 ILCS 30/95) (from Ch. 111, par. 8401-95)
21 (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2023)
22 Sec. 95. Grounds for discipline.
23 (1) The Department may refuse to issue or renew, or may
24revoke, suspend, place on probation, reprimand, or take other

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1disciplinary or non-disciplinary action as the Department may
2deem appropriate, including imposing fines not to exceed
3$10,000 for each violation, with regard to any license or
4certificate for any one or combination of the following causes:
5 (a) Material misstatement in furnishing information to
6 the Department.
7 (b) Violations of this Act or of rules adopted under
8 this Act.
9 (c) Conviction by plea of guilty or nolo contendere,
10 finding of guilt, jury verdict, or entry of judgment or by
11 sentencing of any crime, including, but not limited to,
12 convictions, preceding sentences of supervision,
13 conditional discharge, or first offender probation, under
14 the laws of any jurisdiction of the United States (i) that
15 is a felony or (ii) that is a misdemeanor, an essential
16 element of which is dishonesty, or that is directly related
17 to the practice of the profession.
18 (d) Fraud or any misrepresentation in applying for or
19 procuring a license under this Act or in connection with
20 applying for renewal of a license under this Act.
21 (e) Professional incompetence or gross negligence.
22 (f) Malpractice.
23 (g) Aiding or assisting another person in violating any
24 provision of this Act or its rules.
25 (h) Failing to provide information within 60 days in
26 response to a written request made by the Department.

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1 (i) Engaging in dishonorable, unethical or
2 unprofessional conduct of a character likely to deceive,
3 defraud, or harm the public.
4 (j) Habitual or excessive use or abuse of drugs defined
5 in law as controlled substances, alcohol, or any other
6 substance that results in the inability to practice with
7 reasonable judgment, skill, or safety.
8 (k) Discipline by another state, the District of
9 Columbia, territory, country, or governmental agency if at
10 least one of the grounds for the discipline is the same or
11 substantially equivalent to those set forth in this Act.
12 (l) Charging for professional services not rendered,
13 including filing false statements for the collection of
14 fees for which services are not rendered. Nothing in this
15 paragraph (1) affects any bona fide independent contractor
16 or employment arrangements among health care
17 professionals, health facilities, health care providers,
18 or other entities, except as otherwise prohibited by law.
19 Any employment arrangements may include provisions for
20 compensation, health insurance, pension, or other
21 employment benefits for the provision of services within
22 the scope of the licensee's practice under this Act.
23 Nothing in this paragraph (1) shall be construed to require
24 an employment arrangement to receive professional fees for
25 services rendered.
26 (m) A finding by the Department that the licensee,

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1 after having his or her license placed on probationary
2 status, has violated the terms of probation.
3 (n) Willfully making or filing false records or reports
4 in his or her practice, including, but not limited to,
5 false records filed with State agencies or departments.
6 (o) Allowing one's license under this Act to be used by
7 an unlicensed person in violation of this Act.
8 (p) Practicing under a false or, except as provided by
9 law, an assumed name.
10 (q) Gross and willful overcharging for professional
11 services.
12 (r) (Blank).
13 (s) Willfully failing to report an instance of
14 suspected child abuse or neglect as required by the Abused
15 and Neglected Child Reporting Act.
16 (t) Cheating on or attempting to subvert a licensing
17 examination administered under this Act.
18 (u) Mental illness or disability that results in the
19 inability to practice under this Act with reasonable
20 judgment, skill, or safety.
21 (v) Physical illness, including, but not limited to,
22 deterioration through the aging process or loss of motor
23 skill that results in a licensee's inability to practice
24 under this Act with reasonable judgment, skill, or safety.
25 (w) Advising an individual to discontinue, reduce,
26 increase, or otherwise alter the intake of a drug

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1 prescribed by a physician licensed to practice medicine in
2 all its branches or by a prescriber as defined in Section
3 102 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Substance Act.
4 (2) The Department may refuse to issue or may suspend
5without hearing, as provided for in the Code of Civil
6Procedure, the license of any person who fails to file a
7return, or pay the tax, penalty, or interest shown in a filed
8return, or pay any final assessment of the tax, penalty, or
9interest as required by any tax Act administered by the
10Illinois Department of Revenue, until such time as the
11requirements of any such tax Act are satisfied in accordance
12with subsection (g) of Section 2105-15 of the Civil
13Administrative Code of Illinois.
14 (3) The Department shall deny a license or renewal
15authorized by this Act to a person who has defaulted on an
16educational loan or scholarship provided or guaranteed by the
17Illinois Student Assistance Commission or any governmental
18agency of this State in accordance with item (5) of subsection
19(a) of Section 2105-15 of the Civil Administrative Code of
20Illinois.
21 (4) In cases where the Department of Healthcare and Family
22Services has previously determined a licensee or a potential
23licensee is more than 30 days delinquent in the payment of
24child support and has subsequently certified the delinquency to
25the Department, the Department may refuse to issue or renew or
26may revoke or suspend that person's license or may take other

09800SB2640ham001- 750 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1disciplinary action against that person based solely upon the
2certification of delinquency made by the Department of
3Healthcare and Family Services in accordance with item (5) of
4subsection (a) of Section 2105-15 1205-15 of the Civil
5Administrative Code of Illinois.
6 (5) The determination by a circuit court that a licensee is
7subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission, as
8provided in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities
9Code, operates as an automatic suspension. The suspension shall
10end only upon a finding by a court that the patient is no
11longer subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission
12and the issuance of an order so finding and discharging the
13patient.
14 (6) In enforcing this Act, the Department, upon a showing
15of a possible violation, may compel an individual licensed to
16practice under this Act, or who has applied for licensure under
17this Act, to submit to a mental or physical examination, or
18both, as required by and at the expense of the Department. The
19Department may order the examining physician to present
20testimony concerning the mental or physical examination of the
21licensee or applicant. No information shall be excluded by
22reason of any common law or statutory privilege relating to
23communications between the licensee or applicant and the
24examining physician. The examining physicians shall be
25specifically designated by the Department. The individual to be
26examined may have, at his or her own expense, another physician

09800SB2640ham001- 751 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1of his or her choice present during all aspects of this
2examination. The examination shall be performed by a physician
3licensed to practice medicine in all its branches. Failure of
4an individual to submit to a mental or physical examination,
5when directed, shall result in an automatic suspension without
6hearing.
7 A person holding a license under this Act or who has
8applied for a license under this Act who, because of a physical
9or mental illness or disability, including, but not limited to,
10deterioration through the aging process or loss of motor skill,
11is unable to practice the profession with reasonable judgment,
12skill, or safety, may be required by the Department to submit
13to care, counseling, or treatment by physicians approved or
14designated by the Department as a condition, term, or
15restriction for continued, reinstated, or renewed licensure to
16practice. Submission to care, counseling, or treatment as
17required by the Department shall not be considered discipline
18of a license. If the licensee refuses to enter into a care,
19counseling, or treatment agreement or fails to abide by the
20terms of the agreement, then the Department may file a
21complaint to revoke, suspend, or otherwise discipline the
22license of the individual. The Secretary may order the license
23suspended immediately, pending a hearing by the Department.
24Fines shall not be assessed in disciplinary actions involving
25physical or mental illness or impairment.
26 In instances in which the Secretary immediately suspends a

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1person's license under this Section, a hearing on that person's
2license must be convened by the Department within 15 days after
3the suspension and completed without appreciable delay. The
4Department shall have the authority to review the subject
5individual's record of treatment and counseling regarding the
6impairment to the extent permitted by applicable federal
7statutes and regulations safeguarding the confidentiality of
8medical records.
9 An individual licensed under this Act and affected under
10this Section shall be afforded an opportunity to demonstrate to
11the Department that he or she can resume practice in compliance
12with acceptable and prevailing standards under the provisions
13of his or her license.
14(Source: P.A. 97-1141, eff. 12-28-12; 98-148, eff. 8-2-13;
15revised 11-14-13.)
16 Section 395. The Funeral Directors and Embalmers Licensing
17Code is amended by changing Sections 5-5, 10-5, and 15-75 as
18follows:
19 (225 ILCS 41/5-5)
20 (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2023)
21 Sec. 5-5. License requirement. It is unlawful for any
22person to practice, or to attempt to practice, funeral
23directing without a license as a funeral director issued by the
24Department.

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1 No person shall practice funeral directing unless he or she
2is they are employed by or contracted with a fixed place of
3practice or establishment devoted to the care and preparation
4for burial or for the transportation of deceased human bodies.
5 No person shall practice funeral directing independently
6at the fixed place of practice or establishment of another
7licensee unless that person's name is published and displayed
8at all times in connection therewith.
9(Source: P.A. 97-1130, eff. 8-28-12; revised 11-14-13.)
10 (225 ILCS 41/10-5)
11 (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2023)
12 Sec. 10-5. License requirement. It is unlawful for any
13person to practice or attempt to practice funeral directing and
14embalming without being licensed by the Department.
15 No person shall practice funeral directing and embalming
16unless he or she is they are employed by or contracted with a
17fixed place of practice or establishment devoted to the care
18and preparation for burial or for the transportation of
19deceased human bodies.
20 No person shall practice funeral directing and embalming
21independently at the fixed place of practice or establishment
22of another licensee unless his or her name shall be published
23and displayed at all times in connection therewith.
24 No licensed intern shall independently practice funeral
25directing and embalming; however, a licensed funeral director

09800SB2640ham001- 754 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1and embalmer intern may under the immediate personal
2supervision of a licensed funeral director and embalmer assist
3a licensed funeral director and embalmer in the practice of
4funeral directing and embalming.
5 No person shall practice as a funeral director and embalmer
6intern unless he or she possesses a valid license in good
7standing to do so in the State of Illinois.
8(Source: P.A. 97-1130, eff. 8-28-12; revised 11-14-13.)
9 (225 ILCS 41/15-75)
10 (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2023)
11 Sec. 15-75. Violations; grounds for discipline; penalties.
12 (a) Each of the following acts is a Class A misdemeanor for
13the first offense, and a Class 4 felony for each subsequent
14offense. These penalties shall also apply to unlicensed owners
15of funeral homes.
16 (1) Practicing the profession of funeral directing and
17 embalming or funeral directing, or attempting to practice
18 the profession of funeral directing and embalming or
19 funeral directing without a license as a funeral director
20 and embalmer or funeral director.
21 (2) Serving or attempting to serve as an intern under a
22 licensed funeral director and embalmer without a license as
23 a licensed funeral director and embalmer intern.
24 (3) Obtaining or attempting to obtain a license,
25 practice or business, or any other thing of value, by fraud

09800SB2640ham001- 755 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 or misrepresentation.
2 (4) Permitting any person in one's employ, under one's
3 control or in or under one's service to serve as a funeral
4 director and embalmer, funeral director, or funeral
5 director and embalmer intern when the person does not have
6 the appropriate license.
7 (5) Failing to display a license as required by this
8 Code.
9 (6) Giving false information or making a false oath or
10 affidavit required by this Code.
11 (b) The Department may refuse to issue or renew, revoke,
12suspend, place on probation or administrative supervision,
13reprimand, or take other disciplinary or non-disciplinary
14action as the Department may deem appropriate, including
15imposing fines not to exceed $10,000 for each violation, with
16regard to any license under the Code for any one or combination
17of the following:
18 (1) Fraud or any misrepresentation in applying for or
19 procuring a license under this Code or in connection with
20 applying for renewal of a license under this Code.
21 (2) Conviction by plea of guilty or nolo contendere,
22 finding of guilt, jury verdict, or entry of judgment or by
23 sentencing of any crime, including, but not limited to,
24 convictions, preceding sentences of supervision,
25 conditional discharge, or first offender probation, under
26 the laws of any jurisdiction of the United States: (i) that

09800SB2640ham001- 756 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 is a felony or (ii) that is a misdemeanor, an essential
2 element of which is dishonesty, or that is directly related
3 to the practice of the profession.
4 (3) Violation of the laws of this State relating to the
5 funeral, burial or disposition of deceased human bodies or
6 of the rules and regulations of the Department, or the
7 Department of Public Health.
8 (4) Directly or indirectly paying or causing to be paid
9 any sum of money or other valuable consideration for the
10 securing of business or for obtaining authority to dispose
11 of any deceased human body.
12 (5) Professional incompetence, gross negligence,
13 malpractice, or untrustworthiness in the practice of
14 funeral directing and embalming or funeral directing.
15 (6) (Blank).
16 (7) Engaging in, promoting, selling, or issuing burial
17 contracts, burial certificates, or burial insurance
18 policies in connection with the profession as a funeral
19 director and embalmer, funeral director, or funeral
20 director and embalmer intern in violation of any laws of
21 the State of Illinois.
22 (8) Refusing, without cause, to surrender the custody
23 of a deceased human body upon the proper request of the
24 person or persons lawfully entitled to the custody of the
25 body.
26 (9) Taking undue advantage of a client or clients as to

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1 amount to the perpetration of fraud.
2 (10) Engaging in funeral directing and embalming or
3 funeral directing without a license.
4 (11) Encouraging, requesting, or suggesting by a
5 licensee or some person working on his behalf and with his
6 consent for compensation that a person utilize the services
7 of a certain funeral director and embalmer, funeral
8 director, or funeral establishment unless that information
9 has been expressly requested by the person. This does not
10 prohibit general advertising or pre-need solicitation.
11 (12) Making or causing to be made any false or
12 misleading statements about the laws concerning the
13 disposition of human remains, including, but not limited
14 to, the need to embalm, the need for a casket for cremation
15 or the need for an outer burial container.
16 (13) (Blank).
17 (14) Embalming or attempting to embalm a deceased human
18 body without express prior authorization of the person
19 responsible for making the funeral arrangements for the
20 body. This does not apply to cases where embalming is
21 directed by local authorities who have jurisdiction or when
22 embalming is required by State or local law. A licensee may
23 embalm without express prior authorization if a good faith
24 effort has been made to contact family members and has been
25 unsuccessful and the licensee has no reason to believe the
26 family opposes embalming.

09800SB2640ham001- 758 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 (15) Making a false statement on a Certificate of Death
2 where the person making the statement knew or should have
3 known that the statement was false.
4 (16) Soliciting human bodies after death or while death
5 is imminent.
6 (17) Performing any act or practice that is a violation
7 of this Code, the rules for the administration of this
8 Code, or any federal, State or local laws, rules, or
9 regulations governing the practice of funeral directing or
10 embalming.
11 (18) Performing any act or practice that is a violation
12 of Section 2 of the Consumer Fraud and Deceptive Business
13 Practices Act.
14 (19) Engaging in dishonorable, unethical, or
15 unprofessional conduct of a character likely to deceive,
16 defraud or harm the public.
17 (20) Taking possession of a dead human body without
18 having first obtained express permission from the person
19 holding the right to control the disposition in accordance
20 with Section 5 of the Disposition of Remains Act or a
21 public agency legally authorized to direct, control or
22 permit the removal of deceased human bodies.
23 (21) Advertising in a false or misleading manner or
24 advertising using the name of an unlicensed person in
25 connection with any service being rendered in the practice
26 of funeral directing or funeral directing and embalming.

09800SB2640ham001- 759 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 The use of any name of an unlicensed or unregistered person
2 in an advertisement so as to imply that the person will
3 perform services is considered misleading advertising.
4 Nothing in this paragraph shall prevent including the name
5 of any owner, officer or corporate director of a funeral
6 home, who is not a licensee, in any advertisement used by a
7 funeral home with which the individual is affiliated, if
8 the advertisement specifies the individual's affiliation
9 with the funeral home.
10 (22) Charging for professional services not rendered,
11 including filing false statements for the collection of
12 fees for which services are not rendered.
13 (23) Failing to account for or remit any monies,
14 documents, or personal property that belongs to others that
15 comes into a licensee's possession.
16 (24) Treating any person differently to his detriment
17 because of race, color, creed, gender, religion, or
18 national origin.
19 (25) Knowingly making any false statements, oral or
20 otherwise, of a character likely to influence, persuade or
21 induce others in the course of performing professional
22 services or activities.
23 (26) Willfully making or filing false records or
24 reports in the practice of funeral directing and embalming,
25 including, but not limited to, false records filed with
26 State agencies or departments.

09800SB2640ham001- 760 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 (27) Failing to acquire continuing education required
2 under this Code.
3 (28) (Blank).
4 (29) Aiding or assisting another person in violating
5 any provision of this Code or rules adopted pursuant to
6 this Code.
7 (30) Failing within 10 days, to provide information in
8 response to a written request made by the Department.
9 (31) Discipline by another state, District of
10 Columbia, territory, foreign nation, or governmental
11 agency, if at least one of the grounds for the discipline
12 is the same or substantially equivalent to those set forth
13 in this Section.
14 (32) (Blank).
15 (33) Mental illness or disability which results in the
16 inability to practice the profession with reasonable
17 judgment, skill, or safety.
18 (34) Gross, willful, or continued overcharging for
19 professional services, including filing false statements
20 for collection of fees for which services are not rendered.
21 (35) Physical illness, including, but not limited to,
22 deterioration through the aging process or loss of motor
23 skill which results in a licensee's inability to practice
24 under this Code with reasonable judgment, skill, or safety.
25 (36) Failing to comply with any of the following
26 required activities:

09800SB2640ham001- 761 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 (A) When reasonably possible, a funeral director
2 licensee or funeral director and embalmer licensee or
3 anyone acting on his or her behalf shall obtain the
4 express authorization of the person or persons
5 responsible for making the funeral arrangements for a
6 deceased human body prior to removing a body from the
7 place of death or any place it may be or embalming or
8 attempting to embalm a deceased human body, unless
9 required by State or local law. This requirement is
10 waived whenever removal or embalming is directed by
11 local authorities who have jurisdiction. If the
12 responsibility for the handling of the remains
13 lawfully falls under the jurisdiction of a public
14 agency, then the regulations of the public agency shall
15 prevail.
16 (B) A licensee shall clearly mark the price of any
17 casket offered for sale or the price of any service
18 using the casket on or in the casket if the casket is
19 displayed at the funeral establishment. If the casket
20 is displayed at any other location, regardless of
21 whether the licensee is in control of that location,
22 the casket shall be clearly marked and the registrant
23 shall use books, catalogues, brochures, or other
24 printed display aids to show the price of each casket
25 or service.
26 (C) At the time funeral arrangements are made and

09800SB2640ham001- 762 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 prior to rendering the funeral services, a licensee
2 shall furnish a written statement of services to be
3 retained by the person or persons making the funeral
4 arrangements, signed by both parties, that shall
5 contain: (i) the name, address and telephone number of
6 the funeral establishment and the date on which the
7 arrangements were made; (ii) the price of the service
8 selected and the services and merchandise included for
9 that price; (iii) a clear disclosure that the person or
10 persons making the arrangement may decline and receive
11 credit for any service or merchandise not desired and
12 not required by law or the funeral director or the
13 funeral director and embalmer; (iv) the supplemental
14 items of service and merchandise requested and the
15 price of each item; (v) the terms or method of payment
16 agreed upon; and (vi) a statement as to any monetary
17 advances made by the registrant on behalf of the
18 family. The licensee shall maintain a copy of the
19 written statement of services in its permanent
20 records. All written statements of services are
21 subject to inspection by the Department.
22 (D) In all instances where the place of final
23 disposition of a deceased human body or the cremated
24 remains of a deceased human body is a cemetery, the
25 licensed funeral director and embalmer, or licensed
26 funeral director, who has been engaged to provide

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1 funeral or embalming services shall remain at the
2 cemetery and personally witness the placement of the
3 human remains in their designated grave or the sealing
4 of the above ground depository, crypt, or urn. The
5 licensed funeral director or licensed funeral director
6 and embalmer may designate a licensed funeral director
7 and embalmer intern or representative of the funeral
8 home to be his or her witness to the placement of the
9 remains. If the cemetery authority, cemetery manager,
10 or any other agent of the cemetery takes any action
11 that prevents compliance with this paragraph (D), then
12 the funeral director and embalmer or funeral director
13 shall provide written notice to the Department within 5
14 business days after failing to comply. If the
15 Department receives this notice, then the Department
16 shall not take any disciplinary action against the
17 funeral director and embalmer or funeral director for a
18 violation of this paragraph (D) unless the Department
19 finds that the cemetery authority, manager, or any
20 other agent of the cemetery did not prevent the funeral
21 director and embalmer or funeral director from
22 complying with this paragraph (D) as claimed in the
23 written notice.
24 (E) A funeral director or funeral director and
25 embalmer shall fully complete the portion of the
26 Certificate of Death under the responsibility of the

09800SB2640ham001- 764 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 funeral director or funeral director and embalmer and
2 provide all required information. In the event that any
3 reported information subsequently changes or proves
4 incorrect, a funeral director or funeral director and
5 embalmer shall immediately upon learning the correct
6 information correct the Certificate of Death.
7 (37) A finding by the Department that the license,
8 after having his or her license placed on probationary
9 status or subjected to conditions or restrictions,
10 violated the terms of the probation or failed to comply
11 with such terms or conditions.
12 (38) (Blank).
13 (39) Being named as a perpetrator in an indicated
14 report by the Department of Children and Family Services
15 pursuant to the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act
16 and, upon proof by clear and convincing evidence, being
17 found to have caused a child to be an abused child or
18 neglected child as defined in the Abused and Neglected
19 Child Reporting Act.
20 (40) Habitual or excessive use or abuse of drugs
21 defined in law as controlled substances, alcohol, or any
22 other substance which results in the inability to practice
23 with reasonable judgment, skill, or safety.
24 (41) Practicing under a false or, except as provided by
25 law, an assumed name.
26 (42) Cheating on or attempting to subvert the licensing

09800SB2640ham001- 765 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 examination administered under this Code.
2 (c) The Department may refuse to issue or renew or may
3suspend without a hearing, as provided for in the Department of
4Professional Regulation Law of the Civil Administrative Code of
5Illinois, the license of any person who fails to file a return,
6to pay the tax, penalty or interest shown in a filed return, or
7to pay any final assessment of tax, penalty or interest as
8required by any tax Act administered by the Illinois Department
9of Revenue, until the time as the requirements of the tax Act
10are satisfied in accordance with subsection (g) of Section
112105-15 of the Department of Professional Regulation Law of the
12Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.
13 (d) No action may be taken under this Code against a person
14licensed under this Code unless the action is commenced within
155 years after the occurrence of the alleged violations. A
16continuing violation shall be deemed to have occurred on the
17date when the circumstances last existed that give rise to the
18alleged violation.
19 (e) Nothing in this Section shall be construed or enforced
20to give a funeral director and embalmer, or his or her
21designees, authority over the operation of a cemetery or over
22cemetery employees. Nothing in this Section shall be construed
23or enforced to impose duties or penalties on cemeteries with
24respect to the timing of the placement of human remains in
25their designated grave or the sealing of the above ground
26depository, crypt, or urn due to patron safety, the allocation

09800SB2640ham001- 766 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1of cemetery staffing, liability insurance, a collective
2bargaining agreement, or other such reasons.
3 (f) All fines imposed under this Section shall be paid 60
4days after the effective date of the order imposing the fine.
5 (g) The Department shall deny a license or renewal
6authorized by this Code to a person who has defaulted on an
7educational loan or scholarship provided or guaranteed by the
8Illinois Student Assistance Commission or any governmental
9agency of this State in accordance with item (5) of subsection
10(a) (g) of Section 2105-15 of the Department of Professional
11Regulation Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.
12 (h) In cases where the Department of Healthcare and Family
13Services has previously determined a licensee or a potential
14licensee is more than 30 days delinquent in the payment of
15child support and has subsequently certified the delinquency to
16the Department, the Department may refuse to issue or renew or
17may revoke or suspend that person's license or may take other
18disciplinary action against that person based solely upon the
19certification of delinquency made by the Department of
20Healthcare and Family Services in accordance with item (5) of
21subsection (a) (g) of Section 2105-15 1205-15 of the Department
22of Professional Regulation Law of the Civil Administrative Code
23of Illinois.
24 (i) A person not licensed under this Code who is an owner
25of a funeral establishment or funeral business shall not aid,
26abet, assist, procure, advise, employ, or contract with any

09800SB2640ham001- 767 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1unlicensed person to offer funeral services or aid, abet,
2assist, or direct any licensed person contrary to or in
3violation of any rules or provisions of this Code. A person
4violating this subsection shall be treated as a licensee for
5the purposes of disciplinary action under this Section and
6shall be subject to cease and desist orders as provided in this
7Code, the imposition of a fine up to $10,000 for each violation
8and any other penalty provided by law.
9 (j) The determination by a circuit court that a licensee is
10subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission as
11provided in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities
12Code, as amended, operates as an automatic suspension. The
13suspension may end only upon a finding by a court that the
14licensee is no longer subject to the involuntary admission or
15judicial admission and issues an order so finding and
16discharging the licensee, and upon the recommendation of the
17Board to the Secretary that the licensee be allowed to resume
18his or her practice.
19 (k) In enforcing this Code, the Department, upon a showing
20of a possible violation, may compel an individual licensed to
21practice under this Code, or who has applied for licensure
22under this Code, to submit to a mental or physical examination,
23or both, as required by and at the expense of the Department.
24The Department may order the examining physician to present
25testimony concerning the mental or physical examination of the
26licensee or applicant. No information shall be excluded by

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1reason of any common law or statutory privilege relating to
2communications between the licensee or applicant and the
3examining physician. The examining physician shall be
4specifically designated by the Department. The individual to be
5examined may have, at his or her own expense, another physician
6of his or her choice present during all aspects of this
7examination. The examination shall be performed by a physician
8licensed to practice medicine in all its branches. Failure of
9an individual to submit to a mental or physical examination,
10when directed, shall result in an automatic suspension without
11hearing.
12 A person holding a license under this Code or who has
13applied for a license under this Code who, because of a
14physical or mental illness or disability, including, but not
15limited to, deterioration through the aging process or loss of
16motor skill, is unable to practice the profession with
17reasonable judgment, skill, or safety, may be required by the
18Department to submit to care, counseling, or treatment by
19physicians approved or designated by the Department as a
20condition, term, or restriction for continued, reinstated, or
21renewed licensure to practice. Submission to care, counseling,
22or treatment as required by the Department shall not be
23considered discipline of a license. If the licensee refuses to
24enter into a care, counseling, or treatment agreement or fails
25to abide by the terms of the agreement, the Department may file
26a complaint to revoke, suspend, or otherwise discipline the

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1license of the individual. The Secretary may order the license
2suspended immediately, pending a hearing by the Department.
3Fines shall not be assessed in disciplinary actions involving
4physical or mental illness or impairment.
5 In instances in which the Secretary immediately suspends a
6person's license under this Section, a hearing on that person's
7license must be convened by the Department within 15 days after
8the suspension and completed without appreciable delay. The
9Department shall have the authority to review the subject
10individual's record of treatment and counseling regarding the
11impairment to the extent permitted by applicable federal
12statutes and regulations safeguarding the confidentiality of
13medical records.
14 An individual licensed under this Code and affected under
15this Section shall be afforded an opportunity to demonstrate to
16the Department that he or she can resume practice in compliance
17with acceptable and prevailing standards under the provisions
18of his or her license.
19(Source: P.A. 96-863, eff. 3-1-10; 96-1463, eff. 1-1-11;
2097-1130, eff. 8-28-12; revised 11-14-13.)
21 Section 400. The Health Care Worker Background Check Act is
22amended by changing Section 70 as follows:
23 (225 ILCS 46/70)
24 Sec. 70. Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMMS)

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1grant.
2 (a) In this Section:
3 "Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMMS) grant"
4means the grant awarded to and distributed by the Department of
5Public Health to enhance the conduct of criminal history
6records checks of certain health care employees. The CMMS grant
7is authorized by Section 307 of the federal Medicare
8Prescription Drug, Improvement, and Modernization Act of 2003,
9which establishes the framework for a program to evaluate
10national and state background checks on prospective employees
11with direct access to patients of long-term care facilities or
12providers.
13 "Selected health care employer" means any of the following
14selected to participate in the CMMS grant:
15 (1) a community living facility as defined in the
16 Community Living Facility Act;
17 (2) a long-term care facility as defined in the Nursing
18 Home Care Act;
19 (3) a home health agency as defined in the Home Health,
20 Home Services, and Home Nursing Agency Licensing Act;
21 (4) a full hospice as defined in the Hospice Licensing
22 Act;
23 (5) an establishment licensed under the Assisted
24 Living and Shared Housing Act;
25 (6) a supportive living facility as defined in the
26 Illinois Public Aid Code;

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1 (7) a day training program certified by the Department
2 of Human Services;
3 (8) a community integrated living arrangement operated
4 by a community mental health and developmental service
5 agency as defined in the Community-Integrated Community
6 Integrated Living Arrangements Licensing and Certification
7 Act; or
8 (9) a long-term care hospital or hospital with swing
9 beds.
10 (b) Selected health care employers shall be phased in to
11participate in the CMMS grant between January 1, 2006 and
12January 1, 2007, as prescribed by the Department of Public
13Health by rule.
14 (c) With regards to individuals hired on or after January
151, 2006 who have direct access to residents, patients, or
16clients of the selected health care employer, selected health
17care employers must comply with Section 25 of this Act.
18 "Individuals who have direct access" includes, but is not
19limited to, (i) direct care workers as described in subsection
20(a) of Section 25; (ii) individuals licensed by the Department
21of Financial and Professional Regulation, such as nurses,
22social workers, physical therapists, occupational therapists,
23and pharmacists; (iii) individuals who provide services on
24site, through contract; and (iv) non-direct care workers, such
25as those who work in environmental services, food service, and
26administration.

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1 "Individuals who have direct access" does not include
2physicians or volunteers.
3 The Department of Public Health may further define
4"individuals who have direct access" by rule.
5 (d) Each applicant seeking employment in a position
6described in subsection (c) of this Section with a selected
7health care employer shall, as a condition of employment, have
8his or her fingerprints submitted to the Department of State
9Police in an electronic format that complies with the form and
10manner for requesting and furnishing criminal history record
11information by the Department of State Police and the Federal
12Bureau of Investigation criminal history record databases now
13and hereafter filed. The Department of State Police shall
14forward the fingerprints to the Federal Bureau of Investigation
15for a national criminal history records check. The Department
16of State Police shall charge a fee for conducting the criminal
17history records check, which shall not exceed the actual cost
18of the records check and shall be deposited into the State
19Police Services Fund. The Department of State Police shall
20furnish, pursuant to positive identification, records of
21Illinois convictions to the Department of Public Health.
22 (e) A selected health care employer who makes a conditional
23offer of employment to an applicant shall:
24 (1) ensure that the applicant has complied with the
25 fingerprinting requirements of this Section;
26 (2) complete documentation relating to any criminal

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1 history record, as revealed by the applicant, as prescribed
2 by rule by the Department of Public Health;
3 (3) complete documentation of the applicant's personal
4 identifiers as prescribed by rule by the Department of
5 Public Health; and
6 (4) provide supervision, as prescribed by rule by the
7 licensing agency, if the applicant is hired and allowed to
8 work prior to the results of the criminal history records
9 check being obtained.
10 (f) A selected health care employer having actual knowledge
11from a source that an individual with direct access to a
12resident, patient, or client has been convicted of committing
13or attempting to commit one of the offenses enumerated in
14Section 25 of this Act shall contact the licensing agency or
15follow other instructions as prescribed by administrative
16rule.
17 (g) A fingerprint-based criminal history records check
18submitted in accordance with subsection (d) of this Section
19must be submitted as a fee applicant inquiry in the form and
20manner prescribed by the Department of State Police.
21 (h) This Section shall be inapplicable upon the conclusion
22of the CMMS grant.
23(Source: P.A. 94-665, eff. 1-1-06; 94-931, eff. 6-26-06;
2495-331, eff. 8-21-07; revised 11-14-13.)
25 Section 405. The Hearing Instrument Consumer Protection

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1Act is amended by changing Section 31 as follows:
2 (225 ILCS 50/31) (from Ch. 111, par. 7431)
3 (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2016)
4 Sec. 31. The provisions of "The Illinois Administrative
5Procedure Act", approved September 22, 1975, as amended, shall
6apply to this Act. All final administrative decisions of the
7Department are subject to judicial review pursuant to the
8provisions of Article III 3 of the "Code of Civil Procedure",
9approved August 19, 1981, as amended. Any circuit court, upon
10the application of the licensee or the Department, may order
11the attendance of witnesses and the production of relevant
12records in any Departmental hearing relative to the application
13for or refusal, recall, suspension or revocation of a license.
14(Source: P.A. 86-800; revised 11-14-13.)
15 Section 410. The Massage Licensing Act is amended by
16changing Section 45 as follows:
17 (225 ILCS 57/45)
18 (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022)
19 Sec. 45. Grounds for discipline.
20 (a) The Department may refuse to issue or renew, or may
21revoke, suspend, place on probation, reprimand, or take other
22disciplinary or non-disciplinary action, as the Department
23considers appropriate, including the imposition of fines not to

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1exceed $10,000 for each violation, with regard to any license
2or licensee for any one or more of the following:
3 (1) violations of this Act or of the rules adopted
4 under this Act;
5 (2) conviction by plea of guilty or nolo contendere,
6 finding of guilt, jury verdict, or entry of judgment or by
7 sentencing of any crime, including, but not limited to,
8 convictions, preceding sentences of supervision,
9 conditional discharge, or first offender probation, under
10 the laws of any jurisdiction of the United States: (i) that
11 is a felony; or (ii) that is a misdemeanor, an essential
12 element of which is dishonesty, or that is directly related
13 to the practice of the profession;
14 (3) professional incompetence;
15 (4) advertising in a false, deceptive, or misleading
16 manner;
17 (5) aiding, abetting, assisting, procuring, advising,
18 employing, or contracting with any unlicensed person to
19 practice massage contrary to any rules or provisions of
20 this Act;
21 (6) engaging in immoral conduct in the commission of
22 any act, such as sexual abuse, sexual misconduct, or sexual
23 exploitation, related to the licensee's practice;
24 (7) engaging in dishonorable, unethical, or
25 unprofessional conduct of a character likely to deceive,
26 defraud, or harm the public;

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1 (8) practicing or offering to practice beyond the scope
2 permitted by law or accepting and performing professional
3 responsibilities which the licensee knows or has reason to
4 know that he or she is not competent to perform;
5 (9) knowingly delegating professional responsibilities
6 to a person unqualified by training, experience, or
7 licensure to perform;
8 (10) failing to provide information in response to a
9 written request made by the Department within 60 days;
10 (11) having a habitual or excessive use of or addiction
11 to alcohol, narcotics, stimulants, or any other chemical
12 agent or drug which results in the inability to practice
13 with reasonable judgment, skill, or safety;
14 (12) having a pattern of practice or other behavior
15 that demonstrates incapacity or incompetence to practice
16 under this Act;
17 (13) discipline by another state, District of
18 Columbia, territory, or foreign nation, if at least one of
19 the grounds for the discipline is the same or substantially
20 equivalent to those set forth in this Section;
21 (14) a finding by the Department that the licensee,
22 after having his or her license placed on probationary
23 status, has violated the terms of probation;
24 (15) willfully making or filing false records or
25 reports in his or her practice, including, but not limited
26 to, false records filed with State agencies or departments;

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1 (16) making a material misstatement in furnishing
2 information to the Department or otherwise making
3 misleading, deceptive, untrue, or fraudulent
4 representations in violation of this Act or otherwise in
5 the practice of the profession;
6 (17) fraud or misrepresentation in applying for or
7 procuring a license under this Act or in connection with
8 applying for renewal of a license under this Act;
9 (18) inability to practice the profession with
10 reasonable judgment, skill, or safety as a result of
11 physical illness, including, but not limited to,
12 deterioration through the aging process, loss of motor
13 skill, or a mental illness or disability;
14 (19) charging for professional services not rendered,
15 including filing false statements for the collection of
16 fees for which services are not rendered;
17 (20) practicing under a false or, except as provided by
18 law, an assumed name; or
19 (21) cheating on or attempting to subvert the licensing
20 examination administered under this Act.
21 All fines shall be paid within 60 days of the effective
22date of the order imposing the fine.
23 (b) A person not licensed under this Act and engaged in the
24business of offering massage therapy services through others,
25shall not aid, abet, assist, procure, advise, employ, or
26contract with any unlicensed person to practice massage therapy

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1contrary to any rules or provisions of this Act. A person
2violating this subsection (b) shall be treated as a licensee
3for the purposes of disciplinary action under this Section and
4shall be subject to cease and desist orders as provided in
5Section 90 of this Act.
6 (c) The Department shall revoke any license issued under
7this Act of any person who is convicted of prostitution, rape,
8sexual misconduct, or any crime that subjects the licensee to
9compliance with the requirements of the Sex Offender
10Registration Act and any such conviction shall operate as a
11permanent bar in the State of Illinois to practice as a massage
12therapist.
13 (d) The Department may refuse to issue or may suspend the
14license of any person who fails to file a tax return, to pay
15the tax, penalty, or interest shown in a filed tax return, or
16to pay any final assessment of tax, penalty, or interest, as
17required by any tax Act administered by the Illinois Department
18of Revenue, until such time as the requirements of the tax Act
19are satisfied in accordance with subsection (g) of Section
202105-15 of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.
21 (e) The Department shall deny a license or renewal
22authorized by this Act to a person who has defaulted on an
23educational loan or scholarship provided or guaranteed by the
24Illinois Student Assistance Commission or any governmental
25agency of this State in accordance with item (5) of subsection
26(a) (g) of Section 2105-15 of the Civil Administrative Code of

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1Illinois.
2 (f) In cases where the Department of Healthcare and Family
3Services has previously determined that a licensee or a
4potential licensee is more than 30 days delinquent in the
5payment of child support and has subsequently certified the
6delinquency to the Department, the Department may refuse to
7issue or renew or may revoke or suspend that person's license
8or may take other disciplinary action against that person based
9solely upon the certification of delinquency made by the
10Department of Healthcare and Family Services in accordance with
11item (5) of subsection (a) (g) of Section 2105-15 of the Civil
12Administrative Code of Illinois.
13 (g) The determination by a circuit court that a licensee is
14subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission, as
15provided in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities
16Code, operates as an automatic suspension. The suspension will
17end only upon a finding by a court that the patient is no
18longer subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission
19and the issuance of a court order so finding and discharging
20the patient.
21 (h) In enforcing this Act, the Department or Board, upon a
22showing of a possible violation, may compel an individual
23licensed to practice under this Act, or who has applied for
24licensure under this Act, to submit to a mental or physical
25examination, or both, as required by and at the expense of the
26Department. The Department or Board may order the examining

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1physician to present testimony concerning the mental or
2physical examination of the licensee or applicant. No
3information shall be excluded by reason of any common law or
4statutory privilege relating to communications between the
5licensee or applicant and the examining physician. The
6examining physicians shall be specifically designated by the
7Board or Department. The individual to be examined may have, at
8his or her own expense, another physician of his or her choice
9present during all aspects of this examination. The examination
10shall be performed by a physician licensed to practice medicine
11in all its branches. Failure of an individual to submit to a
12mental or physical examination, when directed, shall result in
13an automatic suspension without hearing.
14 A person holding a license under this Act or who has
15applied for a license under this Act who, because of a physical
16or mental illness or disability, including, but not limited to,
17deterioration through the aging process or loss of motor skill,
18is unable to practice the profession with reasonable judgment,
19skill, or safety, may be required by the Department to submit
20to care, counseling, or treatment by physicians approved or
21designated by the Department as a condition, term, or
22restriction for continued, reinstated, or renewed licensure to
23practice. Submission to care, counseling, or treatment as
24required by the Department shall not be considered discipline
25of a license. If the licensee refuses to enter into a care,
26counseling, or treatment agreement or fails to abide by the

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1terms of the agreement, the Department may file a complaint to
2revoke, suspend, or otherwise discipline the license of the
3individual. The Secretary may order the license suspended
4immediately, pending a hearing by the Department. Fines shall
5not be assessed in disciplinary actions involving physical or
6mental illness or impairment.
7 In instances in which the Secretary immediately suspends a
8person's license under this Section, a hearing on that person's
9license must be convened by the Department within 15 days after
10the suspension and completed without appreciable delay. The
11Department and Board shall have the authority to review the
12subject individual's record of treatment and counseling
13regarding the impairment to the extent permitted by applicable
14federal statutes and regulations safeguarding the
15confidentiality of medical records.
16 An individual licensed under this Act and affected under
17this Section shall be afforded an opportunity to demonstrate to
18the Department or Board that he or she can resume practice in
19compliance with acceptable and prevailing standards under the
20provisions of his or her license.
21(Source: P.A. 97-514, eff. 8-23-11; revised 11-14-13.)
22 Section 415. The Nurse Practice Act is amended by changing
23Section 65-35 as follows:
24 (225 ILCS 65/65-35) (was 225 ILCS 65/15-15)

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1 (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)
2 Sec. 65-35. Written collaborative agreements.
3 (a) A written collaborative agreement is required for all
4advanced practice nurses engaged in clinical practice, except
5for advanced practice nurses who are authorized to practice in
6a hospital or ambulatory surgical treatment center.
7 (a-5) If an advanced practice nurse engages in clinical
8practice outside of a hospital or ambulatory surgical treatment
9center in which he or she is authorized to practice, the
10advanced practice nurse must have a written collaborative
11agreement.
12 (b) A written collaborative agreement shall describe the
13working relationship of the advanced practice nurse with the
14collaborating physician or podiatric physician and shall
15authorize the categories of care, treatment, or procedures to
16be performed by the advanced practice nurse. A collaborative
17agreement with a dentist must be in accordance with subsection
18(c-10) of this Section. Collaboration does not require an
19employment relationship between the collaborating physician
20and advanced practice nurse. Collaboration means the
21relationship under which an advanced practice nurse works with
22a collaborating physician or podiatric physician in an active
23clinical practice to deliver health care services in accordance
24with (i) the advanced practice nurse's training, education, and
25experience and (ii) collaboration and consultation as
26documented in a jointly developed written collaborative

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1agreement.
2 The agreement shall promote the exercise of professional
3judgment by the advanced practice nurse commensurate with his
4or her education and experience. The services to be provided by
5the advanced practice nurse shall be services that the
6collaborating physician or podiatric physician is authorized
7to and generally provides or may provide in his or her clinical
8medical or podiatric practice, except as set forth in
9subsection subsections (b-5) or (c-5) of this Section. The
10agreement need not describe the exact steps that an advanced
11practice nurse must take with respect to each specific
12condition, disease, or symptom but must specify which
13authorized procedures require the presence of the
14collaborating physician or podiatric physician as the
15procedures are being performed. The collaborative relationship
16under an agreement shall not be construed to require the
17personal presence of a physician or podiatric physician at the
18place where services are rendered. Methods of communication
19shall be available for consultation with the collaborating
20physician or podiatric physician in person or by
21telecommunications in accordance with established written
22guidelines as set forth in the written agreement.
23 (b-5) Absent an employment relationship, a written
24collaborative agreement may not (1) restrict the categories of
25patients of an advanced practice nurse within the scope of the
26advanced practice nurses training and experience, (2) limit

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1third party payors or government health programs, such as the
2medical assistance program or Medicare with which the advanced
3practice nurse contracts, or (3) limit the geographic area or
4practice location of the advanced practice nurse in this State.
5 (c) Collaboration and consultation under all collaboration
6agreements shall be adequate if a collaborating physician or
7podiatric physician does each of the following:
8 (1) Participates in the joint formulation and joint
9 approval of orders or guidelines with the advanced practice
10 nurse and he or she periodically reviews such orders and
11 the services provided patients under such orders in
12 accordance with accepted standards of medical practice or
13 podiatric practice and advanced practice nursing practice.
14 (2) Provides collaboration and consultation with the
15 advanced practice nurse at least once a month. In the case
16 of anesthesia services provided by a certified registered
17 nurse anesthetist, an anesthesiologist, a physician, a
18 dentist, or a podiatric physician must participate through
19 discussion of and agreement with the anesthesia plan and
20 remain physically present and available on the premises
21 during the delivery of anesthesia services for diagnosis,
22 consultation, and treatment of emergency medical
23 conditions.
24 (3) Is available through telecommunications for
25 consultation on medical problems, complications, or
26 emergencies or patient referral. In the case of anesthesia

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1 services provided by a certified registered nurse
2 anesthetist, an anesthesiologist, a physician, a dentist,
3 or a podiatric physician must participate through
4 discussion of and agreement with the anesthesia plan and
5 remain physically present and available on the premises
6 during the delivery of anesthesia services for diagnosis,
7 consultation, and treatment of emergency medical
8 conditions.
9 The agreement must contain provisions detailing notice for
10termination or change of status involving a written
11collaborative agreement, except when such notice is given for
12just cause.
13 (c-5) A certified registered nurse anesthetist, who
14provides anesthesia services outside of a hospital or
15ambulatory surgical treatment center shall enter into a written
16collaborative agreement with an anesthesiologist or the
17physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches or
18the podiatric physician performing the procedure. Outside of a
19hospital or ambulatory surgical treatment center, the
20certified registered nurse anesthetist may provide only those
21services that the collaborating podiatric physician is
22authorized to provide pursuant to the Podiatric Medical
23Practice Act of 1987 and rules adopted thereunder. A certified
24registered nurse anesthetist may select, order, and administer
25medication, including controlled substances, and apply
26appropriate medical devices for delivery of anesthesia

09800SB2640ham001- 786 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1services under the anesthesia plan agreed with by the
2anesthesiologist or the operating physician or operating
3podiatric physician.
4 (c-10) A certified registered nurse anesthetist who
5provides anesthesia services in a dental office shall enter
6into a written collaborative agreement with an
7anesthesiologist or the physician licensed to practice
8medicine in all its branches or the operating dentist
9performing the procedure. The agreement shall describe the
10working relationship of the certified registered nurse
11anesthetist and dentist and shall authorize the categories of
12care, treatment, or procedures to be performed by the certified
13registered nurse anesthetist. In a collaborating dentist's
14office, the certified registered nurse anesthetist may only
15provide those services that the operating dentist with the
16appropriate permit is authorized to provide pursuant to the
17Illinois Dental Practice Act and rules adopted thereunder. For
18anesthesia services, an anesthesiologist, physician, or
19operating dentist shall participate through discussion of and
20agreement with the anesthesia plan and shall remain physically
21present and be available on the premises during the delivery of
22anesthesia services for diagnosis, consultation, and treatment
23of emergency medical conditions. A certified registered nurse
24anesthetist may select, order, and administer medication,
25including controlled substances, and apply appropriate medical
26devices for delivery of anesthesia services under the

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1anesthesia plan agreed with by the operating dentist.
2 (d) A copy of the signed, written collaborative agreement
3must be available to the Department upon request from both the
4advanced practice nurse and the collaborating physician or
5podiatric physician.
6 (e) Nothing in this Act shall be construed to limit the
7delegation of tasks or duties by a physician to a licensed
8practical nurse, a registered professional nurse, or other
9persons in accordance with Section 54.2 of the Medical Practice
10Act of 1987. Nothing in this Act shall be construed to limit
11the method of delegation that may be authorized by any means,
12including, but not limited to, oral, written, electronic,
13standing orders, protocols, guidelines, or verbal orders.
14 (f) An advanced practice nurse shall inform each
15collaborating physician, dentist, or podiatric physician of
16all collaborative agreements he or she has signed and provide a
17copy of these to any collaborating physician, dentist, or
18podiatric physician upon request.
19 (g) For the purposes of this Act, "generally provides or
20may provide in his or her clinical medical practice" means
21categories of care or treatment, not specific tasks or duties,
22the physician podiatric physician provides individually or
23through delegation to other persons so that the physician
24podiatric physician has the experience and ability to provide
25collaboration and consultation. This definition shall not be
26construed to prohibit an advanced practice nurse from providing

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1primary health treatment or care within the scope of his or her
2training and experience, including, but not limited to, health
3screenings, patient histories, physical examinations, women's
4health examinations, or school physicals that may be provided
5as part of the routine practice of an advanced practice nurse
6or on a volunteer basis.
7 For the purposes of this Act, "generally provides or may
8provide in to his or her patients in the normal course of his
9or her clinical podiatric practice" means services, not
10specific tasks or duties, that the podiatric physician
11podiatrist routinely provides individually or through
12delegation to other persons so that the podiatric physician
13podiatrist has the experience and ability to provide
14collaboration and consultation.
15(Source: P.A. 97-358, eff. 8-12-11; 98-192, eff. 1-1-14;
1698-214, eff. 8-9-13; revised 9-24-13.)
17 Section 420. The Illinois Occupational Therapy Practice
18Act is amended by changing Sections 3, 3.1, 15, 19, and 21 as
19follows:
20 (225 ILCS 75/3) (from Ch. 111, par. 3703)
21 (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2024)
22 Sec. 3. Licensure requirement; exempt activities. After
23the effective date of this Act, no person shall practice
24occupational therapy or hold himself out as an occupational

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1therapist or an occupational therapy assistant, or as being
2able to practice occupational therapy or to render services
3designated as occupational therapy in this State, unless he is
4licensed in accordance with the provisions of this Act.
5 Nothing in this Act shall be construed as preventing or
6restricting the practice, services, or activities of:
7 (1) Any person licensed in this State by any other law
8 from engaging in the profession or occupation for which he
9 is licensed; or
10 (2) Any person employed as an occupational therapist or
11 occupational therapy assistant by the Government of the
12 United States, if such person provides occupational
13 therapy solely under the direction or control of the
14 organization by which he or she is employed; or
15 (3) Any person pursuing a course of study leading to a
16 degree or certificate in occupational therapy at an
17 accredited or approved educational program if such
18 activities and services constitute a part of a supervised
19 course of study, and if such person is designated by a
20 title which clearly indicates his or her status as a
21 student or trainee; or
22 (4) Any person fulfilling the supervised work
23 experience requirements of Sections 8 and 9 of this Act, if
24 such activities and services constitute a part of the
25 experience necessary to meet the requirement of those
26 Sections; or

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1 (5) Any person performing occupational therapy
2 services in the State, if such a person is not a resident
3 of this State and is not licensed under this Act, and if
4 such services are performed for no more than 60 days a
5 calendar year in association with an occupational
6 therapist licensed under this Act and if such person meets
7 the qualifications for license under this Act and:
8 (i) such person is licensed under the law of
9 another state which has licensure requirements at
10 least as restrictive as the requirements of this Act,
11 or
12 (ii) such person meets the requirements for
13 certification as an Occupational Therapist Registered
14 (O.T.R.) or a Certified Occupational Therapy Assistant
15 (C.O.T.A.) established by the National Board for
16 Certification of Occupational Therapy or another
17 nationally recognized credentialing body approved by
18 the Board; or
19 (6) The practice of occupational therapy by one who has
20 applied in writing to the Department for a license, in form
21 and substance satisfactory to the Department, and has
22 complied with all the provisions of either Section 8 or 9
23 except the passing of the examination to be eligible to
24 receive such license. In no event shall this exemption
25 extend to any person for longer than 6 months, except as
26 follows:

09800SB2640ham001- 791 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 (i) if the date on which a person can take the next
2 available examination authorized by the Department
3 extends beyond 6 months from the date the person
4 completes the occupational therapy program as required
5 under Section 8 or 9, the Department shall extend the
6 exemption until the results of that examination become
7 available to the Department; or
8 (ii) if the Department is unable to complete its
9 evaluation and processing of a person's application
10 for a license within 6 months after the date on which
11 the application is submitted to the Department in
12 proper form, the Department shall extend the exemption
13 until the Department has completed its evaluation and
14 processing of the application.
15 In the event such applicant fails the examination, the
16 applicant shall cease work immediately until such time as
17 the applicant is licensed to practice occupational therapy
18 in this State; or .
19 (7) The practice of occupational therapy by one who has
20 applied to the Department, in form and substance
21 satisfactory to the Department, and who is licensed to
22 practice occupational therapy under the laws of another
23 state, territory of the United States or country and who is
24 qualified to receive a license under the provisions of
25 either Section 8 or 9 of this Act. In no event shall this
26 exemption extend to any person for longer than 6 months;

09800SB2640ham001- 792 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 or .
2 (8) (Blank).
3(Source: P.A. 98-264, eff. 12-31-13; revised 11-14-13.)
4 (225 ILCS 75/3.1)
5 (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2024)
6 Sec. 3.1. Referrals.
7 (a) A licensed occupational therapist or licensed
8occupational therapy assistant may consult with, educate,
9evaluate, and monitor services for individuals, groups, and
10populations concerning occupational therapy needs. Except as
11indicated in subsections (b) and (c) of this Section,
12implementation of direct occupational therapy treatment to
13individuals for their specific health care conditions shall be
14based upon a referral from a licensed physician, dentist,
15podiatric physician, or advanced practice nurse who has a
16written collaborative agreement with a collaborating physician
17to provide or accept referrals from licensed occupational
18therapists, physician assistant who has been delegated
19authority to provide or accept referrals from or to licensed
20occupational therapists, or optometrist.
21 (b) A referral is not required for the purpose of providing
22consultation, habilitation, screening, education, wellness,
23prevention, environmental assessments, and work-related
24ergonomic services to individuals, groups, or populations.
25 (c) Referral from a physician or other health care provider

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1is not required for evaluation or intervention for children and
2youths if an occupational therapist or occupational therapy
3assistant provides services in a school-based or educational
4environment, including the child's home.
5 (d) An occupational therapist shall refer to a licensed
6physician, dentist, optometrist, advanced practice nurse,
7physician assistant, or podiatric physician any patient whose
8medical condition should, at the time of evaluation or
9treatment, be determined to be beyond the scope of practice of
10the occupational therapist.
11(Source: P.A. 98-214, eff. 8-9-13; 98-264, eff. 12-31-13;
12revised 9-9-13.)
13 (225 ILCS 75/15) (from Ch. 111, par. 3715)
14 (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2024)
15 Sec. 15. Any person who is issued a license as an
16occupational therapist registered under the terms of this Act
17may use the words "occupational therapist" or "licensed
18occupational therapist", or may use the letters "O.T.", "OT/L",
19or "OTR/L", in connection with his or her name or place of
20business to denote his or her licensure under this Act.
21 Any person who is issued a license as an a occupational
22therapy assistant under the terms of this Act may use the
23words, "occupational therapy assistant" or "licensed
24occupational therapy assistant", or he or she may use the
25letters "O.T.A.", "OTA/L", or "COTA/L" in connection with his

09800SB2640ham001- 794 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1or her name or place of business to denote his or her licensure
2under this Act.
3(Source: P.A. 98-264, eff. 12-31-13; revised 11-12-13.)
4 (225 ILCS 75/19) (from Ch. 111, par. 3719)
5 (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2024)
6 Sec. 19. Grounds for discipline.
7 (a) The Department may refuse to issue or renew, or may
8revoke, suspend, place on probation, reprimand or take other
9disciplinary or non-disciplinary action as the Department may
10deem proper, including imposing fines not to exceed $10,000 for
11each violation and the assessment of costs as provided under
12Section 19.3 of this Act, with regard to any license for any
13one or combination of the following:
14 (1) Material misstatement in furnishing information to
15 the Department;
16 (2) Violations of this Act, or of the rules promulgated
17 thereunder;
18 (3) Conviction by plea of guilty or nolo contendere,
19 finding of guilt, jury verdict, or entry of judgment or
20 sentencing of any crime, including, but not limited to,
21 convictions, preceding sentences of supervision,
22 conditional discharge, or first offender probation, under
23 the laws of any jurisdiction of the United States that is
24 (i) a felony or (ii) a misdemeanor, an essential element of
25 which is dishonesty, or that is directly related to the

09800SB2640ham001- 795 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 practice of the profession;
2 (4) Fraud or any misrepresentation in applying for or
3 procuring a license under this Act, or in connection with
4 applying for renewal of a license under this Act;
5 (5) Professional incompetence;
6 (6) Aiding or assisting another person, firm,
7 partnership or corporation in violating any provision of
8 this Act or rules;
9 (7) Failing, within 60 days, to provide information in
10 response to a written request made by the Department;
11 (8) Engaging in dishonorable, unethical or
12 unprofessional conduct of a character likely to deceive,
13 defraud or harm the public;
14 (9) Habitual or excessive use or abuse of drugs defined
15 in law as controlled substances, alcohol, or any other
16 substance that results in the inability to practice with
17 reasonable judgment, skill, or safety;
18 (10) Discipline by another state, unit of government,
19 government agency, the District of Columbia, a territory,
20 or foreign nation, if at least one of the grounds for the
21 discipline is the same or substantially equivalent to those
22 set forth herein;
23 (11) Directly or indirectly giving to or receiving from
24 any person, firm, corporation, partnership, or association
25 any fee, commission, rebate or other form of compensation
26 for professional services not actually or personally

09800SB2640ham001- 796 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 rendered. Nothing in this paragraph (11) affects any bona
2 fide independent contractor or employment arrangements
3 among health care professionals, health facilities, health
4 care providers, or other entities, except as otherwise
5 prohibited by law. Any employment arrangements may include
6 provisions for compensation, health insurance, pension, or
7 other employment benefits for the provision of services
8 within the scope of the licensee's practice under this Act.
9 Nothing in this paragraph (11) shall be construed to
10 require an employment arrangement to receive professional
11 fees for services rendered;
12 (12) A finding by the Department that the license
13 holder, after having his license disciplined, has violated
14 the terms of the discipline;
15 (13) Wilfully making or filing false records or reports
16 in the practice of occupational therapy, including but not
17 limited to false records filed with the State agencies or
18 departments;
19 (14) Physical illness, including but not limited to,
20 deterioration through the aging process, or loss of motor
21 skill which results in the inability to practice under this
22 Act with reasonable judgment, skill, or safety;
23 (15) Solicitation of professional services other than
24 by permitted advertising;
25 (16) Allowing one's license under this Act to be used
26 by an unlicensed person in violation of this Act;

09800SB2640ham001- 797 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 (17) Practicing under a false or, except as provided by
2 law, assumed name;
3 (18) Professional incompetence or gross negligence;
4 (19) Malpractice;
5 (20) Promotion of the sale of drugs, devices,
6 appliances, or goods provided for a patient in any manner
7 to exploit the client for financial gain of the licensee;
8 (21) Gross, willful, or continued overcharging for
9 professional services;
10 (22) Mental illness or disability that results in the
11 inability to practice under this Act with reasonable
12 judgment, skill, or safety;
13 (23) Violating the Health Care Worker Self-Referral
14 Act;
15 (24) Having treated patients other than by the practice
16 of occupational therapy as defined in this Act, or having
17 treated patients as a licensed occupational therapist
18 independent of a referral from a physician, advanced
19 practice nurse or physician assistant in accordance with
20 Section 3.1, dentist, podiatric physician, or optometrist,
21 or having failed to notify the physician, advanced practice
22 nurse, physician assistant, dentist, podiatric physician,
23 or optometrist who established a diagnosis that the patient
24 is receiving occupational therapy pursuant to that
25 diagnosis;
26 (25) Cheating on or attempting to subvert the licensing

09800SB2640ham001- 798 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 examination administered under this Act; and
2 (26) Charging for professional services not rendered,
3 including filing false statements for the collection of
4 fees for which services are not rendered.
5 All fines imposed under this Section shall be paid within
660 days after the effective date of the order imposing the fine
7or in accordance with the terms set forth in the order imposing
8the fine.
9 (b) The determination by a circuit court that a license
10holder is subject to involuntary admission or judicial
11admission as provided in the Mental Health and Developmental
12Disabilities Code, as now or hereafter amended, operates as an
13automatic suspension. Such suspension will end only upon a
14finding by a court that the patient is no longer subject to
15involuntary admission or judicial admission and an order by the
16court so finding and discharging the patient. In any case where
17a license is suspended under this provision, the licensee shall
18file a petition for restoration and shall include evidence
19acceptable to the Department that the licensee can resume
20practice in compliance with acceptable and prevailing
21standards of their profession.
22 (c) The Department may refuse to issue or may suspend
23without hearing, as provided for in the Code of Civil
24Procedure, the license of any person who fails to file a
25return, to pay the tax, penalty, or interest shown in a filed
26return, or to pay any final assessment of tax, penalty, or

09800SB2640ham001- 799 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1interest as required by any tax Act administered by the
2Illinois Department of Revenue, until such time as the
3requirements of any such tax Act are satisfied in accordance
4with subsection (a) of Section 2105-15 of the Department of
5Professional Regulation Law of the Civil Administrative Code of
6Illinois.
7 (d) In enforcing this Section, the Department, upon a
8showing of a possible violation, may compel any individual who
9is licensed under this Act or any individual who has applied
10for licensure to submit to a mental or physical examination or
11evaluation, or both, which may include a substance abuse or
12sexual offender evaluation, at the expense of the Department.
13The Department shall specifically designate the examining
14physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches
15or, if applicable, the multidisciplinary team involved in
16providing the mental or physical examination and evaluation.
17The multidisciplinary team shall be led by a physician licensed
18to practice medicine in all of its branches and may consist of
19one or more or a combination of physicians licensed to practice
20medicine in all of its branches, licensed chiropractic
21physicians, licensed clinical psychologists, licensed clinical
22social workers, licensed clinical professional counselors, and
23other professional and administrative staff. Any examining
24physician or member of the multidisciplinary team may require
25any person ordered to submit to an examination and evaluation
26pursuant to this Section to submit to any additional

09800SB2640ham001- 800 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1supplemental testing deemed necessary to complete any
2examination or evaluation process, including, but not limited
3to, blood testing, urinalysis, psychological testing, or
4neuropsychological testing.
5 The Department may order the examining physician or any
6member of the multidisciplinary team to provide to the
7Department any and all records, including business records,
8that relate to the examination and evaluation, including any
9supplemental testing performed. The Department may order the
10examining physician or any member of the multidisciplinary team
11to present testimony concerning this examination and
12evaluation of the licensee or applicant, including testimony
13concerning any supplemental testing or documents relating to
14the examination and evaluation. No information, report,
15record, or other documents in any way related to the
16examination and evaluation shall be excluded by reason of any
17common law or statutory privilege relating to communication
18between the licensee or applicant and the examining physician
19or any member of the multidisciplinary team. No authorization
20is necessary from the licensee or applicant ordered to undergo
21an evaluation and examination for the examining physician or
22any member of the multidisciplinary team to provide
23information, reports, records, or other documents or to provide
24any testimony regarding the examination and evaluation. The
25individual to be examined may have, at his or her own expense,
26another physician of his or her choice present during all

09800SB2640ham001- 801 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1aspects of the examination.
2 Failure of any individual to submit to mental or physical
3examination or evaluation, or both, when directed, shall result
4in an automatic suspension without hearing, until such time as
5the individual submits to the examination. If the Department
6finds a licensee unable to practice because of the reasons set
7forth in this Section, the Department shall require the
8licensee to submit to care, counseling, or treatment by
9physicians approved or designated by the Department as a
10condition for continued, reinstated, or renewed licensure.
11 When the Secretary immediately suspends a license under
12this Section, a hearing upon such person's license must be
13convened by the Department within 15 days after the suspension
14and completed without appreciable delay. The Department shall
15have the authority to review the licensee's record of treatment
16and counseling regarding the impairment to the extent permitted
17by applicable federal statutes and regulations safeguarding
18the confidentiality of medical records.
19 Individuals licensed under this Act that are affected under
20this Section, shall be afforded an opportunity to demonstrate
21to the Department that they can resume practice in compliance
22with acceptable and prevailing standards under the provisions
23of their license.
24 (e) The Department shall deny a license or renewal
25authorized by this Act to a person who has defaulted on an
26educational loan or scholarship provided or guaranteed by the

09800SB2640ham001- 802 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1Illinois Student Assistance Commission or any governmental
2agency of this State in accordance with paragraph (5) of
3subsection (a) of Section 2105-15 of the Department of
4Professional Regulation Law of the Civil Administrative Code of
5Illinois.
6 (f) In cases where the Department of Healthcare and Family
7Services has previously determined a licensee or a potential
8licensee is more than 30 days delinquent in the payment of
9child support and has subsequently certified the delinquency to
10the Department, the Department may refuse to issue or renew or
11may revoke or suspend that person's license or may take other
12disciplinary action against that person based solely upon the
13certification of delinquency made by the Department of
14Healthcare and Family Services in accordance with paragraph (5)
15of subsection (a) of Section 2105-15 of the Department of
16Professional Regulation Law of the Civil Administrative Code of
17Illinois.
18(Source: P.A. 98-214, eff. 8-9-13; 98-264, eff. 12-31-13;
19revised 9-24-13.)
20 (225 ILCS 75/21) (from Ch. 111, par. 3737)
21 (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2024)
22 Sec. 21. Home rule. The regulation and licensing as an a
23occupational therapist are exclusive powers and functions of
24the State. A home rule unit may not regulate or license an
25occupational therapist or the practice of occupational

09800SB2640ham001- 803 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1therapy. This Section is a denial and limitation of home rule
2powers and functions under subsection (h) of Section 6 of
3Article VII of the Illinois Constitution.
4(Source: P.A. 98-264, eff. 12-31-13; revised 11-12-13.)
5 Section 425. The Orthotics, Prosthetics, and Pedorthics
6Practice Act is amended by changing Section 90 as follows:
7 (225 ILCS 84/90)
8 (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2020)
9 Sec. 90. Grounds for discipline.
10 (a) The Department may refuse to issue or renew a license,
11or may revoke or suspend a license, or may suspend, place on
12probation, or reprimand a licensee or take other disciplinary
13or non-disciplinary action as the Department may deem proper,
14including, but not limited to, the imposition of fines not to
15exceed $10,000 for each violation for one or any combination of
16the following:
17 (1) Making a material misstatement in furnishing
18 information to the Department or the Board.
19 (2) Violations of or negligent or intentional
20 disregard of this Act or its rules.
21 (3) Conviction of, or entry of a plea of guilty or nolo
22 contendere to any crime that is a felony under the laws of
23 the United States or any state or territory thereof or that
24 is a misdemeanor of which an essential element is

09800SB2640ham001- 804 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 dishonesty, or any crime that is directly related to the
2 practice of the profession.
3 (4) Making a misrepresentation for the purpose of
4 obtaining a license.
5 (5) A pattern of practice or other behavior that
6 demonstrates incapacity or incompetence to practice under
7 this Act.
8 (6) Gross negligence under this Act.
9 (7) Aiding or assisting another person in violating a
10 provision of this Act or its rules.
11 (8) Failing to provide information within 60 days in
12 response to a written request made by the Department.
13 (9) Engaging in dishonorable, unethical, or
14 unprofessional conduct or conduct of a character likely to
15 deceive, defraud, or harm the public.
16 (10) Inability to practice with reasonable judgment,
17 skill, or safety as a result of habitual or excessive use
18 or addiction to alcohol, narcotics, stimulants, or any
19 other chemical agent or drug.
20 (11) Discipline by another state or territory of the
21 United States, the federal government, or foreign nation,
22 if at least one of the grounds for the discipline is the
23 same or substantially equivalent to one set forth in this
24 Section.
25 (12) Directly or indirectly giving to or receiving from
26 a person, firm, corporation, partnership, or association a

09800SB2640ham001- 805 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 fee, commission, rebate, or other form of compensation for
2 professional services not actually or personally rendered.
3 Nothing in this paragraph (12) affects any bona fide
4 independent contractor or employment arrangements among
5 health care professionals, health facilities, health care
6 providers, or other entities, except as otherwise
7 prohibited by law. Any employment arrangements may include
8 provisions for compensation, health insurance, pension, or
9 other employment benefits for the provision of services
10 within the scope of the licensee's practice under this Act.
11 Nothing in this paragraph (12) shall be construed to
12 require an employment arrangement to receive professional
13 fees for services rendered.
14 (13) A finding by the Board that the licensee or
15 registrant, after having his or her license placed on
16 probationary status, has violated the terms of probation.
17 (14) Abandonment of a patient or client.
18 (15) Willfully making or filing false records or
19 reports in his or her practice including, but not limited
20 to, false records filed with State agencies or departments.
21 (16) Willfully failing to report an instance of
22 suspected child abuse or neglect as required by the Abused
23 and Neglected Child Reporting Act.
24 (17) Inability to practice the profession with
25 reasonable judgment, skill, or safety as a result of a
26 physical illness, including, but not limited to,

09800SB2640ham001- 806 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 deterioration through the aging process or loss of motor
2 skill, or a mental illness or disability.
3 (18) Solicitation of professional services using false
4 or misleading advertising.
5 (b) In enforcing this Section, the Department or Board upon
6a showing of a possible violation, may compel a licensee or
7applicant to submit to a mental or physical examination, or
8both, as required by and at the expense of the Department. The
9Department or Board may order the examining physician to
10present testimony concerning the mental or physical
11examination of the licensee or applicant. No information shall
12be excluded by reason of any common law or statutory privilege
13relating to communications between the licensee or applicant
14and the examining physician. The examining physicians shall be
15specifically designated by the Board or Department. The
16individual to be examined may have, at his or her own expense,
17another physician of his or her choice present during all
18aspects of this examination. Failure of an individual to submit
19to a mental or physical examination, when directed, shall be
20grounds for the immediate suspension of his or her license
21until the individual submits to the examination if the
22Department finds that the refusal to submit to the examination
23was without reasonable cause as defined by rule.
24 In instances in which the Secretary immediately suspends a
25person's license for his or her failure to submit to a mental
26or physical examination, when directed, a hearing on that

09800SB2640ham001- 807 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1person's license must be convened by the Department within 15
2days after the suspension and completed without appreciable
3delay.
4 In instances in which the Secretary otherwise suspends a
5person's license pursuant to the results of a compelled mental
6or physical examination, a hearing on that person's license
7must be convened by the Department within 15 days after the
8suspension and completed without appreciable delay. The
9Department and Board shall have the authority to review the
10subject individual's record of treatment and counseling
11regarding the impairment to the extent permitted by applicable
12federal statutes and regulations safeguarding the
13confidentiality of medical records.
14 An individual licensed under this Act and affected under
15this Section shall be afforded an opportunity to demonstrate to
16the Department or Board that he or she can resume practice in
17compliance with acceptable and prevailing standards under the
18provisions of his or her license.
19 (c) The Department shall deny a license or renewal
20authorized by this Act to a person who has defaulted on an
21educational loan or scholarship provided or guaranteed by the
22Illinois Student Assistance Commission or any governmental
23agency of this State in accordance with subsection (a)(5) of
24Section 2105-15 15 of the Department of Professional Regulation
25Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois (20 ILCS
262105/2105-15).

09800SB2640ham001- 808 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 (d) In cases where the Department of Healthcare and Family
2Services (formerly Department of Public Aid) has previously
3determined that a licensee or a potential licensee is more than
430 days delinquent in the payment of child support and has
5subsequently certified the delinquency to the Department, the
6Department may refuse to issue or renew or may revoke or
7suspend that person's license or may take other disciplinary
8action against that person based solely upon the certification
9of delinquency made by the Department of Healthcare and Family
10Services in accordance with subsection (a)(5) of Section
112105-15 15 of the Department of Professional Regulation Law of
12the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois (20 ILCS
132105/2105-15).
14 (e) The Department may refuse to issue or renew a license,
15or may revoke or suspend a license, for failure to file a
16return, to pay the tax, penalty, or interest shown in a filed
17return, or to pay any final assessment of tax, penalty, or
18interest as required by any tax Act administered by the
19Department of Revenue, until such time as the requirements of
20the tax Act are satisfied in accordance with subsection (g) of
21Section 2105-15 15 of the Department of Professional Regulation
22Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois (20 ILCS
232105/2105-15).
24(Source: P.A. 96-682, eff. 8-25-09; 96-1482, eff. 11-29-10;
25revised 11-14-13.)

09800SB2640ham001- 809 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 Section 430. The Pharmacy Practice Act is amended by
2changing Section 3 as follows:
3 (225 ILCS 85/3)
4 (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2018)
5 Sec. 3. Definitions. For the purpose of this Act, except
6where otherwise limited therein:
7 (a) "Pharmacy" or "drugstore" means and includes every
8store, shop, pharmacy department, or other place where
9pharmacist care is provided by a pharmacist (1) where drugs,
10medicines, or poisons are dispensed, sold or offered for sale
11at retail, or displayed for sale at retail; or (2) where
12prescriptions of physicians, dentists, advanced practice
13nurses, physician assistants, veterinarians, podiatric
14physicians, or optometrists, within the limits of their
15licenses, are compounded, filled, or dispensed; or (3) which
16has upon it or displayed within it, or affixed to or used in
17connection with it, a sign bearing the word or words
18"Pharmacist", "Druggist", "Pharmacy", "Pharmaceutical Care",
19"Apothecary", "Drugstore", "Medicine Store", "Prescriptions",
20"Drugs", "Dispensary", "Medicines", or any word or words of
21similar or like import, either in the English language or any
22other language; or (4) where the characteristic prescription
23sign (Rx) or similar design is exhibited; or (5) any store, or
24shop, or other place with respect to which any of the above
25words, objects, signs or designs are used in any advertisement.

09800SB2640ham001- 810 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 (b) "Drugs" means and includes (l) articles recognized in
2the official United States Pharmacopoeia/National Formulary
3(USP/NF), or any supplement thereto and being intended for and
4having for their main use the diagnosis, cure, mitigation,
5treatment or prevention of disease in man or other animals, as
6approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration, but
7does not include devices or their components, parts, or
8accessories; and (2) all other articles intended for and having
9for their main use the diagnosis, cure, mitigation, treatment
10or prevention of disease in man or other animals, as approved
11by the United States Food and Drug Administration, but does not
12include devices or their components, parts, or accessories; and
13(3) articles (other than food) having for their main use and
14intended to affect the structure or any function of the body of
15man or other animals; and (4) articles having for their main
16use and intended for use as a component or any articles
17specified in clause (l), (2) or (3); but does not include
18devices or their components, parts or accessories.
19 (c) "Medicines" means and includes all drugs intended for
20human or veterinary use approved by the United States Food and
21Drug Administration.
22 (d) "Practice of pharmacy" means (1) the interpretation and
23the provision of assistance in the monitoring, evaluation, and
24implementation of prescription drug orders; (2) the dispensing
25of prescription drug orders; (3) participation in drug and
26device selection; (4) drug administration limited to the

09800SB2640ham001- 811 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1administration of oral, topical, injectable, and inhalation as
2follows: in the context of patient education on the proper use
3or delivery of medications; vaccination of patients 14 years of
4age and older pursuant to a valid prescription or standing
5order, by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all its
6branches, upon completion of appropriate training, including
7how to address contraindications and adverse reactions set
8forth by rule, with notification to the patient's physician and
9appropriate record retention, or pursuant to hospital pharmacy
10and therapeutics committee policies and procedures; (5)
11vaccination of patients ages 10 through 13 limited to the
12Influenza (inactivated influenza vaccine and live attenuated
13influenza intranasal vaccine) and Tdap (defined as tetanus,
14diphtheria, acellular pertussis) vaccines, pursuant to a valid
15prescription or standing order, by a physician licensed to
16practice medicine in all its branches, upon completion of
17appropriate training, including how to address
18contraindications and adverse reactions set forth by rule, with
19notification to the patient's physician and appropriate record
20retention, or pursuant to hospital pharmacy and therapeutics
21committee policies and procedures; (6) drug regimen review; (7)
22drug or drug-related research; (8) the provision of patient
23counseling; (9) the practice of telepharmacy; (10) the
24provision of those acts or services necessary to provide
25pharmacist care; (11) medication therapy management; and (12)
26the responsibility for compounding and labeling of drugs and

09800SB2640ham001- 812 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1devices (except labeling by a manufacturer, repackager, or
2distributor of non-prescription drugs and commercially
3packaged legend drugs and devices), proper and safe storage of
4drugs and devices, and maintenance of required records. A
5pharmacist who performs any of the acts defined as the practice
6of pharmacy in this State must be actively licensed as a
7pharmacist under this Act.
8 (e) "Prescription" means and includes any written, oral,
9facsimile, or electronically transmitted order for drugs or
10medical devices, issued by a physician licensed to practice
11medicine in all its branches, dentist, veterinarian, or
12podiatric physician, or optometrist, within the limits of their
13licenses, by a physician assistant in accordance with
14subsection (f) of Section 4, or by an advanced practice nurse
15in accordance with subsection (g) of Section 4, containing the
16following: (l) name of the patient; (2) date when prescription
17was issued; (3) name and strength of drug or description of the
18medical device prescribed; and (4) quantity; (5) directions for
19use; (6) prescriber's name, address, and signature; and (7) DEA
20number where required, for controlled substances. The
21prescription may, but is not required to, list the illness,
22disease, or condition for which the drug or device is being
23prescribed. DEA numbers shall not be required on inpatient drug
24orders.
25 (f) "Person" means and includes a natural person,
26copartnership, association, corporation, government entity, or

09800SB2640ham001- 813 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1any other legal entity.
2 (g) "Department" means the Department of Financial and
3Professional Regulation.
4 (h) "Board of Pharmacy" or "Board" means the State Board of
5Pharmacy of the Department of Financial and Professional
6Regulation.
7 (i) "Secretary" means the Secretary of Financial and
8Professional Regulation.
9 (j) "Drug product selection" means the interchange for a
10prescribed pharmaceutical product in accordance with Section
1125 of this Act and Section 3.14 of the Illinois Food, Drug and
12Cosmetic Act.
13 (k) "Inpatient drug order" means an order issued by an
14authorized prescriber for a resident or patient of a facility
15licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act, the ID/DD Community
16Care Act, the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of
172013, or the Hospital Licensing Act, or "An Act in relation to
18the founding and operation of the University of Illinois
19Hospital and the conduct of University of Illinois health care
20programs", approved July 3, 1931, as amended, or a facility
21which is operated by the Department of Human Services (as
22successor to the Department of Mental Health and Developmental
23Disabilities) or the Department of Corrections.
24 (k-5) "Pharmacist" means an individual health care
25professional and provider currently licensed by this State to
26engage in the practice of pharmacy.

09800SB2640ham001- 814 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 (l) "Pharmacist in charge" means the licensed pharmacist
2whose name appears on a pharmacy license and who is responsible
3for all aspects of the operation related to the practice of
4pharmacy.
5 (m) "Dispense" or "dispensing" means the interpretation,
6evaluation, and implementation of a prescription drug order,
7including the preparation and delivery of a drug or device to a
8patient or patient's agent in a suitable container
9appropriately labeled for subsequent administration to or use
10by a patient in accordance with applicable State and federal
11laws and regulations. "Dispense" or "dispensing" does not mean
12the physical delivery to a patient or a patient's
13representative in a home or institution by a designee of a
14pharmacist or by common carrier. "Dispense" or "dispensing"
15also does not mean the physical delivery of a drug or medical
16device to a patient or patient's representative by a
17pharmacist's designee within a pharmacy or drugstore while the
18pharmacist is on duty and the pharmacy is open.
19 (n) "Nonresident pharmacy" means a pharmacy that is located
20in a state, commonwealth, or territory of the United States,
21other than Illinois, that delivers, dispenses, or distributes,
22through the United States Postal Service, commercially
23acceptable parcel delivery service, or other common carrier, to
24Illinois residents, any substance which requires a
25prescription.
26 (o) "Compounding" means the preparation and mixing of

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1components, excluding flavorings, (1) as the result of a
2prescriber's prescription drug order or initiative based on the
3prescriber-patient-pharmacist relationship in the course of
4professional practice or (2) for the purpose of, or incident
5to, research, teaching, or chemical analysis and not for sale
6or dispensing. "Compounding" includes the preparation of drugs
7or devices in anticipation of receiving prescription drug
8orders based on routine, regularly observed dispensing
9patterns. Commercially available products may be compounded
10for dispensing to individual patients only if all of the
11following conditions are met: (i) the commercial product is not
12reasonably available from normal distribution channels in a
13timely manner to meet the patient's needs and (ii) the
14prescribing practitioner has requested that the drug be
15compounded.
16 (p) (Blank).
17 (q) (Blank).
18 (r) "Patient counseling" means the communication between a
19pharmacist or a student pharmacist under the supervision of a
20pharmacist and a patient or the patient's representative about
21the patient's medication or device for the purpose of
22optimizing proper use of prescription medications or devices.
23"Patient counseling" may include without limitation (1)
24obtaining a medication history; (2) acquiring a patient's
25allergies and health conditions; (3) facilitation of the
26patient's understanding of the intended use of the medication;

09800SB2640ham001- 816 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1(4) proper directions for use; (5) significant potential
2adverse events; (6) potential food-drug interactions; and (7)
3the need to be compliant with the medication therapy. A
4pharmacy technician may only participate in the following
5aspects of patient counseling under the supervision of a
6pharmacist: (1) obtaining medication history; (2) providing
7the offer for counseling by a pharmacist or student pharmacist;
8and (3) acquiring a patient's allergies and health conditions.
9 (s) "Patient profiles" or "patient drug therapy record"
10means the obtaining, recording, and maintenance of patient
11prescription information, including prescriptions for
12controlled substances, and personal information.
13 (t) (Blank).
14 (u) "Medical device" means an instrument, apparatus,
15implement, machine, contrivance, implant, in vitro reagent, or
16other similar or related article, including any component part
17or accessory, required under federal law to bear the label
18"Caution: Federal law requires dispensing by or on the order of
19a physician". A seller of goods and services who, only for the
20purpose of retail sales, compounds, sells, rents, or leases
21medical devices shall not, by reasons thereof, be required to
22be a licensed pharmacy.
23 (v) "Unique identifier" means an electronic signature,
24handwritten signature or initials, thumb print, or other
25acceptable biometric or electronic identification process as
26approved by the Department.

09800SB2640ham001- 817 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 (w) "Current usual and customary retail price" means the
2price that a pharmacy charges to a non-third-party payor.
3 (x) "Automated pharmacy system" means a mechanical system
4located within the confines of the pharmacy or remote location
5that performs operations or activities, other than compounding
6or administration, relative to storage, packaging, dispensing,
7or distribution of medication, and which collects, controls,
8and maintains all transaction information.
9 (y) "Drug regimen review" means and includes the evaluation
10of prescription drug orders and patient records for (1) known
11allergies; (2) drug or potential therapy contraindications;
12(3) reasonable dose, duration of use, and route of
13administration, taking into consideration factors such as age,
14gender, and contraindications; (4) reasonable directions for
15use; (5) potential or actual adverse drug reactions; (6)
16drug-drug interactions; (7) drug-food interactions; (8)
17drug-disease contraindications; (9) therapeutic duplication;
18(10) patient laboratory values when authorized and available;
19(11) proper utilization (including over or under utilization)
20and optimum therapeutic outcomes; and (12) abuse and misuse.
21 (z) "Electronic transmission prescription" means any
22prescription order for which a facsimile or electronic image of
23the order is electronically transmitted from a licensed
24prescriber to a pharmacy. "Electronic transmission
25prescription" includes both data and image prescriptions.
26 (aa) "Medication therapy management services" means a

09800SB2640ham001- 818 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1distinct service or group of services offered by licensed
2pharmacists, physicians licensed to practice medicine in all
3its branches, advanced practice nurses authorized in a written
4agreement with a physician licensed to practice medicine in all
5its branches, or physician assistants authorized in guidelines
6by a supervising physician that optimize therapeutic outcomes
7for individual patients through improved medication use. In a
8retail or other non-hospital pharmacy, medication therapy
9management services shall consist of the evaluation of
10prescription drug orders and patient medication records to
11resolve conflicts with the following:
12 (1) known allergies;
13 (2) drug or potential therapy contraindications;
14 (3) reasonable dose, duration of use, and route of
15 administration, taking into consideration factors such as
16 age, gender, and contraindications;
17 (4) reasonable directions for use;
18 (5) potential or actual adverse drug reactions;
19 (6) drug-drug interactions;
20 (7) drug-food interactions;
21 (8) drug-disease contraindications;
22 (9) identification of therapeutic duplication;
23 (10) patient laboratory values when authorized and
24 available;
25 (11) proper utilization (including over or under
26 utilization) and optimum therapeutic outcomes; and

09800SB2640ham001- 819 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 (12) drug abuse and misuse.
2 "Medication therapy management services" includes the
3following:
4 (1) documenting the services delivered and
5 communicating the information provided to patients'
6 prescribers within an appropriate time frame, not to exceed
7 48 hours;
8 (2) providing patient counseling designed to enhance a
9 patient's understanding and the appropriate use of his or
10 her medications; and
11 (3) providing information, support services, and
12 resources designed to enhance a patient's adherence with
13 his or her prescribed therapeutic regimens.
14 "Medication therapy management services" may also include
15patient care functions authorized by a physician licensed to
16practice medicine in all its branches for his or her identified
17patient or groups of patients under specified conditions or
18limitations in a standing order from the physician.
19 "Medication therapy management services" in a licensed
20hospital may also include the following:
21 (1) reviewing assessments of the patient's health
22 status; and
23 (2) following protocols of a hospital pharmacy and
24 therapeutics committee with respect to the fulfillment of
25 medication orders.
26 (bb) "Pharmacist care" means the provision by a pharmacist

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1of medication therapy management services, with or without the
2dispensing of drugs or devices, intended to achieve outcomes
3that improve patient health, quality of life, and comfort and
4enhance patient safety.
5 (cc) "Protected health information" means individually
6identifiable health information that, except as otherwise
7provided, is:
8 (1) transmitted by electronic media;
9 (2) maintained in any medium set forth in the
10 definition of "electronic media" in the federal Health
11 Insurance Portability and Accountability Act; or
12 (3) transmitted or maintained in any other form or
13 medium.
14 "Protected health information" does not include
15individually identifiable health information found in:
16 (1) education records covered by the federal Family
17 Educational Right and Privacy Act; or
18 (2) employment records held by a licensee in its role
19 as an employer.
20 (dd) "Standing order" means a specific order for a patient
21or group of patients issued by a physician licensed to practice
22medicine in all its branches in Illinois.
23 (ee) "Address of record" means the address recorded by the
24Department in the applicant's or licensee's application file or
25license file, as maintained by the Department's licensure
26maintenance unit.

09800SB2640ham001- 821 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 (ff) "Home pharmacy" means the location of a pharmacy's
2primary operations.
3(Source: P.A. 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-813,
4eff. 7-13-12; 97-1043, eff. 8-21-12; 98-104, eff. 7-22-13;
598-214, eff. 8-9-13; revised 9-24-13.)
6 Section 435. The Boxing and Full-contact Martial Arts Act
7is amended by changing Section 8 as follows:
8 (225 ILCS 105/8) (from Ch. 111, par. 5008)
9 (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022)
10 Sec. 8. Permits.
11 (a) A promoter who desires to obtain a permit to conduct a
12professional or amateur contest, or a combination of both,
13shall apply to the Department at least 20 days prior to the
14event, in writing, on forms furnished by the Department. The
15application shall be accompanied by the required fee and shall
16contain, but not be limited to, the following information to be
17submitted at times specified by rule:
18 (1) the legal names and addresses of the promoter;
19 (2) the name of the matchmaker;
20 (3) the time and exact location of the professional or
21 amateur contest, or a combination of both. It is the
22 responsibility of the promoter to ensure that the building
23 to be used for the event complies with all laws,
24 ordinances, and regulations in the city, town, village, or

09800SB2640ham001- 822 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 county where the contest is to be held;
2 (4) proof of adequate security measures, as determined
3 by Department rule, to ensure the protection of the safety
4 of contestants and the general public while attending
5 professional or amateur contests, or a combination of both;
6 (5) proof of adequate medical supervision, as
7 determined by Department rule, to ensure the protection of
8 the health and safety of professionals' or amateurs' while
9 participating in the contest;
10 (6) the names of the professionals or amateurs
11 competing subject to Department approval;
12 (7) proof of insurance for not less than $50,000 as
13 further defined by rule for each professional or amateur
14 participating in a professional or amateur contest, or a
15 combination of both; insurance required under this
16 paragraph (7) (6) shall cover (i) hospital, medication,
17 physician, and other such expenses as would accrue in the
18 treatment of an injury as a result of the professional or
19 amateur contest; (ii) payment to the estate of the
20 professional or amateur in the event of his or her death as
21 a result of his or her participation in the professional or
22 amateur contest; and (iii) accidental death and
23 dismemberment; the terms of the insurance coverage must not
24 require the contestant to pay a deductible. The promoter
25 may not carry an insurance policy with a deductible in an
26 amount greater than $500 for the medical, surgical, or

09800SB2640ham001- 823 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 hospital care for injuries a contestant sustains while
2 engaged in a contest, and if a licensed or registered
3 contestant pays for the medical, surgical, or hospital
4 care, the insurance proceeds must be paid to the contestant
5 or his or her beneficiaries as reimbursement for such
6 payment;
7 (8) the amount of the purses to be paid to the
8 professionals for the event; the Department shall adopt
9 rules for payment of the purses;
10 (9) organizational or internationally accepted rules,
11 per discipline, for professional or amateur full-contact
12 martial arts contests where the Department does not provide
13 the rules;
14 (10) proof of contract indicating the requisite
15 registration and sanctioning by a Department approved
16 sanctioning body for any full-contact martial arts contest
17 with scheduled amateur bouts; and
18 (11) any other information that the Department may
19 require to determine whether a permit shall be issued.
20 (b) The Department may issue a permit to any promoter who
21meets the requirements of this Act and the rules. The permit
22shall only be issued for a specific date and location of a
23professional or amateur contest, or a combination of both, and
24shall not be transferable. The Department may allow a promoter
25to amend a permit application to hold a professional or amateur
26contest, or a combination of both, in a different location

09800SB2640ham001- 824 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1other than the application specifies and may allow the promoter
2to substitute professionals or amateurs, respectively.
3 (c) The Department shall be responsible for assigning the
4judges, timekeepers, referees, and physicians, for a
5professional contest. Compensation shall be determined by the
6Department, and it shall be the responsibility of the promoter
7to pay the individuals utilized.
8(Source: P.A. 96-663, eff. 8-25-09; 97-119, eff. 7-14-11;
9revised 11-14-13.)
10 Section 440. The Sex Offender Evaluation and Treatment
11Provider Act is amended by changing Sections 20 and 75 as
12follows:
13 (225 ILCS 109/20)
14 Sec. 20. Sex Offender Evaluation and Treatment Provider
15Licensing and Disciplinary Board.
16 (a) There is established within the Department the Sex
17Offender Evaluation and Treatment Licensing and Disciplinary
18Board to be appointed by the Secretary. The Board shall be
19composed of 8 persons who shall serve in an advisory capacity
20to the Secretary. The Board shall elect a chairperson and a
21vice chairperson.
22 (b) In appointing members of the Board, the Secretary shall
23give due consideration to recommendations by members of the
24profession of sex offender evaluation and treatment.

09800SB2640ham001- 825 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 (c) Three members of the Board shall be sex offender
2evaluation or treatment providers, or both, who have been in
3active practice for at least 5 years immediately preceding
4their appointment. The appointees shall be licensed under this
5Act.
6 (d) One member shall represent the Department of
7Corrections.
8 (e) One member shall represent the Department of Human
9Services.
10 (f) One member shall represent the Administrative Office of
11the Illinois Courts representing the interests of probation
12services.
13 (g) One member shall represent the Sex Offender Management
14Board.
15 (h) One member shall be representative of the general
16public who has no direct affiliation or work experience with
17the practice of sex offender evaluation and treatment and who
18clearly represents represent consumer interests.
19 (i) Board members shall be appointed for a term of 4 years,
20except that any person chosen to fill a vacancy shall be
21appointed only for the unexpired term of the Board member whom
22he or she shall succeed. Upon the expiration of his or her term
23of office, a Board member shall continue to serve until a
24successor is appointed and qualified. No member shall be
25reappointed to the Board for a term that would cause continuous
26service on the Board to be longer than 8 years.

09800SB2640ham001- 826 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 (j) The membership of the Board shall reasonably reflect
2representation from the various geographic areas of the State.
3 (k) A member of the Board shall be immune from suit in any
4action based upon any disciplinary proceedings or other
5activities performed in good faith as a member of the Board.
6 (l) The Secretary may remove a member of the Board for any
7cause that, in the opinion of the Secretary, reasonably
8justifies termination.
9 (m) The Secretary may consider the recommendations of the
10Board on questions of standards of professional conduct,
11discipline, and qualification of candidates or licensees under
12this Act.
13 (n) The members of the Board shall be reimbursed for all
14legitimate, necessary, and authorized expenses.
15 (o) A majority of the Board members currently appointed
16shall constitute a quorum. A vacancy in the membership of the
17Board shall not impair the right of a quorum to exercise all
18the rights and perform all the duties of the Board.
19(Source: P.A. 97-1098, eff. 7-1-13; revised 11-14-13.)
20 (225 ILCS 109/75)
21 Sec. 75. Refusal, revocation, or suspension.
22 (a) The Department may refuse to issue or renew, or may
23revoke, suspend, place on probation, reprimand, or take other
24disciplinary or nondisciplinary action, as the Department
25considers appropriate, including the imposition of fines not to

09800SB2640ham001- 827 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1exceed $10,000 for each violation, with regard to any license
2or licensee for any one or more of the following:
3 (1) violations of this Act or of the rules adopted
4 under this Act;
5 (2) discipline by the Department under other state law
6 and rules which the licensee is subject to;
7 (3) conviction by plea of guilty or nolo contendere,
8 finding of guilt, jury verdict, or entry of judgment or by
9 sentencing for any crime, including, but not limited to,
10 convictions, preceding sentences of supervision,
11 conditional discharge, or first offender probation, under
12 the laws of any jurisdiction of the United States: (i) that
13 is a felony; or (ii) that is a misdemeanor, an essential
14 element of which is dishonesty, or that is directly related
15 to the practice of the profession;
16 (4) professional incompetence;
17 (5) advertising in a false, deceptive, or misleading
18 manner;
19 (6) aiding, abetting, assisting, procuring, advising,
20 employing, or contracting with any unlicensed person to
21 provide sex offender evaluation or treatment services
22 contrary to any rules or provisions of this Act;
23 (7) engaging in immoral conduct in the commission of
24 any act, such as sexual abuse, sexual misconduct, or sexual
25 exploitation, related to the licensee's practice;
26 (8) engaging in dishonorable, unethical, or

09800SB2640ham001- 828 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 unprofessional conduct of a character likely to deceive,
2 defraud, or harm the public;
3 (9) practicing or offering to practice beyond the scope
4 permitted by law or accepting and performing professional
5 responsibilities which the licensee knows or has reason to
6 know that he or she is not competent to perform;
7 (10) knowingly delegating professional
8 responsibilities to a person unqualified by training,
9 experience, or licensure to perform;
10 (11) failing to provide information in response to a
11 written request made by the Department within 60 days;
12 (12) having a habitual or excessive use of or addiction
13 to alcohol, narcotics, stimulants, or any other chemical
14 agent or drug which results in the inability to practice
15 with reasonable judgment, skill, or safety;
16 (13) having a pattern of practice or other behavior
17 that demonstrates incapacity or incompetence to practice
18 under this Act;
19 (14) discipline by another state, District of
20 Columbia, territory, or foreign nation, if at least one of
21 the grounds for the discipline is the same or substantially
22 equivalent to those set forth in this Section;
23 (15) a finding by the Department that the licensee,
24 after having his or her license placed on probationary
25 status, has violated the terms of probation;
26 (16) willfully making or filing false records or

09800SB2640ham001- 829 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 reports in his or her practice, including, but not limited
2 to, false records filed with State agencies or departments;
3 (17) making a material misstatement in furnishing
4 information to the Department or otherwise making
5 misleading, deceptive, untrue, or fraudulent
6 representations in violation of this Act or otherwise in
7 the practice of the profession;
8 (18) fraud or misrepresentation in applying for or
9 procuring a license under this Act or in connection with
10 applying for renewal of a license under this Act;
11 (19) inability to practice the profession with
12 reasonable judgment, skill, or safety as a result of
13 physical illness, including, but not limited to,
14 deterioration through the aging process, loss of motor
15 skill, or a mental illness or disability;
16 (20) charging for professional services not rendered,
17 including filing false statements for the collection of
18 fees for which services are not rendered; or
19 (21) practicing under a false or, except as provided by
20 law, an assumed name.
21 All fines shall be paid within 60 days of the effective
22date of the order imposing the fine.
23 (b) The Department may refuse to issue or may suspend the
24license of any person who fails to file a tax return, to pay
25the tax, penalty, or interest shown in a filed tax return, or
26to pay any final assessment of tax, penalty, or interest, as

09800SB2640ham001- 830 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1required by any tax Act administered by the Illinois Department
2of Revenue, until such time as the requirements of the tax Act
3are satisfied in accordance with subsection (g) of Section
42105-15 of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.
5 (c) The Department shall deny a license or renewal
6authorized by this Act to a person who has defaulted on an
7educational loan or scholarship provided or guaranteed by the
8Illinois Student Assistance Commission or any governmental
9agency of this State in accordance with item (5) of subsection
10(a) (g) of Section 2105-15 of the Civil Administrative Code of
11Illinois.
12 (d) In cases where the Department of Healthcare and Family
13Services has previously determined that a licensee or a
14potential licensee is more than 30 days delinquent in the
15payment of child support and has subsequently certified the
16delinquency to the Department, the Department may refuse to
17issue or renew or may revoke or suspend that person's license
18or may take other disciplinary action against that person based
19solely upon the certification of delinquency made by the
20Department of Healthcare and Family Services in accordance with
21item (5) of subsection (a) (g) of Section 2105-15 of the Civil
22Administrative Code of Illinois.
23 (e) The determination by a circuit court that a licensee is
24subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission, as
25provided in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities
26Code, operates as an automatic suspension. The suspension will

09800SB2640ham001- 831 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1end only upon a finding by a court that the patient is no
2longer subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission
3and the issuance of a court order so finding and discharging
4the patient.
5 (f) In enforcing this Act, the Department or Board, upon a
6showing of a possible violation, may compel an individual
7licensed to practice under this Act, or who has applied for
8licensure under this Act, to submit to a mental or physical
9examination, or both, as required by and at the expense of the
10Department. The Department or Board may order the examining
11physician to present testimony concerning the mental or
12physical examination of the licensee or applicant. No
13information shall be excluded by reason of any common law or
14statutory privilege relating to communications between the
15licensee or applicant and the examining physician. The
16examining physician shall be specifically designated by the
17Board or Department. The individual to be examined may have, at
18his or her own expense, another physician of his or her choice
19present during all aspects of this examination. The examination
20shall be performed by a physician licensed to practice medicine
21in all its branches. Failure of an individual to submit to a
22mental or physical examination, when directed, shall result in
23an automatic suspension without hearing.
24 A person holding a license under this Act or who has
25applied for a license under this Act who, because of a physical
26or mental illness or disability, including, but not limited to,

09800SB2640ham001- 832 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1deterioration through the aging process or loss of motor skill,
2is unable to practice the profession with reasonable judgment,
3skill, or safety, may be required by the Department to submit
4to care, counseling, or treatment by physicians approved or
5designated by the Department as a condition, term, or
6restriction for continued, reinstated, or renewed licensure to
7practice. Submission to care, counseling, or treatment as
8required by the Department shall not be considered discipline
9of a license. If the licensee refuses to enter into a care,
10counseling, or treatment agreement or fails to abide by the
11terms of the agreement, the Department may file a complaint to
12revoke, suspend, or otherwise discipline the license of the
13individual. The Secretary may order the license suspended
14immediately, pending a hearing by the Department. Fines shall
15not be assessed in disciplinary actions involving physical or
16mental illness or impairment.
17 In instances in which the Secretary immediately suspends a
18person's license under this Section, a hearing on that person's
19license must be convened by the Department within 15 days after
20the suspension and completed without appreciable delay. The
21Department and Board shall have the authority to review the
22subject individual's record of treatment and counseling
23regarding the impairment to the extent permitted by applicable
24federal statutes and regulations safeguarding the
25confidentiality of medical records.
26 An individual licensed under this Act and subject to action

09800SB2640ham001- 833 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1under this Section shall be afforded an opportunity to
2demonstrate to the Department or Board that he or she can
3resume practice in compliance with acceptable and prevailing
4standards under the provisions of his or her license.
5(Source: P.A. 97-1098, eff. 7-1-13; revised 11-14-13.)
6 Section 445. The Perfusionist Practice Act is amended by
7changing Section 105 as follows:
8 (225 ILCS 125/105)
9 (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2020)
10 Sec. 105. Disciplinary actions.
11 (a) The Department may refuse to issue, renew, or restore a
12license, or may revoke or suspend a license, or may place on
13probation, reprimand, or take other disciplinary or
14non-disciplinary action with regard to a person licensed under
15this Act, including but not limited to the imposition of fines
16not to exceed $10,000 for each violation, for one or any
17combination of the following causes:
18 (1) Making a material misstatement in furnishing
19 information to the Department.
20 (2) Violation of this Act or any rule promulgated under
21 this Act.
22 (3) Conviction of, or entry of a plea of guilty or nolo
23 contendere to, any crime that is a felony under the laws of
24 the United States or any state or territory thereof, or any

09800SB2640ham001- 834 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 crime that is a misdemeanor of which an essential element
2 is dishonesty, or any crime that is directly related to the
3 practice as a perfusionist.
4 (4) Making a misrepresentation for the purpose of
5 obtaining, renewing, or restoring a license.
6 (5) Aiding or assisting another person in violating a
7 provision of this Act or its rules.
8 (6) Failing to provide information within 60 days in
9 response to a written request made by the Department.
10 (7) Engaging in dishonorable, unethical, or
11 unprofessional conduct of a character likely to deceive,
12 defraud, or harm the public, as defined by rule of the
13 Department.
14 (8) Discipline by another state, the District of
15 Columbia, or territory, or a foreign nation, if at least
16 one of the grounds for discipline is the same or
17 substantially equivalent to those set forth in this
18 Section.
19 (9) Directly or indirectly giving to or receiving from
20 a person, firm, corporation, partnership, or association a
21 fee, commission, rebate, or other form of compensation for
22 professional services not actually or personally rendered.
23 Nothing in this paragraph (9) affects any bona fide
24 independent contractor or employment arrangements among
25 health care professionals, health facilities, health care
26 providers, or other entities, except as otherwise

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1 prohibited by law. Any employment arrangements may include
2 provisions for compensation, health insurance, pension, or
3 other employment benefits for the provision of services
4 within the scope of the licensee's practice under this Act.
5 Nothing in this paragraph (9) shall be construed to require
6 an employment arrangement to receive professional fees for
7 services rendered.
8 (10) A finding by the Board that the licensee, after
9 having his or her license placed on probationary status,
10 has violated the terms of probation.
11 (11) Wilfully making or filing false records or reports
12 in his or her practice, including but not limited to false
13 records or reports filed with State agencies or
14 departments.
15 (12) Wilfully making or signing a false statement,
16 certificate, or affidavit to induce payment.
17 (13) Wilfully failing to report an instance of
18 suspected child abuse or neglect as required under the
19 Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act.
20 (14) Being named as a perpetrator in an indicated
21 report by the Department of Children and Family Services
22 under the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act and upon
23 proof by clear and convincing evidence that the licensee
24 has caused a child to be an abused child or neglected child
25 as defined in the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act.
26 (15) Employment of fraud, deception, or any unlawful

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1 means in applying for or securing a license as a
2 perfusionist.
3 (16) Allowing another person to use his or her license
4 to practice.
5 (17) Failure to report to the Department (A) any
6 adverse final action taken against the licensee by another
7 licensing jurisdiction, government agency, law enforcement
8 agency, or any court or (B) liability for conduct that
9 would constitute grounds for action as set forth in this
10 Section.
11 (18) Inability to practice the profession with
12 reasonable judgment, skill or safety as a result of a
13 physical illness, including but not limited to
14 deterioration through the aging process or loss of motor
15 skill, or a mental illness or disability.
16 (19) Inability to practice the profession for which he
17 or she is licensed with reasonable judgment, skill, or
18 safety as a result of habitual or excessive use or
19 addiction to alcohol, narcotics, stimulants, or any other
20 chemical agent or drug.
21 (20) Gross malpractice.
22 (21) Immoral conduct in the commission of an act
23 related to the licensee's practice, including but not
24 limited to sexual abuse, sexual misconduct, or sexual
25 exploitation.
26 (22) Violation of the Health Care Worker Self-Referral

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1 Act.
2 (23) Solicitation of business or professional
3 services, other than permitted advertising.
4 (24) Conviction of or cash compromise of a charge or
5 violation of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act.
6 (25) Gross, willful, or continued overcharging for
7 professional services, including filing false statements
8 for collection of fees for which services are not rendered.
9 (26) Practicing under a false name or, except as
10 allowed by law, an assumed name.
11 (27) Violating any provision of this Act or the rules
12 promulgated under this Act, including, but not limited to,
13 advertising.
14 (b) A licensee or applicant who, because of a physical or
15mental illness or disability, including, but not limited to,
16deterioration through the aging process or loss of motor skill,
17is unable to practice the profession with reasonable judgment,
18skill, or safety, may be required by the Department to submit
19to care, counseling or treatment by physicians approved or
20designated by the Department, as a condition, term, or
21restriction for continued, reinstated, or renewed licensure to
22practice. Submission to care, counseling or treatment as
23required by the Department shall not be considered discipline
24of the licensee. If the licensee refuses to enter into a care,
25counseling or treatment agreement or fails to abide by the
26terms of the agreement the Department may file a complaint to

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1suspend or revoke the license or otherwise discipline the
2licensee. The Secretary may order the license suspended
3immediately, pending a hearing by the Department. Fines shall
4not be assessed in the disciplinary actions involving physical
5or mental illness or impairment.
6 (b-5) The Department may refuse to issue or may suspend,
7without a hearing as provided for in the Civil Administrative
8Code of Illinois, the license of a person who fails to file a
9return, to pay the tax, penalty, or interest shown in a filed
10return, or to pay any final assessment of tax, penalty, or
11interest as required by any tax Act administered by the
12Department of Revenue, until such time as the requirements of
13the tax Act are satisfied in accordance with subsection (g) of
14Section 2105-15 15 of the Department of Professional Regulation
15Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois (20 ILCS
162105/2105-15).
17 (c) The determination by a circuit court that a licensee is
18subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission as
19provided in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities
20Code, as amended, operates as an automatic suspension. The
21suspension will end only upon a finding by a court that the
22licensee is no longer subject to the involuntary admission or
23judicial admission and issues an order so finding and
24discharging the licensee; and upon the recommendation of the
25Board to the Secretary that the licensee be allowed to resume
26his or her practice.

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1 (d) In enforcing this Section, the Department or Board,
2upon a showing of a possible violation, may order a licensee or
3applicant to submit to a mental or physical examination, or
4both, at the expense of the Department. The Department or Board
5may order the examining physician to present testimony
6concerning his or her examination of the licensee or applicant.
7No information shall be excluded by reason of any common law or
8statutory privilege relating to communications between the
9licensee or applicant and the examining physician. The
10examining physicians shall be specifically designated by the
11Board or Department. The licensee or applicant may have, at his
12or her own expense, another physician of his or her choice
13present during all aspects of the examination. Failure of a
14licensee or applicant to submit to any such examination when
15directed, without reasonable cause as defined by rule, shall be
16grounds for either the immediate suspension of his or her
17license or immediate denial of his or her application.
18 If the Secretary immediately suspends the license of a
19licensee for his or her failure to submit to a mental or
20physical examination when directed, a hearing must be convened
21by the Department within 15 days after the suspension and
22completed without appreciable delay.
23 If the Secretary otherwise suspends a license pursuant to
24the results of the licensee's mental or physical examination, a
25hearing must be convened by the Department within 15 days after
26the suspension and completed without appreciable delay. The

09800SB2640ham001- 840 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1Department and Board shall have the authority to review the
2licensee's record of treatment and counseling regarding the
3relevant impairment or impairments to the extent permitted by
4applicable federal statutes and regulations safeguarding the
5confidentiality of medical records.
6 Any licensee suspended or otherwise affected under this
7subsection (d) shall be afforded an opportunity to demonstrate
8to the Department or Board that he or she can resume practice
9in compliance with the acceptable and prevailing standards
10under the provisions of his or her license.
11(Source: P.A. 96-682, eff. 8-25-09; 96-1482, eff. 11-29-10;
12revised 11-14-13.)
13 Section 450. The Registered Surgical Assistant and
14Registered Surgical Technologist Title Protection Act is
15amended by changing Section 10 as follows:
16 (225 ILCS 130/10)
17 (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2024)
18 Sec. 10. Definitions. As used in this Act:
19 "Address of record" means the designated address recorded
20by the Department in the applicant's or registrant's
21application file or registration file as maintained by the
22Department's licensure maintenance unit. It is the duty of the
23applicant or registrant to inform the Department of any change
24of address and those changes must be made either through the

09800SB2640ham001- 841 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1Department's website or by contacting the Department.
2 "Department" means the Department of Financial and
3Professional Regulation.
4 "Direct supervision" means supervision by a licensed
5physician, licensed podiatric physician, or licensed dentist
6who is physically present and who personally directs delegated
7acts and remains available to personally respond to an
8emergency until the patient is released from the operating
9room. A registered professional nurse may also provide direct
10supervision within the scope of his or her license. A
11registered surgical assistant or registered surgical
12technologist shall perform duties as assigned.
13 "Physician" means a person licensed to practice medicine in
14all of its branches under the Medical Practice Act of 1987.
15 "Registered surgical assistant" means a person who (i) is
16not licensed to practice medicine in all of its branches, (ii)
17is certified by the National Surgical Assistant Association as
18a Certified Surgical Assistant, the National Board of Surgical
19Technology and Surgical Assisting as a Certified Surgical First
20Assistant, or the American Board of Surgical Assistants as a
21Surgical Assistant-Certified, (iii) performs duties under
22direct supervision, (iv) provides services only in a licensed
23hospital, ambulatory treatment center, or office of a physician
24licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, and (v) is
25registered under this Act.
26 "Registered surgical technologist" means a person who (i)

09800SB2640ham001- 842 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1is not a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its
2branches, (ii) is certified by the National Board for Surgical
3Technology and Surgical Assisting, (iii) performs duties under
4direct supervision, (iv) provides services only in a licensed
5hospital, ambulatory treatment center, or office of a physician
6licensed to practice medicine in all its branches, and (v) is
7registered under this Act.
8 "Secretary" means the Secretary of Financial and
9Professional Regulation.
10(Source: P.A. 98-214, eff. 8-9-13; 98-364, eff. 12-31-13;
11revised 9-24-13.)
12 Section 455. The Illinois Architecture Practice Act of 1989
13is amended by changing Section 22 as follows:
14 (225 ILCS 305/22) (from Ch. 111, par. 1322)
15 (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2020)
16 Sec. 22. Refusal, suspension and revocation of licenses;
17Causes.
18 (a) The Department may, singularly or in combination,
19refuse to issue, renew or restore, or may suspend, revoke,
20place on probation, or take other disciplinary or
21non-disciplinary action as deemed appropriate, including, but
22not limited to, the imposition of fines not to exceed $10,000
23for each violation, as the Department may deem proper, with
24regard to a license for any one or combination of the following

09800SB2640ham001- 843 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1causes:
2 (1) material misstatement in furnishing information to
3 the Department;
4 (2) negligence, incompetence or misconduct in the
5 practice of architecture;
6 (3) failure to comply with any of the provisions of
7 this Act or any of the rules;
8 (4) making any misrepresentation for the purpose of
9 obtaining licensure;
10 (5) purposefully making false statements or signing
11 false statements, certificates or affidavits to induce
12 payment;
13 (6) conviction of or plea of guilty or nolo contendere
14 to any crime that is a felony under the laws of the United
15 States or any state or territory thereof or that is a
16 misdemeanor, an essential element of which is dishonesty,
17 or any crime that is directly related to the practice of
18 the profession of architecture;
19 (7) aiding or assisting another person in violating any
20 provision of this Act or its rules;
21 (8) signing, affixing the architect's seal or
22 permitting the architect's seal to be affixed to any
23 technical submission not prepared by the architect or under
24 that architect's responsible control;
25 (9) engaging in dishonorable, unethical or
26 unprofessional conduct of a character likely to deceive,

09800SB2640ham001- 844 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 defraud or harm the public;
2 (10) habitual or excessive use or addiction to alcohol,
3 narcotics, stimulants, or any other chemical agent or drug
4 that results in the inability to practice with reasonable
5 judgment, skill, or safety;
6 (11) making a statement of compliance pursuant to the
7 Environmental Barriers Act that technical submissions
8 prepared by the architect or prepared under the architect's
9 responsible control for construction or alteration of an
10 occupancy required to be in compliance with the
11 Environmental Barriers Act are in compliance with the
12 Environmental Barriers Act when such technical submissions
13 are not in compliance;
14 (12) a finding by the Board that an applicant or
15 registrant has failed to pay a fine imposed by the
16 Department or a registrant, whose license has been placed
17 on probationary status, has violated the terms of
18 probation;
19 (13) discipline by another state, territory, foreign
20 country, the District of Columbia, the United States
21 government, or any other governmental agency, if at least
22 one of the grounds for discipline is the same or
23 substantially equivalent to those set forth herein;
24 (14) failure to provide information in response to a
25 written request made by the Department within 30 days after
26 the receipt of such written request;

09800SB2640ham001- 845 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 (15) physical illness, including, but not limited to,
2 deterioration through the aging process or loss of motor
3 skill, mental illness, or disability which results in the
4 inability to practice the profession with reasonable
5 judgment, skill, and safety, including without limitation
6 deterioration through the aging process, mental illness,
7 or disability.
8 (a-5) In enforcing this Section, the Department or Board,
9upon a showing of a possible violation, may order a licensee or
10applicant to submit to a mental or physical examination, or
11both, at the expense of the Department. The Department or Board
12may order the examining physician to present testimony
13concerning his or her examination of the licensee or applicant.
14No information shall be excluded by reason of any common law or
15statutory privilege relating to communications between the
16licensee or applicant and the examining physician. The
17examining physicians shall be specifically designated by the
18Board or Department. The licensee or applicant may have, at his
19or her own expense, another physician of his or her choice
20present during all aspects of the examination. Failure of a
21licensee or applicant to submit to any such examination when
22directed, without reasonable cause as defined by rule, shall be
23grounds for either the immediate suspension of his or her
24license or immediate denial of his or her application.
25 If the Secretary immediately suspends the license of a
26licensee for his or her failure to submit to a mental or

09800SB2640ham001- 846 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1physical examination when directed, a hearing must be convened
2by the Department within 15 days after the suspension and
3completed without appreciable delay.
4 If the Secretary otherwise suspends a license pursuant to
5the results of the licensee's mental or physical examination, a
6hearing must be convened by the Department within 15 days after
7the suspension and completed without appreciable delay. The
8Department and Board shall have the authority to review the
9licensee's record of treatment and counseling regarding the
10relevant impairment or impairments to the extent permitted by
11applicable federal statutes and regulations safeguarding the
12confidentiality of medical records.
13 Any licensee suspended under this subsection (a-5) shall be
14afforded an opportunity to demonstrate to the Department or
15Board that he or she can resume practice in compliance with the
16acceptable and prevailing standards under the provisions of his
17or her license.
18 (b) The determination by a circuit court that a licensee is
19subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission, as
20provided in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities
21Code, operates as an automatic suspension. Such suspension will
22end only upon a finding by a court that the patient is no
23longer subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission,
24the issuance of an order so finding and discharging the
25patient, and the recommendation of the Board to the Secretary
26that the licensee be allowed to resume practice.

09800SB2640ham001- 847 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 (c) The Department shall deny a license or renewal
2authorized by this Act to a person who has defaulted on an
3educational loan or scholarship provided or guaranteed by the
4Illinois Student Assistance Commission or any governmental
5agency of this State in accordance with subdivision (a)(5) of
6Section 2105-15 15 of the Department of Professional Regulation
7Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.
8 (d) In cases where the Department of Healthcare and Family
9Services (formerly the Department of Public Aid) has previously
10determined that a licensee or a potential licensee is more than
1130 days delinquent in the payment of child support and has
12subsequently certified the delinquency to the Department, the
13Department shall refuse to issue or renew or shall revoke or
14suspend that person's license or shall take other disciplinary
15action against that person based solely upon the certification
16of delinquency made by the Department of Healthcare and Family
17Services in accordance with subdivision (a)(5) of Section
182105-15 15 of the Department of Professional Regulation Law of
19the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.
20 (e) The Department shall deny a license or renewal
21authorized by this Act to a person who has failed to file a
22return, to pay the tax, penalty, or interest shown in a filed
23return, or to pay any final assessment of tax, penalty, or
24interest as required by any tax Act administered by the
25Department of Revenue, until such time as the requirements of
26the tax Act are satisfied in accordance with subsection (g) of

09800SB2640ham001- 848 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1Section 2105-15 15 of the Department of Professional Regulation
2Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.
3 (f) Persons who assist the Department as consultants or
4expert witnesses in the investigation or prosecution of alleged
5violations of the Act, licensure matters, restoration
6proceedings, or criminal prosecutions, shall not be liable for
7damages in any civil action or proceeding as a result of such
8assistance, except upon proof of actual malice. The attorney
9general shall defend such persons in any such action or
10proceeding.
11(Source: P.A. 96-610, eff. 8-24-09; revised 11-14-13.)
12 Section 460. The Professional Engineering Practice Act of
131989 is amended by changing Sections 24 and 46 as follows:
14 (225 ILCS 325/24) (from Ch. 111, par. 5224)
15 (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2020)
16 Sec. 24. Rules of professional conduct; disciplinary or
17administrative action.
18 (a) The Department shall adopt rules setting standards of
19professional conduct and establish appropriate penalties
20penalty for the breach of such rules.
21 (a-1) The Department may, singularly or in combination,
22refuse to issue, renew, or restore a license or may revoke,
23suspend, place on probation, reprimand, or take other
24disciplinary or non-disciplinary action with regard to a person

09800SB2640ham001- 849 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1licensed under this Act, including but not limited to, the
2imposition of a fine not to exceed $10,000 per violation upon
3any person, corporation, partnership, or professional design
4firm licensed or registered under this Act, for any one or
5combination of the following causes:
6 (1) Material misstatement in furnishing information to
7 the Department.
8 (2) Violations of this Act or any of its rules.
9 (3) Conviction of or entry of a plea of guilty or nolo
10 contendere to any crime that is a felony under the laws of
11 the United States or any state or territory thereof, or
12 that is a misdemeanor, an essential element of which is
13 dishonesty, or any crime that is directly related to the
14 practice of engineering.
15 (4) Making any misrepresentation for the purpose of
16 obtaining, renewing, or restoring a license or violating
17 any provision of this Act or the rules promulgated under
18 this Act pertaining to advertising.
19 (5) Willfully making or signing a false statement,
20 certificate, or affidavit to induce payment.
21 (6) Negligence, incompetence or misconduct in the
22 practice of professional engineering as a licensed
23 professional engineer or in working as an engineer intern.
24 (7) Aiding or assisting another person in violating any
25 provision of this Act or its rules.
26 (8) Failing to provide information in response to a

09800SB2640ham001- 850 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 written request made by the Department within 30 days after
2 receipt of such written request.
3 (9) Engaging in dishonorable, unethical or
4 unprofessional conduct of a character likely to deceive,
5 defraud or harm the public.
6 (10) Inability to practice the profession with
7 reasonable judgment, skill, or safety as a result of a
8 physical illness, including, but not limited to,
9 deterioration through the aging process or loss of motor
10 skill, or mental illness or disability.
11 (11) Discipline by the United States Government,
12 another state, District of Columbia, territory, foreign
13 nation or government agency, if at least one of the grounds
14 for the discipline is the same or substantially equivalent
15 to those set forth in this Act.
16 (12) Directly or indirectly giving to or receiving from
17 any person, firm, corporation, partnership or association
18 any fee, commission, rebate or other form of compensation
19 for any professional services not actually or personally
20 rendered.
21 (13) A finding by the Department that an applicant or
22 registrant has failed to pay a fine imposed by the
23 Department, a registrant whose license has been placed on
24 probationary status has violated the terms of probation, or
25 a registrant has practiced on an expired, inactive,
26 suspended, or revoked license.

09800SB2640ham001- 851 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 (14) Signing, affixing the professional engineer's
2 seal or permitting the professional engineer's seal to be
3 affixed to any technical submissions not prepared as
4 required by Section 14 or completely reviewed by the
5 professional engineer or under the professional engineer's
6 direct supervision.
7 (15) Inability to practice the profession with
8 reasonable judgment, skill or safety as a result of
9 habitual or excessive use or addiction to alcohol,
10 narcotics, stimulants, or any other chemical agent or drug.
11 (16) The making of a statement pursuant to the
12 Environmental Barriers Act that a plan for construction or
13 alteration of a public facility or for construction of a
14 multi-story housing unit is in compliance with the
15 Environmental Barriers Act when such plan is not in
16 compliance.
17 (17) (Blank).
18 (a-2) The Department shall deny a license or renewal
19authorized by this Act to a person who has failed to file a
20return, to pay the tax, penalty, or interest shown in a filed
21return, or to pay any final assessment of tax, penalty, or
22interest as required by any tax Act administered by the
23Department of Revenue, until such time as the requirements of
24the tax Act are satisfied in accordance with subsection (g) of
25Section 2105-15 15 of the Department of Professional Regulation
26Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois (20 ILCS

09800SB2640ham001- 852 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
12105/2105-15).
2 (a-3) The Department shall deny a license or renewal
3authorized by this Act to a person who has defaulted on an
4educational loan or scholarship provided or guaranteed by the
5Illinois Student Assistance Commission or any governmental
6agency of this State in accordance with subdivision (a)(5) of
7Section 2105-15 15 of the Department of Professional Regulation
8Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois (20 ILCS
92105/2105-15).
10 (a-4) In cases where the Department of Healthcare and
11Family Services (formerly the Department of Public Aid) has
12previously determined that a licensee or a potential licensee
13is more than 30 days delinquent in the payment of child support
14and has subsequently certified the delinquency to the
15Department, the Department shall refuse to issue or renew or
16shall revoke or suspend that person's license or shall take
17other disciplinary action against that person based solely upon
18the certification of delinquency made by the Department of
19Healthcare and Family Services in accordance with subdivision
20(a)(5) of Section 2105-15 15 of the Department of Professional
21Regulation Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois (20
22ILCS 2105/2105-15).
23 (a-5) In enforcing this Section, the Department or Board,
24upon a showing of a possible violation, may order a licensee or
25applicant to submit to a mental or physical examination, or
26both, at the expense of the Department. The Department or Board

09800SB2640ham001- 853 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1may order the examining physician to present testimony
2concerning his or her examination of the licensee or applicant.
3No information shall be excluded by reason of any common law or
4statutory privilege relating to communications between the
5licensee or applicant and the examining physician. The
6examining physicians shall be specifically designated by the
7Board or Department. The licensee or applicant may have, at his
8or her own expense, another physician of his or her choice
9present during all aspects of the examination. Failure of a
10licensee or applicant to submit to any such examination when
11directed, without reasonable cause as defined by rule, shall be
12grounds for either the immediate suspension of his or her
13license or immediate denial of his or her application.
14 If the Secretary immediately suspends the license of a
15licensee for his or her failure to submit to a mental or
16physical examination when directed, a hearing must be convened
17by the Department within 15 days after the suspension and
18completed without appreciable delay.
19 If the Secretary otherwise suspends a license pursuant to
20the results of the licensee's mental or physical examination, a
21hearing must be convened by the Department within 15 days after
22the suspension and completed without appreciable delay. The
23Department and Board shall have the authority to review the
24licensee's record of treatment and counseling regarding the
25relevant impairment or impairments to the extent permitted by
26applicable federal statutes and regulations safeguarding the

09800SB2640ham001- 854 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1confidentiality of medical records.
2 Any licensee suspended under this subsection (a-5) shall be
3afforded an opportunity to demonstrate to the Department or
4Board that he or she can resume practice in compliance with the
5acceptable and prevailing standards under the provisions of his
6or her license.
7 (b) The determination by a circuit court that a registrant
8is subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission as
9provided in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities
10Code, as now or hereafter amended, operates as an automatic
11suspension. Such suspension will end only upon a finding by a
12court that the patient is no longer subject to involuntary
13admission or judicial admission, the issuance of an order so
14finding and discharging the patient, and the recommendation of
15the Board to the Director that the registrant be allowed to
16resume practice.
17(Source: P.A. 96-626, eff. 8-24-09; revised 11-13-13.)
18 (225 ILCS 325/46) (from Ch. 111, par. 5246)
19 (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2020)
20 Sec. 46. Home rule. The regulation and licensing of
21professional engineers is an exclusive power and function of
22the State. Pursuant to subsection (h) of Section 6 of Article
23VII 7 of the Illinois Constitution, a home rule unit may not
24regulate or license the occupation of professional engineer.
25This section is a denial and limitation of home rule powers and

09800SB2640ham001- 855 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1functions.
2(Source: P.A. 86-667; revised 11-12-13.)
3 Section 465. The Illinois Professional Land Surveyor Act of
41989 is amended by changing Sections 27 and 47 as follows:
5 (225 ILCS 330/27) (from Ch. 111, par. 3277)
6 (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2020)
7 Sec. 27. Grounds for disciplinary action.
8 (a) The Department may refuse to issue or renew a license,
9or may place on probation or administrative supervision,
10suspend, or revoke any license, or may reprimand or take any
11disciplinary or non-disciplinary action as the Department may
12deem proper, including the imposition of fines not to exceed
13$10,000 per violation, upon any person, corporation,
14partnership, or professional land surveying firm licensed or
15registered under this Act for any of the following reasons:
16 (1) material misstatement in furnishing information to
17 the Department;
18 (2) violation, including, but not limited to, neglect
19 or intentional disregard, of this Act, or its rules;
20 (3) conviction of, or entry of a plea of guilty or nolo
21 contendere to, any crime that is a felony under the laws of
22 the United States or any state or territory thereof or that
23 is a misdemeanor of which an essential element is
24 dishonesty, or any crime that is directly related to the

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1 practice of the profession;
2 (4) making any misrepresentation for the purpose of
3 obtaining a license, or in applying for restoration or
4 renewal, or the practice of any fraud or deceit in taking
5 any examination to qualify for licensure under this Act;
6 (5) purposefully making false statements or signing
7 false statements, certificates, or affidavits to induce
8 payment;
9 (6) proof of carelessness, incompetence, negligence,
10 or misconduct in practicing land surveying;
11 (7) aiding or assisting another person in violating any
12 provision of this Act or its rules;
13 (8) failing to provide information in response to a
14 written request made by the Department within 30 days after
15 receipt of such written request;
16 (9) engaging in dishonorable, unethical, or
17 unprofessional conduct of a character likely to deceive,
18 defraud, or harm the public;
19 (10) inability to practice with reasonable judgment,
20 skill, or safety as a result of habitual or excessive use
21 of, or addiction to, alcohol, narcotics, stimulants or any
22 other chemical agent or drug;
23 (11) discipline by the United States government,
24 another state, District of Columbia, territory, foreign
25 nation or government agency if at least one of the grounds
26 for the discipline is the same or substantially equivalent

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1 to those set forth in this Act;
2 (12) directly or indirectly giving to or receiving from
3 any person, firm, corporation, partnership, or association
4 any fee, commission, rebate, or other form of compensation
5 for any professional services not actually or personally
6 rendered;
7 (12.5) issuing a map or plat of survey where the fee
8 for professional services is contingent on a real estate
9 transaction closing;
10 (13) a finding by the Department that an applicant or
11 licensee has failed to pay a fine imposed by the Department
12 or a licensee whose license has been placed on probationary
13 status has violated the terms of probation;
14 (14) practicing on an expired, inactive, suspended, or
15 revoked license;
16 (15) signing, affixing the Professional Land
17 Surveyor's seal or permitting the Professional Land
18 Surveyor's seal to be affixed to any map or plat of survey
19 not prepared by the Professional Land Surveyor or under the
20 Professional Land Surveyor's direct supervision and
21 control;
22 (16) inability to practice the profession with
23 reasonable judgment, skill, or safety as a result of
24 physical illness, including, but not limited to,
25 deterioration through the aging process or loss of motor
26 skill or a mental illness or disability;

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1 (17) (blank); or
2 (18) failure to adequately supervise or control land
3 surveying operations being performed by subordinates.
4 (a-5) In enforcing this Section, the Department or Board,
5upon a showing of a possible violation, may compel a person
6licensed to practice under this Act, or who has applied for
7licensure or certification pursuant to this Act, to submit to a
8mental or physical examination, or both, as required by and at
9the expense of the Department. The Department or Board may
10order the examining physician to present testimony concerning
11the mental or physical examination of the licensee or
12applicant. No information shall be excluded by reason of any
13common law or statutory privilege relating to communications
14between the licensee or applicant and the examining physician.
15The examining physicians shall be specifically designated by
16the Board or Department. The individual to be examined may
17have, at his or her own expense, another physician of his or
18her choice present during all aspects of the examination.
19Failure of an individual to submit to a mental or physical
20examination when directed shall be grounds for the immediate
21suspension of his or her license until the individual submits
22to the examination if the Department finds that the refusal to
23submit to the examination was without reasonable cause as
24defined by rule.
25 If the Secretary immediately suspends the license of a
26licensee for his or her failure to submit to a mental or

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1physical examination when directed, a hearing must be convened
2by the Department within 15 days after the suspension and
3completed without appreciable delay.
4 If the Secretary otherwise suspends a person's license
5pursuant to the results of a compelled mental or physical
6examination, a hearing on that person's license must be
7convened by the Department within 15 days after the suspension
8and completed without appreciable delay. The Department and
9Board shall have the authority to review the subject
10individual's record of treatment and counseling regarding
11impairment to the extent permitted by applicable federal
12statutes and regulations safeguarding the confidentiality of
13medical records.
14 Any licensee suspended under this subsection (a-5) shall be
15afforded an opportunity to demonstrate to the Department or
16Board that he or she can resume practice in compliance with the
17acceptable and prevailing standards under the provisions of his
18or her license.
19 (b) The determination by a circuit court that a licensee is
20subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission as
21provided in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities
22Code, as now or hereafter amended, operates as an automatic
23license suspension. Such suspension will end only upon a
24finding by a court that the patient is no longer subject to
25involuntary admission or judicial admission and the issuance of
26an order so finding and discharging the patient and upon the

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1recommendation of the Board to the Director that the licensee
2be allowed to resume his or her practice.
3 (c) The Department shall deny a license or renewal
4authorized by this Act to a person who has defaulted on an
5educational loan or scholarship provided or guaranteed by the
6Illinois Student Assistance Commission or any governmental
7agency of this State in accordance with subdivision (a)(5) of
8Section 2105-15 15 of the Department of Professional Regulation
9Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois (20 ILCS
102105/2105-15).
11 (d) In cases where the Department of Healthcare and Family
12Services (formerly the Department of Public Aid) has previously
13determined that a licensee or a potential licensee is more than
1430 days delinquent in the payment of child support and has
15subsequently certified the delinquency to the Department, the
16Department shall refuse to issue or renew or shall revoke or
17suspend that person's license or shall take other disciplinary
18action against that person based solely upon the certification
19of delinquency made by the Department of Healthcare and Family
20Services in accordance with subdivision (a)(5) of Section
212105-15 15 of the Department of Professional Regulation Law of
22the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois (20 ILCS
232105/2105-15).
24 (e) The Department shall refuse to issue or renew or shall
25revoke or suspend a person's license or shall take other
26disciplinary action against that person for his or her failure

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1to file a return, to pay the tax, penalty, or interest shown in
2a filed return, or to pay any final assessment of tax, penalty,
3or interest as required by any tax Act administered by the
4Department of Revenue, until such time as the requirements of
5the tax Act are satisfied in accordance with subsection (g) of
6Section 2105-15 15 of the Department of Professional Regulation
7Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois (20 ILCS
82105/2105-15).
9(Source: P.A. 96-626, eff. 8-24-09; revised 11-14-13.)
10 (225 ILCS 330/47) (from Ch. 111, par. 3297)
11 (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2020)
12 Sec. 47. Home rule. Pursuant to subsection (h) of Section 6
13of Article VII 7 of the Illinois Constitution, a home rule unit
14may not regulate the profession of land surveying in a manner
15more restrictive than the regulation by the State of the
16profession of land surveying as provided in this Act. This
17Section is a limitation on the concurrent exercise by home rule
18units of powers and functions exercised by the State.
19(Source: P.A. 86-987; revised 11-14-13.)
20 Section 470. The Structural Engineering Practice Act of
211989 is amended by changing Sections 20 and 37 as follows:
22 (225 ILCS 340/20) (from Ch. 111, par. 6620)
23 (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2020)

09800SB2640ham001- 862 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 Sec. 20. Refusal; revocation; suspension.
2 (a) The Department may refuse to issue or renew, or may
3revoke a license, or may suspend, place on probation, fine, or
4take any disciplinary or non-disciplinary action as the
5Department may deem proper, including a fine not to exceed
6$10,000 for each violation, with regard to any licensee for any
7one or combination of the following reasons:
8 (1) Material misstatement in furnishing information to
9 the Department;
10 (2) Negligence, incompetence or misconduct in the
11 practice of structural engineering;
12 (3) Making any misrepresentation for the purpose of
13 obtaining licensure;
14 (4) The affixing of a licensed structural engineer's
15 seal to any plans, specifications or drawings which have
16 not been prepared by or under the immediate personal
17 supervision of that licensed structural engineer or
18 reviewed as provided in this Act;
19 (5) Conviction of, or entry of a plea of guilty or nolo
20 contendere to, any crime that is a felony under the laws of
21 the United States or of any state or territory thereof, or
22 that is a misdemeanor an essential element of which is
23 dishonesty, or any crime that is directly related to the
24 practice of the profession;
25 (6) Making a statement of compliance pursuant to the
26 Environmental Barriers Act, as now or hereafter amended,

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1 that a plan for construction or alteration of a public
2 facility or for construction of a multi-story housing unit
3 is in compliance with the Environmental Barriers Act when
4 such plan is not in compliance;
5 (7) Failure to comply with any of the provisions of
6 this Act or its rules;
7 (8) Aiding or assisting another person in violating any
8 provision of this Act or its rules;
9 (9) Engaging in dishonorable, unethical or
10 unprofessional conduct of a character likely to deceive,
11 defraud or harm the public, as defined by rule;
12 (10) Habitual or excessive use or addiction to alcohol,
13 narcotics, stimulants, or any other chemical agent or drug
14 that results in the inability to practice with reasonable
15 judgment, skill, or safety;
16 (11) Failure of an applicant or licensee to pay a fine
17 imposed by the Department or a licensee whose license has
18 been placed on probationary status has violated the terms
19 of probation;
20 (12) Discipline by another state, territory, foreign
21 country, the District of Columbia, the United States
22 government, or any other governmental agency, if at least
23 one of the grounds for discipline is the same or
24 substantially equivalent to those set forth in this
25 Section;
26 (13) Failure to provide information in response to a

09800SB2640ham001- 864 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 written request made by the Department within 30 days after
2 the receipt of such written request; or
3 (14) Physical illness, including but not limited to,
4 deterioration through the aging process or loss of motor
5 skill, mental illness, or disability which results in the
6 inability to practice the profession of structural
7 engineering with reasonable judgment, skill, or safety.
8 (a-5) In enforcing this Section, the Department or Board,
9upon a showing of a possible violation, may order a licensee or
10applicant to submit to a mental or physical examination, or
11both, at the expense of the Department. The Department or Board
12may order the examining physician to present testimony
13concerning his or her examination of the licensee or applicant.
14No information shall be excluded by reason of any common law or
15statutory privilege relating to communications between the
16licensee or applicant and the examining physician. The
17examining physicians shall be specifically designated by the
18Board or Department. The licensee or applicant may have, at his
19or her own expense, another physician of his or her choice
20present during all aspects of the examination. Failure of a
21licensee or applicant to submit to any such examination when
22directed, without reasonable cause as defined by rule, shall be
23grounds for either the immediate suspension of his or her
24license or immediate denial of his or her application.
25 If the Secretary immediately suspends the license of a
26licensee for his or her failure to submit to a mental or

09800SB2640ham001- 865 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1physical examination when directed, a hearing must be convened
2by the Department within 15 days after the suspension and
3completed without appreciable delay.
4 If the Secretary otherwise suspends a license pursuant to
5the results of the licensee's mental or physical examination, a
6hearing must be convened by the Department within 15 days after
7the suspension and completed without appreciable delay. The
8Department and Board shall have the authority to review the
9licensee's record of treatment and counseling regarding the
10relevant impairment or impairments to the extent permitted by
11applicable federal statutes and regulations safeguarding the
12confidentiality of medical records.
13 Any licensee suspended under this subsection (a-5) shall be
14afforded an opportunity to demonstrate to the Department or
15Board that he or she can resume practice in compliance with the
16acceptable and prevailing standards under the provisions of his
17or her license.
18 (b) The determination by a circuit court that a licensee is
19subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission, as
20provided in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities
21Code, operates as an automatic suspension. Such suspension will
22end only upon a finding by a court that the patient is no
23longer subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission,
24the issuance of an order so finding and discharging the
25patient, and the recommendation of the Board to the Secretary
26that the licensee be allowed to resume practice.

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1 (c) The Department shall deny a license or renewal
2authorized by this Act to a person who has defaulted on an
3educational loan or scholarship provided or guaranteed by the
4Illinois Student Assistance Commission or any governmental
5agency of this State in accordance with subdivision (a)(5) of
6Section 2105-15 15 of the Department of Professional Regulation
7Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.
8 (d) In cases where the Department of Healthcare and Family
9Services (formerly the Department of Public Aid) has previously
10determined that a licensee or a potential licensee is more than
1130 days delinquent in the payment of child support and has
12subsequently certified the delinquency to the Department, the
13Department shall refuse to issue or renew or shall revoke or
14suspend that person's license or shall take other disciplinary
15action against that person based solely upon the certification
16of delinquency made by the Department of Healthcare and Family
17Services in accordance with subdivision (a)(5) of Section
182105-15 15 of the Department of Professional Regulation Law of
19the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.
20 (e) The Department shall deny a license or renewal
21authorized by this Act to a person who has failed to file a
22return, to pay the tax, penalty, or interest shown in a filed
23return, or to pay any final assessment of tax, penalty, or
24interest as required by any tax Act administered by the
25Department of Revenue, until such time as the requirements of
26the tax Act are satisfied in accordance with subsection (g) of

09800SB2640ham001- 867 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1Section 2105-15 15 of the Department of Professional Regulation
2Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.
3 (f) Persons who assist the Department as consultants or
4expert witnesses in the investigation or prosecution of alleged
5violations of the Act, licensure matters, restoration
6proceedings, or criminal prosecutions, are not liable for
7damages in any civil action or proceeding as a result of such
8assistance, except upon proof of actual malice. The Attorney
9General of the State of Illinois shall defend such persons in
10any such action or proceeding.
11(Source: P.A. 96-610, eff. 8-24-09; revised 11-12-13.)
12 (225 ILCS 340/37) (from Ch. 111, par. 6637)
13 (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2020)
14 Sec. 37. Pursuant to subsection (i) of Section 6 of Article
15VII 7 of the Illinois Constitution, a home rule unit may not
16regulate the profession of structural engineering in a manner
17more restrictive than the regulation by the State of the
18profession of structural engineering as provided in this Act.
19This Section is a limitation on the concurrent exercise by home
20rule units of powers and functions exercised by the State.
21(Source: P.A. 86-711; revised 11-14-13.)
22 Section 475. The Illinois Certified Shorthand Reporters
23Act of 1984 is amended by changing Sections 23 and 23.2a as
24follows:

09800SB2640ham001- 868 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 (225 ILCS 415/23) (from Ch. 111, par. 6223)
2 (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2024)
3 Sec. 23. Grounds for disciplinary action.
4 (a) The Department may refuse to issue or renew, or may
5revoke, suspend, place on probation, reprimand or take other
6disciplinary or non-disciplinary action as the Department may
7deem appropriate, including imposing fines not to exceed
8$10,000 for each violation and the assessment of costs as
9provided for in Section 23.3 of this Act, with regard to any
10license for any one or combination of the following:
11 (1) Material misstatement in furnishing information to
12 the Department;
13 (2) Violations of this Act, or of the rules promulgated
14 thereunder;
15 (3) Conviction by plea of guilty or nolo contendere,
16 finding of guilt, jury verdict, or entry of judgment or by
17 sentencing of any crime, including, but not limited to,
18 convictions, preceding sentences of supervision,
19 conditional discharge, or first offender probation under
20 the laws of any jurisdiction of the United States: (i) that
21 is a felony or (ii) that is a misdemeanor, an essential
22 element of which is dishonesty, or that is directly related
23 to the practice of the profession;
24 (4) Fraud or any misrepresentation in applying for or
25 procuring a license under this Act or in connection with

09800SB2640ham001- 869 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 applying for renewal of a license under this Act;
2 (5) Professional incompetence;
3 (6) Aiding or assisting another person, firm,
4 partnership or corporation in violating any provision of
5 this Act or rules;
6 (7) Failing, within 60 days, to provide information in
7 response to a written request made by the Department;
8 (8) Engaging in dishonorable, unethical or
9 unprofessional conduct of a character likely to deceive,
10 defraud or harm the public;
11 (9) Habitual or excessive use or abuse of drugs defined
12 in law as controlled substances, alcohol, or any other
13 substances that results in the inability to practice with
14 reasonable judgment, skill, or safety;
15 (10) Discipline by another state, unit of government,
16 government agency, the District of Columbia, a territory,
17 or foreign nation, if at least one of the grounds for the
18 discipline is the same or substantially equivalent to those
19 set forth herein;
20 (11) Charging for professional services not rendered,
21 including filing false statements for the collection of
22 fees for which services were not rendered, or giving,
23 directly or indirectly, any gift or anything of value to
24 attorneys or their staff or any other persons or entities
25 associated with any litigation, that exceeds $100 total per
26 year; for the purposes of this Section, pro bono services,

09800SB2640ham001- 870 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 as defined by State law, are permissible in any amount;
2 (12) A finding by the Board that the certificate
3 holder, after having his certificate placed on
4 probationary status, has violated the terms of probation;
5 (13) Willfully making or filing false records or
6 reports in the practice of shorthand reporting, including
7 but not limited to false records filed with State agencies
8 or departments;
9 (14) Physical illness, including but not limited to,
10 deterioration through the aging process, or loss of motor
11 skill which results in the inability to practice under this
12 Act with reasonable judgment, skill or safety;
13 (15) Solicitation of professional services other than
14 by permitted advertising;
15 (16) Willful failure to take full and accurate
16 stenographic notes of any proceeding;
17 (17) Willful alteration of any stenographic notes
18 taken at any proceeding;
19 (18) Willful failure to accurately transcribe verbatim
20 any stenographic notes taken at any proceeding;
21 (19) Willful alteration of a transcript of
22 stenographic notes taken at any proceeding;
23 (20) Affixing one's signature to any transcript of his
24 stenographic notes or certifying to its correctness unless
25 the transcript has been prepared by him or under his
26 immediate supervision;

09800SB2640ham001- 871 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 (21) Willful failure to systematically retain
2 stenographic notes or transcripts on paper or any
3 electronic media for 10 years from the date that the notes
4 or transcripts were taken;
5 (22) Failure to deliver transcripts in a timely manner
6 or in accordance with contractual agreements;
7 (23) Establishing contingent fees as a basis of
8 compensation;
9 (24) Mental illness or disability that results in the
10 inability to practice under this Act with reasonable
11 judgment, skill, or safety;
12 (25) Practicing under a false or assumed name, except
13 as provided by law;
14 (26) Cheating on or attempting to subvert the licensing
15 examination administered under this Act;
16 (27) Allowing one's license under this Act to be used
17 by an unlicensed person in violation of this Act.
18 All fines imposed under this Section shall be paid within
1960 days after the effective date of the order imposing the fine
20or in accordance with the terms set forth in the order imposing
21the fine.
22 (b) The determination by a circuit court that a certificate
23holder is subject to involuntary admission or judicial
24admission as provided in the Mental Health and Developmental
25Disabilities Code, operates as an automatic suspension. Such
26suspension will end only upon a finding by a court that the

09800SB2640ham001- 872 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1patient is no longer subject to involuntary admission or
2judicial admission, an order by the court so finding and
3discharging the patient. In any case where a license is
4suspended under this Section, the licensee may file a petition
5for restoration and shall include evidence acceptable to the
6Department that the licensee can resume practice in compliance
7with acceptable and prevailing standards of the profession.
8 (c) In cases where the Department of Healthcare and Family
9Services has previously determined a licensee or a potential
10licensee is more than 30 days delinquent in the payment of
11child support and has subsequently certified the delinquency to
12the Department, the Department may refuse to issue or renew or
13may revoke or suspend that person's license or may take other
14disciplinary action against that person based solely upon the
15certification of delinquency made by the Department of
16Healthcare and Family Services in accordance with item (5) of
17subsection (a) (g) of Section 2105-15 1205-15 of the Civil
18Administrative Code of Illinois.
19 (d) In enforcing this Section, the Department, upon a
20showing of a possible violation, may compel any individual who
21is certified under this Act or any individual who has applied
22for certification under this Act to submit to a mental or
23physical examination and evaluation, or both, which may include
24a substance abuse or sexual offender evaluation, at the expense
25of the Department. The Department shall specifically designate
26the examining physician licensed to practice medicine in all of

09800SB2640ham001- 873 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1its branches or, if applicable, the multidisciplinary team
2involved in providing the mental or physical examination and
3evaluation, or both. The multidisciplinary team shall be led by
4a physician licensed to practice medicine in all of its
5branches and may consist of one or more or a combination of
6physicians licensed to practice medicine in all of its
7branches, licensed chiropractic physicians, licensed clinical
8psychologists, licensed clinical social workers, licensed
9clinical professional counselors, and other professional and
10administrative staff. Any examining physician or member of the
11multidisciplinary team may require any person ordered to submit
12to an examination and evaluation pursuant to this Section to
13submit to any additional supplemental testing deemed necessary
14to complete any examination or evaluation process, including,
15but not limited to, blood testing, urinalysis, psychological
16testing, or neuropsychological testing.
17 The Department may order the examining physician or any
18member of the multidisciplinary team to provide to the
19Department any and all records, including business records,
20that relate to the examination and evaluation, including any
21supplemental testing performed. The Department may order the
22examining physician or any member of the multidisciplinary team
23to present testimony concerning this examination and
24evaluation of the certified shorthand reporter or applicant,
25including testimony concerning any supplemental testing or
26documents relating to the examination and evaluation. No

09800SB2640ham001- 874 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1information, report, record, or other documents in any way
2related to the examination and evaluation shall be excluded by
3reason of any common law or statutory privilege relating to
4communication between the licensee or applicant and the
5examining physician or any member of the multidisciplinary
6team. No authorization is necessary from the certified
7shorthand reporter or applicant ordered to undergo an
8evaluation and examination for the examining physician or any
9member of the multidisciplinary team to provide information,
10reports, records, or other documents or to provide any
11testimony regarding the examination and evaluation. The
12individual to be examined may have, at his or her own expense,
13another physician of his or her choice present during all
14aspects of the examination.
15 Failure of any individual to submit to mental or physical
16examination and evaluation, or both, when directed, shall
17result in an automatic suspension, without hearing, until such
18time as the individual submits to the examination. If the
19Department finds a certified shorthand reporter unable to
20practice because of the reasons set forth in this Section, the
21Department shall require the certified shorthand reporter to
22submit to care, counseling, or treatment by physicians approved
23or designated by the Department, as a condition for continued,
24reinstated, or renewed certification.
25 When the Secretary immediately suspends a certificate
26under this Section, a hearing upon the person's certificate

09800SB2640ham001- 875 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1must be convened by the Department within 15 days after the
2suspension and completed without appreciable delay. The
3Department shall have the authority to review the certified
4shorthand reporter's record of treatment and counseling
5regarding the impairment, to the extent permitted by applicable
6federal statutes and regulations safeguarding the
7confidentiality of medical records.
8 Individuals certified under this Act, affected under this
9Section, shall be afforded an opportunity to demonstrate to the
10Department that they can resume practice in compliance with
11acceptable and prevailing standards under the provisions of
12their certification.
13 (e) The Department shall deny a license or renewal
14authorized by this Act to a person who has defaulted on an
15educational loan or scholarship provided or guaranteed by the
16Illinois Student Assistance Commission or any governmental
17agency of this State in accordance with item (5) of subsection
18(a) (g) of Section 2105-15 of the Civil Administrative Code of
19Illinois.
20 (f) The Department may refuse to issue or may suspend
21without hearing, as provided for in the Code of Civil
22Procedure, the license of any person who fails to file a
23return, to pay the tax, penalty, or interest shown in a filed
24return, or to pay any final assessment of tax, penalty, or
25interest as required by any tax Act administered by the
26Illinois Department of Revenue, until such time as the

09800SB2640ham001- 876 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1requirements of any such tax Act are satisfied in accordance
2with subsection (g) of Section 2105-15 of the Civil
3Administrative Code of Illinois.
4(Source: P.A. 98-445, eff. 12-31-13; revised 11-14-13.)
5 (225 ILCS 415/23.2a)
6 (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2024)
7 Sec. 23.2a. Confidentiality. All information collected by
8the Department in the course of an examination or investigation
9of a licensee or applicant, including, but not limited to, any
10complaint against a licensee filed with the Department and
11information collected to investigate any such complaint, shall
12be maintained for the confidential use of the Department and
13shall not be disclosed. The Department may not disclose the
14information to anyone other than law enforcement officials,
15other regulatory agencies that have an appropriate regulatory
16interest as determined by the Secretary, or to a party
17presenting a lawful subpoena to the Department. Information and
18documents disclosed to a federal, State, county, or local law
19enforcement agency shall not be disclosed by the agency for any
20purpose to any other agency or person. A formal complaint filed
21against a licensee by the Department or any order issued by the
22Department against a licensee or applicant shall be a public
23record, except as otherwise prohibited by law.
24(Source: P.A. 98-445, eff. 12-31-13; revised 11-12-13.)

09800SB2640ham001- 877 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 Section 480. The Community Association Manager Licensing
2and Disciplinary Act is amended by changing Section 85 as
3follows:
4 (225 ILCS 427/85)
5 (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2020)
6 Sec. 85. Grounds for discipline; refusal, revocation, or
7suspension.
8 (a) The Department may refuse to issue or renew a license,
9or may place on probation, reprimand, suspend, or revoke any
10license, or take any other disciplinary or non-disciplinary
11action as the Department may deem proper and impose a fine not
12to exceed $10,000 for each violation upon any licensee or
13applicant under this Act or any person or entity who holds
14himself, herself, or itself out as an applicant or licensee for
15any one or combination of the following causes:
16 (1) Material misstatement in furnishing information to
17 the Department.
18 (2) Violations of this Act or its rules.
19 (3) Conviction of or entry of a plea of guilty or plea
20 of nolo contendere to a felony or a misdemeanor under the
21 laws of the United States, any state, or any other
22 jurisdiction or entry of an administrative sanction by a
23 government agency in this State or any other jurisdiction.
24 Action taken under this paragraph (3) for a misdemeanor or
25 an administrative sanction is limited to a misdemeanor or

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1 administrative sanction that has as an essential element
2 dishonesty or fraud, that involves larceny, embezzlement,
3 or obtaining money, property, or credit by false pretenses
4 or by means of a confidence game, or that is directly
5 related to the practice of the profession.
6 (4) Making any misrepresentation for the purpose of
7 obtaining a license or violating any provision of this Act
8 or its rules.
9 (5) Professional incompetence.
10 (6) Gross negligence.
11 (7) Aiding or assisting another person in violating any
12 provision of this Act or its rules.
13 (8) Failing, within 30 days, to provide information in
14 response to a request made by the Department.
15 (9) Engaging in dishonorable, unethical, or
16 unprofessional conduct of a character likely to deceive,
17 defraud or harm the public as defined by the rules of the
18 Department, or violating the rules of professional conduct
19 adopted by the Department.
20 (10) Habitual or excessive use or addiction to alcohol,
21 narcotics, stimulants, or any other chemical agent or drug
22 that results in the inability to practice with reasonable
23 judgment, skill, or safety.
24 (11) Having been disciplined by another state, the
25 District of Columbia, a territory, a foreign nation, or a
26 governmental agency authorized to impose discipline if at

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1 least one of the grounds for the discipline is the same or
2 substantially equivalent of one of the grounds for which a
3 licensee may be disciplined under this Act. A certified
4 copy of the record of the action by the other state or
5 jurisdiction shall be prima facie evidence thereof.
6 (12) Directly or indirectly giving to or receiving from
7 any person, firm, corporation, partnership or association
8 any fee, commission, rebate, or other form of compensation
9 for any professional services not actually or personally
10 rendered.
11 (13) A finding by the Department that the licensee,
12 after having his, her, or its license placed on
13 probationary status, has violated the terms of probation.
14 (14) Willfully making or filing false records or
15 reports relating to a licensee's practice, including but
16 not limited to false records filed with any State or
17 federal agencies or departments.
18 (15) Being named as a perpetrator in an indicated
19 report by the Department of Children and Family Services
20 under the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act and upon
21 proof by clear and convincing evidence that the licensee
22 has caused a child to be an abused child or neglected child
23 as defined in the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act.
24 (16) Physical illness or mental illness or impairment,
25 including, but not limited to, deterioration through the
26 aging process or loss of motor skill that results in the

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1 inability to practice the profession with reasonable
2 judgment, skill, or safety.
3 (17) Solicitation of professional services by using
4 false or misleading advertising.
5 (18) A finding that licensure has been applied for or
6 obtained by fraudulent means.
7 (19) Practicing or attempting to practice under a name
8 other than the full name as shown on the license or any
9 other legally authorized name.
10 (20) Gross overcharging for professional services
11 including, but not limited to, (i) collection of fees or
12 moneys for services that are not rendered; and (ii)
13 charging for services that are not in accordance with the
14 contract between the licensee and the community
15 association.
16 (21) Improper commingling of personal and client funds
17 in violation of this Act or any rules promulgated thereto.
18 (22) Failing to account for or remit any moneys or
19 documents coming into the licensee's possession that
20 belong to another person or entity.
21 (23) Giving differential treatment to a person that is
22 to that person's detriment because of race, color, creed,
23 sex, religion, or national origin.
24 (24) Performing and charging for services without
25 reasonable authorization to do so from the person or entity
26 for whom service is being provided.

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1 (25) Failing to make available to the Department, upon
2 request, any books, records, or forms required by this Act.
3 (26) Purporting to be a supervising community
4 association manager of a firm without active participation
5 in the firm.
6 (27) Failing to make available to the Department at the
7 time of the request any indicia of licensure or
8 registration issued under this Act.
9 (28) Failing to maintain and deposit funds belonging to
10 a community association in accordance with subsection (b)
11 of Section 55 of this Act.
12 (29) Violating the terms of a disciplinary order issued
13 by the Department.
14 (b) In accordance with subdivision (a)(5) of Section
152105-15 15 of the Department of Professional Regulation Law of
16the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois (20 ILCS
172105/2105-15), the Department shall deny a license or renewal
18authorized by this Act to a person who has defaulted on an
19educational loan or scholarship provided or guaranteed by the
20Illinois Student Assistance Commission or any governmental
21agency of this State.
22 (c) The determination by a circuit court that a licensee is
23subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission, as
24provided in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities
25Code, operates as an automatic suspension. The suspension will
26terminate only upon a finding by a court that the patient is no

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1longer subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission
2and the issuance of an order so finding and discharging the
3patient, and upon the recommendation of the Board to the
4Secretary that the licensee be allowed to resume his or her
5practice as a licensed community association manager.
6 (d) In accordance with subsection (g) of Section 2105-15 15
7of the Department of Professional Regulation Law of the Civil
8Administrative Code of Illinois (20 ILCS 2105/2105-15), the
9Department may refuse to issue or renew or may suspend the
10license of any person who fails to file a return, to pay the
11tax, penalty, or interest shown in a filed return, or to pay
12any final assessment of tax, penalty, or interest, as required
13by any tax Act administered by the Department of Revenue, until
14such time as the requirements of that tax Act are satisfied.
15 (e) In accordance with subdivision (a)(5) of Section
162105-15 15 of the Department of Professional Regulation Law of
17the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois (20 ILCS
182105/2105-15) and in cases where the Department of Healthcare
19and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid) has
20previously determined that a licensee or a potential licensee
21is more than 30 days delinquent in the payment of child support
22and has subsequently certified the delinquency to the
23Department may refuse to issue or renew or may revoke or
24suspend that person's license or may take other disciplinary
25action against that person based solely upon the certification
26of delinquency made by the Department of Healthcare and Family

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1Services.
2 (f) In enforcing this Section, the Department or Board upon
3a showing of a possible violation may compel a licensee or an
4individual licensed to practice under this Act, or who has
5applied for licensure under this Act, to submit to a mental or
6physical examination, or both, as required by and at the
7expense of the Department. The Department or Board may order
8the examining physician to present testimony concerning the
9mental or physical examination of the licensee or applicant. No
10information shall be excluded by reason of any common law or
11statutory privilege relating to communications between the
12licensee or applicant and the examining physician. The
13examining physicians shall be specifically designated by the
14Board or Department. The individual to be examined may have, at
15his or her own expense, another physician of his or her choice
16present during all aspects of this examination. Failure of an
17individual to submit to a mental or physical examination, when
18directed, shall be grounds for suspension of his or her license
19or denial of his or her application or renewal until the
20individual submits to the examination if the Department finds,
21after notice and hearing, that the refusal to submit to the
22examination was without reasonable cause.
23 If the Department or Board finds an individual unable to
24practice because of the reasons set forth in this Section, the
25Department or Board may require that individual to submit to
26care, counseling, or treatment by physicians approved or

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1designated by the Department or Board, as a condition, term, or
2restriction for continued, reinstated, or renewed licensure to
3practice; or, in lieu of care, counseling, or treatment, the
4Department may file, or the Board may recommend to the
5Department to file, a complaint to immediately suspend, revoke,
6deny, or otherwise discipline the license of the individual. An
7individual whose license was granted, continued, reinstated,
8renewed, disciplined or supervised subject to such terms,
9conditions, or restrictions, and who fails to comply with such
10terms, conditions, or restrictions, shall be referred to the
11Secretary for a determination as to whether the individual
12shall have his or her license suspended immediately, pending a
13hearing by the Department.
14 In instances in which the Secretary immediately suspends a
15person's license under this Section, a hearing on that person's
16license must be convened by the Department within 30 days after
17the suspension and completed without appreciable delay. The
18Department and Board shall have the authority to review the
19subject individual's record of treatment and counseling
20regarding the impairment to the extent permitted by applicable
21federal statutes and regulations safeguarding the
22confidentiality of medical records.
23 An individual licensed under this Act and affected under
24this Section shall be afforded an opportunity to demonstrate to
25the Department or Board that he or she can resume practice in
26compliance with acceptable and prevailing standards under the

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1provisions of his or her license.
2(Source: P.A. 97-333, eff. 8-12-11; 98-365, eff. 1-1-14;
3revised 11-14-13.)
4 Section 485. The Detection of Deception Examiners Act is
5amended by changing Section 14 as follows:
6 (225 ILCS 430/14) (from Ch. 111, par. 2415)
7 (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022)
8 Sec. 14. (a) The Department may refuse to issue or renew or
9may revoke, suspend, place on probation, reprimand, or take
10other disciplinary or non-disciplinary action as the
11Department may deem appropriate, including imposing fines not
12to exceed $10,000 for each violation, with regard to any
13license for any one or a combination of the following:
14 (1) Material misstatement in furnishing information to
15 the Department.
16 (2) Violations of this Act, or of the rules adopted
17 under this Act.
18 (3) Conviction by plea of guilty or nolo contendere,
19 finding of guilt, jury verdict, or entry of judgment or by
20 sentencing of any crime, including, but not limited to,
21 convictions, preceding sentences of supervision,
22 conditional discharge, or first offender probation, under
23 the laws of any jurisdiction of the United States: (i) that
24 is a felony or (ii) that is a misdemeanor, an essential

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1 element of which is dishonesty, or that is directly related
2 to the practice of the profession.
3 (4) Making any misrepresentation for the purpose of
4 obtaining licensure or violating any provision of this Act
5 or the rules adopted under this Act pertaining to
6 advertising.
7 (5) Professional incompetence.
8 (6) Allowing one's license under this Act to be used by
9 an unlicensed person in violation of this Act.
10 (7) Aiding or assisting another person in violating
11 this Act or any rule adopted under this Act.
12 (8) Where the license holder has been adjudged mentally
13 ill, mentally deficient or subject to involuntary
14 admission as provided in the Mental Health and
15 Developmental Disabilities Code.
16 (9) Failing, within 60 days, to provide information in
17 response to a written request made by the Department.
18 (10) Engaging in dishonorable, unethical, or
19 unprofessional conduct of a character likely to deceive,
20 defraud, or harm the public.
21 (11) Inability to practice with reasonable judgment,
22 skill, or safety as a result of habitual or excessive use
23 or addiction to alcohol, narcotics, stimulants, or any
24 other chemical agent or drug.
25 (12) Discipline by another state, District of
26 Columbia, territory, or foreign nation, if at least one of

09800SB2640ham001- 887 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 the grounds for the discipline is the same or substantially
2 equivalent to those set forth in this Section.
3 (13) A finding by the Department that the licensee,
4 after having his or her license placed on probationary
5 status, has violated the terms of probation.
6 (14) Willfully making or filing false records or
7 reports in his or her practice, including, but not limited
8 to, false records filed with State agencies or departments.
9 (15) Inability to practice the profession with
10 reasonable judgment, skill, or safety as a result of a
11 physical illness, including, but not limited to,
12 deterioration through the aging process or loss of motor
13 skill, or a mental illness or disability.
14 (16) Charging for professional services not rendered,
15 including filing false statements for the collection of
16 fees for which services are not rendered.
17 (17) Practicing under a false or, except as provided by
18 law, an assumed name.
19 (18) Fraud or misrepresentation in applying for, or
20 procuring, a license under this Act or in connection with
21 applying for renewal of a license under this Act.
22 (19) Cheating on or attempting to subvert the licensing
23 examination administered under this Act.
24 All fines imposed under this Section shall be paid within
2560 days after the effective date of the order imposing the
26fine.

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1 (b) The Department may refuse to issue or may suspend
2without hearing, as provided for in the Code of Civil
3Procedure, the license of any person who fails to file a
4return, or pay the tax, penalty, or interest shown in a filed
5return, or pay any final assessment of the tax, penalty, or
6interest as required by any tax Act administered by the
7Illinois Department of Revenue, until such time as the
8requirements of any such tax Act are satisfied in accordance
9with subsection (g) of Section 2105-15 of the Civil
10Administrative Code of Illinois.
11 (c) The Department shall deny a license or renewal
12authorized by this Act to a person who has defaulted on an
13educational loan or scholarship provided or guaranteed by the
14Illinois Student Assistance Commission or any governmental
15agency of this State in accordance with item (5) of subsection
16(a) (g) of Section 2105-15 of the Civil Administrative Code of
17Illinois.
18 (d) In cases where the Department of Healthcare and Family
19Services has previously determined a licensee or a potential
20licensee is more than 30 days delinquent in the payment of
21child support and has subsequently certified the delinquency to
22the Department, the Department may refuse to issue or renew or
23may revoke or suspend that person's license or may take other
24disciplinary action against that person based solely upon the
25certification of delinquency made by the Department of
26Healthcare and Family Services in accordance with item (5) of

09800SB2640ham001- 889 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1subsection (a) (g) of Section 2105-15 1205-15 of the Civil
2Administrative Code of Illinois.
3 (e) The determination by a circuit court that a licensee is
4subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission, as
5provided in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities
6Code, operates as an automatic suspension. The suspension will
7end only upon a finding by a court that the patient is no
8longer subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission
9and the issuance of an order so finding and discharging the
10patient.
11 (f) In enforcing this Act, the Department, upon a showing
12of a possible violation, may compel an individual licensed to
13practice under this Act, or who has applied for licensure under
14this Act, to submit to a mental or physical examination, or
15both, as required by and at the expense of the Department. The
16Department may order the examining physician to present
17testimony concerning the mental or physical examination of the
18licensee or applicant. No information shall be excluded by
19reason of any common law or statutory privilege relating to
20communications between the licensee or applicant and the
21examining physician. The examining physicians shall be
22specifically designated by the Department. The individual to be
23examined may have, at his or her own expense, another physician
24of his or her choice present during all aspects of this
25examination. The examination shall be performed by a physician
26licensed to practice medicine in all its branches. Failure of

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1an individual to submit to a mental or physical examination,
2when directed, shall result in an automatic suspension without
3hearing.
4 A person holding a license under this Act or who has
5applied for a license under this Act who, because of a physical
6or mental illness or disability, including, but not limited to,
7deterioration through the aging process or loss of motor skill,
8is unable to practice the profession with reasonable judgment,
9skill, or safety, may be required by the Department to submit
10to care, counseling, or treatment by physicians approved or
11designated by the Department as a condition, term, or
12restriction for continued, reinstated, or renewed licensure to
13practice. Submission to care, counseling, or treatment as
14required by the Department shall not be considered discipline
15of a license. If the licensee refuses to enter into a care,
16counseling, or treatment agreement or fails to abide by the
17terms of the agreement, the Department may file a complaint to
18revoke, suspend, or otherwise discipline the license of the
19individual. The Secretary may order the license suspended
20immediately, pending a hearing by the Department. Fines shall
21not be assessed in disciplinary actions involving physical or
22mental illness or impairment.
23 In instances in which the Secretary immediately suspends a
24person's license under this Section, a hearing on that person's
25license must be convened by the Department within 15 days after
26the suspension and completed without appreciable delay. The

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1Department shall have the authority to review the subject
2individual's record of treatment and counseling regarding the
3impairment to the extent permitted by applicable federal
4statutes and regulations safeguarding the confidentiality of
5medical records.
6 An individual licensed under this Act and affected under
7this Section shall be afforded an opportunity to demonstrate to
8the Department that he or she can resume practice in compliance
9with acceptable and prevailing standards under the provisions
10of his or her license.
11(Source: P.A. 97-168, eff. 7-22-11; 98-463, eff. 8-16-13;
12revised 11-14-13.)
13 Section 490. The Highway Advertising Control Act of 1971 is
14amended by changing Section 3 and by setting forth,
15renumbering, and changing multiple versions of Section 15 as
16follows:
17 (225 ILCS 440/3) (from Ch. 121, par. 503)
18 Sec. 3. As used in this Act, unless the context otherwise
19requires, the terms defined in the Sections following this
20Section and preceding Section 4 3.01 through 3.16 have the
21meanings ascribed to them in those Sections.
22(Source: P.A. 92-651, eff. 7-11-02; revised 11-14-13.)
23 (225 ILCS 440/14.1)

09800SB2640ham001- 892 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 Sec. 14.1 15. Applicability. The changes made to this Act
2by Public Act 98-56 this amendatory Act of the 98th General
3Assembly shall not be applicable if the application would
4impact the receipt, use, or reimbursement of federal funds by
5the Illinois Department of Transportation other than the
6reimbursement of Bonus Agreement funds. Any permit granted
7pursuant to an inapplicable provision is void.
8(Source: P.A. 98-56, eff. 7-5-13; revised 10-25-13.)
9 (225 ILCS 440/15)
10 Sec. 15. "An Act relating to the restriction, prohibition,
11regulation, and control of billboards and other outdoor
12advertising devices on certain lands adjacent to National
13System of Interstate and Defense Highways in Illinois",
14approved June 28, 1965, is repealed.
15(Source: P.A. 77-1815.)
16 Section 495. The Home Inspector License Act is amended by
17changing Section 15-10 as follows:
18 (225 ILCS 441/15-10)
19 (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022)
20 Sec. 15-10. Grounds for disciplinary action.
21 (a) The Department may refuse to issue or renew, or may
22revoke, suspend, place on probation, reprimand, or take other
23disciplinary or non-disciplinary action as the Department may

09800SB2640ham001- 893 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1deem appropriate, including imposing fines not to exceed
2$25,000 for each violation, with regard to any license for any
3one or combination of the following:
4 (1) Fraud or misrepresentation in applying for, or
5 procuring a license under this Act or in connection with
6 applying for renewal of a license under this Act.
7 (2) Failing to meet the minimum qualifications for
8 licensure as a home inspector established by this Act.
9 (3) Paying money, other than for the fees provided for
10 by this Act, or anything of value to an employee of the
11 Department to procure licensure under this Act.
12 (4) Conviction by plea of guilty or nolo contendere,
13 finding of guilt, jury verdict, or entry of judgment or by
14 sentencing of any crime, including, but not limited to,
15 convictions, preceding sentences of supervision,
16 conditional discharge, or first offender probation, under
17 the laws of any jurisdiction of the United States: (i) that
18 is a felony; (ii) that is a misdemeanor, an essential
19 element of which is dishonesty, or that is directly related
20 to the practice of the profession; or (iii) that is a crime
21 that subjects the licensee to compliance with the
22 requirements of the Sex Offender Registration Act.
23 (5) Committing an act or omission involving
24 dishonesty, fraud, or misrepresentation with the intent to
25 substantially benefit the licensee or another person or
26 with the intent to substantially injure another person.

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1 (6) Violating a provision or standard for the
2 development or communication of home inspections as
3 provided in Section 10-5 of this Act or as defined in the
4 rules.
5 (7) Failing or refusing to exercise reasonable
6 diligence in the development, reporting, or communication
7 of a home inspection report, as defined by this Act or the
8 rules.
9 (8) Violating a provision of this Act or the rules.
10 (9) Having been disciplined by another state, the
11 District of Columbia, a territory, a foreign nation, a
12 governmental agency, or any other entity authorized to
13 impose discipline if at least one of the grounds for that
14 discipline is the same as or substantially equivalent to
15 one of the grounds for which a licensee may be disciplined
16 under this Act.
17 (10) Engaging in dishonorable, unethical, or
18 unprofessional conduct of a character likely to deceive,
19 defraud, or harm the public.
20 (11) Accepting an inspection assignment when the
21 employment itself is contingent upon the home inspector
22 reporting a predetermined analysis or opinion, or when the
23 fee to be paid is contingent upon the analysis, opinion, or
24 conclusion reached or upon the consequences resulting from
25 the home inspection assignment.
26 (12) Developing home inspection opinions or

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1 conclusions based on the race, color, religion, sex,
2 national origin, ancestry, age, marital status, family
3 status, physical or mental disability, or unfavorable
4 military discharge, as defined under the Illinois Human
5 Rights Act, of the prospective or present owners or
6 occupants of the area or property under home inspection.
7 (13) Being adjudicated liable in a civil proceeding on
8 grounds of fraud, misrepresentation, or deceit. In a
9 disciplinary proceeding based upon a finding of civil
10 liability, the home inspector shall be afforded an
11 opportunity to present mitigating and extenuating
12 circumstances, but may not collaterally attack the civil
13 adjudication.
14 (14) Being adjudicated liable in a civil proceeding for
15 violation of a State or federal fair housing law.
16 (15) Engaging in misleading or untruthful advertising
17 or using a trade name or insignia of membership in a home
18 inspection organization of which the licensee is not a
19 member.
20 (16) Failing, within 30 days, to provide information in
21 response to a written request made by the Department.
22 (17) Failing to include within the home inspection
23 report the home inspector's license number and the date of
24 expiration of the license. All home inspectors providing
25 significant contribution to the development and reporting
26 of a home inspection must be disclosed in the home

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1 inspection report. It is a violation of this Act for a home
2 inspector to sign a home inspection report knowing that a
3 person providing a significant contribution to the report
4 has not been disclosed in the home inspection report.
5 (18) Advising a client as to whether the client should
6 or should not engage in a transaction regarding the
7 residential real property that is the subject of the home
8 inspection.
9 (19) Performing a home inspection in a manner that
10 damages or alters the residential real property that is the
11 subject of the home inspection without the consent of the
12 owner.
13 (20) Performing a home inspection when the home
14 inspector is providing or may also provide other services
15 in connection with the residential real property or
16 transaction, or has an interest in the residential real
17 property, without providing prior written notice of the
18 potential or actual conflict and obtaining the prior
19 consent of the client as provided by rule.
20 (21) Aiding or assisting another person in violating
21 any provision of this Act or rules adopted under this Act.
22 (22) Inability to practice with reasonable judgment,
23 skill, or safety as a result of habitual or excessive use
24 or addiction to alcohol, narcotics, stimulants, or any
25 other chemical agent or drug.
26 (23) A finding by the Department that the licensee,

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1 after having his or her license placed on probationary
2 status, has violated the terms of probation.
3 (24) Willfully making or filing false records or
4 reports in his or her practice, including, but not limited
5 to, false records filed with State agencies or departments.
6 (25) Charging for professional services not rendered,
7 including filing false statements for the collection of
8 fees for which services are not rendered.
9 (26) Practicing under a false or, except as provided by
10 law, an assumed name.
11 (27) Cheating on or attempting to subvert the licensing
12 examination administered under this Act.
13 (b) The Department may suspend, revoke, or refuse to issue
14or renew an education provider's license, may reprimand, place
15on probation, or otherwise discipline an education provider
16licensee, and may suspend or revoke the course approval of any
17course offered by an education provider, for any of the
18following:
19 (1) Procuring or attempting to procure licensure by
20 knowingly making a false statement, submitting false
21 information, making any form of fraud or
22 misrepresentation, or refusing to provide complete
23 information in response to a question in an application for
24 licensure.
25 (2) Failing to comply with the covenants certified to
26 on the application for licensure as an education provider.

09800SB2640ham001- 898 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 (3) Committing an act or omission involving
2 dishonesty, fraud, or misrepresentation or allowing any
3 such act or omission by any employee or contractor under
4 the control of the education provider.
5 (4) Engaging in misleading or untruthful advertising.
6 (5) Failing to retain competent instructors in
7 accordance with rules adopted under this Act.
8 (6) Failing to meet the topic or time requirements for
9 course approval as the provider of a pre-license curriculum
10 course or a continuing education course.
11 (7) Failing to administer an approved course using the
12 course materials, syllabus, and examinations submitted as
13 the basis of the course approval.
14 (8) Failing to provide an appropriate classroom
15 environment for presentation of courses, with
16 consideration for student comfort, acoustics, lighting,
17 seating, workspace, and visual aid material.
18 (9) Failing to maintain student records in compliance
19 with the rules adopted under this Act.
20 (10) Failing to provide a certificate, transcript, or
21 other student record to the Department or to a student as
22 may be required by rule.
23 (11) Failing to fully cooperate with a Department
24 investigation by knowingly making a false statement,
25 submitting false or misleading information, or refusing to
26 provide complete information in response to written

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1 interrogatories or a written request for documentation
2 within 30 days of the request.
3 (c) In appropriate cases, the Department may resolve a
4complaint against a licensee through the issuance of a Consent
5to Administrative Supervision order. A licensee subject to a
6Consent to Administrative Supervision order shall be
7considered by the Department as an active licensee in good
8standing. This order shall not be reported as or considered by
9the Department to be a discipline of the licensee. The records
10regarding an investigation and a Consent to Administrative
11Supervision order shall be considered confidential and shall
12not be released by the Department except as mandated by law.
13The complainant shall be notified that his or her complaint has
14been resolved by a Consent to Administrative Supervision order.
15 (d) The Department may refuse to issue or may suspend
16without hearing, as provided for in the Code of Civil
17Procedure, the license of any person who fails to file a tax
18return, to pay the tax, penalty, or interest shown in a filed
19tax return, or to pay any final assessment of tax, penalty, or
20interest, as required by any tax Act administered by the
21Illinois Department of Revenue, until such time as the
22requirements of the tax Act are satisfied in accordance with
23subsection (g) of Section 2105-15 of the Civil Administrative
24Code of Illinois.
25 (e) The Department shall deny a license or renewal
26authorized by this Act to a person who has defaulted on an

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1educational loan or scholarship provided or guaranteed by the
2Illinois Student Assistance Commission or any governmental
3agency of this State in accordance with item (5) of subsection
4(a) (g) of Section 2105-15 of the Civil Administrative Code of
5Illinois.
6 (f) In cases where the Department of Healthcare and Family
7Services has previously determined that a licensee or a
8potential licensee is more than 30 days delinquent in the
9payment of child support and has subsequently certified the
10delinquency to the Department, the Department may refuse to
11issue or renew or may revoke or suspend that person's license
12or may take other disciplinary action against that person based
13solely upon the certification of delinquency made by the
14Department of Healthcare and Family Services in accordance with
15item (5) of subsection (a) (g) of Section 2105-15 of the Civil
16Administrative Code of Illinois.
17 (g) The determination by a circuit court that a licensee is
18subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission, as
19provided in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities
20Code, operates as an automatic suspension. The suspension will
21end only upon a finding by a court that the patient is no
22longer subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission
23and the issuance of a court order so finding and discharging
24the patient.
25 (h) In enforcing this Act, the Department, upon a showing
26of a possible violation, may compel an individual licensed to

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1practice under this Act, or who has applied for licensure under
2this Act, to submit to a mental or physical examination, or
3both, as required by and at the expense of the Department. The
4Department may order the examining physician to present
5testimony concerning the mental or physical examination of the
6licensee or applicant. No information shall be excluded by
7reason of any common law or statutory privilege relating to
8communications between the licensee or applicant and the
9examining physician. The examining physician shall be
10specifically designated by the Department. The individual to be
11examined may have, at his or her own expense, another physician
12of his or her choice present during all aspects of this
13examination. The examination shall be performed by a physician
14licensed to practice medicine in all its branches. Failure of
15an individual to submit to a mental or physical examination,
16when directed, shall result in an automatic suspension without
17hearing.
18 A person holding a license under this Act or who has
19applied for a license under this Act, who, because of a
20physical or mental illness or disability, including, but not
21limited to, deterioration through the aging process or loss of
22motor skill, is unable to practice the profession with
23reasonable judgment, skill, or safety, may be required by the
24Department to submit to care, counseling, or treatment by
25physicians approved or designated by the Department as a
26condition, term, or restriction for continued, reinstated, or

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1renewed licensure to practice. Submission to care, counseling,
2or treatment as required by the Department shall not be
3considered discipline of a license. If the licensee refuses to
4enter into a care, counseling, or treatment agreement or fails
5to abide by the terms of the agreement, the Department may file
6a complaint to revoke, suspend, or otherwise discipline the
7license of the individual. The Secretary may order the license
8suspended immediately, pending a hearing by the Department.
9Fines shall not be assessed in disciplinary actions involving
10physical or mental illness or impairment.
11 In instances in which the Secretary immediately suspends a
12person's license under this Section, a hearing on that person's
13license must be convened by the Department within 15 days after
14the suspension and completed without appreciable delay. The
15Department shall have the authority to review the subject
16individual's record of treatment and counseling regarding the
17impairment to the extent permitted by applicable federal
18statutes and regulations safeguarding the confidentiality of
19medical records.
20 An individual licensed under this Act and affected under
21this Section shall be afforded an opportunity to demonstrate to
22the Department that he or she can resume practice in compliance
23with acceptable and prevailing standards under the provisions
24of his or her license.
25(Source: P.A. 97-226, eff. 7-28-11; 97-877, eff. 8-2-12;
26revised 11-14-13.)

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1 Section 500. The Private Detective, Private Alarm, Private
2Security, Fingerprint Vendor, and Locksmith Act of 2004 is
3amended by changing Section 25-20 as follows:
4 (225 ILCS 447/25-20)
5 (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2024)
6 Sec. 25-20. Training; private security contractor and
7employees.
8 (a) Registered employees of the private security
9contractor agency who provide traditional guarding or other
10private security related functions or who respond to alarm
11systems shall complete, within 30 days of their employment, a
12minimum of 20 hours of classroom basic training provided by a
13qualified instructor, which shall include the following
14subjects:
15 (1) The law regarding arrest and search and seizure as
16 it applies to private security.
17 (2) Civil and criminal liability for acts related to
18 private security.
19 (3) The use of force, including but not limited to the
20 use of nonlethal force (i.e., disabling spray, baton,
21 stungun or similar weapon).
22 (4) Arrest and control techniques.
23 (5) The offenses under the Criminal Code of 2012 that
24 are directly related to the protection of persons and

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1 property.
2 (6) The law on private security forces and on reporting
3 to law enforcement agencies.
4 (7) Fire prevention, fire equipment, and fire safety.
5 (8) The procedures for report writing.
6 (9) Civil rights and public relations.
7 (10) The identification of terrorists, acts of
8 terrorism, and terrorist organizations, as defined by
9 federal and State statutes.
10 (b) All other employees of a private security contractor
11agency shall complete a minimum of 20 hours of training
12provided by the qualified instructor within 30 days of their
13employment. The substance of the training shall be related to
14the work performed by the registered employee.
15 (c) Registered employees of the private security
16contractor agency who provide guarding or other private
17security related functions, in addition to the classroom
18training required under subsection (a), within 6 months of
19their employment, shall complete an additional 8 hours of
20training on subjects to be determined by the employer, which
21training may be site-specific and may be conducted on the job.
22 (d) In addition to the basic training provided for in
23subsections (a) and (c), registered employees of the private
24security contractor agency who provide guarding or other
25private security related functions shall complete an
26additional 8 hours of refresher training on subjects to be

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1determined by the employer each calendar year commencing with
2the calendar year following the employee's first employment
3anniversary date, which refresher training may be
4site-specific and may be conducted on the job.
5 (e) It is the responsibility of the employer to certify, on
6a form provided by the Department, that the employee has
7successfully completed the basic and refresher training. The
8form shall be a permanent record of training completed by the
9employee and shall be placed in the employee's file with the
10employer for the period the employee remains with the employer.
11An agency may place a notarized copy of the Department form in
12lieu of the original into the permanent employee registration
13card file. The original form shall be given to the employee
14when his or her employment is terminated. Failure to return the
15original form to the employee is grounds for disciplinary
16action. The employee shall not be required to repeat the
17required training once the employee has been issued the form.
18An employer may provide or require additional training.
19 (f) Any certification of completion of the 20-hour basic
20training issued under the Private Detective, Private Alarm,
21Private Security and Locksmith Act of 1993 or any prior Act
22shall be accepted as proof of training under this Act.
23(Source: P.A. 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13; 98-253, eff. 8-9-13;
24revised 9-24-13.)
25 Section 505. The Illinois Public Accounting Act is amended

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1by changing Sections 2.1 and 28 as follows:
2 (225 ILCS 450/2.1) (from Ch. 111, par. 5503)
3 (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2024)
4 Sec. 2.1. Illinois Administrative Procedure Act. The
5Illinois Administrative Procedure Act is hereby expressly
6adopted and incorporated herein as if all of the provisions of
7that Act were included in this Act, except that the provision
8of subsection (d) of Section 10-65 of the Illinois
9Administrative Procedure Act that provides that at hearings the
10licensee has the right to show compliance with all lawful
11requirements for retention, continuation or renewal of the
12license is specifically excluded. For the purposes of this Act
13the notice required under Section 10-25 of the Illinois
14Administrative Procedure Act is deemed sufficient when mailed
15to the licensee's address of record.
16(Source: P.A. 98-254, eff. 8-9-13; revised 11-14-13.)
17 (225 ILCS 450/28) (from Ch. 111, par. 5534)
18 (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2024)
19 Sec. 28. Criminal penalties. Each of the following acts
20perpetrated in the State of Illinois is a Class A misdemeanor: .
21 (a) the practice of accountancy activities as defined
22 in paragraph (1) of subsection (a) of Section 8.05 without
23 an active CPA license in violation of the provisions of
24 this Act;

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1 (b) the obtaining or attempting to obtain licensure as
2 a licensed CPA or registration as a registered CPA by
3 fraud;
4 (c) the use of the title "Certified Public Accountant",
5 "public accountant", or the abbreviation "C.P.A.", "RCPA",
6 "LCPA", "PA" or use of any similar words or letters
7 indicating the user is a certified public accountant, or
8 the title "Registered Certified Public Accountant";
9 (c-5) (blank);
10 (d) the use of the title "Certified Public Accountant",
11 "public accountant", or the abbreviation "C.P.A.", "RCPA",
12 "LCPA", "PA" or any similar words or letters indicating
13 that the members are certified public accountants, by any
14 partnership, limited liability company, corporation, or
15 other entity in violation of this Act;
16 (e) the unauthorized practice in the performance of
17 accountancy activities as defined in Section 8.05 and in
18 violation of this Act;
19 (f) (blank);
20 (g) making false statements to the Department
21 regarding compliance with continuing professional
22 education or peer review requirements;
23 (h) (Blank).
24(Source: P.A. 98-254, eff. 8-9-13; revised 11-12-13.)
25 Section 510. The Real Estate License Act of 2000 is amended

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1by changing Sections 5-32 and 20-20 as follows:
2 (225 ILCS 454/5-32)
3 (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2020)
4 Sec. 5-32. Real estate auction certification.
5 (a) An auctioneer licensed under the Auction License Act
6who does not possess a valid and active broker's or managing
7broker's license under this Act, or who is not otherwise exempt
8from licensure, may not engage in the practice of auctioning
9real estate, except as provided in this Section.
10 (b) The Department shall issue a real estate auction
11certification to applicants who:
12 (1) possess a valid auctioneer's license under the
13 Auction License Act;
14 (2) successfully complete a real estate auction course
15 of at least 30 hours approved by the Department, which
16 shall cover the scope of activities that may be engaged in
17 by a person holding a real estate auction certification and
18 the activities for which a person must hold a real estate
19 license, as well as other material as provided by the
20 Department;
21 (3) provide documentation of the completion of the real
22 estate auction course; and
23 (4) successfully complete any other reasonable
24 requirements as provided by rule.
25 (c) The auctioneer's role shall be limited to establishing

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1the time, place, and method of the real estate auction, placing
2advertisements regarding the auction, and crying or calling the
3auction; any other real estate brokerage activities must be
4performed by a person holding a valid and active real estate
5broker's or managing broker's license under the provisions of
6this Act or by a person who is exempt from holding a license
7under paragraph (13) of Section 5-20 who has a certificate
8under this Section.
9 (d) An auctioneer who conducts any real estate auction
10activities in violation of this Section is guilty of unlicensed
11practice under Section 20-10 of this Act.
12 (e) The Department may revoke, suspend, or otherwise
13discipline the real estate auction certification of an
14auctioneer who is adjudicated to be in violation of the
15provisions of this Section or Section 20-15 of the Auction
16License Act.
17 (f) Advertising for the real estate auction must contain
18the name and address of the licensed real estate broker,
19managing broker, or a licensed auctioneer under paragraph (13)
20of Section 5-20 of this Act who is providing brokerage services
21for the transaction.
22 (g) The requirement to hold a real estate auction
23certification shall not apply to a person exempt from this Act
24under the provisions of paragraph (13) of Section subsection
255-20 of this Act, unless that person is performing licensed
26activities in a transaction in which a licensed auctioneer with

09800SB2640ham001- 910 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1a real estate certification is providing the limited services
2provided for in subsection (c) of this Section.
3 (h) Nothing in this Section shall require a person licensed
4under this Act as a real estate broker or managing broker to
5obtain a real estate auction certification in order to auction
6real estate.
7 (i) The Department may adopt rules to implement this
8Section.
9(Source: P.A. 98-553, eff. 1-1-14; revised 11-15-13.)
10 (225 ILCS 454/20-20)
11 (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2020)
12 Sec. 20-20. Grounds for discipline.
13 (a) The Department may refuse to issue or renew a license,
14may place on probation, suspend, or revoke any license,
15reprimand, or take any other disciplinary or non-disciplinary
16action as the Department may deem proper and impose a fine not
17to exceed $25,000 upon any licensee or applicant under this Act
18or any person who holds himself or herself out as an applicant
19or licensee or against a licensee in handling his or her own
20property, whether held by deed, option, or otherwise, for any
21one or any combination of the following causes:
22 (1) Fraud or misrepresentation in applying for, or
23 procuring, a license under this Act or in connection with
24 applying for renewal of a license under this Act.
25 (2) The conviction of or plea of guilty or plea of nolo

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1 contendere to a felony or misdemeanor in this State or any
2 other jurisdiction; or the entry of an administrative
3 sanction by a government agency in this State or any other
4 jurisdiction. Action taken under this paragraph (2) for a
5 misdemeanor or an administrative sanction is limited to a
6 misdemeanor or administrative sanction that has as an
7 essential element dishonesty or fraud or involves larceny,
8 embezzlement, or obtaining money, property, or credit by
9 false pretenses or by means of a confidence game.
10 (3) Inability to practice the profession with
11 reasonable judgment, skill, or safety as a result of a
12 physical illness, including, but not limited to,
13 deterioration through the aging process or loss of motor
14 skill, or a mental illness or disability.
15 (4) Practice under this Act as a licensee in a retail
16 sales establishment from an office, desk, or space that is
17 not separated from the main retail business by a separate
18 and distinct area within the establishment.
19 (5) Having been disciplined by another state, the
20 District of Columbia, a territory, a foreign nation, or a
21 governmental agency authorized to impose discipline if at
22 least one of the grounds for that discipline is the same as
23 or the equivalent of one of the grounds for which a
24 licensee may be disciplined under this Act. A certified
25 copy of the record of the action by the other state or
26 jurisdiction shall be prima facie evidence thereof.

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1 (6) Engaging in the practice of real estate brokerage
2 without a license or after the licensee's license was
3 expired or while the license was inoperative.
4 (7) Cheating on or attempting to subvert the Real
5 Estate License Exam or continuing education exam.
6 (8) Aiding or abetting an applicant to subvert or cheat
7 on the Real Estate License Exam or continuing education
8 exam administered pursuant to this Act.
9 (9) Advertising that is inaccurate, misleading, or
10 contrary to the provisions of the Act.
11 (10) Making any substantial misrepresentation or
12 untruthful advertising.
13 (11) Making any false promises of a character likely to
14 influence, persuade, or induce.
15 (12) Pursuing a continued and flagrant course of
16 misrepresentation or the making of false promises through
17 licensees, employees, agents, advertising, or otherwise.
18 (13) Any misleading or untruthful advertising, or
19 using any trade name or insignia of membership in any real
20 estate organization of which the licensee is not a member.
21 (14) Acting for more than one party in a transaction
22 without providing written notice to all parties for whom
23 the licensee acts.
24 (15) Representing or attempting to represent a broker
25 other than the sponsoring broker.
26 (16) Failure to account for or to remit any moneys or

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1 documents coming into his or her possession that belong to
2 others.
3 (17) Failure to maintain and deposit in a special
4 account, separate and apart from personal and other
5 business accounts, all escrow moneys belonging to others
6 entrusted to a licensee while acting as a real estate
7 broker, escrow agent, or temporary custodian of the funds
8 of others or failure to maintain all escrow moneys on
9 deposit in the account until the transactions are
10 consummated or terminated, except to the extent that the
11 moneys, or any part thereof, shall be:
12 (A) disbursed prior to the consummation or
13 termination (i) in accordance with the written
14 direction of the principals to the transaction or their
15 duly authorized agents, (ii) in accordance with
16 directions providing for the release, payment, or
17 distribution of escrow moneys contained in any written
18 contract signed by the principals to the transaction or
19 their duly authorized agents, or (iii) pursuant to an
20 order of a court of competent jurisdiction; or
21 (B) deemed abandoned and transferred to the Office
22 of the State Treasurer to be handled as unclaimed
23 property pursuant to the Uniform Disposition of
24 Unclaimed Property Act. Escrow moneys may be deemed
25 abandoned under this subparagraph (B) only: (i) in the
26 absence of disbursement under subparagraph (A); (ii)

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1 in the absence of notice of the filing of any claim in
2 a court of competent jurisdiction; and (iii) if 6
3 months have elapsed after the receipt of a written
4 demand for the escrow moneys from one of the principals
5 to the transaction or the principal's duly authorized
6 agent.
7 The account shall be noninterest bearing, unless the
8 character of the deposit is such that payment of interest
9 thereon is otherwise required by law or unless the
10 principals to the transaction specifically require, in
11 writing, that the deposit be placed in an interest bearing
12 account.
13 (18) Failure to make available to the Department all
14 escrow records and related documents maintained in
15 connection with the practice of real estate within 24 hours
16 of a request for those documents by Department personnel.
17 (19) Failing to furnish copies upon request of
18 documents relating to a real estate transaction to a party
19 who has executed that document.
20 (20) Failure of a sponsoring broker to timely provide
21 information, sponsor cards, or termination of licenses to
22 the Department.
23 (21) Engaging in dishonorable, unethical, or
24 unprofessional conduct of a character likely to deceive,
25 defraud, or harm the public.
26 (22) Commingling the money or property of others with

09800SB2640ham001- 915 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 his or her own money or property.
2 (23) Employing any person on a purely temporary or
3 single deal basis as a means of evading the law regarding
4 payment of commission to nonlicensees on some contemplated
5 transactions.
6 (24) Permitting the use of his or her license as a
7 broker to enable a salesperson or unlicensed person to
8 operate a real estate business without actual
9 participation therein and control thereof by the broker.
10 (25) Any other conduct, whether of the same or a
11 different character from that specified in this Section,
12 that constitutes dishonest dealing.
13 (26) Displaying a "for rent" or "for sale" sign on any
14 property without the written consent of an owner or his or
15 her duly authorized agent or advertising by any means that
16 any property is for sale or for rent without the written
17 consent of the owner or his or her authorized agent.
18 (27) Failing to provide information requested by the
19 Department, or otherwise respond to that request, within 30
20 days of the request.
21 (28) Advertising by means of a blind advertisement,
22 except as otherwise permitted in Section 10-30 of this Act.
23 (29) Offering guaranteed sales plans, as defined in
24 clause (A) of this subdivision (29), except to the extent
25 hereinafter set forth:
26 (A) A "guaranteed sales plan" is any real estate

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1 purchase or sales plan whereby a licensee enters into a
2 conditional or unconditional written contract with a
3 seller, prior to entering into a brokerage agreement
4 with the seller, by the terms of which a licensee
5 agrees to purchase a property of the seller within a
6 specified period of time at a specific price in the
7 event the property is not sold in accordance with the
8 terms of a brokerage agreement to be entered into
9 between the sponsoring broker and the seller.
10 (B) A licensee offering a guaranteed sales plan
11 shall provide the details and conditions of the plan in
12 writing to the party to whom the plan is offered.
13 (C) A licensee offering a guaranteed sales plan
14 shall provide to the party to whom the plan is offered
15 evidence of sufficient financial resources to satisfy
16 the commitment to purchase undertaken by the broker in
17 the plan.
18 (D) Any licensee offering a guaranteed sales plan
19 shall undertake to market the property of the seller
20 subject to the plan in the same manner in which the
21 broker would market any other property, unless the
22 agreement with the seller provides otherwise.
23 (E) The licensee cannot purchase seller's property
24 until the brokerage agreement has ended according to
25 its terms or is otherwise terminated.
26 (F) Any licensee who fails to perform on a

09800SB2640ham001- 917 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 guaranteed sales plan in strict accordance with its
2 terms shall be subject to all the penalties provided in
3 this Act for violations thereof and, in addition, shall
4 be subject to a civil fine payable to the party injured
5 by the default in an amount of up to $25,000.
6 (30) Influencing or attempting to influence, by any
7 words or acts, a prospective seller, purchaser, occupant,
8 landlord, or tenant of real estate, in connection with
9 viewing, buying, or leasing real estate, so as to promote
10 or tend to promote the continuance or maintenance of
11 racially and religiously segregated housing or so as to
12 retard, obstruct, or discourage racially integrated
13 housing on or in any street, block, neighborhood, or
14 community.
15 (31) Engaging in any act that constitutes a violation
16 of any provision of Article 3 of the Illinois Human Rights
17 Act, whether or not a complaint has been filed with or
18 adjudicated by the Human Rights Commission.
19 (32) Inducing any party to a contract of sale or lease
20 or brokerage agreement to break the contract of sale or
21 lease or brokerage agreement for the purpose of
22 substituting, in lieu thereof, a new contract for sale or
23 lease or brokerage agreement with a third party.
24 (33) Negotiating a sale, exchange, or lease of real
25 estate directly with any person if the licensee knows that
26 the person has an exclusive brokerage agreement with

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1 another broker, unless specifically authorized by that
2 broker.
3 (34) When a licensee is also an attorney, acting as the
4 attorney for either the buyer or the seller in the same
5 transaction in which the licensee is acting or has acted as
6 a broker or salesperson.
7 (35) Advertising or offering merchandise or services
8 as free if any conditions or obligations necessary for
9 receiving the merchandise or services are not disclosed in
10 the same advertisement or offer. These conditions or
11 obligations include without limitation the requirement
12 that the recipient attend a promotional activity or visit a
13 real estate site. As used in this subdivision (35), "free"
14 includes terms such as "award", "prize", "no charge", "free
15 of charge", "without charge", and similar words or phrases
16 that reasonably lead a person to believe that he or she may
17 receive or has been selected to receive something of value,
18 without any conditions or obligations on the part of the
19 recipient.
20 (36) Disregarding or violating any provision of the
21 Land Sales Registration Act of 1989, the Illinois Real
22 Estate Time-Share Act, or the published rules promulgated
23 by the Department to enforce those Acts.
24 (37) Violating the terms of a disciplinary order issued
25 by the Department.
26 (38) Paying or failing to disclose compensation in

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1 violation of Article 10 of this Act.
2 (39) Requiring a party to a transaction who is not a
3 client of the licensee to allow the licensee to retain a
4 portion of the escrow moneys for payment of the licensee's
5 commission or expenses as a condition for release of the
6 escrow moneys to that party.
7 (40) Disregarding or violating any provision of this
8 Act or the published rules promulgated by the Department to
9 enforce this Act or aiding or abetting any individual,
10 partnership, registered limited liability partnership,
11 limited liability company, or corporation in disregarding
12 any provision of this Act or the published rules
13 promulgated by the Department to enforce this Act.
14 (41) Failing to provide the minimum services required
15 by Section 15-75 of this Act when acting under an exclusive
16 brokerage agreement.
17 (42) Habitual or excessive use or addiction to alcohol,
18 narcotics, stimulants, or any other chemical agent or drug
19 that results in a managing broker, broker, salesperson, or
20 leasing agent's inability to practice with reasonable
21 skill or safety.
22 (43) Enabling, aiding, or abetting an auctioneer, as
23 defined in the Auction License Act, to conduct a real
24 estate auction in a manner that is in violation of this
25 Act.
26 (b) The Department may refuse to issue or renew or may

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1suspend the license of any person who fails to file a return,
2pay the tax, penalty or interest shown in a filed return, or
3pay any final assessment of tax, penalty, or interest, as
4required by any tax Act administered by the Department of
5Revenue, until such time as the requirements of that tax Act
6are satisfied in accordance with subsection (g) of Section
72105-15 of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.
8 (c) The Department shall deny a license or renewal
9authorized by this Act to a person who has defaulted on an
10educational loan or scholarship provided or guaranteed by the
11Illinois Student Assistance Commission or any governmental
12agency of this State in accordance with item (5) of subsection
13(a) (g) of Section 2105-15 of the Civil Administrative Code of
14Illinois.
15 (d) In cases where the Department of Healthcare and Family
16Services (formerly Department of Public Aid) has previously
17determined that a licensee or a potential licensee is more than
1830 days delinquent in the payment of child support and has
19subsequently certified the delinquency to the Department may
20refuse to issue or renew or may revoke or suspend that person's
21license or may take other disciplinary action against that
22person based solely upon the certification of delinquency made
23by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services in
24accordance with item (5) of subsection (a) (g) of Section
252105-15 of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.
26 (e) In enforcing this Section, the Department or Board upon

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1a showing of a possible violation may compel an individual
2licensed to practice under this Act, or who has applied for
3licensure under this Act, to submit to a mental or physical
4examination, or both, as required by and at the expense of the
5Department. The Department or Board may order the examining
6physician to present testimony concerning the mental or
7physical examination of the licensee or applicant. No
8information shall be excluded by reason of any common law or
9statutory privilege relating to communications between the
10licensee or applicant and the examining physician. The
11examining physicians shall be specifically designated by the
12Board or Department. The individual to be examined may have, at
13his or her own expense, another physician of his or her choice
14present during all aspects of this examination. Failure of an
15individual to submit to a mental or physical examination, when
16directed, shall be grounds for suspension of his or her license
17until the individual submits to the examination if the
18Department finds, after notice and hearing, that the refusal to
19submit to the examination was without reasonable cause.
20 If the Department or Board finds an individual unable to
21practice because of the reasons set forth in this Section, the
22Department or Board may require that individual to submit to
23care, counseling, or treatment by physicians approved or
24designated by the Department or Board, as a condition, term, or
25restriction for continued, reinstated, or renewed licensure to
26practice; or, in lieu of care, counseling, or treatment, the

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1Department may file, or the Board may recommend to the
2Department to file, a complaint to immediately suspend, revoke,
3or otherwise discipline the license of the individual. An
4individual whose license was granted, continued, reinstated,
5renewed, disciplined or supervised subject to such terms,
6conditions, or restrictions, and who fails to comply with such
7terms, conditions, or restrictions, shall be referred to the
8Secretary for a determination as to whether the individual
9shall have his or her license suspended immediately, pending a
10hearing by the Department.
11 In instances in which the Secretary immediately suspends a
12person's license under this Section, a hearing on that person's
13license must be convened by the Department within 30 days after
14the suspension and completed without appreciable delay. The
15Department and Board shall have the authority to review the
16subject individual's record of treatment and counseling
17regarding the impairment to the extent permitted by applicable
18federal statutes and regulations safeguarding the
19confidentiality of medical records.
20 An individual licensed under this Act and affected under
21this Section shall be afforded an opportunity to demonstrate to
22the Department or Board that he or she can resume practice in
23compliance with acceptable and prevailing standards under the
24provisions of his or her license.
25(Source: P.A. 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 97-1002, eff. 8-17-12;
2698-553, eff. 1-1-14; revised 11-14-13.)

09800SB2640ham001- 923 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 Section 515. The Hydraulic Fracturing Regulatory Act is
2amended by changing Sections 1-15, 1-35, 1-60, 1-70, 1-75, and
31-95 as follows:
4 (225 ILCS 732/1-15)
5 Sec. 1-15. Powers and duties.
6 (a) Except as otherwise provided, the Department shall
7enforce this Act and all rules and orders adopted in accordance
8with this Act.
9 (b) Except as otherwise provided, the Department shall have
10jurisdiction and authority over all persons and property
11necessary to enforce the provisions of this Act effectively. In
12aid of this jurisdiction, the Director, or anyone designated in
13writing by the Director, shall have the authority to administer
14oaths and to issue subpoenas for the production of records or
15other documents and for the attendance of witnesses at any
16proceedings of the Department.
17 (c) The Department may authorize any employee of the
18Department, qualified by training and experience, to perform
19the powers and duties set forth in this Act.
20 (d) For the purpose of determining compliance with the
21provisions of this Act and any orders or rules entered or
22adopted under this Act, the Department shall have the right at
23all times to go upon and inspect properties where high volume
24horizontal hydraulic fracturing operations are being or have

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1been conducted.
2 (e) The Department shall make any inquiries as it may deem
3proper to determine whether a violation of this Act or any
4orders or rules entered or adopted under this Act exists or is
5imminent. In the exercise of these powers, the Department shall
6have the authority to collect data; to require testing and
7sampling; to make investigation and inspections; to examine
8properties, including records and logs; to examine, check, and
9test hydrocarbon wells; to hold hearings; to adopt
10administrative rules; and to take any action as may be
11reasonably necessary to enforce this Act.
12 (f) Except as otherwise provided, the Department may
13specify the manner in which all information required to be
14submitted under this Act is submitted.
15(Source: P.A. 98-22, eff. 6-17-13; revised 11-18-13.)
16 (225 ILCS 732/1-35)
17 Sec. 1-35. High volume horizontal hydraulic fracturing
18permit application.
19 (a) Every applicant for a permit under this Act shall first
20register with the Department at least 30 days before applying
21for a permit. The Department shall make available a
22registration form within 90 days after the effective date of
23this Act. The registration form shall require the following
24information:
25 (1) the name and address of the registrant and any

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1 parent, subsidiary, or affiliate thereof;
2 (2) disclosure of all findings of a serious violation
3 or an equivalent violation under federal or state laws or
4 regulations in the development or operation of an oil or
5 gas exploration or production site via hydraulic
6 fracturing by the applicant or any parent, subsidiary, or
7 affiliate thereof within the previous 5 years; and
8 (3) proof of insurance to cover injuries, damages, or
9 loss related to pollution or diminution in the amount of at
10 least $5,000,000, from an insurance carrier authorized,
11 licensed, or permitted to do this insurance business in
12 this State that holds at least an A- rating by A.M. Best &
13 Co. or any comparable rating service.
14 A registrant must notify the Department of any change in
15the information identified in paragraphs (1), (2), or (3) of
16this subsection (a) at least annually or upon request of the
17Department.
18 (b) Every applicant for a permit under this Act must submit
19the following information to the Department on an application
20form provided by the Department:
21 (1) the name and address of the applicant and any
22 parent, subsidiary, or affiliate thereof;
23 (2) the proposed well name and address and legal
24 description of the well site and its unit area;
25 (3) a statement whether the proposed location of the
26 well site is in compliance with the requirements of Section

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1 1-25 of this Act and a plat, which shows the proposed
2 surface location of the well site, providing the distance
3 in feet, from the surface location of the well site to the
4 features described in subsection (a) of Section 1-25 of
5 this Act;
6 (4) a detailed description of the proposed well to be
7 used for the high volume horizontal hydraulic fracturing
8 operations including, but not limited to, the following
9 information:
10 (A) the approximate total depth to which the well
11 is to be drilled or deepened;
12 (B) the proposed angle and direction of the well;
13 (C) the actual depth or the approximate depth at
14 which the well to be drilled deviates from vertical;
15 (D) the angle and direction of any nonvertical
16 portion of the wellbore until the well reaches its
17 total target depth or its actual final depth; and
18 (E) the estimated length and direction of the
19 proposed horizontal lateral or wellbore;
20 (5) the estimated depth and elevation, according to the
21 most recent publication of the Illinois State Geological
22 Survey of Groundwater for the location of the well, of the
23 lowest potential fresh water along the entire length of the
24 proposed wellbore;
25 (6) a detailed description of the proposed high volume
26 horizontal hydraulic fracturing operations, including, but

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1 not limited to, the following:
2 (A) the formation affected by the high volume
3 horizontal hydraulic fracturing operations, including,
4 but not limited to, geologic name and geologic
5 description of the formation that will be stimulated by
6 the operation;
7 (B) the anticipated surface treating pressure
8 range;
9 (C) the maximum anticipated injection treating
10 pressure;
11 (D) the estimated or calculated fracture pressure
12 of the producing and confining zones; and
13 (E) the planned depth of all proposed perforations
14 or depth to the top of the open hole section;
15 (7) a plat showing all known previous wellbores well
16 bores within 750 feet of any part of the horizontal
17 wellbore well bore that penetrated within 400 vertical feet
18 of the formation that will be stimulated as part of the
19 high volume horizontal hydraulic fracturing operations;
20 (8) unless the applicant documents why the information
21 is not available at the time the application is submitted,
22 a chemical disclosure report identifying each chemical and
23 proppant anticipated to be used in hydraulic fracturing
24 fluid for each stage of the hydraulic fracturing operations
25 including the following:
26 (A) the total volume of water anticipated to be

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1 used in the hydraulic fracturing treatment of the well
2 or the type and total volume of the base fluid
3 anticipated to be used in the hydraulic fracturing
4 treatment, if something other than water;
5 (B) each hydraulic fracturing additive anticipated
6 to be used in the hydraulic fracturing fluid, including
7 the trade name, vendor, a brief descriptor of the
8 intended use or function of each hydraulic fracturing
9 additive, and the Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS), if
10 applicable;
11 (C) each chemical anticipated to be intentionally
12 added to the base fluid, including for each chemical,
13 the Chemical Abstracts Service number, if applicable;
14 and
15 (D) the anticipated concentration in the base
16 fluid, in percent by mass, of each chemical to be
17 intentionally added to the base fluid;
18 (9) a certification of compliance with the Water Use
19 Act of 1983 and applicable regional water supply plans;
20 (10) a fresh water withdrawal and management plan that
21 shall include the following information:
22 (A) the source of the water, such as surface or
23 groundwater, anticipated to be used for water
24 withdrawals, and the anticipated withdrawal location;
25 (B) the anticipated volume and rate of each water
26 withdrawal from each withdrawal location;

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1 (C) the anticipated months when water withdrawals
2 shall be made from each withdrawal location;
3 (D) the methods to be used to minimize water
4 withdrawals as much as feasible; and
5 (E) the methods to be used for surface water
6 withdrawals to minimize adverse impact to aquatic
7 life.
8 Where a surface water source is wholly contained within
9 a single property, and the owner of the property expressly
10 agrees in writing to its use for water withdrawals, the
11 applicant is not required to include this surface water
12 source in the fresh water withdrawal and management plan; .
13 (11) a plan for the handling, storage, transportation,
14 and disposal or reuse of hydraulic fracturing fluids and
15 hydraulic fracturing flowback. The plan shall identify the
16 specific Class II injection well or wells that will be used
17 to dispose of the hydraulic fracturing flowback. The plan
18 shall describe the capacity of the tanks to be used for the
19 capture and storage of flowback and of the lined reserve
20 pit to be used, if necessary, to temporarily store any
21 flowback in excess of the capacity of the tanks.
22 Identification of the Class II injection well or wells
23 shall be by name, identification number, and specific
24 location and shall include the date of the most recent
25 mechanical integrity test for each Class II injection well;
26 (12) a well site safety plan to address proper safety

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1 measures to be employed during high volume horizontal
2 hydraulic fracturing operations for the protection of
3 persons on the site as well as the general public. Within
4 15 calendar days after submitting the permit application to
5 the Department, the applicant must provide a copy of the
6 plan to the county or counties in which hydraulic
7 fracturing operations will occur. Within 5 calendar days of
8 its receipt, the Department shall provide a copy of the
9 well site safety plan to the Office of the State Fire
10 Marshal;
11 (13) a containment plan describing the containment
12 practices and equipment to be used and the area of the well
13 site where containment systems will be employed, and within
14 5 calendar days of its receipt, the Department shall
15 provide a copy of the containment plan to the Office of the
16 State Fire Marshal;
17 (14) a casing and cementing plan that describes the
18 casing and cementing practices to be employed, including
19 the size of each string of pipe, the starting point, and
20 depth to which each string is to be set and the extent to
21 which each string is to be cemented;
22 (15) a traffic management plan that identifies the
23 anticipated roads, streets, and highways that will be used
24 for access to and egress from the well site. The traffic
25 management plan will include a point of contact to discuss
26 issues related to traffic management. Within 15 calendar

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1 days after submitting the permit application to the
2 Department, the applicant must provide a copy of the
3 traffic management plan to the county or counties in which
4 the well site is located, and within 5 calendar days of its
5 receipt, the Department shall provide a copy of the traffic
6 management plan to the Office of the State Fire Marshal;
7 (16) the names and addresses of all owners of any real
8 property within 1,500 feet of the proposed well site, as
9 disclosed by the records in the office of the recorder of
10 the county or counties;
11 (17) drafts of the specific public notice and general
12 public notice as required by Section 1-40 of this Act;
13 (18) a statement that the well site at which the high
14 volume horizontal hydraulic fracturing operation will be
15 conducted will be restored in compliance with Section
16 240.1181 of Title 62 of the Illinois Administrative Code
17 and Section 1-95 of this Act;
18 (19) proof of insurance to cover injuries, damages, or
19 loss related to pollution in the amount of at least
20 $5,000,000; and
21 (20) any other relevant information which the
22 Department may, by rule, require.
23 (c) Where an application is made to conduct high volume
24horizontal fracturing operations at a well site located within
25the limits of any city, village, or incorporated town, the
26application shall state the name of the city, village, or

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1incorporated town and be accompanied with a certified copy of
2the official consent for the hydraulic fracturing operations to
3occur from the municipal authorities where the well site is
4proposed to be located. No permit shall be issued unless
5consent is secured and filed with the permit application. In
6the event that an amended location is selected, the original
7permit shall not be valid unless a new certified consent is
8filed for the amended location.
9 (d) The hydraulic fracturing permit application shall be
10accompanied by a bond as required by subsection (a) of Section
111-65 of this Act.
12 (e) Each application for a permit under this Act shall
13include payment of a non-refundable fee of $13,500. Of this
14fee, $11,000 shall be deposited into the Mines and Minerals
15Regulatory Fund for the Department to use to administer and
16enforce this Act and otherwise support the operations and
17programs of the Office of Mines and Minerals. The remaining
18$2,500 shall be deposited into the Illinois Clean Water Fund
19for the Agency to use to carry out its functions under this
20Act. The Department shall not initiate its review of the permit
21application until the applicable fee under this subsection (e)
22has been submitted to and received by the Department.
23 (f) Each application submitted under this Act shall be
24signed, under the penalty of perjury, by the applicant or the
25applicant's designee who has been vested with the authority to
26act on behalf of the applicant and has direct knowledge of the

09800SB2640ham001- 933 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1information contained in the application and its attachments.
2Any person signing an application shall also sign an affidavit
3with the following certification:
4 "I certify, under penalty of perjury as provided by law
5 and under penalty of refusal, suspension, or revocation of
6 a high volume horizontal hydraulic fracturing permit, that
7 this application and all attachments are true, accurate,
8 and complete to the best of my knowledge.".
9 (g) The permit application shall be submitted to the
10Department in both electronic and hard copy format. The
11electronic format shall be searchable.
12 (h) The application for a high volume horizontal hydraulic
13fracturing permit may be submitted as a combined permit
14application with the operator's application to drill on a form
15as the Department shall prescribe. The combined application
16must include the information required in this Section. If the
17operator elects to submit a combined permit application,
18information required by this Section that is duplicative of
19information required for an application to drill is only
20required to be provided once as part of the combined
21application. The submission of a combined permit application
22under this subsection shall not be interpreted to relieve the
23applicant or the Department from complying with the
24requirements of this Act or the Illinois Oil and Gas Act.
25 (i) Upon receipt of a permit application, the Department
26shall have no more than 60 calendar days from the date it

09800SB2640ham001- 934 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1receives the permit application to approve, with any conditions
2the Department may find necessary, or reject the application
3for the high volume horizontal hydraulic fracturing permit. The
4applicant may waive, in writing, the 60-day deadline upon its
5own initiative or in response to a request by the Department.
6 (j) If at any time during the review period the Department
7determines that the permit application is not complete under
8this Act, does not meet the requirements of this Section, or
9requires additional information, the Department shall notify
10the applicant in writing of the application's deficiencies and
11allow the applicant to correct the deficiencies and provide the
12Department any information requested to complete the
13application. If the applicant fails to provide adequate
14supplemental information within the review period, the
15Department may reject the application.
16(Source: P.A. 98-22, eff. 6-17-13; revised 11-12-13.)
17 (225 ILCS 732/1-60)
18 Sec. 1-60. High volume horizontal hydraulic fracturing
19permit; denial, suspension, or revocation.
20 (a) The Department may suspend, revoke, or refuse to issue
21a high volume horizontal hydraulic fracturing permit under this
22Act for one or more of the following causes:
23 (1) providing incorrect, misleading, incomplete, or
24 materially untrue information in a permit application or
25 any document required to be filed with the Department;

09800SB2640ham001- 935 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 (2) violating any condition of the permit;
2 (3) violating any provision of or any regulation
3 adopted under this Act or the Illinois Oil and Gas Act;
4 (4) using fraudulent, coercive, or dishonest
5 practices, or demonstrating incompetence,
6 untrustworthiness, or financial irresponsibility in the
7 conduct of business in this State or elsewhere;
8 (5) having a high volume horizontal hydraulic
9 fracturing permit, or its equivalent, revoked in any other
10 state, province, district, or territory for incurring a
11 material or major violation or using fraudulent or
12 dishonest practices; or
13 (6) an emergency condition exists under which conduct
14 of the high volume horizontal hydraulic fracturing
15 operations would pose a significant hazard to public
16 health, aquatic life, wildlife, or the environment.
17 (b) In every case in which a permit is suspended or
18revoked, the Department shall serve notice of its action,
19including a statement of the reasons for the action, either
20personally or by certified mail, receipt return requested, to
21the permittee.
22 (c) The order of suspension or revocation of a permit shall
23take effect upon issuance of the order. The permittee may
24request, in writing, within 30 days after the date of receiving
25the notice, a hearing. Except as provided under subsection (d)
26of this Section, in the event a hearing is requested, the order

09800SB2640ham001- 936 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1shall remain in effect until a final order is entered pursuant
2to the hearing.
3 (d) The order of suspension or revocation of a permit may
4be stayed if requested by the permittee and evidence is
5submitted demonstrating that there is no significant threat to
6the public health, aquatic life, wildlife, or the environment
7if the operation is allowed to continue.
8 (e) The hearing shall be held at a time and place
9designated by the Department. The Director of the Department or
10any administrative law judge designated by him or her has have
11the power to administer oaths and affirmations, subpoena
12witnesses and compel their attendance, take evidence, and
13require the production of books, papers, correspondence, and
14other records or information that he or she considers relevant
15or material.
16 (f) The costs of the administrative hearing shall be set by
17rule and shall be borne by the permittee.
18 (g) The Department's decision to suspend or revoke a high
19volume horizontal hydraulic fracturing permit is subject to
20judicial review under the Administrative Review Law.
21(Source: P.A. 98-22, eff. 6-17-13; revised 11-12-13.)
22 (225 ILCS 732/1-70)
23 Sec. 1-70. Well preparation, construction, and drilling.
24 (a) This Section shall apply to all horizontal wells that
25are to be completed using high volume horizontal hydraulic

09800SB2640ham001- 937 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1fracturing operations under a high volume horizontal hydraulic
2fracturing permit. The requirements of this Section shall be in
3addition to any other laws or rules regarding wells and well
4sites.
5 (b) Site preparation standards shall be as follows:
6 (1) The access road to the well site must be located in
7 accordance with access rights identified in the Illinois
8 Oil and Gas Act and located as far as practical from
9 occupied structures, places of assembly, and property
10 lines of unleased property.
11 (2) Unless otherwise approved or directed by the
12 Department, all topsoil stripped to facilitate the
13 construction of the well pad and access roads must be
14 stockpiled, stabilized, and remain on site for use in
15 either partial or final reclamation. In the event it is
16 anticipated that the final reclamation shall take place in
17 excess of one year from drilling the well the topsoil may
18 be disposed of in any lawful manner provided the operator
19 reclaims the site with topsoil of similar characteristics
20 of the topsoil removed.
21 (3) Piping, conveyances, valves, and tanks in contact
22 with hydraulic fracturing fluid, hydraulic fracturing
23 flowback, or produced water must be constructed of
24 materials compatible with the composition of the hydraulic
25 fracturing fluid, hydraulic fracturing flowback, and
26 produced water.

09800SB2640ham001- 938 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 (4) The improvement, construction, or repair of a
2 publicly owned highway or roadway, if undertaken by the
3 owner, operator, permittee, or any other private entity,
4 shall be performed using bidding procedures outlined in the
5 Illinois Department of Transportation rules governing
6 local roads and streets or applicable bidding requirements
7 outlined in the Illinois Procurement Code as though the
8 project were publicly funded.
9 (c) Site maintenance standards shall be as follows:
10 (1) Secondary containment is required for all fueling
11 tanks.
12 (2) Fueling tanks shall be subject to Section 1-25 of
13 this Act.
14 (3) Fueling tank filling operations shall be
15 supervised at the fueling truck and at the tank if the tank
16 is not visible to the fueling operator from the truck.
17 (4) Troughs, drip pads, or drip pans are required
18 beneath the fill port of a fueling tank during filling
19 operations if the fill port is not within the secondary
20 containment required by paragraph (1) of this subsection.
21 (d) All wells shall be constructed, and casing and
22cementing activities shall be conducted, in a manner that shall
23provide for control of the well at all times, prevent the
24migration of oil, gas, and other fluids into the fresh water
25and coal seams, and prevent pollution or diminution of fresh
26water. In addition to any of the Department's casing and

09800SB2640ham001- 939 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1cementing requirements, the following shall apply:
2 (1) All casings must conform to the current industry
3 standards published by the American Petroleum Institute.
4 (2) Casing thread compound and its use must conform to
5 the current industry standards published by the American
6 Petroleum Institute.
7 (3) Surface casing shall be centralized at the shoe,
8 above and below a stage collar or diverting tool, if run,
9 and through usable-quality water zones. In non-deviated
10 holes, pipe centralization as follows is required: a
11 centralizer shall be placed every fourth joint from the
12 cement shoe to the ground surface or to the bottom of the
13 cellar. All centralizers shall meet specifications in, or
14 equivalent to, API Spec spec 10D, Specification for
15 Bow-Spring Casing Centralizers; API Spec 10 TR4, Technical
16 Report on Considerations Regarding Selection of
17 Centralizers for Primary Cementing Operations; and API RP
18 10D-2, Recommended Practice for Centralizer Placement and
19 Stop Collar Testing. The Department may require additional
20 centralization as necessary to ensure the integrity of the
21 well design is adequate. All centralizers must conform to
22 the current industry standards published by the American
23 Petroleum Institute.
24 (4) Cement must conform to current industry standards
25 published by the American Petroleum Institute and the
26 cement slurry must be prepared to minimize its free water

09800SB2640ham001- 940 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 content in accordance with the current industry standards
2 published by the American Petroleum Institute; the cement
3 must also:
4 (A) secure the casing in the wellbore;
5 (B) isolate and protect fresh groundwater;
6 (C) isolate abnormally pressured zones, lost
7 circulation zones, and any potential flow zones
8 including hydrocarbon and fluid-bearing zones;
9 (D) properly control formation pressure and any
10 pressure from drilling, completion and production;
11 (E) protect the casing from corrosion and
12 degradation; and
13 (F) prevent gas flow in the annulus.
14 (5) Prior to cementing any casing string, the borehole
15 must be circulated and conditioned to ensure an adequate
16 cement bond.
17 (6) A pre-flush or spacer must be pumped ahead of the
18 cement.
19 (7) The cement must be pumped at a rate and in a flow
20 regime that inhibits channeling of the cement in the
21 annulus.
22 (8) Cement compressive strength tests must be
23 performed on all surface, intermediate, and production
24 casing strings; after the cement is placed behind the
25 casing, the operator shall wait on cement to set until the
26 cement achieves a calculated compressive strength of at

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1 least 500 pounds per square inch, and a minimum of 8 hours
2 before the casing is disturbed in any way, including
3 installation of a blowout preventer. The cement shall have
4 a 72-hour compressive strength of at least 1,200 psi, and
5 the free water separation shall be no more than 6
6 milliliters per 250 milliliters of cement, tested in
7 accordance with current American Petroleum petroleum
8 Institute standards.
9 (9) A copy of the cement job log for any cemented
10 casing string in the well shall be maintained in the well
11 file and available to the Department upon request.
12 (10) Surface casing shall be used and set to a depth of
13 at least 200 feet, or 100 feet below the base of the
14 deepest fresh water, whichever is deeper, but no more than
15 200 feet below the base of the deepest fresh water and
16 prior to encountering any hydrocarbon-bearing zones. The
17 surface casing must be run and cemented as soon as
18 practicable after the hole has been adequately circulated
19 and conditioned.
20 (11) The Department must be notified at least 24 hours
21 prior to surface casing cementing operations. Surface
22 casing must be fully cemented to the surface with excess
23 cements. Cementing must be by the pump and plug method with
24 a minimum of 25% excess cement with appropriate lost
25 circulation material, unless another amount of excess
26 cement is approved by the Department. If cement returns are

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1 not observed at the surface, the operator must perform
2 remedial actions as appropriate.
3 (12) Intermediate casing must be installed when
4 necessary to isolate fresh water not isolated by surface
5 casing and to seal off potential flow zones, anomalous
6 pressure zones, lost circulation zones and other drilling
7 hazards.
8 Intermediate casing must be set to protect fresh water
9 if surface casing was set above the base of the deepest
10 fresh water, if additional fresh water was found below the
11 surface casing shoe, or both. Intermediate casing used to
12 isolate fresh water must not be used as the production
13 string in the well in which it is installed, and may not be
14 perforated for purposes of conducting a hydraulic fracture
15 treatment through it.
16 When intermediate casing is installed to protect fresh
17 water, the operator shall set a full string of new
18 intermediate casing at least 100 feet below the base of the
19 deepest fresh water and bring cement to the surface. In
20 instances where intermediate casing was set solely to
21 protect fresh water encountered below the surface casing
22 shoe, and cementing to the surface is technically
23 infeasible, would result in lost circulation, or both,
24 cement must be brought to a minimum of 600 feet above the
25 shallowest fresh water zone encountered below the surface
26 casing shoe or to the surface if the fresh water zone is

09800SB2640ham001- 943 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 less than 600 feet from the surface. The location and
2 depths of any hydrocarbon-bearing zones or fresh water
3 zones that are open to the wellbore above the casing shoe
4 must be confirmed by coring, electric logs, or testing and
5 must be reported to the Department.
6 In the case that intermediate casing was set for a
7 reason other than to protect strata that contains fresh
8 water, the intermediate casing string shall be cemented
9 from the shoe to a point at least 600 true vertical feet
10 above the shoe. If there is a hydrocarbon-bearing
11 hydrocarbon bearing zone capable of producing exposed
12 above the intermediate casing shoe, the casing shall be
13 cemented from the shoe to a point at least 600 true
14 vertical feet above the shallowest hydrocarbon-bearing
15 hydrocarbon bearing zone or to a point at least 200 feet
16 above the shoe of the next shallower casing string that was
17 set and cemented in the well (or to the surface if less
18 than 200 feet).
19 (13) The Department must be notified prior to
20 intermediate casing cementing operations. Cementing must
21 be by the pump and plug method with a minimum of 25% excess
22 cement. A radial cement bond evaluation log, or other
23 evaluation approved by the Department, must be run to
24 verify the cement bond on the intermediate casing. Remedial
25 cementing is required if the cement bond is not adequate
26 for drilling ahead.

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1 (14) Production casing must be run and fully cemented
2 to 500 feet above the top perforated zone, if possible. The
3 Department must be notified at least 24 hours prior to
4 production casing cementing operations. Cementing must be
5 by the pump and plug method with a minimum of 25% excess
6 cement.
7 (15) At any time, the Department, as it deems
8 necessary, may require installation of an additional
9 cemented casing string or strings in the well.
10 (16) After the setting and cementing of a casing
11 string, except the conductor casing, and prior to further
12 drilling, the casing string shall be tested with fresh
13 water, mud, or brine to no less than 0.22 psi per foot of
14 casing string length or 1,500 psi, whichever is greater but
15 not to exceed 70% of the minimum internal yield, for at
16 least 30 minutes with less than a 5% pressure loss, except
17 that any casing string that will have pressure exerted on
18 it during stimulation of the well shall be tested to at
19 least the maximum anticipated treatment pressure. If the
20 pressure declines more than 5% or if there are other
21 indications of a leak, corrective action shall be taken
22 before conducting further drilling and high volume
23 horizontal hydraulic fracturing operations. The operator
24 shall contact the Department's District Office for any
25 county in which the well is located at least 24 hours prior
26 to conducting a pressure test to enable an inspector to be

09800SB2640ham001- 945 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 present when the test is done. A record of the pressure
2 test must be maintained by the operator and must be
3 submitted to the Department on a form prescribed by the
4 Department prior to conducting high volume horizontal
5 hydraulic fracturing operations. The actual pressure must
6 not exceed the test pressure at any time during high volume
7 horizontal hydraulic fracturing operations.
8 (17) Any hydraulic fracturing string used in the high
9 volume horizontal hydraulic fracturing operations must be
10 either strung into a production liner or run with a packer
11 set at least 100 feet below the deepest cement top and must
12 be tested to not less than the maximum anticipated treating
13 pressure minus the annulus pressure applied between the
14 fracturing string and the production or immediate casing.
15 The pressure test shall be considered successful if the
16 pressure applied has been held for 30 minutes with no more
17 than 5% pressure loss. A function-tested relief valve and
18 diversion line must be installed and used to divert flow
19 from the hydraulic fracturing string-casing annulus to a
20 covered watertight steel tank in case of hydraulic
21 fracturing string failure. The relief valve must be set to
22 limit the annular pressure to no more than 95% of the
23 working pressure rating of the casings forming the annulus.
24 The annulus between the hydraulic fracturing string and
25 casing must be pressurized to at least 250 psi and
26 monitored.

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1 (18) After a successful pressure test under paragraph
2 (16) of this subsection, a formation pressure integrity
3 test must be conducted below the surface casing and below
4 all intermediate casing. The operator shall notify the
5 Department's District Office for any county in which the
6 well is located at least 24 hours prior to conducting a
7 formation pressure integrity test to enable an inspector to
8 be present when the test is done. A record of the pressure
9 test must be maintained by the operator and must be
10 submitted to the Department on a form prescribed by the
11 Department prior to conducting high volume horizontal
12 hydraulic fracturing operations. The actual hydraulic
13 fracturing treatment pressure must not exceed the test
14 pressure at any time during high volume horizontal
15 hydraulic fracturing operations.
16 (e) Blowout prevention standards shall be set as follows:
17 (1) The operator shall use blowout prevention
18 equipment after setting casing with a competent casing
19 seat. Blowout prevention equipment shall be in good
20 working condition at all times.
21 (2) The operator shall use pipe fittings, valves,
22 and unions placed on or connected to the blow out
23 blow-out prevention systems that have a working
24 pressure capability that exceeds the anticipated
25 pressures.
26 (3) During all drilling and completion operations

09800SB2640ham001- 947 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 when a blowout preventer is installed, tested, or in
2 use, the operator or operator's designated
3 representative shall be present at the well site and
4 that person or personnel shall have a current well
5 control certification from an accredited training
6 program that is acceptable to the Department. The
7 certification shall be available at the well site and
8 provided to the Department upon request.
9 (4) Appropriate pressure control procedures and
10 equipment in proper working order must be properly
11 installed and employed while conducting drilling and
12 completion operations including tripping, logging,
13 running casing into the well, and drilling out
14 solid-core stage plugs.
15 (5) Pressure testing of the blowout preventer and
16 related equipment for any drilling or completion
17 operation must be performed. Testing must be conducted
18 in accordance with current industry standards
19 published by the American Petroleum Institute. Testing
20 of the blowout preventer shall include testing after
21 the blowout preventer is installed on the well but
22 prior to drilling below the last cemented casing seat.
23 Pressure control equipment, including the blowout
24 preventer, that fails any pressure test shall not be
25 used until it is repaired and passes the pressure test.
26 (6) A remote blowout preventer actuator, that is

09800SB2640ham001- 948 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 powered by a source other than rig hydraulics, shall be
2 located at least 50 feet from the wellhead and have an
3 appropriate rated working pressure.
4(Source: P.A. 98-22, eff. 6-17-13; revised 11-14-13.)
5 (225 ILCS 732/1-75)
6 Sec. 1-75. High volume horizontal hydraulic fracturing
7operations.
8 (a) General.
9 (1) During all phases of high volume horizontal
10 hydraulic fracturing operations, the permittee shall
11 comply with all terms of the permit.
12 (2) All phases of high volume horizontal hydraulic
13 fracturing operations shall be conducted in a manner that
14 shall not pose a significant risk to public health, life,
15 property, aquatic life, or wildlife.
16 (3) The permittee shall notify the Department by phone,
17 electronic communication, or letter, at least 48 hours
18 prior to the commencement of high volume horizontal
19 hydraulic fracturing operations.
20 (b) Integrity tests and monitoring.
21 (1) Before the commencement of high volume horizontal
22 hydraulic fracturing operations, all mechanical integrity
23 tests required under subsection (d) of Section 1-70 and
24 this subsection must be successfully completed.
25 (2) Prior to commencing high volume horizontal

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1 hydraulic fracturing operations and pumping of hydraulic
2 fracturing fluid, the injection lines and manifold,
3 associated valves, fracture head or tree and any other
4 wellhead component or connection not previously tested
5 must be tested with fresh water, mud, or brine to at least
6 the maximum anticipated treatment pressure for at least 30
7 minutes with less than a 5% pressure loss. A record of the
8 pressure test must be maintained by the operator and made
9 available to the Department upon request. The actual high
10 volume horizontal hydraulic fracturing treatment pressure
11 must not exceed the test pressure at any time during high
12 volume horizontal hydraulic fracturing operations.
13 (3) The pressure exerted on treating equipment
14 including valves, lines, manifolds, hydraulic fracturing
15 head or tree, casing and hydraulic fracturing string, if
16 used, must not exceed 95% of the working pressure rating of
17 the weakest component. The high volume horizontal
18 hydraulic fracturing treatment pressure must not exceed
19 the test pressure of any given component at any time during
20 high volume horizontal hydraulic fracturing operations.
21 (4) During high volume horizontal hydraulic fracturing
22 operations, all annulus pressures, the injection pressure,
23 and the rate of injection shall be continuously monitored
24 and recorded. The records of the monitoring shall be
25 maintained by the operator and shall be provided to the
26 Department upon request at any time during the period up to

09800SB2640ham001- 950 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 and including 5 years after the well is permanently plugged
2 or abandoned.
3 (5) High volume horizontal hydraulic fracturing
4 operations must be immediately suspended if any anomalous
5 pressure or flow condition or any other anticipated
6 pressure or flow condition is occurring in a way that
7 indicates the mechanical integrity of the well has been
8 compromised and continued operations pose a risk to the
9 environment. Remedial action shall be undertaken
10 immediately prior to recommencing high volume horizontal
11 hydraulic fracturing operations. The permittee shall
12 notify the Department within 1 hour of suspending
13 operations for any matters relating to the mechanical
14 integrity of the well or risk to the environment.
15 (c) Fluid and waste management.
16 (1) For the purposes of storage at the well site and
17 except as provided in paragraph (2) of this subsection,
18 hydraulic fracturing additives, hydraulic fracturing
19 fluid, hydraulic fracturing flowback, and produced water
20 shall be stored in above-ground tanks during all phases of
21 drilling, high volume horizontal hydraulic fracturing, and
22 production operations until removed for proper disposal.
23 For the purposes of centralized storage off site for
24 potential reuse prior to disposal, hydraulic fracturing
25 additives, hydraulic fracturing fluid, hydraulic
26 fracturing flowback, and produced water shall be stored in

09800SB2640ham001- 951 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 above-ground tanks.
2 (2) In accordance with the plan required by paragraph
3 (11) of subsection (b) of Section 1-35 of this Act and as
4 approved by the Department, the use of a reserve pit is
5 allowed for the temporary storage of hydraulic fracturing
6 flowback. The reserve pit shall be used only in the event
7 of a lack of capacity for tank storage due to higher than
8 expected volume or rate of hydraulic fracturing flowback,
9 or other unanticipated flowback occurrence. Any reserve
10 pit must comply with the following construction standards
11 and liner specifications:
12 (A) the synthetic liner material shall have a
13 minimum thickness of 24 mils with high puncture and
14 tear strength and be impervious and resistant to
15 deterioration;
16 (B) the pit lining system shall be designed to have
17 a capacity at least equivalent to 110% of the maximum
18 volume of hydraulic fracturing flowback anticipated to
19 be recovered;
20 (C) the lined pit shall be constructed, installed,
21 and maintained in accordance with the manufacturers'
22 specifications and good engineering practices to
23 prevent overflow during any use;
24 (D) the liner shall have sufficient elongation to
25 cover the bottom and interior sides of the pit with the
26 edges secured with at least a 12 inch deep anchor

09800SB2640ham001- 952 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 trench around the pit perimeter to prevent any slippage
2 or destruction of the liner materials; and
3 (E) the foundation for the liner shall be free of
4 rock and constructed with soil having a minimum
5 thickness of 12 inches after compaction covering the
6 entire bottom and interior sides of the pit.
7 (3) Fresh water may be stored in tanks or pits at the
8 election of the operator.
9 (4) Tanks required under this subsection must be
10 above-ground tanks that are closed, watertight, and will
11 resist corrosion. The permittee shall routinely inspect
12 the tanks for corrosion.
13 (5) Hydraulic fracturing fluids and hydraulic
14 fracturing flowback must be removed from the well site
15 within 60 days after completion of high volume horizontal
16 fracturing operations, except that any excess hydraulic
17 fracturing flowback captured for temporary storage in a
18 reserve pit as provided in paragraph (2) of this subsection
19 must be removed from the well site within 7 days.
20 (6) Tanks, piping, and conveyances, including valves,
21 must be constructed of suitable materials, be of sufficient
22 pressure rating, be able to resist corrosion, and be
23 maintained in a leak-free condition. Fluid transfer
24 operations from tanks to tanker trucks must be supervised
25 at the truck and at the tank if the tank is not visible to
26 the truck operator from the truck. During transfer

09800SB2640ham001- 953 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 operations, all interconnecting piping must be supervised
2 if not visible to transfer personnel at the truck and tank.
3 (7) Hydraulic fracturing flowback must be tested for
4 volatile organic chemicals, semi-volatile organic
5 chemicals, inorganic chemicals, heavy metals, and
6 naturally occurring radioactive material prior to removal
7 from the site. Testing shall occur once per well site and
8 the analytical results shall be filed with the Department
9 and the Agency, and provided to the liquid oilfield waste
10 transportation and disposal operators. Prior to plugging
11 and site restoration, the ground adjacent to the storage
12 tanks and any hydraulic fracturing flowback reserve pit
13 must be measured for radioactivity.
14 (8) Hydraulic fracturing flowback may only be disposed
15 of by injection into a Class II injection well that is
16 below interface between fresh water and naturally
17 occurring Class IV groundwater. Produced water may be
18 disposed of by injection in a permitted enhanced oil
19 recovery operation. Hydraulic fracturing flowback and
20 produced water may be treated and recycled for use in
21 hydraulic fracturing fluid for high volume horizontal
22 hydraulic fracturing operations.
23 (9) Discharge of hydraulic fracturing fluids,
24 hydraulic fracturing flowback, and produced water into any
25 surface water or water drainage way is prohibited.
26 (10) Transport of all hydraulic fracturing fluids,

09800SB2640ham001- 954 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 hydraulic fracturing flowback, and produced water by
2 vehicle for disposal must be undertaken by a liquid
3 oilfield waste hauler permitted by the Department under
4 Section 8c of the Illinois Oil and Gas Act. The liquid
5 oilfield waste hauler transporting hydraulic fracturing
6 fluids, hydraulic fracturing flowback, or produced water
7 under this Act shall comply with all laws, rules, and
8 regulations concerning liquid oilfield waste.
9 (11) Drill cuttings, drilling fluids, and drilling
10 wastes not containing oil-based mud or polymer-based mud
11 may be stored in tanks or pits. Pits used to store
12 cuttings, fluids, and drilling wastes from wells not using
13 fresh water mud shall be subject to the construction
14 standards identified in paragraph (2) of this subsection
15 (c) Section. Drill cuttings not contaminated with
16 oil-based mud or polymer-based mud may be disposed of
17 onsite subject to the approval of the Department. Drill
18 cuttings contaminated with oil-based mud or polymer-based
19 mud shall not be disposed of onsite on site. Annular
20 disposal of drill cuttings or fluid is prohibited.
21 (12) Any release of hydraulic fracturing fluid,
22 hydraulic fracturing additive, or hydraulic fracturing
23 flowback, used or generated during or after high volume
24 horizontal hydraulic fracturing operations shall be
25 immediately cleaned up and remediated pursuant to
26 Department requirements. Any release of hydraulic

09800SB2640ham001- 955 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 fracturing fluid or hydraulic fracturing flowback in
2 excess of 1 barrel, shall be reported to the Department.
3 Any release of a hydraulic fracturing additive shall be
4 reported to the Department in accordance with the
5 appropriate reportable quantity thresholds established
6 under the federal Emergency Planning and Community
7 Right-to-Know Act as published in the Code of Federal
8 Regulations (CFR), 40 CFR Parts 355, 370, and 372, the
9 federal Comprehensive Environmental Response,
10 Compensation, and Liability Act as published in 40 CFR Part
11 302, and subsection (r) of Section 112 of the federal
12 Federal Clean Air Act as published in 40 CFR Part 68. Any
13 release of produced water in excess of 5 barrels shall be
14 cleaned up, remediated, and reported pursuant to
15 Department requirements.
16 (13) Secondary containment for tanks required under
17 this subsection and additive staging areas is required.
18 Secondary containment measures may include, as deemed
19 appropriate by the Department, one or a combination of the
20 following: dikes, liners, pads, impoundments, curbs,
21 sumps, or other structures or equipment capable of
22 containing the substance. Any secondary containment must
23 be sufficient to contain 110% of the total capacity of the
24 single largest container or tank within a common
25 containment area. No more than one hour before initiating
26 any stage of the high volume horizontal hydraulic

09800SB2640ham001- 956 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 fracturing operations, all secondary containment must be
2 visually inspected to ensure all structures and equipment
3 are in place and in proper working order. The results of
4 this inspection must be recorded and documented by the
5 operator, and available to the Department upon request.
6 (14) A report on the transportation and disposal of the
7 hydraulic fracturing fluids and hydraulic fracturing
8 flowback shall be prepared and included in the well file.
9 The report must include the amount of fluids transported,
10 identification of the company that transported the fluids,
11 the destination of the fluids, and the method of disposal.
12 (15) Operators operating wells permitted under this
13 Act must submit an annual report to the Department
14 detailing the management of any produced water associated
15 with the permitted well. The report shall be due to the
16 Department no later than April 30th of each year and shall
17 provide information on the operator's management of any
18 produced water for the prior calendar year. The report
19 shall contain information relative to the amount of
20 produced water the well permitted under this Act produced,
21 the method by which the produced water was disposed, and
22 the destination where the produced water was disposed in
23 addition to any other information the Department
24 determines is necessary by rule.
25 (d) Hydraulic fracturing fluid shall be confined to the
26targeted formation designated in the permit. If the hydraulic

09800SB2640ham001- 957 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1fracturing fluid or hydraulic fracturing flowback are
2migrating into the freshwater zone or to the surface from the
3well in question or from other wells, the permittee shall
4immediately notify the Department and shut in the well until
5remedial action that prevents the fluid migration is completed.
6The permittee shall obtain the approval of the Department prior
7to resuming operations.
8 (e) Emissions controls.
9 (1) This subsection applies to all horizontal wells
10 that are completed with high volume horizontal hydraulic
11 fracturing.
12 (2) Except as otherwise provided in paragraph (8) of
13 this subsection (e), permittees shall be responsible for
14 managing gas and hydrocarbon fluids produced during the
15 flowback period by routing recovered hydrocarbon fluids to
16 one or more storage vessels or re-injecting into the well
17 or another well, and routing recovered natural gas into a
18 flow line or collection system, re-injecting the gas into
19 the well or another well, using the gas as an on-site fuel
20 source, or using the gas for another useful purpose that a
21 purchased fuel or raw material would serve, with no direct
22 release to the atmosphere.
23 (3) If it is technically infeasible or economically
24 unreasonable to minimize emissions associated with the
25 venting of hydrocarbon fluids and natural gas during the
26 flowback period using the methods specified in paragraph

09800SB2640ham001- 958 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 (2) of this subsection (e), the permittee shall capture and
2 direct the emissions to a completion combustion device,
3 except in conditions that may result in a fire hazard or
4 explosion, or where high heat emissions from a completion
5 combustion device may negatively impact waterways.
6 Completion combustion devices must be equipped with a
7 reliable continuous ignition source over the duration of
8 the flowback period.
9 (4) Except as otherwise provided in paragraph (8) of
10 this subsection (e), permittees shall be responsible for
11 minimizing the emissions associated with venting of
12 hydrocarbon fluids and natural gas during the production
13 phase by:
14 (A) routing the recovered fluids into storage
15 vessels and (i) routing the recovered gas into a gas
16 gathering line, collection system, or to a generator
17 for onsite energy generation, providing that gas to the
18 surface owner of the well site for use for heat or
19 energy generation, or (ii) using another method other
20 than venting or flaring; and
21 (B) employing sand traps, surge vessels,
22 separators, and tanks as soon as practicable during
23 cleanout operations to safely maximize resource
24 recovery and minimize releases to the environment.
25 (5) If the permittee establishes that it is technically
26 infeasible or economically unreasonable to minimize

09800SB2640ham001- 959 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 emissions associated with the venting of hydrocarbon
2 fluids and natural gas during production using the methods
3 specified in paragraph (4) of this subsection (e), the
4 Department shall require the permittee to capture and
5 direct any natural gas produced during the production phase
6 to a flare. Any flare used pursuant to this paragraph shall
7 be equipped with a reliable continuous ignition source over
8 the duration of production. In order to establish technical
9 infeasibility or economic unreasonableness under this
10 paragraph (5), the permittee must demonstrate, for each
11 well site on an annual basis, that taking the actions
12 listed in paragraph (4) of this subsection (e) are not cost
13 effective based on a site-specific analysis. Permittees
14 that use a flare during the production phase for operations
15 other than emergency conditions shall file an updated
16 site-specific analysis annually with the Department. The
17 analysis shall be due one year from the date of the
18 previous submission and shall detail whether any changes
19 have occurred that alter the technical infeasibility or
20 economic unreasonableness of the permittee to reduce their
21 emissions in accordance with paragraph (4) of this
22 subsection (e).
23 (6) Uncontrolled emissions exceeding 6 tons per year
24 from storage tanks shall be recovered and routed to a flare
25 that is designed in accordance with 40 CFR 60.18 and is
26 certified by the manufacturer of the device. The permittee

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1 shall maintain and operate the flare in accordance with
2 manufacturer specifications. Any flare used under this
3 paragraph must be equipped with a reliable continuous
4 ignition source over the duration of production.
5 (7) The Department may approve an exemption that waives
6 the flaring requirements of paragraphs (5) and (6) of this
7 subsection (e) only if the permittee demonstrates that the
8 use of the flare will pose a significant risk of injury or
9 property damage and that alternative methods of collection
10 will not threaten harm to the environment. In determining
11 whether to approve a waiver, the Department shall consider
12 the quantity of casinghead gas produced, the topographical
13 and climatological features at the well site, and the
14 proximity of agricultural structures, crops, inhabited
15 structures, public buildings, and public roads and
16 railways.
17 (8) For each wildcat well, delineation well, or low
18 pressure well, permittees shall be responsible for
19 minimizing the emissions associated with venting of
20 hydrocarbon fluids and natural gas during the flowback
21 period and production phase by capturing and directing the
22 emissions to a completion combustion device during the
23 flowback period and to a flare during the production phase,
24 except in conditions that may result in a fire hazard or
25 explosion, or where high heat emissions from a completion
26 combustion device or flare may negatively impact

09800SB2640ham001- 961 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 waterways. Completion combustion devices and flares shall
2 be equipped with a reliable continuous ignition source over
3 the duration of the flowback period and the production
4 phase, as applicable.
5 (9) On or after July 1, 2015, all flares used under
6 paragraphs (5) and (8) of this subsection (e) shall (i)
7 operate with a combustion efficiency of at least 98% and in
8 accordance with 40 CFR 60.18; and (ii) be certified by the
9 manufacturer of the device. The permittee shall maintain
10 and operate the flare in accordance with manufacturer
11 specifications.
12 (10) Permittees shall employ practices for control of
13 fugitive dust related to their operations. These practices
14 shall include, but are not limited to, the use of speed
15 restrictions, regular road maintenance, and restriction of
16 construction activity during high-wind days. Additional
17 management practices such as road surfacing, wind breaks
18 and barriers, or automation of wells to reduce truck
19 traffic may also be required by the Department if
20 technologically feasible and economically reasonable to
21 minimize fugitive dust emissions.
22 (11) Permittees shall record and report to the
23 Department on an annual basis the amount of gas flared or
24 vented from each high volume horizontal hydraulic
25 fracturing well. Three years after the effective date of
26 the first high volume high-volume horizontal hydraulic

09800SB2640ham001- 962 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 fracturing well permit issued by the Department, and every
2 3 years thereafter, the Department shall prepare a report
3 that analyzes the amount of gas that has been flared or
4 vented and make recommendations to the General Assembly on
5 whether steps should be taken to reduce the amount of gas
6 that is being flared or vented in this State.
7 (f) High volume horizontal hydraulic fracturing operations
8completion report. Within 60 calendar days after the conclusion
9of high volume horizontal hydraulic fracturing operations, the
10operator shall file a high volume horizontal hydraulic
11fracturing operations completion report with the Department. A
12copy of each completion report submitted to the Department
13shall be provided by the Department to the Illinois State
14Geological Survey. The completion reports required by this
15Section shall be considered public information and shall be
16made available on the Department's website. The high volume
17horizontal hydraulic fracturing operations completion report
18shall contain the following information:
19 (1) the permittee name as listed in the permit
20 application;
21 (2) the dates of the high volume horizontal hydraulic
22 fracturing operations;
23 (3) the county where the well is located;
24 (4) the well name and Department reference number;
25 (5) the total water volume used in the high volume
26 horizontal hydraulic fracturing operations of the well,

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1 and the type and total volume of the base fluid used if
2 something other than water;
3 (6) each source from which the water used in the high
4 volume horizontal hydraulic fracturing operations was
5 drawn, and the specific location of each source, including,
6 but not limited to, the name of the county and latitude and
7 longitude coordinates;
8 (7) the quantity of hydraulic fracturing flowback
9 recovered from the well;
10 (8) a description of how hydraulic fracturing flowback
11 recovered from the well was disposed and, if applicable,
12 reused;
13 (9) a chemical disclosure report identifying each
14 chemical and proppant used in hydraulic fracturing fluid
15 for each stage of the hydraulic fracturing operations
16 including the following:
17 (A) the total volume of water used in the hydraulic
18 fracturing treatment of the well or the type and total
19 volume of the base fluid used in the hydraulic
20 fracturing treatment, if something other than water;
21 (B) each hydraulic fracturing additive used in the
22 hydraulic fracturing fluid, including the trade name,
23 vendor, a brief descriptor of the intended use or
24 function of each hydraulic fracturing additive, and
25 the Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS), if applicable;
26 (C) each chemical intentionally added to the base

09800SB2640ham001- 964 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 fluid, including for each chemical, the Chemical
2 Abstracts Service number, if applicable; and
3 (D) the actual concentration in the base fluid, in
4 percent by mass, of each chemical intentionally added
5 to the base fluid;
6 (10) all pressures recorded during the high volume
7 horizontal hydraulic fracturing operations; and
8 (11) any other reasonable or pertinent information
9 related to the conduct of the high volume horizontal
10 hydraulic fracturing operations the Department may request
11 or require by administrative rule.
12(Source: P.A. 98-22, eff. 6-17-13; revised 11-12-13.)
13 (225 ILCS 732/1-95)
14 Sec. 1-95. Plugging; restoration.
15 (a) The permittee shall perform and complete plugging of
16the well and restoration of the well site in accordance with
17the Illinois Oil and Gas Act and any and all rules adopted
18thereunder. The permittee shall bear all costs related to
19plugging of the well and reclamation of the well site. If the
20permittee fails to plug the well in accordance with this
21Section, the owner of the well shall be responsible for
22complying with this Section.
23 (b) Prior to conducting high volume horizontal hydraulic
24fracturing operations at a well site, the permittee shall cause
25to be plugged all previously unplugged wellbores well bores

09800SB2640ham001- 965 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1within 750 feet of any part of the horizontal wellbore well
2bore that penetrated within 400 vertical feet of the formation
3that will be stimulated as part of the high volume horizontal
4hydraulic fracturing operations.
5 (c) For well sites where high volume horizontal hydraulic
6fracturing operations were permitted to occur, the operator
7shall restore any lands used by the operator other than the
8well site and production facility to a condition as closely
9approximating the pre-drilling conditions that existed before
10the land was disturbed for any stage of site preparation
11activities, drilling, and high volume horizontal hydraulic
12fracturing operations. Restoration shall be commenced within 6
13months of completion of the well site and completed within 12
14months. Restoration shall include, but is not limited to,
15repair of tile lines, repair of fences and barriers, mitigation
16of soil compaction and rutting, application of fertilizer or
17lime to restore the fertility of disturbed soil, and repair of
18soil conservation practices such as terraces and grassed
19waterways.
20 (d) Unless contractually agreed to the contrary by the
21permittee and surface owner, the permittee shall restore the
22well site and production facility in accordance with the
23applicable restoration requirements in subsection (c) of this
24Section and shall remove all equipment and materials involved
25in site preparation, drilling, and high volume horizontal
26hydraulic fracturing operations, including tank batteries,

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1rock and concrete pads, oilfield oil field debris, injection
2and flow lines at or above the surface, electric power lines
3and poles extending on or above the surface, tanks, fluids,
4pipes at or above the surface, secondary containment measures,
5rock or concrete bases, drilling equipment and supplies, and
6any and all other equipment, facilities, or materials used
7during any stage of site preparation work, drilling, or
8hydraulic fracturing operations at the well site. Work on the
9removal of equipment and materials at the well site shall begin
10within 6 months after plugging the final well on the well site
11and be completed no later than 12 months after the last
12producing well on the well site has been plugged. Roads
13installed as part of the oil and gas operation may be left in
14place if provided in the lease or pursuant to agreement with
15the surface owner, as applicable.
16(Source: P.A. 98-22, eff. 6-17-13; revised 11-12-13.)
17 Section 520. The Riverboat Gambling Act is amended by
18changing Section 8 as follows:
19 (230 ILCS 10/8) (from Ch. 120, par. 2408)
20 Sec. 8. Suppliers licenses.
21 (a) The Board may issue a suppliers license to such
22persons, firms or corporations which apply therefor upon the
23payment of a non-refundable application fee set by the Board,
24upon a determination by the Board that the applicant is

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1eligible for a suppliers license and upon payment of a $5,000
2annual license fee.
3 (b) The holder of a suppliers license is authorized to sell
4or lease, and to contract to sell or lease, gambling equipment
5and supplies to any licensee involved in the ownership or
6management of gambling operations.
7 (c) Gambling supplies and equipment may not be distributed
8unless supplies and equipment conform to standards adopted by
9rules of the Board.
10 (d) A person, firm or corporation is ineligible to receive
11a suppliers license if:
12 (1) the person has been convicted of a felony under the
13 laws of this State, any other state, or the United States;
14 (2) the person has been convicted of any violation of
15 Article 28 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal
16 Code of 2012, or substantially similar laws of any other
17 jurisdiction;
18 (3) the person has submitted an application for a
19 license under this Act which contains false information;
20 (4) the person is a member of the Board;
21 (5) the firm or corporation is one in which a person
22 defined in (1), (2), (3) or (4), is an officer, director or
23 managerial employee;
24 (6) the firm or corporation employs a person who
25 participates in the management or operation of riverboat
26 gambling authorized under this Act;

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1 (7) the license of the person, firm or corporation
2 issued under this Act, or a license to own or operate
3 gambling facilities in any other jurisdiction, has been
4 revoked.
5 (e) Any person that supplies any equipment, devices, or
6supplies to a licensed riverboat gambling operation must first
7obtain a suppliers license. A supplier shall furnish to the
8Board a list of all equipment, devices and supplies offered for
9sale or lease in connection with gambling games authorized
10under this Act. A supplier shall keep books and records for the
11furnishing of equipment, devices and supplies to gambling
12operations separate and distinct from any other business that
13the supplier might operate. A supplier shall file a quarterly
14return with the Board listing all sales and leases. A supplier
15shall permanently affix its name or a distinctive logo or other
16mark or design element identifying the manufacturer or supplier
17to all its equipment, devices, and supplies, except gaming
18chips without a value impressed, engraved, or imprinted on it,
19for gambling operations. The Board may waive this requirement
20for any specific product or products if it determines that the
21requirement is not necessary to protect the integrity of the
22game. Items purchased from a licensed supplier may continue to
23be used even though the supplier subsequently changes its name,
24distinctive logo, or other mark or design element; undergoes a
25change in ownership; or ceases to be licensed as a supplier for
26any reason. Any supplier's equipment, devices or supplies which

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1are used by any person in an unauthorized gambling operation
2shall be forfeited to the State. A licensed owner may own its
3own equipment, devices and supplies. Each holder of an owners
4license under the Act shall file an annual report listing its
5inventories of gambling equipment, devices and supplies.
6 (f) Any person who knowingly makes a false statement on an
7application is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.
8 (g) Any gambling equipment, devices and supplies provided
9by any licensed supplier may either be repaired on the
10riverboat or removed from the riverboat to an on-shore facility
11owned by the holder of an owners license for repair.
12(Source: P.A. 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13; 98-12, eff. 5-10-13;
13revised 6-10-13.)
14 Section 525. The Raffles Act is amended by changing Section
158.1 as follows:
16 (230 ILCS 15/8.1) (from Ch. 85, par. 2308.1)
17 Sec. 8.1. (a) Political Committees.
18 (a) For the purposes of this Section the terms defined in
19this subsection have the meanings given them.
20 "Net Proceeds" means the gross receipts from the conduct of
21raffles, less reasonable sums expended for prizes, license fees
22and other reasonable operating expenses incurred as a result of
23operating a raffle.
24 "Raffle" means a form of lottery, as defined in Section

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128-2 (b) of the Criminal Code of 2012, conducted by a political
2committee licensed under this Section, in which:
3 (1) the player pays or agrees to pay something of value
4 for a chance, represented and differentiated by a number or
5 by a combination of numbers or by some other medium, one or
6 more of which chances is to be designated the winning
7 chance;
8 (2) the winning chance is to be determined through a
9 drawing or by some other method based on an element of
10 chance by an act or set of acts on the part of persons
11 conducting or connected with the lottery, except that the
12 winning chance shall not be determined by the outcome of a
13 publicly exhibited sporting contest.
14 "Unresolved claim" means a claim for civil penalty under
15Sections 9-3, 9-10, and 9-23 of The Election Code which has
16been begun by the State Board of Elections, has been disputed
17by the political committee under the applicable rules of the
18State Board of Elections, and has not been finally decided
19either by the State Board of Elections, or, where application
20for review has been made to the Courts of Illinois, remains
21finally undecided by the Courts.
22 "Owes" means that a political committee has been finally
23determined under applicable rules of the State Board of
24Elections to be liable for a civil penalty under Sections 9-3,
259-10, and 9-23 of The Election Code.
26 (b) Licenses issued pursuant to this Section shall be valid

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1for one raffle or for a specified number of raffles to be
2conducted during a specified period not to exceed one year and
3may be suspended or revoked for any violation of this Section.
4The State Board of Elections shall act on a license application
5within 30 days from the date of application.
6 (c) Licenses issued by the State Board of Elections are
7subject to the following restrictions:
8 (1) No political committee shall conduct raffles or
9 chances without having first obtained a license therefor
10 pursuant to this Section.
11 (2) The application for license shall be prepared in
12 accordance with regulations of the State Board of Elections
13 and must specify the area or areas within the State in
14 which raffle chances will be sold or issued, the time
15 period during which raffle chances will be sold or issued,
16 the time of determination of winning chances and the
17 location or locations at which winning chances will be
18 determined.
19 (3) A license authorizes the licensee to conduct
20 raffles as defined in this Section.
21 The following are ineligible for any license under this
22Section:
23 (i) any political committee which has an officer
24 who has been convicted of a felony;
25 (ii) any political committee which has an officer
26 who is or has been a professional gambler or gambling

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1 promoter;
2 (iii) any political committee which has an officer
3 who is not of good moral character;
4 (iv) any political committee which has an officer
5 who is also an officer of a firm or corporation in
6 which a person defined in (i), (ii) or (iii) has a
7 proprietary, equitable or credit interest, or in which
8 such a person is active or employed;
9 (v) any political committee in which a person
10 defined in (i), (ii) or (iii) is an officer, director,
11 or employee, whether compensated or not;
12 (vi) any political committee in which a person
13 defined in (i), (ii) or (iii) is to participate in the
14 management or operation of a raffle as defined in this
15 Section;
16 (vii) any committee which, at the time of its
17 application for a license to conduct a raffle, owes the
18 State Board of Elections any unpaid civil penalty
19 authorized by Sections 9-3, 9-10, and 9-23 of The
20 Election Code, or is the subject of an unresolved claim
21 for a civil penalty under Sections 9-3, 9-10, and 9-23
22 of The Election Code;
23 (viii) any political committee which, at the time
24 of its application to conduct a raffle, has not
25 submitted any report or document required to be filed
26 by Article 9 of The Election Code and such report or

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1 document is more than 10 days overdue.
2 (d) (1) The conducting of raffles is subject to the
3 following restrictions:
4 (i) The entire net proceeds of any raffle must be
5 exclusively devoted to the lawful purposes of the
6 political committee permitted to conduct that game.
7 (ii) No person except a bona fide member of the
8 political committee may participate in the management
9 or operation of the raffle.
10 (iii) No person may receive any remuneration or
11 profit for participating in the management or
12 operation of the raffle.
13 (iv) Raffle chances may be sold or issued only
14 within the area specified on the license and winning
15 chances may be determined only at those locations
16 specified on the license.
17 (v) A person under the age of 18 years may
18 participate in the conducting of raffles or chances
19 only with the permission of a parent or guardian. A
20 person under the age of 18 years may be within the area
21 where winning chances are being determined only when
22 accompanied by his parent or guardian.
23 (2) If a lessor rents premises where a winning chance
24 or chances on a raffle are determined, the lessor shall not
25 be criminally liable if the person who uses the premises
26 for the determining of winning chances does not hold a

09800SB2640ham001- 974 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 license issued under the provisions of this Section.
2 (e) (1) Each political committee licensed to conduct
3 raffles and chances shall keep records of its gross
4 receipts, expenses and net proceeds for each single
5 gathering or occasion at which winning chances are
6 determined. All deductions from gross receipts for each
7 single gathering or occasion shall be documented with
8 receipts or other records indicating the amount, a
9 description of the purchased item or service or other
10 reason for the deduction, and the recipient. The
11 distribution of net proceeds shall be itemized as to payee,
12 purpose, amount and date of payment.
13 (2) Each political committee licensed to conduct
14 raffles shall report on the next report due to be filed
15 under Article 9 of The Election Code its gross receipts,
16 expenses and net proceeds from raffles, and the
17 distribution of net proceeds itemized as required in this
18 subsection.
19 Such reports shall be included in the regular reports
20required of political committees by Article 9 of The Election
21Code.
22 (3) Records required by this subsection shall be
23 preserved for 3 years, and political committees shall make
24 available their records relating to operation of raffles
25 for public inspection at reasonable times and places.
26 (f) Violation of any provision of this Section is a Class C

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1misdemeanor.
2 (g) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to authorize
3the conducting or operating of any gambling scheme, enterprise,
4activity or device other than raffles as provided for herein.
5(Source: P.A. 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13; revised 11-12-13.)
6 Section 530. The Video Gaming Act is amended by changing
7Sections 5, 15, 25, and 45 as follows:
8 (230 ILCS 40/5)
9 Sec. 5. Definitions. As used in this Act:
10 "Board" means the Illinois Gaming Board.
11 "Credit" means one, 5, 10, or 25 cents either won or
12purchased by a player.
13 "Distributor" means an individual, partnership,
14corporation, or limited liability company licensed under this
15Act to buy, sell, lease, or distribute video gaming terminals
16or major components or parts of video gaming terminals to or
17from terminal operators.
18 "Electronic card" means a card purchased from a licensed
19establishment, licensed fraternal establishment, licensed
20veterans establishment, or licensed truck stop establishment
21for use in that establishment as a substitute for cash in the
22conduct of gaming on a video gaming terminal.
23 "Electronic voucher" means a voucher printed by an
24electronic video game machine that is redeemable in the

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1licensed establishment for which it was issued.
2 "Terminal operator" means an individual, partnership,
3corporation, or limited liability company that is licensed
4under this Act and that owns, services, and maintains video
5gaming terminals for placement in licensed establishments,
6licensed truck stop establishments, licensed fraternal
7establishments, or licensed veterans establishments.
8 "Licensed technician" means an individual who is licensed
9under this Act to repair, service, and maintain video gaming
10terminals.
11 "Licensed terminal handler" means a person, including but
12not limited to an employee or independent contractor working
13for a manufacturer, distributor, supplier, technician, or
14terminal operator, who is licensed under this Act to possess or
15control a video gaming terminal or to have access to the inner
16workings of a video gaming terminal. A licensed terminal
17handler does not include an individual, partnership,
18corporation, or limited liability company defined as a
19manufacturer, distributor, supplier, technician, or terminal
20operator under this Act.
21 "Manufacturer" means an individual, partnership,
22corporation, or limited liability company that is licensed
23under this Act and that manufactures or assembles video gaming
24terminals.
25 "Supplier" means an individual, partnership, corporation,
26or limited liability company that is licensed under this Act to

09800SB2640ham001- 977 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1supply major components or parts to video gaming terminals to
2licensed terminal operators.
3 "Net terminal income" means money put into a video gaming
4terminal minus credits paid out to players.
5 "Video gaming terminal" means any electronic video game
6machine that, upon insertion of cash, electronic cards or
7vouchers, or any combination thereof, electronic voucher, or
8any combination thereof, is available to play or simulate the
9play of a video game, including but not limited to video poker,
10line up, and blackjack, as authorized by the Board utilizing a
11video display and microprocessors in which the player may
12receive free games or credits that can be redeemed for cash.
13The term does not include a machine that directly dispenses
14coins, cash, or tokens or is for amusement purposes only.
15 "Licensed establishment" means any licensed retail
16establishment where alcoholic liquor is drawn, poured, mixed,
17or otherwise served for consumption on the premises, whether
18the establishment operates on a nonprofit or for-profit basis.
19"Licensed establishment" includes any such establishment that
20has a contractual relationship with an inter-track wagering
21location licensee licensed under the Illinois Horse Racing Act
22of 1975, provided any contractual relationship shall not
23include any transfer or offer of revenue from the operation of
24video gaming under this Act to any licensee licensed under the
25Illinois Horse Racing Act of 1975. Provided, however, that the
26licensed establishment that has such a contractual

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1relationship with an inter-track wagering location licensee
2may not, itself, be (i) an inter-track wagering location
3licensee, (ii) the corporate parent or subsidiary of any
4licensee licensed under the Illinois Horse Racing Act of 1975,
5or (iii) the corporate subsidiary of a corporation that is also
6the corporate parent or subsidiary of any licensee licensed
7under the Illinois Horse Racing Act of 1975. "Licensed
8establishment" does not include a facility operated by an
9organization licensee, an inter-track wagering licensee, or an
10inter-track wagering location licensee licensed under the
11Illinois Horse Racing Act of 1975 or a riverboat licensed under
12the Riverboat Gambling Act, except as provided in this
13paragraph. The changes made to this definition by Public Act
1498-587 this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly are
15declarative of existing law.
16 "Licensed fraternal establishment" means the location
17where a qualified fraternal organization that derives its
18charter from a national fraternal organization regularly
19meets.
20 "Licensed veterans establishment" means the location where
21a qualified veterans organization that derives its charter from
22a national veterans organization regularly meets.
23 "Licensed truck stop establishment" means a facility (i)
24that is at least a 3-acre facility with a convenience store,
25(ii) with separate diesel islands for fueling commercial motor
26vehicles, (iii) that sells at retail more than 10,000 gallons

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1of diesel or biodiesel fuel per month, and (iv) with parking
2spaces for commercial motor vehicles. "Commercial motor
3vehicles" has the same meaning as defined in Section 18b-101 of
4the Illinois Vehicle Code. The requirement of item (iii) of
5this paragraph may be met by showing that estimated future
6sales or past sales average at least 10,000 gallons per month.
7(Source: P.A. 97-333, eff. 8-12-11; 98-31, eff. 6-24-13;
898-582, eff. 8-27-13; 98-587, eff. 8-27-13; revised 9-19-13.)
9 (230 ILCS 40/15)
10 Sec. 15. Minimum requirements for licensing and
11registration. Every video gaming terminal offered for play
12shall first be tested and approved pursuant to the rules of the
13Board, and each video gaming terminal offered in this State for
14play shall conform to an approved model. For the examination of
15video gaming machines and associated equipment as required by
16this Section, the Board may utilize the services of one or more
17independent outside testing laboratories that have been
18accredited by a national accreditation body and that, in the
19judgment of the Board, are qualified to perform such
20examinations. Every video gaming terminal offered in this State
21for play must meet minimum standards set by an independent
22outside testing laboratory approved by the Board. Each approved
23model shall, at a minimum, meet the following criteria:
24 (1) It must conform to all requirements of federal law
25 and regulations, including FCC Class A Emissions

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1 Standards.
2 (2) It must theoretically pay out a mathematically
3 demonstrable percentage during the expected lifetime of
4 the machine of all amounts played, which must not be less
5 than 80%. The Board shall establish a maximum payout
6 percentage for approved models by rule. Video gaming
7 terminals that may be affected by skill must meet this
8 standard when using a method of play that will provide the
9 greatest return to the player over a period of continuous
10 play.
11 (3) It must use a random selection process to determine
12 the outcome of each play of a game. The random selection
13 process must meet 99% confidence limits using a standard
14 chi-squared test for (randomness) goodness of fit.
15 (4) It must display an accurate representation of the
16 game outcome.
17 (5) It must not automatically alter pay tables or any
18 function of the video gaming terminal based on internal
19 computation of hold percentage or have any means of
20 manipulation that affects the random selection process or
21 probabilities of winning a game.
22 (6) It must not be adversely affected by static
23 discharge or other electromagnetic interference.
24 (7) It must be capable of detecting and displaying the
25 following conditions during idle states or on demand: power
26 reset; door open; and door just closed.

09800SB2640ham001- 981 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 (8) It must have the capacity to display complete play
2 history (outcome, intermediate play steps, credits
3 available, bets placed, credits paid, and credits cashed
4 out) for the most recent game played and 10 games prior
5 thereto.
6 (9) The theoretical payback percentage of a video
7 gaming terminal must not be capable of being changed
8 without making a hardware or software change in the video
9 gaming terminal, either on site or via the central
10 communications system.
11 (10) Video gaming terminals must be designed so that
12 replacement of parts or modules required for normal
13 maintenance does not necessitate replacement of the
14 electromechanical meters.
15 (11) It must have nonresettable meters housed in a
16 locked area of the terminal that keep a permanent record of
17 all cash inserted into the machine, all winnings made by
18 the terminal printer, credits played in for video gaming
19 terminals, and credits won by video gaming players. The
20 video gaming terminal must provide the means for on-demand
21 display of stored information as determined by the Board.
22 (12) Electronically stored meter information required
23 by this Section must be preserved for a minimum of 180 days
24 after a power loss to the service.
25 (13) It must have one or more mechanisms that accept
26 cash in the form of bills. The mechanisms shall be designed

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1 to prevent obtaining credits without paying by stringing,
2 slamming, drilling, or other means. If such attempts at
3 physical tampering are made, the video gaming terminal
4 shall suspend itself from operating until reset.
5 (14) It shall have accounting software that keeps an
6 electronic record which includes, but is not limited to,
7 the following: total cash inserted into the video gaming
8 terminal; the value of winning tickets claimed by players;
9 the total credits played; the total credits awarded by a
10 video gaming terminal; and pay back percentage credited to
11 players of each video game.
12 (15) It shall be linked by a central communications
13 system to provide auditing program information as approved
14 by the Board. The central communications system shall use a
15 standard industry protocol, as defined by the Gaming
16 Standards Association, and shall have the functionality to
17 enable the Board or its designee to activate or deactivate
18 individual gaming devices from the central communications
19 system. In no event may the communications system approved
20 by the Board limit participation to only one manufacturer
21 of video gaming terminals by either the cost in
22 implementing the necessary program modifications to
23 communicate or the inability to communicate with the
24 central communications system.
25 (16) The Board, in its discretion, may require video
26 gaming terminals to display Amber Alert messages if the

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1 Board makes a finding that it would be economically and
2 technically feasible and pose no risk to the integrity and
3 security of the central communications system and video
4 gaming terminals.
5 The Board may adopt rules to establish additional criteria
6to preserve the integrity and security of video gaming in this
7State. The central communications system vendor may be licensed
8as a video gaming terminal manufacturer or a video gaming
9terminal distributor, or both, but in no event shall the
10central communications system vendor be licensed as a video
11gaming terminal operator.
12 The Board shall not permit the development of information
13or the use by any licensee of gaming device or individual game
14performance data. Nothing in this Act shall inhibit or prohibit
15the Board from the use of gaming device or individual game
16performance data in its regulatory duties. The Board shall
17adopt rules to ensure that all licensees are treated and all
18licensees act in a non-discriminatory manner and develop
19processes and penalties to enforce those rules.
20(Source: P.A. 98-31, eff. 6-24-13; 98-377, eff. 1-1-14; 98-582,
21eff. 8-27-13; revised 9-19-13.)
22 (230 ILCS 40/25)
23 Sec. 25. Restriction of licensees.
24 (a) Manufacturer. A person may not be licensed as a
25manufacturer of a video gaming terminal in Illinois unless the

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1person has a valid manufacturer's license issued under this
2Act. A manufacturer may only sell video gaming terminals for
3use in Illinois to persons having a valid distributor's
4license.
5 (b) Distributor. A person may not sell, distribute, or
6lease or market a video gaming terminal in Illinois unless the
7person has a valid distributor's license issued under this Act.
8A distributor may only sell video gaming terminals for use in
9Illinois to persons having a valid distributor's or terminal
10operator's license.
11 (c) Terminal operator. A person may not own, maintain, or
12place a video gaming terminal unless he has a valid terminal
13operator's license issued under this Act. A terminal operator
14may only place video gaming terminals for use in Illinois in
15licensed establishments, licensed truck stop establishments,
16licensed fraternal establishments, and licensed veterans
17establishments. No terminal operator may give anything of
18value, including but not limited to a loan or financing
19arrangement, to a licensed establishment, licensed truck stop
20establishment, licensed fraternal establishment, or licensed
21veterans establishment as any incentive or inducement to locate
22video terminals in that establishment. Of the after-tax profits
23from a video gaming terminal, 50% shall be paid to the terminal
24operator and 50% shall be paid to the licensed establishment,
25licensed truck stop establishment, licensed fraternal
26establishment, or licensed veterans establishment,

09800SB2640ham001- 985 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1notwithstanding any agreement to the contrary. A video terminal
2operator that violates one or more requirements of this
3subsection is guilty of a Class 4 felony and is subject to
4termination of his or her license by the Board.
5 (d) Licensed technician. A person may not service,
6maintain, or repair a video gaming terminal in this State
7unless he or she (1) has a valid technician's license issued
8under this Act, (2) is a terminal operator, or (3) is employed
9by a terminal operator, distributor, or manufacturer.
10 (d-5) Licensed terminal handler. No person, including, but
11not limited to, an employee or independent contractor working
12for a manufacturer, distributor, supplier, technician, or
13terminal operator licensed pursuant to this Act, shall have
14possession or control of a video gaming terminal, or access to
15the inner workings of a video gaming terminal, unless that
16person possesses a valid terminal handler's license issued
17under this Act.
18 (e) Licensed establishment. No video gaming terminal may be
19placed in any licensed establishment, licensed veterans
20establishment, licensed truck stop establishment, or licensed
21fraternal establishment unless the owner or agent of the owner
22of the licensed establishment, licensed veterans
23establishment, licensed truck stop establishment, or licensed
24fraternal establishment has entered into a written use
25agreement with the terminal operator for placement of the
26terminals. A copy of the use agreement shall be on file in the

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1terminal operator's place of business and available for
2inspection by individuals authorized by the Board. A licensed
3establishment, licensed truck stop establishment, licensed
4veterans establishment, or licensed fraternal establishment
5may operate up to 5 video gaming terminals on its premises at
6any time.
7 (f) (Blank).
8 (g) Financial interest restrictions. As used in this Act,
9"substantial interest" in a partnership, a corporation, an
10organization, an association, a business, or a limited
11liability company means:
12 (A) When, with respect to a sole proprietorship, an
13 individual or his or her spouse owns, operates, manages, or
14 conducts, directly or indirectly, the organization,
15 association, or business, or any part thereof; or
16 (B) When, with respect to a partnership, the individual
17 or his or her spouse shares in any of the profits, or
18 potential profits, of the partnership activities; or
19 (C) When, with respect to a corporation, an individual
20 or his or her spouse is an officer or director, or the
21 individual or his or her spouse is a holder, directly or
22 beneficially, of 5% or more of any class of stock of the
23 corporation; or
24 (D) When, with respect to an organization not covered
25 in (A), (B) or (C) above, an individual or his or her
26 spouse is an officer or manages the business affairs, or

09800SB2640ham001- 987 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 the individual or his or her spouse is the owner of or
2 otherwise controls 10% or more of the assets of the
3 organization; or
4 (E) When an individual or his or her spouse furnishes
5 5% or more of the capital, whether in cash, goods, or
6 services, for the operation of any business, association,
7 or organization during any calendar year; or
8 (F) When, with respect to a limited liability company,
9 an individual or his or her spouse is a member, or the
10 individual or his or her spouse is a holder, directly or
11 beneficially, of 5% or more of the membership interest of
12 the limited liability company.
13 For purposes of this subsection (g), "individual" includes
14all individuals or their spouses whose combined interest would
15qualify as a substantial interest under this subsection (g) and
16whose activities with respect to an organization, association,
17or business are so closely aligned or coordinated as to
18constitute the activities of a single entity.
19 (h) Location restriction. A licensed establishment,
20licensed truck stop establishment, licensed fraternal
21establishment, or licensed veterans establishment that is (i)
22located within 1,000 feet of a facility operated by an
23organization licensee licensed under the Illinois Horse Racing
24Act of 1975 or the home dock of a riverboat licensed under the
25Riverboat Gambling Act or (ii) located within 100 feet of a
26school or a place of worship under the Religious Corporation

09800SB2640ham001- 988 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1Act, is ineligible to operate a video gaming terminal. The
2location restrictions in this subsection (h) do not apply if
3(A) a facility operated by an organization licensee, a school,
4or a place of worship moves to or is established within the
5restricted area after a licensed establishment, licensed truck
6stop establishment, licensed fraternal establishment, or
7licensed veterans establishment becomes licensed under this
8Act or (B) a school or place of worship moves to or is
9established within the restricted area after a licensed
10establishment, licensed truck stop establishment, licensed
11fraternal establishment, or licensed veterans establishment
12obtains its original liquor license. For the purpose of this
13subsection, "school" means an elementary or secondary public
14school, or an elementary or secondary private school registered
15with or recognized by the State Board of Education.
16 Notwithstanding the provisions of this subsection (h), the
17Board may waive the requirement that a licensed establishment,
18licensed truck stop establishment, licensed fraternal
19establishment, or licensed veterans establishment not be
20located within 1,000 feet from a facility operated by an
21organization licensee or licensed under the Illinois Horse
22Racing Act of 1975 or the home dock of a riverboat licensed
23under the Riverboat Gambling Act. The Board shall not grant
24such waiver if there is any common ownership or control, shared
25business activity, or contractual arrangement of any type
26between the establishment and the organization licensee or

09800SB2640ham001- 989 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1owners licensee of a riverboat. The Board shall adopt rules to
2implement the provisions of this paragraph.
3 (i) Undue economic concentration. In addition to
4considering all other requirements under this Act, in deciding
5whether to approve the operation of video gaming terminals by a
6terminal operator in a location, the Board shall consider the
7impact of any economic concentration of such operation of video
8gaming terminals. The Board shall not allow a terminal operator
9to operate video gaming terminals if the Board determines such
10operation will result in undue economic concentration. For
11purposes of this Section, "undue economic concentration" means
12that a terminal operator would have such actual or potential
13influence over video gaming terminals in Illinois as to:
14 (1) substantially impede or suppress competition among
15 terminal operators;
16 (2) adversely impact the economic stability of the
17 video gaming industry in Illinois; or
18 (3) negatively impact the purposes of the Video Gaming
19 Act.
20 The Board shall adopt rules concerning undue economic
21concentration with respect to the operation of video gaming
22terminals in Illinois. The rules shall include, but not be
23limited to, (i) limitations on the number of video gaming
24terminals operated by any terminal operator within a defined
25geographic radius and (ii) guidelines on the discontinuation of
26operation of any such video gaming terminals the Board

09800SB2640ham001- 990 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1determines will cause undue economic concentration.
2 (j) The provisions of the Illinois Antitrust Act are fully
3and equally applicable to the activities of any licensee under
4this Act.
5(Source: P.A. 97-333, eff. 8-12-11; 98-31, eff. 6-24-13; 98-77,
6eff. 7-15-13; 98-112, eff. 7-26-13; revised 10-17-13.)
7 (230 ILCS 40/45)
8 Sec. 45. Issuance of license.
9 (a) The burden is upon each applicant to demonstrate his
10suitability for licensure. Each video gaming terminal
11manufacturer, distributor, supplier, operator, handler,
12licensed establishment, licensed truck stop establishment,
13licensed fraternal establishment, and licensed veterans
14establishment shall be licensed by the Board. The Board may
15issue or deny a license under this Act to any person pursuant
16to the same criteria set forth in Section 9 of the Riverboat
17Gambling Act.
18 (a-5) The Board shall not grant a license to a person who
19has facilitated, enabled, or participated in the use of
20coin-operated devices for gambling purposes or who is under the
21significant influence or control of such a person. For the
22purposes of this Act, "facilitated, enabled, or participated in
23the use of coin-operated amusement devices for gambling
24purposes" means that the person has been convicted of any
25violation of Article 28 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the

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1Criminal Code of 2012. If there is pending legal action against
2a person for any such violation, then the Board shall delay the
3licensure of that person until the legal action is resolved.
4 (b) Each person seeking and possessing a license as a video
5gaming terminal manufacturer, distributor, supplier, operator,
6handler, licensed establishment, licensed truck stop
7establishment, licensed fraternal establishment, or licensed
8veterans establishment shall submit to a background
9investigation conducted by the Board with the assistance of the
10State Police or other law enforcement. To the extent that the
11corporate structure of the applicant allows, the background
12investigation shall include any or all of the following as the
13Board deems appropriate or as provided by rule for each
14category of licensure: (i) each beneficiary of a trust, (ii)
15each partner of a partnership, (iii) each member of a limited
16liability company, (iv) each director and officer of a publicly
17or non-publicly held corporation, (v) each stockholder of a
18non-publicly held corporation, (vi) each stockholder of 5% or
19more of a publicly held corporation, or (vii) each stockholder
20of 5% or more in a parent or subsidiary corporation.
21 (c) Each person seeking and possessing a license as a video
22gaming terminal manufacturer, distributor, supplier, operator,
23handler, licensed establishment, licensed truck stop
24establishment, licensed fraternal establishment, or licensed
25veterans establishment shall disclose the identity of every
26person, association, trust, corporation, or limited liability

09800SB2640ham001- 992 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1company having a greater than 1% direct or indirect pecuniary
2interest in the video gaming terminal operation for which the
3license is sought. If the disclosed entity is a trust, the
4application shall disclose the names and addresses of the
5beneficiaries; if a corporation, the names and addresses of all
6stockholders and directors; if a limited liability company, the
7names and addresses of all members; or if a partnership, the
8names and addresses of all partners, both general and limited.
9 (d) No person may be licensed as a video gaming terminal
10manufacturer, distributor, supplier, operator, handler,
11licensed establishment, licensed truck stop establishment,
12licensed fraternal establishment, or licensed veterans
13establishment if that person has been found by the Board to:
14 (1) have a background, including a criminal record,
15 reputation, habits, social or business associations, or
16 prior activities that pose a threat to the public interests
17 of the State or to the security and integrity of video
18 gaming;
19 (2) create or enhance the dangers of unsuitable,
20 unfair, or illegal practices, methods, and activities in
21 the conduct of video gaming; or
22 (3) present questionable business practices and
23 financial arrangements incidental to the conduct of video
24 gaming activities.
25 (e) Any applicant for any license under this Act has the
26burden of proving his or her qualifications to the satisfaction

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1of the Board. The Board may adopt rules to establish additional
2qualifications and requirements to preserve the integrity and
3security of video gaming in this State.
4 (f) A non-refundable application fee shall be paid at the
5time an application for a license is filed with the Board in
6the following amounts:
7 (1) Manufacturer..........................$5,000
8 (2) Distributor...........................$5,000
9 (3) Terminal operator.....................$5,000
10 (4) Supplier..............................$2,500
11 (5) Technician..............................$100
12 (6) Terminal Handler..............................$50
13 (g) The Board shall establish an annual fee for each
14license not to exceed the following:
15 (1) Manufacturer.........................$10,000
16 (2) Distributor..........................$10,000
17 (3) Terminal operator.....................$5,000
18 (4) Supplier..............................$2,000
19 (5) Technician..............................$100
20 (6) Licensed establishment, licensed truck stop
21 establishment, licensed fraternal establishment,
22 or licensed veterans establishment..............$100
23 (7) Video gaming terminal...................$100
24 (8) Terminal Handler..............................$50
25 (h) A terminal operator and a licensed establishment,
26licensed truck stop establishment, licensed fraternal

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1establishment, or licensed veterans establishment shall
2equally split the fees specified in item (7) of subsection (g).
3(Source: P.A. 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13; 98-31, eff. 6-24-13;
498-587, eff. 8-27-13; revised 9-19-13.)
5 Section 535. The Liquor Control Act of 1934 is amended by
6changing Sections 5-1, 6-2, 6-6, 6-15, and 7-1 as follows:
7 (235 ILCS 5/5-1) (from Ch. 43, par. 115)
8 Sec. 5-1. Licenses issued by the Illinois Liquor Control
9Commission shall be of the following classes:
10 (a) Manufacturer's license - Class 1. Distiller, Class 2.
11Rectifier, Class 3. Brewer, Class 4. First Class Wine
12Manufacturer, Class 5. Second Class Wine Manufacturer, Class 6.
13First Class Winemaker, Class 7. Second Class Winemaker, Class
148. Limited Wine Manufacturer, Class 9. Craft Distiller, Class
1510. Craft Brewer,
16 (b) Distributor's license,
17 (c) Importing Distributor's license,
18 (d) Retailer's license,
19 (e) Special Event Retailer's license (not-for-profit),
20 (f) Railroad license,
21 (g) Boat license,
22 (h) Non-Beverage User's license,
23 (i) Wine-maker's premises license,
24 (j) Airplane license,

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1 (k) Foreign importer's license,
2 (l) Broker's license,
3 (m) Non-resident dealer's license,
4 (n) Brew Pub license,
5 (o) Auction liquor license,
6 (p) Caterer retailer license,
7 (q) Special use permit license,
8 (r) Winery shipper's license.
9 No person, firm, partnership, corporation, or other legal
10business entity that is engaged in the manufacturing of wine
11may concurrently obtain and hold a wine-maker's license and a
12wine manufacturer's license.
13 (a) A manufacturer's license shall allow the manufacture,
14importation in bulk, storage, distribution and sale of
15alcoholic liquor to persons without the State, as may be
16permitted by law and to licensees in this State as follows:
17 Class 1. A Distiller may make sales and deliveries of
18alcoholic liquor to distillers, rectifiers, importing
19distributors, distributors and non-beverage users and to no
20other licensees.
21 Class 2. A Rectifier, who is not a distiller, as defined
22herein, may make sales and deliveries of alcoholic liquor to
23rectifiers, importing distributors, distributors, retailers
24and non-beverage users and to no other licensees.
25 Class 3. A Brewer may make sales and deliveries of beer to
26importing distributors and distributors and may make sales as

09800SB2640ham001- 996 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1authorized under subsection (e) of Section 6-4 of this Act.
2 Class 4. A first class wine-manufacturer may make sales and
3deliveries of up to 50,000 gallons of wine to manufacturers,
4importing distributors and distributors, and to no other
5licensees.
6 Class 5. A second class Wine manufacturer may make sales
7and deliveries of more than 50,000 gallons of wine to
8manufacturers, importing distributors and distributors and to
9no other licensees.
10 Class 6. A first-class wine-maker's license shall allow the
11manufacture of up to 50,000 gallons of wine per year, and the
12storage and sale of such wine to distributors in the State and
13to persons without the State, as may be permitted by law. A
14person who, prior to the effective date of this amendatory Act
15of the 95th General Assembly, is a holder of a first-class
16wine-maker's license and annually produces more than 25,000
17gallons of its own wine and who distributes its wine to
18licensed retailers shall cease this practice on or before July
191, 2008 in compliance with this amendatory Act of the 95th
20General Assembly.
21 Class 7. A second-class wine-maker's license shall allow
22the manufacture of between 50,000 and 150,000 gallons of wine
23per year, and the storage and sale of such wine to distributors
24in this State and to persons without the State, as may be
25permitted by law. A person who, prior to the effective date of
26this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly, is a holder

09800SB2640ham001- 997 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1of a second-class wine-maker's license and annually produces
2more than 25,000 gallons of its own wine and who distributes
3its wine to licensed retailers shall cease this practice on or
4before July 1, 2008 in compliance with this amendatory Act of
5the 95th General Assembly.
6 Class 8. A limited wine-manufacturer may make sales and
7deliveries not to exceed 40,000 gallons of wine per year to
8distributors, and to non-licensees in accordance with the
9provisions of this Act.
10 Class 9. A craft distiller license shall allow the
11manufacture of up to 30,000 gallons of spirits by distillation
12for one year after the effective date of this amendatory Act of
13the 97th General Assembly and up to 35,000 gallons of spirits
14by distillation per year thereafter and the storage of such
15spirits. If a craft distiller licensee is not affiliated with
16any other manufacturer, then the craft distiller licensee may
17sell such spirits to distributors in this State and up to 2,500
18gallons of such spirits to non-licensees to the extent
19permitted by any exemption approved by the Commission pursuant
20to Section 6-4 of this Act.
21 Any craft distiller licensed under this Act who on the
22effective date of this amendatory Act of the 96th General
23Assembly was licensed as a distiller and manufactured no more
24spirits than permitted by this Section shall not be required to
25pay the initial licensing fee.
26 Class 10. A craft brewer's license, which may only be

09800SB2640ham001- 998 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1issued to a licensed brewer or licensed non-resident dealer,
2shall allow the manufacture of up to 930,000 gallons of beer
3per year. A craft brewer licensee may make sales and deliveries
4to importing distributors and distributors and to retail
5licensees in accordance with the conditions set forth in
6paragraph (18) of subsection (a) of Section 3-12 of this Act.
7 (a-1) A manufacturer which is licensed in this State to
8make sales or deliveries of alcoholic liquor to licensed
9distributors or importing distributors and which enlists
10agents, representatives, or individuals acting on its behalf
11who contact licensed retailers on a regular and continual basis
12in this State must register those agents, representatives, or
13persons acting on its behalf with the State Commission.
14 Registration of agents, representatives, or persons acting
15on behalf of a manufacturer is fulfilled by submitting a form
16to the Commission. The form shall be developed by the
17Commission and shall include the name and address of the
18applicant, the name and address of the manufacturer he or she
19represents, the territory or areas assigned to sell to or
20discuss pricing terms of alcoholic liquor, and any other
21questions deemed appropriate and necessary. All statements in
22the forms required to be made by law or by rule shall be deemed
23material, and any person who knowingly misstates any material
24fact under oath in an application is guilty of a Class B
25misdemeanor. Fraud, misrepresentation, false statements,
26misleading statements, evasions, or suppression of material

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1facts in the securing of a registration are grounds for
2suspension or revocation of the registration. The State
3Commission shall post a list of registered agents on the
4Commission's website.
5 (b) A distributor's license shall allow the wholesale
6purchase and storage of alcoholic liquors and sale of alcoholic
7liquors to licensees in this State and to persons without the
8State, as may be permitted by law.
9 (c) An importing distributor's license may be issued to and
10held by those only who are duly licensed distributors, upon the
11filing of an application by a duly licensed distributor, with
12the Commission and the Commission shall, without the payment of
13any fee, immediately issue such importing distributor's
14license to the applicant, which shall allow the importation of
15alcoholic liquor by the licensee into this State from any point
16in the United States outside this State, and the purchase of
17alcoholic liquor in barrels, casks or other bulk containers and
18the bottling of such alcoholic liquors before resale thereof,
19but all bottles or containers so filled shall be sealed,
20labeled, stamped and otherwise made to comply with all
21provisions, rules and regulations governing manufacturers in
22the preparation and bottling of alcoholic liquors. The
23importing distributor's license shall permit such licensee to
24purchase alcoholic liquor from Illinois licensed non-resident
25dealers and foreign importers only.
26 (d) A retailer's license shall allow the licensee to sell

09800SB2640ham001- 1000 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1and offer for sale at retail, only in the premises specified in
2the license, alcoholic liquor for use or consumption, but not
3for resale in any form. Nothing in this amendatory Act of the
495th General Assembly shall deny, limit, remove, or restrict
5the ability of a holder of a retailer's license to transfer,
6deliver, or ship alcoholic liquor to the purchaser for use or
7consumption subject to any applicable local law or ordinance.
8Any retail license issued to a manufacturer shall only permit
9the manufacturer to sell beer at retail on the premises
10actually occupied by the manufacturer. For the purpose of
11further describing the type of business conducted at a retail
12licensed premises, a retailer's licensee may be designated by
13the State Commission as (i) an on premise consumption retailer,
14(ii) an off premise sale retailer, or (iii) a combined on
15premise consumption and off premise sale retailer.
16 Notwithstanding any other provision of this subsection
17(d), a retail licensee may sell alcoholic liquors to a special
18event retailer licensee for resale to the extent permitted
19under subsection (e).
20 (e) A special event retailer's license (not-for-profit)
21shall permit the licensee to purchase alcoholic liquors from an
22Illinois licensed distributor (unless the licensee purchases
23less than $500 of alcoholic liquors for the special event, in
24which case the licensee may purchase the alcoholic liquors from
25a licensed retailer) and shall allow the licensee to sell and
26offer for sale, at retail, alcoholic liquors for use or

09800SB2640ham001- 1001 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1consumption, but not for resale in any form and only at the
2location and on the specific dates designated for the special
3event in the license. An applicant for a special event retailer
4license must (i) furnish with the application: (A) a resale
5number issued under Section 2c of the Retailers' Occupation Tax
6Act or evidence that the applicant is registered under Section
72a of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, (B) a current, valid
8exemption identification number issued under Section 1g of the
9Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, and a certification to the
10Commission that the purchase of alcoholic liquors will be a
11tax-exempt purchase, or (C) a statement that the applicant is
12not registered under Section 2a of the Retailers' Occupation
13Tax Act, does not hold a resale number under Section 2c of the
14Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, and does not hold an exemption
15number under Section 1g of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act,
16in which event the Commission shall set forth on the special
17event retailer's license a statement to that effect; (ii)
18submit with the application proof satisfactory to the State
19Commission that the applicant will provide dram shop liability
20insurance in the maximum limits; and (iii) show proof
21satisfactory to the State Commission that the applicant has
22obtained local authority approval.
23 (f) A railroad license shall permit the licensee to import
24alcoholic liquors into this State from any point in the United
25States outside this State and to store such alcoholic liquors
26in this State; to make wholesale purchases of alcoholic liquors

09800SB2640ham001- 1002 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1directly from manufacturers, foreign importers, distributors
2and importing distributors from within or outside this State;
3and to store such alcoholic liquors in this State; provided
4that the above powers may be exercised only in connection with
5the importation, purchase or storage of alcoholic liquors to be
6sold or dispensed on a club, buffet, lounge or dining car
7operated on an electric, gas or steam railway in this State;
8and provided further, that railroad licensees exercising the
9above powers shall be subject to all provisions of Article VIII
10of this Act as applied to importing distributors. A railroad
11license shall also permit the licensee to sell or dispense
12alcoholic liquors on any club, buffet, lounge or dining car
13operated on an electric, gas or steam railway regularly
14operated by a common carrier in this State, but shall not
15permit the sale for resale of any alcoholic liquors to any
16licensee within this State. A license shall be obtained for
17each car in which such sales are made.
18 (g) A boat license shall allow the sale of alcoholic liquor
19in individual drinks, on any passenger boat regularly operated
20as a common carrier on navigable waters in this State or on any
21riverboat operated under the Riverboat Gambling Act, which boat
22or riverboat maintains a public dining room or restaurant
23thereon.
24 (h) A non-beverage user's license shall allow the licensee
25to purchase alcoholic liquor from a licensed manufacturer or
26importing distributor, without the imposition of any tax upon

09800SB2640ham001- 1003 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1the business of such licensed manufacturer or importing
2distributor as to such alcoholic liquor to be used by such
3licensee solely for the non-beverage purposes set forth in
4subsection (a) of Section 8-1 of this Act, and such licenses
5shall be divided and classified and shall permit the purchase,
6possession and use of limited and stated quantities of
7alcoholic liquor as follows:
8Class 1, not to exceed ......................... 500 gallons
9Class 2, not to exceed ....................... 1,000 gallons
10Class 3, not to exceed ....................... 5,000 gallons
11Class 4, not to exceed ...................... 10,000 gallons
12Class 5, not to exceed ....................... 50,000 gallons
13 (i) A wine-maker's premises license shall allow a licensee
14that concurrently holds a first-class wine-maker's license to
15sell and offer for sale at retail in the premises specified in
16such license not more than 50,000 gallons of the first-class
17wine-maker's wine that is made at the first-class wine-maker's
18licensed premises per year for use or consumption, but not for
19resale in any form. A wine-maker's premises license shall allow
20a licensee who concurrently holds a second-class wine-maker's
21license to sell and offer for sale at retail in the premises
22specified in such license up to 100,000 gallons of the
23second-class wine-maker's wine that is made at the second-class
24wine-maker's licensed premises per year for use or consumption
25but not for resale in any form. A wine-maker's premises license
26shall allow a licensee that concurrently holds a first-class

09800SB2640ham001- 1004 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1wine-maker's license or a second-class wine-maker's license to
2sell and offer for sale at retail at the premises specified in
3the wine-maker's premises license, for use or consumption but
4not for resale in any form, any beer, wine, and spirits
5purchased from a licensed distributor. Upon approval from the
6State Commission, a wine-maker's premises license shall allow
7the licensee to sell and offer for sale at (i) the wine-maker's
8licensed premises and (ii) at up to 2 additional locations for
9use and consumption and not for resale. Each location shall
10require additional licensing per location as specified in
11Section 5-3 of this Act. A wine-maker's premises licensee shall
12secure liquor liability insurance coverage in an amount at
13least equal to the maximum liability amounts set forth in
14subsection (a) of Section 6-21 of this Act.
15 (j) An airplane license shall permit the licensee to import
16alcoholic liquors into this State from any point in the United
17States outside this State and to store such alcoholic liquors
18in this State; to make wholesale purchases of alcoholic liquors
19directly from manufacturers, foreign importers, distributors
20and importing distributors from within or outside this State;
21and to store such alcoholic liquors in this State; provided
22that the above powers may be exercised only in connection with
23the importation, purchase or storage of alcoholic liquors to be
24sold or dispensed on an airplane; and provided further, that
25airplane licensees exercising the above powers shall be subject
26to all provisions of Article VIII of this Act as applied to

09800SB2640ham001- 1005 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1importing distributors. An airplane licensee shall also permit
2the sale or dispensing of alcoholic liquors on any passenger
3airplane regularly operated by a common carrier in this State,
4but shall not permit the sale for resale of any alcoholic
5liquors to any licensee within this State. A single airplane
6license shall be required of an airline company if liquor
7service is provided on board aircraft in this State. The annual
8fee for such license shall be as determined in Section 5-3.
9 (k) A foreign importer's license shall permit such licensee
10to purchase alcoholic liquor from Illinois licensed
11non-resident dealers only, and to import alcoholic liquor other
12than in bulk from any point outside the United States and to
13sell such alcoholic liquor to Illinois licensed importing
14distributors and to no one else in Illinois; provided that (i)
15the foreign importer registers with the State Commission every
16brand of alcoholic liquor that it proposes to sell to Illinois
17licensees during the license period, (ii) the foreign importer
18complies with all of the provisions of Section 6-9 of this Act
19with respect to registration of such Illinois licensees as may
20be granted the right to sell such brands at wholesale, and
21(iii) the foreign importer complies with the provisions of
22Sections 6-5 and 6-6 of this Act to the same extent that these
23provisions apply to manufacturers.
24 (l) (i) A broker's license shall be required of all persons
25who solicit orders for, offer to sell or offer to supply
26alcoholic liquor to retailers in the State of Illinois, or who

09800SB2640ham001- 1006 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1offer to retailers to ship or cause to be shipped or to make
2contact with distillers, rectifiers, brewers or manufacturers
3or any other party within or without the State of Illinois in
4order that alcoholic liquors be shipped to a distributor,
5importing distributor or foreign importer, whether such
6solicitation or offer is consummated within or without the
7State of Illinois.
8 No holder of a retailer's license issued by the Illinois
9Liquor Control Commission shall purchase or receive any
10alcoholic liquor, the order for which was solicited or offered
11for sale to such retailer by a broker unless the broker is the
12holder of a valid broker's license.
13 The broker shall, upon the acceptance by a retailer of the
14broker's solicitation of an order or offer to sell or supply or
15deliver or have delivered alcoholic liquors, promptly forward
16to the Illinois Liquor Control Commission a notification of
17said transaction in such form as the Commission may by
18regulations prescribe.
19 (ii) A broker's license shall be required of a person
20within this State, other than a retail licensee, who, for a fee
21or commission, promotes, solicits, or accepts orders for
22alcoholic liquor, for use or consumption and not for resale, to
23be shipped from this State and delivered to residents outside
24of this State by an express company, common carrier, or
25contract carrier. This Section does not apply to any person who
26promotes, solicits, or accepts orders for wine as specifically

09800SB2640ham001- 1007 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1authorized in Section 6-29 of this Act.
2 A broker's license under this subsection (l) shall not
3entitle the holder to buy or sell any alcoholic liquors for his
4own account or to take or deliver title to such alcoholic
5liquors.
6 This subsection (l) shall not apply to distributors,
7employees of distributors, or employees of a manufacturer who
8has registered the trademark, brand or name of the alcoholic
9liquor pursuant to Section 6-9 of this Act, and who regularly
10sells such alcoholic liquor in the State of Illinois only to
11its registrants thereunder.
12 Any agent, representative, or person subject to
13registration pursuant to subsection (a-1) of this Section shall
14not be eligible to receive a broker's license.
15 (m) A non-resident dealer's license shall permit such
16licensee to ship into and warehouse alcoholic liquor into this
17State from any point outside of this State, and to sell such
18alcoholic liquor to Illinois licensed foreign importers and
19importing distributors and to no one else in this State;
20provided that (i) said non-resident dealer shall register with
21the Illinois Liquor Control Commission each and every brand of
22alcoholic liquor which it proposes to sell to Illinois
23licensees during the license period, (ii) it shall comply with
24all of the provisions of Section 6-9 hereof with respect to
25registration of such Illinois licensees as may be granted the
26right to sell such brands at wholesale, and (iii) the

09800SB2640ham001- 1008 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1non-resident dealer shall comply with the provisions of
2Sections 6-5 and 6-6 of this Act to the same extent that these
3provisions apply to manufacturers.
4 (n) A brew pub license shall allow the licensee (i) to
5manufacture beer only on the premises specified in the license,
6(ii) to make sales of the beer manufactured on the premises or,
7with the approval of the Commission, beer manufactured on
8another brew pub licensed premises that is substantially owned
9and operated by the same licensee to importing distributors,
10distributors, and to non-licensees for use and consumption,
11(iii) to store the beer upon the premises, and (iv) to sell and
12offer for sale at retail from the licensed premises, provided
13that a brew pub licensee shall not sell for off-premises
14consumption more than 50,000 gallons per year. A person who
15holds a brew pub license may simultaneously hold a craft brewer
16license if he or she otherwise qualifies for the craft brewer
17license and the craft brewer license is for a location separate
18from the brew pub's licensed premises. A brew pub license shall
19permit a person who has received prior approval from the
20Commission to annually transfer no more than a total of 50,000
21gallons of beer manufactured on premises to all other licensed
22brew pubs that are substantially owned and operated by the same
23person.
24 (o) A caterer retailer license shall allow the holder to
25serve alcoholic liquors as an incidental part of a food service
26that serves prepared meals which excludes the serving of snacks

09800SB2640ham001- 1009 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1as the primary meal, either on or off-site whether licensed or
2unlicensed.
3 (p) An auction liquor license shall allow the licensee to
4sell and offer for sale at auction wine and spirits for use or
5consumption, or for resale by an Illinois liquor licensee in
6accordance with provisions of this Act. An auction liquor
7license will be issued to a person and it will permit the
8auction liquor licensee to hold the auction anywhere in the
9State. An auction liquor license must be obtained for each
10auction at least 14 days in advance of the auction date.
11 (q) A special use permit license shall allow an Illinois
12licensed retailer to transfer a portion of its alcoholic liquor
13inventory from its retail licensed premises to the premises
14specified in the license hereby created, and to sell or offer
15for sale at retail, only in the premises specified in the
16license hereby created, the transferred alcoholic liquor for
17use or consumption, but not for resale in any form. A special
18use permit license may be granted for the following time
19periods: one day or less; 2 or more days to a maximum of 15 days
20per location in any 12 month period. An applicant for the
21special use permit license must also submit with the
22application proof satisfactory to the State Commission that the
23applicant will provide dram shop liability insurance to the
24maximum limits and have local authority approval.
25 (r) A winery shipper's license shall allow a person with a
26first-class or second-class wine manufacturer's license, a

09800SB2640ham001- 1010 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1first-class or second-class wine-maker's license, or a limited
2wine manufacturer's license or who is licensed to make wine
3under the laws of another state to ship wine made by that
4licensee directly to a resident of this State who is 21 years
5of age or older for that resident's personal use and not for
6resale. Prior to receiving a winery shipper's license, an
7applicant for the license must provide the Commission with a
8true copy of its current license in any state in which it is
9licensed as a manufacturer of wine. An applicant for a winery
10shipper's license must also complete an application form that
11provides any other information the Commission deems necessary.
12The application form shall include an acknowledgement
13consenting to the jurisdiction of the Commission, the Illinois
14Department of Revenue, and the courts of this State concerning
15the enforcement of this Act and any related laws, rules, and
16regulations, including authorizing the Department of Revenue
17and the Commission to conduct audits for the purpose of
18ensuring compliance with this amendatory Act.
19 A winery shipper licensee must pay to the Department of
20Revenue the State liquor gallonage tax under Section 8-1 for
21all wine that is sold by the licensee and shipped to a person
22in this State. For the purposes of Section 8-1, a winery
23shipper licensee shall be taxed in the same manner as a
24manufacturer of wine. A licensee who is not otherwise required
25to register under the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act must
26register under the Use Tax Act to collect and remit use tax to

09800SB2640ham001- 1011 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1the Department of Revenue for all gallons of wine that are sold
2by the licensee and shipped to persons in this State. If a
3licensee fails to remit the tax imposed under this Act in
4accordance with the provisions of Article VIII of this Act, the
5winery shipper's license shall be revoked in accordance with
6the provisions of Article VII of this Act. If a licensee fails
7to properly register and remit tax under the Use Tax Act or the
8Retailers' Occupation Tax Act for all wine that is sold by the
9winery shipper and shipped to persons in this State, the winery
10shipper's license shall be revoked in accordance with the
11provisions of Article VII of this Act.
12 A winery shipper licensee must collect, maintain, and
13submit to the Commission on a semi-annual basis the total
14number of cases per resident of wine shipped to residents of
15this State. A winery shipper licensed under this subsection (r)
16must comply with the requirements of Section 6-29 of this
17amendatory Act.
18(Source: P.A. 97-5, eff. 6-1-11; 97-455, eff. 8-19-11; 97-813,
19eff. 7-13-12; 97-1166, eff. 3-1-13; 98-394, eff. 8-16-13;
2098-401, eff. 8-16-13; revised 9-12-13.)
21 (235 ILCS 5/6-2) (from Ch. 43, par. 120)
22 Sec. 6-2. Issuance of licenses to certain persons
23prohibited.
24 (a) Except as otherwise provided in subsection (b) of this
25Section and in paragraph (1) of subsection (a) of Section 3-12,

09800SB2640ham001- 1012 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1no license of any kind issued by the State Commission or any
2local commission shall be issued to:
3 (1) A person who is not a resident of any city, village
4 or county in which the premises covered by the license are
5 located; except in case of railroad or boat licenses.
6 (2) A person who is not of good character and
7 reputation in the community in which he resides.
8 (3) A person who is not a citizen of the United States.
9 (4) A person who has been convicted of a felony under
10 any Federal or State law, unless the Commission determines
11 that such person has been sufficiently rehabilitated to
12 warrant the public trust after considering matters set
13 forth in such person's application and the Commission's
14 investigation. The burden of proof of sufficient
15 rehabilitation shall be on the applicant.
16 (5) A person who has been convicted of keeping a place
17 of prostitution or keeping a place of juvenile
18 prostitution, promoting prostitution that involves keeping
19 a place of prostitution, or promoting juvenile
20 prostitution that involves keeping a place of juvenile
21 prostitution.
22 (6) A person who has been convicted of pandering or
23 other crime or misdemeanor opposed to decency and morality.
24 (7) A person whose license issued under this Act has
25 been revoked for cause.
26 (8) A person who at the time of application for renewal

09800SB2640ham001- 1013 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 of any license issued hereunder would not be eligible for
2 such license upon a first application.
3 (9) A copartnership, if any general partnership
4 thereof, or any limited partnership thereof, owning more
5 than 5% of the aggregate limited partner interest in such
6 copartnership would not be eligible to receive a license
7 hereunder for any reason other than residence within the
8 political subdivision, unless residency is required by
9 local ordinance.
10 (10) A corporation or limited liability company, if any
11 member, officer, manager or director thereof, or any
12 stockholder or stockholders owning in the aggregate more
13 than 5% of the stock of such corporation, would not be
14 eligible to receive a license hereunder for any reason
15 other than citizenship and residence within the political
16 subdivision.
17 (10a) A corporation or limited liability company
18 unless it is incorporated or organized in Illinois, or
19 unless it is a foreign corporation or foreign limited
20 liability company which is qualified under the Business
21 Corporation Act of 1983 or the Limited Liability Company
22 Act to transact business in Illinois. The Commission shall
23 permit and accept from an applicant for a license under
24 this Act proof prepared from the Secretary of State's
25 website that the corporation or limited liability company
26 is in good standing and is qualified under the Business

09800SB2640ham001- 1014 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 Corporation Act of 1983 or the Limited Liability Company
2 Act to transact business in Illinois.
3 (11) A person whose place of business is conducted by a
4 manager or agent unless the manager or agent possesses the
5 same qualifications required by the licensee.
6 (12) A person who has been convicted of a violation of
7 any Federal or State law concerning the manufacture,
8 possession or sale of alcoholic liquor, subsequent to the
9 passage of this Act or has forfeited his bond to appear in
10 court to answer charges for any such violation.
11 (13) A person who does not beneficially own the
12 premises for which a license is sought, or does not have a
13 lease thereon for the full period for which the license is
14 to be issued.
15 (14) Any law enforcing public official, including
16 members of local liquor control commissions, any mayor,
17 alderman, or member of the city council or commission, any
18 president of the village board of trustees, any member of a
19 village board of trustees, or any president or member of a
20 county board; and no such official shall have a direct
21 interest in the manufacture, sale, or distribution of
22 alcoholic liquor, except that a license may be granted to
23 such official in relation to premises that are not located
24 within the territory subject to the jurisdiction of that
25 official if the issuance of such license is approved by the
26 State Liquor Control Commission and except that a license

09800SB2640ham001- 1015 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 may be granted, in a city or village with a population of
2 55,000 or less, to any alderman, member of a city council,
3 or member of a village board of trustees in relation to
4 premises that are located within the territory subject to
5 the jurisdiction of that official if (i) the sale of
6 alcoholic liquor pursuant to the license is incidental to
7 the selling of food, (ii) the issuance of the license is
8 approved by the State Commission, (iii) the issuance of the
9 license is in accordance with all applicable local
10 ordinances in effect where the premises are located, and
11 (iv) the official granted a license does not vote on
12 alcoholic liquor issues pending before the board or council
13 to which the license holder is elected. Notwithstanding any
14 provision of this paragraph (14) to the contrary, an
15 alderman or member of a city council or commission, a
16 member of a village board of trustees other than the
17 president of the village board of trustees, or a member of
18 a county board other than the president of a county board
19 may have a direct interest in the manufacture, sale, or
20 distribution of alcoholic liquor as long as he or she is
21 not a law enforcing public official, a mayor, a village
22 board president, or president of a county board. To prevent
23 any conflict of interest, the elected official with the
24 direct interest in the manufacture, sale, or distribution
25 of alcoholic liquor shall not participate in any meetings,
26 hearings, or decisions on matters impacting the

09800SB2640ham001- 1016 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 manufacture, sale, or distribution of alcoholic liquor.
2 Furthermore, the mayor of a city with a population of
3 55,000 or less or the president of a village with a
4 population of 55,000 or less may have an interest in the
5 manufacture, sale, or distribution of alcoholic liquor as
6 long as the council or board over which he or she presides
7 has made a local liquor control commissioner appointment
8 that complies with the requirements of Section 4-2 of this
9 Act.
10 (15) A person who is not a beneficial owner of the
11 business to be operated by the licensee.
12 (16) A person who has been convicted of a gambling
13 offense as proscribed by any of subsections (a) (3) through
14 (a) (11) of Section 28-1 of, or as proscribed by Section
15 28-1.1 or 28-3 of, the Criminal Code of 1961 or the
16 Criminal Code of 2012, or as proscribed by a statute
17 replaced by any of the aforesaid statutory provisions.
18 (17) A person or entity to whom a federal wagering
19 stamp has been issued by the federal government, unless the
20 person or entity is eligible to be issued a license under
21 the Raffles Act or the Illinois Pull Tabs and Jar Games
22 Act.
23 (18) A person who intends to sell alcoholic liquors for
24 use or consumption on his or her licensed retail premises
25 who does not have liquor liability insurance coverage for
26 that premises in an amount that is at least equal to the

09800SB2640ham001- 1017 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 maximum liability amounts set out in subsection (a) of
2 Section 6-21.
3 (19) A person who is licensed by any licensing
4 authority as a manufacturer of beer, or any partnership,
5 corporation, limited liability company, or trust or any
6 subsidiary, affiliate, or agent thereof, or any other form
7 of business enterprise licensed as a manufacturer of beer,
8 having any legal, equitable, or beneficial interest,
9 directly or indirectly, in a person licensed in this State
10 as a distributor or importing distributor. For purposes of
11 this paragraph (19), a person who is licensed by any
12 licensing authority as a "manufacturer of beer" shall also
13 mean a brewer and a non-resident dealer who is also a
14 manufacturer of beer, including a partnership,
15 corporation, limited liability company, or trust or any
16 subsidiary, affiliate, or agent thereof, or any other form
17 of business enterprise licensed as a manufacturer of beer.
18 (20) A person who is licensed in this State as a
19 distributor or importing distributor, or any partnership,
20 corporation, limited liability company, or trust or any
21 subsidiary, affiliate, or agent thereof, or any other form
22 of business enterprise licensed in this State as a
23 distributor or importing distributor having any legal,
24 equitable, or beneficial interest, directly or indirectly,
25 in a person licensed as a manufacturer of beer by any
26 licensing authority, or any partnership, corporation,

09800SB2640ham001- 1018 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 limited liability company, or trust or any subsidiary,
2 affiliate, or agent thereof, or any other form of business
3 enterprise, except for a person who owns, on or after the
4 effective date of this amendatory Act of the 98th General
5 Assembly, no more than 5% of the outstanding shares of a
6 manufacturer of beer whose shares are publicly traded on an
7 exchange within the meaning of the Securities Exchange Act
8 of 1934. For the purposes of this paragraph (20), a person
9 who is licensed by any licensing authority as a
10 "manufacturer of beer" shall also mean a brewer and a
11 non-resident dealer who is also a manufacturer of beer,
12 including a partnership, corporation, limited liability
13 company, or trust or any subsidiary, affiliate, or agent
14 thereof, or any other form of business enterprise licensed
15 as a manufacturer of beer.
16 (b) A criminal conviction of a corporation is not grounds
17for the denial, suspension, or revocation of a license applied
18for or held by the corporation if the criminal conviction was
19not the result of a violation of any federal or State law
20concerning the manufacture, possession or sale of alcoholic
21liquor, the offense that led to the conviction did not result
22in any financial gain to the corporation and the corporation
23has terminated its relationship with each director, officer,
24employee, or controlling shareholder whose actions directly
25contributed to the conviction of the corporation. The
26Commission shall determine if all provisions of this subsection

09800SB2640ham001- 1019 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1(b) have been met before any action on the corporation's
2license is initiated.
3(Source: P.A. 97-1059, eff. 8-24-12; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13;
498-10, eff. 5-6-13; 98-21, eff. 6-13-13, revised 9-24-13.)
5 (235 ILCS 5/6-6) (from Ch. 43, par. 123)
6 Sec. 6-6. Except as otherwise provided in this Act no
7manufacturer or distributor or importing distributor shall,
8directly, or indirectly, sell, supply, furnish, give or pay
9for, or loan or lease, any furnishing, fixture or equipment on
10the premises of a place of business of another licensee
11authorized under this Act to sell alcoholic liquor at retail,
12either for consumption on or off the premises, nor shall he or
13she, directly or indirectly, pay for any such license, or
14advance, furnish, lend or give money for payment of such
15license, or purchase or become the owner of any note, mortgage,
16or other evidence of indebtedness of such licensee or any form
17of security therefor, nor shall such manufacturer, or
18distributor, or importing distributor, directly or indirectly,
19be interested in the ownership, conduct or operation of the
20business of any licensee authorized to sell alcoholic liquor at
21retail, nor shall any manufacturer, or distributor, or
22importing distributor be interested directly or indirectly or
23as owner or part owner of said premises or as lessee or lessor
24thereof, in any premises upon which alcoholic liquor is sold at
25retail.

09800SB2640ham001- 1020 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 No manufacturer or distributor or importing distributor
2shall, directly or indirectly or through a subsidiary or
3affiliate, or by any officer, director or firm of such
4manufacturer, distributor or importing distributor, furnish,
5give, lend or rent, install, repair or maintain, to or for any
6retail licensee in this State, any signs or inside advertising
7materials except as provided in this Section and Section 6-5.
8With respect to retail licensees, other than any government
9owned or operated auditorium, exhibition hall, recreation
10facility or other similar facility holding a retailer's license
11as described in Section 6-5, a manufacturer, distributor, or
12importing distributor may furnish, give, lend or rent and
13erect, install, repair and maintain to or for any retail
14licensee, for use at any one time in or about or in connection
15with a retail establishment on which the products of the
16manufacturer, distributor or importing distributor are sold,
17the following signs and inside advertising materials as
18authorized in subparts (i), (ii), (iii), and (iv):
19 (i) Permanent outside signs shall be limited to one
20 outside sign, per brand, in place and in use at any one
21 time, costing not more than $893, exclusive of erection,
22 installation, repair and maintenance costs, and permit
23 fees and shall bear only the manufacturer's name, brand
24 name, trade name, slogans, markings, trademark, or other
25 symbols commonly associated with and generally used in
26 identifying the product including, but not limited to,

09800SB2640ham001- 1021 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 "cold beer", "on tap", "carry out", and "packaged liquor".
2 (ii) Temporary outside signs shall be limited to one
3 temporary outside sign per brand. Examples of temporary
4 outside signs are banners, flags, pennants, streamers, and
5 other items of a temporary and non-permanent nature. Each
6 temporary outside sign must include the manufacturer's
7 name, brand name, trade name, slogans, markings,
8 trademark, or other symbol commonly associated with and
9 generally used in identifying the product. Temporary
10 outside signs may also include, for example, the product,
11 price, packaging, date or dates of a promotion and an
12 announcement of a retail licensee's specific sponsored
13 event, if the temporary outside sign is intended to promote
14 a product, and provided that the announcement of the retail
15 licensee's event and the product promotion are held
16 simultaneously. However, temporary outside signs may not
17 include names, slogans, markings, or logos that relate to
18 the retailer. Nothing in this subpart (ii) shall prohibit a
19 distributor or importing distributor from bearing the cost
20 of creating or printing a temporary outside sign for the
21 retail licensee's specific sponsored event or from bearing
22 the cost of creating or printing a temporary sign for a
23 retail licensee containing, for example, community
24 goodwill expressions, regional sporting event
25 announcements, or seasonal messages, provided that the
26 primary purpose of the temporary outside sign is to

09800SB2640ham001- 1022 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 highlight, promote, or advertise the product. In addition,
2 temporary outside signs provided by the manufacturer to the
3 distributor or importing distributor may also include, for
4 example, subject to the limitations of this Section,
5 preprinted community goodwill expressions, sporting event
6 announcements, seasonal messages, and manufacturer
7 promotional announcements. However, a distributor or
8 importing distributor shall not bear the cost of such
9 manufacturer preprinted signs.
10 (iii) Permanent inside signs, whether visible from the
11 outside or the inside of the premises, include, but are not
12 limited to: alcohol lists and menus that may include names,
13 slogans, markings, or logos that relate to the retailer;
14 neons; illuminated signs; clocks; table lamps; mirrors;
15 tap handles; decalcomanias; window painting; and window
16 trim. All permanent inside signs in place and in use at any
17 one time shall cost in the aggregate not more than $2000
18 per manufacturer. A permanent inside sign must include the
19 manufacturer's name, brand name, trade name, slogans,
20 markings, trademark, or other symbol commonly associated
21 with and generally used in identifying the product.
22 However, permanent inside signs may not include names,
23 slogans, markings, or logos that relate to the retailer.
24 For the purpose of this subpart (iii), all permanent inside
25 signs may be displayed in an adjacent courtyard or patio
26 commonly referred to as a "beer garden" that is a part of

09800SB2640ham001- 1023 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 the retailer's licensed premises.
2 (iv) Temporary inside signs shall include, but are not
3 limited to, lighted chalk boards, acrylic table tent
4 beverage or hors d'oeuvre list holders, banners, flags,
5 pennants, streamers, and inside advertising materials such
6 as posters, placards, bowling sheets, table tents, inserts
7 for acrylic table tent beverage or hors d'oeuvre list
8 holders, sports schedules, or similar printed or
9 illustrated materials; however, such items, for example,
10 as coasters, trays, napkins, glassware and cups shall not
11 be deemed to be inside signs or advertising materials and
12 may only be sold to retailers. All temporary inside signs
13 and inside advertising materials in place and in use at any
14 one time shall cost in the aggregate not more than $325 per
15 manufacturer. Nothing in this subpart (iv) prohibits a
16 distributor or importing distributor from paying the cost
17 of printing or creating any temporary inside banner or
18 inserts for acrylic table tent beverage or hors d'oeuvre
19 list holders for a retail licensee, provided that the
20 primary purpose for the banner or insert is to highlight,
21 promote, or advertise the product. For the purpose of this
22 subpart (iv), all temporary inside signs and inside
23 advertising materials may be displayed in an adjacent
24 courtyard or patio commonly referred to as a "beer garden"
25 that is a part of the retailer's licensed premises.
26 A "cost adjustment factor" shall be used to periodically

09800SB2640ham001- 1024 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1update the dollar limitations prescribed in subparts (i),
2(iii), and (iv). The Commission shall establish the adjusted
3dollar limitation on an annual basis beginning in January,
41997. The term "cost adjustment factor" means a percentage
5equal to the change in the Bureau of Labor Statistics Consumer
6Price Index or 5%, whichever is greater. The restrictions
7contained in this Section 6-6 do not apply to signs, or
8promotional or advertising materials furnished by
9manufacturers, distributors or importing distributors to a
10government owned or operated facility holding a retailer's
11license as described in Section 6-5.
12 No distributor or importing distributor shall directly or
13indirectly or through a subsidiary or affiliate, or by any
14officer, director or firm of such manufacturer, distributor or
15importing distributor, furnish, give, lend or rent, install,
16repair or maintain, to or for any retail licensee in this
17State, any signs or inside advertising materials described in
18subparts (i), (ii), (iii), or (iv) of this Section except as
19the agent for or on behalf of a manufacturer, provided that the
20total cost of any signs and inside advertising materials
21including but not limited to labor, erection, installation and
22permit fees shall be paid by the manufacturer whose product or
23products said signs and inside advertising materials advertise
24and except as follows:
25 A distributor or importing distributor may purchase from or
26enter into a written agreement with a manufacturer or a

09800SB2640ham001- 1025 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1manufacturer's designated supplier and such manufacturer or
2the manufacturer's designated supplier may sell or enter into
3an agreement to sell to a distributor or importing distributor
4permitted signs and advertising materials described in
5subparts (ii), (iii), or (iv) of this Section for the purpose
6of furnishing, giving, lending, renting, installing,
7repairing, or maintaining such signs or advertising materials
8to or for any retail licensee in this State. Any purchase by a
9distributor or importing distributor from a manufacturer or a
10manufacturer's designated supplier shall be voluntary and the
11manufacturer may not require the distributor or the importing
12distributor to purchase signs or advertising materials from the
13manufacturer or the manufacturer's designated supplier.
14 A distributor or importing distributor shall be deemed the
15owner of such signs or advertising materials purchased from a
16manufacturer or a manufacturer's designated supplier.
17 The provisions of Public Act 90-373 concerning signs or
18advertising materials delivered by a manufacturer to a
19distributor or importing distributor shall apply only to signs
20or advertising materials delivered on or after August 14, 1997.
21 No person engaged in the business of manufacturing,
22importing or distributing alcoholic liquors shall, directly or
23indirectly, pay for, or advance, furnish, or lend money for the
24payment of any license for another. Any licensee who shall
25permit or assent, or be a party in any way to any violation or
26infringement of the provisions of this Section shall be deemed

09800SB2640ham001- 1026 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1guilty of a violation of this Act, and any money loaned
2contrary to a provision of this Act shall not be recovered
3back, or any note, mortgage or other evidence of indebtedness,
4or security, or any lease or contract obtained or made contrary
5to this Act shall be unenforceable and void.
6 This Section shall not apply to airplane licensees
7exercising powers provided in paragraph (i) of Section 5-1 of
8this Act.
9(Source: P.A. 89-238, eff. 8-4-95; 89-529, eff. 7-19-96;
1090-373, eff. 8-14-97; 90-432, eff. 1-1-98; 90-655, eff.
117-30-98; revised 9-24-13.)
12 (235 ILCS 5/6-15) (from Ch. 43, par. 130)
13 Sec. 6-15. No alcoholic liquors shall be sold or delivered
14in any building belonging to or under the control of the State
15or any political subdivision thereof except as provided in this
16Act. The corporate authorities of any city, village,
17incorporated town, township, or county may provide by
18ordinance, however, that alcoholic liquor may be sold or
19delivered in any specifically designated building belonging to
20or under the control of the municipality, township, or county,
21or in any building located on land under the control of the
22municipality, township, or county; provided that such township
23or county complies with all applicable local ordinances in any
24incorporated area of the township or county. Alcoholic liquor
25may be delivered to and sold under the authority of a special

09800SB2640ham001- 1027 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1use permit on any property owned by a conservation district
2organized under the Conservation District Act, provided that
3(i) the alcoholic liquor is sold only at an event authorized by
4the governing board of the conservation district, (ii) the
5issuance of the special use permit is authorized by the local
6liquor control commissioner of the territory in which the
7property is located, and (iii) the special use permit
8authorizes the sale of alcoholic liquor for one day or less.
9Alcoholic liquors may be delivered to and sold at any airport
10belonging to or under the control of a municipality of more
11than 25,000 inhabitants, or in any building or on any golf
12course owned by a park district organized under the Park
13District Code, subject to the approval of the governing board
14of the district, or in any building or on any golf course owned
15by a forest preserve district organized under the Downstate
16Forest Preserve District Act, subject to the approval of the
17governing board of the district, or on the grounds within 500
18feet of any building owned by a forest preserve district
19organized under the Downstate Forest Preserve District Act
20during times when food is dispensed for consumption within 500
21feet of the building from which the food is dispensed, subject
22to the approval of the governing board of the district, or in a
23building owned by a Local Mass Transit District organized under
24the Local Mass Transit District Act, subject to the approval of
25the governing Board of the District, or in Bicentennial Park,
26or on the premises of the City of Mendota Lake Park located

09800SB2640ham001- 1028 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1adjacent to Route 51 in Mendota, Illinois, or on the premises
2of Camden Park in Milan, Illinois, or in the community center
3owned by the City of Loves Park that is located at 1000 River
4Park Drive in Loves Park, Illinois, or, in connection with the
5operation of an established food serving facility during times
6when food is dispensed for consumption on the premises, and at
7the following aquarium and museums located in public parks: Art
8Institute of Chicago, Chicago Academy of Sciences, Chicago
9Historical Society, Field Museum of Natural History, Museum of
10Science and Industry, DuSable Museum of African American
11History, John G. Shedd Aquarium and Adler Planetarium, or at
12Lakeview Museum of Arts and Sciences in Peoria, or in
13connection with the operation of the facilities of the Chicago
14Zoological Society or the Chicago Horticultural Society on land
15owned by the Forest Preserve District of Cook County, or on any
16land used for a golf course or for recreational purposes owned
17by the Forest Preserve District of Cook County, subject to the
18control of the Forest Preserve District Board of Commissioners
19and applicable local law, provided that dram shop liability
20insurance is provided at maximum coverage limits so as to hold
21the District harmless from all financial loss, damage, and
22harm, or in any building located on land owned by the Chicago
23Park District if approved by the Park District Commissioners,
24or on any land used for a golf course or for recreational
25purposes and owned by the Illinois International Port District
26if approved by the District's governing board, or at any

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1airport, golf course, faculty center, or facility in which
2conference and convention type activities take place belonging
3to or under control of any State university or public community
4college district, provided that with respect to a facility for
5conference and convention type activities alcoholic liquors
6shall be limited to the use of the convention or conference
7participants or participants in cultural, political or
8educational activities held in such facilities, and provided
9further that the faculty or staff of the State university or a
10public community college district, or members of an
11organization of students, alumni, faculty or staff of the State
12university or a public community college district are active
13participants in the conference or convention, or in Memorial
14Stadium on the campus of the University of Illinois at
15Urbana-Champaign during games in which the Chicago Bears
16professional football team is playing in that stadium during
17the renovation of Soldier Field, not more than one and a half
18hours before the start of the game and not after the end of the
19third quarter of the game, or in the Pavilion Facility on the
20campus of the University of Illinois at Chicago during games in
21which the Chicago Storm professional soccer team is playing in
22that facility, not more than one and a half hours before the
23start of the game and not after the end of the third quarter of
24the game, or in the Pavilion Facility on the campus of the
25University of Illinois at Chicago during games in which the
26WNBA professional women's basketball team is playing in that

09800SB2640ham001- 1030 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1facility, not more than one and a half hours before the start
2of the game and not after the 10-minute mark of the second half
3of the game, or by a catering establishment which has rented
4facilities from a board of trustees of a public community
5college district, or in a restaurant that is operated by a
6commercial tenant in the North Campus Parking Deck building
7that (1) is located at 1201 West University Avenue, Urbana,
8Illinois and (2) is owned by the Board of Trustees of the
9University of Illinois, or, if approved by the District board,
10on land owned by the Metropolitan Sanitary District of Greater
11Chicago and leased to others for a term of at least 20 years.
12Nothing in this Section precludes the sale or delivery of
13alcoholic liquor in the form of original packaged goods in
14premises located at 500 S. Racine in Chicago belonging to the
15University of Illinois and used primarily as a grocery store by
16a commercial tenant during the term of a lease that predates
17the University's acquisition of the premises; but the
18University shall have no power or authority to renew, transfer,
19or extend the lease with terms allowing the sale of alcoholic
20liquor; and the sale of alcoholic liquor shall be subject to
21all local laws and regulations. After the acquisition by
22Winnebago County of the property located at 404 Elm Street in
23Rockford, a commercial tenant who sold alcoholic liquor at
24retail on a portion of the property under a valid license at
25the time of the acquisition may continue to do so for so long
26as the tenant and the County may agree under existing or future

09800SB2640ham001- 1031 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1leases, subject to all local laws and regulations regarding the
2sale of alcoholic liquor. Alcoholic liquors may be delivered to
3and sold at Memorial Hall, located at 211 North Main Street,
4Rockford, under conditions approved by Winnebago County and
5subject to all local laws and regulations regarding the sale of
6alcoholic liquor. Each facility shall provide dram shop
7liability in maximum insurance coverage limits so as to save
8harmless the State, municipality, State university, airport,
9golf course, faculty center, facility in which conference and
10convention type activities take place, park district, Forest
11Preserve District, public community college district,
12aquarium, museum, or sanitary district from all financial loss,
13damage or harm. Alcoholic liquors may be sold at retail in
14buildings of golf courses owned by municipalities or Illinois
15State University in connection with the operation of an
16established food serving facility during times when food is
17dispensed for consumption upon the premises. Alcoholic liquors
18may be delivered to and sold at retail in any building owned by
19a fire protection district organized under the Fire Protection
20District Act, provided that such delivery and sale is approved
21by the board of trustees of the district, and provided further
22that such delivery and sale is limited to fundraising events
23and to a maximum of 6 events per year. However, the limitation
24to fundraising events and to a maximum of 6 events per year
25does not apply to the delivery, sale, or manufacture of
26alcoholic liquors at the building located at 59 Main Street in

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1Oswego, Illinois, owned by the Oswego Fire Protection District
2if the alcoholic liquor is sold or dispensed as approved by the
3Oswego Fire Protection District and the property is no longer
4being utilized for fire protection purposes.
5 Alcoholic liquors may be served or sold in buildings under
6the control of the Board of Trustees of the University of
7Illinois for events that the Board may determine are public
8events and not related student activities. The Board of
9Trustees shall issue a written policy within 6 months of the
10effective date of this amendatory Act of the 95th General
11Assembly concerning the types of events that would be eligible
12for an exemption. Thereafter, the Board of Trustees may issue
13revised, updated, new, or amended policies as it deems
14necessary and appropriate. In preparing its written policy, the
15Board of Trustees shall, among other factors it considers
16relevant and important, give consideration to the following:
17(i) whether the event is a student activity or student related
18activity; (ii) whether the physical setting of the event is
19conducive to control of liquor sales and distribution; (iii)
20the ability of the event operator to ensure that the sale or
21serving of alcoholic liquors and the demeanor of the
22participants are in accordance with State law and University
23policies; (iv) regarding the anticipated attendees at the
24event, the relative proportion of individuals under the age of
2521 to individuals age 21 or older; (v) the ability of the venue
26operator to prevent the sale or distribution of alcoholic

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1liquors to individuals under the age of 21; (vi) whether the
2event prohibits participants from removing alcoholic beverages
3from the venue; and (vii) whether the event prohibits
4participants from providing their own alcoholic liquors to the
5venue. In addition, any policy submitted by the Board of
6Trustees to the Illinois Liquor Control Commission must require
7that any event at which alcoholic liquors are served or sold in
8buildings under the control of the Board of Trustees shall
9require the prior written approval of the Office of the
10Chancellor for the University campus where the event is
11located. The Board of Trustees shall submit its policy, and any
12subsequently revised, updated, new, or amended policies, to the
13Illinois Liquor Control Commission, and any University event,
14or location for an event, exempted under such policies shall
15apply for a license under the applicable Sections of this Act.
16 Alcoholic liquors may be served or sold in buildings under
17the control of the Board of Trustees of Northern Illinois
18University for events that the Board may determine are public
19events and not student-related activities. The Board of
20Trustees shall issue a written policy within 6 months after
21June 28, 2011 (the effective date of Public Act 97-45)
22concerning the types of events that would be eligible for an
23exemption. Thereafter, the Board of Trustees may issue revised,
24updated, new, or amended policies as it deems necessary and
25appropriate. In preparing its written policy, the Board of
26Trustees shall, in addition to other factors it considers

09800SB2640ham001- 1034 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1relevant and important, give consideration to the following:
2(i) whether the event is a student activity or student-related
3activity; (ii) whether the physical setting of the event is
4conducive to control of liquor sales and distribution; (iii)
5the ability of the event operator to ensure that the sale or
6serving of alcoholic liquors and the demeanor of the
7participants are in accordance with State law and University
8policies; (iv) the anticipated attendees at the event and the
9relative proportion of individuals under the age of 21 to
10individuals age 21 or older; (v) the ability of the venue
11operator to prevent the sale or distribution of alcoholic
12liquors to individuals under the age of 21; (vi) whether the
13event prohibits participants from removing alcoholic beverages
14from the venue; and (vii) whether the event prohibits
15participants from providing their own alcoholic liquors to the
16venue.
17 Alcoholic liquors may be served or sold in buildings under
18the control of the Board of Trustees of Chicago State
19University for events that the Board may determine are public
20events and not student-related activities. The Board of
21Trustees shall issue a written policy within 6 months after
22August 2, 2013 (the effective date of Public Act 98-132) this
23amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly concerning the
24types of events that would be eligible for an exemption.
25Thereafter, the Board of Trustees may issue revised, updated,
26new, or amended policies as it deems necessary and appropriate.

09800SB2640ham001- 1035 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1In preparing its written policy, the Board of Trustees shall,
2in addition to other factors it considers relevant and
3important, give consideration to the following: (i) whether the
4event is a student activity or student-related activity; (ii)
5whether the physical setting of the event is conducive to
6control of liquor sales and distribution; (iii) the ability of
7the event operator to ensure that the sale or serving of
8alcoholic liquors and the demeanor of the participants are in
9accordance with State law and University policies; (iv) the
10anticipated attendees at the event and the relative proportion
11of individuals under the age of 21 to individuals age 21 or
12older; (v) the ability of the venue operator to prevent the
13sale or distribution of alcoholic liquors to individuals under
14the age of 21; (vi) whether the event prohibits participants
15from removing alcoholic beverages from the venue; and (vii)
16whether the event prohibits participants from providing their
17own alcoholic liquors to the venue.
18 Alcoholic liquors may be served or sold in buildings under
19the control of the Board of Trustees of Illinois State
20University for events that the Board may determine are public
21events and not student-related activities. The Board of
22Trustees shall issue a written policy within 6 months after the
23effective date of this amendatory Act of the 97th General
24Assembly concerning the types of events that would be eligible
25for an exemption. Thereafter, the Board of Trustees may issue
26revised, updated, new, or amended policies as it deems

09800SB2640ham001- 1036 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1necessary and appropriate. In preparing its written policy, the
2Board of Trustees shall, in addition to other factors it
3considers relevant and important, give consideration to the
4following: (i) whether the event is a student activity or
5student-related activity; (ii) whether the physical setting of
6the event is conducive to control of liquor sales and
7distribution; (iii) the ability of the event operator to ensure
8that the sale or serving of alcoholic liquors and the demeanor
9of the participants are in accordance with State law and
10University policies; (iv) the anticipated attendees at the
11event and the relative proportion of individuals under the age
12of 21 to individuals age 21 or older; (v) the ability of the
13venue operator to prevent the sale or distribution of alcoholic
14liquors to individuals under the age of 21; (vi) whether the
15event prohibits participants from removing alcoholic beverages
16from the venue; and (vii) whether the event prohibits
17participants from providing their own alcoholic liquors to the
18venue.
19 Alcoholic liquor may be delivered to and sold at retail in
20the Dorchester Senior Business Center owned by the Village of
21Dolton if the alcoholic liquor is sold or dispensed only in
22connection with organized functions for which the planned
23attendance is 20 or more persons, and if the person or facility
24selling or dispensing the alcoholic liquor has provided dram
25shop liability insurance in maximum limits so as to hold
26harmless the Village of Dolton and the State from all financial

09800SB2640ham001- 1037 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1loss, damage and harm.
2 Alcoholic liquors may be delivered to and sold at retail in
3any building used as an Illinois State Armory provided:
4 (i) the Adjutant General's written consent to the
5 issuance of a license to sell alcoholic liquor in such
6 building is filed with the Commission;
7 (ii) the alcoholic liquor is sold or dispensed only in
8 connection with organized functions held on special
9 occasions;
10 (iii) the organized function is one for which the
11 planned attendance is 25 or more persons; and
12 (iv) the facility selling or dispensing the alcoholic
13 liquors has provided dram shop liability insurance in
14 maximum limits so as to save harmless the facility and the
15 State from all financial loss, damage or harm.
16 Alcoholic liquors may be delivered to and sold at retail in
17the Chicago Civic Center, provided that:
18 (i) the written consent of the Public Building
19 Commission which administers the Chicago Civic Center is
20 filed with the Commission;
21 (ii) the alcoholic liquor is sold or dispensed only in
22 connection with organized functions held on special
23 occasions;
24 (iii) the organized function is one for which the
25 planned attendance is 25 or more persons;
26 (iv) the facility selling or dispensing the alcoholic

09800SB2640ham001- 1038 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 liquors has provided dram shop liability insurance in
2 maximum limits so as to hold harmless the Civic Center, the
3 City of Chicago and the State from all financial loss,
4 damage or harm; and
5 (v) all applicable local ordinances are complied with.
6 Alcoholic liquors may be delivered or sold in any building
7belonging to or under the control of any city, village or
8incorporated town where more than 75% of the physical
9properties of the building is used for commercial or
10recreational purposes, and the building is located upon a pier
11extending into or over the waters of a navigable lake or stream
12or on the shore of a navigable lake or stream. In accordance
13with a license issued under this Act, alcoholic liquor may be
14sold, served, or delivered in buildings and facilities under
15the control of the Department of Natural Resources during
16events or activities lasting no more than 7 continuous days
17upon the written approval of the Director of Natural Resources
18acting as the controlling government authority. The Director of
19Natural Resources may specify conditions on that approval,
20including but not limited to requirements for insurance and
21hours of operation. Notwithstanding any other provision of this
22Act, alcoholic liquor sold by a United States Army Corps of
23Engineers or Department of Natural Resources concessionaire
24who was operating on June 1, 1991 for on-premises consumption
25only is not subject to the provisions of Articles IV and IX.
26Beer and wine may be sold on the premises of the Joliet Park

09800SB2640ham001- 1039 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1District Stadium owned by the Joliet Park District when written
2consent to the issuance of a license to sell beer and wine in
3such premises is filed with the local liquor commissioner by
4the Joliet Park District. Beer and wine may be sold in
5buildings on the grounds of State veterans' homes when written
6consent to the issuance of a license to sell beer and wine in
7such buildings is filed with the Commission by the Department
8of Veterans' Affairs, and the facility shall provide dram shop
9liability in maximum insurance coverage limits so as to save
10the facility harmless from all financial loss, damage or harm.
11Such liquors may be delivered to and sold at any property owned
12or held under lease by a Metropolitan Pier and Exposition
13Authority or Metropolitan Exposition and Auditorium Authority.
14 Beer and wine may be sold and dispensed at professional
15sporting events and at professional concerts and other
16entertainment events conducted on premises owned by the Forest
17Preserve District of Kane County, subject to the control of the
18District Commissioners and applicable local law, provided that
19dram shop liability insurance is provided at maximum coverage
20limits so as to hold the District harmless from all financial
21loss, damage and harm.
22 Nothing in this Section shall preclude the sale or delivery
23of beer and wine at a State or county fair or the sale or
24delivery of beer or wine at a city fair in any otherwise lawful
25manner.
26 Alcoholic liquors may be sold at retail in buildings in

09800SB2640ham001- 1040 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1State parks under the control of the Department of Natural
2Resources, provided:
3 a. the State park has overnight lodging facilities with
4 some restaurant facilities or, not having overnight
5 lodging facilities, has restaurant facilities which serve
6 complete luncheon and dinner or supper meals,
7 b. consent to the issuance of a license to sell
8 alcoholic liquors in the buildings has been filed with the
9 commission by the Department of Natural Resources, and
10 c. the alcoholic liquors are sold by the State park
11 lodge or restaurant concessionaire only during the hours
12 from 11 o'clock a.m. until 12 o'clock midnight.
13 Notwithstanding any other provision of this Act, alcoholic
14 liquor sold by the State park or restaurant concessionaire
15 is not subject to the provisions of Articles IV and IX.
16 Alcoholic liquors may be sold at retail in buildings on
17properties under the control of the Historic Sites and
18Preservation Division of the Historic Preservation Agency or
19the Abraham Lincoln Presidential Library and Museum provided:
20 a. the property has overnight lodging facilities with
21 some restaurant facilities or, not having overnight
22 lodging facilities, has restaurant facilities which serve
23 complete luncheon and dinner or supper meals,
24 b. consent to the issuance of a license to sell
25 alcoholic liquors in the buildings has been filed with the
26 commission by the Historic Sites and Preservation Division

09800SB2640ham001- 1041 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 of the Historic Preservation Agency or the Abraham Lincoln
2 Presidential Library and Museum, and
3 c. the alcoholic liquors are sold by the lodge or
4 restaurant concessionaire only during the hours from 11
5 o'clock a.m. until 12 o'clock midnight.
6 The sale of alcoholic liquors pursuant to this Section does
7not authorize the establishment and operation of facilities
8commonly called taverns, saloons, bars, cocktail lounges, and
9the like except as a part of lodge and restaurant facilities in
10State parks or golf courses owned by Forest Preserve Districts
11with a population of less than 3,000,000 or municipalities or
12park districts.
13 Alcoholic liquors may be sold at retail in the Springfield
14Administration Building of the Department of Transportation
15and the Illinois State Armory in Springfield; provided, that
16the controlling government authority may consent to such sales
17only if
18 a. the request is from a not-for-profit organization;
19 b. such sales would not impede normal operations of the
20 departments involved;
21 c. the not-for-profit organization provides dram shop
22 liability in maximum insurance coverage limits and agrees
23 to defend, save harmless and indemnify the State of
24 Illinois from all financial loss, damage or harm;
25 d. no such sale shall be made during normal working
26 hours of the State of Illinois; and

09800SB2640ham001- 1042 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 e. the consent is in writing.
2 Alcoholic liquors may be sold at retail in buildings in
3recreational areas of river conservancy districts under the
4control of, or leased from, the river conservancy districts.
5Such sales are subject to reasonable local regulations as
6provided in Article IV; however, no such regulations may
7prohibit or substantially impair the sale of alcoholic liquors
8on Sundays or Holidays.
9 Alcoholic liquors may be provided in long term care
10facilities owned or operated by a county under Division 5-21 or
115-22 of the Counties Code, when approved by the facility
12operator and not in conflict with the regulations of the
13Illinois Department of Public Health, to residents of the
14facility who have had their consumption of the alcoholic
15liquors provided approved in writing by a physician licensed to
16practice medicine in all its branches.
17 Alcoholic liquors may be delivered to and dispensed in
18State housing assigned to employees of the Department of
19Corrections. No person shall furnish or allow to be furnished
20any alcoholic liquors to any prisoner confined in any jail,
21reformatory, prison or house of correction except upon a
22physician's prescription for medicinal purposes.
23 Alcoholic liquors may be sold at retail or dispensed at the
24Willard Ice Building in Springfield, at the State Library in
25Springfield, and at Illinois State Museum facilities by (1) an
26agency of the State, whether legislative, judicial or

09800SB2640ham001- 1043 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1executive, provided that such agency first obtains written
2permission to sell or dispense alcoholic liquors from the
3controlling government authority, or by (2) a not-for-profit
4organization, provided that such organization:
5 a. Obtains written consent from the controlling
6 government authority;
7 b. Sells or dispenses the alcoholic liquors in a manner
8 that does not impair normal operations of State offices
9 located in the building;
10 c. Sells or dispenses alcoholic liquors only in
11 connection with an official activity in the building;
12 d. Provides, or its catering service provides, dram
13 shop liability insurance in maximum coverage limits and in
14 which the carrier agrees to defend, save harmless and
15 indemnify the State of Illinois from all financial loss,
16 damage or harm arising out of the selling or dispensing of
17 alcoholic liquors.
18 Nothing in this Act shall prevent a not-for-profit
19organization or agency of the State from employing the services
20of a catering establishment for the selling or dispensing of
21alcoholic liquors at authorized functions.
22 The controlling government authority for the Willard Ice
23Building in Springfield shall be the Director of the Department
24of Revenue. The controlling government authority for Illinois
25State Museum facilities shall be the Director of the Illinois
26State Museum. The controlling government authority for the

09800SB2640ham001- 1044 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1State Library in Springfield shall be the Secretary of State.
2 Alcoholic liquors may be delivered to and sold at retail or
3dispensed at any facility, property or building under the
4jurisdiction of the Historic Sites and Preservation Division of
5the Historic Preservation Agency or the Abraham Lincoln
6Presidential Library and Museum where the delivery, sale or
7dispensing is by (1) an agency of the State, whether
8legislative, judicial or executive, provided that such agency
9first obtains written permission to sell or dispense alcoholic
10liquors from a controlling government authority, or by (2) an
11individual or organization provided that such individual or
12organization:
13 a. Obtains written consent from the controlling
14 government authority;
15 b. Sells or dispenses the alcoholic liquors in a manner
16 that does not impair normal workings of State offices or
17 operations located at the facility, property or building;
18 c. Sells or dispenses alcoholic liquors only in
19 connection with an official activity of the individual or
20 organization in the facility, property or building;
21 d. Provides, or its catering service provides, dram
22 shop liability insurance in maximum coverage limits and in
23 which the carrier agrees to defend, save harmless and
24 indemnify the State of Illinois from all financial loss,
25 damage or harm arising out of the selling or dispensing of
26 alcoholic liquors.

09800SB2640ham001- 1045 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 The controlling government authority for the Historic
2Sites and Preservation Division of the Historic Preservation
3Agency shall be the Director of the Historic Sites and
4Preservation, and the controlling government authority for the
5Abraham Lincoln Presidential Library and Museum shall be the
6Director of the Abraham Lincoln Presidential Library and
7Museum.
8 Alcoholic liquors may be delivered to and sold at retail or
9dispensed for consumption at the Michael Bilandic Building at
10160 North LaSalle Street, Chicago IL 60601, after the normal
11business hours of any day care or child care facility located
12in the building, by (1) a commercial tenant or subtenant
13conducting business on the premises under a lease made pursuant
14to Section 405-315 of the Department of Central Management
15Services Law (20 ILCS 405/405-315), provided that such tenant
16or subtenant who accepts delivery of, sells, or dispenses
17alcoholic liquors shall procure and maintain dram shop
18liability insurance in maximum coverage limits and in which the
19carrier agrees to defend, indemnify, and save harmless the
20State of Illinois from all financial loss, damage, or harm
21arising out of the delivery, sale, or dispensing of alcoholic
22liquors, or by (2) an agency of the State, whether legislative,
23judicial, or executive, provided that such agency first obtains
24written permission to accept delivery of and sell or dispense
25alcoholic liquors from the Director of Central Management
26Services, or by (3) a not-for-profit organization, provided

09800SB2640ham001- 1046 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1that such organization:
2 a. obtains written consent from the Department of
3 Central Management Services;
4 b. accepts delivery of and sells or dispenses the
5 alcoholic liquors in a manner that does not impair normal
6 operations of State offices located in the building;
7 c. accepts delivery of and sells or dispenses alcoholic
8 liquors only in connection with an official activity in the
9 building; and
10 d. provides, or its catering service provides, dram
11 shop liability insurance in maximum coverage limits and in
12 which the carrier agrees to defend, save harmless, and
13 indemnify the State of Illinois from all financial loss,
14 damage, or harm arising out of the selling or dispensing of
15 alcoholic liquors.
16 Nothing in this Act shall prevent a not-for-profit
17organization or agency of the State from employing the services
18of a catering establishment for the selling or dispensing of
19alcoholic liquors at functions authorized by the Director of
20Central Management Services.
21 Alcoholic liquors may be sold at retail or dispensed at the
22James R. Thompson Center in Chicago, subject to the provisions
23of Section 7.4 of the State Property Control Act, and 222 South
24College Street in Springfield, Illinois by (1) a commercial
25tenant or subtenant conducting business on the premises under a
26lease or sublease made pursuant to Section 405-315 of the

09800SB2640ham001- 1047 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1Department of Central Management Services Law (20 ILCS
2405/405-315), provided that such tenant or subtenant who sells
3or dispenses alcoholic liquors shall procure and maintain dram
4shop liability insurance in maximum coverage limits and in
5which the carrier agrees to defend, indemnify and save harmless
6the State of Illinois from all financial loss, damage or harm
7arising out of the sale or dispensing of alcoholic liquors, or
8by (2) an agency of the State, whether legislative, judicial or
9executive, provided that such agency first obtains written
10permission to sell or dispense alcoholic liquors from the
11Director of Central Management Services, or by (3) a
12not-for-profit organization, provided that such organization:
13 a. Obtains written consent from the Department of
14 Central Management Services;
15 b. Sells or dispenses the alcoholic liquors in a manner
16 that does not impair normal operations of State offices
17 located in the building;
18 c. Sells or dispenses alcoholic liquors only in
19 connection with an official activity in the building;
20 d. Provides, or its catering service provides, dram
21 shop liability insurance in maximum coverage limits and in
22 which the carrier agrees to defend, save harmless and
23 indemnify the State of Illinois from all financial loss,
24 damage or harm arising out of the selling or dispensing of
25 alcoholic liquors.
26 Nothing in this Act shall prevent a not-for-profit

09800SB2640ham001- 1048 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1organization or agency of the State from employing the services
2of a catering establishment for the selling or dispensing of
3alcoholic liquors at functions authorized by the Director of
4Central Management Services.
5 Alcoholic liquors may be sold or delivered at any facility
6owned by the Illinois Sports Facilities Authority provided that
7dram shop liability insurance has been made available in a
8form, with such coverage and in such amounts as the Authority
9reasonably determines is necessary.
10 Alcoholic liquors may be sold at retail or dispensed at the
11Rockford State Office Building by (1) an agency of the State,
12whether legislative, judicial or executive, provided that such
13agency first obtains written permission to sell or dispense
14alcoholic liquors from the Department of Central Management
15Services, or by (2) a not-for-profit organization, provided
16that such organization:
17 a. Obtains written consent from the Department of
18 Central Management Services;
19 b. Sells or dispenses the alcoholic liquors in a manner
20 that does not impair normal operations of State offices
21 located in the building;
22 c. Sells or dispenses alcoholic liquors only in
23 connection with an official activity in the building;
24 d. Provides, or its catering service provides, dram
25 shop liability insurance in maximum coverage limits and in
26 which the carrier agrees to defend, save harmless and

09800SB2640ham001- 1049 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 indemnify the State of Illinois from all financial loss,
2 damage or harm arising out of the selling or dispensing of
3 alcoholic liquors.
4 Nothing in this Act shall prevent a not-for-profit
5organization or agency of the State from employing the services
6of a catering establishment for the selling or dispensing of
7alcoholic liquors at functions authorized by the Department of
8Central Management Services.
9 Alcoholic liquors may be sold or delivered in a building
10that is owned by McLean County, situated on land owned by the
11county in the City of Bloomington, and used by the McLean
12County Historical Society if the sale or delivery is approved
13by an ordinance adopted by the county board, and the
14municipality in which the building is located may not prohibit
15that sale or delivery, notwithstanding any other provision of
16this Section. The regulation of the sale and delivery of
17alcoholic liquor in a building that is owned by McLean County,
18situated on land owned by the county, and used by the McLean
19County Historical Society as provided in this paragraph is an
20exclusive power and function of the State and is a denial and
21limitation under Article VII, Section 6, subsection (h) of the
22Illinois Constitution of the power of a home rule municipality
23to regulate that sale and delivery.
24 Alcoholic liquors may be sold or delivered in any building
25situated on land held in trust for any school district
26organized under Article 34 of the School Code, if the building

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1is not used for school purposes and if the sale or delivery is
2approved by the board of education.
3 Alcoholic liquors may be sold or delivered in buildings
4owned by the Community Building Complex Committee of Boone
5County, Illinois if the person or facility selling or
6dispensing the alcoholic liquor has provided dram shop
7liability insurance with coverage and in amounts that the
8Committee reasonably determines are necessary.
9 Alcoholic liquors may be sold or delivered in the building
10located at 1200 Centerville Avenue in Belleville, Illinois and
11occupied by either the Belleville Area Special Education
12District or the Belleville Area Special Services Cooperative.
13 Alcoholic liquors may be delivered to and sold at the Louis
14Joliet Renaissance Center, City Center Campus, located at 214
15N. Ottawa Street, Joliet, and the Food Services/Culinary Arts
16Department facilities, Main Campus, located at 1215 Houbolt
17Road, Joliet, owned by or under the control of Joliet Junior
18College, Illinois Community College District No. 525.
19 Alcoholic liquors may be delivered to and sold at Triton
20College, Illinois Community College District No. 504.
21 Alcoholic liquors may be delivered to and sold at the
22College of DuPage, Illinois Community College District No. 502.
23 Alcoholic liquors may be delivered to and sold at the
24building located at 446 East Hickory Avenue in Apple River,
25Illinois, owned by the Apple River Fire Protection District,
26and occupied by the Apple River Community Association if the

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1alcoholic liquor is sold or dispensed only in connection with
2organized functions approved by the Apple River Community
3Association for which the planned attendance is 20 or more
4persons and if the person or facility selling or dispensing the
5alcoholic liquor has provided dram shop liability insurance in
6maximum limits so as to hold harmless the Apple River Fire
7Protection District, the Village of Apple River, and the Apple
8River Community Association from all financial loss, damage,
9and harm.
10 Alcoholic liquors may be delivered to and sold at the Sikia
11Restaurant, Kennedy King College Campus, located at 740 West
1263rd Street, Chicago, and at the Food Services in the Great
13Hall/Washburne Culinary Institute Department facility, Kennedy
14King College Campus, located at 740 West 63rd Street, Chicago,
15owned by or under the control of City Colleges of Chicago,
16Illinois Community College District No. 508.
17(Source: P.A. 97-33, eff. 6-28-11; 97-45, eff. 6-28-11; 97-51,
18eff. 6-28-11; 97-167, eff. 7-22-11; 97-250, eff. 8-4-11;
1997-395, eff. 8-16-11; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 97-1166, eff.
203-1-13; 98-132, eff. 8-2-13; 98-201, eff. 8-9-13; revised
219-24-13.)
22 (235 ILCS 5/7-1) (from Ch. 43, par. 145)
23 Sec. 7-1. An applicant for a retail license from the State
24Commission shall submit to the State Commission an application
25in writing under oath stating:

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1 (1) The applicant's name and mailing address;
2 (2) The name and address of the applicant's business;
3 (3) If applicable, the date of the filing of the
4 "assumed name" of the business with the County Clerk;
5 (4) In case of a copartnership, the date of the
6 formation of the partnership; in the case of an Illinois
7 corporation, the date of its incorporation; or in the case
8 of a foreign corporation, the State where it was
9 incorporated and the date of its becoming qualified under
10 the Business Corporation Act of 1983 to transact business
11 in the State of Illinois;
12 (5) The number, the date of issuance and the date of
13 expiration of the applicant's current local retail liquor
14 license;
15 (6) The name of the city, village, or county that
16 issued the local retail liquor license;
17 (7) The name and address of the landlord if the
18 premises are leased;
19 (8) The date of the applicant's first request for a
20 State liquor license and whether it was granted, denied or
21 withdrawn;
22 (9) The address of the applicant when the first
23 application for a State liquor license was made;
24 (10) The applicant's current State liquor license
25 number;
26 (11) The date the applicant began liquor sales at his

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1 place of business;
2 (12) The address of the applicant's warehouse if he
3 warehouses liquor;
4 (13) The applicant's Retailers' Retailer's Occupation
5 Tax (ROT) Registration Number;
6 (14) The applicant's document locator locater number
7 on his Federal Special Tax Stamp;
8 (15) Whether the applicant is delinquent in the payment
9 of the Retailers' Occupation Retailer's Occupational Tax
10 (Sales Tax), and if so, the reasons therefor;
11 (16) Whether the applicant is delinquent under the cash
12 beer law, and if so, the reasons therefor;
13 (17) In the case of a retailer, whether he is
14 delinquent under the 30-day 30 day credit law, and if so,
15 the reasons therefor;
16 (18) In the case of a distributor, whether he is
17 delinquent under the 15-day 15 day credit law, and if so,
18 the reasons therefor;
19 (19) Whether the applicant has made an application for
20 a liquor license which has been denied, and if so, the
21 reasons therefor;
22 (20) Whether the applicant has ever had any previous
23 liquor license suspended or revoked, and if so, the reasons
24 therefor;
25 (21) Whether the applicant has ever been convicted of a
26 gambling offense or felony, and if so, the particulars

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1 thereof;
2 (22) Whether the applicant possesses a current Federal
3 Wagering Stamp, and if so, the reasons therefor;
4 (23) Whether the applicant, or any other person,
5 directly in his place of business is a public official, and
6 if so, the particulars thereof;
7 (24) The applicant's name, sex, date of birth, social
8 security number, position and percentage of ownership in
9 the business; and the name, sex, date of birth, social
10 security number, position and percentage of ownership in
11 the business of every sole owner, partner, corporate
12 officer, director, manager and any person who owns 5% or
13 more of the shares of the applicant business entity or
14 parent corporations of the applicant business entity; and
15 (25) That he has not received or borrowed money or
16 anything else of value, and that he will not receive or
17 borrow money or anything else of value (other than
18 merchandising credit in the ordinary course of business for
19 a period not to exceed 90 days as herein expressly
20 permitted under Section 6-5 hereof), directly or
21 indirectly, from any manufacturer, importing distributor
22 or distributor or from any representative of any such
23 manufacturer, importing distributor or distributor, nor be
24 a party in any way, directly or indirectly, to any
25 violation by a manufacturer, distributor or importing
26 distributor of Section 6-6 of this Act.

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1 In addition to any other requirement of this Section, an
2applicant for a special use permit license and a special event
3retailer's license shall also submit (A) proof satisfactory to
4the Commission that the applicant has a resale number issued
5under Section 2c of the Retailers' Retailer's Occupation Tax
6Act or that the applicant is registered under Section 2a of the
7Retailers' Retailer's Occupation Tax Act, (B) proof
8satisfactory to the Commission that the applicant has a
9current, valid exemption identification number issued under
10Section 1g of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act and a
11certification to the Commission that the purchase of alcoholic
12liquors will be a tax-exempt purchase, or (C) a statement that
13the applicant is not registered under Section 2a of the
14Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, does not hold a resale number
15under Section 2c of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, and does
16not hold an exemption number under Section 1g of the Retailers'
17Occupation Tax Act. The applicant shall also submit proof of
18adequate dram shop insurance for the special event prior to
19being issued a license.
20 In addition to the foregoing information, such application
21shall contain such other and further information as the State
22Commission and the local commission may, by rule or regulation
23not inconsistent with law, prescribe.
24 If the applicant reports a felony conviction as required
25under paragraph (21) of this Section, such conviction may be
26considered by the Commission in determining qualifications for

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1licensing, but shall not operate as a bar to licensing.
2 If said application is made in behalf of a partnership,
3firm, association, club or corporation, then the same shall be
4signed by one member of such partnership or the president or
5secretary of such corporation or an authorized agent of said
6partnership or corporation.
7 All other applications shall be on forms prescribed by the
8State Commission, and which may exclude any of the above
9requirements which the State Commission rules to be
10inapplicable.
11(Source: P.A. 90-596, eff. 6-24-98; 91-357, eff. 7-29-99;
12revised 11-12-13.)
13 Section 540. The Illinois Public Aid Code is amended by
14changing Sections 1-10, 5-5, 5-5.2, 5-5.4, 5-5f, 5A-5, 5A-8,
155A-12.4, 11-5.2, and 12-4.25 and by setting forth and
16renumbering multiple versions of Section 12-4.45 as follows:
17 (305 ILCS 5/1-10)
18 Sec. 1-10. Drug convictions.
19 (a) Persons convicted of an offense under the Illinois
20Controlled Substances Act, the Cannabis Control Act, or the
21Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act which is a
22Class X felony, or a Class 1 felony, or comparable federal
23criminal law which has as an element the possession, use, or
24distribution of a controlled substance, as defined in Section

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1102(6) of the federal Controlled Substances Act (21 U.S.C.
2802(c)), shall not be eligible for cash assistance provided
3under this Code.
4 (b) Persons convicted of any other felony under the
5Illinois Controlled Substances Act, the Cannabis Control Act,
6or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act
7which is not a Class X or Class 1 felony, or comparable federal
8criminal law which has as an element the possession, use, or
9distribution of a controlled substance, as defined in Section
10102(6) of the federal Controlled Substances Act (21 U.S.C.
11802(c)), shall not be eligible for cash assistance provided
12under this Code for 2 years from the date of conviction. This
13prohibition shall not apply if the person is in a drug
14treatment program, aftercare program, or similar program as
15defined by rule.
16 (c) Persons shall not be determined ineligible for food
17stamps provided under this Code based upon a conviction of any
18felony or comparable federal or State criminal law which has an
19element the possession, use or distribution of a controlled
20substance, as defined in Section 102(6) of the federal
21Controlled Substances Substance Act (21 U.S.C. 802(c)).
22(Source: P.A. 94-556, eff. 9-11-05; revised 11-12-13.)
23 (305 ILCS 5/5-5) (from Ch. 23, par. 5-5)
24 Sec. 5-5. Medical services. The Illinois Department, by
25rule, shall determine the quantity and quality of and the rate

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1of reimbursement for the medical assistance for which payment
2will be authorized, and the medical services to be provided,
3which may include all or part of the following: (1) inpatient
4hospital services; (2) outpatient hospital services; (3) other
5laboratory and X-ray services; (4) skilled nursing home
6services; (5) physicians' services whether furnished in the
7office, the patient's home, a hospital, a skilled nursing home,
8or elsewhere; (6) medical care, or any other type of remedial
9care furnished by licensed practitioners; (7) home health care
10services; (8) private duty nursing service; (9) clinic
11services; (10) dental services, including prevention and
12treatment of periodontal disease and dental caries disease for
13pregnant women, provided by an individual licensed to practice
14dentistry or dental surgery; for purposes of this item (10),
15"dental services" means diagnostic, preventive, or corrective
16procedures provided by or under the supervision of a dentist in
17the practice of his or her profession; (11) physical therapy
18and related services; (12) prescribed drugs, dentures, and
19prosthetic devices; and eyeglasses prescribed by a physician
20skilled in the diseases of the eye, or by an optometrist,
21whichever the person may select; (13) other diagnostic,
22screening, preventive, and rehabilitative services, including
23to ensure that the individual's need for intervention or
24treatment of mental disorders or substance use disorders or
25co-occurring mental health and substance use disorders is
26determined using a uniform screening, assessment, and

09800SB2640ham001- 1059 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1evaluation process inclusive of criteria, for children and
2adults; for purposes of this item (13), a uniform screening,
3assessment, and evaluation process refers to a process that
4includes an appropriate evaluation and, as warranted, a
5referral; "uniform" does not mean the use of a singular
6instrument, tool, or process that all must utilize; (14)
7transportation and such other expenses as may be necessary;
8(15) medical treatment of sexual assault survivors, as defined
9in Section 1a of the Sexual Assault Survivors Emergency
10Treatment Act, for injuries sustained as a result of the sexual
11assault, including examinations and laboratory tests to
12discover evidence which may be used in criminal proceedings
13arising from the sexual assault; (16) the diagnosis and
14treatment of sickle cell anemia; and (17) any other medical
15care, and any other type of remedial care recognized under the
16laws of this State, but not including abortions, or induced
17miscarriages or premature births, unless, in the opinion of a
18physician, such procedures are necessary for the preservation
19of the life of the woman seeking such treatment, or except an
20induced premature birth intended to produce a live viable child
21and such procedure is necessary for the health of the mother or
22her unborn child. The Illinois Department, by rule, shall
23prohibit any physician from providing medical assistance to
24anyone eligible therefor under this Code where such physician
25has been found guilty of performing an abortion procedure in a
26wilful and wanton manner upon a woman who was not pregnant at

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1the time such abortion procedure was performed. The term "any
2other type of remedial care" shall include nursing care and
3nursing home service for persons who rely on treatment by
4spiritual means alone through prayer for healing.
5 Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section, a
6comprehensive tobacco use cessation program that includes
7purchasing prescription drugs or prescription medical devices
8approved by the Food and Drug Administration shall be covered
9under the medical assistance program under this Article for
10persons who are otherwise eligible for assistance under this
11Article.
12 Notwithstanding any other provision of this Code, the
13Illinois Department may not require, as a condition of payment
14for any laboratory test authorized under this Article, that a
15physician's handwritten signature appear on the laboratory
16test order form. The Illinois Department may, however, impose
17other appropriate requirements regarding laboratory test order
18documentation.
19 On and after July 1, 2012, the Department of Healthcare and
20Family Services may provide the following services to persons
21eligible for assistance under this Article who are
22participating in education, training or employment programs
23operated by the Department of Human Services as successor to
24the Department of Public Aid:
25 (1) dental services provided by or under the
26 supervision of a dentist; and

09800SB2640ham001- 1061 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 (2) eyeglasses prescribed by a physician skilled in the
2 diseases of the eye, or by an optometrist, whichever the
3 person may select.
4 Notwithstanding any other provision of this Code and
5subject to federal approval, the Department may adopt rules to
6allow a dentist who is volunteering his or her service at no
7cost to render dental services through an enrolled
8not-for-profit health clinic without the dentist personally
9enrolling as a participating provider in the medical assistance
10program. A not-for-profit health clinic shall include a public
11health clinic or Federally Qualified Health Center or other
12enrolled provider, as determined by the Department, through
13which dental services covered under this Section are performed.
14The Department shall establish a process for payment of claims
15for reimbursement for covered dental services rendered under
16this provision.
17 The Illinois Department, by rule, may distinguish and
18classify the medical services to be provided only in accordance
19with the classes of persons designated in Section 5-2.
20 The Department of Healthcare and Family Services must
21provide coverage and reimbursement for amino acid-based
22elemental formulas, regardless of delivery method, for the
23diagnosis and treatment of (i) eosinophilic disorders and (ii)
24short bowel syndrome when the prescribing physician has issued
25a written order stating that the amino acid-based elemental
26formula is medically necessary.

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1 The Illinois Department shall authorize the provision of,
2and shall authorize payment for, screening by low-dose
3mammography for the presence of occult breast cancer for women
435 years of age or older who are eligible for medical
5assistance under this Article, as follows:
6 (A) A baseline mammogram for women 35 to 39 years of
7 age.
8 (B) An annual mammogram for women 40 years of age or
9 older.
10 (C) A mammogram at the age and intervals considered
11 medically necessary by the woman's health care provider for
12 women under 40 years of age and having a family history of
13 breast cancer, prior personal history of breast cancer,
14 positive genetic testing, or other risk factors.
15 (D) A comprehensive ultrasound screening of an entire
16 breast or breasts if a mammogram demonstrates
17 heterogeneous or dense breast tissue, when medically
18 necessary as determined by a physician licensed to practice
19 medicine in all of its branches.
20 All screenings shall include a physical breast exam,
21instruction on self-examination and information regarding the
22frequency of self-examination and its value as a preventative
23tool. For purposes of this Section, "low-dose mammography"
24means the x-ray examination of the breast using equipment
25dedicated specifically for mammography, including the x-ray
26tube, filter, compression device, and image receptor, with an

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1average radiation exposure delivery of less than one rad per
2breast for 2 views of an average size breast. The term also
3includes digital mammography.
4 On and after January 1, 2012, providers participating in a
5quality improvement program approved by the Department shall be
6reimbursed for screening and diagnostic mammography at the same
7rate as the Medicare program's rates, including the increased
8reimbursement for digital mammography.
9 The Department shall convene an expert panel including
10representatives of hospitals, free-standing mammography
11facilities, and doctors, including radiologists, to establish
12quality standards.
13 Subject to federal approval, the Department shall
14establish a rate methodology for mammography at federally
15qualified health centers and other encounter-rate clinics.
16These clinics or centers may also collaborate with other
17hospital-based mammography facilities.
18 The Department shall establish a methodology to remind
19women who are age-appropriate for screening mammography, but
20who have not received a mammogram within the previous 18
21months, of the importance and benefit of screening mammography.
22 The Department shall establish a performance goal for
23primary care providers with respect to their female patients
24over age 40 receiving an annual mammogram. This performance
25goal shall be used to provide additional reimbursement in the
26form of a quality performance bonus to primary care providers

09800SB2640ham001- 1064 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1who meet that goal.
2 The Department shall devise a means of case-managing or
3patient navigation for beneficiaries diagnosed with breast
4cancer. This program shall initially operate as a pilot program
5in areas of the State with the highest incidence of mortality
6related to breast cancer. At least one pilot program site shall
7be in the metropolitan Chicago area and at least one site shall
8be outside the metropolitan Chicago area. An evaluation of the
9pilot program shall be carried out measuring health outcomes
10and cost of care for those served by the pilot program compared
11to similarly situated patients who are not served by the pilot
12program.
13 Any medical or health care provider shall immediately
14recommend, to any pregnant woman who is being provided prenatal
15services and is suspected of drug abuse or is addicted as
16defined in the Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency
17Act, referral to a local substance abuse treatment provider
18licensed by the Department of Human Services or to a licensed
19hospital which provides substance abuse treatment services.
20The Department of Healthcare and Family Services shall assure
21coverage for the cost of treatment of the drug abuse or
22addiction for pregnant recipients in accordance with the
23Illinois Medicaid Program in conjunction with the Department of
24Human Services.
25 All medical providers providing medical assistance to
26pregnant women under this Code shall receive information from

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1the Department on the availability of services under the Drug
2Free Families with a Future or any comparable program providing
3case management services for addicted women, including
4information on appropriate referrals for other social services
5that may be needed by addicted women in addition to treatment
6for addiction.
7 The Illinois Department, in cooperation with the
8Departments of Human Services (as successor to the Department
9of Alcoholism and Substance Abuse) and Public Health, through a
10public awareness campaign, may provide information concerning
11treatment for alcoholism and drug abuse and addiction, prenatal
12health care, and other pertinent programs directed at reducing
13the number of drug-affected infants born to recipients of
14medical assistance.
15 Neither the Department of Healthcare and Family Services
16nor the Department of Human Services shall sanction the
17recipient solely on the basis of her substance abuse.
18 The Illinois Department shall establish such regulations
19governing the dispensing of health services under this Article
20as it shall deem appropriate. The Department should seek the
21advice of formal professional advisory committees appointed by
22the Director of the Illinois Department for the purpose of
23providing regular advice on policy and administrative matters,
24information dissemination and educational activities for
25medical and health care providers, and consistency in
26procedures to the Illinois Department.

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1 The Illinois Department may develop and contract with
2Partnerships of medical providers to arrange medical services
3for persons eligible under Section 5-2 of this Code.
4Implementation of this Section may be by demonstration projects
5in certain geographic areas. The Partnership shall be
6represented by a sponsor organization. The Department, by rule,
7shall develop qualifications for sponsors of Partnerships.
8Nothing in this Section shall be construed to require that the
9sponsor organization be a medical organization.
10 The sponsor must negotiate formal written contracts with
11medical providers for physician services, inpatient and
12outpatient hospital care, home health services, treatment for
13alcoholism and substance abuse, and other services determined
14necessary by the Illinois Department by rule for delivery by
15Partnerships. Physician services must include prenatal and
16obstetrical care. The Illinois Department shall reimburse
17medical services delivered by Partnership providers to clients
18in target areas according to provisions of this Article and the
19Illinois Health Finance Reform Act, except that:
20 (1) Physicians participating in a Partnership and
21 providing certain services, which shall be determined by
22 the Illinois Department, to persons in areas covered by the
23 Partnership may receive an additional surcharge for such
24 services.
25 (2) The Department may elect to consider and negotiate
26 financial incentives to encourage the development of

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1 Partnerships and the efficient delivery of medical care.
2 (3) Persons receiving medical services through
3 Partnerships may receive medical and case management
4 services above the level usually offered through the
5 medical assistance program.
6 Medical providers shall be required to meet certain
7qualifications to participate in Partnerships to ensure the
8delivery of high quality medical services. These
9qualifications shall be determined by rule of the Illinois
10Department and may be higher than qualifications for
11participation in the medical assistance program. Partnership
12sponsors may prescribe reasonable additional qualifications
13for participation by medical providers, only with the prior
14written approval of the Illinois Department.
15 Nothing in this Section shall limit the free choice of
16practitioners, hospitals, and other providers of medical
17services by clients. In order to ensure patient freedom of
18choice, the Illinois Department shall immediately promulgate
19all rules and take all other necessary actions so that provided
20services may be accessed from therapeutically certified
21optometrists to the full extent of the Illinois Optometric
22Practice Act of 1987 without discriminating between service
23providers.
24 The Department shall apply for a waiver from the United
25States Health Care Financing Administration to allow for the
26implementation of Partnerships under this Section.

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1 The Illinois Department shall require health care
2providers to maintain records that document the medical care
3and services provided to recipients of Medical Assistance under
4this Article. Such records must be retained for a period of not
5less than 6 years from the date of service or as provided by
6applicable State law, whichever period is longer, except that
7if an audit is initiated within the required retention period
8then the records must be retained until the audit is completed
9and every exception is resolved. The Illinois Department shall
10require health care providers to make available, when
11authorized by the patient, in writing, the medical records in a
12timely fashion to other health care providers who are treating
13or serving persons eligible for Medical Assistance under this
14Article. All dispensers of medical services shall be required
15to maintain and retain business and professional records
16sufficient to fully and accurately document the nature, scope,
17details and receipt of the health care provided to persons
18eligible for medical assistance under this Code, in accordance
19with regulations promulgated by the Illinois Department. The
20rules and regulations shall require that proof of the receipt
21of prescription drugs, dentures, prosthetic devices and
22eyeglasses by eligible persons under this Section accompany
23each claim for reimbursement submitted by the dispenser of such
24medical services. No such claims for reimbursement shall be
25approved for payment by the Illinois Department without such
26proof of receipt, unless the Illinois Department shall have put

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1into effect and shall be operating a system of post-payment
2audit and review which shall, on a sampling basis, be deemed
3adequate by the Illinois Department to assure that such drugs,
4dentures, prosthetic devices and eyeglasses for which payment
5is being made are actually being received by eligible
6recipients. Within 90 days after the effective date of this
7amendatory Act of 1984, the Illinois Department shall establish
8a current list of acquisition costs for all prosthetic devices
9and any other items recognized as medical equipment and
10supplies reimbursable under this Article and shall update such
11list on a quarterly basis, except that the acquisition costs of
12all prescription drugs shall be updated no less frequently than
13every 30 days as required by Section 5-5.12.
14 The rules and regulations of the Illinois Department shall
15require that a written statement including the required opinion
16of a physician shall accompany any claim for reimbursement for
17abortions, or induced miscarriages or premature births. This
18statement shall indicate what procedures were used in providing
19such medical services.
20 Notwithstanding any other law to the contrary, the Illinois
21Department shall, within 365 days after July 22, 2013 (the
22effective date of Public Act 98-104) this amendatory Act of the
2398th General Assembly, establish procedures to permit skilled
24care facilities licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act to
25submit monthly billing claims for reimbursement purposes.
26Following development of these procedures, the Department

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1shall have an additional 365 days to test the viability of the
2new system and to ensure that any necessary operational or
3structural changes to its information technology platforms are
4implemented.
5 The Illinois Department shall require all dispensers of
6medical services, other than an individual practitioner or
7group of practitioners, desiring to participate in the Medical
8Assistance program established under this Article to disclose
9all financial, beneficial, ownership, equity, surety or other
10interests in any and all firms, corporations, partnerships,
11associations, business enterprises, joint ventures, agencies,
12institutions or other legal entities providing any form of
13health care services in this State under this Article.
14 The Illinois Department may require that all dispensers of
15medical services desiring to participate in the medical
16assistance program established under this Article disclose,
17under such terms and conditions as the Illinois Department may
18by rule establish, all inquiries from clients and attorneys
19regarding medical bills paid by the Illinois Department, which
20inquiries could indicate potential existence of claims or liens
21for the Illinois Department.
22 Enrollment of a vendor shall be subject to a provisional
23period and shall be conditional for one year. During the period
24of conditional enrollment, the Department may terminate the
25vendor's eligibility to participate in, or may disenroll the
26vendor from, the medical assistance program without cause.

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1Unless otherwise specified, such termination of eligibility or
2disenrollment is not subject to the Department's hearing
3process. However, a disenrolled vendor may reapply without
4penalty.
5 The Department has the discretion to limit the conditional
6enrollment period for vendors based upon category of risk of
7the vendor.
8 Prior to enrollment and during the conditional enrollment
9period in the medical assistance program, all vendors shall be
10subject to enhanced oversight, screening, and review based on
11the risk of fraud, waste, and abuse that is posed by the
12category of risk of the vendor. The Illinois Department shall
13establish the procedures for oversight, screening, and review,
14which may include, but need not be limited to: criminal and
15financial background checks; fingerprinting; license,
16certification, and authorization verifications; unscheduled or
17unannounced site visits; database checks; prepayment audit
18reviews; audits; payment caps; payment suspensions; and other
19screening as required by federal or State law.
20 The Department shall define or specify the following: (i)
21by provider notice, the "category of risk of the vendor" for
22each type of vendor, which shall take into account the level of
23screening applicable to a particular category of vendor under
24federal law and regulations; (ii) by rule or provider notice,
25the maximum length of the conditional enrollment period for
26each category of risk of the vendor; and (iii) by rule, the

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1hearing rights, if any, afforded to a vendor in each category
2of risk of the vendor that is terminated or disenrolled during
3the conditional enrollment period.
4 To be eligible for payment consideration, a vendor's
5payment claim or bill, either as an initial claim or as a
6resubmitted claim following prior rejection, must be received
7by the Illinois Department, or its fiscal intermediary, no
8later than 180 days after the latest date on the claim on which
9medical goods or services were provided, with the following
10exceptions:
11 (1) In the case of a provider whose enrollment is in
12 process by the Illinois Department, the 180-day period
13 shall not begin until the date on the written notice from
14 the Illinois Department that the provider enrollment is
15 complete.
16 (2) In the case of errors attributable to the Illinois
17 Department or any of its claims processing intermediaries
18 which result in an inability to receive, process, or
19 adjudicate a claim, the 180-day period shall not begin
20 until the provider has been notified of the error.
21 (3) In the case of a provider for whom the Illinois
22 Department initiates the monthly billing process.
23 (4) In the case of a provider operated by a unit of
24 local government with a population exceeding 3,000,000
25 when local government funds finance federal participation
26 for claims payments.

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1 For claims for services rendered during a period for which
2a recipient received retroactive eligibility, claims must be
3filed within 180 days after the Department determines the
4applicant is eligible. For claims for which the Illinois
5Department is not the primary payer, claims must be submitted
6to the Illinois Department within 180 days after the final
7adjudication by the primary payer.
8 In the case of long term care facilities, admission
9documents shall be submitted within 30 days of an admission to
10the facility through the Medical Electronic Data Interchange
11(MEDI) or the Recipient Eligibility Verification (REV) System,
12or shall be submitted directly to the Department of Human
13Services using required admission forms. Confirmation numbers
14assigned to an accepted transaction shall be retained by a
15facility to verify timely submittal. Once an admission
16transaction has been completed, all resubmitted claims
17following prior rejection are subject to receipt no later than
18180 days after the admission transaction has been completed.
19 Claims that are not submitted and received in compliance
20with the foregoing requirements shall not be eligible for
21payment under the medical assistance program, and the State
22shall have no liability for payment of those claims.
23 To the extent consistent with applicable information and
24privacy, security, and disclosure laws, State and federal
25agencies and departments shall provide the Illinois Department
26access to confidential and other information and data necessary

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1to perform eligibility and payment verifications and other
2Illinois Department functions. This includes, but is not
3limited to: information pertaining to licensure;
4certification; earnings; immigration status; citizenship; wage
5reporting; unearned and earned income; pension income;
6employment; supplemental security income; social security
7numbers; National Provider Identifier (NPI) numbers; the
8National Practitioner Data Bank (NPDB); program and agency
9exclusions; taxpayer identification numbers; tax delinquency;
10corporate information; and death records.
11 The Illinois Department shall enter into agreements with
12State agencies and departments, and is authorized to enter into
13agreements with federal agencies and departments, under which
14such agencies and departments shall share data necessary for
15medical assistance program integrity functions and oversight.
16The Illinois Department shall develop, in cooperation with
17other State departments and agencies, and in compliance with
18applicable federal laws and regulations, appropriate and
19effective methods to share such data. At a minimum, and to the
20extent necessary to provide data sharing, the Illinois
21Department shall enter into agreements with State agencies and
22departments, and is authorized to enter into agreements with
23federal agencies and departments, including but not limited to:
24the Secretary of State; the Department of Revenue; the
25Department of Public Health; the Department of Human Services;
26and the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation.

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1 Beginning in fiscal year 2013, the Illinois Department
2shall set forth a request for information to identify the
3benefits of a pre-payment, post-adjudication, and post-edit
4claims system with the goals of streamlining claims processing
5and provider reimbursement, reducing the number of pending or
6rejected claims, and helping to ensure a more transparent
7adjudication process through the utilization of: (i) provider
8data verification and provider screening technology; and (ii)
9clinical code editing; and (iii) pre-pay, pre- or
10post-adjudicated predictive modeling with an integrated case
11management system with link analysis. Such a request for
12information shall not be considered as a request for proposal
13or as an obligation on the part of the Illinois Department to
14take any action or acquire any products or services.
15 The Illinois Department shall establish policies,
16procedures, standards and criteria by rule for the acquisition,
17repair and replacement of orthotic and prosthetic devices and
18durable medical equipment. Such rules shall provide, but not be
19limited to, the following services: (1) immediate repair or
20replacement of such devices by recipients; and (2) rental,
21lease, purchase or lease-purchase of durable medical equipment
22in a cost-effective manner, taking into consideration the
23recipient's medical prognosis, the extent of the recipient's
24needs, and the requirements and costs for maintaining such
25equipment. Subject to prior approval, such rules shall enable a
26recipient to temporarily acquire and use alternative or

09800SB2640ham001- 1076 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1substitute devices or equipment pending repairs or
2replacements of any device or equipment previously authorized
3for such recipient by the Department.
4 The Department shall execute, relative to the nursing home
5prescreening project, written inter-agency agreements with the
6Department of Human Services and the Department on Aging, to
7effect the following: (i) intake procedures and common
8eligibility criteria for those persons who are receiving
9non-institutional services; and (ii) the establishment and
10development of non-institutional services in areas of the State
11where they are not currently available or are undeveloped; and
12(iii) notwithstanding any other provision of law, subject to
13federal approval, on and after July 1, 2012, an increase in the
14determination of need (DON) scores from 29 to 37 for applicants
15for institutional and home and community-based long term care;
16if and only if federal approval is not granted, the Department
17may, in conjunction with other affected agencies, implement
18utilization controls or changes in benefit packages to
19effectuate a similar savings amount for this population; and
20(iv) no later than July 1, 2013, minimum level of care
21eligibility criteria for institutional and home and
22community-based long term care; and (v) no later than October
231, 2013, establish procedures to permit long term care
24providers access to eligibility scores for individuals with an
25admission date who are seeking or receiving services from the
26long term care provider. In order to select the minimum level

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1of care eligibility criteria, the Governor shall establish a
2workgroup that includes affected agency representatives and
3stakeholders representing the institutional and home and
4community-based long term care interests. This Section shall
5not restrict the Department from implementing lower level of
6care eligibility criteria for community-based services in
7circumstances where federal approval has been granted.
8 The Illinois Department shall develop and operate, in
9cooperation with other State Departments and agencies and in
10compliance with applicable federal laws and regulations,
11appropriate and effective systems of health care evaluation and
12programs for monitoring of utilization of health care services
13and facilities, as it affects persons eligible for medical
14assistance under this Code.
15 The Illinois Department shall report annually to the
16General Assembly, no later than the second Friday in April of
171979 and each year thereafter, in regard to:
18 (a) actual statistics and trends in utilization of
19 medical services by public aid recipients;
20 (b) actual statistics and trends in the provision of
21 the various medical services by medical vendors;
22 (c) current rate structures and proposed changes in
23 those rate structures for the various medical vendors; and
24 (d) efforts at utilization review and control by the
25 Illinois Department.
26 The period covered by each report shall be the 3 years

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1ending on the June 30 prior to the report. The report shall
2include suggested legislation for consideration by the General
3Assembly. The filing of one copy of the report with the
4Speaker, one copy with the Minority Leader and one copy with
5the Clerk of the House of Representatives, one copy with the
6President, one copy with the Minority Leader and one copy with
7the Secretary of the Senate, one copy with the Legislative
8Research Unit, and such additional copies with the State
9Government Report Distribution Center for the General Assembly
10as is required under paragraph (t) of Section 7 of the State
11Library Act shall be deemed sufficient to comply with this
12Section.
13 Rulemaking authority to implement Public Act 95-1045, if
14any, is conditioned on the rules being adopted in accordance
15with all provisions of the Illinois Administrative Procedure
16Act and all rules and procedures of the Joint Committee on
17Administrative Rules; any purported rule not so adopted, for
18whatever reason, is unauthorized.
19 On and after July 1, 2012, the Department shall reduce any
20rate of reimbursement for services or other payments or alter
21any methodologies authorized by this Code to reduce any rate of
22reimbursement for services or other payments in accordance with
23Section 5-5e.
24(Source: P.A. 97-48, eff. 6-28-11; 97-638, eff. 1-1-12; 97-689,
25eff. 6-14-12; 97-1061, eff. 8-24-12; 98-104, Article 9, Section
269-5, eff. 7-22-13; 98-104, Article 12, Section 12-20, eff.

09800SB2640ham001- 1079 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
17-22-13; 98-303, eff. 8-9-13; 98-463, eff. 8-16-13; revised
29-19-13.)
3 (305 ILCS 5/5-5.2) (from Ch. 23, par. 5-5.2)
4 Sec. 5-5.2. Payment.
5 (a) All nursing facilities that are grouped pursuant to
6Section 5-5.1 of this Act shall receive the same rate of
7payment for similar services.
8 (b) It shall be a matter of State policy that the Illinois
9Department shall utilize a uniform billing cycle throughout the
10State for the long-term care providers.
11 (c) Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Code, the
12methodologies for reimbursement of nursing services as
13provided under this Article shall no longer be applicable for
14bills payable for nursing services rendered on or after a new
15reimbursement system based on the Resource Utilization Groups
16(RUGs) has been fully operationalized, which shall take effect
17for services provided on or after January 1, 2014.
18 (d) The new nursing services reimbursement methodology
19utilizing RUG-IV 48 grouper model, which shall be referred to
20as the RUGs reimbursement system, taking effect January 1,
212014, shall be based on the following:
22 (1) The methodology shall be resident-driven,
23 facility-specific, and cost-based.
24 (2) Costs shall be annually rebased and case mix index
25 quarterly updated. The nursing services methodology will

09800SB2640ham001- 1080 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 be assigned to the Medicaid enrolled residents on record as
2 of 30 days prior to the beginning of the rate period in the
3 Department's Medicaid Management Information System (MMIS)
4 as present on the last day of the second quarter preceding
5 the rate period.
6 (3) Regional wage adjustors based on the Health Service
7 Areas (HSA) groupings and adjusters in effect on April 30,
8 2012 shall be included.
9 (4) Case mix index shall be assigned to each resident
10 class based on the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid
11 Services staff time measurement study in effect on July 1,
12 2013, utilizing an index maximization approach.
13 (5) The pool of funds available for distribution by
14 case mix and the base facility rate shall be determined
15 using the formula contained in subsection (d-1).
16 (d-1) Calculation of base year Statewide RUG-IV nursing
17base per diem rate.
18 (1) Base rate spending pool shall be:
19 (A) The base year resident days which are
20 calculated by multiplying the number of Medicaid
21 residents in each nursing home as indicated in the MDS
22 data defined in paragraph (4) by 365.
23 (B) Each facility's nursing component per diem in
24 effect on July 1, 2012 shall be multiplied by
25 subsection (A).
26 (C) Thirteen million is added to the product of

09800SB2640ham001- 1081 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 subparagraph (A) and subparagraph (B) to adjust for the
2 exclusion of nursing homes defined in paragraph (5).
3 (2) For each nursing home with Medicaid residents as
4 indicated by the MDS data defined in paragraph (4),
5 weighted days adjusted for case mix and regional wage
6 adjustment shall be calculated. For each home this
7 calculation is the product of:
8 (A) Base year resident days as calculated in
9 subparagraph (A) of paragraph (1).
10 (B) The nursing home's regional wage adjustor
11 based on the Health Service Areas (HSA) groupings and
12 adjustors in effect on April 30, 2012.
13 (C) Facility weighted case mix which is the number
14 of Medicaid residents as indicated by the MDS data
15 defined in paragraph (4) multiplied by the associated
16 case weight for the RUG-IV 48 grouper model using
17 standard RUG-IV procedures for index maximization.
18 (D) The sum of the products calculated for each
19 nursing home in subparagraphs (A) through (C) above
20 shall be the base year case mix, rate adjusted weighted
21 days.
22 (3) The Statewide RUG-IV nursing base per diem rate on
23 January 1, 2014 shall be the quotient of the paragraph (1)
24 divided by the sum calculated under subparagraph (D) of
25 paragraph (2).
26 (4) Minimum Data Set (MDS) comprehensive assessments

09800SB2640ham001- 1082 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 for Medicaid residents on the last day of the quarter used
2 to establish the base rate.
3 (5) Nursing facilities designated as of July 1, 2012 by
4 the Department as "Institutions for Mental Disease" shall
5 be excluded from all calculations under this subsection.
6 The data from these facilities shall not be used in the
7 computations described in paragraphs (1) through (4) above
8 to establish the base rate.
9 (e) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Code, the
10Department shall by rule develop a reimbursement methodology
11reflective of the intensity of care and services requirements
12of low need residents in the lowest RUG IV groupers and
13corresponding regulations. Only that portion of the RUGs
14Reimbursement System spending pool described in subsection
15(d-1) attributed to the groupers as of July 1, 2013 for which
16the methodology in this Section is developed may be diverted
17for this purpose. The Department shall submit the rules no
18later than January 1, 2014 for an implementation date no later
19than January 1, 2015. If the Department does not implement this
20reimbursement methodology by the required date, the nursing
21component per diem on January 1, 2015 for residents classified
22in RUG-IV groups PA1, PA2, BA1, and BA2 shall be the blended
23rate of the calculated RUG-IV nursing component per diem and
24the nursing component per diem in effect on July 1, 2012. This
25blended rate shall be applied only to nursing homes whose
26resident population is greater than or equal to 70% of the

09800SB2640ham001- 1083 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1total residents served and whose RUG-IV nursing component per
2diem rate is less than the nursing component per diem in effect
3on July 1, 2012. This blended rate shall be in effect until the
4reimbursement methodology is implemented or until July 1, 2019,
5whichever is sooner.
6 (e-1) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Article,
7rates established pursuant to this subsection shall not apply
8to any and all nursing facilities designated by the Department
9as "Institutions for Mental Disease" and shall be excluded from
10the RUGs Reimbursement System applicable to facilities not
11designated as "Institutions for the Mentally Diseased" by the
12Department.
13 (e-2) For dates of services beginning January 1, 2014, the
14RUG-IV nursing component per diem for a nursing home shall be
15the product of the statewide RUG-IV nursing base per diem rate,
16the facility average case mix index, and the regional wage
17adjustor. Transition rates for services provided between
18January 1, 2014 and December 31, 2014 shall be as follows:
19 (1) The transition RUG-IV per diem nursing rate for
20 nursing homes whose rate calculated in this subsection
21 (e-2) is greater than the nursing component rate in effect
22 July 1, 2012 shall be paid the sum of:
23 (A) The nursing component rate in effect July 1,
24 2012; plus
25 (B) The difference of the RUG-IV nursing component
26 per diem calculated for the current quarter minus the

09800SB2640ham001- 1084 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 nursing component rate in effect July 1, 2012
2 multiplied by 0.88.
3 (2) The transition RUG-IV per diem nursing rate for
4 nursing homes whose rate calculated in this subsection
5 (e-2) is less than the nursing component rate in effect
6 July 1, 2012 shall be paid the sum of:
7 (A) The nursing component rate in effect July 1,
8 2012; plus
9 (B) The difference of the RUG-IV nursing component
10 per diem calculated for the current quarter minus the
11 nursing component rate in effect July 1, 2012
12 multiplied by 0.13.
13 (f) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Code, on
14and after July 1, 2012, reimbursement rates associated with the
15nursing or support components of the current nursing facility
16rate methodology shall not increase beyond the level effective
17May 1, 2011 until a new reimbursement system based on the RUGs
18IV 48 grouper model has been fully operationalized.
19 (g) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Code, on
20and after July 1, 2012, for facilities not designated by the
21Department of Healthcare and Family Services as "Institutions
22for Mental Disease", rates effective May 1, 2011 shall be
23adjusted as follows:
24 (1) Individual nursing rates for residents classified
25 in RUG IV groups PA1, PA2, BA1, and BA2 during the quarter
26 ending March 31, 2012 shall be reduced by 10%;

09800SB2640ham001- 1085 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 (2) Individual nursing rates for residents classified
2 in all other RUG IV groups shall be reduced by 1.0%;
3 (3) Facility rates for the capital and support
4 components shall be reduced by 1.7%.
5 (h) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Code, on
6and after July 1, 2012, nursing facilities designated by the
7Department of Healthcare and Family Services as "Institutions
8for Mental Disease" and "Institutions for Mental Disease" that
9are facilities licensed under the Specialized Mental Health
10Rehabilitation Act of 2013 shall have the nursing,
11socio-developmental, capital, and support components of their
12reimbursement rate effective May 1, 2011 reduced in total by
132.7%.
14(Source: P.A. 97-689, eff. 6-14-12; 98-104, Article 6, Section
156-240, eff. 7-22-13; 98-104, Article 11, Section 11-35, eff.
167-22-13; revised 9-19-13.)
17 (305 ILCS 5/5-5.4) (from Ch. 23, par. 5-5.4)
18 Sec. 5-5.4. Standards of Payment - Department of Healthcare
19and Family Services. The Department of Healthcare and Family
20Services shall develop standards of payment of nursing facility
21and ICF/DD services in facilities providing such services under
22this Article which:
23 (1) Provide for the determination of a facility's payment
24for nursing facility or ICF/DD services on a prospective basis.
25The amount of the payment rate for all nursing facilities

09800SB2640ham001- 1086 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1certified by the Department of Public Health under the ID/DD
2Community Care Act or the Nursing Home Care Act as Intermediate
3Care for the Developmentally Disabled facilities, Long Term
4Care for Under Age 22 facilities, Skilled Nursing facilities,
5or Intermediate Care facilities under the medical assistance
6program shall be prospectively established annually on the
7basis of historical, financial, and statistical data
8reflecting actual costs from prior years, which shall be
9applied to the current rate year and updated for inflation,
10except that the capital cost element for newly constructed
11facilities shall be based upon projected budgets. The annually
12established payment rate shall take effect on July 1 in 1984
13and subsequent years. No rate increase and no update for
14inflation shall be provided on or after July 1, 1994, unless
15specifically provided for in this Section. The changes made by
16Public Act 93-841 extending the duration of the prohibition
17against a rate increase or update for inflation are effective
18retroactive to July 1, 2004.
19 For facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health
20under the Nursing Home Care Act as Intermediate Care for the
21Developmentally Disabled facilities or Long Term Care for Under
22Age 22 facilities, the rates taking effect on July 1, 1998
23shall include an increase of 3%. For facilities licensed by the
24Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act as
25Skilled Nursing facilities or Intermediate Care facilities,
26the rates taking effect on July 1, 1998 shall include an

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1increase of 3% plus $1.10 per resident-day, as defined by the
2Department. For facilities licensed by the Department of Public
3Health under the Nursing Home Care Act as Intermediate Care
4Facilities for the Developmentally Disabled or Long Term Care
5for Under Age 22 facilities, the rates taking effect on January
61, 2006 shall include an increase of 3%. For facilities
7licensed by the Department of Public Health under the Nursing
8Home Care Act as Intermediate Care Facilities for the
9Developmentally Disabled or Long Term Care for Under Age 22
10facilities, the rates taking effect on January 1, 2009 shall
11include an increase sufficient to provide a $0.50 per hour wage
12increase for non-executive staff.
13 For facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health
14under the Nursing Home Care Act as Intermediate Care for the
15Developmentally Disabled facilities or Long Term Care for Under
16Age 22 facilities, the rates taking effect on July 1, 1999
17shall include an increase of 1.6% plus $3.00 per resident-day,
18as defined by the Department. For facilities licensed by the
19Department of Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act as
20Skilled Nursing facilities or Intermediate Care facilities,
21the rates taking effect on July 1, 1999 shall include an
22increase of 1.6% and, for services provided on or after October
231, 1999, shall be increased by $4.00 per resident-day, as
24defined by the Department.
25 For facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health
26under the Nursing Home Care Act as Intermediate Care for the

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1Developmentally Disabled facilities or Long Term Care for Under
2Age 22 facilities, the rates taking effect on July 1, 2000
3shall include an increase of 2.5% per resident-day, as defined
4by the Department. For facilities licensed by the Department of
5Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act as Skilled
6Nursing facilities or Intermediate Care facilities, the rates
7taking effect on July 1, 2000 shall include an increase of 2.5%
8per resident-day, as defined by the Department.
9 For facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health
10under the Nursing Home Care Act as skilled nursing facilities
11or intermediate care facilities, a new payment methodology must
12be implemented for the nursing component of the rate effective
13July 1, 2003. The Department of Public Aid (now Healthcare and
14Family Services) shall develop the new payment methodology
15using the Minimum Data Set (MDS) as the instrument to collect
16information concerning nursing home resident condition
17necessary to compute the rate. The Department shall develop the
18new payment methodology to meet the unique needs of Illinois
19nursing home residents while remaining subject to the
20appropriations provided by the General Assembly. A transition
21period from the payment methodology in effect on June 30, 2003
22to the payment methodology in effect on July 1, 2003 shall be
23provided for a period not exceeding 3 years and 184 days after
24implementation of the new payment methodology as follows:
25 (A) For a facility that would receive a lower nursing
26 component rate per patient day under the new system than

09800SB2640ham001- 1089 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 the facility received effective on the date immediately
2 preceding the date that the Department implements the new
3 payment methodology, the nursing component rate per
4 patient day for the facility shall be held at the level in
5 effect on the date immediately preceding the date that the
6 Department implements the new payment methodology until a
7 higher nursing component rate of reimbursement is achieved
8 by that facility.
9 (B) For a facility that would receive a higher nursing
10 component rate per patient day under the payment
11 methodology in effect on July 1, 2003 than the facility
12 received effective on the date immediately preceding the
13 date that the Department implements the new payment
14 methodology, the nursing component rate per patient day for
15 the facility shall be adjusted.
16 (C) Notwithstanding paragraphs (A) and (B), the
17 nursing component rate per patient day for the facility
18 shall be adjusted subject to appropriations provided by the
19 General Assembly.
20 For facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health
21under the Nursing Home Care Act as Intermediate Care for the
22Developmentally Disabled facilities or Long Term Care for Under
23Age 22 facilities, the rates taking effect on March 1, 2001
24shall include a statewide increase of 7.85%, as defined by the
25Department.
26 Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section, for

09800SB2640ham001- 1090 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health under
2the Nursing Home Care Act as skilled nursing facilities or
3intermediate care facilities, except facilities participating
4in the Department's demonstration program pursuant to the
5provisions of Title 77, Part 300, Subpart T of the Illinois
6Administrative Code, the numerator of the ratio used by the
7Department of Healthcare and Family Services to compute the
8rate payable under this Section using the Minimum Data Set
9(MDS) methodology shall incorporate the following annual
10amounts as the additional funds appropriated to the Department
11specifically to pay for rates based on the MDS nursing
12component methodology in excess of the funding in effect on
13December 31, 2006:
14 (i) For rates taking effect January 1, 2007,
15 $60,000,000.
16 (ii) For rates taking effect January 1, 2008,
17 $110,000,000.
18 (iii) For rates taking effect January 1, 2009,
19 $194,000,000.
20 (iv) For rates taking effect April 1, 2011, or the
21 first day of the month that begins at least 45 days after
22 the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 96th
23 General Assembly, $416,500,000 or an amount as may be
24 necessary to complete the transition to the MDS methodology
25 for the nursing component of the rate. Increased payments
26 under this item (iv) are not due and payable, however,

09800SB2640ham001- 1091 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 until (i) the methodologies described in this paragraph are
2 approved by the federal government in an appropriate State
3 Plan amendment and (ii) the assessment imposed by Section
4 5B-2 of this Code is determined to be a permissible tax
5 under Title XIX of the Social Security Act.
6 Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section, for
7facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health under
8the Nursing Home Care Act as skilled nursing facilities or
9intermediate care facilities, the support component of the
10rates taking effect on January 1, 2008 shall be computed using
11the most recent cost reports on file with the Department of
12Healthcare and Family Services no later than April 1, 2005,
13updated for inflation to January 1, 2006.
14 For facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health
15under the Nursing Home Care Act as Intermediate Care for the
16Developmentally Disabled facilities or Long Term Care for Under
17Age 22 facilities, the rates taking effect on April 1, 2002
18shall include a statewide increase of 2.0%, as defined by the
19Department. This increase terminates on July 1, 2002; beginning
20July 1, 2002 these rates are reduced to the level of the rates
21in effect on March 31, 2002, as defined by the Department.
22 For facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health
23under the Nursing Home Care Act as skilled nursing facilities
24or intermediate care facilities, the rates taking effect on
25July 1, 2001 shall be computed using the most recent cost
26reports on file with the Department of Public Aid no later than

09800SB2640ham001- 1092 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1April 1, 2000, updated for inflation to January 1, 2001. For
2rates effective July 1, 2001 only, rates shall be the greater
3of the rate computed for July 1, 2001 or the rate effective on
4June 30, 2001.
5 Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section, for
6facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health under
7the Nursing Home Care Act as skilled nursing facilities or
8intermediate care facilities, the Illinois Department shall
9determine by rule the rates taking effect on July 1, 2002,
10which shall be 5.9% less than the rates in effect on June 30,
112002.
12 Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section, for
13facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health under
14the Nursing Home Care Act as skilled nursing facilities or
15intermediate care facilities, if the payment methodologies
16required under Section 5A-12 and the waiver granted under 42
17CFR 433.68 are approved by the United States Centers for
18Medicare and Medicaid Services, the rates taking effect on July
191, 2004 shall be 3.0% greater than the rates in effect on June
2030, 2004. These rates shall take effect only upon approval and
21implementation of the payment methodologies required under
22Section 5A-12.
23 Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Section, for
24facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health under
25the Nursing Home Care Act as skilled nursing facilities or
26intermediate care facilities, the rates taking effect on

09800SB2640ham001- 1093 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1January 1, 2005 shall be 3% more than the rates in effect on
2December 31, 2004.
3 Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section, for
4facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health under
5the Nursing Home Care Act as skilled nursing facilities or
6intermediate care facilities, effective January 1, 2009, the
7per diem support component of the rates effective on January 1,
82008, computed using the most recent cost reports on file with
9the Department of Healthcare and Family Services no later than
10April 1, 2005, updated for inflation to January 1, 2006, shall
11be increased to the amount that would have been derived using
12standard Department of Healthcare and Family Services methods,
13procedures, and inflators.
14 Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Section, for
15facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health under
16the Nursing Home Care Act as intermediate care facilities that
17are federally defined as Institutions for Mental Disease, or
18facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health under
19the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, a
20socio-development component rate equal to 6.6% of the
21facility's nursing component rate as of January 1, 2006 shall
22be established and paid effective July 1, 2006. The
23socio-development component of the rate shall be increased by a
24factor of 2.53 on the first day of the month that begins at
25least 45 days after January 11, 2008 (the effective date of
26Public Act 95-707). As of August 1, 2008, the socio-development

09800SB2640ham001- 1094 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1component rate shall be equal to 6.6% of the facility's nursing
2component rate as of January 1, 2006, multiplied by a factor of
33.53. For services provided on or after April 1, 2011, or the
4first day of the month that begins at least 45 days after the
5effective date of this amendatory Act of the 96th General
6Assembly, whichever is later, the Illinois Department may by
7rule adjust these socio-development component rates, and may
8use different adjustment methodologies for those facilities
9participating, and those not participating, in the Illinois
10Department's demonstration program pursuant to the provisions
11of Title 77, Part 300, Subpart T of the Illinois Administrative
12Code, but in no case may such rates be diminished below those
13in effect on August 1, 2008.
14 For facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health
15under the Nursing Home Care Act as Intermediate Care for the
16Developmentally Disabled facilities or as long-term care
17facilities for residents under 22 years of age, the rates
18taking effect on July 1, 2003 shall include a statewide
19increase of 4%, as defined by the Department.
20 For facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health
21under the Nursing Home Care Act as Intermediate Care for the
22Developmentally Disabled facilities or Long Term Care for Under
23Age 22 facilities, the rates taking effect on the first day of
24the month that begins at least 45 days after the effective date
25of this amendatory Act of the 95th General Assembly shall
26include a statewide increase of 2.5%, as defined by the

09800SB2640ham001- 1095 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1Department.
2 Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section, for
3facilities licensed by the Department of Public Health under
4the Nursing Home Care Act as skilled nursing facilities or
5intermediate care facilities, effective January 1, 2005,
6facility rates shall be increased by the difference between (i)
7a facility's per diem property, liability, and malpractice
8insurance costs as reported in the cost report filed with the
9Department of Public Aid and used to establish rates effective
10July 1, 2001 and (ii) those same costs as reported in the
11facility's 2002 cost report. These costs shall be passed
12through to the facility without caps or limitations, except for
13adjustments required under normal auditing procedures.
14 Rates established effective each July 1 shall govern
15payment for services rendered throughout that fiscal year,
16except that rates established on July 1, 1996 shall be
17increased by 6.8% for services provided on or after January 1,
181997. Such rates will be based upon the rates calculated for
19the year beginning July 1, 1990, and for subsequent years
20thereafter until June 30, 2001 shall be based on the facility
21cost reports for the facility fiscal year ending at any point
22in time during the previous calendar year, updated to the
23midpoint of the rate year. The cost report shall be on file
24with the Department no later than April 1 of the current rate
25year. Should the cost report not be on file by April 1, the
26Department shall base the rate on the latest cost report filed

09800SB2640ham001- 1096 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1by each skilled care facility and intermediate care facility,
2updated to the midpoint of the current rate year. In
3determining rates for services rendered on and after July 1,
41985, fixed time shall not be computed at less than zero. The
5Department shall not make any alterations of regulations which
6would reduce any component of the Medicaid rate to a level
7below what that component would have been utilizing in the rate
8effective on July 1, 1984.
9 (2) Shall take into account the actual costs incurred by
10facilities in providing services for recipients of skilled
11nursing and intermediate care services under the medical
12assistance program.
13 (3) Shall take into account the medical and psycho-social
14characteristics and needs of the patients.
15 (4) Shall take into account the actual costs incurred by
16facilities in meeting licensing and certification standards
17imposed and prescribed by the State of Illinois, any of its
18political subdivisions or municipalities and by the U.S.
19Department of Health and Human Services pursuant to Title XIX
20of the Social Security Act.
21 The Department of Healthcare and Family Services shall
22develop precise standards for payments to reimburse nursing
23facilities for any utilization of appropriate rehabilitative
24personnel for the provision of rehabilitative services which is
25authorized by federal regulations, including reimbursement for
26services provided by qualified therapists or qualified

09800SB2640ham001- 1097 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1assistants, and which is in accordance with accepted
2professional practices. Reimbursement also may be made for
3utilization of other supportive personnel under appropriate
4supervision.
5 The Department shall develop enhanced payments to offset
6the additional costs incurred by a facility serving exceptional
7need residents and shall allocate at least $4,000,000 of the
8funds collected from the assessment established by Section 5B-2
9of this Code for such payments. For the purpose of this
10Section, "exceptional needs" means, but need not be limited to,
11ventilator care and traumatic brain injury care. The enhanced
12payments for exceptional need residents under this paragraph
13are not due and payable, however, until (i) the methodologies
14described in this paragraph are approved by the federal
15government in an appropriate State Plan amendment and (ii) the
16assessment imposed by Section 5B-2 of this Code is determined
17to be a permissible tax under Title XIX of the Social Security
18Act.
19 Beginning January 1, 2014 the methodologies for
20reimbursement of nursing facility services as provided under
21this Section 5-5.4 shall no longer be applicable for services
22provided on or after January 1, 2014.
23 No payment increase under this Section for the MDS
24methodology, exceptional care residents, or the
25socio-development component rate established by Public Act
2696-1530 of the 96th General Assembly and funded by the

09800SB2640ham001- 1098 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1assessment imposed under Section 5B-2 of this Code shall be due
2and payable until after the Department notifies the long-term
3care providers, in writing, that the payment methodologies to
4long-term care providers required under this Section have been
5approved by the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services of
6the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services and the
7waivers under 42 CFR 433.68 for the assessment imposed by this
8Section, if necessary, have been granted by the Centers for
9Medicare and Medicaid Services of the U.S. Department of Health
10and Human Services. Upon notification to the Department of
11approval of the payment methodologies required under this
12Section and the waivers granted under 42 CFR 433.68, all
13increased payments otherwise due under this Section prior to
14the date of notification shall be due and payable within 90
15days of the date federal approval is received.
16 On and after July 1, 2012, the Department shall reduce any
17rate of reimbursement for services or other payments or alter
18any methodologies authorized by this Code to reduce any rate of
19reimbursement for services or other payments in accordance with
20Section 5-5e.
21(Source: P.A. 97-10, eff. 6-14-11; 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227,
22eff. 1-1-12; 97-584, eff. 8-26-11; 97-689, eff. 6-14-12;
2397-813, eff. 7-13-12; 98-24, eff. 6-19-13; 98-104, eff.
247-22-13; revised 9-19-13.)
25 (305 ILCS 5/5-5f)

09800SB2640ham001- 1099 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 Sec. 5-5f. Elimination and limitations of medical
2assistance services. Notwithstanding any other provision of
3this Code to the contrary, on and after July 1, 2012:
4 (a) The following services shall no longer be a covered
5service available under this Code: group psychotherapy for
6residents of any facility licensed under the Nursing Home Care
7Act or the Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of
82013; and adult chiropractic services.
9 (b) The Department shall place the following limitations on
10services: (i) the Department shall limit adult eyeglasses to
11one pair every 2 years; (ii) the Department shall set an annual
12limit of a maximum of 20 visits for each of the following
13services: adult speech, hearing, and language therapy
14services, adult occupational therapy services, and physical
15therapy services; (iii) the Department shall limit adult
16podiatry services to individuals with diabetes; (iv) the
17Department shall pay for caesarean sections at the normal
18vaginal delivery rate unless a caesarean section was medically
19necessary; (v) the Department shall limit adult dental services
20to emergencies; beginning July 1, 2013, the Department shall
21ensure that the following conditions are recognized as
22emergencies: (A) dental services necessary for an individual in
23order for the individual to be cleared for a medical procedure,
24such as a transplant; (B) extractions and dentures necessary
25for a diabetic to receive proper nutrition; (C) extractions and
26dentures necessary as a result of cancer treatment; and (D)

09800SB2640ham001- 1100 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1dental services necessary for the health of a pregnant woman
2prior to delivery of her baby; and (vi) effective July 1, 2012,
3the Department shall place limitations and require concurrent
4review on every inpatient detoxification stay to prevent repeat
5admissions to any hospital for detoxification within 60 days of
6a previous inpatient detoxification stay. The Department shall
7convene a workgroup of hospitals, substance abuse providers,
8care coordination entities, managed care plans, and other
9stakeholders to develop recommendations for quality standards,
10diversion to other settings, and admission criteria for
11patients who need inpatient detoxification, which shall be
12published on the Department's website no later than September
131, 2013.
14 (c) The Department shall require prior approval of the
15following services: wheelchair repairs costing more than $400,
16coronary artery bypass graft, and bariatric surgery consistent
17with Medicare standards concerning patient responsibility.
18Wheelchair repair prior approval requests shall be adjudicated
19within one business day of receipt of complete supporting
20documentation. Providers may not break wheelchair repairs into
21separate claims for purposes of staying under the $400
22threshold for requiring prior approval. The wholesale price of
23manual and power wheelchairs, durable medical equipment and
24supplies, and complex rehabilitation technology products and
25services shall be defined as actual acquisition cost including
26all discounts.

09800SB2640ham001- 1101 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 (d) The Department shall establish benchmarks for
2hospitals to measure and align payments to reduce potentially
3preventable hospital readmissions, inpatient complications,
4and unnecessary emergency room visits. In doing so, the
5Department shall consider items, including, but not limited to,
6historic and current acuity of care and historic and current
7trends in readmission. The Department shall publish
8provider-specific historical readmission data and anticipated
9potentially preventable targets 60 days prior to the start of
10the program. In the instance of readmissions, the Department
11shall adopt policies and rates of reimbursement for services
12and other payments provided under this Code to ensure that, by
13June 30, 2013, expenditures to hospitals are reduced by, at a
14minimum, $40,000,000.
15 (e) The Department shall establish utilization controls
16for the hospice program such that it shall not pay for other
17care services when an individual is in hospice.
18 (f) For home health services, the Department shall require
19Medicare certification of providers participating in the
20program and implement the Medicare face-to-face encounter
21rule. The Department shall require providers to implement
22auditable electronic service verification based on global
23positioning systems or other cost-effective technology.
24 (g) For the Home Services Program operated by the
25Department of Human Services and the Community Care Program
26operated by the Department on Aging, the Department of Human

09800SB2640ham001- 1102 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1Services, in cooperation with the Department on Aging, shall
2implement an electronic service verification based on global
3positioning systems or other cost-effective technology.
4 (h) Effective with inpatient hospital admissions on or
5after July 1, 2012, the Department shall reduce the payment for
6a claim that indicates the occurrence of a provider-preventable
7condition during the admission as specified by the Department
8in rules. The Department shall not pay for services related to
9an other provider-preventable condition.
10 As used in this subsection (h):
11 "Provider-preventable condition" means a health care
12acquired condition as defined under the federal Medicaid
13regulation found at 42 CFR 447.26 or an other
14provider-preventable condition.
15 "Other provider-preventable condition" means a wrong
16surgical or other invasive procedure performed on a patient, a
17surgical or other invasive procedure performed on the wrong
18body part, or a surgical procedure or other invasive procedure
19performed on the wrong patient.
20 (i) The Department shall implement cost savings
21initiatives for advanced imaging services, cardiac imaging
22services, pain management services, and back surgery. Such
23initiatives shall be designed to achieve annual costs savings.
24 (j) The Department shall ensure that beneficiaries with a
25diagnosis of epilepsy or seizure disorder in Department records
26will not require prior approval for anticonvulsants.

09800SB2640ham001- 1103 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1(Source: P.A. 97-689, eff. 6-14-12; 98-104, Article 6, Section
26-240, eff. 7-22-13; 98-104, Article 9, Section 9-5, eff.
37-22-13; revised 9-19-13.)
4 (305 ILCS 5/5A-5) (from Ch. 23, par. 5A-5)
5 Sec. 5A-5. Notice; penalty; maintenance of records.
6 (a) The Illinois Department shall send a notice of
7assessment to every hospital provider subject to assessment
8under this Article. The notice of assessment shall notify the
9hospital of its assessment and shall be sent after receipt by
10the Department of notification from the Centers for Medicare
11and Medicaid Services of the U.S. Department of Health and
12Human Services that the payment methodologies required under
13this Article and, if necessary, the waiver granted under 42 CFR
14433.68 have been approved. The notice shall be on a form
15prepared by the Illinois Department and shall state the
16following:
17 (1) The name of the hospital provider.
18 (2) The address of the hospital provider's principal
19 place of business from which the provider engages in the
20 occupation of hospital provider in this State, and the name
21 and address of each hospital operated, conducted, or
22 maintained by the provider in this State.
23 (3) The occupied bed days, occupied bed days less
24 Medicare days, adjusted gross hospital revenue, or
25 outpatient gross revenue of the hospital provider

09800SB2640ham001- 1104 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 (whichever is applicable), the amount of assessment
2 imposed under Section 5A-2 for the State fiscal year for
3 which the notice is sent, and the amount of each
4 installment to be paid during the State fiscal year.
5 (4) (Blank).
6 (5) Other reasonable information as determined by the
7 Illinois Department.
8 (b) If a hospital provider conducts, operates, or maintains
9more than one hospital licensed by the Illinois Department of
10Public Health, the provider shall pay the assessment for each
11hospital separately.
12 (c) Notwithstanding any other provision in this Article, in
13the case of a person who ceases to conduct, operate, or
14maintain a hospital in respect of which the person is subject
15to assessment under this Article as a hospital provider, the
16assessment for the State fiscal year in which the cessation
17occurs shall be adjusted by multiplying the assessment computed
18under Section 5A-2 by a fraction, the numerator of which is the
19number of days in the year during which the provider conducts,
20operates, or maintains the hospital and the denominator of
21which is 365. Immediately upon ceasing to conduct, operate, or
22maintain a hospital, the person shall pay the assessment for
23the year as so adjusted (to the extent not previously paid).
24 (d) Notwithstanding any other provision in this Article, a
25provider who commences conducting, operating, or maintaining a
26hospital, upon notice by the Illinois Department, shall pay the

09800SB2640ham001- 1105 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1assessment computed under Section 5A-2 and subsection (e) in
2installments on the due dates stated in the notice and on the
3regular installment due dates for the State fiscal year
4occurring after the due dates of the initial notice.
5 (e) Notwithstanding any other provision in this Article,
6for State fiscal years 2009 through 2015 2014, in the case of a
7hospital provider that did not conduct, operate, or maintain a
8hospital in 2005, the assessment for that State fiscal year
9shall be computed on the basis of hypothetical occupied bed
10days for the full calendar year as determined by the Illinois
11Department. Notwithstanding any other provision in this
12Article, for the portion of State fiscal year 2012 beginning
13June 10, 2012 through June 30, 2012, and for State fiscal years
142013 through 2014, and for July 1, 2014 through December 31,
152014, in the case of a hospital provider that did not conduct,
16operate, or maintain a hospital in 2009, the assessment under
17subsection (b-5) of Section 5A-2 for that State fiscal year
18shall be computed on the basis of hypothetical gross outpatient
19revenue for the full calendar year as determined by the
20Illinois Department.
21 (f) Every hospital provider subject to assessment under
22this Article shall keep sufficient records to permit the
23determination of adjusted gross hospital revenue for the
24hospital's fiscal year. All such records shall be kept in the
25English language and shall, at all times during regular
26business hours of the day, be subject to inspection by the

09800SB2640ham001- 1106 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1Illinois Department or its duly authorized agents and
2employees.
3 (g) The Illinois Department may, by rule, provide a
4hospital provider a reasonable opportunity to request a
5clarification or correction of any clerical or computational
6errors contained in the calculation of its assessment, but such
7corrections shall not extend to updating the cost report
8information used to calculate the assessment.
9 (h) (Blank).
10(Source: P.A. 97-688, eff. 6-14-12; 97-689, eff. 6-14-12;
1198-104, eff. 7-22-13; 98-463, eff. 8-16-13; revised 10-21-13.)
12 (305 ILCS 5/5A-8) (from Ch. 23, par. 5A-8)
13 Sec. 5A-8. Hospital Provider Fund.
14 (a) There is created in the State Treasury the Hospital
15Provider Fund. Interest earned by the Fund shall be credited to
16the Fund. The Fund shall not be used to replace any moneys
17appropriated to the Medicaid program by the General Assembly.
18 (b) The Fund is created for the purpose of receiving moneys
19in accordance with Section 5A-6 and disbursing moneys only for
20the following purposes, notwithstanding any other provision of
21law:
22 (1) For making payments to hospitals as required under
23 this Code, under the Children's Health Insurance Program
24 Act, under the Covering ALL KIDS Health Insurance Act, and
25 under the Long Term Acute Care Hospital Quality Improvement

09800SB2640ham001- 1107 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 Transfer Program Act.
2 (2) For the reimbursement of moneys collected by the
3 Illinois Department from hospitals or hospital providers
4 through error or mistake in performing the activities
5 authorized under this Code.
6 (3) For payment of administrative expenses incurred by
7 the Illinois Department or its agent in performing
8 activities under this Code, under the Children's Health
9 Insurance Program Act, under the Covering ALL KIDS Health
10 Insurance Act, and under the Long Term Acute Care Hospital
11 Quality Improvement Transfer Program Act.
12 (4) For payments of any amounts which are reimbursable
13 to the federal government for payments from this Fund which
14 are required to be paid by State warrant.
15 (5) For making transfers, as those transfers are
16 authorized in the proceedings authorizing debt under the
17 Short Term Borrowing Act, but transfers made under this
18 paragraph (5) shall not exceed the principal amount of debt
19 issued in anticipation of the receipt by the State of
20 moneys to be deposited into the Fund.
21 (6) For making transfers to any other fund in the State
22 treasury, but transfers made under this paragraph (6) shall
23 not exceed the amount transferred previously from that
24 other fund into the Hospital Provider Fund plus any
25 interest that would have been earned by that fund on the
26 monies that had been transferred.

09800SB2640ham001- 1108 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 (6.5) For making transfers to the Healthcare Provider
2 Relief Fund, except that transfers made under this
3 paragraph (6.5) shall not exceed $60,000,000 in the
4 aggregate.
5 (7) For making transfers not exceeding the following
6 amounts, in State fiscal years 2013 and 2014 in each State
7 fiscal year during which an assessment is imposed pursuant
8 to Section 5A-2, to the following designated funds:
9 Health and Human Services Medicaid Trust
10 Fund..............................$20,000,000
11 Long-Term Care Provider Fund..........$30,000,000
12 General Revenue Fund.................$80,000,000.
13 Transfers under this paragraph shall be made within 7 days
14 after the payments have been received pursuant to the
15 schedule of payments provided in subsection (a) of Section
16 5A-4.
17 (7.1) For making transfers not exceeding the following
18 amounts, in State fiscal year 2015, to the following
19 designated funds:
20 Health and Human Services Medicaid Trust
21 Fund..............................$10,000,000
22 Long-Term Care Provider Fund..........$15,000,000
23 General Revenue Fund.................$40,000,000.
24 Transfers under this paragraph shall be made within 7 days
25 after the payments have been received pursuant to the
26 schedule of payments provided in subsection (a) of Section

09800SB2640ham001- 1109 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 5A-4.
2 (7.5) (Blank).
3 (7.8) (Blank).
4 (7.9) (Blank).
5 (7.10) For State fiscal years 2013 and 2014, for making
6 transfers of the moneys resulting from the assessment under
7 subsection (b-5) of Section 5A-2 and received from hospital
8 providers under Section 5A-4 and transferred into the
9 Hospital Provider Fund under Section 5A-6 to the designated
10 funds not exceeding the following amounts in that State
11 fiscal year:
12 Health Care Provider Relief Fund......$50,000,000
13 Transfers under this paragraph shall be made within 7
14 days after the payments have been received pursuant to the
15 schedule of payments provided in subsection (a) of Section
16 5A-4.
17 (7.11) For State fiscal year 2015, for making transfers
18 of the moneys resulting from the assessment under
19 subsection (b-5) of Section 5A-2 and received from hospital
20 providers under Section 5A-4 and transferred into the
21 Hospital Provider Fund under Section 5A-6 to the designated
22 funds not exceeding the following amounts in that State
23 fiscal year:
24 Health Care Provider Relief Fund.....$25,000,000
25 Transfers under this paragraph shall be made within 7
26 days after the payments have been received pursuant to the

09800SB2640ham001- 1110 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 schedule of payments provided in subsection (a) of Section
2 5A-4.
3 (7.12) For State fiscal year 2013, for increasing by
4 21/365ths the transfer of the moneys resulting from the
5 assessment under subsection (b-5) of Section 5A-2 and
6 received from hospital providers under Section 5A-4 for the
7 portion of State fiscal year 2012 beginning June 10, 2012
8 through June 30, 2012 and transferred into the Hospital
9 Provider Fund under Section 5A-6 to the designated funds
10 not exceeding the following amounts in that State fiscal
11 year:
12 Health Care Provider Relief Fund......$2,870,000
13 (8) For making refunds to hospital providers pursuant
14 to Section 5A-10.
15 Disbursements from the Fund, other than transfers
16authorized under paragraphs (5) and (6) of this subsection,
17shall be by warrants drawn by the State Comptroller upon
18receipt of vouchers duly executed and certified by the Illinois
19Department.
20 (c) The Fund shall consist of the following:
21 (1) All moneys collected or received by the Illinois
22 Department from the hospital provider assessment imposed
23 by this Article.
24 (2) All federal matching funds received by the Illinois
25 Department as a result of expenditures made by the Illinois
26 Department that are attributable to moneys deposited in the

09800SB2640ham001- 1111 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 Fund.
2 (3) Any interest or penalty levied in conjunction with
3 the administration of this Article.
4 (4) Moneys transferred from another fund in the State
5 treasury.
6 (5) All other moneys received for the Fund from any
7 other source, including interest earned thereon.
8 (d) (Blank).
9(Source: P.A. 97-688, eff. 6-14-12; 97-689, eff. 6-14-12;
1098-104, eff. 7-22-13; 98-463, eff. 8-16-13; revised 10-21-13.)
11 (305 ILCS 5/5A-12.4)
12 (Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2015)
13 Sec. 5A-12.4. Hospital access improvement payments on or
14after June 10, 2012.
15 (a) Hospital access improvement payments. To preserve and
16improve access to hospital services, for hospital and physician
17services rendered on or after June 10, 2012, the Illinois
18Department shall, except for hospitals described in subsection
19(b) of Section 5A-3, make payments to hospitals as set forth in
20this Section. These payments shall be paid in 12 equal
21installments on or before the 7th State business day of each
22month, except that no payment shall be due within 100 days
23after the later of the date of notification of federal approval
24of the payment methodologies required under this Section or any
25waiver required under 42 CFR 433.68, at which time the sum of

09800SB2640ham001- 1112 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1amounts required under this Section prior to the date of
2notification is due and payable. Payments under this Section
3are not due and payable, however, until (i) the methodologies
4described in this Section are approved by the federal
5government in an appropriate State Plan amendment and (ii) the
6assessment imposed under subsection (b-5) of Section 5A-2 of
7this Article is determined to be a permissible tax under Title
8XIX of the Social Security Act. The Illinois Department shall
9take all actions necessary to implement the payments under this
10Section effective June 10, 2012, including but not limited to
11providing public notice pursuant to federal requirements, the
12filing of a State Plan amendment, and the adoption of
13administrative rules. For State fiscal year 2013, payments
14under this Section shall be increased by 21/365ths. The funding
15source for these additional payments shall be from the
16increased assessment under subsection (b-5) of Section 5A-2
17that was received from hospital providers under Section 5A-4
18for the portion of State fiscal year 2012 beginning June 10,
192012 through June 30, 2012.
20 (a-5) Accelerated schedule. The Illinois Department may,
21when practicable, accelerate the schedule upon which payments
22authorized under this Section are made.
23 (b) Magnet and perinatal hospital adjustment. In addition
24to rates paid for inpatient hospital services, the Department
25shall pay to each Illinois general acute care hospital that, as
26of August 25, 2011, was recognized as a Magnet hospital by the

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1American Nurses Credentialing Center and that, as of September
214, 2011, was designated as a level III perinatal center
3amounts as follows:
4 (1) For hospitals with a case mix index equal to or
5 greater than the 80th percentile of case mix indices for
6 all Illinois hospitals, $470 for each Medicaid general
7 acute care inpatient day of care provided by the hospital
8 during State fiscal year 2009.
9 (2) For all other hospitals, $170 for each Medicaid
10 general acute care inpatient day of care provided by the
11 hospital during State fiscal year 2009.
12 (c) Trauma level II adjustment. In addition to rates paid
13for inpatient hospital services, the Department shall pay to
14each Illinois general acute care hospital that, as of July 1,
152011, was designated as a level II trauma center amounts as
16follows:
17 (1) For hospitals with a case mix index equal to or
18 greater than the 50th percentile of case mix indices for
19 all Illinois hospitals, $470 for each Medicaid general
20 acute care inpatient day of care provided by the hospital
21 during State fiscal year 2009.
22 (2) For all other hospitals, $170 for each Medicaid
23 general acute care inpatient day of care provided by the
24 hospital during State fiscal year 2009.
25 (3) For the purposes of this adjustment, hospitals
26 located in the same city that alternate their trauma center

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1 designation as defined in 89 Ill. Adm. Code 148.295(a)(2)
2 shall have the adjustment provided under this Section
3 divided between the 2 hospitals.
4 (d) Dual-eligible adjustment. In addition to rates paid for
5inpatient services, the Department shall pay each Illinois
6general acute care hospital that had a ratio of crossover days
7to total inpatient days for programs under Title XIX of the
8Social Security Act administered by the Department (utilizing
9information from 2009 paid claims) greater than 50%, and a case
10mix index equal to or greater than the 75th percentile of case
11mix indices for all Illinois hospitals, a rate of $400 for each
12Medicaid inpatient day during State fiscal year 2009 including
13crossover days.
14 (e) Medicaid volume adjustment. In addition to rates paid
15for inpatient hospital services, the Department shall pay to
16each Illinois general acute care hospital that provided more
17than 10,000 Medicaid inpatient days of care in State fiscal
18year 2009, has a Medicaid inpatient utilization rate of at
19least 29.05% as calculated by the Department for the Rate Year
202011 Disproportionate Share determination, and is not eligible
21for Medicaid Percentage Adjustment payments in rate year 2011
22an amount equal to $135 for each Medicaid inpatient day of care
23provided during State fiscal year 2009.
24 (f) Outpatient service adjustment. In addition to the rates
25paid for outpatient hospital services, the Department shall pay
26each Illinois hospital an amount at least equal to $100

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1multiplied by the hospital's outpatient ambulatory procedure
2listing services (excluding categories 3B and 3C) and by the
3hospital's end stage renal disease treatment services provided
4for State fiscal year 2009.
5 (g) Ambulatory service adjustment.
6 (1) In addition to the rates paid for outpatient
7 hospital services provided in the emergency department,
8 the Department shall pay each Illinois hospital an amount
9 equal to $105 multiplied by the hospital's outpatient
10 ambulatory procedure listing services for categories 3A,
11 3B, and 3C for State fiscal year 2009.
12 (2) In addition to the rates paid for outpatient
13 hospital services, the Department shall pay each Illinois
14 freestanding psychiatric hospital an amount equal to $200
15 multiplied by the hospital's ambulatory procedure listing
16 services for category 5A for State fiscal year 2009.
17 (h) Specialty hospital adjustment. In addition to the rates
18paid for outpatient hospital services, the Department shall pay
19each Illinois long term acute care hospital and each Illinois
20hospital devoted exclusively to the treatment of cancer, an
21amount equal to $700 multiplied by the hospital's outpatient
22ambulatory procedure listing services and by the hospital's end
23stage renal disease treatment services (including services
24provided to individuals eligible for both Medicaid and
25Medicare) provided for State fiscal year 2009.
26 (h-1) ER Safety Net Payments. In addition to rates paid for

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1outpatient services, the Department shall pay to each Illinois
2general acute care hospital with an emergency room ratio equal
3to or greater than 55%, that is not eligible for Medicaid
4percentage adjustments payments in rate year 2011, with a case
5mix index equal to or greater than the 20th percentile, and
6that is not designated as a trauma center by the Illinois
7Department of Public Health on July 1, 2011, as follows:
8 (1) Each hospital with an emergency room ratio equal to
9 or greater than 74% shall receive a rate of $225 for each
10 outpatient ambulatory procedure listing and end-stage
11 renal disease treatment service provided for State fiscal
12 year 2009.
13 (2) For all other hospitals, $65 shall be paid for each
14 outpatient ambulatory procedure listing and end-stage
15 renal disease treatment service provided for State fiscal
16 year 2009.
17 (i) Physician supplemental adjustment. In addition to the
18rates paid for physician services, the Department shall make an
19adjustment payment for services provided by physicians as
20follows:
21 (1) Physician services eligible for the adjustment
22 payment are those provided by physicians employed by or who
23 have a contract to provide services to patients of the
24 following hospitals: (i) Illinois general acute care
25 hospitals that provided at least 17,000 Medicaid inpatient
26 days of care in State fiscal year 2009 and are eligible for

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1 Medicaid Percentage Adjustment Payments in rate year 2011;
2 and (ii) Illinois freestanding children's hospitals, as
3 defined in 89 Ill. Adm. Code 149.50(c)(3)(A).
4 (2) The amount of the adjustment for each eligible
5 hospital under this subsection (i) shall be determined by
6 rule by the Department to spend a total pool of at least
7 $6,960,000 annually. This pool shall be allocated among the
8 eligible hospitals based on the difference between the
9 upper payment limit for what could have been paid under
10 Medicaid for physician services provided during State
11 fiscal year 2009 by physicians employed by or who had a
12 contract with the hospital and the amount that was paid
13 under Medicaid for such services, provided however, that in
14 no event shall physicians at any individual hospital
15 collectively receive an annual, aggregate adjustment in
16 excess of $435,000, except that any amount that is not
17 distributed to a hospital because of the upper payment
18 limit shall be reallocated among the remaining eligible
19 hospitals that are below the upper payment limitation, on a
20 proportionate basis.
21 (i-5) For any children's hospital which did not charge for
22its services during the base period, the Department shall use
23data supplied by the hospital to determine payments using
24similar methodologies for freestanding children's hospitals
25under this Section or Section 5A-12.2.
26 (j) For purposes of this Section, a hospital that is

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1enrolled to provide Medicaid services during State fiscal year
22009 shall have its utilization and associated reimbursements
3annualized prior to the payment calculations being performed
4under this Section.
5 (k) For purposes of this Section, the terms "Medicaid
6days", "ambulatory procedure listing services", and
7"ambulatory procedure listing payments" do not include any
8days, charges, or services for which Medicare or a managed care
9organization reimbursed on a capitated basis was liable for
10payment, except where explicitly stated otherwise in this
11Section.
12 (l) Definitions. Unless the context requires otherwise or
13unless provided otherwise in this Section, the terms used in
14this Section for qualifying criteria and payment calculations
15shall have the same meanings as those terms have been given in
16the Illinois Department's administrative rules as in effect on
17October 1, 2011. Other terms shall be defined by the Illinois
18Department by rule.
19 As used in this Section, unless the context requires
20otherwise:
21 "Case mix index" means, for a given hospital, the sum of
22the per admission (DRG) relative weighting factors in effect on
23January 1, 2005, for all general acute care admissions for
24State fiscal year 2009, excluding Medicare crossover
25admissions and transplant admissions reimbursed under 89 Ill.
26Adm. Code 148.82, divided by the total number of general acute

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1care admissions for State fiscal year 2009, excluding Medicare
2crossover admissions and transplant admissions reimbursed
3under 89 Ill. Adm. Code 148.82.
4 "Emergency room ratio" means, for a given hospital, a
5fraction, the denominator of which is the number of the
6hospital's outpatient ambulatory procedure listing and
7end-stage renal disease treatment services provided for State
8fiscal year 2009 and the numerator of which is the hospital's
9outpatient ambulatory procedure listing services for
10categories 3A, 3B, and 3C for State fiscal year 2009.
11 "Medicaid inpatient day" means, for a given hospital, the
12sum of days of inpatient hospital days provided to recipients
13of medical assistance under Title XIX of the federal Social
14Security Act, excluding days for individuals eligible for
15Medicare under Title XVIII of that Act (Medicaid/Medicare
16crossover days), as tabulated from the Department's paid claims
17data for admissions occurring during State fiscal year 2009
18that was adjudicated by the Department through June 30, 2010.
19 "Outpatient ambulatory procedure listing services" means,
20for a given hospital, ambulatory procedure listing services, as
21described in 89 Ill. Adm. Code 148.140(b), provided to
22recipients of medical assistance under Title XIX of the federal
23Social Security Act, excluding services for individuals
24eligible for Medicare under Title XVIII of the Act
25(Medicaid/Medicare crossover days), as tabulated from the
26Department's paid claims data for services occurring in State

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1fiscal year 2009 that were adjudicated by the Department
2through September 2, 2010.
3 "Outpatient end-stage renal disease treatment services"
4means, for a given hospital, the services, as described in 89
5Ill. Adm. Code 148.140(c), provided to recipients of medical
6assistance under Title XIX of the federal Social Security Act,
7excluding payments for individuals eligible for Medicare under
8Title XVIII of the Act (Medicaid/Medicare crossover days), as
9tabulated from the Department's paid claims data for services
10occurring in State fiscal year 2009 that were adjudicated by
11the Department through September 2, 2010.
12 (m) The Department may adjust payments made under this
13Section 5A-12.4 to comply with federal law or regulations
14regarding hospital-specific payment limitations on
15government-owned or government-operated hospitals.
16 (n) Notwithstanding any of the other provisions of this
17Section, the Department is authorized to adopt rules that
18change the hospital access improvement payments specified in
19this Section, but only to the extent necessary to conform to
20any federally approved amendment to the Title XIX State plan.
21Any such rules shall be adopted by the Department as authorized
22by Section 5-50 of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act.
23Notwithstanding any other provision of law, any changes
24implemented as a result of this subsection (n) shall be given
25retroactive effect so that they shall be deemed to have taken
26effect as of the effective date of this Section.

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1 (o) The Department of Healthcare and Family Services must
2submit a State Medicaid Plan Amendment to the Centers for
3Medicare and Medicaid Services to implement the payments under
4this Section June 14, 2012 (Public Act 97-688).
5(Source: P.A. 97-688, eff. 6-14-12; 98-104, eff. 7-22-13;
698-463, eff. 8-16-13; revised 10-21-13.)
7 (305 ILCS 5/11-5.2)
8 Sec. 11-5.2. Income, Residency, and Identity Verification
9System.
10 (a) The Department shall ensure that its proposed
11integrated eligibility system shall include the computerized
12functions of income, residency, and identity eligibility
13verification to verify eligibility, eliminate duplication of
14medical assistance, and deter fraud. Until the integrated
15eligibility system is operational, the Department may enter
16into a contract with the vendor selected pursuant to Section
1711-5.3 as necessary to obtain the electronic data matching
18described in this Section. This contract shall be exempt from
19the Illinois Procurement Code pursuant to subsection (h) of
20Section 1-10 of that Code.
21 (b) Prior to awarding medical assistance at application
22under Article V of this Code, the Department shall, to the
23extent such databases are available to the Department, conduct
24data matches using the name, date of birth, address, and Social
25Security Number of each applicant or recipient or responsible

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1relative of an applicant or recipient against the following:
2 (1) Income tax information.
3 (2) Employer reports of income and unemployment
4 insurance payment information maintained by the Department
5 of Employment Security.
6 (3) Earned and unearned income, citizenship and death,
7 and other relevant information maintained by the Social
8 Security Administration.
9 (4) Immigration status information maintained by the
10 United States Citizenship and Immigration Services.
11 (5) Wage reporting and similar information maintained
12 by states contiguous to this State.
13 (6) Employment information maintained by the
14 Department of Employment Security in its New Hire Directory
15 database.
16 (7) Employment information maintained by the United
17 States Department of Health and Human Services in its
18 National Directory of New Hires database.
19 (8) Veterans' benefits information maintained by the
20 United States Department of Health and Human Services, in
21 coordination with the Department of Health and Human
22 Services and the Department of Veterans' Affairs, in the
23 federal Public Assistance Reporting Information System
24 (PARIS) database.
25 (9) Residency information maintained by the Illinois
26 Secretary of State.

09800SB2640ham001- 1123 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 (10) A database which is substantially similar to or a
2 successor of a database described in this Section that
3 contains information relevant for verifying eligibility
4 for medical assistance.
5 (c) (Blank).
6 (d) If a discrepancy results between information provided
7by an applicant, recipient, or responsible relative and
8information contained in one or more of the databases or
9information tools listed under subsection (b) or (c) of this
10Section or subsection (c) of Section 11-5.3 and that
11discrepancy calls into question the accuracy of information
12relevant to a condition of eligibility provided by the
13applicant, recipient, or responsible relative, the Department
14or its contractor shall review the applicant's or recipient's
15case using the following procedures:
16 (1) If the information discovered under subsection (b)
17 (c) of this Section or subsection (c) of Section 11-5.3
18 does not result in the Department finding the applicant or
19 recipient ineligible for assistance under Article V of this
20 Code, the Department shall finalize the determination or
21 redetermination of eligibility.
22 (2) If the information discovered results in the
23 Department finding the applicant or recipient ineligible
24 for assistance, the Department shall provide notice as set
25 forth in Section 11-7 of this Article.
26 (3) If the information discovered is insufficient to

09800SB2640ham001- 1124 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 determine that the applicant or recipient is eligible or
2 ineligible, the Department shall provide written notice to
3 the applicant or recipient which shall describe in
4 sufficient detail the circumstances of the discrepancy,
5 the information or documentation required, the manner in
6 which the applicant or recipient may respond, and the
7 consequences of failing to take action. The applicant or
8 recipient shall have 10 business days to respond.
9 (4) If the applicant or recipient does not respond to
10 the notice, the Department shall deny assistance for
11 failure to cooperate, in which case the Department shall
12 provide notice as set forth in Section 11-7. Eligibility
13 for assistance shall not be established until the
14 discrepancy has been resolved.
15 (5) If an applicant or recipient responds to the
16 notice, the Department shall determine the effect of the
17 information or documentation provided on the applicant's
18 or recipient's case and shall take appropriate action.
19 Written notice of the Department's action shall be provided
20 as set forth in Section 11-7 of this Article.
21 (6) Suspected cases of fraud shall be referred to the
22 Department's Inspector General.
23 (e) The Department shall adopt any rules necessary to
24implement this Section.
25(Source: P.A. 97-689, eff. 6-14-12; revised 11-12-13.)

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1 (305 ILCS 5/12-4.25) (from Ch. 23, par. 12-4.25)
2 Sec. 12-4.25. Medical assistance program; vendor
3participation.
4 (A) The Illinois Department may deny, suspend, or terminate
5the eligibility of any person, firm, corporation, association,
6agency, institution or other legal entity to participate as a
7vendor of goods or services to recipients under the medical
8assistance program under Article V, or may exclude any such
9person or entity from participation as such a vendor, and may
10deny, suspend, or recover payments, if after reasonable notice
11and opportunity for a hearing the Illinois Department finds:
12 (a) Such vendor is not complying with the Department's
13 policy or rules and regulations, or with the terms and
14 conditions prescribed by the Illinois Department in its
15 vendor agreement, which document shall be developed by the
16 Department as a result of negotiations with each vendor
17 category, including physicians, hospitals, long term care
18 facilities, pharmacists, optometrists, podiatric
19 physicians, and dentists setting forth the terms and
20 conditions applicable to the participation of each vendor
21 group in the program; or
22 (b) Such vendor has failed to keep or make available
23 for inspection, audit or copying, after receiving a written
24 request from the Illinois Department, such records
25 regarding payments claimed for providing services. This
26 section does not require vendors to make available patient

09800SB2640ham001- 1126 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 records of patients for whom services are not reimbursed
2 under this Code; or
3 (c) Such vendor has failed to furnish any information
4 requested by the Department regarding payments for
5 providing goods or services; or
6 (d) Such vendor has knowingly made, or caused to be
7 made, any false statement or representation of a material
8 fact in connection with the administration of the medical
9 assistance program; or
10 (e) Such vendor has furnished goods or services to a
11 recipient which are (1) in excess of need, (2) harmful, or
12 (3) of grossly inferior quality, all of such determinations
13 to be based upon competent medical judgment and
14 evaluations; or
15 (f) The vendor; a person with management
16 responsibility for a vendor; an officer or person owning,
17 either directly or indirectly, 5% or more of the shares of
18 stock or other evidences of ownership in a corporate
19 vendor; an owner of a sole proprietorship which is a
20 vendor; or a partner in a partnership which is a vendor,
21 either:
22 (1) was previously terminated, suspended, or
23 excluded from participation in the Illinois medical
24 assistance program, or was terminated, suspended, or
25 excluded from participation in another state or
26 federal medical assistance or health care program; or

09800SB2640ham001- 1127 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 (2) was a person with management responsibility
2 for a vendor previously terminated, suspended, or
3 excluded from participation in the Illinois medical
4 assistance program, or terminated, suspended, or
5 excluded from participation in another state or
6 federal medical assistance or health care program
7 during the time of conduct which was the basis for that
8 vendor's termination, suspension, or exclusion; or
9 (3) was an officer, or person owning, either
10 directly or indirectly, 5% or more of the shares of
11 stock or other evidences of ownership in a corporate or
12 limited liability company vendor previously
13 terminated, suspended, or excluded from participation
14 in the Illinois medical assistance program, or
15 terminated, suspended, or excluded from participation
16 in a state or federal medical assistance or health care
17 program during the time of conduct which was the basis
18 for that vendor's termination, suspension, or
19 exclusion; or
20 (4) was an owner of a sole proprietorship or
21 partner of a partnership previously terminated,
22 suspended, or excluded from participation in the
23 Illinois medical assistance program, or terminated,
24 suspended, or excluded from participation in a state or
25 federal medical assistance or health care program
26 during the time of conduct which was the basis for that

09800SB2640ham001- 1128 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 vendor's termination, suspension, or exclusion; or
2 (f-1) Such vendor has a delinquent debt owed to the
3 Illinois Department; or
4 (g) The vendor; a person with management
5 responsibility for a vendor; an officer or person owning,
6 either directly or indirectly, 5% or more of the shares of
7 stock or other evidences of ownership in a corporate or
8 limited liability company vendor; an owner of a sole
9 proprietorship which is a vendor; or a partner in a
10 partnership which is a vendor, either:
11 (1) has engaged in practices prohibited by
12 applicable federal or State law or regulation; or
13 (2) was a person with management responsibility
14 for a vendor at the time that such vendor engaged in
15 practices prohibited by applicable federal or State
16 law or regulation; or
17 (3) was an officer, or person owning, either
18 directly or indirectly, 5% or more of the shares of
19 stock or other evidences of ownership in a vendor at
20 the time such vendor engaged in practices prohibited by
21 applicable federal or State law or regulation; or
22 (4) was an owner of a sole proprietorship or
23 partner of a partnership which was a vendor at the time
24 such vendor engaged in practices prohibited by
25 applicable federal or State law or regulation; or
26 (h) The direct or indirect ownership of the vendor

09800SB2640ham001- 1129 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 (including the ownership of a vendor that is a sole
2 proprietorship, a partner's interest in a vendor that is a
3 partnership, or ownership of 5% or more of the shares of
4 stock or other evidences of ownership in a corporate
5 vendor) has been transferred by an individual who is
6 terminated, suspended, or excluded or barred from
7 participating as a vendor to the individual's spouse,
8 child, brother, sister, parent, grandparent, grandchild,
9 uncle, aunt, niece, nephew, cousin, or relative by
10 marriage.
11 (A-5) The Illinois Department may deny, suspend, or
12terminate the eligibility of any person, firm, corporation,
13association, agency, institution, or other legal entity to
14participate as a vendor of goods or services to recipients
15under the medical assistance program under Article V, or may
16exclude any such person or entity from participation as such a
17vendor, if, after reasonable notice and opportunity for a
18hearing, the Illinois Department finds that the vendor; a
19person with management responsibility for a vendor; an officer
20or person owning, either directly or indirectly, 5% or more of
21the shares of stock or other evidences of ownership in a
22corporate vendor; an owner of a sole proprietorship that is a
23vendor; or a partner in a partnership that is a vendor has been
24convicted of an offense based on fraud or willful
25misrepresentation related to any of the following:
26 (1) The medical assistance program under Article V of

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1 this Code.
2 (2) A medical assistance or health care program in
3 another state.
4 (3) The Medicare program under Title XVIII of the
5 Social Security Act.
6 (4) The provision of health care services.
7 (5) A violation of this Code, as provided in Article
8 VIIIA, or another state or federal medical assistance
9 program or health care program.
10 (A-10) The Illinois Department may deny, suspend, or
11terminate the eligibility of any person, firm, corporation,
12association, agency, institution, or other legal entity to
13participate as a vendor of goods or services to recipients
14under the medical assistance program under Article V, or may
15exclude any such person or entity from participation as such a
16vendor, if, after reasonable notice and opportunity for a
17hearing, the Illinois Department finds that (i) the vendor,
18(ii) a person with management responsibility for a vendor,
19(iii) an officer or person owning, either directly or
20indirectly, 5% or more of the shares of stock or other
21evidences of ownership in a corporate vendor, (iv) an owner of
22a sole proprietorship that is a vendor, or (v) a partner in a
23partnership that is a vendor has been convicted of an offense
24related to any of the following:
25 (1) Murder.
26 (2) A Class X felony under the Criminal Code of 1961 or

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1 the Criminal Code of 2012.
2 (3) Sexual misconduct that may subject recipients to an
3 undue risk of harm.
4 (4) A criminal offense that may subject recipients to
5 an undue risk of harm.
6 (5) A crime of fraud or dishonesty.
7 (6) A crime involving a controlled substance.
8 (7) A misdemeanor relating to fraud, theft,
9 embezzlement, breach of fiduciary responsibility, or other
10 financial misconduct related to a health care program.
11 (A-15) The Illinois Department may deny the eligibility of
12any person, firm, corporation, association, agency,
13institution, or other legal entity to participate as a vendor
14of goods or services to recipients under the medical assistance
15program under Article V if, after reasonable notice and
16opportunity for a hearing, the Illinois Department finds:
17 (1) The applicant or any person with management
18 responsibility for the applicant; an officer or member of
19 the board of directors of an applicant; an entity owning
20 (directly or indirectly) 5% or more of the shares of stock
21 or other evidences of ownership in a corporate vendor
22 applicant; an owner of a sole proprietorship applicant; a
23 partner in a partnership applicant; or a technical or other
24 advisor to an applicant has a debt owed to the Illinois
25 Department, and no payment arrangements acceptable to the
26 Illinois Department have been made by the applicant.

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1 (2) The applicant or any person with management
2 responsibility for the applicant; an officer or member of
3 the board of directors of an applicant; an entity owning
4 (directly or indirectly) 5% or more of the shares of stock
5 or other evidences of ownership in a corporate vendor
6 applicant; an owner of a sole proprietorship applicant; a
7 partner in a partnership vendor applicant; or a technical
8 or other advisor to an applicant was (i) a person with
9 management responsibility, (ii) an officer or member of the
10 board of directors of an applicant, (iii) an entity owning
11 (directly or indirectly) 5% or more of the shares of stock
12 or other evidences of ownership in a corporate vendor, (iv)
13 an owner of a sole proprietorship, (v) a partner in a
14 partnership vendor, (vi) a technical or other advisor to a
15 vendor, during a period of time where the conduct of that
16 vendor resulted in a debt owed to the Illinois Department,
17 and no payment arrangements acceptable to the Illinois
18 Department have been made by that vendor.
19 (3) There is a credible allegation of the use,
20 transfer, or lease of assets of any kind to an applicant
21 from a current or prior vendor who has a debt owed to the
22 Illinois Department, no payment arrangements acceptable to
23 the Illinois Department have been made by that vendor or
24 the vendor's alternate payee, and the applicant knows or
25 should have known of such debt.
26 (4) There is a credible allegation of a transfer of

09800SB2640ham001- 1133 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 management responsibilities, or direct or indirect
2 ownership, to an applicant from a current or prior vendor
3 who has a debt owed to the Illinois Department, and no
4 payment arrangements acceptable to the Illinois Department
5 have been made by that vendor or the vendor's alternate
6 payee, and the applicant knows or should have known of such
7 debt.
8 (5) There is a credible allegation of the use,
9 transfer, or lease of assets of any kind to an applicant
10 who is a spouse, child, brother, sister, parent,
11 grandparent, grandchild, uncle, aunt, niece, relative by
12 marriage, nephew, cousin, or relative of a current or prior
13 vendor who has a debt owed to the Illinois Department and
14 no payment arrangements acceptable to the Illinois
15 Department have been made.
16 (6) There is a credible allegation that the applicant's
17 previous affiliations with a provider of medical services
18 that has an uncollected debt, a provider that has been or
19 is subject to a payment suspension under a federal health
20 care program, or a provider that has been previously
21 excluded from participation in the medical assistance
22 program, poses a risk of fraud, waste, or abuse to the
23 Illinois Department.
24 As used in this subsection, "credible allegation" is
25defined to include an allegation from any source, including,
26but not limited to, fraud hotline complaints, claims data

09800SB2640ham001- 1134 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1mining, patterns identified through provider audits, civil
2actions filed under the Illinois False Claims Act, and law
3enforcement investigations. An allegation is considered to be
4credible when it has indicia of reliability.
5 (B) The Illinois Department shall deny, suspend or
6terminate the eligibility of any person, firm, corporation,
7association, agency, institution or other legal entity to
8participate as a vendor of goods or services to recipients
9under the medical assistance program under Article V, or may
10exclude any such person or entity from participation as such a
11vendor:
12 (1) immediately, if such vendor is not properly
13 licensed, certified, or authorized;
14 (2) within 30 days of the date when such vendor's
15 professional license, certification or other authorization
16 has been refused renewal, restricted, revoked, suspended,
17 or otherwise terminated; or
18 (3) if such vendor has been convicted of a violation of
19 this Code, as provided in Article VIIIA.
20 (C) Upon termination, suspension, or exclusion of a vendor
21of goods or services from participation in the medical
22assistance program authorized by this Article, a person with
23management responsibility for such vendor during the time of
24any conduct which served as the basis for that vendor's
25termination, suspension, or exclusion is barred from
26participation in the medical assistance program.

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1 Upon termination, suspension, or exclusion of a corporate
2vendor, the officers and persons owning, directly or
3indirectly, 5% or more of the shares of stock or other
4evidences of ownership in the vendor during the time of any
5conduct which served as the basis for that vendor's
6termination, suspension, or exclusion are barred from
7participation in the medical assistance program. A person who
8owns, directly or indirectly, 5% or more of the shares of stock
9or other evidences of ownership in a terminated, suspended, or
10excluded vendor may not transfer his or her ownership interest
11in that vendor to his or her spouse, child, brother, sister,
12parent, grandparent, grandchild, uncle, aunt, niece, nephew,
13cousin, or relative by marriage.
14 Upon termination, suspension, or exclusion of a sole
15proprietorship or partnership, the owner or partners during the
16time of any conduct which served as the basis for that vendor's
17termination, suspension, or exclusion are barred from
18participation in the medical assistance program. The owner of a
19terminated, suspended, or excluded vendor that is a sole
20proprietorship, and a partner in a terminated, suspended, or
21excluded vendor that is a partnership, may not transfer his or
22her ownership or partnership interest in that vendor to his or
23her spouse, child, brother, sister, parent, grandparent,
24grandchild, uncle, aunt, niece, nephew, cousin, or relative by
25marriage.
26 A person who owns, directly or indirectly, 5% or more of

09800SB2640ham001- 1136 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1the shares of stock or other evidences of ownership in a
2corporate or limited liability company vendor who owes a debt
3to the Department, if that vendor has not made payment
4arrangements acceptable to the Department, shall not transfer
5his or her ownership interest in that vendor, or vendor assets
6of any kind, to his or her spouse, child, brother, sister,
7parent, grandparent, grandchild, uncle, aunt, niece, nephew,
8cousin, or relative by marriage.
9 Rules adopted by the Illinois Department to implement these
10provisions shall specifically include a definition of the term
11"management responsibility" as used in this Section. Such
12definition shall include, but not be limited to, typical job
13titles, and duties and descriptions which will be considered as
14within the definition of individuals with management
15responsibility for a provider.
16 A vendor or a prior vendor who has been terminated,
17excluded, or suspended from the medical assistance program, or
18from another state or federal medical assistance or health care
19program, and any individual currently or previously barred from
20the medical assistance program, or from another state or
21federal medical assistance or health care program, as a result
22of being an officer or a person owning, directly or indirectly,
235% or more of the shares of stock or other evidences of
24ownership in a corporate or limited liability company vendor
25during the time of any conduct which served as the basis for
26that vendor's termination, suspension, or exclusion, may be

09800SB2640ham001- 1137 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1required to post a surety bond as part of a condition of
2enrollment or participation in the medical assistance program.
3The Illinois Department shall establish, by rule, the criteria
4and requirements for determining when a surety bond must be
5posted and the value of the bond.
6 A vendor or a prior vendor who has a debt owed to the
7Illinois Department and any individual currently or previously
8barred from the medical assistance program, or from another
9state or federal medical assistance or health care program, as
10a result of being an officer or a person owning, directly or
11indirectly, 5% or more of the shares of stock or other
12evidences of ownership in that corporate or limited liability
13company vendor during the time of any conduct which served as
14the basis for the debt, may be required to post a surety bond
15as part of a condition of enrollment or participation in the
16medical assistance program. The Illinois Department shall
17establish, by rule, the criteria and requirements for
18determining when a surety bond must be posted and the value of
19the bond.
20 (D) If a vendor has been suspended from the medical
21assistance program under Article V of the Code, the Director
22may require that such vendor correct any deficiencies which
23served as the basis for the suspension. The Director shall
24specify in the suspension order a specific period of time,
25which shall not exceed one year from the date of the order,
26during which a suspended vendor shall not be eligible to

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1participate. At the conclusion of the period of suspension the
2Director shall reinstate such vendor, unless he finds that such
3vendor has not corrected deficiencies upon which the suspension
4was based.
5 If a vendor has been terminated, suspended, or excluded
6from the medical assistance program under Article V, such
7vendor shall be barred from participation for at least one
8year, except that if a vendor has been terminated, suspended,
9or excluded based on a conviction of a violation of Article
10VIIIA or a conviction of a felony based on fraud or a willful
11misrepresentation related to (i) the medical assistance
12program under Article V, (ii) a federal or another state's
13medical assistance or health care program, or (iii) the
14provision of health care services, then the vendor shall be
15barred from participation for 5 years or for the length of the
16vendor's sentence for that conviction, whichever is longer. At
17the end of one year a vendor who has been terminated,
18suspended, or excluded may apply for reinstatement to the
19program. Upon proper application to be reinstated such vendor
20may be deemed eligible by the Director providing that such
21vendor meets the requirements for eligibility under this Code.
22If such vendor is deemed not eligible for reinstatement, he
23shall be barred from again applying for reinstatement for one
24year from the date his application for reinstatement is denied.
25 A vendor whose termination, suspension, or exclusion from
26participation in the Illinois medical assistance program under

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1Article V was based solely on an action by a governmental
2entity other than the Illinois Department may, upon
3reinstatement by that governmental entity or upon reversal of
4the termination, suspension, or exclusion, apply for
5rescission of the termination, suspension, or exclusion from
6participation in the Illinois medical assistance program. Upon
7proper application for rescission, the vendor may be deemed
8eligible by the Director if the vendor meets the requirements
9for eligibility under this Code.
10 If a vendor has been terminated, suspended, or excluded and
11reinstated to the medical assistance program under Article V
12and the vendor is terminated, suspended, or excluded a second
13or subsequent time from the medical assistance program, the
14vendor shall be barred from participation for at least 2 years,
15except that if a vendor has been terminated, suspended, or
16excluded a second time based on a conviction of a violation of
17Article VIIIA or a conviction of a felony based on fraud or a
18willful misrepresentation related to (i) the medical
19assistance program under Article V, (ii) a federal or another
20state's medical assistance or health care program, or (iii) the
21provision of health care services, then the vendor shall be
22barred from participation for life. At the end of 2 years, a
23vendor who has been terminated, suspended, or excluded may
24apply for reinstatement to the program. Upon application to be
25reinstated, the vendor may be deemed eligible if the vendor
26meets the requirements for eligibility under this Code. If the

09800SB2640ham001- 1140 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1vendor is deemed not eligible for reinstatement, the vendor
2shall be barred from again applying for reinstatement for 2
3years from the date the vendor's application for reinstatement
4is denied.
5 (E) The Illinois Department may recover money improperly or
6erroneously paid, or overpayments, either by setoff, crediting
7against future billings or by requiring direct repayment to the
8Illinois Department. The Illinois Department may suspend or
9deny payment, in whole or in part, if such payment would be
10improper or erroneous or would otherwise result in overpayment.
11 (1) Payments may be suspended, denied, or recovered
12 from a vendor or alternate payee: (i) for services rendered
13 in violation of the Illinois Department's provider
14 notices, statutes, rules, and regulations; (ii) for
15 services rendered in violation of the terms and conditions
16 prescribed by the Illinois Department in its vendor
17 agreement; (iii) for any vendor who fails to grant the
18 Office of Inspector General timely access to full and
19 complete records, including, but not limited to, records
20 relating to recipients under the medical assistance
21 program for the most recent 6 years, in accordance with
22 Section 140.28 of Title 89 of the Illinois Administrative
23 Code, and other information for the purpose of audits,
24 investigations, or other program integrity functions,
25 after reasonable written request by the Inspector General;
26 this subsection (E) does not require vendors to make

09800SB2640ham001- 1141 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 available the medical records of patients for whom services
2 are not reimbursed under this Code or to provide access to
3 medical records more than 6 years old; (iv) when the vendor
4 has knowingly made, or caused to be made, any false
5 statement or representation of a material fact in
6 connection with the administration of the medical
7 assistance program; or (v) when the vendor previously
8 rendered services while terminated, suspended, or excluded
9 from participation in the medical assistance program or
10 while terminated or excluded from participation in another
11 state or federal medical assistance or health care program.
12 (2) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, if a
13 vendor has the same taxpayer identification number
14 (assigned under Section 6109 of the Internal Revenue Code
15 of 1986) as is assigned to a vendor with past-due financial
16 obligations to the Illinois Department, the Illinois
17 Department may make any necessary adjustments to payments
18 to that vendor in order to satisfy any past-due
19 obligations, regardless of whether the vendor is assigned a
20 different billing number under the medical assistance
21 program.
22 (E-5) Civil monetary penalties.
23 (1) As used in this subsection (E-5):
24 (a) "Knowingly" means that a person, with respect
25 to information: (i) has actual knowledge of the
26 information; (ii) acts in deliberate ignorance of the

09800SB2640ham001- 1142 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 truth or falsity of the information; or (iii) acts in
2 reckless disregard of the truth or falsity of the
3 information. No proof of specific intent to defraud is
4 required.
5 (b) "Overpayment" means any funds that a person
6 receives or retains from the medical assistance
7 program to which the person, after applicable
8 reconciliation, is not entitled under this Code.
9 (c) "Remuneration" means the offer or transfer of
10 items or services for free or for other than fair
11 market value by a person; however, remuneration does
12 not include items or services of a nominal value of no
13 more than $10 per item or service, or $50 in the
14 aggregate on an annual basis, or any other offer or
15 transfer of items or services as determined by the
16 Department.
17 (d) "Should know" means that a person, with respect
18 to information: (i) acts in deliberate ignorance of the
19 truth or falsity of the information; or (ii) acts in
20 reckless disregard of the truth or falsity of the
21 information. No proof of specific intent to defraud is
22 required.
23 (2) Any person (including a vendor, provider,
24 organization, agency, or other entity, or an alternate
25 payee thereof, but excluding a recipient) who:
26 (a) knowingly presents or causes to be presented to

09800SB2640ham001- 1143 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 an officer, employee, or agent of the State, a claim
2 that the Department determines:
3 (i) is for a medical or other item or service
4 that the person knows or should know was not
5 provided as claimed, including any person who
6 engages in a pattern or practice of presenting or
7 causing to be presented a claim for an item or
8 service that is based on a code that the person
9 knows or should know will result in a greater
10 payment to the person than the code the person
11 knows or should know is applicable to the item or
12 service actually provided;
13 (ii) is for a medical or other item or service
14 and the person knows or should know that the claim
15 is false or fraudulent;
16 (iii) is presented for a vendor physician's
17 service, or an item or service incident to a vendor
18 physician's service, by a person who knows or
19 should know that the individual who furnished, or
20 supervised the furnishing of, the service:
21 (AA) was not licensed as a physician;
22 (BB) was licensed as a physician but such
23 license had been obtained through a
24 misrepresentation of material fact (including
25 cheating on an examination required for
26 licensing); or

09800SB2640ham001- 1144 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 (CC) represented to the patient at the
2 time the service was furnished that the
3 physician was certified in a medical specialty
4 by a medical specialty board, when the
5 individual was not so certified;
6 (iv) is for a medical or other item or service
7 furnished during a period in which the person was
8 excluded from the medical assistance program or a
9 federal or state health care program under which
10 the claim was made pursuant to applicable law; or
11 (v) is for a pattern of medical or other items
12 or services that a person knows or should know are
13 not medically necessary;
14 (b) knowingly presents or causes to be presented to
15 any person a request for payment which is in violation
16 of the conditions for receipt of vendor payments under
17 the medical assistance program under Section 11-13 of
18 this Code;
19 (c) knowingly gives or causes to be given to any
20 person, with respect to medical assistance program
21 coverage of inpatient hospital services, information
22 that he or she knows or should know is false or
23 misleading, and that could reasonably be expected to
24 influence the decision when to discharge such person or
25 other individual from the hospital;
26 (d) in the case of a person who is not an

09800SB2640ham001- 1145 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 organization, agency, or other entity, is excluded
2 from participating in the medical assistance program
3 or a federal or state health care program and who, at
4 the time of a violation of this subsection (E-5):
5 (i) retains a direct or indirect ownership or
6 control interest in an entity that is
7 participating in the medical assistance program or
8 a federal or state health care program, and who
9 knows or should know of the action constituting the
10 basis for the exclusion; or
11 (ii) is an officer or managing employee of such
12 an entity;
13 (e) offers or transfers remuneration to any
14 individual eligible for benefits under the medical
15 assistance program that such person knows or should
16 know is likely to influence such individual to order or
17 receive from a particular vendor, provider,
18 practitioner, or supplier any item or service for which
19 payment may be made, in whole or in part, under the
20 medical assistance program;
21 (f) arranges or contracts (by employment or
22 otherwise) with an individual or entity that the person
23 knows or should know is excluded from participation in
24 the medical assistance program or a federal or state
25 health care program, for the provision of items or
26 services for which payment may be made under such a

09800SB2640ham001- 1146 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 program;
2 (g) commits an act described in subsection (b) or
3 (c) of Section 8A-3;
4 (h) knowingly makes, uses, or causes to be made or
5 used, a false record or statement material to a false
6 or fraudulent claim for payment for items and services
7 furnished under the medical assistance program;
8 (i) fails to grant timely access, upon reasonable
9 request (as defined by the Department by rule), to the
10 Inspector General, for the purpose of audits,
11 investigations, evaluations, or other statutory
12 functions of the Inspector General of the Department;
13 (j) orders or prescribes a medical or other item or
14 service during a period in which the person was
15 excluded from the medical assistance program or a
16 federal or state health care program, in the case where
17 the person knows or should know that a claim for such
18 medical or other item or service will be made under
19 such a program;
20 (k) knowingly makes or causes to be made any false
21 statement, omission, or misrepresentation of a
22 material fact in any application, bid, or contract to
23 participate or enroll as a vendor or provider of
24 services or a supplier under the medical assistance
25 program;
26 (l) knows of an overpayment and does not report and

09800SB2640ham001- 1147 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 return the overpayment to the Department in accordance
2 with paragraph (6);
3 shall be subject, in addition to any other penalties that
4 may be prescribed by law, to a civil money penalty of not
5 more than $10,000 for each item or service (or, in cases
6 under subparagraph (c), $15,000 for each individual with
7 respect to whom false or misleading information was given;
8 in cases under subparagraph (d), $10,000 for each day the
9 prohibited relationship occurs; in cases under
10 subparagraph (g), $50,000 for each such act; in cases under
11 subparagraph (h), $50,000 for each false record or
12 statement; in cases under subparagraph (i), $15,000 for
13 each day of the failure described in such subparagraph; or
14 in cases under subparagraph (k), $50,000 for each false
15 statement, omission, or misrepresentation of a material
16 fact). In addition, such a person shall be subject to an
17 assessment of not more than 3 times the amount claimed for
18 each such item or service in lieu of damages sustained by
19 the State because of such claim (or, in cases under
20 subparagraph (g), damages of not more than 3 times the
21 total amount of remuneration offered, paid, solicited, or
22 received, without regard to whether a portion of such
23 remuneration was offered, paid, solicited, or received for
24 a lawful purpose; or in cases under subparagraph (k), an
25 assessment of not more than 3 times the total amount
26 claimed for each item or service for which payment was made

09800SB2640ham001- 1148 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 based upon the application, bid, or contract containing the
2 false statement, omission, or misrepresentation of a
3 material fact).
4 (3) In addition, the Director or his or her designee
5 may make a determination in the same proceeding to exclude,
6 terminate, suspend, or bar the person from participation in
7 the medical assistance program.
8 (4) The Illinois Department may seek the civil monetary
9 penalties and exclusion, termination, suspension, or
10 barment identified in this subsection (E-5). Prior to the
11 imposition of any penalties or sanctions, the affected
12 person shall be afforded an opportunity for a hearing after
13 reasonable notice. The Department shall establish hearing
14 procedures by rule.
15 (5) Any final order, decision, or other determination
16 made, issued, or executed by the Director under the
17 provisions of this subsection (E-5), whereby a person is
18 aggrieved, shall be subject to review in accordance with
19 the provisions of the Administrative Review Law, and the
20 rules adopted pursuant thereto, which shall apply to and
21 govern all proceedings for the judicial review of final
22 administrative decisions of the Director.
23 (6)(a) If a person has received an overpayment, the
24 person shall:
25 (i) report and return the overpayment to the
26 Department at the correct address; and

09800SB2640ham001- 1149 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 (ii) notify the Department in writing of the reason
2 for the overpayment.
3 (b) An overpayment must be reported and returned under
4 subparagraph (a) by the later of:
5 (i) the date which is 60 days after the date on
6 which the overpayment was identified; or
7 (ii) the date any corresponding cost report is due,
8 if applicable.
9 (E-10) A vendor who disputes an overpayment identified as
10part of a Department audit shall utilize the Department's
11self-referral disclosure protocol as set forth under this Code
12to identify, investigate, and return to the Department any
13undisputed audit overpayment amount. Unless the disputed
14overpayment amount is subject to a fraud payment suspension, or
15involves a termination sanction, the Department shall defer the
16recovery of the disputed overpayment amount up to one year
17after the date of the Department's final audit determination,
18or earlier, or as required by State or federal law. If the
19administrative hearing extends beyond one year, and such delay
20was not caused by the request of the vendor, then the
21Department shall not recover the disputed overpayment amount
22until the date of the final administrative decision. If a final
23administrative decision establishes that the disputed
24overpayment amount is owed to the Department, then the amount
25shall be immediately due to the Department. The Department
26shall be entitled to recover interest from the vendor on the

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1overpayment amount from the date of the overpayment through the
2date the vendor returns the overpayment to the Department at a
3rate not to exceed the Wall Street Journal Prime Rate, as
4published from time to time, but not to exceed 5%. Any interest
5billed by the Department shall be due immediately upon receipt
6of the Department's billing statement.
7 (F) The Illinois Department may withhold payments to any
8vendor or alternate payee prior to or during the pendency of
9any audit or proceeding under this Section, and through the
10pendency of any administrative appeal or administrative review
11by any court proceeding. The Illinois Department shall state by
12rule with as much specificity as practicable the conditions
13under which payments will not be withheld under this Section.
14Payments may be denied for bills submitted with service dates
15occurring during the pendency of a proceeding, after a final
16decision has been rendered, or after the conclusion of any
17administrative appeal, where the final administrative decision
18is to terminate, exclude, or suspend eligibility to participate
19in the medical assistance program. The Illinois Department
20shall state by rule with as much specificity as practicable the
21conditions under which payments will not be denied for such
22bills. The Illinois Department shall state by rule a process
23and criteria by which a vendor or alternate payee may request
24full or partial release of payments withheld under this
25subsection. The Department must complete a proceeding under
26this Section in a timely manner.

09800SB2640ham001- 1151 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 Notwithstanding recovery allowed under subsection (E) or
2this subsection (F), the Illinois Department may withhold
3payments to any vendor or alternate payee who is not properly
4licensed, certified, or in compliance with State or federal
5agency regulations. Payments may be denied for bills submitted
6with service dates occurring during the period of time that a
7vendor is not properly licensed, certified, or in compliance
8with State or federal regulations. Facilities licensed under
9the Nursing Home Care Act shall have payments denied or
10withheld pursuant to subsection (I) of this Section.
11 (F-5) The Illinois Department may temporarily withhold
12payments to a vendor or alternate payee if any of the following
13individuals have been indicted or otherwise charged under a law
14of the United States or this or any other state with an offense
15that is based on alleged fraud or willful misrepresentation on
16the part of the individual related to (i) the medical
17assistance program under Article V of this Code, (ii) a federal
18or another state's medical assistance or health care program,
19or (iii) the provision of health care services:
20 (1) If the vendor or alternate payee is a corporation:
21 an officer of the corporation or an individual who owns,
22 either directly or indirectly, 5% or more of the shares of
23 stock or other evidence of ownership of the corporation.
24 (2) If the vendor is a sole proprietorship: the owner
25 of the sole proprietorship.
26 (3) If the vendor or alternate payee is a partnership:

09800SB2640ham001- 1152 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 a partner in the partnership.
2 (4) If the vendor or alternate payee is any other
3 business entity authorized by law to transact business in
4 this State: an officer of the entity or an individual who
5 owns, either directly or indirectly, 5% or more of the
6 evidences of ownership of the entity.
7 If the Illinois Department withholds payments to a vendor
8or alternate payee under this subsection, the Department shall
9not release those payments to the vendor or alternate payee
10while any criminal proceeding related to the indictment or
11charge is pending unless the Department determines that there
12is good cause to release the payments before completion of the
13proceeding. If the indictment or charge results in the
14individual's conviction, the Illinois Department shall retain
15all withheld payments, which shall be considered forfeited to
16the Department. If the indictment or charge does not result in
17the individual's conviction, the Illinois Department shall
18release to the vendor or alternate payee all withheld payments.
19 (F-10) If the Illinois Department establishes that the
20vendor or alternate payee owes a debt to the Illinois
21Department, and the vendor or alternate payee subsequently
22fails to pay or make satisfactory payment arrangements with the
23Illinois Department for the debt owed, the Illinois Department
24may seek all remedies available under the law of this State to
25recover the debt, including, but not limited to, wage
26garnishment or the filing of claims or liens against the vendor

09800SB2640ham001- 1153 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1or alternate payee.
2 (F-15) Enforcement of judgment.
3 (1) Any fine, recovery amount, other sanction, or costs
4 imposed, or part of any fine, recovery amount, other
5 sanction, or cost imposed, remaining unpaid after the
6 exhaustion of or the failure to exhaust judicial review
7 procedures under the Illinois Administrative Review Law is
8 a debt due and owing the State and may be collected using
9 all remedies available under the law.
10 (2) After expiration of the period in which judicial
11 review under the Illinois Administrative Review Law may be
12 sought for a final administrative decision, unless stayed
13 by a court of competent jurisdiction, the findings,
14 decision, and order of the Director may be enforced in the
15 same manner as a judgment entered by a court of competent
16 jurisdiction.
17 (3) In any case in which any person or entity has
18 failed to comply with a judgment ordering or imposing any
19 fine or other sanction, any expenses incurred by the
20 Illinois Department to enforce the judgment, including,
21 but not limited to, attorney's fees, court costs, and costs
22 related to property demolition or foreclosure, after they
23 are fixed by a court of competent jurisdiction or the
24 Director, shall be a debt due and owing the State and may
25 be collected in accordance with applicable law. Prior to
26 any expenses being fixed by a final administrative decision

09800SB2640ham001- 1154 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 pursuant to this subsection (F-15), the Illinois
2 Department shall provide notice to the individual or entity
3 that states that the individual or entity shall appear at a
4 hearing before the administrative hearing officer to
5 determine whether the individual or entity has failed to
6 comply with the judgment. The notice shall set the date for
7 such a hearing, which shall not be less than 7 days from
8 the date that notice is served. If notice is served by
9 mail, the 7-day period shall begin to run on the date that
10 the notice was deposited in the mail.
11 (4) Upon being recorded in the manner required by
12 Article XII of the Code of Civil Procedure or by the
13 Uniform Commercial Code, a lien shall be imposed on the
14 real estate or personal estate, or both, of the individual
15 or entity in the amount of any debt due and owing the State
16 under this Section. The lien may be enforced in the same
17 manner as a judgment of a court of competent jurisdiction.
18 A lien shall attach to all property and assets of such
19 person, firm, corporation, association, agency,
20 institution, or other legal entity until the judgment is
21 satisfied.
22 (5) The Director may set aside any judgment entered by
23 default and set a new hearing date upon a petition filed at
24 any time (i) if the petitioner's failure to appear at the
25 hearing was for good cause, or (ii) if the petitioner
26 established that the Department did not provide proper

09800SB2640ham001- 1155 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 service of process. If any judgment is set aside pursuant
2 to this paragraph (5), the hearing officer shall have
3 authority to enter an order extinguishing any lien which
4 has been recorded for any debt due and owing the Illinois
5 Department as a result of the vacated default judgment.
6 (G) The provisions of the Administrative Review Law, as now
7or hereafter amended, and the rules adopted pursuant thereto,
8shall apply to and govern all proceedings for the judicial
9review of final administrative decisions of the Illinois
10Department under this Section. The term "administrative
11decision" is defined as in Section 3-101 of the Code of Civil
12Procedure.
13 (G-5) Vendors who pose a risk of fraud, waste, abuse, or
14harm.
15 (1) Notwithstanding any other provision in this
16 Section, the Department may terminate, suspend, or exclude
17 vendors who pose a risk of fraud, waste, abuse, or harm
18 from participation in the medical assistance program prior
19 to an evidentiary hearing but after reasonable notice and
20 opportunity to respond as established by the Department by
21 rule.
22 (2) Vendors who pose a risk of fraud, waste, abuse, or
23 harm shall submit to a fingerprint-based criminal
24 background check on current and future information
25 available in the State system and current information
26 available through the Federal Bureau of Investigation's

09800SB2640ham001- 1156 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 system by submitting all necessary fees and information in
2 the form and manner prescribed by the Department of State
3 Police. The following individuals shall be subject to the
4 check:
5 (A) In the case of a vendor that is a corporation,
6 every shareholder who owns, directly or indirectly, 5%
7 or more of the outstanding shares of the corporation.
8 (B) In the case of a vendor that is a partnership,
9 every partner.
10 (C) In the case of a vendor that is a sole
11 proprietorship, the sole proprietor.
12 (D) Each officer or manager of the vendor.
13 Each such vendor shall be responsible for payment of
14 the cost of the criminal background check.
15 (3) Vendors who pose a risk of fraud, waste, abuse, or
16 harm may be required to post a surety bond. The Department
17 shall establish, by rule, the criteria and requirements for
18 determining when a surety bond must be posted and the value
19 of the bond.
20 (4) The Department, or its agents, may refuse to accept
21 requests for authorization from specific vendors who pose a
22 risk of fraud, waste, abuse, or harm, including
23 prior-approval and post-approval requests, if:
24 (A) the Department has initiated a notice of
25 termination, suspension, or exclusion of the vendor
26 from participation in the medical assistance program;

09800SB2640ham001- 1157 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 or
2 (B) the Department has issued notification of its
3 withholding of payments pursuant to subsection (F-5)
4 of this Section; or
5 (C) the Department has issued a notification of its
6 withholding of payments due to reliable evidence of
7 fraud or willful misrepresentation pending
8 investigation.
9 (5) As used in this subsection, the following terms are
10 defined as follows:
11 (A) "Fraud" means an intentional deception or
12 misrepresentation made by a person with the knowledge
13 that the deception could result in some unauthorized
14 benefit to himself or herself or some other person. It
15 includes any act that constitutes fraud under
16 applicable federal or State law.
17 (B) "Abuse" means provider practices that are
18 inconsistent with sound fiscal, business, or medical
19 practices and that result in an unnecessary cost to the
20 medical assistance program or in reimbursement for
21 services that are not medically necessary or that fail
22 to meet professionally recognized standards for health
23 care. It also includes recipient practices that result
24 in unnecessary cost to the medical assistance program.
25 Abuse does not include diagnostic or therapeutic
26 measures conducted primarily as a safeguard against

09800SB2640ham001- 1158 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 possible vendor liability.
2 (C) "Waste" means the unintentional misuse of
3 medical assistance resources, resulting in unnecessary
4 cost to the medical assistance program. Waste does not
5 include diagnostic or therapeutic measures conducted
6 primarily as a safeguard against possible vendor
7 liability.
8 (D) "Harm" means physical, mental, or monetary
9 damage to recipients or to the medical assistance
10 program.
11 (G-6) The Illinois Department, upon making a determination
12based upon information in the possession of the Illinois
13Department that continuation of participation in the medical
14assistance program by a vendor would constitute an immediate
15danger to the public, may immediately suspend such vendor's
16participation in the medical assistance program without a
17hearing. In instances in which the Illinois Department
18immediately suspends the medical assistance program
19participation of a vendor under this Section, a hearing upon
20the vendor's participation must be convened by the Illinois
21Department within 15 days after such suspension and completed
22without appreciable delay. Such hearing shall be held to
23determine whether to recommend to the Director that the
24vendor's medical assistance program participation be denied,
25terminated, suspended, placed on provisional status, or
26reinstated. In the hearing, any evidence relevant to the vendor

09800SB2640ham001- 1159 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1constituting an immediate danger to the public may be
2introduced against such vendor; provided, however, that the
3vendor, or his or her counsel, shall have the opportunity to
4discredit, impeach, and submit evidence rebutting such
5evidence.
6 (H) Nothing contained in this Code shall in any way limit
7or otherwise impair the authority or power of any State agency
8responsible for licensing of vendors.
9 (I) Based on a finding of noncompliance on the part of a
10nursing home with any requirement for certification under Title
11XVIII or XIX of the Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. Sec. 1395 et
12seq. or 42 U.S.C. Sec. 1396 et seq.), the Illinois Department
13may impose one or more of the following remedies after notice
14to the facility:
15 (1) Termination of the provider agreement.
16 (2) Temporary management.
17 (3) Denial of payment for new admissions.
18 (4) Civil money penalties.
19 (5) Closure of the facility in emergency situations or
20 transfer of residents, or both.
21 (6) State monitoring.
22 (7) Denial of all payments when the U.S. Department of
23 Health and Human Services has imposed this sanction.
24 The Illinois Department shall by rule establish criteria
25governing continued payments to a nursing facility subsequent
26to termination of the facility's provider agreement if, in the

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1sole discretion of the Illinois Department, circumstances
2affecting the health, safety, and welfare of the facility's
3residents require those continued payments. The Illinois
4Department may condition those continued payments on the
5appointment of temporary management, sale of the facility to
6new owners or operators, or other arrangements that the
7Illinois Department determines best serve the needs of the
8facility's residents.
9 Except in the case of a facility that has a right to a
10hearing on the finding of noncompliance before an agency of the
11federal government, a facility may request a hearing before a
12State agency on any finding of noncompliance within 60 days
13after the notice of the intent to impose a remedy. Except in
14the case of civil money penalties, a request for a hearing
15shall not delay imposition of the penalty. The choice of
16remedies is not appealable at a hearing. The level of
17noncompliance may be challenged only in the case of a civil
18money penalty. The Illinois Department shall provide by rule
19for the State agency that will conduct the evidentiary
20hearings.
21 The Illinois Department may collect interest on unpaid
22civil money penalties.
23 The Illinois Department may adopt all rules necessary to
24implement this subsection (I).
25 (J) The Illinois Department, by rule, may permit individual
26practitioners to designate that Department payments that may be

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1due the practitioner be made to an alternate payee or alternate
2payees.
3 (a) Such alternate payee or alternate payees shall be
4 required to register as an alternate payee in the Medical
5 Assistance Program with the Illinois Department.
6 (b) If a practitioner designates an alternate payee,
7 the alternate payee and practitioner shall be jointly and
8 severally liable to the Department for payments made to the
9 alternate payee. Pursuant to subsection (E) of this
10 Section, any Department action to suspend or deny payment
11 or recover money or overpayments from an alternate payee
12 shall be subject to an administrative hearing.
13 (c) Registration as an alternate payee or alternate
14 payees in the Illinois Medical Assistance Program shall be
15 conditional. At any time, the Illinois Department may deny
16 or cancel any alternate payee's registration in the
17 Illinois Medical Assistance Program without cause. Any
18 such denial or cancellation is not subject to an
19 administrative hearing.
20 (d) The Illinois Department may seek a revocation of
21 any alternate payee, and all owners, officers, and
22 individuals with management responsibility for such
23 alternate payee shall be permanently prohibited from
24 participating as an owner, an officer, or an individual
25 with management responsibility with an alternate payee in
26 the Illinois Medical Assistance Program, if after

09800SB2640ham001- 1162 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 reasonable notice and opportunity for a hearing the
2 Illinois Department finds that:
3 (1) the alternate payee is not complying with the
4 Department's policy or rules and regulations, or with
5 the terms and conditions prescribed by the Illinois
6 Department in its alternate payee registration
7 agreement; or
8 (2) the alternate payee has failed to keep or make
9 available for inspection, audit, or copying, after
10 receiving a written request from the Illinois
11 Department, such records regarding payments claimed as
12 an alternate payee; or
13 (3) the alternate payee has failed to furnish any
14 information requested by the Illinois Department
15 regarding payments claimed as an alternate payee; or
16 (4) the alternate payee has knowingly made, or
17 caused to be made, any false statement or
18 representation of a material fact in connection with
19 the administration of the Illinois Medical Assistance
20 Program; or
21 (5) the alternate payee, a person with management
22 responsibility for an alternate payee, an officer or
23 person owning, either directly or indirectly, 5% or
24 more of the shares of stock or other evidences of
25 ownership in a corporate alternate payee, or a partner
26 in a partnership which is an alternate payee:

09800SB2640ham001- 1163 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 (a) was previously terminated, suspended, or
2 excluded from participation as a vendor in the
3 Illinois Medical Assistance Program, or was
4 previously revoked as an alternate payee in the
5 Illinois Medical Assistance Program, or was
6 terminated, suspended, or excluded from
7 participation as a vendor in a medical assistance
8 program in another state that is of the same kind
9 as the program of medical assistance provided
10 under Article V of this Code; or
11 (b) was a person with management
12 responsibility for a vendor previously terminated,
13 suspended, or excluded from participation as a
14 vendor in the Illinois Medical Assistance Program,
15 or was previously revoked as an alternate payee in
16 the Illinois Medical Assistance Program, or was
17 terminated, suspended, or excluded from
18 participation as a vendor in a medical assistance
19 program in another state that is of the same kind
20 as the program of medical assistance provided
21 under Article V of this Code, during the time of
22 conduct which was the basis for that vendor's
23 termination, suspension, or exclusion or alternate
24 payee's revocation; or
25 (c) was an officer, or person owning, either
26 directly or indirectly, 5% or more of the shares of

09800SB2640ham001- 1164 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 stock or other evidences of ownership in a
2 corporate vendor previously terminated, suspended,
3 or excluded from participation as a vendor in the
4 Illinois Medical Assistance Program, or was
5 previously revoked as an alternate payee in the
6 Illinois Medical Assistance Program, or was
7 terminated, suspended, or excluded from
8 participation as a vendor in a medical assistance
9 program in another state that is of the same kind
10 as the program of medical assistance provided
11 under Article V of this Code, during the time of
12 conduct which was the basis for that vendor's
13 termination, suspension, or exclusion; or
14 (d) was an owner of a sole proprietorship or
15 partner in a partnership previously terminated,
16 suspended, or excluded from participation as a
17 vendor in the Illinois Medical Assistance Program,
18 or was previously revoked as an alternate payee in
19 the Illinois Medical Assistance Program, or was
20 terminated, suspended, or excluded from
21 participation as a vendor in a medical assistance
22 program in another state that is of the same kind
23 as the program of medical assistance provided
24 under Article V of this Code, during the time of
25 conduct which was the basis for that vendor's
26 termination, suspension, or exclusion or alternate

09800SB2640ham001- 1165 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 payee's revocation; or
2 (6) the alternate payee, a person with management
3 responsibility for an alternate payee, an officer or
4 person owning, either directly or indirectly, 5% or
5 more of the shares of stock or other evidences of
6 ownership in a corporate alternate payee, or a partner
7 in a partnership which is an alternate payee:
8 (a) has engaged in conduct prohibited by
9 applicable federal or State law or regulation
10 relating to the Illinois Medical Assistance
11 Program; or
12 (b) was a person with management
13 responsibility for a vendor or alternate payee at
14 the time that the vendor or alternate payee engaged
15 in practices prohibited by applicable federal or
16 State law or regulation relating to the Illinois
17 Medical Assistance Program; or
18 (c) was an officer, or person owning, either
19 directly or indirectly, 5% or more of the shares of
20 stock or other evidences of ownership in a vendor
21 or alternate payee at the time such vendor or
22 alternate payee engaged in practices prohibited by
23 applicable federal or State law or regulation
24 relating to the Illinois Medical Assistance
25 Program; or
26 (d) was an owner of a sole proprietorship or

09800SB2640ham001- 1166 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 partner in a partnership which was a vendor or
2 alternate payee at the time such vendor or
3 alternate payee engaged in practices prohibited by
4 applicable federal or State law or regulation
5 relating to the Illinois Medical Assistance
6 Program; or
7 (7) the direct or indirect ownership of the vendor
8 or alternate payee (including the ownership of a vendor
9 or alternate payee that is a partner's interest in a
10 vendor or alternate payee, or ownership of 5% or more
11 of the shares of stock or other evidences of ownership
12 in a corporate vendor or alternate payee) has been
13 transferred by an individual who is terminated,
14 suspended, or excluded or barred from participating as
15 a vendor or is prohibited or revoked as an alternate
16 payee to the individual's spouse, child, brother,
17 sister, parent, grandparent, grandchild, uncle, aunt,
18 niece, nephew, cousin, or relative by marriage.
19 (K) The Illinois Department of Healthcare and Family
20Services may withhold payments, in whole or in part, to a
21provider or alternate payee where there is credible evidence,
22received from State or federal law enforcement or federal
23oversight agencies or from the results of a preliminary
24Department audit, that the circumstances giving rise to the
25need for a withholding of payments may involve fraud or willful
26misrepresentation under the Illinois Medical Assistance

09800SB2640ham001- 1167 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1program. The Department shall by rule define what constitutes
2"credible" evidence for purposes of this subsection. The
3Department may withhold payments without first notifying the
4provider or alternate payee of its intention to withhold such
5payments. A provider or alternate payee may request a
6reconsideration of payment withholding, and the Department
7must grant such a request. The Department shall state by rule a
8process and criteria by which a provider or alternate payee may
9request full or partial release of payments withheld under this
10subsection. This request may be made at any time after the
11Department first withholds such payments.
12 (a) The Illinois Department must send notice of its
13 withholding of program payments within 5 days of taking
14 such action. The notice must set forth the general
15 allegations as to the nature of the withholding action, but
16 need not disclose any specific information concerning its
17 ongoing investigation. The notice must do all of the
18 following:
19 (1) State that payments are being withheld in
20 accordance with this subsection.
21 (2) State that the withholding is for a temporary
22 period, as stated in paragraph (b) of this subsection,
23 and cite the circumstances under which withholding
24 will be terminated.
25 (3) Specify, when appropriate, which type or types
26 of Medicaid claims withholding is effective.

09800SB2640ham001- 1168 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 (4) Inform the provider or alternate payee of the
2 right to submit written evidence for reconsideration
3 of the withholding by the Illinois Department.
4 (5) Inform the provider or alternate payee that a
5 written request may be made to the Illinois Department
6 for full or partial release of withheld payments and
7 that such requests may be made at any time after the
8 Department first withholds such payments.
9 (b) All withholding-of-payment actions under this
10 subsection shall be temporary and shall not continue after
11 any of the following:
12 (1) The Illinois Department or the prosecuting
13 authorities determine that there is insufficient
14 evidence of fraud or willful misrepresentation by the
15 provider or alternate payee.
16 (2) Legal proceedings related to the provider's or
17 alternate payee's alleged fraud, willful
18 misrepresentation, violations of this Act, or
19 violations of the Illinois Department's administrative
20 rules are completed.
21 (3) The withholding of payments for a period of 3
22 years.
23 (c) The Illinois Department may adopt all rules
24 necessary to implement this subsection (K).
25 (K-5) The Illinois Department may withhold payments, in
26whole or in part, to a provider or alternate payee upon

09800SB2640ham001- 1169 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1initiation of an audit, quality of care review, investigation
2when there is a credible allegation of fraud, or the provider
3or alternate payee demonstrating a clear failure to cooperate
4with the Illinois Department such that the circumstances give
5rise to the need for a withholding of payments. As used in this
6subsection, "credible allegation" is defined to include an
7allegation from any source, including, but not limited to,
8fraud hotline complaints, claims data mining, patterns
9identified through provider audits, civil actions filed under
10the Illinois False Claims Act, and law enforcement
11investigations. An allegation is considered to be credible when
12it has indicia of reliability. The Illinois Department may
13withhold payments without first notifying the provider or
14alternate payee of its intention to withhold such payments. A
15provider or alternate payee may request a hearing or a
16reconsideration of payment withholding, and the Illinois
17Department must grant such a request. The Illinois Department
18shall state by rule a process and criteria by which a provider
19or alternate payee may request a hearing or a reconsideration
20for the full or partial release of payments withheld under this
21subsection. This request may be made at any time after the
22Illinois Department first withholds such payments.
23 (a) The Illinois Department must send notice of its
24 withholding of program payments within 5 days of taking
25 such action. The notice must set forth the general
26 allegations as to the nature of the withholding action but

09800SB2640ham001- 1170 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 need not disclose any specific information concerning its
2 ongoing investigation. The notice must do all of the
3 following:
4 (1) State that payments are being withheld in
5 accordance with this subsection.
6 (2) State that the withholding is for a temporary
7 period, as stated in paragraph (b) of this subsection,
8 and cite the circumstances under which withholding
9 will be terminated.
10 (3) Specify, when appropriate, which type or types
11 of claims are withheld.
12 (4) Inform the provider or alternate payee of the
13 right to request a hearing or a reconsideration of the
14 withholding by the Illinois Department, including the
15 ability to submit written evidence.
16 (5) Inform the provider or alternate payee that a
17 written request may be made to the Illinois Department
18 for a hearing or a reconsideration for the full or
19 partial release of withheld payments and that such
20 requests may be made at any time after the Illinois
21 Department first withholds such payments.
22 (b) All withholding of payment actions under this
23 subsection shall be temporary and shall not continue after
24 any of the following:
25 (1) The Illinois Department determines that there
26 is insufficient evidence of fraud, or the provider or

09800SB2640ham001- 1171 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 alternate payee demonstrates clear cooperation with
2 the Illinois Department, as determined by the Illinois
3 Department, such that the circumstances do not give
4 rise to the need for withholding of payments; or
5 (2) The withholding of payments has lasted for a
6 period in excess of 3 years.
7 (c) The Illinois Department may adopt all rules
8 necessary to implement this subsection (K-5).
9 (L) The Illinois Department shall establish a protocol to
10enable health care providers to disclose an actual or potential
11violation of this Section pursuant to a self-referral
12disclosure protocol, referred to in this subsection as "the
13protocol". The protocol shall include direction for health care
14providers on a specific person, official, or office to whom
15such disclosures shall be made. The Illinois Department shall
16post information on the protocol on the Illinois Department's
17public website. The Illinois Department may adopt rules
18necessary to implement this subsection (L). In addition to
19other factors that the Illinois Department finds appropriate,
20the Illinois Department may consider a health care provider's
21timely use or failure to use the protocol in considering the
22provider's failure to comply with this Code.
23 (M) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Code, the
24Illinois Department, at its discretion, may exempt an entity
25licensed under the Nursing Home Care Act and the ID/DD
26Community Care Act from the provisions of subsections (A-15),

09800SB2640ham001- 1172 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1(B), and (C) of this Section if the licensed entity is in
2receivership.
3(Source: P.A. 97-689, eff. 6-14-12; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13;
498-214, eff. 8-9-13; 98-550, eff. 8-27-13; revised 9-19-13.)
5 (305 ILCS 5/12-4.45)
6 Sec. 12-4.45. Third party liability.
7 (a) To the extent authorized under federal law, the
8Department of Healthcare and Family Services shall identify
9individuals receiving services under medical assistance
10programs funded or partially funded by the State who may be or
11may have been covered by a third party health insurer, the
12period of coverage for such individuals, and the nature of
13coverage. A company, as defined in Section 5.5 of the Illinois
14Insurance Code and Section 2 of the Comprehensive Health
15Insurance Plan Act, must provide the Department eligibility
16information in a federally recommended or mutually agreed-upon
17format that includes at a minimum:
18 (1) The names, addresses, dates, and sex of primary
19 covered persons.
20 (2) The policy group numbers of the covered persons.
21 (3) The names, dates of birth, and sex of covered
22 dependents, and the relationship of dependents to the
23 primary covered person.
24 (4) The effective dates of coverage for each covered
25 person.

09800SB2640ham001- 1173 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 (5) The generally defined covered services
2 information, such as drugs, medical, or any other similar
3 description of services covered.
4 (b) The Department may impose an administrative penalty on
5a company that does not comply with the request for information
6made under Section 5.5 of the Illinois Insurance Code and
7paragraph (3) of subsection (a) of Section 20 of the Covering
8ALL KIDS Health Insurance Act. The amount of the penalty shall
9not exceed $10,000 per day for each day of noncompliance that
10occurs after the 180th day after the date of the request. The
11first day of the 180-day period commences on the business day
12following the date of the correspondence requesting the
13information sent by the Department to the company. The amount
14shall be based on:
15 (1) The seriousness of the violation, including the
16 nature, circumstances, extent, and gravity of the
17 violation.
18 (2) The economic harm caused by the violation.
19 (3) The history of previous violations.
20 (4) The amount necessary to deter a future violation.
21 (5) Efforts to correct the violation.
22 (6) Any other matter that justice may require.
23 (c) The enforcement of the penalty may be stayed during the
24time the order is under administrative review if the company
25files an appeal.
26 (d) The Attorney General may bring suit on behalf of the

09800SB2640ham001- 1174 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1Department to collect the penalty.
2 (e) Recoveries made by the Department in connection with
3the imposition of an administrative penalty as provided under
4this Section shall be deposited into the Public Aid Recoveries
5Trust Fund created under Section 12-9.
6(Source: P.A. 98-130, eff. 8-2-13.)
7 (305 ILCS 5/12-4.46)
8 Sec. 12-4.46 12-4.45. Change in legal guardianship;
9notification. Whenever there is a change in legal guardianship
10of a minor child who receives benefits under this Code, the
11appropriate State agency shall immediately inform the
12Department of Human Services of the change in legal
13guardianship to ensure such benefits are sent directly to the
14minor child's legal guardian.
15 For purposes of this Section, "legal guardian" means a
16person appointed guardian, or given custody, of a minor by a
17circuit court of the State, but does not include a person
18appointed guardian, or given custody, of a minor under the
19Juvenile Court Act or the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.
20(Source: P.A. 98-256, eff. 8-9-13; revised 10-31-13.)
21 Section 545. The Adult Protective Services Act is amended
22by changing Sections 2 and 7.5 as follows:
23 (320 ILCS 20/2) (from Ch. 23, par. 6602)

09800SB2640ham001- 1175 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 Sec. 2. Definitions. As used in this Act, unless the
2context requires otherwise:
3 (a) "Abuse" means causing any physical, mental or sexual
4injury to an eligible adult, including exploitation of such
5adult's financial resources.
6 Nothing in this Act shall be construed to mean that an
7eligible adult is a victim of abuse, neglect, or self-neglect
8for the sole reason that he or she is being furnished with or
9relies upon treatment by spiritual means through prayer alone,
10in accordance with the tenets and practices of a recognized
11church or religious denomination.
12 Nothing in this Act shall be construed to mean that an
13eligible adult is a victim of abuse because of health care
14services provided or not provided by licensed health care
15professionals.
16 (a-5) "Abuser" means a person who abuses, neglects, or
17financially exploits an eligible adult.
18 (a-6) "Adult with disabilities" means a person aged 18
19through 59 who resides in a domestic living situation and whose
20disability impairs his or her ability to seek or obtain
21protection from abuse, neglect, or exploitation.
22 (a-7) "Caregiver" means a person who either as a result of
23a family relationship, voluntarily, or in exchange for
24compensation has assumed responsibility for all or a portion of
25the care of an eligible adult who needs assistance with
26activities of daily living.

09800SB2640ham001- 1176 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 (b) "Department" means the Department on Aging of the State
2of Illinois.
3 (c) "Director" means the Director of the Department.
4 (c-5) "Disability" means a physical or mental disability,
5including, but not limited to, a developmental disability, an
6intellectual disability, a mental illness as defined under the
7Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities Code, or dementia
8as defined under the Alzheimer's Disease Assistance Act.
9 (d) "Domestic living situation" means a residence where the
10eligible adult at the time of the report lives alone or with
11his or her family or a caregiver, or others, or other
12community-based unlicensed facility, but is not:
13 (1) A licensed facility as defined in Section 1-113 of
14 the Nursing Home Care Act;
15 (1.5) A facility licensed under the ID/DD Community
16 Care Act;
17 (1.7) A facility licensed under the Specialized Mental
18 Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013;
19 (2) A "life care facility" as defined in the Life Care
20 Facilities Act;
21 (3) A home, institution, or other place operated by the
22 federal government or agency thereof or by the State of
23 Illinois;
24 (4) A hospital, sanitarium, or other institution, the
25 principal activity or business of which is the diagnosis,
26 care, and treatment of human illness through the

09800SB2640ham001- 1177 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 maintenance and operation of organized facilities
2 therefor, which is required to be licensed under the
3 Hospital Licensing Act;
4 (5) A "community living facility" as defined in the
5 Community Living Facilities Licensing Act;
6 (6) (Blank);
7 (7) A "community-integrated living arrangement" as
8 defined in the Community-Integrated Living Arrangements
9 Licensure and Certification Act or a "community
10 residential alternative" as licensed under that Act;
11 (8) An assisted living or shared housing establishment
12 as defined in the Assisted Living and Shared Housing Act;
13 or
14 (9) A supportive living facility as described in
15 Section 5-5.01a of the Illinois Public Aid Code.
16 (e) "Eligible adult" means either an adult with
17disabilities aged 18 through 59 or a person aged 60 or older
18who resides in a domestic living situation and is, or is
19alleged to be, abused, neglected, or financially exploited by
20another individual or who neglects himself or herself.
21 (f) "Emergency" means a situation in which an eligible
22adult is living in conditions presenting a risk of death or
23physical, mental or sexual injury and the provider agency has
24reason to believe the eligible adult is unable to consent to
25services which would alleviate that risk.
26 (f-1) "Financial exploitation" means the use of an eligible

09800SB2640ham001- 1178 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1adult's resources by another to the disadvantage of that adult
2or the profit or advantage of a person other than that adult.
3 (f-5) "Mandated reporter" means any of the following
4persons while engaged in carrying out their professional
5duties:
6 (1) a professional or professional's delegate while
7 engaged in: (i) social services, (ii) law enforcement,
8 (iii) education, (iv) the care of an eligible adult or
9 eligible adults, or (v) any of the occupations required to
10 be licensed under the Clinical Psychologist Licensing Act,
11 the Clinical Social Work and Social Work Practice Act, the
12 Illinois Dental Practice Act, the Dietitian Nutritionist
13 Practice Act, the Marriage and Family Therapy Licensing
14 Act, the Medical Practice Act of 1987, the Naprapathic
15 Practice Act, the Nurse Practice Act, the Nursing Home
16 Administrators Licensing and Disciplinary Act, the
17 Illinois Occupational Therapy Practice Act, the Illinois
18 Optometric Practice Act of 1987, the Pharmacy Practice Act,
19 the Illinois Physical Therapy Act, the Physician Assistant
20 Practice Act of 1987, the Podiatric Medical Practice Act of
21 1987, the Respiratory Care Practice Act, the Professional
22 Counselor and Clinical Professional Counselor Licensing
23 and Practice Act, the Illinois Speech-Language Pathology
24 and Audiology Practice Act, the Veterinary Medicine and
25 Surgery Practice Act of 2004, and the Illinois Public
26 Accounting Act;

09800SB2640ham001- 1179 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 (1.5) an employee of an entity providing developmental
2 disabilities services or service coordination funded by
3 the Department of Human Services;
4 (2) an employee of a vocational rehabilitation
5 facility prescribed or supervised by the Department of
6 Human Services;
7 (3) an administrator, employee, or person providing
8 services in or through an unlicensed community based
9 facility;
10 (4) any religious practitioner who provides treatment
11 by prayer or spiritual means alone in accordance with the
12 tenets and practices of a recognized church or religious
13 denomination, except as to information received in any
14 confession or sacred communication enjoined by the
15 discipline of the religious denomination to be held
16 confidential;
17 (5) field personnel of the Department of Healthcare and
18 Family Services, Department of Public Health, and
19 Department of Human Services, and any county or municipal
20 health department;
21 (6) personnel of the Department of Human Services, the
22 Guardianship and Advocacy Commission, the State Fire
23 Marshal, local fire departments, the Department on Aging
24 and its subsidiary Area Agencies on Aging and provider
25 agencies, and the Office of State Long Term Care Ombudsman;
26 (7) any employee of the State of Illinois not otherwise

09800SB2640ham001- 1180 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 specified herein who is involved in providing services to
2 eligible adults, including professionals providing medical
3 or rehabilitation services and all other persons having
4 direct contact with eligible adults;
5 (8) a person who performs the duties of a coroner or
6 medical examiner; or
7 (9) a person who performs the duties of a paramedic or
8 an emergency medical technician.
9 (g) "Neglect" means another individual's failure to
10provide an eligible adult with or willful withholding from an
11eligible adult the necessities of life including, but not
12limited to, food, clothing, shelter or health care. This
13subsection does not create any new affirmative duty to provide
14support to eligible adults. Nothing in this Act shall be
15construed to mean that an eligible adult is a victim of neglect
16because of health care services provided or not provided by
17licensed health care professionals.
18 (h) "Provider agency" means any public or nonprofit agency
19in a planning and service area appointed by the regional
20administrative agency with prior approval by the Department on
21Aging to receive and assess reports of alleged or suspected
22abuse, neglect, or financial exploitation. A provider agency is
23also referenced as a "designated agency" in this Act.
24 (i) "Regional administrative agency" means any public or
25nonprofit agency in a planning and service area so designated
26by the Department, provided that the designated Area Agency on

09800SB2640ham001- 1181 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1Aging shall be designated the regional administrative agency if
2it so requests. The Department shall assume the functions of
3the regional administrative agency for any planning and service
4area where another agency is not so designated.
5 (i-5) "Self-neglect" means a condition that is the result
6of an eligible adult's inability, due to physical or mental
7impairments, or both, or a diminished capacity, to perform
8essential self-care tasks that substantially threaten his or
9her own health, including: providing essential food, clothing,
10shelter, and health care; and obtaining goods and services
11necessary to maintain physical health, mental health,
12emotional well-being, and general safety. The term includes
13compulsive hoarding, which is characterized by the acquisition
14and retention of large quantities of items and materials that
15produce an extensively cluttered living space, which
16significantly impairs the performance of essential self-care
17tasks or otherwise substantially threatens life or safety.
18 (j) "Substantiated case" means a reported case of alleged
19or suspected abuse, neglect, financial exploitation, or
20self-neglect in which a provider agency, after assessment,
21determines that there is reason to believe abuse, neglect, or
22financial exploitation has occurred.
23(Source: P.A. 97-38, eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-300,
24eff. 8-11-11; 97-706, eff. 6-25-12; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12;
2597-1141, eff. 12-28-12; 98-49, eff. 7-1-13; 98-104, eff.
267-22-13; revised 9-19-13.)

09800SB2640ham001- 1182 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 (320 ILCS 20/7.5)
2 Sec. 7.5. Health Care Worker Registry.
3 (a) Reporting to the Registry. The Department on Aging
4shall report to the Department of Public Health's Health Care
5Worker Registry the identity and administrative finding of a
6verified and substantiated decision of abuse, neglect, or
7financial exploitation of an eligible adult under this Act that
8is made against any caregiver, including consultants and
9volunteers, employed by a provider licensed, certified, or
10regulated by, or paid with public funds from, the Department of
11Public Health, Healthcare and Family Services, or Human
12Services, or the Department on Aging. For uncompensated or
13privately paid caregivers, the Department on Aging shall report
14only a verified and substantiated decision of significant
15abuse, neglect, or financial exploitation of an eligible adult
16under this Act. An administrative finding placed in the
17Registry shall preclude any caregiver from providing direct
18access or other services, including consulting and
19volunteering, in a position with a provider that is licensed,
20certified, or regulated by, or paid with public funds from or
21on behalf of, the State of Illinois or any Department thereof,
22that permits the caregiver direct access to an adult aged 60 or
23older or an adult, over 18, with a disability or to that
24individual's living quarters or personal, financial, or
25medical records.

09800SB2640ham001- 1183 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 (b) Definitions. As used in this Section:
2 "Direct care" includes, but is not limited to, direct
3access to an individual, his or her living quarters, or his or
4her personal, financial, or medical records for the purpose of
5providing nursing care or assistance with feeding, dressing,
6movement, bathing, toileting, other personal needs and
7activities of daily living, or assistance with financial
8transactions.
9 "Privately paid caregiver" means any caregiver who has been
10paid with resources other than public funds, regardless of
11licensure, certification, or regulation by the State of
12Illinois and any Department thereof. A privately paid caregiver
13does not include any caregiver that has been licensed,
14certified, or regulated by a State agency, or paid with public
15funds.
16 "Significant" means a finding of abuse, neglect, or
17financial exploitation as determined by the Department that (i)
18represents a meaningful failure to adequately provide for, or a
19material indifference to, the financial, health, safety, or
20medical needs of an eligible adult or (ii) results in an
21eligible adult's death or other serious deterioration of an
22eligible adult's financial resources, physical condition, or
23mental condition.
24 "Uncompensated caregiver" means a caregiver who, in an
25informal capacity, assists an eligible adult with activities of
26daily living, financial transactions, or chore housekeeping

09800SB2640ham001- 1184 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1type duties. "Uncompensated caregiver" does not refer to an
2individual serving in a formal capacity as a volunteer with a
3provider licensed, certified, or regulated by a State agency.
4 (c) Access to and use of the Registry. Access to the
5Registry shall be limited to licensed, certified, or regulated
6providers by the Department of Public Health, Healthcare and
7Family Service, or Human Services, or the Department on Aging.
8The State of Illinois, any Department thereof, or a provider
9licensed, certified, or regulated, or paid with public funds
10by, from, or on behalf of the Department of Public Health,
11Healthcare and Family Services, or Human Services, or the
12Department on Aging, shall not hire or compensate any person
13seeking employment, retain any contractors, or accept any
14volunteers to provide direct care without first conducting an
15online check of the person through the Department of Public
16Health's Health Care Worker Registry. The provider shall
17maintain a copy of the results of the online check to
18demonstrate compliance with this requirement. The provider is
19prohibited from hiring, compensating, or accepting a person,
20including as a consultant or volunteer, for whom the online
21check reveals a verified and substantiated claim of abuse,
22neglect, or financial exploitation, to provide direct access to
23any adult aged 60 or older or any adult, over 18, with a
24disability. Additionally, a provider is prohibited from
25retaining a person for whom they gain knowledge of a verified
26and substantiated claim of abuse, neglect, or financial

09800SB2640ham001- 1185 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1exploitation in a position that permits the caregiver direct
2access to provide direct care to any adult aged 60 or older or
3any adult, over 18, with a disability or direct access to that
4individual's living quarters or personal, financial, or
5medical records. Failure to comply with this requirement may
6subject such a provider to corrective action by the appropriate
7regulatory agency or other lawful remedies provided under the
8applicable licensure, certification, or regulatory laws and
9rules.
10 (d) Notice to caregiver. The Department on Aging shall
11establish rules concerning notice to the caregiver in cases of
12abuse, neglect, or financial exploitation.
13 (e) Notification to eligible adults, guardians, or agents.
14As part of its investigation, the Department on Aging shall
15notify an eligible adult, or an eligible adult's guardian or
16agent, that a caregiver's name may be placed on the Registry
17based on a finding as described in subsection (a) (a-1) of this
18Section.
19 (f) Notification to employer. A provider licensed,
20certified, or regulated by the Department of Public Health,
21Healthcare and Family Services, or Human Services, or the
22Department on Aging shall be notified of an administrative
23finding against any caregiver who is an employee, consultant,
24or volunteer of a verified and substantiated decision of abuse,
25neglect, or financial exploitation of an eligible adult under
26this Act. If there is an imminent risk of danger to the

09800SB2640ham001- 1186 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1eligible adult or an imminent risk of misuse of personal,
2medical, or financial information, the caregiver shall
3immediately be barred from direct access to the eligible adult,
4his or her living quarters, or his or her personal, financial,
5or medical records, pending the outcome of any challenge,
6criminal prosecution, or other type of collateral action.
7 (g) Caregiver challenges. The Department on Aging shall
8establish, by rule, procedures concerning caregiver
9challenges.
10 (h) Caregiver's rights to collateral action. The
11Department on Aging shall not make any report to the Registry
12if a caregiver notifies the Department in writing, including
13any supporting documentation, that he or she is formally
14challenging an adverse employment action resulting from a
15verified and substantiated finding of abuse, neglect, or
16financial exploitation by complaint filed with the Illinois
17Civil Service Commission, or by another means which seeks to
18enforce the caregiver's rights pursuant to any applicable
19collective bargaining agreement. If an action taken by an
20employer against a caregiver as a result of a finding of abuse,
21neglect, or financial exploitation is overturned through an
22action filed with the Illinois Civil Service Commission or
23under any applicable collective bargaining agreement after
24that caregiver's name has already been sent to the Registry,
25the caregiver's name shall be removed from the Registry.
26 (i) Removal from Registry. At any time after a report to

09800SB2640ham001- 1187 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1the Registry, but no more than once in each successive 3-year
2period thereafter, for a maximum of 3 such requests, a
3caregiver may write to the Director of the Department on Aging
4to request removal of his or her name from the Registry in
5relationship to a single incident. The caregiver shall bear the
6burden of showing cause that establishes, by a preponderance of
7the evidence, that removal of his or her name from the Registry
8is in the public interest. Upon receiving such a request, the
9Department on Aging shall conduct an investigation and consider
10any evidentiary material provided. The Department shall issue a
11decision either granting or denying removal within 60 calendar
12days, and shall issue such decision to the caregiver and the
13Registry. The waiver process at the Department of Public Health
14does not apply to Registry reports from the Department on
15Aging. The Department on Aging shall establish standards for
16the removal of a name from the Registry by rule.
17 (j) Referral of Registry reports to health care facilities.
18In the event an eligible adult receiving services from a
19provider agency changes his or her residence from a domestic
20living situation to that of a health care facility, the
21provider agency shall use reasonable efforts to promptly inform
22the health care facility and the appropriate Regional Long Term
23Care Ombudsman about any Registry reports relating to the
24eligible adult. For purposes of this Section, a health care
25facility includes, but is not limited to, any residential
26facility licensed, certified, or regulated by the Department of

09800SB2640ham001- 1188 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1Public Health, Healthcare and Family Services, or Human
2Services.
3(Source: P.A. 98-49, eff. 1-1-14; revised 11-12-13.)
4 Section 550. The Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act
5is amended by changing Sections 4 and 7.16 as follows:
6 (325 ILCS 5/4)
7 (Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 98-408)
8 Sec. 4. Persons required to report; privileged
9communications; transmitting false report. Any physician,
10resident, intern, hospital, hospital administrator and
11personnel engaged in examination, care and treatment of
12persons, surgeon, dentist, dentist hygienist, osteopath,
13chiropractor, podiatric physician, physician assistant,
14substance abuse treatment personnel, funeral home director or
15employee, coroner, medical examiner, emergency medical
16technician, acupuncturist, crisis line or hotline personnel,
17school personnel (including administrators and both certified
18and non-certified school employees), personnel of institutions
19of higher education, educational advocate assigned to a child
20pursuant to the School Code, member of a school board or the
21Chicago Board of Education or the governing body of a private
22school (but only to the extent required in accordance with
23other provisions of this Section expressly concerning the duty
24of school board members to report suspected child abuse),

09800SB2640ham001- 1189 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1truant officers, social worker, social services administrator,
2domestic violence program personnel, registered nurse,
3licensed practical nurse, genetic counselor, respiratory care
4practitioner, advanced practice nurse, home health aide,
5director or staff assistant of a nursery school or a child day
6care center, recreational or athletic program or facility
7personnel, early intervention provider as defined in the Early
8Intervention Services System Act, law enforcement officer,
9licensed professional counselor, licensed clinical
10professional counselor, registered psychologist and assistants
11working under the direct supervision of a psychologist,
12psychiatrist, or field personnel of the Department of
13Healthcare and Family Services, Juvenile Justice, Public
14Health, Human Services (acting as successor to the Department
15of Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities,
16Rehabilitation Services, or Public Aid), Corrections, Human
17Rights, or Children and Family Services, supervisor and
18administrator of general assistance under the Illinois Public
19Aid Code, probation officer, animal control officer or Illinois
20Department of Agriculture Bureau of Animal Health and Welfare
21field investigator, or any other foster parent, homemaker or
22child care worker having reasonable cause to believe a child
23known to them in their professional or official capacity may be
24an abused child or a neglected child shall immediately report
25or cause a report to be made to the Department.
26 Any member of the clergy having reasonable cause to believe

09800SB2640ham001- 1190 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1that a child known to that member of the clergy in his or her
2professional capacity may be an abused child as defined in item
3(c) of the definition of "abused child" in Section 3 of this
4Act shall immediately report or cause a report to be made to
5the Department.
6 Any physician, physician's assistant, registered nurse,
7licensed practical nurse, medical technician, certified
8nursing assistant, social worker, or licensed professional
9counselor of any office, clinic, or any other physical location
10that provides abortions, abortion referrals, or contraceptives
11having reasonable cause to believe a child known to him or her
12in his or her professional or official capacity may be an
13abused child or a neglected child shall immediately report or
14cause a report to be made to the Department.
15 If an allegation is raised to a school board member during
16the course of an open or closed school board meeting that a
17child who is enrolled in the school district of which he or she
18is a board member is an abused child as defined in Section 3 of
19this Act, the member shall direct or cause the school board to
20direct the superintendent of the school district or other
21equivalent school administrator to comply with the
22requirements of this Act concerning the reporting of child
23abuse. For purposes of this paragraph, a school board member is
24granted the authority in his or her individual capacity to
25direct the superintendent of the school district or other
26equivalent school administrator to comply with the

09800SB2640ham001- 1191 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1requirements of this Act concerning the reporting of child
2abuse.
3 Notwithstanding any other provision of this Act, if an
4employee of a school district has made a report or caused a
5report to be made to the Department under this Act involving
6the conduct of a current or former employee of the school
7district and a request is made by another school district for
8the provision of information concerning the job performance or
9qualifications of the current or former employee because he or
10she is an applicant for employment with the requesting school
11district, the general superintendent of the school district to
12which the request is being made must disclose to the requesting
13school district the fact that an employee of the school
14district has made a report involving the conduct of the
15applicant or caused a report to be made to the Department, as
16required under this Act. Only the fact that an employee of the
17school district has made a report involving the conduct of the
18applicant or caused a report to be made to the Department may
19be disclosed by the general superintendent of the school
20district to which the request for information concerning the
21applicant is made, and this fact may be disclosed only in cases
22where the employee and the general superintendent have not been
23informed by the Department that the allegations were unfounded.
24An employee of a school district who is or has been the subject
25of a report made pursuant to this Act during his or her
26employment with the school district must be informed by that

09800SB2640ham001- 1192 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1school district that if he or she applies for employment with
2another school district, the general superintendent of the
3former school district, upon the request of the school district
4to which the employee applies, shall notify that requesting
5school district that the employee is or was the subject of such
6a report.
7 Whenever such person is required to report under this Act
8in his capacity as a member of the staff of a medical or other
9public or private institution, school, facility or agency, or
10as a member of the clergy, he shall make report immediately to
11the Department in accordance with the provisions of this Act
12and may also notify the person in charge of such institution,
13school, facility or agency, or church, synagogue, temple,
14mosque, or other religious institution, or his designated agent
15that such report has been made. Under no circumstances shall
16any person in charge of such institution, school, facility or
17agency, or church, synagogue, temple, mosque, or other
18religious institution, or his designated agent to whom such
19notification has been made, exercise any control, restraint,
20modification or other change in the report or the forwarding of
21such report to the Department.
22 The privileged quality of communication between any
23professional person required to report and his patient or
24client shall not apply to situations involving abused or
25neglected children and shall not constitute grounds for failure
26to report as required by this Act or constitute grounds for

09800SB2640ham001- 1193 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1failure to share information or documents with the Department
2during the course of a child abuse or neglect investigation. If
3requested by the professional, the Department shall confirm in
4writing that the information or documents disclosed by the
5professional were gathered in the course of a child abuse or
6neglect investigation.
7 The reporting requirements of this Act shall not apply to
8the contents of a privileged communication between an attorney
9and his or her client or to confidential information within the
10meaning of Rule 1.6 of the Illinois Rules of Professional
11Conduct relating to the legal representation of an individual
12client.
13 A member of the clergy may claim the privilege under
14Section 8-803 of the Code of Civil Procedure.
15 Any office, clinic, or any other physical location that
16provides abortions, abortion referrals, or contraceptives
17shall provide to all office personnel copies of written
18information and training materials about abuse and neglect and
19the requirements of this Act that are provided to employees of
20the office, clinic, or physical location who are required to
21make reports to the Department under this Act, and instruct
22such office personnel to bring to the attention of an employee
23of the office, clinic, or physical location who is required to
24make reports to the Department under this Act any reasonable
25suspicion that a child known to him or her in his or her
26professional or official capacity may be an abused child or a

09800SB2640ham001- 1194 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1neglected child. In addition to the above persons required to
2report suspected cases of abused or neglected children, any
3other person may make a report if such person has reasonable
4cause to believe a child may be an abused child or a neglected
5child.
6 Any person who enters into employment on and after July 1,
71986 and is mandated by virtue of that employment to report
8under this Act, shall sign a statement on a form prescribed by
9the Department, to the effect that the employee has knowledge
10and understanding of the reporting requirements of this Act.
11The statement shall be signed prior to commencement of the
12employment. The signed statement shall be retained by the
13employer. The cost of printing, distribution, and filing of the
14statement shall be borne by the employer.
15 The Department shall provide copies of this Act, upon
16request, to all employers employing persons who shall be
17required under the provisions of this Section to report under
18this Act.
19 Any person who knowingly transmits a false report to the
20Department commits the offense of disorderly conduct under
21subsection (a)(7) of Section 26-1 of the Criminal Code of 2012.
22A violation of this provision is a Class 4 felony.
23 Any person who knowingly and willfully violates any
24provision of this Section other than a second or subsequent
25violation of transmitting a false report as described in the
26preceding paragraph, is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor for a

09800SB2640ham001- 1195 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1first violation and a Class 4 felony for a second or subsequent
2violation; except that if the person acted as part of a plan or
3scheme having as its object the prevention of discovery of an
4abused or neglected child by lawful authorities for the purpose
5of protecting or insulating any person or entity from arrest or
6prosecution, the person is guilty of a Class 4 felony for a
7first offense and a Class 3 felony for a second or subsequent
8offense (regardless of whether the second or subsequent offense
9involves any of the same facts or persons as the first or other
10prior offense).
11 A child whose parent, guardian or custodian in good faith
12selects and depends upon spiritual means through prayer alone
13for the treatment or cure of disease or remedial care may be
14considered neglected or abused, but not for the sole reason
15that his parent, guardian or custodian accepts and practices
16such beliefs.
17 A child shall not be considered neglected or abused solely
18because the child is not attending school in accordance with
19the requirements of Article 26 of the School Code, as amended.
20 Nothing in this Act prohibits a mandated reporter who
21reasonably believes that an animal is being abused or neglected
22in violation of the Humane Care for Animals Act from reporting
23animal abuse or neglect to the Department of Agriculture's
24Bureau of Animal Health and Welfare.
25 A home rule unit may not regulate the reporting of child
26abuse or neglect in a manner inconsistent with the provisions

09800SB2640ham001- 1196 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1of this Section. This Section is a limitation under subsection
2(i) of Section 6 of Article VII of the Illinois Constitution on
3the concurrent exercise by home rule units of powers and
4functions exercised by the State.
5 For purposes of this Section "child abuse or neglect"
6includes abuse or neglect of an adult resident as defined in
7this Act.
8(Source: P.A. 97-189, eff. 7-22-11; 97-254, eff. 1-1-12;
997-387, eff. 8-15-11; 97-711, eff. 6-27-12; 97-813, eff.
107-13-12; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13; 98-67, eff. 7-15-13; 98-214,
11eff. 8-9-13; revised 9-19-13.)
12 (Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 98-408)
13 Sec. 4. Persons required to report; privileged
14communications; transmitting false report. Any physician,
15resident, intern, hospital, hospital administrator and
16personnel engaged in examination, care and treatment of
17persons, surgeon, dentist, dentist hygienist, osteopath,
18chiropractor, podiatric physician, physician assistant,
19substance abuse treatment personnel, funeral home director or
20employee, coroner, medical examiner, emergency medical
21technician, acupuncturist, crisis line or hotline personnel,
22school personnel (including administrators and both certified
23and non-certified school employees), personnel of institutions
24of higher education, educational advocate assigned to a child
25pursuant to the School Code, member of a school board or the

09800SB2640ham001- 1197 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1Chicago Board of Education or the governing body of a private
2school (but only to the extent required in accordance with
3other provisions of this Section expressly concerning the duty
4of school board members to report suspected child abuse),
5truant officers, social worker, social services administrator,
6domestic violence program personnel, registered nurse,
7licensed practical nurse, genetic counselor, respiratory care
8practitioner, advanced practice nurse, home health aide,
9director or staff assistant of a nursery school or a child day
10care center, recreational or athletic program or facility
11personnel, early intervention provider as defined in the Early
12Intervention Services System Act, law enforcement officer,
13licensed professional counselor, licensed clinical
14professional counselor, registered psychologist and assistants
15working under the direct supervision of a psychologist,
16psychiatrist, or field personnel of the Department of
17Healthcare and Family Services, Juvenile Justice, Public
18Health, Human Services (acting as successor to the Department
19of Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities,
20Rehabilitation Services, or Public Aid), Corrections, Human
21Rights, or Children and Family Services, supervisor and
22administrator of general assistance under the Illinois Public
23Aid Code, probation officer, animal control officer or Illinois
24Department of Agriculture Bureau of Animal Health and Welfare
25field investigator, or any other foster parent, homemaker or
26child care worker having reasonable cause to believe a child

09800SB2640ham001- 1198 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1known to them in their professional or official capacity may be
2an abused child or a neglected child shall immediately report
3or cause a report to be made to the Department.
4 Any member of the clergy having reasonable cause to believe
5that a child known to that member of the clergy in his or her
6professional capacity may be an abused child as defined in item
7(c) of the definition of "abused child" in Section 3 of this
8Act shall immediately report or cause a report to be made to
9the Department.
10 Any physician, physician's assistant, registered nurse,
11licensed practical nurse, medical technician, certified
12nursing assistant, social worker, or licensed professional
13counselor of any office, clinic, or any other physical location
14that provides abortions, abortion referrals, or contraceptives
15having reasonable cause to believe a child known to him or her
16in his or her professional or official capacity may be an
17abused child or a neglected child shall immediately report or
18cause a report to be made to the Department.
19 If an allegation is raised to a school board member during
20the course of an open or closed school board meeting that a
21child who is enrolled in the school district of which he or she
22is a board member is an abused child as defined in Section 3 of
23this Act, the member shall direct or cause the school board to
24direct the superintendent of the school district or other
25equivalent school administrator to comply with the
26requirements of this Act concerning the reporting of child

09800SB2640ham001- 1199 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1abuse. For purposes of this paragraph, a school board member is
2granted the authority in his or her individual capacity to
3direct the superintendent of the school district or other
4equivalent school administrator to comply with the
5requirements of this Act concerning the reporting of child
6abuse.
7 Notwithstanding any other provision of this Act, if an
8employee of a school district has made a report or caused a
9report to be made to the Department under this Act involving
10the conduct of a current or former employee of the school
11district and a request is made by another school district for
12the provision of information concerning the job performance or
13qualifications of the current or former employee because he or
14she is an applicant for employment with the requesting school
15district, the general superintendent of the school district to
16which the request is being made must disclose to the requesting
17school district the fact that an employee of the school
18district has made a report involving the conduct of the
19applicant or caused a report to be made to the Department, as
20required under this Act. Only the fact that an employee of the
21school district has made a report involving the conduct of the
22applicant or caused a report to be made to the Department may
23be disclosed by the general superintendent of the school
24district to which the request for information concerning the
25applicant is made, and this fact may be disclosed only in cases
26where the employee and the general superintendent have not been

09800SB2640ham001- 1200 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1informed by the Department that the allegations were unfounded.
2An employee of a school district who is or has been the subject
3of a report made pursuant to this Act during his or her
4employment with the school district must be informed by that
5school district that if he or she applies for employment with
6another school district, the general superintendent of the
7former school district, upon the request of the school district
8to which the employee applies, shall notify that requesting
9school district that the employee is or was the subject of such
10a report.
11 Whenever such person is required to report under this Act
12in his capacity as a member of the staff of a medical or other
13public or private institution, school, facility or agency, or
14as a member of the clergy, he shall make report immediately to
15the Department in accordance with the provisions of this Act
16and may also notify the person in charge of such institution,
17school, facility or agency, or church, synagogue, temple,
18mosque, or other religious institution, or his designated agent
19that such report has been made. Under no circumstances shall
20any person in charge of such institution, school, facility or
21agency, or church, synagogue, temple, mosque, or other
22religious institution, or his designated agent to whom such
23notification has been made, exercise any control, restraint,
24modification or other change in the report or the forwarding of
25such report to the Department.
26 The privileged quality of communication between any

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1professional person required to report and his patient or
2client shall not apply to situations involving abused or
3neglected children and shall not constitute grounds for failure
4to report as required by this Act or constitute grounds for
5failure to share information or documents with the Department
6during the course of a child abuse or neglect investigation. If
7requested by the professional, the Department shall confirm in
8writing that the information or documents disclosed by the
9professional were gathered in the course of a child abuse or
10neglect investigation.
11 The reporting requirements of this Act shall not apply to
12the contents of a privileged communication between an attorney
13and his or her client or to confidential information within the
14meaning of Rule 1.6 of the Illinois Rules of Professional
15Conduct relating to the legal representation of an individual
16client.
17 A member of the clergy may claim the privilege under
18Section 8-803 of the Code of Civil Procedure.
19 Any office, clinic, or any other physical location that
20provides abortions, abortion referrals, or contraceptives
21shall provide to all office personnel copies of written
22information and training materials about abuse and neglect and
23the requirements of this Act that are provided to employees of
24the office, clinic, or physical location who are required to
25make reports to the Department under this Act, and instruct
26such office personnel to bring to the attention of an employee

09800SB2640ham001- 1202 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1of the office, clinic, or physical location who is required to
2make reports to the Department under this Act any reasonable
3suspicion that a child known to him or her in his or her
4professional or official capacity may be an abused child or a
5neglected child. In addition to the above persons required to
6report suspected cases of abused or neglected children, any
7other person may make a report if such person has reasonable
8cause to believe a child may be an abused child or a neglected
9child.
10 Any person who enters into employment on and after July 1,
111986 and is mandated by virtue of that employment to report
12under this Act, shall sign a statement on a form prescribed by
13the Department, to the effect that the employee has knowledge
14and understanding of the reporting requirements of this Act.
15The statement shall be signed prior to commencement of the
16employment. The signed statement shall be retained by the
17employer. The cost of printing, distribution, and filing of the
18statement shall be borne by the employer.
19 Within one year of initial employment and at least every 5
20years thereafter, school personnel required to report child
21abuse as provided under this Section must complete mandated
22reporter training by a provider or agency with expertise in
23recognizing and reporting child abuse.
24 The Department shall provide copies of this Act, upon
25request, to all employers employing persons who shall be
26required under the provisions of this Section to report under

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1this Act.
2 Any person who knowingly transmits a false report to the
3Department commits the offense of disorderly conduct under
4subsection (a)(7) of Section 26-1 of the Criminal Code of 2012.
5A violation of this provision is a Class 4 felony.
6 Any person who knowingly and willfully violates any
7provision of this Section other than a second or subsequent
8violation of transmitting a false report as described in the
9preceding paragraph, is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor for a
10first violation and a Class 4 felony for a second or subsequent
11violation; except that if the person acted as part of a plan or
12scheme having as its object the prevention of discovery of an
13abused or neglected child by lawful authorities for the purpose
14of protecting or insulating any person or entity from arrest or
15prosecution, the person is guilty of a Class 4 felony for a
16first offense and a Class 3 felony for a second or subsequent
17offense (regardless of whether the second or subsequent offense
18involves any of the same facts or persons as the first or other
19prior offense).
20 A child whose parent, guardian or custodian in good faith
21selects and depends upon spiritual means through prayer alone
22for the treatment or cure of disease or remedial care may be
23considered neglected or abused, but not for the sole reason
24that his parent, guardian or custodian accepts and practices
25such beliefs.
26 A child shall not be considered neglected or abused solely

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1because the child is not attending school in accordance with
2the requirements of Article 26 of the School Code, as amended.
3 Nothing in this Act prohibits a mandated reporter who
4reasonably believes that an animal is being abused or neglected
5in violation of the Humane Care for Animals Act from reporting
6animal abuse or neglect to the Department of Agriculture's
7Bureau of Animal Health and Welfare.
8 A home rule unit may not regulate the reporting of child
9abuse or neglect in a manner inconsistent with the provisions
10of this Section. This Section is a limitation under subsection
11(i) of Section 6 of Article VII of the Illinois Constitution on
12the concurrent exercise by home rule units of powers and
13functions exercised by the State.
14 For purposes of this Section "child abuse or neglect"
15includes abuse or neglect of an adult resident as defined in
16this Act.
17(Source: P.A. 97-189, eff. 7-22-11; 97-254, eff. 1-1-12;
1897-387, eff. 8-15-11; 97-711, eff. 6-27-12; 97-813, eff.
197-13-12; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13; 98-67, eff. 7-15-13; 98-214,
20eff. 8-9-13; 98-408, eff. 7-1-14; revised 9-19-13.)
21 (325 ILCS 5/7.16) (from Ch. 23, par. 2057.16)
22 Sec. 7.16. For any investigation or appeal initiated on or
23after, or pending on July 1, 1998, the following time frames
24shall apply. Within 60 days after the notification of the
25completion of the Child Protective Service Unit investigation,

09800SB2640ham001- 1205 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1determined by the date of the notification sent by the
2Department, the perpetrator named in the notification may
3request the Department to amend the record or remove the record
4of the report from the register, except that the 60-day
5deadline for filing a request to amend the record or remove the
6record of the report from the State Central Register shall be
7tolled until after the conclusion of any criminal court action
8in the circuit court or after adjudication in any juvenile
9court action concerning the circumstances that give rise to an
10indicated report. Such request shall be in writing and directed
11to such person as the Department designates in the notification
12letter notifying the perpetrator of the indicated finding. The
13perpetrator shall have the right to a timely hearing within the
14Department to determine whether the record of the report should
15be amended or removed on the grounds that it is inaccurate or
16it is being maintained in a manner inconsistent with this Act,
17except that there shall be no such right to a hearing on the
18ground of the report's inaccuracy if there has been a court
19finding of child abuse or neglect or a criminal finding of
20guilt as to the perpetrator. Such hearing shall be held within
21a reasonable time after the perpetrator's request and at a
22reasonable place and hour. The appropriate Child Protective
23Service Unit shall be given notice of the hearing. If the
24minor, who is the victim named in the report sought to be
25amended or removed from the State Central Register, is the
26subject of a pending action under Article II of the Juvenile

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1Court Act of 1987, and the report was made while a guardian ad
2litem was appointed for the minor under Section 2-17 of the
3Juvenile Court Act of 1987, then the minor shall, through the
4minor's attorney or guardian ad litem appointed under Section
52-17 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, have the right to
6participate and be heard in such hearing as defined under the
7Department's rules. In such hearings, the burden of proving the
8accuracy and consistency of the record shall be on the
9Department and the appropriate Child Protective Service Unit.
10The hearing shall be conducted by the Director or his designee,
11who is hereby authorized and empowered to order the amendment
12or removal of the record to make it accurate and consistent
13with this Act. The decision shall be made, in writing, at the
14close of the hearing, or within 60 days thereof, and shall
15state the reasons upon which it is based. Decisions of the
16Department under this Section are administrative decisions
17subject to judicial review under the Administrative Review Law.
18 Should the Department grant the request of the perpetrator
19pursuant to this Section either on administrative review or
20after an administrative hearing to amend an indicated report to
21an unfounded report, the report shall be released and expunged
22in accordance with the standards set forth in Section 7.14 of
23this Act.
24(Source: P.A. 98-453, eff. 8-16-13; 98-487, eff. 1-1-14;
25revised 10-1-13.)

09800SB2640ham001- 1207 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 Section 555. The Early Intervention Services System Act is
2amended by changing Section 5 as follows:
3 (325 ILCS 20/5) (from Ch. 23, par. 4155)
4 Sec. 5. Lead Agency. The Department of Human Services is
5designated the lead agency and shall provide leadership in
6establishing and implementing the coordinated, comprehensive,
7interagency and interdisciplinary system of early intervention
8services. The lead agency shall not have the sole
9responsibility for providing these services. Each
10participating State agency shall continue to coordinate those
11early intervention services relating to health, social service
12and education provided under this authority.
13 The lead agency is responsible for carrying out the
14following:
15 (a) The general administration, supervision, and
16 monitoring of programs and activities receiving assistance
17 under Section 673 of the Individuals with Disabilities
18 Education Act (20 United States Code 1473).
19 (b) The identification and coordination of all
20 available resources within the State from federal, State,
21 local and private sources.
22 (c) The development of procedures to ensure that
23 services are provided to eligible infants and toddlers and
24 their families in a timely manner pending the resolution of
25 any disputes among public agencies or service providers.

09800SB2640ham001- 1208 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 (d) The resolution of intra-agency and interagency
2 regulatory and procedural disputes.
3 (e) The development and implementation of formal
4 interagency agreements, and the entry into such
5 agreements, between the lead agency and (i) the Department
6 of Healthcare and Family Services, (ii) the University of
7 Illinois Division of Specialized Care for Children, and
8 (iii) other relevant State agencies that:
9 (1) define the financial responsibility of each
10 agency for paying for early intervention services
11 (consistent with existing State and federal law and
12 rules, including the requirement that early
13 intervention funds be used as the payor of last
14 resort), a hierarchical order of payment as among the
15 agencies for early intervention services that are
16 covered under or may be paid by programs in other
17 agencies, and procedures for direct billing,
18 collecting reimbursements for payments made, and
19 resolving service and payment disputes; and
20 (2) include all additional components necessary to
21 ensure meaningful cooperation and coordination.
22 Interagency agreements under this paragraph (e) must
23 be reviewed and revised to implement the purposes of this
24 amendatory Act of the 92nd General Assembly no later than
25 60 days after the effective date of this amendatory Act of
26 the 92nd General Assembly.

09800SB2640ham001- 1209 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 (f) The maintenance of an early intervention website.
2 Within 30 days after the effective date of this amendatory
3 Act of the 92nd General Assembly, the lead agency shall
4 post and keep posted on this website the following: (i) the
5 current annual report required under subdivision (b)(5) of
6 Section 4 of this Act, and the annual reports of the prior
7 3 years, (ii) the most recent Illinois application for
8 funds prepared under Section 637 of the Individuals with
9 Disabilities Education Act filed with the United States
10 Department of Education, (iii) proposed modifications of
11 the application prepared for public comment, (iv) notice of
12 Council meetings, Council agendas, and minutes of its
13 proceedings for at least the previous year, (v) proposed
14 and final early intervention rules, (vi) requests for
15 proposals, and (vii) all reports created for dissemination
16 to the public that are related to the early intervention
17 program, including reports prepared at the request of the
18 Council, and the General Assembly. Each such document shall
19 be posted on the website within 3 working days after the
20 document's completion.
21 (g) Before adopting any new policy or procedure
22 (including any revisions to an existing policy or
23 procedure) needed to comply with Part C of the Individuals
24 with Disabilities Education Act, the lead agency must hold
25 public hearings on the new policy or procedure, provide
26 notice of the hearings at least 30 days before the hearings

09800SB2640ham001- 1210 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 are conducted to enable public participation, and provide
2 an opportunity for the general public, including
3 individuals with disabilities and parents of infants and
4 toddlers with disabilities, early intervention providers,
5 and members of the Council to comment for at least 30 days
6 on the new policy or procedure needed to comply with Part C
7 of the Individuals with Disabilities Education Act and with
8 34 CFR Part 300 and Part 303.
9(Source: P.A. 98-41, eff. 6-28-13; revised 11-12-13.)
10 Section 560. The Mental Health and Developmental
11Disabilities Code is amended by changing Section 2-107.1 as
12follows:
13 (405 ILCS 5/2-107.1) (from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 2-107.1)
14 Sec. 2-107.1. Administration of psychotropic medication
15and electroconvulsive therapy upon application to a court.
16 (a) (Blank).
17 (a-5) Notwithstanding the provisions of Section 2-107 of
18this Code, psychotropic medication and electroconvulsive
19therapy may be administered to an adult recipient of services
20on an inpatient or outpatient basis without the informed
21consent of the recipient under the following standards:
22 (1) Any person 18 years of age or older, including any
23 guardian, may petition the circuit court for an order
24 authorizing the administration of psychotropic medication

09800SB2640ham001- 1211 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 and electroconvulsive therapy to a recipient of services.
2 The petition shall state that the petitioner has made a
3 good faith attempt to determine whether the recipient has
4 executed a power of attorney for health care under the
5 Powers of Attorney for Health Care Law or a declaration for
6 mental health treatment under the Mental Health Treatment
7 Preference Declaration Act and to obtain copies of these
8 instruments if they exist. If either of the above-named
9 instruments is available to the petitioner, the instrument
10 or a copy of the instrument shall be attached to the
11 petition as an exhibit. The petitioner shall deliver a copy
12 of the petition, and notice of the time and place of the
13 hearing, to the respondent, his or her attorney, any known
14 agent or attorney-in-fact, if any, and the guardian, if
15 any, no later than 3 days prior to the date of the hearing.
16 Service of the petition and notice of the time and place of
17 the hearing may be made by transmitting them via facsimile
18 machine to the respondent or other party. Upon receipt of
19 the petition and notice, the party served, or the person
20 delivering the petition and notice to the party served,
21 shall acknowledge service. If the party sending the
22 petition and notice does not receive acknowledgement of
23 service within 24 hours, service must be made by personal
24 service.
25 The petition may include a request that the court
26 authorize such testing and procedures as may be essential

09800SB2640ham001- 1212 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 for the safe and effective administration of the
2 psychotropic medication or electroconvulsive therapy
3 sought to be administered, but only where the petition sets
4 forth the specific testing and procedures sought to be
5 administered.
6 If a hearing is requested to be held immediately
7 following the hearing on a petition for involuntary
8 admission, then the notice requirement shall be the same as
9 that for the hearing on the petition for involuntary
10 admission, and the petition filed pursuant to this Section
11 shall be filed with the petition for involuntary admission.
12 (2) The court shall hold a hearing within 7 days of the
13 filing of the petition. The People, the petitioner, or the
14 respondent shall be entitled to a continuance of up to 7
15 days as of right. An additional continuance of not more
16 than 7 days may be granted to any party (i) upon a showing
17 that the continuance is needed in order to adequately
18 prepare for or present evidence in a hearing under this
19 Section or (ii) under exceptional circumstances. The court
20 may grant an additional continuance not to exceed 21 days
21 when, in its discretion, the court determines that such a
22 continuance is necessary in order to provide the recipient
23 with an examination pursuant to Section 3-803 or 3-804 of
24 this Act, to provide the recipient with a trial by jury as
25 provided in Section 3-802 of this Act, or to arrange for
26 the substitution of counsel as provided for by the Illinois

09800SB2640ham001- 1213 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 Supreme Court Rules. The hearing shall be separate from a
2 judicial proceeding held to determine whether a person is
3 subject to involuntary admission but may be heard
4 immediately preceding or following such a judicial
5 proceeding and may be heard by the same trier of fact or
6 law as in that judicial proceeding.
7 (3) Unless otherwise provided herein, the procedures
8 set forth in Article VIII of Chapter III 3 of this Act,
9 including the provisions regarding appointment of counsel,
10 shall govern hearings held under this subsection (a-5).
11 (4) Psychotropic medication and electroconvulsive
12 therapy may be administered to the recipient if and only if
13 it has been determined by clear and convincing evidence
14 that all of the following factors are present. In
15 determining whether a person meets the criteria specified
16 in the following paragraphs (A) through (G), the court may
17 consider evidence of the person's history of serious
18 violence, repeated past pattern of specific behavior,
19 actions related to the person's illness, or past outcomes
20 of various treatment options.
21 (A) That the recipient has a serious mental illness
22 or developmental disability.
23 (B) That because of said mental illness or
24 developmental disability, the recipient currently
25 exhibits any one of the following: (i) deterioration of
26 his or her ability to function, as compared to the

09800SB2640ham001- 1214 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 recipient's ability to function prior to the current
2 onset of symptoms of the mental illness or disability
3 for which treatment is presently sought, (ii)
4 suffering, or (iii) threatening behavior.
5 (C) That the illness or disability has existed for
6 a period marked by the continuing presence of the
7 symptoms set forth in item (B) of this subdivision (4)
8 or the repeated episodic occurrence of these symptoms.
9 (D) That the benefits of the treatment outweigh the
10 harm.
11 (E) That the recipient lacks the capacity to make a
12 reasoned decision about the treatment.
13 (F) That other less restrictive services have been
14 explored and found inappropriate.
15 (G) If the petition seeks authorization for
16 testing and other procedures, that such testing and
17 procedures are essential for the safe and effective
18 administration of the treatment.
19 (5) In no event shall an order issued under this
20 Section be effective for more than 90 days. A second 90-day
21 period of involuntary treatment may be authorized pursuant
22 to a hearing that complies with the standards and
23 procedures of this subsection (a-5). Thereafter,
24 additional 180-day periods of involuntary treatment may be
25 authorized pursuant to the standards and procedures of this
26 Section without limit. If a new petition to authorize the

09800SB2640ham001- 1215 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 administration of psychotropic medication or
2 electroconvulsive therapy is filed at least 15 days prior
3 to the expiration of the prior order, and if any
4 continuance of the hearing is agreed to by the recipient,
5 the administration of the treatment may continue in
6 accordance with the prior order pending the completion of a
7 hearing under this Section.
8 (6) An order issued under this subsection (a-5) shall
9 designate the persons authorized to administer the
10 treatment under the standards and procedures of this
11 subsection (a-5). Those persons shall have complete
12 discretion not to administer any treatment authorized
13 under this Section. The order shall also specify the
14 medications and the anticipated range of dosages that have
15 been authorized and may include a list of any alternative
16 medications and range of dosages deemed necessary.
17 (a-10) The court may, in its discretion, appoint a guardian
18ad litem for a recipient before the court or authorize an
19existing guardian of the person to monitor treatment and
20compliance with court orders under this Section.
21 (b) A guardian may be authorized to consent to the
22administration of psychotropic medication or electroconvulsive
23therapy to an objecting recipient only under the standards and
24procedures of subsection (a-5).
25 (c) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section, a
26guardian may consent to the administration of psychotropic

09800SB2640ham001- 1216 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1medication or electroconvulsive therapy to a non-objecting
2recipient under Article XIa of the Probate Act of 1975.
3 (d) Nothing in this Section shall prevent the
4administration of psychotropic medication or electroconvulsive
5therapy to recipients in an emergency under Section 2-107 of
6this Act.
7 (e) Notwithstanding any of the provisions of this Section,
8psychotropic medication or electroconvulsive therapy may be
9administered pursuant to a power of attorney for health care
10under the Powers of Attorney for Health Care Law or a
11declaration for mental health treatment under the Mental Health
12Treatment Preference Declaration Act.
13 (f) The Department shall conduct annual trainings for
14physicians and registered nurses working in State-operated
15mental health facilities on the appropriate use of psychotropic
16medication and electroconvulsive therapy, standards for their
17use, and the preparation of court petitions under this Section.
18(Source: P.A. 97-375, eff. 8-15-11; revised 9-11-13.)
19 Section 565. The Developmental Disability and Mental
20Disability Services Act is amended by changing Section 2-5 as
21follows:
22 (405 ILCS 80/2-5) (from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 1802-5)
23 Sec. 2-5. The Department shall establish eligibility
24standards for the Program, taking into consideration the

09800SB2640ham001- 1217 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1disability levels and service needs of the target population.
2The Department shall create application forms which shall be
3used to determine the eligibility of mentally disabled adults
4to participate in the Program. The forms shall be made
5available by the Department and shall require at least the
6following items of information which constitute eligibility
7criteria for participation in the Program:
8 (a) A statement that the mentally disabled adult
9 resides in the State of Illinois and is over the age of 18
10 years.
11 (b) Verification that the mentally disabled adult has
12 one of the following conditions: severe autism, severe
13 mental illness, a severe or profound intellectual
14 disability, or severe and multiple impairments.
15 (c) Verification that the mentally disabled adult has
16 applied and is eligible for federal Supplemental Security
17 Income or federal Social Security Disability Income
18 benefits.
19 (d) Verification that the mentally disabled adult
20 resides full-time in his or her own home or that, within 2
21 months of receipt of services under this Article, he or she
22 will reside full-time in his or her own home.
23 The Department may by rule adopt provisions establishing
24liability of responsible relatives of a recipient of services
25under this Article for the payment of sums representing charges
26for services to such recipient. Such rules shall be

09800SB2640ham001- 1218 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1substantially similar to the provisions for such liability
2contained in Chapter V 5 of the Mental Health and Developmental
3Disabilities Code, as now or hereafter amended, and rules
4adopted pursuant thereto.
5(Source: P.A. 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; revised 9-11-13.)
6 Section 570. The Illinois Mental Health First Aid Training
7Act is amended by changing Section 30 as follows:
8 (405 ILCS 105/30)
9 Sec. 30. Distribution of training grants. When awarding
10training grants under this Act, the Department or other
11appropriate State agency shall distribute training grants
12equitably among the geographical regions of the State, paying
13particular attention to the training needs of rural areas and
14areas with underserved populations or professional shortages.
15(Source: P.A. 98-195, eff. 8-7-13; revised 11-12-13.)
16 Section 575. The Mercury-added Product Prohibition Act is
17amended by changing Section 25 as follows:
18 (410 ILCS 46/25)
19 Sec. 25. Sale, distribution, or promotional gifts of
20mercury-added novelty products prohibited. On and after July
211, 2004, no mercury-added novelty products may be offered for
22sale or distributed for promotional purposes in Illinois if the

09800SB2640ham001- 1219 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1offeror offerer or distributor knows or has reason to know that
2the product contains mercury, unless the mercury is solely
3within a button-cell battery or a fluorescent light bulb.
4(Source: P.A. 93-165, eff. 1-1-04; revised 9-11-13.)
5 Section 580. The Newborn Metabolic Screening Act is amended
6by changing Section 2 as follows:
7 (410 ILCS 240/2) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 4904)
8 Sec. 2. General provisions. The Department of Public Health
9shall administer the provisions of this Act and shall:
10 (a) Institute and carry on an intensive educational program
11among physicians, hospitals, public health nurses and the
12public concerning disorders included in newborn screening.
13This educational program shall include information about the
14nature of the diseases and examinations for the detection of
15the diseases in early infancy in order that measures may be
16taken to prevent the disabilities resulting from the diseases.
17 (a-5) Require that all newborns be screened for the
18presence of certain genetic, metabolic, and congenital
19anomalies as determined by the Department, by rule.
20 (a-5.1) Require that all blood and biological specimens
21collected pursuant to this Act or the rules adopted under this
22Act be submitted for testing to the nearest Department
23laboratory designated to perform such tests. The following
24provisions shall apply concerning testing:

09800SB2640ham001- 1220 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 (1) The Department may develop a reasonable fee
2 structure and may levy fees according to such structure to
3 cover the cost of providing this testing service and for
4 the follow-up of infants with an abnormal screening test.
5 Fees collected from the provision of this testing service
6 shall be placed in the Metabolic Screening and Treatment
7 Fund. Other State and federal funds for expenses related to
8 metabolic screening, follow-up, and treatment programs may
9 also be placed in the Fund.
10 (2) Moneys shall be appropriated from the Fund to the
11 Department solely for the purposes of providing newborn
12 screening, follow-up, and treatment programs. Nothing in
13 this Act shall be construed to prohibit any licensed
14 medical facility from collecting additional specimens for
15 testing for metabolic or neonatal diseases or any other
16 diseases or conditions, as it deems fit. Any person
17 violating the provisions of this subsection (a-5.1) is
18 guilty of a petty offense.
19 (3) If the Department is unable to provide the
20 screening using the State Laboratory, it shall temporarily
21 provide such screening through an accredited laboratory
22 selected by the Department until the Department has the
23 capacity to provide screening through the State
24 Laboratory. If screening is provided on a temporary basis
25 through an accredited laboratory, the Department shall
26 substitute the fee charged by the accredited laboratory,

09800SB2640ham001- 1221 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 plus a 5% surcharge for documentation and handling, for the
2 fee authorized in this subsection (a-5.1).
3 (a-5.2) Maintain a registry of cases, including
4information of importance for the purpose of follow-up services
5to assess long-term outcomes.
6 (a-5.3) Supply the necessary metabolic treatment formulas
7where practicable for diagnosed cases of amino acid metabolism
8disorders, including phenylketonuria, organic acid disorders,
9and fatty acid oxidation disorders for as long as medically
10indicated, when the product is not available through other
11State agencies.
12 (a-5.4) Arrange for or provide public health nursing,
13nutrition, and social services and clinical consultation as
14indicated.
15 (a-5.5) Utilize The Department shall utilize the Genetic
16and Metabolic Diseases Advisory Committee established under
17the Genetic and Metabolic Diseases Advisory Committee Act to
18provide guidance and recommendations to the Department's
19newborn screening program. The Genetic and Metabolic Diseases
20Advisory Committee shall review the feasibility and
21advisability of including additional metabolic, genetic, and
22congenital disorders in the newborn screening panel, according
23to a review protocol applied to each suggested addition to the
24screening panel. The Department shall consider the
25recommendations of the Genetic and Metabolic Diseases Advisory
26Committee in determining whether to include an additional

09800SB2640ham001- 1222 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1disorder in the screening panel prior to proposing an
2administrative rule concerning inclusion of an additional
3disorder in the newborn screening panel. Notwithstanding any
4other provision of law, no new screening may begin prior to the
5occurrence of all the following:
6 (1) the establishment and verification of relevant and
7 appropriate performance specifications as defined under
8 the federal Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments and
9 regulations thereunder for U.S. Food and Drug
10 Administration-cleared or in-house developed methods,
11 performed under an institutional review board-approved
12 protocol, if required;
13 (2) the availability of quality assurance testing
14 methodology for the processes set forth in item (1) of this
15 subsection (a-5.5);
16 (3) the acquisition and installment by the Department
17 of the equipment necessary to implement the screening
18 tests;
19 (4) the establishment of precise threshold values
20 ensuring defined disorder identification for each
21 screening test;
22 (5) the authentication of pilot testing achieving each
23 milestone described in items (1) through (4) of this
24 subsection (a-5.5) for each disorder screening test; and
25 (6) the authentication of achieving the potential of
26 high throughput standards for statewide volume of each

09800SB2640ham001- 1223 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 disorder screening test concomitant with each milestone
2 described in items (1) through (4) of this subsection
3 (a-5.5).
4 (a-6) (Blank).
5 (a-7) (Blank).
6 (a-8) (Blank).
7 (b) (Blank).
8 (c) (Blank).
9 (d) (Blank).
10 (e) (Blank).
11(Source: P.A. 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-532, eff. 8-23-11;
1297-813, eff. 7-13-12; 98-440, eff. 8-16-13; revised 11-15-13.)
13 Section 585. The Illinois Sexually Transmissible Disease
14Control Act is amended by changing Section 5.5 as follows:
15 (410 ILCS 325/5.5) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 7405.5)
16 Sec. 5.5. Risk assessment.
17 (a) Whenever the Department receives a report of HIV
18infection or AIDS pursuant to this Act and the Department
19determines that the subject of the report may present or may
20have presented a possible risk of HIV transmission, the
21Department shall, when medically appropriate, investigate the
22subject of the report and that person's contacts as defined in
23subsection (c), to assess the potential risks of transmission.
24Any investigation and action shall be conducted in a timely

09800SB2640ham001- 1224 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1fashion. All contacts other than those defined in subsection
2(c) shall be investigated in accordance with Section 5 of this
3Act.
4 (b) If the Department determines that there is or may have
5been potential risks of HIV transmission from the subject of
6the report to other persons, the Department shall afford the
7subject the opportunity to submit any information and comment
8on proposed actions the Department intends to take with respect
9to the subject's contacts who are at potential risk of
10transmission of HIV prior to notification of the subject's
11contacts. The Department shall also afford the subject of the
12report the opportunity to notify the subject's contacts in a
13timely fashion who are at potential risk of transmission of HIV
14prior to the Department taking any steps to notify such
15contacts. If the subject declines to notify such contacts or if
16the Department determines the notices to be inadequate or
17incomplete, the Department shall endeavor to notify such other
18persons of the potential risk, and offer testing and counseling
19services to these individuals. When the contacts are notified,
20they shall be informed of the disclosure provisions of the AIDS
21Confidentiality Act and the penalties therein and this Section.
22 (c) Contacts investigated under this Section shall in the
23case of HIV infection include (i) individuals who have
24undergone invasive procedures performed by an HIV infected
25health care provider and (ii) health care providers who have
26performed invasive procedures for persons infected with HIV,

09800SB2640ham001- 1225 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1provided the Department has determined that there is or may
2have been potential risk of HIV transmission from the health
3care provider to those individuals or from infected persons to
4health care providers. The Department shall have access to the
5subject's records to review for the identity of contacts. The
6subject's records shall not be copied or seized by the
7Department.
8 For purposes of this subsection, the term "invasive
9procedures" means those procedures termed invasive by the
10Centers for Disease Control in current guidelines or
11recommendations for the prevention of HIV transmission in
12health care settings, and the term "health care provider" means
13any physician, dentist, podiatric physician, advanced practice
14nurse, physician assistant, nurse, or other person providing
15health care services of any kind.
16 (d) All information and records held by the Department and
17local health authorities pertaining to activities conducted
18pursuant to this Section shall be strictly confidential and
19exempt from copying and inspection under the Freedom of
20Information Act. Such information and records shall not be
21released or made public by the Department or local health
22authorities, and shall not be admissible as evidence, nor
23discoverable in any action of any kind in any court or before
24any tribunal, board, agency or person and shall be treated in
25the same manner as the information and those records subject to
26the provisions of Part 21 of the Code of Civil Procedure except

09800SB2640ham001- 1226 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1under the following circumstances:
2 (1) When made with the written consent of all persons
3 to whom this information pertains;
4 (2) When authorized under Section 8 to be released
5 under court order or subpoena pursuant to Section 12-5.01
6 or 12-16.2 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal
7 Code of 2012; or
8 (3) When made by the Department for the purpose of
9 seeking a warrant authorized by Sections 6 and 7 of this
10 Act. Such disclosure shall conform to the requirements of
11 subsection (a) of Section 8 of this Act.
12 (e) Any person who knowingly or maliciously disseminates
13any information or report concerning the existence of any
14disease under this Section is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.
15(Source: P.A. 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13; 98-214, eff. 8-9-13;
16revised 9-19-13.)
17 Section 590. The Environmental Protection Act is amended by
18changing Sections 3.330, 21, 22.2, and 58.16 as follows:
19 (415 ILCS 5/3.330) (was 415 ILCS 5/3.32)
20 Sec. 3.330. Pollution control facility.
21 (a) "Pollution control facility" is any waste storage site,
22sanitary landfill, waste disposal site, waste transfer
23station, waste treatment facility, or waste incinerator. This
24includes sewers, sewage treatment plants, and any other

09800SB2640ham001- 1227 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1facilities owned or operated by sanitary districts organized
2under the Metropolitan Water Reclamation District Act.
3 The following are not pollution control facilities:
4 (1) (blank);
5 (2) waste storage sites regulated under 40 CFR, Part
6 761.42;
7 (3) sites or facilities used by any person conducting a
8 waste storage, waste treatment, waste disposal, waste
9 transfer or waste incineration operation, or a combination
10 thereof, for wastes generated by such person's own
11 activities, when such wastes are stored, treated, disposed
12 of, transferred or incinerated within the site or facility
13 owned, controlled or operated by such person, or when such
14 wastes are transported within or between sites or
15 facilities owned, controlled or operated by such person;
16 (4) sites or facilities at which the State is
17 performing removal or remedial action pursuant to Section
18 22.2 or 55.3;
19 (5) abandoned quarries used solely for the disposal of
20 concrete, earth materials, gravel, or aggregate debris
21 resulting from road construction activities conducted by a
22 unit of government or construction activities due to the
23 construction and installation of underground pipes, lines,
24 conduit or wires off of the premises of a public utility
25 company which are conducted by a public utility;
26 (6) sites or facilities used by any person to

09800SB2640ham001- 1228 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 specifically conduct a landscape composting operation;
2 (7) regional facilities as defined in the Central
3 Midwest Interstate Low-Level Radioactive Waste Compact;
4 (8) the portion of a site or facility where coal
5 combustion wastes are stored or disposed of in accordance
6 with subdivision (r)(2) or (r)(3) of Section 21;
7 (9) the portion of a site or facility used for the
8 collection, storage or processing of waste tires as defined
9 in Title XIV;
10 (10) the portion of a site or facility used for
11 treatment of petroleum contaminated materials by
12 application onto or incorporation into the soil surface and
13 any portion of that site or facility used for storage of
14 petroleum contaminated materials before treatment. Only
15 those categories of petroleum listed in Section 57.9(a)(3)
16 are exempt under this subdivision (10);
17 (11) the portion of a site or facility where used oil
18 is collected or stored prior to shipment to a recycling or
19 energy recovery facility, provided that the used oil is
20 generated by households or commercial establishments, and
21 the site or facility is a recycling center or a business
22 where oil or gasoline is sold at retail;
23 (11.5) processing sites or facilities that receive
24 only on-specification used oil, as defined in 35 Ill.
25 Admin. Code 739, originating from used oil collectors for
26 processing that is managed under 35 Ill. Admin. Code 739 to

09800SB2640ham001- 1229 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 produce products for sale to off-site petroleum
2 facilities, if these processing sites or facilities are:
3 (i) located within a home rule unit of local government
4 with a population of at least 30,000 according to the 2000
5 federal census, that home rule unit of local government has
6 been designated as an Urban Round II Empowerment Zone by
7 the United States Department of Housing and Urban
8 Development, and that home rule unit of local government
9 has enacted an ordinance approving the location of the site
10 or facility and provided funding for the site or facility;
11 and (ii) in compliance with all applicable zoning
12 requirements;
13 (12) the portion of a site or facility utilizing coal
14 combustion waste for stabilization and treatment of only
15 waste generated on that site or facility when used in
16 connection with response actions pursuant to the federal
17 Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and
18 Liability Act of 1980, the federal Resource Conservation
19 and Recovery Act of 1976, or the Illinois Environmental
20 Protection Act or as authorized by the Agency;
21 (13) the portion of a site or facility that (i) accepts
22 exclusively general construction or demolition debris,
23 (ii) is located in a county with a population over
24 3,000,000 as of January 1, 2000 or in a county that is
25 contiguous to such a county, and (iii) is operated and
26 located in accordance with Section 22.38 of this Act;

09800SB2640ham001- 1230 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 (14) the portion of a site or facility, located within
2 a unit of local government that has enacted local zoning
3 requirements, used to accept, separate, and process
4 uncontaminated broken concrete, with or without protruding
5 metal bars, provided that the uncontaminated broken
6 concrete and metal bars are not speculatively accumulated,
7 are at the site or facility no longer than one year after
8 their acceptance, and are returned to the economic
9 mainstream in the form of raw materials or products;
10 (15) the portion of a site or facility located in a
11 county with a population over 3,000,000 that has obtained
12 local siting approval under Section 39.2 of this Act for a
13 municipal waste incinerator on or before July 1, 2005 and
14 that is used for a non-hazardous waste transfer station;
15 (16) a site or facility that temporarily holds in
16 transit for 10 days or less, non-putrescible solid waste in
17 original containers, no larger in capacity than 500
18 gallons, provided that such waste is further transferred to
19 a recycling, disposal, treatment, or storage facility on a
20 non-contiguous site and provided such site or facility
21 complies with the applicable 10-day transfer requirements
22 of the federal Resource Conservation and Recovery Act of
23 1976 and United States Department of Transportation
24 hazardous material requirements. For purposes of this
25 Section only, "non-putrescible solid waste" means waste
26 other than municipal garbage that does not rot or become

09800SB2640ham001- 1231 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 putrid, including, but not limited to, paints, solvent,
2 filters, and absorbents;
3 (17) the portion of a site or facility located in a
4 county with a population greater than 3,000,000 that has
5 obtained local siting approval, under Section 39.2 of this
6 Act, for a municipal waste incinerator on or before July 1,
7 2005 and that is used for wood combustion facilities for
8 energy recovery that accept and burn only wood material, as
9 included in a fuel specification approved by the Agency;
10 (18) a transfer station used exclusively for landscape
11 waste, including a transfer station where landscape waste
12 is ground to reduce its volume, where the landscape waste
13 is held no longer than 24 hours from the time it was
14 received;
15 (19) the portion of a site or facility that (i) is used
16 for the composting of food scrap, livestock waste, crop
17 residue, uncontaminated wood waste, or paper waste,
18 including, but not limited to, corrugated paper or
19 cardboard, and (ii) meets all of the following
20 requirements:
21 (A) There must not be more than a total of 30,000
22 cubic yards of livestock waste in raw form or in the
23 process of being composted at the site or facility at
24 any one time.
25 (B) All food scrap, livestock waste, crop residue,
26 uncontaminated wood waste, and paper waste must, by the

09800SB2640ham001- 1232 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 end of each operating day, be processed and placed into
2 an enclosed vessel in which air flow and temperature
3 are controlled, or all of the following additional
4 requirements must be met:
5 (i) The portion of the site or facility used
6 for the composting operation must include a
7 setback of at least 200 feet from the nearest
8 potable water supply well.
9 (ii) The portion of the site or facility used
10 for the composting operation must be located
11 outside the boundary of the 10-year floodplain or
12 floodproofed.
13 (iii) Except in municipalities with more than
14 1,000,000 inhabitants, the portion of the site or
15 facility used for the composting operation must be
16 located at least one-eighth of a mile from the
17 nearest residence, other than a residence located
18 on the same property as the site or facility.
19 (iv) The portion of the site or facility used
20 for the composting operation must be located at
21 least one-eighth of a mile from the property line
22 of all of the following areas:
23 (I) Facilities that primarily serve to
24 house or treat people that are
25 immunocompromised or immunosuppressed, such as
26 cancer or AIDS patients; people with asthma,

09800SB2640ham001- 1233 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 cystic fibrosis, or bioaerosol allergies; or
2 children under the age of one year.
3 (II) Primary and secondary schools and
4 adjacent areas that the schools use for
5 recreation.
6 (III) Any facility for child care licensed
7 under Section 3 of the Child Care Act of 1969;
8 preschools; and adjacent areas that the
9 facilities or preschools use for recreation.
10 (v) By the end of each operating day, all food
11 scrap, livestock waste, crop residue,
12 uncontaminated wood waste, and paper waste must be
13 (i) processed into windrows or other piles and (ii)
14 covered in a manner that prevents scavenging by
15 birds and animals and that prevents other
16 nuisances.
17 (C) Food scrap, livestock waste, crop residue,
18 uncontaminated wood waste, paper waste, and compost
19 must not be placed within 5 feet of the water table.
20 (D) The site or facility must meet all of the
21 requirements of the Wild and Scenic Rivers Act (16
22 U.S.C. 1271 et seq.).
23 (E) The site or facility must not (i) restrict the
24 flow of a 100-year flood, (ii) result in washout of
25 food scrap, livestock waste, crop residue,
26 uncontaminated wood waste, or paper waste from a

09800SB2640ham001- 1234 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 100-year flood, or (iii) reduce the temporary water
2 storage capacity of the 100-year floodplain, unless
3 measures are undertaken to provide alternative storage
4 capacity, such as by providing lagoons, holding tanks,
5 or drainage around structures at the facility.
6 (F) The site or facility must not be located in any
7 area where it may pose a threat of harm or destruction
8 to the features for which:
9 (i) an irreplaceable historic or
10 archaeological site has been listed under the
11 National Historic Preservation Act (16 U.S.C. 470
12 et seq.) or the Illinois Historic Preservation
13 Act;
14 (ii) a natural landmark has been designated by
15 the National Park Service or the Illinois State
16 Historic Preservation Office; or
17 (iii) a natural area has been designated as a
18 Dedicated Illinois Nature Preserve under the
19 Illinois Natural Areas Preservation Act.
20 (G) The site or facility must not be located in an
21 area where it may jeopardize the continued existence of
22 any designated endangered species, result in the
23 destruction or adverse modification of the critical
24 habitat for such species, or cause or contribute to the
25 taking of any endangered or threatened species of
26 plant, fish, or wildlife listed under the Endangered

09800SB2640ham001- 1235 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 Species Act (16 U.S.C. 1531 et seq.) or the Illinois
2 Endangered Species Protection Act;
3 (20) the portion of a site or facility that is located
4 entirely within a home rule unit having a population of no
5 less than 120,000 and no more than 135,000, according to
6 the 2000 federal census, and that meets all of the
7 following requirements:
8 (i) the portion of the site or facility is used
9 exclusively to perform testing of a thermochemical
10 conversion technology using only woody biomass,
11 collected as landscape waste within the boundaries
12 of the home rule unit, as the hydrocarbon feedstock
13 for the production of synthetic gas in accordance
14 with Section 39.9 of this Act;
15 (ii) the portion of the site or facility is in
16 compliance with all applicable zoning
17 requirements; and
18 (iii) a complete application for a
19 demonstration permit at the portion of the site or
20 facility has been submitted to the Agency in
21 accordance with Section 39.9 of this Act within one
22 year after July 27, 2010 (the effective date of
23 Public Act 96-1314);
24 (21) the portion of a site or facility used to perform
25 limited testing of a gasification conversion technology in
26 accordance with Section 39.8 of this Act and for which a

09800SB2640ham001- 1236 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 complete permit application has been submitted to the
2 Agency prior to one year from April 9, 2010 (the effective
3 date of Public Act 96-887);
4 (22) the portion of a site or facility that is used to
5 incinerate only pharmaceuticals from residential sources
6 that are collected and transported by law enforcement
7 agencies under Section 17.9A of this Act; and
8 (23) until July 1, 2017, the portion of a site or
9 facility:
10 (A) that is used exclusively for the transfer of
11 commingled landscape waste and food scrap held at the
12 site or facility for no longer than 24 hours after
13 their receipt;
14 (B) that is located entirely within a home rule
15 unit having a population of either (i) not less than
16 100,000 and not more than 115,000 according to the 2010
17 federal census or (ii) not less than 5,000 and not more
18 than 10,000 according to the 2010 federal census;
19 (C) that is permitted, by the Agency, prior to
20 January 1, 2002, for the transfer of landscape waste;
21 and
22 (D) for which a permit application is submitted to
23 the Agency within 6 months after January 1, 2014 (the
24 effective date of Public Act 98-146) this amendatory
25 Act of the 98th General Assembly to modify an existing
26 permit for the transfer of landscape waste to also

09800SB2640ham001- 1237 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 include, on a demonstration basis not to exceed 18
2 months, the transfer of commingled landscape waste and
3 food scrap.
4 (b) A new pollution control facility is:
5 (1) a pollution control facility initially permitted
6 for development or construction after July 1, 1981; or
7 (2) the area of expansion beyond the boundary of a
8 currently permitted pollution control facility; or
9 (3) a permitted pollution control facility requesting
10 approval to store, dispose of, transfer or incinerate, for
11 the first time, any special or hazardous waste.
12(Source: P.A. 97-333, eff. 8-12-11; 97-545, eff. 1-1-12;
1398-146, eff. 1-1-14; 98-239, eff. 8-9-13; revised 9-19-13.)
14 (415 ILCS 5/21) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 1021)
15 Sec. 21. Prohibited acts. No person shall:
16 (a) Cause or allow the open dumping of any waste.
17 (b) Abandon, dump, or deposit any waste upon the public
18highways or other public property, except in a sanitary
19landfill approved by the Agency pursuant to regulations adopted
20by the Board.
21 (c) Abandon any vehicle in violation of the "Abandoned
22Vehicles Amendment to the Illinois Vehicle Code", as enacted by
23the 76th General Assembly.
24 (d) Conduct any waste-storage, waste-treatment, or
25waste-disposal operation:

09800SB2640ham001- 1238 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 (1) without a permit granted by the Agency or in
2 violation of any conditions imposed by such permit,
3 including periodic reports and full access to adequate
4 records and the inspection of facilities, as may be
5 necessary to assure compliance with this Act and with
6 regulations and standards adopted thereunder; provided,
7 however, that, except for municipal solid waste landfill
8 units that receive waste on or after October 9, 1993, no
9 permit shall be required for (i) any person conducting a
10 waste-storage, waste-treatment, or waste-disposal
11 operation for wastes generated by such person's own
12 activities which are stored, treated, or disposed within
13 the site where such wastes are generated, or (ii) a
14 facility located in a county with a population over 700,000
15 as of January 1, 2000, operated and located in accordance
16 with Section 22.38 of this Act, and used exclusively for
17 the transfer, storage, or treatment of general
18 construction or demolition debris, provided that the
19 facility was receiving construction or demolition debris
20 on the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 96th
21 General Assembly;
22 (2) in violation of any regulations or standards
23 adopted by the Board under this Act; or
24 (3) which receives waste after August 31, 1988, does
25 not have a permit issued by the Agency, and is (i) a
26 landfill used exclusively for the disposal of waste

09800SB2640ham001- 1239 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 generated at the site, (ii) a surface impoundment receiving
2 special waste not listed in an NPDES permit, (iii) a waste
3 pile in which the total volume of waste is greater than 100
4 cubic yards or the waste is stored for over one year, or
5 (iv) a land treatment facility receiving special waste
6 generated at the site; without giving notice of the
7 operation to the Agency by January 1, 1989, or 30 days
8 after the date on which the operation commences, whichever
9 is later, and every 3 years thereafter. The form for such
10 notification shall be specified by the Agency, and shall be
11 limited to information regarding: the name and address of
12 the location of the operation; the type of operation; the
13 types and amounts of waste stored, treated or disposed of
14 on an annual basis; the remaining capacity of the
15 operation; and the remaining expected life of the
16 operation.
17 Item (3) of this subsection (d) shall not apply to any
18person engaged in agricultural activity who is disposing of a
19substance that constitutes solid waste, if the substance was
20acquired for use by that person on his own property, and the
21substance is disposed of on his own property in accordance with
22regulations or standards adopted by the Board.
23 This subsection (d) shall not apply to hazardous waste.
24 (e) Dispose, treat, store or abandon any waste, or
25transport any waste into this State for disposal, treatment,
26storage or abandonment, except at a site or facility which

09800SB2640ham001- 1240 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1meets the requirements of this Act and of regulations and
2standards thereunder.
3 (f) Conduct any hazardous waste-storage, hazardous
4waste-treatment or hazardous waste-disposal operation:
5 (1) without a RCRA permit for the site issued by the
6 Agency under subsection (d) of Section 39 of this Act, or
7 in violation of any condition imposed by such permit,
8 including periodic reports and full access to adequate
9 records and the inspection of facilities, as may be
10 necessary to assure compliance with this Act and with
11 regulations and standards adopted thereunder; or
12 (2) in violation of any regulations or standards
13 adopted by the Board under this Act; or
14 (3) in violation of any RCRA permit filing requirement
15 established under standards adopted by the Board under this
16 Act; or
17 (4) in violation of any order adopted by the Board
18 under this Act.
19 Notwithstanding the above, no RCRA permit shall be required
20under this subsection or subsection (d) of Section 39 of this
21Act for any person engaged in agricultural activity who is
22disposing of a substance which has been identified as a
23hazardous waste, and which has been designated by Board
24regulations as being subject to this exception, if the
25substance was acquired for use by that person on his own
26property and the substance is disposed of on his own property

09800SB2640ham001- 1241 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1in accordance with regulations or standards adopted by the
2Board.
3 (g) Conduct any hazardous waste-transportation operation:
4 (1) without registering with and obtaining a special
5 waste hauling permit from the Agency in accordance with the
6 regulations adopted by the Board under this Act; or
7 (2) in violation of any regulations or standards
8 adopted by the Board under this Act.
9 (h) Conduct any hazardous waste-recycling or hazardous
10waste-reclamation or hazardous waste-reuse operation in
11violation of any regulations, standards or permit requirements
12adopted by the Board under this Act.
13 (i) Conduct any process or engage in any act which produces
14hazardous waste in violation of any regulations or standards
15adopted by the Board under subsections (a) and (c) of Section
1622.4 of this Act.
17 (j) Conduct any special waste transportation operation in
18violation of any regulations, standards or permit requirements
19adopted by the Board under this Act. However, sludge from a
20water or sewage treatment plant owned and operated by a unit of
21local government which (1) is subject to a sludge management
22plan approved by the Agency or a permit granted by the Agency,
23and (2) has been tested and determined not to be a hazardous
24waste as required by applicable State and federal laws and
25regulations, may be transported in this State without a special
26waste hauling permit, and the preparation and carrying of a

09800SB2640ham001- 1242 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1manifest shall not be required for such sludge under the rules
2of the Pollution Control Board. The unit of local government
3which operates the treatment plant producing such sludge shall
4file a semiannual report with the Agency identifying the volume
5of such sludge transported during the reporting period, the
6hauler of the sludge, and the disposal sites to which it was
7transported. This subsection (j) shall not apply to hazardous
8waste.
9 (k) Fail or refuse to pay any fee imposed under this Act.
10 (l) Locate a hazardous waste disposal site above an active
11or inactive shaft or tunneled mine or within 2 miles of an
12active fault in the earth's crust. In counties of population
13less than 225,000 no hazardous waste disposal site shall be
14located (1) within 1 1/2 miles of the corporate limits as
15defined on June 30, 1978, of any municipality without the
16approval of the governing body of the municipality in an
17official action; or (2) within 1000 feet of an existing private
18well or the existing source of a public water supply measured
19from the boundary of the actual active permitted site and
20excluding existing private wells on the property of the permit
21applicant. The provisions of this subsection do not apply to
22publicly-owned sewage works or the disposal or utilization of
23sludge from publicly-owned sewage works.
24 (m) Transfer interest in any land which has been used as a
25hazardous waste disposal site without written notification to
26the Agency of the transfer and to the transferee of the

09800SB2640ham001- 1243 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1conditions imposed by the Agency upon its use under subsection
2(g) of Section 39.
3 (n) Use any land which has been used as a hazardous waste
4disposal site except in compliance with conditions imposed by
5the Agency under subsection (g) of Section 39.
6 (o) Conduct a sanitary landfill operation which is required
7to have a permit under subsection (d) of this Section, in a
8manner which results in any of the following conditions:
9 (1) refuse in standing or flowing waters;
10 (2) leachate flows entering waters of the State;
11 (3) leachate flows exiting the landfill confines (as
12 determined by the boundaries established for the landfill
13 by a permit issued by the Agency);
14 (4) open burning of refuse in violation of Section 9 of
15 this Act;
16 (5) uncovered refuse remaining from any previous
17 operating day or at the conclusion of any operating day,
18 unless authorized by permit;
19 (6) failure to provide final cover within time limits
20 established by Board regulations;
21 (7) acceptance of wastes without necessary permits;
22 (8) scavenging as defined by Board regulations;
23 (9) deposition of refuse in any unpermitted portion of
24 the landfill;
25 (10) acceptance of a special waste without a required
26 manifest;

09800SB2640ham001- 1244 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 (11) failure to submit reports required by permits or
2 Board regulations;
3 (12) failure to collect and contain litter from the
4 site by the end of each operating day;
5 (13) failure to submit any cost estimate for the site
6 or any performance bond or other security for the site as
7 required by this Act or Board rules.
8 The prohibitions specified in this subsection (o) shall be
9enforceable by the Agency either by administrative citation
10under Section 31.1 of this Act or as otherwise provided by this
11Act. The specific prohibitions in this subsection do not limit
12the power of the Board to establish regulations or standards
13applicable to sanitary landfills.
14 (p) In violation of subdivision (a) of this Section, cause
15or allow the open dumping of any waste in a manner which
16results in any of the following occurrences at the dump site:
17 (1) litter;
18 (2) scavenging;
19 (3) open burning;
20 (4) deposition of waste in standing or flowing waters;
21 (5) proliferation of disease vectors;
22 (6) standing or flowing liquid discharge from the dump
23 site;
24 (7) deposition of:
25 (i) general construction or demolition debris as
26 defined in Section 3.160(a) of this Act; or

09800SB2640ham001- 1245 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 (ii) clean construction or demolition debris as
2 defined in Section 3.160(b) of this Act.
3 The prohibitions specified in this subsection (p) shall be
4enforceable by the Agency either by administrative citation
5under Section 31.1 of this Act or as otherwise provided by this
6Act. The specific prohibitions in this subsection do not limit
7the power of the Board to establish regulations or standards
8applicable to open dumping.
9 (q) Conduct a landscape waste composting operation without
10an Agency permit, provided, however, that no permit shall be
11required for any person:
12 (1) conducting a landscape waste composting operation
13 for landscape wastes generated by such person's own
14 activities which are stored, treated, or disposed of within
15 the site where such wastes are generated; or
16 (1.5) conducting a landscape waste composting
17 operation that (i) has no more than 25 cubic yards of
18 landscape waste, composting additives, composting
19 material, or end-product compost on-site at any one time
20 and (ii) is not engaging in commercial activity; or
21 (2) applying landscape waste or composted landscape
22 waste at agronomic rates; or
23 (2.5) operating a landscape waste composting facility
24 at a site having 10 or more occupied non-farm residences
25 within 1/2 mile of its boundaries, if the facility meets
26 all of the following criteria:

09800SB2640ham001- 1246 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 (A) the composting facility is operated by the
2 farmer on property on which the composting material is
3 utilized, and the composting facility constitutes no
4 more than 2% of the site's total acreage;
5 (A-5) any composting additives that the composting
6 facility accepts and uses at the facility are necessary
7 to provide proper conditions for composting and do not
8 exceed 10% of the total composting material at the
9 facility at any one time;
10 (B) the property on which the composting facility
11 is located, and any associated property on which the
12 compost is used, is principally and diligently devoted
13 to the production of agricultural crops and is not
14 owned, leased, or otherwise controlled by any waste
15 hauler or generator of nonagricultural compost
16 materials, and the operator of the composting facility
17 is not an employee, partner, shareholder, or in any way
18 connected with or controlled by any such waste hauler
19 or generator;
20 (C) all compost generated by the composting
21 facility is applied at agronomic rates and used as
22 mulch, fertilizer, or soil conditioner on land
23 actually farmed by the person operating the composting
24 facility, and the finished compost is not stored at the
25 composting site for a period longer than 18 months
26 prior to its application as mulch, fertilizer, or soil

09800SB2640ham001- 1247 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 conditioner;
2 (D) no fee is charged for the acceptance of
3 materials to be composted at the facility; and
4 (E) the owner or operator, by January 1, 2014 (or
5 the January 1 following commencement of operation,
6 whichever is later) and January 1 of each year
7 thereafter, registers the site with the Agency, (ii)
8 reports to the Agency on the volume of composting
9 material received and used at the site; (iii) certifies
10 to the Agency that the site complies with the
11 requirements set forth in subparagraphs (A), (A-5),
12 (B), (C), and (D) of this paragraph (2.5); and (iv)
13 certifies to the Agency that all composting material
14 was placed more than 200 feet from the nearest potable
15 water supply well, was placed outside the boundary of
16 the 10-year floodplain or on a part of the site that is
17 floodproofed, was placed at least 1/4 mile from the
18 nearest residence (other than a residence located on
19 the same property as the facility) or a lesser distance
20 from the nearest residence (other than a residence
21 located on the same property as the facility) if the
22 municipality in which the facility is located has by
23 ordinance approved a lesser distance than 1/4 mile, and
24 was placed more than 5 feet above the water table; any
25 ordinance approving a residential setback of less than
26 1/4 mile that is used to meet the requirements of this

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1 subparagraph (E) of paragraph (2.5) of this subsection
2 must specifically reference this paragraph; or
3 (3) operating a landscape waste composting facility on
4 a farm, if the facility meets all of the following
5 criteria:
6 (A) the composting facility is operated by the
7 farmer on property on which the composting material is
8 utilized, and the composting facility constitutes no
9 more than 2% of the property's total acreage, except
10 that the Board may allow a higher percentage for
11 individual sites where the owner or operator has
12 demonstrated to the Board that the site's soil
13 characteristics or crop needs require a higher rate;
14 (A-1) the composting facility accepts from other
15 agricultural operations for composting with landscape
16 waste no materials other than uncontaminated and
17 source-separated (i) crop residue and other
18 agricultural plant residue generated from the
19 production and harvesting of crops and other customary
20 farm practices, including, but not limited to, stalks,
21 leaves, seed pods, husks, bagasse, and roots and (ii)
22 plant-derived animal bedding, such as straw or
23 sawdust, that is free of manure and was not made from
24 painted or treated wood;
25 (A-2) any composting additives that the composting
26 facility accepts and uses at the facility are necessary

09800SB2640ham001- 1249 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 to provide proper conditions for composting and do not
2 exceed 10% of the total composting material at the
3 facility at any one time;
4 (B) the property on which the composting facility
5 is located, and any associated property on which the
6 compost is used, is principally and diligently devoted
7 to the production of agricultural crops and is not
8 owned, leased or otherwise controlled by any waste
9 hauler or generator of nonagricultural compost
10 materials, and the operator of the composting facility
11 is not an employee, partner, shareholder, or in any way
12 connected with or controlled by any such waste hauler
13 or generator;
14 (C) all compost generated by the composting
15 facility is applied at agronomic rates and used as
16 mulch, fertilizer or soil conditioner on land actually
17 farmed by the person operating the composting
18 facility, and the finished compost is not stored at the
19 composting site for a period longer than 18 months
20 prior to its application as mulch, fertilizer, or soil
21 conditioner;
22 (D) the owner or operator, by January 1 of each
23 year, (i) registers the site with the Agency, (ii)
24 reports to the Agency on the volume of composting
25 material received and used at the site, (iii) certifies
26 to the Agency that the site complies with the

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1 requirements set forth in subparagraphs (A), (A-1),
2 (A-2), (B), and (C) of this paragraph (q)(3), and (iv)
3 certifies to the Agency that all composting material:
4 (I) was placed more than 200 feet from the
5 nearest potable water supply well;
6 (II) was placed outside the boundary of the
7 10-year floodplain or on a part of the site that is
8 floodproofed;
9 (III) was placed either (aa) at least 1/4 mile
10 from the nearest residence (other than a residence
11 located on the same property as the facility) and
12 there are not more than 10 occupied non-farm
13 residences within 1/2 mile of the boundaries of the
14 site on the date of application or (bb) a lesser
15 distance from the nearest residence (other than a
16 residence located on the same property as the
17 facility) provided that the municipality or county
18 in which the facility is located has by ordinance
19 approved a lesser distance than 1/4 mile and there
20 are not more than 10 occupied non-farm residences
21 within 1/2 mile of the boundaries of the site on
22 the date of application; and
23 (IV) was placed more than 5 feet above the
24 water table.
25 Any ordinance approving a residential setback of
26 less than 1/4 mile that is used to meet the

09800SB2640ham001- 1251 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 requirements of this subparagraph (D) must
2 specifically reference this subparagraph.
3 For the purposes of this subsection (q), "agronomic rates"
4means the application of not more than 20 tons per acre per
5year, except that the Board may allow a higher rate for
6individual sites where the owner or operator has demonstrated
7to the Board that the site's soil characteristics or crop needs
8require a higher rate.
9 (r) Cause or allow the storage or disposal of coal
10combustion waste unless:
11 (1) such waste is stored or disposed of at a site or
12 facility for which a permit has been obtained or is not
13 otherwise required under subsection (d) of this Section; or
14 (2) such waste is stored or disposed of as a part of
15 the design and reclamation of a site or facility which is
16 an abandoned mine site in accordance with the Abandoned
17 Mined Lands and Water Reclamation Act; or
18 (3) such waste is stored or disposed of at a site or
19 facility which is operating under NPDES and Subtitle D
20 permits issued by the Agency pursuant to regulations
21 adopted by the Board for mine-related water pollution and
22 permits issued pursuant to the Federal Surface Mining
23 Control and Reclamation Act of 1977 (P.L. 95-87) or the
24 rules and regulations thereunder or any law or rule or
25 regulation adopted by the State of Illinois pursuant
26 thereto, and the owner or operator of the facility agrees

09800SB2640ham001- 1252 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 to accept the waste; and either
2 (i) such waste is stored or disposed of in
3 accordance with requirements applicable to refuse
4 disposal under regulations adopted by the Board for
5 mine-related water pollution and pursuant to NPDES and
6 Subtitle D permits issued by the Agency under such
7 regulations; or
8 (ii) the owner or operator of the facility
9 demonstrates all of the following to the Agency, and
10 the facility is operated in accordance with the
11 demonstration as approved by the Agency: (1) the
12 disposal area will be covered in a manner that will
13 support continuous vegetation, (2) the facility will
14 be adequately protected from wind and water erosion,
15 (3) the pH will be maintained so as to prevent
16 excessive leaching of metal ions, and (4) adequate
17 containment or other measures will be provided to
18 protect surface water and groundwater from
19 contamination at levels prohibited by this Act, the
20 Illinois Groundwater Protection Act, or regulations
21 adopted pursuant thereto.
22 Notwithstanding any other provision of this Title, the
23disposal of coal combustion waste pursuant to item (2) or (3)
24of this subdivision (r) shall be exempt from the other
25provisions of this Title V, and notwithstanding the provisions
26of Title X of this Act, the Agency is authorized to grant

09800SB2640ham001- 1253 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1experimental permits which include provision for the disposal
2of wastes from the combustion of coal and other materials
3pursuant to items (2) and (3) of this subdivision (r).
4 (s) After April 1, 1989, offer for transportation,
5transport, deliver, receive or accept special waste for which a
6manifest is required, unless the manifest indicates that the
7fee required under Section 22.8 of this Act has been paid.
8 (t) Cause or allow a lateral expansion of a municipal solid
9waste landfill unit on or after October 9, 1993, without a
10permit modification, granted by the Agency, that authorizes the
11lateral expansion.
12 (u) Conduct any vegetable by-product treatment, storage,
13disposal or transportation operation in violation of any
14regulation, standards or permit requirements adopted by the
15Board under this Act. However, no permit shall be required
16under this Title V for the land application of vegetable
17by-products conducted pursuant to Agency permit issued under
18Title III of this Act to the generator of the vegetable
19by-products. In addition, vegetable by-products may be
20transported in this State without a special waste hauling
21permit, and without the preparation and carrying of a manifest.
22 (v) (Blank).
23 (w) Conduct any generation, transportation, or recycling
24of construction or demolition debris, clean or general, or
25uncontaminated soil generated during construction, remodeling,
26repair, and demolition of utilities, structures, and roads that

09800SB2640ham001- 1254 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1is not commingled with any waste, without the maintenance of
2documentation identifying the hauler, generator, place of
3origin of the debris or soil, the weight or volume of the
4debris or soil, and the location, owner, and operator of the
5facility where the debris or soil was transferred, disposed,
6recycled, or treated. This documentation must be maintained by
7the generator, transporter, or recycler for 3 years. This
8subsection (w) shall not apply to (1) a permitted pollution
9control facility that transfers or accepts construction or
10demolition debris, clean or general, or uncontaminated soil for
11final disposal, recycling, or treatment, (2) a public utility
12(as that term is defined in the Public Utilities Act) or a
13municipal utility, (3) the Illinois Department of
14Transportation, or (4) a municipality or a county highway
15department, with the exception of any municipality or county
16highway department located within a county having a population
17of over 3,000,000 inhabitants or located in a county that is
18contiguous to a county having a population of over 3,000,000
19inhabitants; but it shall apply to an entity that contracts
20with a public utility, a municipal utility, the Illinois
21Department of Transportation, or a municipality or a county
22highway department. The terms "generation" and "recycling" as
23used in this subsection do not apply to clean construction or
24demolition debris when (i) used as fill material below grade
25outside of a setback zone if covered by sufficient
26uncontaminated soil to support vegetation within 30 days of the

09800SB2640ham001- 1255 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1completion of filling or if covered by a road or structure,
2(ii) solely broken concrete without protruding metal bars is
3used for erosion control, or (iii) milled asphalt or crushed
4concrete is used as aggregate in construction of the shoulder
5of a roadway. The terms "generation" and "recycling", as used
6in this subsection, do not apply to uncontaminated soil that is
7not commingled with any waste when (i) used as fill material
8below grade or contoured to grade, or (ii) used at the site of
9generation.
10(Source: P.A. 97-220, eff. 7-28-11; 98-239, eff. 8-9-13;
1198-484, eff. 8-16-13; revised 9-19-13.)
12 (415 ILCS 5/22.2) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 1022.2)
13 Sec. 22.2. Hazardous waste; fees; liability.
14 (a) There are hereby created within the State Treasury 2
15special funds to be known respectively as the "Hazardous Waste
16Fund" and the "Hazardous Waste Research Fund", constituted from
17the fees collected pursuant to this Section. In addition to the
18fees collected under this Section, the Hazardous Waste Fund
19shall include other moneys made available from any source for
20deposit into the Fund.
21 (b)(1) On and after January 1, 1989, the Agency shall
22 collect from the owner or operator of each of the following
23 sites a fee in the amount of:
24 (A) 9 cents per gallon or $18.18 per cubic yard, if
25 the hazardous waste disposal site is located off the

09800SB2640ham001- 1256 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 site where such waste was produced. The maximum amount
2 payable under this subdivision (A) with respect to the
3 hazardous waste generated by a single generator and
4 deposited in monofills is $30,000 per year. If, as a
5 result of the use of multiple monofills, waste fees in
6 excess of the maximum are assessed with respect to a
7 single waste generator, the generator may apply to the
8 Agency for a credit.
9 (B) 9 cents or $18.18 per cubic yard, if the
10 hazardous waste disposal site is located on the site
11 where such waste was produced, provided however the
12 maximum amount of fees payable under this paragraph (B)
13 is $30,000 per year for each such hazardous waste
14 disposal site.
15 (C) If the hazardous waste disposal site is an
16 underground injection well, $6,000 per year if not more
17 than 10,000,000 gallons per year are injected, $15,000
18 per year if more than 10,000,000 gallons but not more
19 than 50,000,000 gallons per year are injected, and
20 $27,000 per year if more than 50,000,000 gallons per
21 year are injected.
22 (D) 3 cents per gallon or $6.06 per cubic yard of
23 hazardous waste received for treatment at a hazardous
24 waste treatment site, if the hazardous waste treatment
25 site is located off the site where such waste was
26 produced and if such hazardous waste treatment site is

09800SB2640ham001- 1257 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 owned, controlled and operated by a person other than
2 the generator of such waste. After treatment at such
3 hazardous waste treatment site, the waste shall not be
4 subject to any other fee imposed by this subsection
5 (b). For purposes of this subsection (b), the term
6 "treatment" is defined as in Section 3.505 but shall
7 not include recycling, reclamation or reuse.
8 (2) The General Assembly shall annually appropriate to
9 the Fund such amounts as it deems necessary to fulfill the
10 purposes of this Act.
11 (3) The Agency shall have the authority to accept,
12 receive, and administer on behalf of the State any moneys
13 made available to the State from any source for the
14 purposes of the Hazardous Waste Fund set forth in
15 subsection (d) of this Section.
16 (4) Of the amount collected as fees provided for in
17 this Section, the Agency shall manage the use of such funds
18 to assure that sufficient funds are available for match
19 towards federal expenditures for response action at sites
20 which are listed on the National Priorities List; provided,
21 however, that this shall not apply to additional monies
22 appropriated to the Fund by the General Assembly, nor shall
23 it apply in the event that the Director finds that revenues
24 in the Hazardous Waste Fund must be used to address
25 conditions which create or may create an immediate danger
26 to the environment or public health or to the welfare of

09800SB2640ham001- 1258 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 the people of the State of Illinois.
2 (5) Notwithstanding the other provisions of this
3 subsection (b), sludge from a publicly-owned sewage works
4 generated in Illinois, coal mining wastes and refuse
5 generated in Illinois, bottom boiler ash, flyash and flue
6 gas desulphurization sludge from public utility electric
7 generating facilities located in Illinois, and bottom
8 boiler ash and flyash from all incinerators which process
9 solely municipal waste shall not be subject to the fee.
10 (6) For the purposes of this subsection (b), "monofill"
11 means a facility, or a unit at a facility, that accepts
12 only wastes bearing the same USEPA hazardous waste
13 identification number, or compatible wastes as determined
14 by the Agency.
15 (c) The Agency shall establish procedures, not later than
16January 1, 1984, relating to the collection of the fees
17authorized by this Section. Such procedures shall include, but
18not be limited to: (1) necessary records identifying the
19quantities of hazardous waste received or disposed; (2) the
20form and submission of reports to accompany the payment of fees
21to the Agency; and (3) the time and manner of payment of fees
22to the Agency, which payments shall be not more often than
23quarterly.
24 (d) Beginning July 1, 1996, the Agency shall deposit all
25such receipts in the State Treasury to the credit of the
26Hazardous Waste Fund, except as provided in subsection (e) of

09800SB2640ham001- 1259 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1this Section. All monies in the Hazardous Waste Fund shall be
2used by the Agency for the following purposes:
3 (1) Taking whatever preventive or corrective action is
4 necessary or appropriate, in circumstances certified by
5 the Director, including but not limited to removal or
6 remedial action whenever there is a release or substantial
7 threat of a release of a hazardous substance or pesticide;
8 provided, the Agency shall expend no more than $1,000,000
9 on any single incident without appropriation by the General
10 Assembly.
11 (2) To meet any requirements which must be met by the
12 State in order to obtain federal funds pursuant to the
13 Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation and
14 Liability Act of 1980, (P.L. 96-510).
15 (3) In an amount up to 30% of the amount collected as
16 fees provided for in this Section, for use by the Agency to
17 conduct groundwater protection activities, including
18 providing grants to appropriate units of local government
19 which are addressing protection of underground waters
20 pursuant to the provisions of this Act.
21 (4) To fund the development and implementation of the
22 model pesticide collection program under Section 19.1 of
23 the Illinois Pesticide Act.
24 (5) To the extent the Agency has received and deposited
25 monies in the Fund other than fees collected under
26 subsection (b) of this Section, to pay for the cost of

09800SB2640ham001- 1260 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 Agency employees for services provided in reviewing the
2 performance of response actions pursuant to Title XVII of
3 this Act.
4 (6) In an amount up to 15% of the fees collected
5 annually under subsection (b) of this Section, for use by
6 the Agency for administration of the provisions of this
7 Section.
8 (e) The Agency shall deposit 10% of all receipts collected
9under subsection (b) of this Section, but not to exceed
10$200,000 per year, in the State Treasury to the credit of the
11Hazardous Waste Research Fund established by this Act. Pursuant
12to appropriation, all monies in such Fund shall be used by the
13University of Illinois for the purposes set forth in this
14subsection.
15 The University of Illinois may enter into contracts with
16business, industrial, university, governmental or other
17qualified individuals or organizations to assist in the
18research and development intended to recycle, reduce the volume
19of, separate, detoxify or reduce the hazardous properties of
20hazardous wastes in Illinois. Monies in the Fund may also be
21used by the University of Illinois for technical studies,
22monitoring activities, and educational and research activities
23which are related to the protection of underground waters.
24Monies in the Hazardous Waste Research Fund may be used to
25administer the Illinois Health and Hazardous Substances
26Registry Act. Monies in the Hazardous Waste Research Fund shall

09800SB2640ham001- 1261 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1not be used for any sanitary landfill or the acquisition or
2construction of any facility. This does not preclude the
3purchase of equipment for the purpose of public demonstration
4projects. The University of Illinois shall adopt guidelines for
5cost sharing, selecting, and administering projects under this
6subsection.
7 (f) Notwithstanding any other provision or rule of law, and
8subject only to the defenses set forth in subsection (j) of
9this Section, the following persons shall be liable for all
10costs of removal or remedial action incurred by the State of
11Illinois or any unit of local government as a result of a
12release or substantial threat of a release of a hazardous
13substance or pesticide:
14 (1) the owner and operator of a facility or vessel from
15 which there is a release or substantial threat of release
16 of a hazardous substance or pesticide;
17 (2) any person who at the time of disposal, transport,
18 storage or treatment of a hazardous substance or pesticide
19 owned or operated the facility or vessel used for such
20 disposal, transport, treatment or storage from which there
21 was a release or substantial threat of a release of any
22 such hazardous substance or pesticide;
23 (3) any person who by contract, agreement, or otherwise
24 has arranged with another party or entity for transport,
25 storage, disposal or treatment of hazardous substances or
26 pesticides owned, controlled or possessed by such person at

09800SB2640ham001- 1262 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 a facility owned or operated by another party or entity
2 from which facility there is a release or substantial
3 threat of a release of such hazardous substances or
4 pesticides; and
5 (4) any person who accepts or accepted any hazardous
6 substances or pesticides for transport to disposal,
7 storage or treatment facilities or sites from which there
8 is a release or a substantial threat of a release of a
9 hazardous substance or pesticide.
10 Any monies received by the State of Illinois pursuant to
11this subsection (f) shall be deposited in the State Treasury to
12the credit of the Hazardous Waste Fund.
13 In accordance with the other provisions of this Section,
14costs of removal or remedial action incurred by a unit of local
15government may be recovered in an action before the Board
16brought by the unit of local government under subsection (i) of
17this Section. Any monies so recovered shall be paid to the unit
18of local government.
19 (g)(1) No indemnification, hold harmless, or similar
20 agreement or conveyance shall be effective to transfer from
21 the owner or operator of any vessel or facility or from any
22 person who may be liable for a release or substantial
23 threat of a release under this Section, to any other person
24 the liability imposed under this Section. Nothing in this
25 Section shall bar any agreement to insure, hold harmless or
26 indemnify a party to such agreements for any liability

09800SB2640ham001- 1263 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 under this Section.
2 (2) Nothing in this Section, including the provisions
3 of paragraph (g)(1) of this Section, shall bar a cause of
4 action that an owner or operator or any other person
5 subject to liability under this Section, or a guarantor,
6 has or would have, by reason of subrogation or otherwise
7 against any person.
8 (h) For purposes of this Section:
9 (1) The term "facility" means:
10 (A) any building, structure, installation,
11 equipment, pipe or pipeline including but not limited
12 to any pipe into a sewer or publicly owned treatment
13 works, well, pit, pond, lagoon, impoundment, ditch,
14 landfill, storage container, motor vehicle, rolling
15 stock, or aircraft; or
16 (B) any site or area where a hazardous substance
17 has been deposited, stored, disposed of, placed, or
18 otherwise come to be located.
19 (2) The term "owner or operator" means:
20 (A) any person owning or operating a vessel or
21 facility;
22 (B) in the case of an abandoned facility, any
23 person owning or operating the abandoned facility or
24 any person who owned, operated, or otherwise
25 controlled activities at the abandoned facility
26 immediately prior to such abandonment;

09800SB2640ham001- 1264 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 (C) in the case of a land trust as defined in
2 Section 2 of the Land Trustee as Creditor Act, the
3 person owning the beneficial interest in the land
4 trust;
5 (D) in the case of a fiduciary (other than a land
6 trustee), the estate, trust estate, or other interest
7 in property held in a fiduciary capacity, and not the
8 fiduciary. For the purposes of this Section,
9 "fiduciary" means a trustee, executor, administrator,
10 guardian, receiver, conservator or other person
11 holding a facility or vessel in a fiduciary capacity;
12 (E) in the case of a "financial institution",
13 meaning the Illinois Housing Development Authority and
14 that term as defined in Section 2 of the Illinois
15 Banking Act, that has acquired ownership, operation,
16 management, or control of a vessel or facility through
17 foreclosure or under the terms of a security interest
18 held by the financial institution or under the terms of
19 an extension of credit made by the financial
20 institution, the financial institution only if the
21 financial institution takes possession of the vessel
22 or facility and the financial institution exercises
23 actual, direct, and continual or recurrent managerial
24 control in the operation of the vessel or facility that
25 causes a release or substantial threat of a release of
26 a hazardous substance or pesticide resulting in

09800SB2640ham001- 1265 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 removal or remedial action;
2 (F) In the case of an owner of residential
3 property, the owner if the owner is a person other than
4 an individual, or if the owner is an individual who
5 owns more than 10 dwelling units in Illinois, or if the
6 owner, or an agent, representative, contractor, or
7 employee of the owner, has caused, contributed to, or
8 allowed the release or threatened release of a
9 hazardous substance or pesticide. The term
10 "residential property" means single family residences
11 of one to 4 dwelling units, including accessory land,
12 buildings, or improvements incidental to those
13 dwellings that are exclusively used for the
14 residential use. For purposes of this subparagraph
15 (F), the term "individual" means a natural person, and
16 shall not include corporations, partnerships, trusts,
17 or other non-natural persons.
18 (G) In the case of any facility, title or control
19 of which was conveyed due to bankruptcy, foreclosure,
20 tax delinquency, abandonment, or similar means to a
21 unit of State or local government, any person who
22 owned, operated, or otherwise controlled activities at
23 the facility immediately beforehand.
24 (H) The term "owner or operator" does not include a
25 unit of State or local government which acquired
26 ownership or control through bankruptcy, tax

09800SB2640ham001- 1266 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 delinquency, abandonment, or other circumstances in
2 which the government acquires title by virtue of its
3 function as sovereign. The exclusion provided under
4 this paragraph shall not apply to any State or local
5 government which has caused or contributed to the
6 release or threatened release of a hazardous substance
7 from the facility, and such a State or local government
8 shall be subject to the provisions of this Act in the
9 same manner and to the same extent, both procedurally
10 and substantively, as any nongovernmental entity,
11 including liability under Section 22.2(f).
12 (i) The costs and damages provided for in this Section may
13be imposed by the Board in an action brought before the Board
14in accordance with Title VIII of this Act, except that Section
1533(c) of this Act shall not apply to any such action.
16 (j)(1) There shall be no liability under this Section for a
17person otherwise liable who can establish by a preponderance of
18the evidence that the release or substantial threat of release
19of a hazardous substance and the damages resulting therefrom
20were caused solely by:
21 (A) an act of God;
22 (B) an act of war;
23 (C) an act or omission of a third party other than an
24 employee or agent of the defendant, or other than one whose
25 act or omission occurs in connection with a contractual
26 relationship, existing directly or indirectly, with the

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1 defendant (except where the sole contractual arrangement
2 arises from a published tariff and acceptance for carriage
3 by a common carrier by rail), if the defendant establishes
4 by a preponderance of the evidence that (i) he exercised
5 due care with respect to the hazardous substance concerned,
6 taking into consideration the characteristics of such
7 hazardous substance, in light of all relevant facts and
8 circumstances, and (ii) he took precautions against
9 foreseeable acts or omissions of any such third party and
10 the consequences that could foreseeably result from such
11 acts or omissions; or
12 (D) any combination of the foregoing paragraphs.
13 (2) There shall be no liability under this Section for any
14release permitted by State or federal law.
15 (3) There shall be no liability under this Section for
16damages as a result of actions taken or omitted in the course
17of rendering care, assistance, or advice in accordance with
18this Section or the National Contingency Plan pursuant to the
19Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation and
20Liability Act of 1980 (P.L. 96-510) or at the direction of an
21on-scene coordinator appointed under such plan, with respect to
22an incident creating a danger to public health or welfare or
23the environment as a result of any release of a hazardous
24substance or a substantial threat thereof. This subsection
25shall not preclude liability for damages as the result of gross
26negligence or intentional misconduct on the part of such

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1person. For the purposes of the preceding sentence, reckless,
2willful, or wanton misconduct shall constitute gross
3negligence.
4 (4) There shall be no liability under this Section for any
5person (including, but not limited to, an owner of residential
6property who applies a pesticide to the residential property or
7who has another person apply a pesticide to the residential
8property) for response costs or damages as the result of the
9storage, handling and use, or recommendation for storage,
10handling and use, of a pesticide consistent with:
11 (A) its directions for storage, handling and use as
12 stated in its label or labeling;
13 (B) its warnings and cautions as stated in its label or
14 labeling; and
15 (C) the uses for which it is registered under the
16 Federal Insecticide, Fungicide and Rodenticide Act and the
17 Illinois Pesticide Act.
18 (4.5) There shall be no liability under subdivision (f)(1)
19of this Section for response costs or damages as the result of
20a release of a pesticide from an agrichemical facility site if
21the Agency has received notice from the Department of
22Agriculture pursuant to Section 19.3 of the Illinois Pesticide
23Act, the owner or operator of the agrichemical facility is
24proceeding with a corrective action plan under the Agrichemical
25Facility Response Action Program implemented under that
26Section, and the Agency has provided a written endorsement of a

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1corrective action plan.
2 (4.6) There shall be no liability under subdivision (f)(1)
3of this Section for response costs or damages as the result of
4a substantial threat of a release of a pesticide from an
5agrichemical facility site if the Agency has received notice
6from the Department of Agriculture pursuant to Section 19.3 of
7the Illinois Pesticide Act and the owner or operator of the
8agrichemical facility is proceeding with a corrective action
9plan under the Agrichemical Facility Response Action Program
10implemented under that Section.
11 (5) Nothing in this subsection (j) shall affect or modify
12in any way the obligations or liability of any person under any
13other provision of this Act or State or federal law, including
14common law, for damages, injury, or loss resulting from a
15release or substantial threat of a release of any hazardous
16substance or for removal or remedial action or the costs of
17removal or remedial action of such hazardous substance.
18 (6)(A) The term "contractual relationship", for the
19purpose of this subsection includes, but is not limited to,
20land contracts, deeds or other instruments transferring title
21or possession, unless the real property on which the facility
22concerned is located was acquired by the defendant after the
23disposal or placement of the hazardous substance on, in, or at
24the facility, and one or more of the circumstances described in
25clause (i), (ii), or (iii) of this paragraph is also
26established by the defendant by a preponderance of the

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1evidence:
2 (i) At the time the defendant acquired the facility the
3 defendant did not know and had no reason to know that any
4 hazardous substance which is the subject of the release or
5 threatened release was disposed of on, in or at the
6 facility.
7 (ii) The defendant is a government entity which
8 acquired the facility by escheat, or through any other
9 involuntary transfer or acquisition, or through the
10 exercise of eminent domain authority by purchase or
11 condemnation.
12 (iii) The defendant acquired the facility by
13 inheritance or bequest.
14 In addition to establishing the foregoing, the defendant
15must establish that he has satisfied the requirements of
16subparagraph (C) of paragraph (l) of this subsection (j).
17 (B) To establish the defendant had no reason to know, as
18provided in clause (i) of subparagraph (A) of this paragraph,
19the defendant must have undertaken, at the time of acquisition,
20all appropriate inquiry into the previous ownership and uses of
21the property consistent with good commercial or customary
22practice in an effort to minimize liability. For purposes of
23the preceding sentence, the court shall take into account any
24specialized knowledge or experience on the part of the
25defendant, the relationship of the purchase price to the value
26of the property if uncontaminated, commonly known or reasonably

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1ascertainable information about the property, the obviousness
2of the presence or likely presence of contamination at the
3property, and the ability to detect such contamination by
4appropriate inspection.
5 (C) Nothing in this paragraph (6) or in subparagraph (C) of
6paragraph (1) of this subsection shall diminish the liability
7of any previous owner or operator of such facility who would
8otherwise be liable under this Act. Notwithstanding this
9paragraph (6), if the defendant obtained actual knowledge of
10the release or threatened release of a hazardous substance at
11such facility when the defendant owned the real property and
12then subsequently transferred ownership of the property to
13another person without disclosing such knowledge, such
14defendant shall be treated as liable under subsection (f) of
15this Section and no defense under subparagraph (C) of paragraph
16(1) of this subsection shall be available to such defendant.
17 (D) Nothing in this paragraph (6) shall affect the
18liability under this Act of a defendant who, by any act or
19omission, caused or contributed to the release or threatened
20release of a hazardous substance which is the subject of the
21action relating to the facility.
22 (E)(i) Except as provided in clause (ii) of this
23subparagraph (E), a defendant who has acquired real property
24shall have established a rebuttable presumption against all
25State claims and a conclusive presumption against all private
26party claims that the defendant has made all appropriate

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1inquiry within the meaning of subdivision (6)(B) of this
2subsection (j) if the defendant proves that immediately prior
3to or at the time of the acquisition:
4 (I) the defendant obtained a Phase I Environmental
5 Audit of the real property that meets or exceeds the
6 requirements of this subparagraph (E), and the Phase I
7 Environmental Audit did not disclose the presence or likely
8 presence of a release or a substantial threat of a release
9 of a hazardous substance or pesticide at, on, to, or from
10 the real property; or
11 (II) the defendant obtained a Phase II Environmental
12 Audit of the real property that meets or exceeds the
13 requirements of this subparagraph (E), and the Phase II
14 Environmental Audit did not disclose the presence or likely
15 presence of a release or a substantial threat of a release
16 of a hazardous substance or pesticide at, on, to, or from
17 the real property.
18 (ii) No presumption shall be created under clause (i) of
19this subparagraph (E), and a defendant shall be precluded from
20demonstrating that the defendant has made all appropriate
21inquiry within the meaning of subdivision (6)(B) of this
22subsection (j), if:
23 (I) the defendant fails to obtain all Environmental
24 Audits required under this subparagraph (E) or any such
25 Environmental Audit fails to meet or exceed the
26 requirements of this subparagraph (E);

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1 (II) a Phase I Environmental Audit discloses the
2 presence or likely presence of a release or a substantial
3 threat of a release of a hazardous substance or pesticide
4 at, on, to, or from real property, and the defendant fails
5 to obtain a Phase II Environmental Audit;
6 (III) a Phase II Environmental Audit discloses the
7 presence or likely presence of a release or a substantial
8 threat of a release of a hazardous substance or pesticide
9 at, on, to, or from the real property;
10 (IV) the defendant fails to maintain a written
11 compilation and explanatory summary report of the
12 information reviewed in the course of each Environmental
13 Audit under this subparagraph (E); or
14 (V) there is any evidence of fraud, material
15 concealment, or material misrepresentation by the
16 defendant of environmental conditions or of related
17 information discovered during the course of an
18 Environmental Audit.
19 (iii) For purposes of this subparagraph (E), the term
20"environmental professional" means an individual (other than a
21practicing attorney) who, through academic training,
22occupational experience, and reputation (such as engineers,
23industrial hygienists, or geologists) can objectively conduct
24one or more aspects of an Environmental Audit and who either:
25 (I) maintains at the time of the Environmental Audit
26 and for at least one year thereafter at least $500,000 of

09800SB2640ham001- 1274 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 environmental consultants' professional liability
2 insurance coverage issued by an insurance company licensed
3 to do business in Illinois; or
4 (II) is an Illinois licensed professional engineer or a
5 Certified Industrial Hygienist certified by the American
6 Board of Industrial Hygiene.
7 An environmental professional may employ persons who are
8not environmental professionals to assist in the preparation of
9an Environmental Audit if such persons are under the direct
10supervision and control of the environmental professional.
11 (iv) For purposes of this subparagraph (E), the term "real
12property" means any interest in any parcel of land, and
13includes, but is not limited to, buildings, fixtures, and
14improvements.
15 (v) For purposes of this subparagraph (E), the term "Phase
16I Environmental Audit" means an investigation of real property,
17conducted by environmental professionals, to discover the
18presence or likely presence of a release or a substantial
19threat of a release of a hazardous substance or pesticide at,
20on, to, or from real property, and whether a release or a
21substantial threat of a release of a hazardous substance or
22pesticide has occurred or may occur at, on, to, or from the
23real property. Until such time as the United States
24Environmental Protection Agency establishes standards for
25making appropriate inquiry into the previous ownership and uses
26of the facility pursuant to 42 U.S.C. Sec. 9601(35)(B)(ii), the

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1investigation shall comply with the procedures of the American
2Society for Testing and Materials, including the document known
3as Standard E1527-97, entitled "Standard Procedures for
4Environmental Site Assessment: Phase 1 Environmental Site
5Assessment Process". Upon their adoption, the standards
6promulgated by USEPA pursuant to 42 U.S.C. Sec. 9601(35)(B)(ii)
7shall govern the performance of Phase I Environmental Audits.
8In addition to the above requirements, the Phase I
9Environmental Audit shall include a review of recorded land
10title records for the purpose of determining whether the real
11property is subject to an environmental land use restriction
12such as a No Further Remediation Letter, Environmental Land Use
13Control, or Highway Authority Agreement.
14 (vi) For purposes of subparagraph (E), the term "Phase II
15Environmental Audit" means an investigation of real property,
16conducted by environmental professionals, subsequent to a
17Phase I Environmental Audit. If the Phase I Environmental Audit
18discloses the presence or likely presence of a hazardous
19substance or a pesticide or a release or a substantial threat
20of a release of a hazardous substance or pesticide:
21 (I) In or to soil, the defendant, as part of the Phase
22 II Environmental Audit, shall perform a series of soil
23 borings sufficient to determine whether there is a presence
24 or likely presence of a hazardous substance or pesticide
25 and whether there is or has been a release or a substantial
26 threat of a release of a hazardous substance or pesticide

09800SB2640ham001- 1276 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 at, on, to, or from the real property.
2 (II) In or to groundwater, the defendant, as part of
3 the Phase II Environmental Audit, shall: review
4 information regarding local geology, water well locations,
5 and locations of waters of the State as may be obtained
6 from State, federal, and local government records,
7 including but not limited to the United States Geological
8 Survey, the State Geological Survey of the University of
9 Illinois, and the State Water Survey of the University of
10 Illinois; and perform groundwater monitoring sufficient to
11 determine whether there is a presence or likely presence of
12 a hazardous substance or pesticide, and whether there is or
13 has been a release or a substantial threat of a release of
14 a hazardous substance or pesticide at, on, to, or from the
15 real property.
16 (III) On or to media other than soil or groundwater,
17 the defendant, as part of the Phase II Environmental Audit,
18 shall perform an investigation sufficient to determine
19 whether there is a presence or likely presence of a
20 hazardous substance or pesticide, and whether there is or
21 has been a release or a substantial threat of a release of
22 a hazardous substance or pesticide at, on, to, or from the
23 real property.
24 (vii) The findings of each Environmental Audit prepared
25under this subparagraph (E) shall be set forth in a written
26audit report. Each audit report shall contain an affirmation by

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1the defendant and by each environmental professional who
2prepared the Environmental Audit that the facts stated in the
3report are true and are made under a penalty of perjury as
4defined in Section 32-2 of the Criminal Code of 2012. It is
5perjury for any person to sign an audit report that contains a
6false material statement that the person does not believe to be
7true.
8 (viii) The Agency is not required to review, approve, or
9certify the results of any Environmental Audit. The performance
10of an Environmental Audit shall in no way entitle a defendant
11to a presumption of Agency approval or certification of the
12results of the Environmental Audit.
13 The presence or absence of a disclosure document prepared
14under the Responsible Property Transfer Act of 1988 shall not
15be a defense under this Act and shall not satisfy the
16requirements of subdivision (6)(A) of this subsection (j).
17 (7) No person shall be liable under this Section for
18response costs or damages as the result of a pesticide release
19if the Agency has found that a pesticide release occurred based
20on a Health Advisory issued by the U.S. Environmental
21Protection Agency or an action level developed by the Agency,
22unless the Agency notified the manufacturer of the pesticide
23and provided an opportunity of not less than 30 days for the
24manufacturer to comment on the technical and scientific
25justification supporting the Health Advisory or action level.
26 (8) No person shall be liable under this Section for

09800SB2640ham001- 1278 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1response costs or damages as the result of a pesticide release
2that occurs in the course of a farm pesticide collection
3program operated under Section 19.1 of the Illinois Pesticide
4Act, unless the release results from gross negligence or
5intentional misconduct.
6 (k) If any person who is liable for a release or
7substantial threat of release of a hazardous substance or
8pesticide fails without sufficient cause to provide removal or
9remedial action upon or in accordance with a notice and request
10by the Agency or upon or in accordance with any order of the
11Board or any court, such person may be liable to the State for
12punitive damages in an amount at least equal to, and not more
13than 3 times, the amount of any costs incurred by the State of
14Illinois as a result of such failure to take such removal or
15remedial action. The punitive damages imposed by the Board
16shall be in addition to any costs recovered from such person
17pursuant to this Section and in addition to any other penalty
18or relief provided by this Act or any other law.
19 Any monies received by the State pursuant to this
20subsection (k) shall be deposited in the Hazardous Waste Fund.
21 (l) Beginning January 1, 1988, and prior to January 1,
222013, the Agency shall annually collect a $250 fee for each
23Special Waste Hauling Permit Application and, in addition,
24shall collect a fee of $20 for each waste hauling vehicle
25identified in the annual permit application and for each
26vehicle which is added to the permit during the annual period.

09800SB2640ham001- 1279 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1Beginning January 1, 2013, the Agency shall issue 3-year
2Special Waste Hauling Permits instead of annual Special Waste
3Hauling Permits and shall collect a $750 fee for each Special
4Waste Hauling Permit Application. In addition, beginning
5January 1, 2013, the Agency shall collect a fee of $60 for each
6waste hauling vehicle identified in the permit application and
7for each vehicle that is added to the permit during the 3-year
8period. The Agency shall deposit 85% of such fees collected
9under this subsection in the State Treasury to the credit of
10the Hazardous Waste Research Fund; and shall deposit the
11remaining 15% of such fees collected in the State Treasury to
12the credit of the Environmental Protection Permit and
13Inspection Fund. The majority of such receipts which are
14deposited in the Hazardous Waste Research Fund pursuant to this
15subsection shall be used by the University of Illinois for
16activities which relate to the protection of underground
17waters.
18 (l-5) (Blank).
19 (m) (Blank).
20 (n) (Blank).
21(Source: P.A. 97-220, eff. 7-28-11; 97-1081, eff. 8-24-12;
2297-1150, eff. 1-25-13; 98-78, eff. 7-15-13; revised 9-19-13.)
23 (415 ILCS 5/58.16)
24 Sec. 58.16. Construction of school; requirements. This
25Section applies only to counties with a population of more than

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13,000,000. In this Section, "school" means any public school
2located in whole or in part in a county with a population of
3more than 3,000,000. No person shall commence construction on
4real property of a building intended for use as a school
5unless:
6 (1) a Phase I 1 Environmental Audit, conducted in
7 accordance with Section 22.2 of this Act, is obtained;
8 (2) if the Phase I 1 Environmental Audit discloses the
9 presence or likely presence of a release or a substantial
10 threat of a release of a regulated substance at, on, to, or
11 from the real property, a Phase II Environmental Audit,
12 conducted in accordance with Section 22.2 of this Act, is
13 obtained; and
14 (3) if the Phase II Environmental Audit discloses the
15 presence or likely presence of a release or a substantial
16 threat of a release of a regulated substance at, on, to, or
17 from the real property: , and (i) the real property is
18 enrolled in the Site Remediation Program, and (ii) the
19 remedial action plan is approved by the Agency, if a
20 remedial action plan is required by Board regulations.
21 No person shall cause or allow any person to occupy a
22building intended to be used as a school for which a remedial
23action plan is required by Board regulations unless all work
24pursuant to the remedial action plan is completed.
25(Source: P.A. 91-442, eff. 1-1-00; 92-16, eff. 6-28-01; 92-151,
26eff. 7-24-01; revised 11-14-13.)

09800SB2640ham001- 1281 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 Section 595. The Illinois Pesticide Act is amended by
2changing Section 4 as follows:
3 (415 ILCS 60/4) (from Ch. 5, par. 804)
4 Sec. 4. Definitions. As used in this Act:
5 1. "Director" means Director of the Illinois Department of
6Agriculture or his authorized representative.
7 2. "Active Ingredient" means any ingredient which will
8prevent, destroy, repel, control or mitigate a pest or which
9will act as a plant regulator, defoliant or desiccant.
10 3. "Adulterated" shall apply to any pesticide if the
11strength or purity is not within the standard of quality
12expressed on the labeling under which it is sold, distributed
13or used, including any substance which has been substituted
14wholly or in part for the pesticide as specified on the
15labeling under which it is sold, distributed or used, or if any
16valuable constituent of the pesticide has been wholly or in
17part abstracted.
18 4. "Agricultural Commodity" means produce of the land
19including but not limited to plants and plant parts, livestock
20and poultry and livestock or poultry products, seeds, sod,
21shrubs and other products of agricultural origin including the
22premises necessary to and used directly in agricultural
23production. Agricultural commodity also includes aquatic
24products as defined in the Aquaculture Development Act.

09800SB2640ham001- 1282 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 5. "Animal" means all vertebrate and invertebrate species
2including, but not limited to, man and other mammals, bird,
3fish, and shellfish.
4 6. "Beneficial Insects" means those insects which during
5their life cycle are effective pollinators of plants, predators
6of pests or are otherwise beneficial.
7 7. "Certified applicator".
8 A. "Certified applicator" means any individual who is
9 certified under this Act to purchase, use, or supervise the
10 use of pesticides which are classified for restricted use.
11 B. "Private applicator" means a certified applicator
12 who purchases, uses, or supervises the use of any pesticide
13 classified for restricted use, for the purpose of producing
14 any agricultural commodity on property owned, rented, or
15 otherwise controlled by him or his employer, or applied to
16 other property if done without compensation other than
17 trading of personal services between no more than 2
18 producers of agricultural commodities.
19 C. "Licensed Commercial Applicator" means a certified
20 applicator, whether or not he is a private applicator with
21 respect to some uses, who owns or manages a business that
22 is engaged in applying pesticides, whether classified for
23 general or restricted use, for hire. The term also applies
24 to a certified applicator who uses or supervises the use of
25 pesticides, whether classified for general or restricted
26 use, for any purpose or on property of others excluding

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1 those specified by subparagraphs 7 (B), (D), (E) of Section
2 4 of this Act.
3 D. "Commercial Not For Hire Applicator" means a
4 certified applicator who uses or supervises the use of
5 pesticides classified for general or restricted use for any
6 purpose on property of an employer when such activity is a
7 requirement of the terms of employment and such application
8 of pesticides under this certification is limited to
9 property under the control of the employer only and
10 includes, but is not limited to, the use or supervision of
11 the use of pesticides in a greenhouse setting.
12 E. "Licensed Public Applicator" means a certified
13 applicator who uses or supervises the use of pesticides
14 classified for general or restricted use as an employee of
15 a state agency, municipality, or other duly constituted
16 governmental agency or unit.
17 8. "Defoliant" means any substance or combination of
18substances which cause leaves or foliage to drop from a plant
19with or without causing abscission.
20 9. "Desiccant" means any substance or combination of
21substances intended for artificially accelerating the drying
22of plant tissue.
23 10. "Device" means any instrument or contrivance, other
24than a firearm or equipment for application of pesticides when
25sold separately from pesticides, which is intended for
26trapping, repelling, destroying, or mitigating any pest, other

09800SB2640ham001- 1284 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1than bacteria, virus, or other microorganisms on or living in
2man or other living animals.
3 11. "Distribute" means offer or hold for sale, sell,
4barter, ship, deliver for shipment, receive and then deliver,
5or offer to deliver pesticides, within the State.
6 12. "Environment" includes water, air, land, and all plants
7and animals including man, living therein and the
8interrelationships which exist among these.
9 13. "Equipment" means any type of instruments and
10contrivances using motorized, mechanical or pressure power
11which is used to apply any pesticide, excluding pressurized
12hand-size household apparatus containing dilute ready to apply
13pesticide or used to apply household pesticides.
14 14. "FIFRA" means the "Federal Insecticide Fungicide
15Rodenticide Act", as amended.
16 15. "Fungi" means any non-chlorophyll bearing
17thallophytes, any non-chlorophyll bearing plant of a lower
18order than mosses or liverworts, as for example rust, smut,
19mildew, mold, yeast and bacteria, except those on or in living
20animals including man and those on or in processed foods,
21beverages or pharmaceuticals.
22 16. "Household Substance" means any pesticide customarily
23produced and distributed for use by individuals in or about the
24household.
25 17. "Imminent Hazard" means a situation which exists when
26continued use of a pesticide would likely result in

09800SB2640ham001- 1285 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1unreasonable adverse effect on the environment or will involve
2unreasonable hazard to the survival of a species declared
3endangered by the U.S. Secretary of the Interior or to species
4declared to be protected by the Illinois Department of Natural
5Resources.
6 18. "Inert Ingredient" means an ingredient which is not an
7active ingredient.
8 19. "Ingredient Statement" means a statement of the name
9and percentage of each active ingredient together with the
10total percentage of inert ingredients in a pesticide and for
11pesticides containing arsenic in any form, the ingredient
12statement shall include percentage of total and water soluble
13arsenic, each calculated as elemental arsenic. In the case of
14spray adjuvants the ingredient statement need contain only the
15names of the functioning agents and the total percent of those
16constituents ineffective as spray adjuvants.
17 20. "Insect" means any of the numerous small invertebrate
18animals generally having the body more or less obviously
19segmented for the most part belonging to the class Insects,
20comprised of six-legged, usually winged forms, as for example
21beetles, caterpillars, and flies. This definition encompasses
22other allied classes of arthropods whose members are wingless
23and usually have more than 6 legs as for example spiders,
24mites, ticks, centipedes, and millipedes.
25 21. "Label" means the written, printed or graphic matter on
26or attached to the pesticide or device or any of its containers

09800SB2640ham001- 1286 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1or wrappings.
2 22. "Labeling" means the label and all other written,
3printed or graphic matter: (a) on the pesticide or device or
4any of its containers or wrappings, (b) accompanying the
5pesticide or device or referring to it in any other media used
6to disseminate information to the public, (c) to which
7reference is made to the pesticide or device except when
8references are made to current official publications of the U.
9S. Environmental Protection Agency, Departments of
10Agriculture, Health, Education and Welfare or other Federal
11Government institutions, the state experiment station or
12colleges of agriculture or other similar state institution
13authorized to conduct research in the field of pesticides.
14 23. "Land" means all land and water area including
15airspace, and all plants, animals, structures, buildings,
16contrivances, and machinery appurtenant thereto or situated
17thereon, fixed or mobile, including any used for
18transportation.
19 24. "Licensed Operator" means a person employed to apply
20pesticides to the lands of others under the direction of a
21"licensed commercial applicator" or a "licensed public
22applicator" or a "licensed commercial not-for-hire
23applicator".
24 25. "Nematode" means invertebrate animals of the phylum
25nemathelminthes and class nematoda, also referred to as nemas
26or eelworms, which are unsegmented roundworms with elongated

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1fusiform or sac-like bodies covered with cuticle and inhabiting
2soil, water, plants or plant parts.
3 26. "Permit" means a written statement issued by the
4Director or his authorized agent, authorizing certain acts of
5pesticide purchase or of pesticide use or application on an a
6interim basis prior to normal certification, registration, or
7licensing.
8 27. "Person" means any individual, partnership,
9association, fiduciary, corporation, or any organized group of
10persons whether incorporated or not.
11 28. "Pest" means (a) any insect, rodent, nematode, fungus,
12weed, or (b) any other form of terrestrial or aquatic plant or
13animal life or virus, bacteria, or other microorganism,
14excluding virus, bacteria, or other microorganism on or in
15living animals including man, which the Director declares to be
16a pest.
17 29. "Pesticide" means any substance or mixture of
18substances intended for preventing, destroying, repelling, or
19mitigating any pest or any substance or mixture of substances
20intended for use as a plant regulator, defoliant or desiccant.
21 30. "Pesticide Dealer" means any person who distributes
22registered pesticides to the user.
23 31. "Plant Regulator" means any substance or mixture of
24substances intended through physiological action to affect the
25rate of growth or maturation or otherwise alter the behavior of
26ornamental or crop plants or the produce thereof. This does not

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1include substances which are not intended as plant nutrient
2trace elements, nutritional chemicals, plant or seed
3inoculants or soil conditioners or amendments.
4 32. "Protect Health and Environment" means to guard against
5any unreasonable adverse effects on the environment.
6 33. "Registrant" means person who has registered any
7pesticide pursuant to the provision of FIFRA and this Act.
8 34. "Restricted Use Pesticide" means any pesticide with one
9or more of its uses classified as restricted by order of the
10Administrator of USEPA.
11 35. "SLN Registration" means registration of a pesticide
12for use under conditions of special local need as defined by
13FIFRA.
14 36. "State Restricted Pesticide Use" means any pesticide
15use which the Director determines, subsequent to public
16hearing, that an additional restriction for that use is needed
17to prevent unreasonable adverse effects.
18 37. "Structural Pest" means any pests which attack and
19destroy buildings and other structures or which attack
20clothing, stored food, commodities stored at food
21manufacturing and processing facilities or manufactured and
22processed goods.
23 38. "Unreasonable Adverse Effects on the Environment"
24means the unreasonable risk to the environment, including man,
25from the use of any pesticide, when taking into account accrued
26benefits of as well as the economic, social, and environmental

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1costs of its use.
2 39. "USEPA" means United States Environmental Protection
3Agency.
4 40. "Use inconsistent with the label" means to use a
5pesticide in a manner not consistent with the label
6instruction, the definition adopted in FIFRA as interpreted by
7USEPA shall apply in Illinois.
8 41. "Weed" means any plant growing in a place where it is
9not wanted.
10 42. "Wildlife" means all living things, not human,
11domestic, or pests.
12 43. "Bulk pesticide" means any registered pesticide which
13is transported or held in an individual container in undivided
14quantities of greater than 55 U.S. gallons liquid measure or
15100 pounds net dry weight.
16 44. "Bulk repackaging" means the transfer of a registered
17pesticide from one bulk container (containing undivided
18quantities of greater than 100 U.S. gallons liquid measure or
19100 pounds net dry weight) to another bulk container
20(containing undivided quantities of greater than 100 U.S.
21gallons liquid measure or 100 pounds net dry weight) in an
22unaltered state in preparation for sale or distribution to
23another person.
24 45. "Business" means any individual, partnership,
25corporation or association engaged in a business operation for
26the purpose of selling or distributing pesticides or providing

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1the service of application of pesticides in this State.
2 46. "Facility" means any building or structure and all real
3property contiguous thereto, including all equipment fixed
4thereon used for the operation of the business.
5 47. "Chemigation" means the application of a pesticide
6through the systems or equipment employed for the primary
7purpose of irrigation of land and crops.
8 48. "Use" means any activity covered by the pesticide label
9including but not limited to application of pesticide, mixing
10and loading, storage of pesticides or pesticide containers,
11disposal of pesticides and pesticide containers and reentry
12into treated sites or areas.
13(Source: P.A. 92-113, eff. 7-20-01; revised 11-14-13.)
14 Section 600. The Firearm Owners Identification Card Act is
15amended by changing Section 8 as follows:
16 (430 ILCS 65/8) (from Ch. 38, par. 83-8)
17 Sec. 8. Grounds for denial and revocation. The Department
18of State Police has authority to deny an application for or to
19revoke and seize a Firearm Owner's Identification Card
20previously issued under this Act only if the Department finds
21that the applicant or the person to whom such card was issued
22is or was at the time of issuance:
23 (a) A person under 21 years of age who has been
24 convicted of a misdemeanor other than a traffic offense or

09800SB2640ham001- 1291 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 adjudged delinquent;
2 (b) A person under 21 years of age who does not have
3 the written consent of his parent or guardian to acquire
4 and possess firearms and firearm ammunition, or whose
5 parent or guardian has revoked such written consent, or
6 where such parent or guardian does not qualify to have a
7 Firearm Owner's Identification Card;
8 (c) A person convicted of a felony under the laws of
9 this or any other jurisdiction;
10 (d) A person addicted to narcotics;
11 (e) A person who has been a patient of a mental health
12 facility within the past 5 years or a person who has been a
13 patient in a mental health facility more than 5 years ago
14 who has not received the certification required under
15 subsection (u) of this Section. An active law enforcement
16 officer employed by a unit of government who is denied,
17 revoked, or has his or her Firearm Owner's Identification
18 Card seized under this subsection (e) may obtain relief as
19 described in subsection (c-5) of Section 10 of this Act if
20 the officer did not act in a manner threatening to the
21 officer, another person, or the public as determined by the
22 treating clinical psychologist or physician, and the
23 officer seeks mental health treatment;
24 (f) A person whose mental condition is of such a nature
25 that it poses a clear and present danger to the applicant,
26 any other person or persons or the community;

09800SB2640ham001- 1292 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 (g) A person who is intellectually disabled;
2 (h) A person who intentionally makes a false statement
3 in the Firearm Owner's Identification Card application;
4 (i) An alien who is unlawfully present in the United
5 States under the laws of the United States;
6 (i-5) An alien who has been admitted to the United
7 States under a non-immigrant visa (as that term is defined
8 in Section 101(a)(26) of the Immigration and Nationality
9 Act (8 U.S.C. 1101(a)(26))), except that this subsection
10 (i-5) does not apply to any alien who has been lawfully
11 admitted to the United States under a non-immigrant visa if
12 that alien is:
13 (1) admitted to the United States for lawful
14 hunting or sporting purposes;
15 (2) an official representative of a foreign
16 government who is:
17 (A) accredited to the United States Government
18 or the Government's mission to an international
19 organization having its headquarters in the United
20 States; or
21 (B) en route to or from another country to
22 which that alien is accredited;
23 (3) an official of a foreign government or
24 distinguished foreign visitor who has been so
25 designated by the Department of State;
26 (4) a foreign law enforcement officer of a friendly

09800SB2640ham001- 1293 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 foreign government entering the United States on
2 official business; or
3 (5) one who has received a waiver from the Attorney
4 General of the United States pursuant to 18 U.S.C.
5 922(y)(3);
6 (j) (Blank);
7 (k) A person who has been convicted within the past 5
8 years of battery, assault, aggravated assault, violation
9 of an order of protection, or a substantially similar
10 offense in another jurisdiction, in which a firearm was
11 used or possessed;
12 (l) A person who has been convicted of domestic
13 battery, aggravated domestic battery, or a substantially
14 similar offense in another jurisdiction committed before,
15 on or after January 1, 2012 (the effective date of Public
16 Act 97-158). If the applicant or person who has been
17 previously issued a Firearm Owner's Identification Card
18 under this Act knowingly and intelligently waives the right
19 to have an offense described in this paragraph (l) tried by
20 a jury, and by guilty plea or otherwise, results in a
21 conviction for an offense in which a domestic relationship
22 is not a required element of the offense but in which a
23 determination of the applicability of 18 U.S.C. 922(g)(9)
24 is made under Section 112A-11.1 of the Code of Criminal
25 Procedure of 1963, an entry by the court of a judgment of
26 conviction for that offense shall be grounds for denying an

09800SB2640ham001- 1294 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 application for and for revoking and seizing a Firearm
2 Owner's Identification Card previously issued to the
3 person under this Act;
4 (m) (Blank);
5 (n) A person who is prohibited from acquiring or
6 possessing firearms or firearm ammunition by any Illinois
7 State statute or by federal law;
8 (o) A minor subject to a petition filed under Section
9 5-520 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 alleging that the
10 minor is a delinquent minor for the commission of an
11 offense that if committed by an adult would be a felony;
12 (p) An adult who had been adjudicated a delinquent
13 minor under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 for the
14 commission of an offense that if committed by an adult
15 would be a felony;
16 (q) A person who is not a resident of the State of
17 Illinois, except as provided in subsection (a-10) of
18 Section 4;
19 (r) A person who has been adjudicated as a mentally
20 disabled person;
21 (s) A person who has been found to be developmentally
22 disabled;
23 (t) A person involuntarily admitted into a mental
24 health facility; or
25 (u) A person who has had his or her Firearm Owner's
26 Identification Card revoked or denied under subsection (e)

09800SB2640ham001- 1295 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 of this Section or item (iv) of paragraph (2) of subsection
2 (a) of Section 4 of this Act because he or she was a
3 patient in a mental health facility as provided in item (2)
4 of subsection (e) of this Section, shall not be permitted
5 to obtain a Firearm Owner's Identification Card, after the
6 5-year 5 year period has lapsed, unless he or she has
7 received a mental health evaluation by a physician,
8 clinical psychologist, or qualified examiner as those
9 terms are defined in the Mental Health and Developmental
10 Disabilities Code, and has received a certification that he
11 or she is not a clear and present danger to himself,
12 herself, or others. The physician, clinical psychologist,
13 or qualified examiner making the certification and his or
14 her employer shall not be held criminally, civilly, or
15 professionally liable for making or not making the
16 certification required under this subsection, except for
17 willful or wanton misconduct. This subsection does not
18 apply to a person whose firearm possession rights have been
19 restored through administrative or judicial action under
20 Section 10 or 11 of this Act. ; or
21 (v) Upon revocation of a person's Firearm Owner's
22Identification Card, the Department of State Police shall
23provide notice to the person and the person shall comply with
24Section 9.5 of this Act.
25(Source: P.A. 97-158, eff. 1-1-12; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-813,
26eff. 7-13-12; 97-1131, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1167, eff. 6-1-13;

09800SB2640ham001- 1296 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
198-63, eff. 7-9-13; 98-508, eff. 8-19-13; revised 9-24-13.)
2 Section 605. The Firearm Concealed Carry Act is amended by
3changing Sections 25, 35, 50, and 70 as follows:
4 (430 ILCS 66/25)
5 Sec. 25. Qualifications for a license.
6 The Department shall issue a license to an applicant
7completing an application in accordance with Section 30 of this
8Act if the person:
9 (1) is at least 21 years of age;
10 (2) has a currently valid Firearm Owner's
11 Identification Card and at the time of application meets
12 the requirements for the issuance of a Firearm Owner's
13 Identification Card and is not prohibited under the Firearm
14 Owners Identification Card Act or federal law from
15 possessing or receiving a firearm;
16 (3) has not been convicted or found guilty in this
17 State or in any other state of:
18 (A) a misdemeanor involving the use or threat of
19 physical force or violence to any person within the 5
20 years preceding the date of the license application; or
21 (B) 2 or more violations related to driving while
22 under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs,
23 intoxicating compound or compounds, or any combination
24 thereof, within the 5 years preceding the date of the

09800SB2640ham001- 1297 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 license application; and
2 (4) is not the subject of a pending arrest warrant,
3 prosecution, or proceeding for an offense or action that
4 could lead to disqualification to own or possess a firearm;
5 (5) has not been in residential or court-ordered
6 treatment for alcoholism, alcohol detoxification, or drug
7 treatment within the 5 years immediately preceding the date
8 of the license application; and
9 (6) has completed firearms training and any education
10 component required under Section 75 of this Act.
11(Source: P.A. 98-63, eff. 7-9-13; revised 11-12-13.)
12 (430 ILCS 66/35)
13 Sec. 35. Investigation of the applicant.
14 The Department shall conduct a background check of the
15applicant to ensure compliance with the requirements of this
16Act and all federal, State, and local laws. The background
17check shall include a search of the following:
18 (1) the National Instant Criminal Background Check
19 System of the Federal Bureau of Investigation;
20 (2) all available state and local criminal history
21 record information files, including records of juvenile
22 adjudications;
23 (3) all available federal, state, and local records
24 regarding wanted persons;
25 (4) all available federal, state, and local records of

09800SB2640ham001- 1298 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 domestic violence restraining and protective orders;
2 (5) the files of the Department of Human Services
3 relating to mental health and developmental disabilities;
4 and
5 (6) all other available records of a federal, state, or
6 local agency or other public entity in any jurisdiction
7 likely to contain information relevant to whether the
8 applicant is prohibited from purchasing, possessing, or
9 carrying a firearm under federal, state, or local law.
10 (7) Fingerprints collected under Section 30 shall be
11checked against the Department of State Police and Federal
12Bureau of Investigation criminal history record databases now
13and hereafter filed. The Department shall charge applicants a
14fee for conducting the criminal history records check, which
15shall be deposited in the State Police Services Fund and shall
16not exceed the actual cost of the records check.
17(Source: P.A. 98-63, eff. 7-9-13; revised 11-12-13.)
18 (430 ILCS 66/50)
19 Sec. 50. License renewal. Applications for renewal of a
20license shall be made to the Department. A license shall be
21renewed for a period of 5 years upon receipt of a completed
22renewal application, completion of 3 hours of training required
23under Section 75 of this Act Section, payment of the applicable
24renewal fee, and completion of an investigation under Section
2535 of this Act. The renewal application shall contain the

09800SB2640ham001- 1299 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1information required in Section 30 of this Act, except that the
2applicant need not resubmit a full set of fingerprints.
3(Source: P.A. 98-63, eff. 7-9-13; revised 11-12-13.)
4 (430 ILCS 66/70)
5 Sec. 70. Violations.
6 (a) A license issued or renewed under this Act shall be
7revoked if, at any time, the licensee is found to be ineligible
8for a license under this Act or the licensee no longer meets
9the eligibility requirements of the Firearm Owners
10Identification Card Act.
11 (b) A license shall be suspended if an order of protection,
12including an emergency order of protection, plenary order of
13protection, or interim order of protection under Article 112A
14of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963 or under the Illinois
15Domestic Violence Act of 1986, is issued against a licensee for
16the duration of the order, or if the Department is made aware
17of a similar order issued against the licensee in any other
18jurisdiction. If an order of protection is issued against a
19licensee, the licensee shall surrender the license, as
20applicable, to the court at the time the order is entered or to
21the law enforcement agency or entity serving process at the
22time the licensee is served the order. The court, law
23enforcement agency, or entity responsible for serving the order
24of protection shall notify the Department within 7 days and
25transmit the license to the Department.

09800SB2640ham001- 1300 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 (c) A license is invalid upon expiration of the license,
2unless the licensee has submitted an application to renew the
3license, and the applicant is otherwise eligible to possess a
4license under this Act.
5 (d) A licensee shall not carry a concealed firearm while
6under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs,
7intoxicating compound or combination of compounds, or any
8combination thereof, under the standards set forth in
9subsection (a) of Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.
10 A licensee in violation of this subsection (d) shall be
11guilty of a Class A misdemeanor for a first or second violation
12and a Class 4 felony for a third violation. The Department may
13suspend a license for up to 6 months for a second violation and
14shall permanently revoke a license for a third violation.
15 (e) Except as otherwise provided, a licensee in violation
16of this Act shall be guilty of a Class B misdemeanor. A second
17or subsequent violation is a Class A misdemeanor. The
18Department may suspend a license for up to 6 months for a
19second violation and shall permanently revoke a license for 3
20or more violations of Section 65 of this Act. Any person
21convicted of a violation under this Section shall pay a $150
22fee to be deposited into the Mental Health Reporting Fund, plus
23any applicable court costs or fees.
24 (f) A licensee convicted or found guilty of a violation of
25this Act who has a valid license and is otherwise eligible to
26carry a concealed firearm shall only be subject to the

09800SB2640ham001- 1301 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1penalties under this Section and shall not be subject to the
2penalties under Section 21-6, paragraph (4), (8), or (10) of
3subsection (a) of Section 24-1, or subparagraph (A-5) or (B-5)
4of paragraph (3) of subsection (a) of Section 24-1.6 of the
5Criminal Code of 2012. Except as otherwise provided in this
6subsection, nothing in this subsection prohibits the licensee
7from being subjected to penalties for violations other than
8those specified in this Act.
9 (g) A licensee whose license is revoked, suspended, or
10denied shall, within 48 hours of receiving notice of the
11revocation, suspension, or denial, surrender his or her
12concealed carry license to the local law enforcement agency
13where the person resides. The local law enforcement agency
14shall provide the licensee a receipt and transmit the concealed
15carry license to the Department of State Police. If the
16licensee whose concealed carry license has been revoked,
17suspended, or denied fails to comply with the requirements of
18this subsection, the law enforcement agency where the person
19resides may petition the circuit court to issue a warrant to
20search for and seize the concealed carry license in the
21possession and under the custody or control of the licensee
22whose concealed carry license has been revoked, suspended, or
23denied. The observation of a concealed carry license in the
24possession of a person whose license has been revoked,
25suspended, or denied constitutes a sufficient basis for the
26arrest of that person for violation of this subsection. A

09800SB2640ham001- 1302 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1violation of this subsection is a Class A misdemeanor.
2 (h) A license issued or renewed under this Act shall be
3revoked if, at any time, the licensee is found ineligible for a
4Firearm Owner's Identification Card, or the licensee no longer
5possesses a valid Firearm Owner's Identification Card. A
6licensee whose license is revoked under this subsection (h)
7shall surrender his or her concealed carry license as provided
8for in subsection (g) of this Section.
9 This subsection shall not apply to a person who has filed
10an application with the State Police for renewal of a Firearm
11Owner's Identification Card and who is not otherwise ineligible
12to obtain a Firearm Owner's Identification Card.
13(Source: P.A. 98-63, eff. 7-9-13; revised 11-12-13.)
14 Section 610. The Boiler and Pressure Vessel Safety Act is
15amended by changing Section 5 as follows:
16 (430 ILCS 75/5) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 3206)
17 Sec. 5. Exemptions.
18 (a) This Act shall not apply to the following boilers and
19pressure vessels:
20 (1) Boilers and pressure vessels under federal
21 regulations, except for boiler and pressure vessels in
22 nuclear facilities subject to Section 2a, and boilers and
23 pressure vessels located in cities of more than 500,000
24 inhabitants.

09800SB2640ham001- 1303 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 (2) Pressure vessels used for transportation and
2 storage of compressed or liquefied gases when constructed
3 in compliance with specifications of the Department of
4 Transportation and charged with gas or liquid, marked,
5 maintained, and periodically requalified for use, as
6 required by appropriate regulations of the Department of
7 Transportation.
8 (3) Pressure vessels located on vehicles operating
9 under the rules of other State authorities and used for
10 carrying passengers or freight.
11 (4) Pressure vessels installed on the right of way of
12 railroads and used directly in the operation of trains.
13 (5) Boilers and pressure vessels under the inspection
14 jurisdiction of the Department of Natural Resources and
15 located on mine property.
16 (6) Boilers and pressure vessels located on farms and
17 used solely for agricultural purposes.
18 (7) Steam boilers of a miniature model locomotive,
19 boat, tractor, or stationary engine constructed and
20 maintained as a hobby and not for commercial use, that have
21 an inside diameter not exceeding 12 inches and a grate area
22 not exceeding 1 1/2 square feet, provided they are
23 constantly attended while in operation and are equipped
24 with a water level indicator, pressure gauge, and a safety
25 valve of adequate capacity.
26 (8) Pressure vessels regulated and inspected under the

09800SB2640ham001- 1304 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 Illinois Fertilizer Act of 1961.
2 (9) Pressure vessels containing liquefied liquified
3 petroleum gas regulated under the Liquefied Liquified
4 Petroleum Gas Regulation Act.
5 (b) The following boilers and pressure vessels shall be
6exempt from the requirements of Sections 10, 11, 12, and 13 of
7this Act:
8 (1) Steam boilers used for heating purposes and
9 operated at a pressure not in excess of 15 pounds per
10 square inch gauge (psig) and having a rating not in excess
11 of 200,000 B.T.U. per hour input.
12 (2) Hot water heating boilers operated at a pressure
13 not in excess of 30 psig and having a rating not in excess
14 of 200,000 B.T.U. per hour.
15 (3) Boilers and pressure vessels, located in private
16 residences or in multi-family buildings having fewer than 6
17 dwelling units.
18 (4) Hot water supply boilers that are directly fired
19 with oil, gas, or electricity when none of the following
20 limitations are exceeded:
21 (A) Heat input of 200,000 BTU per hour.
22 (B) Water temperature of 200 degrees Fahrenheit.
23 (C) Nominal water containing capacity of 120 U.S.
24 gallons.
25 (5) Coil type hot water boilers where the water can
26 flash into steam when released directly to the atmosphere

09800SB2640ham001- 1305 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 through a manually operated nozzle provided the following
2 conditions are met:
3 (A) There is no drum, headers, or other steam
4 space.
5 (B) No steam is generated within the coil.
6 (C) Outside diameter of tubing does not exceed 1
7 inch.
8 (D) Pipe size does not exceed 3/4 inch NPS.
9 (E) Water capacity of unit does not exceed 6 U.S.
10 gallons.
11 (F) Water temperature does not exceed 350 degrees
12 Fahrenheit.
13 (6) Pressure vessels containing only water under
14 pressure for domestic supply purposes, including those
15 containing air, the compression of which serves only a
16 cushion or airlift pumping function.
17 (7) Pressure vessels operated at a pressure not
18 exceeding 15 psig with no limitation on size.
19 (8) Pressure vessels that do not exceed:
20 (A) Both a volume of 15 cubic feet and 250 psig
21 when not located in a place of public assembly.
22 (B) Both a volume of 5 cubic and 250 psig when
23 located in a place of public assembly.
24 (C) A volume of 1 1/2 cubic feet or an inside
25 diameter of 6 inches with no limitation on pressure.
26 (9) Water conditioning equipment used for the removal

09800SB2640ham001- 1306 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 of minerals, chemicals, or organic or inorganic particles
2 from water by means other than application of heat
3 including, without limitation, water softeners, water
4 filters, dealkalizers, and demineralizers.
5 (10) Steam boilers of railroad locomotives and
6 traction engines built prior to 1955 that were constructed
7 or operated in compliance with the Federal Locomotive
8 Inspection Law and are in the permanent collection of a
9 museum or historical association are exempt from the
10 requirements of subsection (c) of Section 10 upon proof of
11 such construction or inspection being furnished to the
12 Board.
13 (c) (Blank).
14(Source: P.A. 94-748, eff. 5-8-06; revised 11-12-13.)
15 Section 615. The Carnival and Amusement Rides Safety Act is
16amended by changing Sections 2-8.1, 2-12, and 2-15 as follows:
17 (430 ILCS 85/2-8.1)
18 Sec. 2-8.1. Suspension and revocation of permit to operate.
19 (a) The Department shall have the power to suspend or
20revoke an owner's permit for any good cause under the meaning
21and purpose of this Act. If a person whose permit has been
22suspended or revoked, or whose application for a permit has
23been denied, believes that the violation or condition
24justifying suspension, revocation, or denial of the permit does

09800SB2640ham001- 1307 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1not exist, the person may apply to the Department for
2reconsideration through a hearing within 10 working days after
3the Department's action. A hearing shall be scheduled, unless
4otherwise mutually agreed by the parties, within 48 hours after
5the request for hearing.
6 (b) Service of notice of a hearing shall be made by
7personal service or certified mail to the address shown on the
8application for permit, or to any other address on file with
9the Department and reasonably believed to be the current
10address of the permit holder.
11 (c) The written notice of a hearing shall specify the time,
12date, and location of the hearing and the reasons for the
13action proposed by the Department.
14 (d) At the hearing, the Department shall have the burden of
15establishing good cause for its action. Good cause exists if
16the Department establishes that the permit holder has failed to
17comply with the requirements of a permit under this Act and its
18rules.
19 (e) All hearings held under this Section shall comply with
20Article 10 of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act and the
21Department's rules of procedure in administrative hearings,
22except that formal discovery, such as production requests,
23interrogatories, requests to admit, and depositions shall not
24be allowed. The parties shall exchange documents and witness
25lists prior to hearing and may request third party subpoenas to
26be issued.

09800SB2640ham001- 1308 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 (f) The final determination by the Department of Labor
2shall be rendered within 5 working days after the conclusion of
3the hearing.
4 (g) Final determinations made under this Section are
5subject to the Administrative Review Law.
6(Source: P.A. 98-541, eff. 8-23-13; revised 11-14-13.)
7 (430 ILCS 85/2-12) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 4062)
8 Sec. 2-12. Order for cessation of operation of amusement
9ride or attraction.
10 (a) The Department of Labor may order, in writing, a
11temporary and immediate cessation of operation of any amusement
12ride or amusement attraction if it:
13 (1) has been determined after inspection to be
14 hazardous or unsafe;
15 (2) is in operation before the Director has issued a
16 permit to operate such equipment; or
17 (3) the owner or operator is not in compliance with the
18 insurance requirements contained in Section 2-14 of this
19 Act and any rules or regulations adopted hereunder.
20 (b) Operation of the amusement ride or amusement attraction
21shall not resume until:
22 (1) the unsafe or hazardous condition is corrected to
23 the satisfaction of the Director or such inspector;
24 (2) the Director has issued a permit to operate such
25 equipment; or

09800SB2640ham001- 1309 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 (3) the owner or operator is in compliance with the
2 insurance requirements contained in Section 2-14 of this
3 Act and any rules or regulations adopted hereunder,
4 respectively.
5 (c) The Department shall notify the owner or operator in
6writing of the grounds for the cessation of operation of the
7amusement ride or attraction and of the conditions in need of
8correction at the time the order for cessation is issued.
9 (d) The owner or operator may appeal an order of cessation
10by filing a request for a hearing. The Department shall afford
11the owner or operator 10 working days after the date of the
12notice to request a hearing. Upon written request for hearing,
13the Department shall schedule a formal administrative hearing
14in compliance with Article 10 of the Illinois Administrative
15Procedure Act and pursuant to the provisions of the
16Department's rules of procedure in administrative hearings,
17except that formal discovery, such as production requests,
18interrogatories, requests to admit, and depositions will not be
19allowed. The parties shall exchange documents and witness lists
20prior to hearing and may request third party subpoenas to be
21issued.
22 (e) The final determination by the Department of Labor
23shall be rendered within 5 working days after the conclusion of
24the hearing.
25 (f) The provisions of the Administrative Review Law shall
26apply to and govern all proceedings for the judicial review of

09800SB2640ham001- 1310 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1a final determination under this Section.
2(Source: P.A. 98-541, eff. 8-23-13; revised 11-15-13.)
3 (430 ILCS 85/2-15) (from Ch. 111 1/2, par. 4065)
4 Sec. 2-15. Penalties.
5 (a) Criminal penalties.
6 1. Any person who operates an amusement ride or
7 amusement attraction at a carnival or fair without having
8 obtained a permit from the Department or who violates any
9 order or rule issued by the Department under this Act is
10 guilty of a Class A misdemeanor. Each day shall constitute
11 a separate and distinct offense.
12 2. Any person who interferes with, impedes, or
13 obstructs in any manner the Director or any authorized
14 representative of the Department in the performance of
15 their duties under this Act is guilty of a Class A
16 misdemeanor.
17 (b) Civil penalties. Unless otherwise provided in this Act,
18any person who operates an amusement ride or amusement
19attraction without having obtained a permit from the Department
20in violation of this Act is subject to a civil penalty not to
21exceed $2,500 per violation for a first violation and not to
22exceed $5,000 for a second or subsequent violation.
23 Prior to any determination, or the imposition of any civil
24penalty, under this subsection (b), the Department shall notify
25the operator in writing of the alleged violation. The

09800SB2640ham001- 1311 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1Department shall afford the operator 10 working days after the
2date of the notice to request a hearing. Upon written request
3of the operator, the Department shall schedule a formal
4administrative hearing in compliance with Article 10 of the
5Illinois Administrative Procedure Act and the Department's
6rules of procedure in administrative hearings, except that
7formal discovery, such as production requests,
8interrogatories, requests to admit, and depositions shall not
9be allowed. The parties shall exchange documents and witness
10lists prior to hearing and may request third party subpoenas to
11be issued. The final determination by the Department of Labor
12shall be rendered within 5 working days after the conclusion of
13the hearing. Final determinations made under this Section are
14subject to the provisions of the Administrative Review Law. In
15determining the amount of a penalty, the Director may consider
16the appropriateness of the penalty to the person or entity
17charged, upon determination of the gravity of the violation.
18The penalties, when finally determined, may be recovered in a
19civil action brought by the Director of Labor in any circuit
20court. In this litigation, the Director of Labor shall be
21represented by the Attorney General.
22(Source: P.A. 98-541, eff. 8-23-13; revised 11-15-13.)
23 Section 620. The Agricultural Production Contract Code is
24amended by changing Section 50 as follows:

09800SB2640ham001- 1312 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 (505 ILCS 17/50)
2 Sec. 50. Enforcement; offenses; remedies. The Attorney
3General is primarily responsible for enforcing this Act.
4 A violation of Section 20, 25, 30, or 35 is a business
5offense under the Unified Code of Corrections punishable by a
6fine of not more than $10,000 per offense.
7 A producer may recover his or her actual damages for a
8contractor's violation of Section 40 or 45 of this Act.
9(Source: P.A. 93-522, eff. 1-1-05; 93-815, eff. 1-1-05; revised
1011-14-13.)
11 Section 625. The Illinois AgriFIRST Program Act of 2001 is
12amended by changing Section 5 as follows:
13 (505 ILCS 19/5)
14 Sec. 5. Definitions. In this Act:
15 "Agribusiness" means any sole proprietorship, limited
16partnership, co-partnership, joint venture, corporation, or
17cooperative that operates or will operate a facility located
18within the State of Illinois that is related to the processing
19of agricultural commodities (including, but not limited to, the
20products of aquaculture, hydroponics, and silviculture) or the
21manufacturing, production, or construction of agricultural
22buildings, structures, equipment, implements, and supplies, or
23any other facilities or processes used in agricultural
24production. "Agribusiness" includes but is not limited to the

09800SB2640ham001- 1313 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1following:
2 (1) grain handling and processing, including grain
3 storage, drying, treatment, conditioning, milling, and
4 packaging;
5 (2) seed and feed grain development and processing;
6 (3) fruit and vegetable processing, including
7 preparation, canning, and packaging;
8 (4) processing of livestock and livestock products,
9 dairy products, poultry and poultry products, fish or
10 apiarian products, including slaughter, shearing,
11 collecting, preparation, canning, and packaging;
12 (5) fertilizer and agricultural chemical
13 manufacturing, processing, application and supplying;
14 (6) farm machinery, equipment, and implement
15 manufacturing and supplying;
16 (7) manufacturing and supplying of agricultural
17 commodity processing machinery and equipment, including
18 machinery and equipment used in slaughter, treatment,
19 handling, collecting, preparation, canning, or packaging
20 of agricultural commodities;
21 (8) farm building and farm structure manufacturing,
22 construction, and supplying;
23 (9) construction, manufacturing, implementation,
24 supplying, or servicing of irrigation, drainage, and soil
25 and water conservation devices or equipment;
26 (10) fuel processing and development facilities that

09800SB2640ham001- 1314 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 produce fuel from agricultural commodities or by-products;
2 (11) facilities and equipment for processing and
3 packaging agricultural commodities specifically for
4 export;
5 (12) facilities and equipment for forestry product
6 processing and supplying, including sawmilling operations,
7 wood chip operations, timber harvesting operations, and
8 manufacturing of prefabricated buildings, paper,
9 furniture, or other goods from forestry products; and
10 (13) facilities and equipment for research and
11 development of products, processes, and equipment for the
12 production, processing, preparation, or packaging of
13 agricultural commodities and by-products.
14 "Agricultural facility" means land, any building or other
15improvement on or to land, and any personal properties deemed
16necessary or suitable for use, whether or not now in existence,
17in farming, ranching, the production of agricultural
18commodities (including, but not limited to, the products of
19aquaculture, hydroponics, and silviculture) or the treating,
20processing, or storing of agricultural commodities.
21 "Agricultural land" means land suitable for agriculture
22production.
23 "Asset" includes, but is not limited to, the following:
24cash crops or feed on hand; livestock held for sale; breeding
25stock; marketable bonds and securities; securities not readily
26marketable; accounts receivable; notes receivable; cash

09800SB2640ham001- 1315 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1invested in growing crops; net cash value of life insurance;
2machinery and equipment; cars and trucks; farm and other real
3estate including life estates and personal residence; value of
4beneficial interest in trusts; government payments or grants;
5and any other assets.
6 "Department" means the Department of Agriculture.
7 "Director" means the Director of Agriculture.
8 "Fund" means the Illinois AgriFIRST Program Fund.
9 "Grantee" means the person or entity to whom a grant is
10made to from the Fund.
11 "Lender" means any federal or State chartered bank, federal
12land bank, production credit association, bank for
13cooperatives, federal or state chartered savings and loan
14association or building and loan association, small business
15investment company, or any other institution qualified within
16this State to originate and service loans, including, but not
17limited to, insurance companies, credit unions, and mortgage
18loan companies. "Lender" includes a wholly owned subsidiary of
19a manufacturer, seller or distributor of goods or services that
20makes loans to businesses or individuals, commonly known as a
21"captive finance company".
22 "Liability" includes, but is not limited to, the following:
23accounts payable; notes or other indebtedness owed to any
24source; taxes; rent; amounts owed on real estate contracts or
25real estate mortgages; judgments; accrued interest payable;
26and any other liability.

09800SB2640ham001- 1316 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 "Person" means, unless limited to a natural person by the
2context in which it is used, a person, corporation,
3association, trust, partnership, limited partnership, joint
4venture, or cooperative.
5 "State" means the State of Illinois.
6 "Value-added" means the processing, packaging, or
7otherwise enhancing the value of farm and agricultural products
8or by-products produced in Illinois.
9(Source: P.A. 92-346, eff. 8-14-01; revised 9-24-13.)
10 Section 630. The Illinois Fertilizer Act of 1961 is amended
11by changing Sections 3, 4, 6, and 12 as follows:
12 (505 ILCS 80/3) (from Ch. 5, par. 55.3)
13 Sec. 3. Definitions of words and terms. When used in this
14Act unless the context otherwise requires:
15 "AAPFCO" means the Association of American Plant Food
16Control Officials.
17 "Adulterated" shall apply to any fertilizer:
18 (i) that contains any deleterious or harmful
19 substance, defined under the provisions of this Act or its
20 rules or regulations, in sufficient amount to render it
21 injurious to beneficial plant life, animals, humans,
22 aquatic life, soil, or water when applied in accordance
23 with directions for use on the label;
24 (ii) when its composition falls below or differs from

09800SB2640ham001- 1317 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 that which it is purported to possess by its labeling;
2 (iii) that contains unwanted crop seed or weed seed.
3 "Anhydrous ammonia" means the compound formed by the
4combination of 2 gaseous elements, nitrogen and hydrogen, in
5the proportion of one part of nitrogen to 3 parts of hydrogen
6(NH3) by volume. Anhydrous ammonia is a fertilizer of ammonia
7gas in compressed and liquified form. It is not aqueous ammonia
8which is a solution of ammonia gas in water and which is
9considered a low-pressure nitrogen solution.
10 "Blender" means any entity or system engaged in the
11business of blending fertilizer. This includes both mobile and
12fixed equipment, excluding application equipment, used to
13achieve this function.
14 "Blending" means the physical mixing or combining of: one
15or more fertilizer materials and one or more filler materials;
162 or more fertilizer materials; 2 or more fertilizer materials
17and filler materials, including mixing through the
18simultaneous or sequential application of any of the outlined
19combinations listed in this definition, to produce a uniform
20mixture.
21 "Brand" means a term, design, or trademark used in
22connection with one or several grades of fertilizers.
23 "Bulk" means any fertilizer distributed in a single
24container greater than 100 pounds.
25 "Consumer or end user" means the final purchaser prior to
26application.

09800SB2640ham001- 1318 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 "Custom blend" means a fertilizer blended according to
2specifications provided to a blender in a soil test nutrient
3recommendation or to meet the specific consumer request prior
4to blending.
5 "Custom blender" means any entity who produces and sells
6custom blended fertilizers.
7 "Deficiency" means the amount of nutrient found by analysis
8less than that guaranteed that may result from a lack of
9nutrient ingredients or from lack of uniformity.
10 "Department" means the Illinois Department of Agriculture.
11 "Department rules or regulations" means any rule or
12regulation implemented by the Department as authorized under
13Section 14 of this Act.
14 "Director" means the Director of Agriculture or a duly
15authorized representative.
16 "Distribute" means to import, consign, manufacture,
17produce, store, transport, custom blend, compound, or blend
18fertilizer or to transfer from one container to another for the
19purpose of selling, giving away, bartering, or otherwise
20supplying fertilizer in this State.
21 "Distributor" means any entity that who distributes
22fertilizer.
23 "Entity" means any individual, partnership, association,
24firm, or corporation.
25 "Fertilizer" means any substance containing one or more of
26the recognized plant nutrient nitrogen, phosphate, potash, or

09800SB2640ham001- 1319 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1those defined under 8 Ill. Adm. Code 210.20 that is used for
2its plant nutrient content and that is designed for use or
3claimed to have value in promoting plant growth, except
4unmanipulated animal and vegetable manures, sea solids, marl,
5lime, limestone, wood ashes, and other products exempted by
6regulation by the Director.
7 "Fertilizer material" means a fertilizer that either:
8 (A) contains important quantities of no more than one
9 of the primary plant nutrients: nitrogen (N), phosphate
10 (P2O5), and potash (K2O);
11 (B) has 85% or more of its plant nutrient content
12 present in the form of a single chemical compound; or
13 (C) is derived from a plant or animal residue or
14 by-product or natural material deposit that has been
15 processed in such a way that its content of plant nutrients
16 has not been materially changed except by purification and
17 concentration.
18 "Grade" means the minimum percentage of total nitrogen,
19available phosphate (P2O5), and soluble potash (K2O) stated in
20the whole numbers in the same terms, order, and percentages as
21in the guaranteed analysis, provided that specialty
22fertilizers may be guaranteed in fractional units of less than
231% of total nitrogen, available phosphate, and soluble potash
24and that fertilizer materials, bone meal, manures, and similar
25materials may be guaranteed in fractional units.
26 "Guaranteed analysis" means the minimum percentages of

09800SB2640ham001- 1320 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1plant nutrients claimed in the following order and form:
2 A. Total Nitrogen (N)...............................%
3 Available Phosphate (P2O5).......................%
4 Soluble Potash (K2O).............................%
5 B. For unacidulated mineral phosphatic materials and
6 basic slag, both total and available phosphate and the
7 degree of fineness. For bone, tankage, and other organic
8 phosphatic materials, total phosphate.
9 C. Guarantees for plant nutrients other than nitrogen,
10 phosphate, and potash may be permitted or required by
11 regulation by the Director. The guarantees for such other
12 nutrients shall be expressed in the form of the element.
13 "Investigational allowance" means an allowance for
14variations inherent in the taking, preparation, and analysis of
15an official sample of fertilizer.
16 "Label" means the display of all written, printed, or
17graphic matter upon the immediate container or a statement
18accompanying a fertilizer.
19 "Labeling" means all (i) written, printed, or graphic
20matter upon or accompanying any fertilizer or (ii)
21advertisements, Internet, brochures, posters, and television
22and radio announcements used in promoting the sale of
23fertilizer.
24 "Lot" means an identifiable quantity of fertilizer that can
25be sampled according to AOAC International procedures, such as
26the amount contained in a single vehicle, the amount delivered

09800SB2640ham001- 1321 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1under a single invoice, or in the case of bagged fertilizer,
2not more than 25 tons.
3 "Low-pressure nitrogen solution" means a solution
4containing 2 per cent or more by weight of free ammonia and/or
5having vapor pressure of 5 pounds or more per square inch gauge
6at 104 degrees Fahrenheit 104° F.
7 "Misbranded" shall apply to any fertilizer:
8 (i) with labeling that is false or misleading in any
9 particular;
10 (ii) that is distributed under the name of another
11 fertilizer product;
12 (iii) that is not labeled as required by this Act or
13 its rules; or
14 (iv) that which purports to be or is represented as a
15 fertilizer, or is represented as containing a plant
16 nutrient or fertilizer unless such plant nutrient or
17 fertilizer conforms to the definition of identity, if any,
18 prescribed by regulation.
19 "Mixed fertilizer" means any combination or mixture of
20fertilizer materials designed for use or claimed to have value
21in promoting plant growth.
22 "NREC" means the Nutrient Research and Education Council.
23 "Official sample" means any sample of fertilizer taken by
24the Director or his or her agent and designated as official by
25the Director.
26 "Per cent" or "percentage" means the percentage by weight.

09800SB2640ham001- 1322 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 "Registrant" means the entity that who registers
2fertilizer and obtains a license under the provisions of this
3Act.
4 "Specialty fertilizer" means a fertilizer distributed
5primarily for nonfarm use, such as home gardens, lawns,
6shrubbery, flowers, golf courses, municipal parks, cemeteries,
7green houses and nurseries, and may include fertilizer used for
8research or experimental purposes.
9 "Ton" means a net weight of 2,000 pounds avoirdupois.
10 "Unit" means 20 pounds or 1% of a ton of plant nutrient.
11(Source: P.A. 97-960, eff. 8-15-12; revised 11-18-13.)
12 (505 ILCS 80/4) (from Ch. 5, par. 55.4)
13 Sec. 4. License and product registration.
14 (a) Each brand and grade of fertilizer shall be registered
15by the entity whose name appears upon the label before being
16distributed in this State. The application for registration
17shall be submitted with a label or facsimile of same to the
18Director on forms furnished by the Director, and shall be
19accompanied by a fee of $20 per grade within a brand. Upon
20approval by the Director a copy of the registration shall be
21furnished to the applicant. All registrations expire on
22December 31 of each year.
23 The application shall include the following information:
24 (1) The net weight
25 (2) The brand and grade

09800SB2640ham001- 1323 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 (3) The guaranteed analysis
2 (4) The name and address of the registrant.
3 (a-5) No entity whose name appears on the label shall
4distribute a fertilizer in the State unless the entity has
5secured a license under this Act on forms provided by the
6Director. The license application shall be accompanied by a fee
7of $100. Entities that who store anhydrous ammonia as a
8fertilizer, store bulk fertilizer, or custom blend a fertilizer
9at more than one site under the same entity's name shall list
10any and all additional sites with a complete address for each
11site and remit a license fee of $50 for each site identified.
12Entities performing lawn care applications for hire are exempt
13from obtaining a license under this Act. All licenses expire on
14December 31 of each year.
15 (b) A distributor shall not be required to register any
16brand of fertilizer or a custom blend which is already
17registered under this Act by another entity.
18 (c) The plant nutrient content of each and every fertilizer
19must remain uniform for the period of registration and, in no
20case, shall the percentage of any guaranteed plant nutrient
21element be changed in such a manner that the crop-producing
22quality of the fertilizer is lowered.
23 (d) (Blank).
24 (e) A custom blend, as defined in Section 3, prepared for
25one consumer or end user shall not be co-mingled with the
26custom blended fertilizer prepared for another consumer or end

09800SB2640ham001- 1324 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1user.
2 (f) All fees collected pursuant to this Section shall be
3paid to the Fertilizer Control Fund for activities related to
4the administration and enforcement of this Act.
5(Source: P.A. 97-960, eff. 8-15-12; revised 11-18-13.)
6 (505 ILCS 80/6) (from Ch. 5, par. 55.6)
7 Sec. 6. Inspection fees.
8 (a) There shall be paid to the Director for all fertilizers
9distributed in this State an inspection fee at the rate of 25¢
10per ton with a minimum inspection fee of $15. Sales or
11exchanges between registrants are hereby exempted from the
12inspection fee.
13 On individual packages of fertilizers containing 5 pounds
14or less, or if in liquid form containers of 4,000 cubic
15centimeters or less, there shall be paid instead of the 25¢ per
16ton inspection fee, an annual inspection fee of $50 for each
17grade within a brand sold or distributed. Where an entity sells
18fertilizers in packages of 5 pounds or less, or 4,000 cubic
19centimeters or less if in liquid form, and also sells in larger
20packages than 5 pounds or liquid containers larger than 4,000
21cubic centimeters, this annual inspection fee of $50 applies
22only to that portion sold in packages of 5 pounds or less or
234,000 cubic centimeters or less, and that portion sold in
24larger packages or containers shall be subject to the same
25inspection fee of 25¢ per ton as provided in this Act.

09800SB2640ham001- 1325 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 (b) Every entity that who distributes a fertilizer, custom
2blend, or speciality fertilizer in this State shall file with
3the Director, on forms furnished by the Director, a semi-annual
4statement for the periods ending June 30 and December 31,
5setting forth the number of net tons of each grade of
6fertilizers within a brand or the net tons of custom blend
7distributed. The report shall be due on or before the 30th day
8of the month following the close of each semi-annual period and
9upon the statement shall pay the inspection fee at the rate
10stated in paragraph (a) of this Section.
11 If the tonnage report is not filed and the payment of
12inspection fee is not made within 30 days after the end of the
13semi-annual period, a collection fee amounting to 15% (minimum
14$15) of the amount shall be assessed against the registrant.
15The amount of fees due shall constitute a debt and become the
16basis of a judgment against the registrant. Upon the written
17request to the Director additional time may be granted past the
18normal date of filing the semi-annual statement.
19 (c) When more than one entity is involved in the
20distribution of a fertilizer, the last registrant who
21distributes to the consumer or end user end-user is responsible
22for reporting the tonnage and paying the inspection fee.
23 (d) All fees collected under this Section shall be paid to
24the Fertilizer Control Fund for activities related to the
25administration and enforcement of this Act.
26(Source: P.A. 97-960, eff. 8-15-12; revised 11-18-13.)

09800SB2640ham001- 1326 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 (505 ILCS 80/12) (from Ch. 5, par. 55.12)
2 Sec. 12. Tonnage reports; records.
3 (a) Any entity distributing fertilizer to a consumer or end
4user end-user in this State shall provide the Director with a
5summary report on or before the 10th day of each month covering
6the shipments made during the preceding month of tonnage on a
7form, provided by the Director, for that purpose.
8 Specialty fertilizer sold in packages weighing 5 pounds or
9less or in container of 4000 cubic centimeters or less, shall
10be reported but no inspection fee will be charged. No
11information furnished under this Section shall be disclosed by
12the Department in such a way as to divulge the operation of any
13entity.
14 (b) Each entity location engaged in the sale of ammonium
15nitrate shall obtain the following information upon its
16distribution:
17 (1) the date of distribution;
18 (2) the quantity purchased;
19 (3) the license number of the purchaser's valid State
20 or federal driver's license, or an equivalent number taken
21 from another form of picture identification approved for
22 purchaser identification by the Director; and
23 (4) the purchaser's name, current physical address,
24 and telephone number.
25 Any retailer of ammonium nitrate may refuse to sell

09800SB2640ham001- 1327 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1ammonium nitrate to any person attempting to purchase ammonium
2nitrate (i) out of season, (ii) in unusual quantities, or (iii)
3under suspect purchase patterns.
4 (c) Records created under subsection (b) of this Section
5shall be maintained for a minimum of 2 years. Such records
6shall be available for inspection, copying, and audit by the
7Department as provided under this Act.
8(Source: P.A. 97-960, eff. 8-15-12; revised 11-18-13.)
9 Section 635. The Animal Control Act is amended by changing
10Section 2 as follows:
11 (510 ILCS 5/2) (from Ch. 8, par. 352)
12 Sec. 2. As used in this Act, unless the context otherwise
13requires, the terms specified in the Sections following this
14Section and preceding Section 3 Sections 2.01 through 2.19 have
15the meanings ascribed to them in those Sections.
16(Source: P.A. 78-795; revised 11-18-13.)
17 Section 640. The Bees and Apiaries Act is amended by
18changing Section 2-1 as follows:
19 (510 ILCS 20/2-1)
20 Sec. 2-1. Nuisances. All bees, colonies, or items of bee
21equipment, where bee diseases, bee parasites or exotic strains
22of bees exist; or hives that cannot be readily inspected; or

09800SB2640ham001- 1328 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1colonies that are not registered, are declared to be nuisances
2to be regulated as prescribed by the Department.
3 If the Department finds by inspection that any person is
4maintaining a nuisance as described in this Section, it shall
5proceed to regulate the nuisance by methods or procedures
6deemed necessary for control in accordance with rules and
7regulations of the Department.
8 If the owner or beekeeper cannot be found or will not
9consent to the terms for regulation of the nuisance, the
10Department shall notify in writing the owner or beekeeper,
11disclose the fact that a nuisance exists, exits and prescribe
12the method by which the nuisance may be abated. The notice
13declaring that a nuisance exists and ordering its abatement
14shall include:
15 (1) a statement of conditions constituting the
16 nuisance;
17 (2) establishment of the time period within which the
18 nuisance is to be abated;
19 (3) directions, written or printed, pointing out the
20 methods that shall be employed to abate the nuisance;
21 (4) a statement of the consequences should the owner or
22 beekeeper fail to comply.
23 The notice may be served personally or by certified mail
24with a return receipt requested. The directions for abatement
25of a nuisance may consist of a printed circular, bulletin or
26report of the Department, the United States Department of

09800SB2640ham001- 1329 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1Agriculture or others, or an extract from such document.
2 If the person so notified refuses or fails to abate the
3nuisance in the manner and in the time prescribed in the
4notice, the Department may cause the nuisance to be abated. The
5Department shall certify, to the owner or beekeeper, the cost
6of the abatement. The owner or beekeeper shall pay to the
7Department any costs of that action, within 60 days after
8certification that the nuisance has been abated. If the costs
9of abatement are not remitted, the Department may recover the
10costs before any court in the State having competent
11jurisdiction.
12(Source: P.A. 88-138; revised 11-19-13.)
13 Section 645. The Wildlife Code is amended by changing
14Sections 1.2 and 2.33 as follows:
15 (520 ILCS 5/1.2) (from Ch. 61, par. 1.2)
16 Sec. 1.2. This Act shall be administered by and under the
17direction of the Department of Natural Resources. As used in
18this Act, unless the context otherwise requires, the terms
19specified in the Sections following this Section and preceding
20Section 1.3 Sections 1.2a through 1.2t have the meanings
21ascribed to them in those Sections.
22(Source: P.A. 89-445, eff. 2-7-96; revised 11-19-13.)
23 (520 ILCS 5/2.33) (from Ch. 61, par. 2.33)

09800SB2640ham001- 1330 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 Sec. 2.33. Prohibitions.
2 (a) It is unlawful to carry or possess any gun in any State
3refuge unless otherwise permitted by administrative rule.
4 (b) It is unlawful to use or possess any snare or
5snare-like device, deadfall, net, or pit trap to take any
6species, except that snares not powered by springs or other
7mechanical devices may be used to trap fur-bearing mammals, in
8water sets only, if at least one-half of the snare noose is
9located underwater at all times.
10 (c) It is unlawful for any person at any time to take a
11wild mammal protected by this Act from its den by means of any
12mechanical device, spade, or digging device or to use smoke or
13other gases to dislodge or remove such mammal except as
14provided in Section 2.37.
15 (d) It is unlawful to use a ferret or any other small
16mammal which is used in the same or similar manner for which
17ferrets are used for the purpose of frightening or driving any
18mammals from their dens or hiding places.
19 (e) (Blank).
20 (f) It is unlawful to use spears, gigs, hooks or any like
21device to take any species protected by this Act.
22 (g) It is unlawful to use poisons, chemicals or explosives
23for the purpose of taking any species protected by this Act.
24 (h) It is unlawful to hunt adjacent to or near any peat,
25grass, brush or other inflammable substance when it is burning.
26 (i) It is unlawful to take, pursue or intentionally harass

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1or disturb in any manner any wild birds or mammals by use or
2aid of any vehicle or conveyance, except as permitted by the
3Code of Federal Regulations for the taking of waterfowl. It is
4also unlawful to use the lights of any vehicle or conveyance or
5any light from or any light connected to the vehicle or
6conveyance in any area where wildlife may be found except in
7accordance with Section 2.37 of this Act; however, nothing in
8this Section shall prohibit the normal use of headlamps for the
9purpose of driving upon a roadway. Striped skunk, opossum, red
10fox, gray fox, raccoon and coyote may be taken during the open
11season by use of a small light which is worn on the body or
12hand-held by a person on foot and not in any vehicle.
13 (j) It is unlawful to use any shotgun larger than 10 gauge
14while taking or attempting to take any of the species protected
15by this Act.
16 (k) It is unlawful to use or possess in the field any
17shotgun shell loaded with a shot size larger than lead BB or
18steel T (.20 diameter) when taking or attempting to take any
19species of wild game mammals (excluding white-tailed deer),
20wild game birds, migratory waterfowl or migratory game birds
21protected by this Act, except white-tailed deer as provided for
22in Section 2.26 and other species as provided for by subsection
23(l) or administrative rule.
24 (l) It is unlawful to take any species of wild game, except
25white-tailed deer and fur-bearing mammals, with a shotgun
26loaded with slugs unless otherwise provided for by

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1administrative rule.
2 (m) It is unlawful to use any shotgun capable of holding
3more than 3 shells in the magazine or chamber combined, except
4on game breeding and hunting preserve areas licensed under
5Section 3.27 and except as permitted by the Code of Federal
6Regulations for the taking of waterfowl. If the shotgun is
7capable of holding more than 3 shells, it shall, while being
8used on an area other than a game breeding and shooting
9preserve area licensed pursuant to Section 3.27, be fitted with
10a one piece plug that is irremovable without dismantling the
11shotgun or otherwise altered to render it incapable of holding
12more than 3 shells in the magazine and chamber, combined.
13 (n) It is unlawful for any person, except persons who
14possess a permit to hunt from a vehicle as provided in this
15Section and persons otherwise permitted by law, to have or
16carry any gun in or on any vehicle, conveyance or aircraft,
17unless such gun is unloaded and enclosed in a case, except that
18at field trials authorized by Section 2.34 of this Act,
19unloaded guns or guns loaded with blank cartridges only, may be
20carried on horseback while not contained in a case, or to have
21or carry any bow or arrow device in or on any vehicle unless
22such bow or arrow device is unstrung or enclosed in a case, or
23otherwise made inoperable.
24 (o) It is unlawful to use any crossbow for the purpose of
25taking any wild birds or mammals, except as provided for in
26Section 2.5.

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1 (p) It is unlawful to take game birds, migratory game birds
2or migratory waterfowl with a rifle, pistol, revolver or
3airgun.
4 (q) It is unlawful to fire a rifle, pistol, revolver or
5airgun on, over or into any waters of this State, including
6frozen waters.
7 (r) It is unlawful to discharge any gun or bow and arrow
8device along, upon, across, or from any public right-of-way or
9highway in this State.
10 (s) It is unlawful to use a silencer or other device to
11muffle or mute the sound of the explosion or report resulting
12from the firing of any gun.
13 (t) It is unlawful for any person to take or attempt to
14take any species of wildlife or parts thereof, intentionally or
15wantonly allow a dog to hunt, within or upon the land of
16another, or upon waters flowing over or standing on the land of
17another, or to knowingly shoot a gun or bow and arrow device at
18any wildlife physically on or flying over the property of
19another without first obtaining permission from the owner or
20the owner's designee. For the purposes of this Section, the
21owner's designee means anyone who the owner designates in a
22written authorization and the authorization must contain (i)
23the legal or common description of property for such authority
24is given, (ii) the extent that the owner's designee is
25authorized to make decisions regarding who is allowed to take
26or attempt to take any species of wildlife or parts thereof,

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1and (iii) the owner's notarized signature. Before enforcing
2this Section the law enforcement officer must have received
3notice from the owner or the owner's designee of a violation of
4this Section. Statements made to the law enforcement officer
5regarding this notice shall not be rendered inadmissible by the
6hearsay rule when offered for the purpose of showing the
7required notice.
8 (u) It is unlawful for any person to discharge any firearm
9for the purpose of taking any of the species protected by this
10Act, or hunt with gun or dog, or intentionally or wantonly
11allow a dog to hunt, within 300 yards of an inhabited dwelling
12without first obtaining permission from the owner or tenant,
13except that while trapping, hunting with bow and arrow, hunting
14with dog and shotgun using shot shells only, or hunting with
15shotgun using shot shells only, or on licensed game breeding
16and hunting preserve areas, as defined in Section 3.27, on
17property operated under a Migratory Waterfowl Hunting Area
18Permit, on federally owned and managed lands and on Department
19owned, managed, leased or controlled lands, a 100 yard
20restriction shall apply.
21 (v) It is unlawful for any person to remove fur-bearing
22mammals from, or to move or disturb in any manner, the traps
23owned by another person without written authorization of the
24owner to do so.
25 (w) It is unlawful for any owner of a dog to knowingly or
26wantonly allow his or her dog to pursue, harass or kill deer,

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1except that nothing in this Section shall prohibit the tracking
2of wounded deer with a dog in accordance with the provisions of
3Section 2.26 of this Code.
4 (x) It is unlawful for any person to wantonly or carelessly
5injure or destroy, in any manner whatsoever, any real or
6personal property on the land of another while engaged in
7hunting or trapping thereon.
8 (y) It is unlawful to hunt wild game protected by this Act
9between one half hour after sunset and one half hour before
10sunrise, except that hunting hours between one half hour after
11sunset and one half hour before sunrise may be established by
12administrative rule for fur-bearing mammals.
13 (z) It is unlawful to take any game bird (excluding wild
14turkeys and crippled pheasants not capable of normal flight and
15otherwise irretrievable) protected by this Act when not flying.
16Nothing in this Section shall prohibit a person from carrying
17an uncased, unloaded shotgun in a boat, while in pursuit of a
18crippled migratory waterfowl that is incapable of normal
19flight, for the purpose of attempting to reduce the migratory
20waterfowl to possession, provided that the attempt is made
21immediately upon downing the migratory waterfowl and is done
22within 400 yards of the blind from which the migratory
23waterfowl was downed. This exception shall apply only to
24migratory game birds that are not capable of normal flight.
25Migratory waterfowl that are crippled may be taken only with a
26shotgun as regulated by subsection (j) of this Section using

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1shotgun shells as regulated in subsection (k) of this Section.
2 (aa) It is unlawful to use or possess any device that may
3be used for tree climbing or cutting, while hunting fur-bearing
4mammals, excluding coyotes.
5 (bb) It is unlawful for any person, except licensed game
6breeders, pursuant to Section 2.29 to import, carry into, or
7possess alive in this State any species of wildlife taken
8outside of this State, without obtaining permission to do so
9from the Director.
10 (cc) It is unlawful for any person to have in his or her
11possession any freshly killed species protected by this Act
12during the season closed for taking.
13 (dd) It is unlawful to take any species protected by this
14Act and retain it alive except as provided by administrative
15rule.
16 (ee) It is unlawful to possess any rifle while in the field
17during gun deer season except as provided in Section 2.26 and
18administrative rules.
19 (ff) It is unlawful for any person to take any species
20protected by this Act, except migratory waterfowl, during the
21gun deer hunting season in those counties open to gun deer
22hunting, unless he or she wears, when in the field, a cap and
23upper outer garment of a solid blaze orange color, with such
24articles of clothing displaying a minimum of 400 square inches
25of blaze orange material.
26 (gg) It is unlawful during the upland game season for any

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1person to take upland game with a firearm unless he or she
2wears, while in the field, a cap of solid blaze orange color.
3For purposes of this Act, upland game is defined as Bobwhite
4Quail, Hungarian Partridge, Ring-necked Pheasant, Eastern
5Cottontail and Swamp Rabbit.
6 (hh) It shall be unlawful to kill or cripple any species
7protected by this Act for which there is a bag limit without
8making a reasonable effort to retrieve such species and include
9such in the bag limit. It shall be unlawful for any person
10having control over harvested game mammals, game birds, or
11migratory game birds for which there is a bag limit to wantonly
12waste or destroy the usable meat of the game, except this shall
13not apply to wildlife taken under Sections 2.37 or 3.22 of this
14Code. For purposes of this subsection, "usable meat" means the
15breast meat of a game bird or migratory game bird and the hind
16ham and front shoulders of a game mammal. It shall be unlawful
17for any person to place, leave, dump, or abandon a wildlife
18carcass or parts of it along or upon a public right-of-way or
19highway or on public or private property, including a waterway
20or stream, without the permission of the owner or tenant. It
21shall not be unlawful to discard game meat that is determined
22to be unfit for human consumption.
23 (ii) This Section shall apply only to those species
24protected by this Act taken within the State. Any species or
25any parts thereof, legally taken in and transported from other
26states or countries, may be possessed within the State, except

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1as provided in this Section and Sections 2.35, 2.36 and 3.21.
2 (jj) (Blank).
3 (kk) Nothing contained in this Section shall prohibit the
4Director from issuing permits to paraplegics or to other
5disabled persons who meet the requirements set forth in
6administrative rule to shoot or hunt from a vehicle as provided
7by that rule, provided that such is otherwise in accord with
8this Act.
9 (ll) Nothing contained in this Act shall prohibit the
10taking of aquatic life protected by the Fish and Aquatic Life
11Code or birds and mammals protected by this Act, except deer
12and fur-bearing mammals, from a boat not camouflaged or
13disguised to alter its identity or to further provide a place
14of concealment and not propelled by sail or mechanical power.
15However, only shotguns not larger than 10 gauge nor smaller
16than .410 bore loaded with not more than 3 shells of a shot
17size no larger than lead BB or steel T (.20 diameter) may be
18used to take species protected by this Act.
19 (mm) Nothing contained in this Act shall prohibit the use
20of a shotgun, not larger than 10 gauge nor smaller than a 20
21gauge, with a rifled barrel.
22 (nn) It shall be unlawful to possess any species of
23wildlife or wildlife parts taken unlawfully in Illinois, any
24other state, or any other country, whether or not the wildlife
25or wildlife parts is indigenous to Illinois. For the purposes
26of this subsection, the statute of limitations for unlawful

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1possession of wildlife or wildlife parts shall not cease until
22 years after the possession has permanently ended.
3(Source: P.A. 97-645, eff. 12-30-11; 97-907, eff. 8-7-12;
498-119, eff. 1-1-14; 98-181, eff. 8-5-13; 98-183, eff. 1-1-14;
598-290, eff. 8-9-13; revised 9-24-13.)
6 Section 650. The Open Space Lands Acquisition and
7Development Act is amended by changing Section 3 as follows:
8 (525 ILCS 35/3) (from Ch. 85, par. 2103)
9 Sec. 3. From appropriations made from the Capital
10Development Fund, Build Illinois Bond Fund or other available
11or designated funds for such purposes, the Department shall
12make grants to local governments as financial assistance for
13the capital development and improvement of park, recreation or
14conservation areas, marinas and shorelines, including planning
15and engineering costs, and for the acquisition of open space
16lands, including acquisition of easements and other property
17interests less than fee simple ownership if the Department
18determines that such property interests are sufficient to carry
19out the purposes of this Act, subject to the conditions and
20limitations set forth in this Act.
21 No more than 10% of the amount so appropriated for any
22fiscal year may be committed or expended on any one project
23described in an application under this Act.
24 Any grant under this Act to a local government shall be

09800SB2640ham001- 1340 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1conditioned upon the state providing assistance on a 50/50
2matching basis for the acquisition of open space lands and for
3capital development and improvement proposals. However, a
4local government defined as "distressed" under criteria
5adopted by the Department through administrative rule shall be
6eligible for assistance up to 90% for the acquisition of open
7space lands and for capital development and improvement
8proposals, provided that no more than 10% of the amount
9appropriated under this Act in any fiscal year is made
10available as grants to distressed local governments.
11 A minimum of 50% of any grant made to a unit of local
12government under this Act must be paid to the unit of local
13government at the time the Department awards the grant. The
14remainder of the grant shall be distributed to the local
15government quarterly on a reimbursement basis.
16(Source: P.A. 98-326, eff. 8-12-13; 98-520, eff. 8-23-13;
17revised 9-19-13.)
18 Section 655. The Illinois Highway Code is amended by
19renumbering Section 223 as follows:
20 (605 ILCS 5/4-223)
21 Sec. 4-223 223. Electric vehicle charging stations. By
22January 1, 2016 or as soon thereafter as possible, the
23Department may provide for at least one electric vehicle
24charging station at each Interstate highway rest area where

09800SB2640ham001- 1341 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1electrical service will reasonably permit and if these stations
2and charging user fees at these stations are allowed by federal
3regulations.
4 The Department may adopt and publish specifications
5detailing the kind and type of electric vehicle charging
6station to be provided and may adopt rules governing the place
7of erection, user fees, and maintenance of electric vehicle
8charging stations.
9(Source: P.A. 98-442, eff. 1-1-14; revised 9-17-13.)
10 Section 660. The Illinois Aeronautics Act is amended by
11changing Section 43d as follows:
12 (620 ILCS 5/43d) (from Ch. 15 1/2, par. 22.43d)
13 Sec. 43d. Intoxicated persons in or about aircraft.
14 (a) No person shall:
15 (1) Operate or attempt to operate any aircraft in this
16 State while under the influence of intoxicating liquor or
17 any narcotic drug or other controlled substance.
18 (2) Knowingly permit any individual who is under the
19 influence of intoxicating liquor or any narcotic drug or
20 other controlled substance to operate any aircraft owned by
21 the person or in his custody or control.
22 (3) Perform any act in connection with the maintenance
23 or operation of any aircraft when under the influence of
24 intoxicating liquor or any narcotic drug or other

09800SB2640ham001- 1342 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 controlled substance, except medication prescribed by a
2 physician which will not render the person incapable of
3 performing his duties safely.
4 (4) (i) Consume alcoholic liquor within 8 hours prior
5 to operating or acting as a crew member of any aircraft
6 within this State.
7 (ii) Act as a crew member of any aircraft within
8 this State while under the influence of alcohol or when
9 the alcohol concentration in the person's blood or
10 breath is 0.04 or more based on the definition of blood
11 and breath units contained in Section 11-501.2 of the
12 Illinois Vehicle Code.
13 (iii) Operate any aircraft within this State when
14 the alcohol concentration in the person's blood or
15 breath is 0.04 or more based on the definition of blood
16 and breath units contained in Section 11-501.2 of the
17 Illinois Vehicle Code.
18 (iv) Operate or act as a crew member of any
19 aircraft within this State when there is any amount of
20 a drug, substance, or compound in the person's blood or
21 urine resulting from the unlawful use or consumption of
22 cannabis as listed in the Cannabis Control Act or a
23 controlled substance as listed in the Illinois
24 Controlled Substances Substance Act.
25 (5) Knowingly consume while a crew member of any
26 aircraft any intoxicating liquor, narcotic drug, or other

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1 controlled substance while the aircraft is in operation.
2 (b) Any person who violates clause (4)(i) of subsection (a)
3of this Section is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor. A person
4who violates paragraph (2), (3), or (5) or clause (4)(ii) of
5subsection (a) of this Section is guilty of a Class 4 felony. A
6person who violates paragraph (1) or clause (4)(iii) or (4)(iv)
7of subsection (a) of this Section is guilty of a Class 3
8felony.
9(Source: P.A. 92-517, eff. 6-1-02; revised 11-19-13.)
10 Section 665. The County Airport Law of 1943 is amended by
11changing Section 6 as follows:
12 (620 ILCS 45/6) (from Ch. 15 1/2, par. 89)
13 Sec. 6. The directors shall, immediately after
14appointment, meet and organize by the election of one of their
15number as president and one as secretary, and by the election
16of such other officers as they may deem necessary. They shall
17make and adopt such by-laws, rules and regulations for their
18own guidance and for the government of the airport and landing
19field, buildings, equipment and other facilities or activities
20and institutions connected therewith as may be expedient, not
21inconsistent with the "Illinois Aeronautics Act", as now or
22hereafter amended or supplemented, or any rule, ruling,
23regulation, order or decision of the Department of
24Transportation of this State. They shall have the exclusive

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1control of the expenditure of all moneys collected to the
2credit of the Airport Fund, and of the construction of any
3airport, building, landing strips or other facilities
4connected therewith, or auxiliary institutions or activities
5in connection therewith, and of the supervision, care and
6custody of the grounds, buildings and facilities constructed,
7leased, or set apart for that purpose: Provided, that all
8moneys received for such airport with the exception of moneys
9the title to which rests in the Board of Directors in
10accordance with Section 9, shall be deposited in the treasury
11of the county to the credit of the Airport fund and shall not
12be used for any other purpose, and shall be drawn upon by the
13proper officers of the county upon the properly authenticated
14vouchers of the Board of Directors. The Board of Directors may
15purchase or lease ground within the limits of such county, and
16occupy, lease or erect an appropriate building or buildings for
17the use of the airport, auxiliary institutions and activities
18connected therewith: Provided, however, that no such building,
19landing strips or other facilities shall be constructed or
20erected until detailed plans therefor shall have been submitted
21to and approved by the Department of Transportation of this
22State. The Board of Directors may appoint suitable managers,
23assistants and employees and fix their compensation by
24resolution duly adopted, and may also remove such appointees,
25and shall carry out the spirit and intent of this Act in
26establishing and maintaining an airport and landing field.

09800SB2640ham001- 1345 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 The Board of Directors shall, in addition to the powers set
2forth in this Act, specifically have the powers designated as
3follows:
4 1. To locate, establish and maintain an airport and airport
5facilities within the area of its jurisdiction, and to develop,
6expand, extend and improve any such airport or airport
7facility.
8 2. To acquire land, rights in and over land and easements
9upon, over or across land, and leasehold interests in land, and
10tangible and intangible personal property, used or useful for
11the location, establishment, maintenance, development,
12expansion, extension or improvement of any such airport or
13airport facility. Such acquisition may be by dedication,
14purchase, gift, agreement, lease, or by user or adverse
15possession or condemnation. In the determination of the
16compensation to be paid in any condemnation proceeding under
17this subsection involving property or facilities used in
18agriculture, commerce, industry or trade there shall be
19included not only the value of the property and facilities
20affected and the cost of any changes in or relocation of such
21property and facilities but also compensation for any loss
22occasioned in the operation thereof.
23 3. To operate, manage, lease, sublease, and to make and
24enter into contracts for the use, operation or management of,
25and to provide rules and regulations for the operation,
26management or use of any such airport or airport facility.

09800SB2640ham001- 1346 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 4. To fix, charge and collect rentals, tolls, fees and
2charges for the use of any such airport, or any part thereof,
3or any such airport facility, and to grant privileges within
4any airport or structure therein or any part thereof, and to
5charge and collect compensation for such privileges and to
6lease any building or structure or any part thereof to private
7or public concerns or corporations in connection with the use
8and operation of such airport and to enter into contracts or
9agreements permitting private or public concerns to erect and
10build structures for airport purposes and purposes auxiliary
11thereto and connected therewith, on such terms and conditions
12as the directors deem expedient and in the public interest;
13provided, that no such structure may be erected by any public
14or private concern or corporation pursuant to such agreement
15until the plans and specifications therefor shall have been
16submitted to and approved by the Department of Transportation
17of this State.
18 5. To establish, maintain, extend and improve roadways and
19approaches by land, water or air to any such airport.
20 6. To contract or otherwise to provide by condemnation if
21necessary for the removal or relocation of all private
22structures, railways, mains, pipes, conduits, wires, poles and
23all other facilities and equipment which may interfere with the
24location, expansion, development, or improvement of airports
25or with the safe approach thereto or takeoff therefrom by
26aircraft, and to assume any obligation and pay any expense

09800SB2640ham001- 1347 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1incidental to such removal or relocation.
2 7. Within territory two miles from any airport or landing
3field, as measured at a right angle from any side, or in a
4radial line from the corner of any established boundary line
5thereof, to enter into contracts for a term of years or
6permanently with the owners of such land to restrict the height
7of any structure upon the relationship of one foot of height to
8each twenty feet of distance from the boundary line, upon such
9terms and conditions and for the such consideration as the
10Board of Directors deems equitable; and to adopt, administer
11and enforce airport zoning regulations for and within the
12county and within any territory which extends not more than 2
13miles beyond the boundaries of any Airport under the control of
14the Board of Directors.
15 8. To borrow money and to issue bonds, notes, certificates
16or other evidences of indebtedness for the purpose of
17accomplishing any of the corporate purposes, subject, however,
18to compliance with the conditions or limitations of this Act or
19otherwise provided by the constitution or laws of the State of
20Illinois.
21 9. To employ or enter into contracts for the employment of
22any person, firm or corporation, and for professional services,
23necessary or desirable for the accomplishment of the objects of
24the Board of Directors or the proper administration,
25management, protection or control of its property.
26 10. To police its property and to exercise police powers in

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1respect thereto or in respect to the enforcement of any rule or
2regulation provided by the resolutions of the Board of
3Directors and to employ and commission police officers and
4other qualified persons to enforce the same.
5 Nothing in this section or in other provisions of this Act
6shall be construed to authorize the Board of Directors to
7establish or enforce any regulation or rule in respect to
8aviation or the operation or maintenance of any airport or any
9airport facility within its jurisdiction which is in conflict
10with any federal or state law or regulation applicable to the
11same subject matter.
12 This section is subject to the "Illinois Aeronautics Act",
13as now or hereafter amended or supplemented, or any rule,
14ruling, regulation, order or decision of the Department of
15Transportation of this State.
16 The Federal Government or any department or agency thereof,
17the State of Illinois or any department or agency thereof, or
18any political subdivision of the State of Illinois and any
19public or private aircraft shall be permitted to use any
20airport facility subject to the regulation and control of, and
21upon such terms and conditions as shall be established by the
22Board of Directors.
23(Source: P.A. 81-840; revised 11-19-13.)
24 Section 670. The Public-Private Agreements for the South
25Suburban Airport Act is amended by changing Section 2-35 as

09800SB2640ham001- 1349 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1follows:
2 (620 ILCS 75/2-35)
3 Sec. 2-35. Provisions of the public-private agreement.
4 (a) The public-private agreement shall include all of the
5following:
6 (1) the term of the public-private agreement that is
7 consistent with Section 2-20 of this Act;
8 (2) the powers, duties, responsibilities, obligations,
9 and functions of the Department and the contractor;
10 (3) compensation or payments to the Department;
11 (4) compensation or payments to the contractor;
12 (5) a provision specifying that the Department has:
13 (A) ready access to information regarding the
14 contractor's powers, duties, responsibilities,
15 obligations, and functions under the public-private
16 agreement;
17 (B) the right to demand and receive information
18 from the contractor concerning any aspect of the
19 contractor's powers, duties, responsibilities,
20 obligations, and functions under the public-private
21 agreement; and
22 (C) the authority to direct or countermand
23 decisions by the contractor at any time;
24 (6) a provision imposing an affirmative duty on the
25 contractor to provide the Department with any information

09800SB2640ham001- 1350 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 the Department reasonably would want to know or would need
2 to know to enable the Department to exercise its powers,
3 carry out its duties, responsibilities, and obligations,
4 and perform its functions under this Act or the
5 public-private agreement or as otherwise required by law;
6 (7) a provision requiring the contractor to provide the
7 Department with advance written notice of any decision that
8 bears significantly on the public interest so the
9 Department has a reasonable opportunity to evaluate and
10 countermand that decision under this Section;
11 (8) a requirement that the Department monitor and
12 oversee the contractor's practices and take action that the
13 Department considers appropriate to ensure that the
14 contractor is in compliance with the terms of the
15 public-private agreement;
16 (9) the authority of the Department to enter into
17 contracts with third parties pursuant to Section 2-65 of
18 this Act;
19 (10) a provision governing the contractor's authority
20 to negotiate and execute subcontracts with third parties;
21 (11) the authority of the contractor to impose user
22 fees and the amounts of those fees;
23 (12) a provision governing the deposit and allocation
24 of revenues including user fees;
25 (13) a provision governing rights to real and personal
26 property of the State, the Department, the contractor, and

09800SB2640ham001- 1351 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 other third parties;
2 (14) a provision stating that the contractor shall,
3 pursuant to Section 2-85 of this Act, pay the costs of an
4 independent audit if the construction costs under the
5 contract exceed $50,000,000;
6 (15) a provision regarding the implementation and
7 delivery of a comprehensive system of internal audits;
8 (16) a provision regarding the implementation and
9 delivery of reports, which shall include a requirement that
10 the contractor file with the Department, at least on an
11 annual basis, financial statements containing information
12 required by generally accepted accounting principles
13 (GAAP);
14 (17) procedural requirements for obtaining the prior
15 approval of the Department when rights that are the subject
16 of the agreement, including, but not limited to development
17 rights, construction rights, property rights, and rights
18 to certain revenues, are sold, assigned, transferred, or
19 pledged as collateral to secure financing or for any other
20 reason;
21 (18) grounds for termination of the agreement by the
22 Department or the contractor and a restatement of the
23 Department's rights under Section 2-45 of this Act;
24 (19) a requirement that the contractor enter into a
25 project labor agreement under Section 2-120 of this Act;
26 (20) a provision stating that construction contractors

09800SB2640ham001- 1352 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 shall comply with Section 2-120 of this Act;
2 (21) timelines, deadlines, and scheduling;
3 (22) review of plans, including development,
4 financing, construction, management, operations, or
5 maintenance plans, by the Department;
6 (23) a provision regarding inspections by the
7 Department, including inspections of construction work and
8 improvements;
9 (24) rights and remedies of the Department in the event
10 that the contractor defaults or otherwise fails to comply
11 with the terms of the public-private agreement;
12 (25) a code of ethics for the contractor's officers and
13 employees; and
14 (26) procedures for amendment to the agreement.
15 (b) The public-private agreement may include any or all of
16the following:
17 (1) a provision regarding the extension of the
18 agreement that is consistent with Section 2-20 of this Act;
19 (2) provisions leasing to the contractor all or any
20 portion of the South Suburban Airport, provided that the
21 lease may not extend beyond the term of the public-private
22 agreement; .
23 (3) cash reserves requirements;
24 (4) delivery of performance and payment bonds or other
25 performance security in a form and amount that is
26 satisfactory to the Department;

09800SB2640ham001- 1353 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 (5) maintenance of public liability insurance;
2 (6) maintenance of self-insurance;
3 (7) provisions governing grants and loans, pursuant to
4 which the Department may agree to make grants or loans for
5 the development, financing, construction, management, or
6 operation of the South Suburban Airport project from time
7 to time from amounts received from the federal government
8 or any agency or instrumentality of the federal government
9 or from any State or local agency;
10 (8) reimbursements to the Department for work
11 performed and goods, services, and equipment provided by
12 the Department;
13 (9) provisions allowing the Department to submit any
14 contractual disputes with the contractor relating to the
15 public-private agreement to non-binding alternative
16 dispute resolution proceedings; and
17 (10) any other terms, conditions, and provisions
18 acceptable to the Department that the Department deems
19 necessary and proper and in the public interest.
20(Source: P.A. 98-109, eff. 7-25-13; revised 11-19-13.)
21 Section 675. The Illinois Vehicle Code is amended by
22changing Sections 1-105, 2-119, 3-918, 5-301, 6-103, 6-106,
236-108, 6-118, 6-201, 6-206, 6-303, 6-508, 6-514, 11-208,
2411-208.7, 11-501, 11-709.2, 12-215, 12-610.2, and 15-111 and by
25setting forth, renumbering, and changing multiple versions of

09800SB2640ham001- 1354 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1Section 3-699 as follows:
2 (625 ILCS 5/1-105) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 1-105)
3 Sec. 1-105. Authorized emergency vehicle. Emergency
4vehicles of municipal departments or public service
5corporations as are designated or authorized by proper local
6authorities; police vehicles; vehicles of the fire department;
7vehicles of a HazMat or technical rescue team authorized by a
8county board under Section 5-1127 of the Counties Code;
9ambulances; vehicles of the Illinois Department of
10Corrections; vehicles of the Illinois Department of Juvenile
11Justice; vehicles of the Illinois Emergency Management Agency;
12vehicles of the Office of the Illinois State Fire Marshal; mine
13rescue and explosives emergency response vehicles of the
14Department of Natural Resources; vehicles of the Illinois
15Department of Public Health; vehicles of the Illinois
16Department of Transportation identified as Emergency Traffic
17Patrol; and vehicles of a municipal or county emergency
18services and disaster agency, as defined by the Illinois
19Emergency Management Agency Act.
20(Source: P.A. 97-149, eff. 7-14-11; 97-333, eff. 7-12-11;
2198-123, eff. 1-1-14; 98-468, eff. 8-16-13; revised 9-19-13.)
22 (625 ILCS 5/2-119) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 2-119)
23 (Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 98-176)
24 Sec. 2-119. Disposition of fees and taxes.

09800SB2640ham001- 1355 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 (a) All moneys received from Salvage Certificates shall be
2deposited in the Common School Fund in the State Treasury.
3 (b) Beginning January 1, 1990 and concluding December 31,
41994, of the money collected for each certificate of title,
5duplicate certificate of title and corrected certificate of
6title, $0.50 shall be deposited into the Used Tire Management
7Fund. Beginning January 1, 1990 and concluding December 31,
81994, of the money collected for each certificate of title,
9duplicate certificate of title and corrected certificate of
10title, $1.50 shall be deposited in the Park and Conservation
11Fund.
12 Beginning January 1, 1995, of the money collected for each
13certificate of title, duplicate certificate of title and
14corrected certificate of title, $3.25 shall be deposited in the
15Park and Conservation Fund. The moneys deposited in the Park
16and Conservation Fund pursuant to this Section shall be used
17for the acquisition and development of bike paths as provided
18for in Section 805-420 of the Department of Natural Resources
19(Conservation) Law (20 ILCS 805/805-420). The monies deposited
20into the Park and Conservation Fund under this subsection shall
21not be subject to administrative charges or chargebacks unless
22otherwise authorized by this Act.
23 Beginning January 1, 2000, of the moneys collected for each
24certificate of title, duplicate certificate of title, and
25corrected certificate of title, $48 shall be deposited into the
26Road Fund and $4 shall be deposited into the Motor Vehicle

09800SB2640ham001- 1356 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1License Plate Fund, except that if the balance in the Motor
2Vehicle License Plate Fund exceeds $40,000,000 on the last day
3of a calendar month, then during the next calendar month the $4
4shall instead be deposited into the Road Fund.
5 Beginning January 1, 2005, of the moneys collected for each
6delinquent vehicle registration renewal fee, $20 shall be
7deposited into the General Revenue Fund.
8 Except as otherwise provided in this Code, all remaining
9moneys collected for certificates of title, and all moneys
10collected for filing of security interests, shall be placed in
11the General Revenue Fund in the State Treasury.
12 (c) All moneys collected for that portion of a driver's
13license fee designated for driver education under Section 6-118
14shall be placed in the Driver Education Fund in the State
15Treasury.
16 (d) Beginning January 1, 1999, of the monies collected as a
17registration fee for each motorcycle, motor driven cycle and
18moped, 27% of each annual registration fee for such vehicle and
1927% of each semiannual registration fee for such vehicle is
20deposited in the Cycle Rider Safety Training Fund.
21 (e) Of the monies received by the Secretary of State as
22registration fees or taxes or as payment of any other fee, as
23provided in this Act, except fees received by the Secretary
24under paragraph (7) of subsection (b) of Section 5-101 and
25Section 5-109 of this Code, 37% shall be deposited into the
26State Construction Account Fund.

09800SB2640ham001- 1357 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 (f) Of the total money collected for a CDL instruction
2permit or original or renewal issuance of a commercial driver's
3license (CDL) pursuant to the Uniform Commercial Driver's
4License Act (UCDLA): (i) $6 of the total fee for an original or
5renewal CDL, and $6 of the total CDL instruction permit fee
6when such permit is issued to any person holding a valid
7Illinois driver's license, shall be paid into the
8CDLIS/AAMVAnet/NMVTIS Trust Fund (Commercial Driver's License
9Information System/American Association of Motor Vehicle
10Administrators network/National Motor Vehicle Title
11Information Service Trust Fund) and shall be used for the
12purposes provided in Section 6z-23 of the State Finance Act and
13(ii) $20 of the total fee for an original or renewal CDL or
14commercial driver instruction permit shall be paid into the
15Motor Carrier Safety Inspection Fund, which is hereby created
16as a special fund in the State Treasury, to be used by the
17Department of State Police, subject to appropriation, to hire
18additional officers to conduct motor carrier safety
19inspections pursuant to Chapter 18b of this Code.
20 (g) All remaining moneys received by the Secretary of State
21as registration fees or taxes or as payment of any other fee,
22as provided in this Act, except fees received by the Secretary
23under paragraph (7)(A) of subsection (b) of Section 5-101 and
24Section 5-109 of this Code, shall be deposited in the Road Fund
25in the State Treasury. Moneys in the Road Fund shall be used
26for the purposes provided in Section 8.3 of the State Finance

09800SB2640ham001- 1358 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1Act.
2 (h) (Blank).
3 (i) (Blank).
4 (j) (Blank).
5 (k) There is created in the State Treasury a special fund
6to be known as the Secretary of State Special License Plate
7Fund. Money deposited into the Fund shall, subject to
8appropriation, be used by the Office of the Secretary of State
9(i) to help defray plate manufacturing and plate processing
10costs for the issuance and, when applicable, renewal of any new
11or existing registration plates authorized under this Code and
12(ii) for grants made by the Secretary of State to benefit
13Illinois Veterans Home libraries.
14 On or before October 1, 1995, the Secretary of State shall
15direct the State Comptroller and State Treasurer to transfer
16any unexpended balance in the Special Environmental License
17Plate Fund, the Special Korean War Veteran License Plate Fund,
18and the Retired Congressional License Plate Fund to the
19Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.
20 (l) The Motor Vehicle Review Board Fund is created as a
21special fund in the State Treasury. Moneys deposited into the
22Fund under paragraph (7) of subsection (b) of Section 5-101 and
23Section 5-109 shall, subject to appropriation, be used by the
24Office of the Secretary of State to administer the Motor
25Vehicle Review Board, including without limitation payment of
26compensation and all necessary expenses incurred in

09800SB2640ham001- 1359 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1administering the Motor Vehicle Review Board under the Motor
2Vehicle Franchise Act.
3 (m) Effective July 1, 1996, there is created in the State
4Treasury a special fund to be known as the Family
5Responsibility Fund. Moneys deposited into the Fund shall,
6subject to appropriation, be used by the Office of the
7Secretary of State for the purpose of enforcing the Family
8Financial Responsibility Law.
9 (n) The Illinois Fire Fighters' Memorial Fund is created as
10a special fund in the State Treasury. Moneys deposited into the
11Fund shall, subject to appropriation, be used by the Office of
12the State Fire Marshal for construction of the Illinois Fire
13Fighters' Memorial to be located at the State Capitol grounds
14in Springfield, Illinois. Upon the completion of the Memorial,
15moneys in the Fund shall be used in accordance with Section
163-634.
17 (o) Of the money collected for each certificate of title
18for all-terrain vehicles and off-highway motorcycles, $17
19shall be deposited into the Off-Highway Vehicle Trails Fund.
20 (p) For audits conducted on or after July 1, 2003 pursuant
21to Section 2-124(d) of this Code, 50% of the money collected as
22audit fees shall be deposited into the General Revenue Fund.
23(Source: P.A. 97-1136, eff. 1-1-13; 98-177, eff. 1-1-14;
24revised 9-19-13.)
25 (Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 98-176)

09800SB2640ham001- 1360 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 Sec. 2-119. Disposition of fees and taxes.
2 (a) All moneys received from Salvage Certificates shall be
3deposited in the Common School Fund in the State Treasury.
4 (b) Beginning January 1, 1990 and concluding December 31,
51994, of the money collected for each certificate of title,
6duplicate certificate of title and corrected certificate of
7title, $0.50 shall be deposited into the Used Tire Management
8Fund. Beginning January 1, 1990 and concluding December 31,
91994, of the money collected for each certificate of title,
10duplicate certificate of title and corrected certificate of
11title, $1.50 shall be deposited in the Park and Conservation
12Fund.
13 Beginning January 1, 1995, of the money collected for each
14certificate of title, duplicate certificate of title and
15corrected certificate of title, $3.25 shall be deposited in the
16Park and Conservation Fund. The moneys deposited in the Park
17and Conservation Fund pursuant to this Section shall be used
18for the acquisition and development of bike paths as provided
19for in Section 805-420 of the Department of Natural Resources
20(Conservation) Law (20 ILCS 805/805-420). The monies deposited
21into the Park and Conservation Fund under this subsection shall
22not be subject to administrative charges or chargebacks unless
23otherwise authorized by this Act.
24 Beginning January 1, 2000, of the moneys collected for each
25certificate of title, duplicate certificate of title, and
26corrected certificate of title, $48 shall be deposited into the

09800SB2640ham001- 1361 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1Road Fund and $4 shall be deposited into the Motor Vehicle
2License Plate Fund, except that if the balance in the Motor
3Vehicle License Plate Fund exceeds $40,000,000 on the last day
4of a calendar month, then during the next calendar month the $4
5shall instead be deposited into the Road Fund.
6 Beginning January 1, 2005, of the moneys collected for each
7delinquent vehicle registration renewal fee, $20 shall be
8deposited into the General Revenue Fund.
9 Except as otherwise provided in this Code, all remaining
10moneys collected for certificates of title, and all moneys
11collected for filing of security interests, shall be placed in
12the General Revenue Fund in the State Treasury.
13 (c) All moneys collected for that portion of a driver's
14license fee designated for driver education under Section 6-118
15shall be placed in the Driver Education Fund in the State
16Treasury.
17 (d) Beginning January 1, 1999, of the monies collected as a
18registration fee for each motorcycle, motor driven cycle and
19moped, 27% of each annual registration fee for such vehicle and
2027% of each semiannual registration fee for such vehicle is
21deposited in the Cycle Rider Safety Training Fund.
22 (e) Of the monies received by the Secretary of State as
23registration fees or taxes or as payment of any other fee, as
24provided in this Act, except fees received by the Secretary
25under paragraph (7) of subsection (b) of Section 5-101 and
26Section 5-109 of this Code, 37% shall be deposited into the

09800SB2640ham001- 1362 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1State Construction Account Fund.
2 (f) Of the total money collected for a commercial learner's
3permit (CLP) or original or renewal issuance of a commercial
4driver's license (CDL) pursuant to the Uniform Commercial
5Driver's License Act (UCDLA): (i) $6 of the total fee for an
6original or renewal CDL, and $6 of the total CLP fee when such
7permit is issued to any person holding a valid Illinois
8driver's license, shall be paid into the CDLIS/AAMVAnet/NMVTIS
9Trust Fund (Commercial Driver's License Information
10System/American Association of Motor Vehicle Administrators
11network/National Motor Vehicle Title Information Service Trust
12Fund) and shall be used for the purposes provided in Section
136z-23 of the State Finance Act and (ii) $20 of the total fee
14for an original or renewal CDL or CLP shall be paid into the
15Motor Carrier Safety Inspection Fund, which is hereby created
16as a special fund in the State Treasury, to be used by the
17Department of State Police, subject to appropriation, to hire
18additional officers to conduct motor carrier safety
19inspections pursuant to Chapter 18b of this Code.
20 (g) All remaining moneys received by the Secretary of State
21as registration fees or taxes or as payment of any other fee,
22as provided in this Act, except fees received by the Secretary
23under paragraph (7)(A) of subsection (b) of Section 5-101 and
24Section 5-109 of this Code, shall be deposited in the Road Fund
25in the State Treasury. Moneys in the Road Fund shall be used
26for the purposes provided in Section 8.3 of the State Finance

09800SB2640ham001- 1363 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1Act.
2 (h) (Blank).
3 (i) (Blank).
4 (j) (Blank).
5 (k) There is created in the State Treasury a special fund
6to be known as the Secretary of State Special License Plate
7Fund. Money deposited into the Fund shall, subject to
8appropriation, be used by the Office of the Secretary of State
9(i) to help defray plate manufacturing and plate processing
10costs for the issuance and, when applicable, renewal of any new
11or existing registration plates authorized under this Code and
12(ii) for grants made by the Secretary of State to benefit
13Illinois Veterans Home libraries.
14 On or before October 1, 1995, the Secretary of State shall
15direct the State Comptroller and State Treasurer to transfer
16any unexpended balance in the Special Environmental License
17Plate Fund, the Special Korean War Veteran License Plate Fund,
18and the Retired Congressional License Plate Fund to the
19Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.
20 (l) The Motor Vehicle Review Board Fund is created as a
21special fund in the State Treasury. Moneys deposited into the
22Fund under paragraph (7) of subsection (b) of Section 5-101 and
23Section 5-109 shall, subject to appropriation, be used by the
24Office of the Secretary of State to administer the Motor
25Vehicle Review Board, including without limitation payment of
26compensation and all necessary expenses incurred in

09800SB2640ham001- 1364 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1administering the Motor Vehicle Review Board under the Motor
2Vehicle Franchise Act.
3 (m) Effective July 1, 1996, there is created in the State
4Treasury a special fund to be known as the Family
5Responsibility Fund. Moneys deposited into the Fund shall,
6subject to appropriation, be used by the Office of the
7Secretary of State for the purpose of enforcing the Family
8Financial Responsibility Law.
9 (n) The Illinois Fire Fighters' Memorial Fund is created as
10a special fund in the State Treasury. Moneys deposited into the
11Fund shall, subject to appropriation, be used by the Office of
12the State Fire Marshal for construction of the Illinois Fire
13Fighters' Memorial to be located at the State Capitol grounds
14in Springfield, Illinois. Upon the completion of the Memorial,
15moneys in the Fund shall be used in accordance with Section
163-634.
17 (o) Of the money collected for each certificate of title
18for all-terrain vehicles and off-highway motorcycles, $17
19shall be deposited into the Off-Highway Vehicle Trails Fund.
20 (p) For audits conducted on or after July 1, 2003 pursuant
21to Section 2-124(d) of this Code, 50% of the money collected as
22audit fees shall be deposited into the General Revenue Fund.
23(Source: P.A. 97-1136, eff. 1-1-13; 98-176, eff. 7-1-14;
2498-177, eff. 1-1-14; revised 9-19-13.)
25 (625 ILCS 5/3-699)

09800SB2640ham001- 1365 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 Sec. 3-699. National Wild Turkey Federation license
2plates.
3 (a) The Secretary, upon receipt of all applicable fees and
4applications made in the form prescribed by the Secretary, may
5issue special registration plates designated as National Wild
6Turkey Federation license plates. The special plates issued
7under this Section shall be affixed only to passenger vehicles
8of the first division or motor vehicles of the second division
9weighing not more than 8,000 pounds. Plates issued under this
10Section shall expire according to the multi-year procedure
11established by Section 3-414.1 of this Code.
12 (b) The design and color of the special plates shall be
13wholly within the discretion of the Secretary. The Secretary
14may allow the plates to be issued as vanity plates or
15personalized plates under Section 3-405.1 of this Code. The
16Secretary shall prescribe stickers or decals as provided under
17Section 3-412 of this Code.
18 (c) An applicant for the special plate shall be charged a
19$40 fee for original issuance in addition to the appropriate
20registration fee. Of this fee, $25 shall be deposited into the
21National Wild Turkey Federation Fund and $15 shall be deposited
22into the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund, to be
23used by the Secretary to help defray the administrative
24processing costs.
25 For each registration renewal period, a $27 fee, in
26addition to the appropriate registration fee, shall be charged.

09800SB2640ham001- 1366 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1Of this fee, $25 shall be deposited into the National Wild
2Turkey Federation Fund and $2 shall be deposited into the
3Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.
4 (d) The National Wild Turkey Federation Fund is created as
5a special fund in the State treasury. All moneys in the
6National Wild Turkey Federation Fund shall be paid, subject to
7appropriation by the General Assembly and distribution by the
8Secretary, as grants to National Wild Turkey Federation, Inc.,
9a tax exempt entity under Section 501(c)(3) of the Internal
10Revenue Code, to fund turkey habitat protection, enhancement,
11and restoration projects in the State of Illinois, to fund
12education and outreach for media, volunteers, members, and the
13general public regarding turkeys and turkey habitat
14conservation in the State of Illinois, and to cover the
15reasonable cost for National Wild Turkey Federation special
16plate advertising and administration of the conservation
17projects and education program.
18(Source: P.A. 98-66, eff. 1-1-14.)
19 (625 ILCS 5/3-699.2)
20 Sec. 3-699.2 3-699. Diabetes Awareness license plates.
21 (a) The Secretary, upon receipt of an application made in
22the form prescribed by the Secretary, may issue special
23registration plates designated as Diabetes Awareness license
24plates. The special plates issued under this Section shall be
25affixed only to passenger vehicles of the first division and

09800SB2640ham001- 1367 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1motor vehicles of the second division weighing not more than
28,000 pounds. Plates issued under this Section shall expire
3according to the multi-year procedure established by Section
43-414.1 of this Code.
5 (b) The design and color of the plates is wholly within the
6discretion of the Secretary of State. The Secretary, in his or
7her discretion, may allow the plates to be issued as vanity or
8personalized plates under Section 3-405.1 of this Code. The
9Secretary shall prescribe stickers or decals as provided under
10Section 3-412 of this Code.
11 (c) An applicant for the special plate shall be charged a
12$40 fee for original issuance in addition to the appropriate
13registration fee. Of this fee, $25 shall be deposited into the
14Diabetes Research Checkoff Fund and $15 shall be deposited into
15the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund, to be used
16by the Secretary to help defray the administrative processing
17costs.
18 For each registration renewal period, a $27 fee, in
19addition to the appropriate registration fee, shall be charged.
20Of this fee, $25 shall be deposited into the Diabetes Research
21Checkoff Fund and $2 shall be deposited into the Secretary of
22State Special License Plate Fund.
23(Source: P.A. 98-96, eff. 1-1-14; revised 10-16-13.)
24 (625 ILCS 5/3-699.3)
25 Sec. 3-699.3 3-699. Illinois Nurses license plates.

09800SB2640ham001- 1368 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 (a) The Secretary, upon receipt of an application made in
2the form prescribed by the Secretary, may issue special
3registration plates designated as Illinois Nurses license
4plates. The special plates issued under this Section shall be
5affixed only to passenger vehicles of the first division and
6motor vehicles of the second division weighing not more than
78,000 pounds. Plates issued under this Section shall expire
8according to the multi-year procedure established by Section
93-414.1 of this Code.
10 (b) The design and color of the plates is wholly within the
11discretion of the Secretary. The Secretary may allow the plates
12to be issued as vanity plates or personalized under Section
133-405.1 of the Code. The Secretary shall prescribe stickers or
14decals as provided under Section 3-412 of this Code.
15 (c) An applicant for the special plate shall be charged a
16$35 fee for original issuance in addition to the appropriate
17registration fee. Of this fee, $20 shall be deposited into the
18Illinois Nurses Foundation Fund and $15 shall be deposited into
19the Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund, to be used
20by the Secretary to help defray administrative processing
21costs.
22 For each registration renewal period, a $22 fee, in
23addition to the appropriate registration fee, shall be charged.
24Of this fee, $20 shall be deposited into the Illinois Nurses
25Foundation Fund and $2 shall be deposited into the Secretary of
26State Special License Plate Fund.

09800SB2640ham001- 1369 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 (d) The Illinois Nurses Foundation Fund is created as a
2special fund in the State treasury. All money in the Illinois
3Nurses Foundation Fund shall be paid, subject to appropriation
4by the General Assembly and distribution by the Secretary, as
5grants to the Illinois Nurses Foundation, to promote the health
6of the public by advancing the nursing profession in this
7State.
8(Source: P.A. 98-150, eff. 1-1-14; revised 10-16-13.)
9 (625 ILCS 5/3-699.4)
10 Sec. 3-699.4 3-699. American Red Cross license plates.
11 (a) The Secretary, upon receipt of all applicable fees and
12applications made in the form prescribed by the Secretary, may
13issue special registration plates designated as American Red
14Cross license plates. The special plates issued under this
15Section shall be affixed only to passenger vehicles of the
16first division or motor vehicles of the second division
17weighing not more than 8,000 pounds. Plates issued under this
18Section shall expire according to the multi-year procedure
19established by Section 3-414.1 of this Code.
20 (b) The design and color of the special plates shall be
21within the discretion of the Secretary, but shall include the
22American Red Cross official logo. Appropriate documentation,
23as determined by the Secretary, shall accompany each
24application. The Secretary may allow the plates to be issued as
25vanity plates or personalized plates under Section 3-405.1 of

09800SB2640ham001- 1370 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1this Code. The Secretary shall prescribe stickers or decals as
2provided under Section 3-412 of this Code.
3 (c) An applicant for the special plate shall be charged a
4$40 fee for original issuance in addition to the appropriate
5registration fee. Of this fee, $25 shall be deposited into the
6American Red Cross Fund and $15 shall be deposited into the
7Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund, to be used by
8the Secretary to help defray the administrative processing
9costs. For each registration renewal period, a $27 fee, in
10addition to the appropriate registration fee, shall be charged.
11Of this fee, $25 shall be deposited into the American Red Cross
12Fund and $2 shall be deposited into the Secretary of State
13Special License Plate Fund.
14 (d) The American Red Cross Fund is created as a special
15fund in the State treasury. All moneys in the American Red
16Cross Fund shall be paid, subject to appropriation by the
17General Assembly and distribution by the Secretary, as grants
18to the American Red Cross or to charitable entities designated
19by the American Red Cross.
20(Source: P.A. 98-151, eff. 1-1-14; revised 10-16-13.)
21 (625 ILCS 5/3-699.5)
22 Sec. 3-699.5 3-699. Illinois Police Benevolent and
23Protective Association license plates.
24 (a) The Secretary, upon receipt of an application made in
25the form prescribed by the Secretary, may issue special

09800SB2640ham001- 1371 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1registration plates designated as Illinois Police Benevolent
2and Protective Association license plates. The special plates
3issued under this Section shall be affixed only to passenger
4vehicles of the first division and motor vehicles of the second
5division weighing not more than 8,000 pounds. Plates issued
6under this Section shall expire according to the multi-year
7procedure established by Section 3-414.1 of this Code.
8 (b) The design and color of the plates is wholly within the
9discretion of the Secretary. The Secretary may allow the plates
10to be issued as vanity plates or personalized under Section
113-405.1 of the Code. The Secretary shall prescribe stickers or
12decals as provided under Section 3-412 of this Code. The
13Secretary may, in his or her discretion, allow the plates to be
14issued as vanity or personalized plates in accordance with
15Section 3-405.1 of this Code.
16 (c) An applicant for the special plate shall be charged a
17$25 fee for original issuance in addition to the appropriate
18registration fee. Of this fee, $10 shall be deposited into the
19Illinois Police Benevolent and Protective Association Fund and
20$15 shall be deposited into the Secretary of State Special
21License Plate Fund, to be used by the Secretary to help defray
22the administrative processing costs.
23 For each registration renewal period, a $25 fee, in
24addition to the appropriate registration fee, shall be charged.
25Of this fee, $23 shall be deposited into the Illinois Police
26Benevolent and Protective Association Fund and $2 shall be

09800SB2640ham001- 1372 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1deposited into the Secretary of State Special License Plate
2Fund.
3 (d) The Illinois Police Benevolent and Protective
4Association Fund is created as a special fund in the State
5treasury. All money in the Illinois Police Benevolent and
6Protective Association Fund shall be paid, subject to
7appropriation by the General Assembly and distribution by the
8Secretary, as grants to the Illinois Police Benevolent and
9Protective Association for the purposes of providing death
10benefits for the families of police officers killed in the line
11of duty, providing scholarships for undergraduate study to
12children and spouses of police officers killed in the line of
13duty, and educating the public and police officers regarding
14policing and public safety.
15(Source: P.A. 98-233, eff. 1-1-14; revised 10-16-13.)
16 (625 ILCS 5/3-699.6)
17 Sec. 3-699.6 3-699. Alzheimer's Awareness license plates.
18 (a) The Secretary, upon receipt of an application made in
19the form prescribed by the Secretary, may issue special
20registration plates designated as Alzheimer's Awareness
21license plates. The special plates issued under this Section
22shall be affixed only to passenger vehicles of the first
23division and motor vehicles of the second division weighing not
24more than 8,000 pounds. Plates issued under this Section shall
25expire according to the multi-year procedure established by

09800SB2640ham001- 1373 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1Section 3-414.1 of this Code.
2 (b) The design and color of the plates is wholly within the
3discretion of the Secretary. The Secretary may allow the plates
4to be issued as vanity plates or personalized under Section
53-405.1 of this Code. The Secretary shall prescribe stickers or
6decals as provided under Section 3-412 of this Code.
7 (c) An applicant for the special plate shall be charged a
8$25 fee for original issuance in addition to the appropriate
9registration fee. Of this fee, $10 shall be deposited into the
10Alzheimer's Awareness Fund and $15 shall be deposited into the
11Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund, to be used by
12the Secretary to help defray administrative processing costs.
13 For each registration renewal period, a $25 fee, in
14addition to the appropriate registration fee, shall be charged.
15Of this fee, $23 shall be deposited into the Alzheimer's
16Awareness Fund and $2 shall be deposited into the Secretary of
17State Special License Plate Fund.
18 (d) The Alzheimer's Awareness Fund is created as a special
19fund in the State treasury. All money in the Alzheimer's
20Awareness Fund shall be paid, subject to appropriation by the
21General Assembly and distribution by the Secretary, as grants
22to the Alzheimer's Disease and Related Disorders Association,
23Greater Illinois Chapter, for Alzheimer's care, support,
24education, and awareness programs.
25(Source: P.A. 98-259, eff. 1-1-14; revised 10-16-13.)

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1 (625 ILCS 5/3-699.7)
2 Sec. 3-699.7 3-699. Prince Hall Freemasonry plates.
3 (a) The Secretary, upon receipt of all applicable fees and
4applications made in the form prescribed by the Secretary, may
5issue special registration plates designated as Prince Hall
6Freemasonry license plates.
7 The special plates issued under this Section shall be
8affixed only to passenger vehicles of the first division or
9motor vehicles of the second division weighing not more than
108,000 pounds.
11 Plates issued under this Section shall expire according to
12the multi-year procedure established by Section 3-414.1 of this
13Code.
14 (b) The design and color of the special plates shall be
15wholly within the discretion of the Secretary. Appropriate
16documentation, as determined by the Secretary, shall accompany
17each application.
18 (c) An applicant for the special plate shall be charged a
19$25 fee for original issuance in addition to the appropriate
20registration fee. Of this fee, $10 shall be deposited into the
21Master Mason Fund and $15 shall be deposited into the Secretary
22of State Special License Plate Fund, to be used by the
23Secretary to help defray the administrative processing costs.
24 For each registration renewal period, a $25 fee, in
25addition to the appropriate registration fee, shall be charged.
26Of this fee, $23 shall be deposited into the Master Mason Fund

09800SB2640ham001- 1375 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1and $2 shall be deposited into the Secretary of State Special
2License Plate Fund.
3(Source: P.A. 98-300, eff. 1-1-14; revised 10-16-13.)
4 (625 ILCS 5/3-699.8)
5 Sec. 3-699.8 3-699. Illinois Police K-9 Memorial Plates.
6 (a) The Secretary, upon receipt of all applicable fees and
7applications made in the form prescribed by the Secretary, may
8issue special registration plates designated as Illinois
9Police K-9 Memorial license plates. The special plates issued
10under this Section shall be affixed only to passenger vehicles
11of the first division or motor vehicles of the second division
12weighing not more than 8,000 pounds. Plates issued under this
13Section shall expire according to the multi-year procedure
14established by Section 3-414.1 of this Code.
15 (b) The design and color of the plates is wholly within the
16discretion of the Secretary. The Secretary may allow the plates
17to be issued as vanity plates or personalized under Section
183-405.1 of the Code. Appropriate documentation, as determined
19by the Secretary, shall accompany each application. The
20Secretary shall prescribe stickers or decals as provided under
21Section 3-412 of this Code.
22 (c) An applicant shall be charged a $40 fee for original
23issuance in addition to the applicable registration fee. Of
24this additional fee, $15 shall be deposited into the Secretary
25of State Special License Plate Fund and $25 shall be deposited

09800SB2640ham001- 1376 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1into the Illinois Police K-9 Memorial Fund. For each
2registration renewal period, a $27 fee, in addition to the
3appropriate registration fee, shall be charged. Of this
4additional fee, $2 shall be deposited into the Secretary of
5State Special License Plate Fund and $25 shall be deposited
6into the Illinois Police K-9 Memorial Fund.
7 (d) The Illinois Police K-9 Memorial Fund is created as a
8special fund in the State treasury. All moneys in the Illinois
9Police K-9 Memorial Fund shall be paid, subject to
10appropriation by the General Assembly and distribution by the
11Secretary, as grants to the Northern Illinois Police K-9
12Memorial for the creation, operation, and maintenance of a
13police K-9 memorial monument.
14(Source: P.A. 98-360, eff. 1-1-14; revised 10-16-13.)
15 (625 ILCS 5/3-699.9)
16 Sec. 3-699.9 3-699. Public Safety Diver license plates.
17 (a) The Secretary, upon receipt of an application made in
18the form prescribed by the Secretary of State, may issue
19special registration plates designated to be Public Safety
20Diver license plates. The special plates issued under this
21Section shall be affixed only to passenger vehicles of the
22first division, motor vehicles of the second division weighing
23not more than 8,000 pounds, and recreational vehicles as
24defined by Section 1-169 of this Code. Plates issued under this
25Section shall expire according to the multi-year procedure

09800SB2640ham001- 1377 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1established by Section 3-414.1 of this Code.
2 (b) The design and color of the plates shall be wholly
3within the discretion of the Secretary of State. Appropriate
4documentation, as determined by the Secretary, shall accompany
5the application. The Secretary may, in his or her discretion,
6allow the plates to be issued as vanity or personalized plates
7in accordance with Section 3-405.1 of this Code.
8 (c) An applicant shall be charged a $45 fee for original
9issuance in addition to the appropriate registration fee, if
10applicable. Of this fee, $30 shall be deposited into the Public
11Safety Diver Fund and $15 shall be deposited into the Secretary
12of State Special License Plate Fund. For each registration
13renewal period, a $27 fee, in addition to the appropriate
14registration fee, shall be charged. Of this fee, $25 shall be
15deposited into the Public Safety Diver Fund and $2 shall be
16deposited into the Secretary of State Special License Plate
17Fund.
18 (d) The Public Safety Diver Fund is created as a special
19fund in the State treasury. All moneys in the Public Safety
20Diver Fund shall be paid, subject to appropriation by the
21General Assembly and distribution by the Secretary, to the
22Illinois Law Enforcement Training Standards Board for the
23purposes of providing grants based on need for training,
24standards, and equipment to public safety disciplines within
25the State and to units of local government involved in public
26safety diving and water rescue services.

09800SB2640ham001- 1378 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 (e) The Public Safety Diver Advisory Committee shall
2recommend grant rewards with the intent of achieving reasonably
3equitable distribution of funds between police, firefighting,
4and public safety diving services making application for grants
5under this Section.
6 (f) The administrative costs related to management of
7grants made from the Public Safety Diver Fund shall be paid
8from the Public Safety Diver Fund to the Illinois Law
9Enforcement Training Standards Board.
10(Source: P.A. 98-376, eff. 1-1-14; revised 10-16-13.)
11 (625 ILCS 5/3-699.10)
12 Sec. 3-699.10 3-699. The H Foundation - Committed to a Cure
13for Cancer plates.
14 (a) The Secretary, upon receipt of all applicable fees and
15applications made in the form prescribed by the Secretary, may
16issue special registration plates designated as The H
17Foundation - Committed to a Cure for Cancer license plates. The
18special plates issued under this Section shall be affixed only
19to passenger vehicles of the first division or motor vehicles
20of the second division weighing not more than 8,000 pounds.
21Plates issued under this Section shall expire according to the
22multi-year procedure established by Section 3-414.1 of this
23Code.
24 (b) The design and color of the special plates shall be
25wholly within the discretion of the Secretary. Appropriate

09800SB2640ham001- 1379 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1documentation, as determined by the Secretary, shall accompany
2each application.
3 (c) An applicant for the special plate shall be charged a
4$40 fee for original issuance in addition to the appropriate
5registration fee. Of this fee, $25 shall be deposited into the
6Committed to a Cure Fund and $15 shall be deposited into the
7Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund, to be used by
8the Secretary to help defray the administrative processing
9costs. For each registration renewal period, a $27 fee, in
10addition to the appropriate registration fee, shall be charged.
11Of this fee, $25 shall be deposited into the Committed to a
12Cure Fund and $2 shall be deposited into the Secretary of State
13Special License Plate Fund.
14 (d) The Committed to a Cure Fund is created as a special
15fund in the State treasury. All money in the Committed to a
16Cure Fund shall be paid, subject to appropriation by the
17General Assembly and distribution by the Secretary, as grants
18to the Robert H. Lurie Comprehensive Cancer Center of
19Northwestern University for the purpose of funding scientific
20research on cancer.
21(Source: P.A. 98-382, eff. 1-1-14; revised 10-16-13.)
22 (625 ILCS 5/3-699.11)
23 Sec. 3-699.11 3-699. Retired Law Enforcement license
24plates.
25 (a) The Secretary, upon receipt of an application made in

09800SB2640ham001- 1380 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1the form prescribed by the Secretary, may issue special
2registration plates designated as Retired Law Enforcement
3license plates to residents of Illinois who meet eligibility
4requirements prescribed by the Secretary of State. The special
5plates issued under this Section shall be affixed only to
6passenger vehicles of the first division and motor vehicles of
7the second division weighing not more than 8,000 pounds. Plates
8issued under this Section shall expire according to the
9multi-year procedure established by Section 3-414.1 of this
10Code.
11 (b) The design and color of the plates is wholly within the
12discretion of the Secretary. The Secretary may allow the plates
13to be issued as vanity plates or personalized under Section
143-405.1 of the Code. The Secretary shall prescribe stickers or
15decals as provided under Section 3-412 of this Code.
16 (c) An applicant for the special plate shall be charged a
17$25 fee for original issuance in addition to the appropriate
18registration fee. Of this fee, $10 shall be deposited into the
19Illinois Sheriffs' Association Scholarship and Training Fund
20and $15 shall be deposited into the Secretary of State Special
21License Plate Fund, to be used by the Secretary to help defray
22the administrative processing costs.
23 For each registration renewal period, a $25 fee, in
24addition to the appropriate registration fee, shall be charged.
25Of this fee, $23 shall be deposited into the Illinois Sheriffs'
26Association Scholarship and Training Fund and $2 shall be

09800SB2640ham001- 1381 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1deposited into the Secretary of State Special License Plate
2Fund.
3 (d) The Illinois Sheriffs' Association Scholarship and
4Training Fund is created as a special fund in the State
5treasury. All money in the Illinois Sheriffs' Association
6Scholarship and Training Fund shall be paid, subject to
7appropriation by the General Assembly and distribution by the
8Secretary, as grants to the Illinois Sheriffs' Association, for
9scholarships obtained in a competitive process to attend the
10Illinois Teen Institute or an accredited college or university,
11for programs designed to benefit the elderly and teens, and for
12law enforcement training.
13(Source: P.A. 98-395, eff. 1-1-14; revised 10-16-13.)
14 (625 ILCS 5/3-699.12)
15 Sec. 3-699.12 3-699. Legion of Merit plates. The Secretary,
16upon receipt of an application made in the form prescribed by
17the Secretary of State, may issue special registration plates
18designated as Legion of Merit license plates to recipients
19awarded the Legion of Merit by a branch of the armed forces of
20the United States who reside in Illinois. The special plates
21issued pursuant to this Section should be affixed only to
22passenger vehicles of the 1st division, including motorcycles,
23or motor vehicles of the 2nd division weighing not more than
248,000 pounds. The Secretary may, in his or her discretion,
25allow the plates to be issued as vanity or personalized plates

09800SB2640ham001- 1382 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1in accordance with Section 3-405.1 of this Code. The Secretary
2of State must make a version of the special registration plates
3authorized under this Section in a form appropriate for
4motorcycles.
5 The design and color of such plates shall be wholly within
6the discretion of the Secretary of State. No registration fee,
7including the fees established under Section 3-806 of this
8Code, shall be charged for the issuance or renewal of any
9plates issued under this Section.
10(Source: P.A. 98-406, eff. 1-1-14; revised 10-16-13.)
11 (625 ILCS 5/3-699.13)
12 Sec. 3-699.13 3-699. Illinois State Police Memorial Park
13license plates.
14 (a) The Secretary, upon receipt of an application made in
15the form prescribed by the Secretary of State, may issue
16special registration plates designated as Illinois State
17Police Memorial Park license plates. The special plates issued
18under this Section shall be affixed only to passenger vehicles
19of the first division or motor vehicles of the second division
20weighing not more than 8,000 pounds. Plates issued under this
21Section shall expire according to the multi-year procedure
22established by Section 3-414.1 of this Code.
23 (b) The design and color of the plates shall be wholly
24within the discretion of the Secretary of State. The Secretary
25may, in his or her discretion, allow the plates to be issued as

09800SB2640ham001- 1383 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1vanity or personalized plates in accordance with Section
23-405.1 of this Code. The Secretary shall prescribe stickers or
3decals as provided under Section 3-412 of this Code.
4 (c) An applicant shall be charged a $25 fee for original
5issuance in addition to the appropriate registration fee, if
6applicable. Of this fee, $10 shall be deposited into the
7Illinois State Police Memorial Park Fund and $15 shall be
8deposited into the Secretary of State Special License Plate
9Fund. For each registration renewal period, a $25 fee, in
10addition to the appropriate registration fee, shall be charged.
11Of this fee, $23 shall be deposited into the Illinois State
12Police Memorial Park Fund and $2 shall be deposited into the
13Secretary of State Special License Plate Fund.
14 (d) The Illinois State Police Memorial Park Fund is created
15as a special fund in the State treasury. All moneys in the
16Illinois State Police Memorial Park Fund shall be paid, subject
17to appropriation by the General Assembly and distribution by
18the Secretary, as grants to the Illinois State Police Heritage
19Foundation, Inc. for building and maintaining a memorial and
20park, holding an annual memorial commemoration, giving
21scholarships to children of State police officers killed or
22catastrophically injured in the line of duty, and providing
23financial assistance to police officers and their families when
24a police officer is killed or injured in the line of duty.
25(Source: P.A. 98-469, eff. 8-16-13; revised 10-16-13.)

09800SB2640ham001- 1384 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 (625 ILCS 5/3-918)
2 Sec. 3-918. Vehicle registration and insurance. Beginning
3with the 2016 registration year, any remittance agent engaged
4in the business of remitting applications for the issuance or
5renewal of vehicle registration shall ask applicants for
6information relating to the insurance policy for the motor
7vehicle, including the name of the insurer that issued the
8policy, the policy number, and the expiration date of the
9policy. This information shall be remitted to the Secretary of
10State as part of the application. Failure to obtain this
11information and supply it to the Secretary of State shall
12subject the remittance agent to suspension or revocation of the
13remittance agent's their license as described in Section 3-907
14of this Code.
15(Source: P.A. 98-539, eff. 1-1-14; revised 11-19-13.)
16 (625 ILCS 5/5-301) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 5-301)
17 Sec. 5-301. Automotive parts recyclers, scrap processors,
18repairers and rebuilders must be licensed.
19 (a) No person in this State shall, except as an incident to
20the servicing of vehicles, carry on or conduct the business of
21an a automotive parts recycler recyclers, a scrap processor, a
22repairer, or a rebuilder, unless licensed to do so in writing
23by the Secretary of State under this Section. No person shall
24rebuild a salvage vehicle unless such person is licensed as a
25rebuilder by the Secretary of State under this Section. No

09800SB2640ham001- 1385 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1person shall engage in the business of acquiring 5 or more
2previously owned vehicles in one calendar year for the primary
3purpose of disposing of those vehicles in the manner described
4in the definition of a "scrap processor" in this Code unless
5the person is licensed as an automotive parts recycler by the
6Secretary of State under this Section. Each license shall be
7applied for and issued separately, except that a license issued
8to a new vehicle dealer under Section 5-101 of this Code shall
9also be deemed to be a repairer license.
10 (b) Any application filed with the Secretary of State,
11shall be duly verified by oath, in such form as the Secretary
12of State may by rule or regulation prescribe and shall contain:
13 1. The name and type of business organization of the
14 applicant and his principal or additional places of
15 business, if any, in this State.
16 2. The kind or kinds of business enumerated in
17 subsection (a) of this Section to be conducted at each
18 location.
19 3. If the applicant is a corporation, a list of its
20 officers, directors, and shareholders having a ten percent
21 or greater ownership interest in the corporation, setting
22 forth the residence address of each; if the applicant is a
23 sole proprietorship, a partnership, an unincorporated
24 association, a trust, or any similar form of business
25 organization, the names and residence address of the
26 proprietor or of each partner, member, officer, director,

09800SB2640ham001- 1386 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 trustee or manager.
2 4. A statement that the applicant's officers,
3 directors, shareholders having a ten percent or greater
4 ownership interest therein, proprietor, partner, member,
5 officer, director, trustee, manager, or other principals
6 in the business have not committed in the past three years
7 any one violation as determined in any civil or criminal or
8 administrative proceedings of any one of the following
9 Acts:
10 (a) The Anti-Theft Anti Theft Laws of the Illinois
11 Vehicle Code;
12 (b) The "Certificate of Title Laws" of the Illinois
13 Vehicle Code;
14 (c) The "Offenses against Registration and
15 Certificates of Title Laws" of the Illinois Vehicle
16 Code;
17 (d) The "Dealers, Transporters, Wreckers and
18 Rebuilders Laws" of the Illinois Vehicle Code;
19 (e) Section 21-2 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or
20 the Criminal Code of 2012, Criminal Trespass to
21 Vehicles; or
22 (f) The Retailers Occupation Tax Act.
23 5. A statement that the applicant's officers,
24 directors, shareholders having a ten percent or greater
25 ownership interest therein, proprietor, partner, member,
26 officer, director, trustee, manager or other principals in

09800SB2640ham001- 1387 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 the business have not committed in any calendar year 3 or
2 more violations, as determined in any civil or criminal or
3 administrative proceedings, of any one or more of the
4 following Acts:
5 (a) The Consumer Finance Act;
6 (b) The Consumer Installment Loan Act;
7 (c) The Retail Installment Sales Act;
8 (d) The Motor Vehicle Retail Installment Sales
9 Act;
10 (e) The Interest Act;
11 (f) The Illinois Wage Assignment Act;
12 (g) Part 8 of Article XII of the Code of Civil
13 Procedure; or
14 (h) The Consumer Fraud Act.
15 6. An application for a license shall be accompanied by
16 the following fees: $50 for applicant's established place
17 of business; $25 for each additional place of business, if
18 any, to which the application pertains; provided, however,
19 that if such an application is made after June 15 of any
20 year, the license fee shall be $25 for applicant's
21 established place of business plus $12.50 for each
22 additional place of business, if any, to which the
23 application pertains. License fees shall be returnable
24 only in the event that such application shall be denied by
25 the Secretary of State.
26 7. A statement that the applicant understands Chapter 1

09800SB2640ham001- 1388 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 through Chapter 5 of this Code.
2 8. A statement that the applicant shall comply with
3 subsection (e) of this Section.
4 (c) Any change which renders no longer accurate any
5information contained in any application for a license filed
6with the Secretary of State shall be amended within 30 days
7after the occurrence of such change on such form as the
8Secretary of State may prescribe by rule or regulation,
9accompanied by an amendatory fee of $2.
10 (d) Anything in this chapter to the contrary,
11notwithstanding, no person shall be licensed under this Section
12unless such person shall maintain an established place of
13business as defined in this Chapter.
14 (e) The Secretary of State shall within a reasonable time
15after receipt thereof, examine an application submitted to him
16under this Section and unless he makes a determination that the
17application submitted to him does not conform with the
18requirements of this Section or that grounds exist for a denial
19of the application, as prescribed in Section 5-501 of this
20Chapter, grant the applicant an original license as applied for
21in writing for his established place of business and a
22supplemental license in writing for each additional place of
23business in such form as he may prescribe by rule or regulation
24which shall include the following:
25 1. The name of the person licensed;
26 2. If a corporation, the name and address of its

09800SB2640ham001- 1389 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 officers or if a sole proprietorship, a partnership, an
2 unincorporated association or any similar form of business
3 organization, the name and address of the proprietor or of
4 each partner, member, officer, director, trustee or
5 manager;
6 3. A designation of the kind or kinds of business
7 enumerated in subsection (a) of this Section to be
8 conducted at each location;
9 4. In the case of an original license, the established
10 place of business of the licensee;
11 5. In the case of a supplemental license, the
12 established place of business of the licensee and the
13 additional place of business to which such supplemental
14 license pertains.
15 (f) The appropriate instrument evidencing the license or a
16certified copy thereof, provided by the Secretary of State
17shall be kept, posted, conspicuously in the established place
18of business of the licensee and in each additional place of
19business, if any, maintained by such licensee. The licensee
20also shall post conspicuously in the established place of
21business and in each additional place of business a notice
22which states that such business is required to be licensed by
23the Secretary of State under Section 5-301, and which provides
24the license number of the business and the license expiration
25date. This notice also shall advise the consumer that any
26complaints as to the quality of service may be brought to the

09800SB2640ham001- 1390 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1attention of the Attorney General. The information required on
2this notice also shall be printed conspicuously on all
3estimates and receipts for work by the licensee subject to this
4Section. The Secretary of State shall prescribe the specific
5format of this notice.
6 (g) Except as provided in subsection (h) hereof, licenses
7granted under this Section shall expire by operation of law on
8December 31 of the calendar year for which they are granted
9unless sooner revoked or cancelled under the provisions of
10Section 5-501 of this Chapter.
11 (h) Any license granted under this Section may be renewed
12upon application and payment of the fee required herein as in
13the case of an original license, provided, however, that in
14case an application for the renewal of an effective license is
15made during the month of December, such effective license shall
16remain in force until such application is granted or denied by
17the Secretary of State.
18 (i) All automotive repairers and rebuilders shall, in
19addition to the requirements of subsections (a) through (h) of
20this Section, meet the following licensing requirements:
21 1. Provide proof that the property on which first time
22 applicants plan to do business is in compliance with local
23 zoning laws and regulations, and a listing of zoning
24 classification;
25 2. Provide proof that the applicant for a repairer's
26 license complies with the proper workers' compensation

09800SB2640ham001- 1391 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 rate code or classification, and listing the code of
2 classification for that industry;
3 3. Provide proof that the applicant for a rebuilder's
4 license complies with the proper workers' compensation
5 rate code or classification for the repair industry or the
6 auto parts recycling industry and listing the code of
7 classification;
8 4. Provide proof that the applicant has obtained or
9 applied for a hazardous waste generator number, and listing
10 the actual number if available or certificate of exemption;
11 5. Provide proof that applicant has proper liability
12 insurance, and listing the name of the insurer and the
13 policy number; and
14 6. Provide proof that the applicant has obtained or
15 applied for the proper State sales tax classification and
16 federal identification tax number, and listing the actual
17 numbers if available.
18 (i-1) All automotive repairers shall provide proof that
19they comply with all requirements of the Automotive Collision
20Repair Act.
21 (j) All automotive parts recyclers shall, in addition to
22the requirements of subsections (a) through (h) of this
23Section, meet the following licensing requirements:
24 1. Provide a A statement that the applicant purchases 5
25 vehicles per year or has 5 hulks or chassis in stock;
26 2. Provide proof that the property on which all first

09800SB2640ham001- 1392 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 time applicants will do business does comply to the proper
2 local zoning laws in existence, and a listing of zoning
3 classifications;
4 3. Provide proof that applicant complies with the
5 proper workers' compensation rate code or classification,
6 and listing the code of classification; and
7 4. Provide proof that applicant has obtained or applied
8 for the proper State sales tax classification and federal
9 identification tax number, and listing the actual numbers
10 if available.
11(Source: P.A. 97-832, eff. 7-20-12; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13;
12revised 9-24-13.)
13 (625 ILCS 5/6-103) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 6-103)
14 (Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 98-167)
15 Sec. 6-103. What persons shall not be licensed as drivers
16or granted permits. The Secretary of State shall not issue,
17renew, or allow the retention of any driver's license nor issue
18any permit under this Code:
19 1. To any person, as a driver, who is under the age of
20 18 years except as provided in Section 6-107, and except
21 that an instruction permit may be issued under Section
22 6-107.1 to a child who is not less than 15 years of age if
23 the child is enrolled in an approved driver education
24 course as defined in Section 1-103 of this Code and
25 requires an instruction permit to participate therein,

09800SB2640ham001- 1393 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 except that an instruction permit may be issued under the
2 provisions of Section 6-107.1 to a child who is 17 years
3 and 3 months of age without the child having enrolled in an
4 approved driver education course and except that an
5 instruction permit may be issued to a child who is at least
6 15 years and 3 months of age, is enrolled in school, meets
7 the educational requirements of the Driver Education Act,
8 and has passed examinations the Secretary of State in his
9 or her discretion may prescribe;
10 2. To any person who is under the age of 18 as an
11 operator of a motorcycle other than a motor driven cycle
12 unless the person has, in addition to meeting the
13 provisions of Section 6-107 of this Code, successfully
14 completed a motorcycle training course approved by the
15 Illinois Department of Transportation and successfully
16 completes the required Secretary of State's motorcycle
17 driver's examination;
18 3. To any person, as a driver, whose driver's license
19 or permit has been suspended, during the suspension, nor to
20 any person whose driver's license or permit has been
21 revoked, except as provided in Sections 6-205, 6-206, and
22 6-208;
23 4. To any person, as a driver, who is a user of alcohol
24 or any other drug to a degree that renders the person
25 incapable of safely driving a motor vehicle;
26 5. To any person, as a driver, who has previously been

09800SB2640ham001- 1394 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 adjudged to be afflicted with or suffering from any mental
2 or physical disability or disease and who has not at the
3 time of application been restored to competency by the
4 methods provided by law;
5 6. To any person, as a driver, who is required by the
6 Secretary of State to submit an alcohol and drug evaluation
7 or take an examination provided for in this Code unless the
8 person has successfully passed the examination and
9 submitted any required evaluation;
10 7. To any person who is required under the provisions
11 of the laws of this State to deposit security or proof of
12 financial responsibility and who has not deposited the
13 security or proof;
14 8. To any person when the Secretary of State has good
15 cause to believe that the person by reason of physical or
16 mental disability would not be able to safely operate a
17 motor vehicle upon the highways, unless the person shall
18 furnish to the Secretary of State a verified written
19 statement, acceptable to the Secretary of State, from a
20 competent medical specialist, a licensed physician
21 assistant who has been delegated the performance of medical
22 examinations by his or her supervising physician, or a
23 licensed advanced practice nurse who has a written
24 collaborative agreement with a collaborating physician
25 which authorizes him or her to perform medical
26 examinations, to the effect that the operation of a motor

09800SB2640ham001- 1395 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 vehicle by the person would not be inimical to the public
2 safety;
3 9. To any person, as a driver, who is 69 years of age
4 or older, unless the person has successfully complied with
5 the provisions of Section 6-109;
6 10. To any person convicted, within 12 months of
7 application for a license, of any of the sexual offenses
8 enumerated in paragraph 2 of subsection (b) of Section
9 6-205;
10 11. To any person who is under the age of 21 years with
11 a classification prohibited in paragraph (b) of Section
12 6-104 and to any person who is under the age of 18 years
13 with a classification prohibited in paragraph (c) of
14 Section 6-104;
15 12. To any person who has been either convicted of or
16 adjudicated under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 based upon
17 a violation of the Cannabis Control Act, the Illinois
18 Controlled Substances Act, or the Methamphetamine Control
19 and Community Protection Act while that person was in
20 actual physical control of a motor vehicle. For purposes of
21 this Section, any person placed on probation under Section
22 10 of the Cannabis Control Act, Section 410 of the Illinois
23 Controlled Substances Act, or Section 70 of the
24 Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act shall
25 not be considered convicted. Any person found guilty of
26 this offense, while in actual physical control of a motor

09800SB2640ham001- 1396 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 vehicle, shall have an entry made in the court record by
2 the judge that this offense did occur while the person was
3 in actual physical control of a motor vehicle and order the
4 clerk of the court to report the violation to the Secretary
5 of State as such. The Secretary of State shall not issue a
6 new license or permit for a period of one year;
7 13. To any person who is under the age of 18 years and
8 who has committed the offense of operating a motor vehicle
9 without a valid license or permit in violation of Section
10 6-101 or a similar out of state offense;
11 14. To any person who is 90 days or more delinquent in
12 court ordered child support payments or has been
13 adjudicated in arrears in an amount equal to 90 days'
14 obligation or more and who has been found in contempt of
15 court for failure to pay the support, subject to the
16 requirements and procedures of Article VII of Chapter 7 of
17 the Illinois Vehicle Code;
18 14.5. To any person certified by the Illinois
19 Department of Healthcare and Family Services as being 90
20 days or more delinquent in payment of support under an
21 order of support entered by a court or administrative body
22 of this or any other State, subject to the requirements and
23 procedures of Article VII of Chapter 7 of this Code
24 regarding those certifications;
25 15. To any person released from a term of imprisonment
26 for violating Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or

09800SB2640ham001- 1397 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 the Criminal Code of 2012, or a similar provision of a law
2 of another state relating to reckless homicide or for
3 violating subparagraph (F) of paragraph (1) of subsection
4 (d) of Section 11-501 of this Code relating to aggravated
5 driving under the influence of alcohol, other drug or
6 drugs, intoxicating compound or compounds, or any
7 combination thereof, if the violation was the proximate
8 cause of a death, within 24 months of release from a term
9 of imprisonment;
10 16. To any person who, with intent to influence any act
11 related to the issuance of any driver's license or permit,
12 by an employee of the Secretary of State's Office, or the
13 owner or employee of any commercial driver training school
14 licensed by the Secretary of State, or any other individual
15 authorized by the laws of this State to give driving
16 instructions or administer all or part of a driver's
17 license examination, promises or tenders to that person any
18 property or personal advantage which that person is not
19 authorized by law to accept. Any persons promising or
20 tendering such property or personal advantage shall be
21 disqualified from holding any class of driver's license or
22 permit for 120 consecutive days. The Secretary of State
23 shall establish by rule the procedures for implementing
24 this period of disqualification and the procedures by which
25 persons so disqualified may obtain administrative review
26 of the decision to disqualify;

09800SB2640ham001- 1398 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 17. To any person for whom the Secretary of State
2 cannot verify the accuracy of any information or
3 documentation submitted in application for a driver's
4 license; or
5 18. To any person who has been adjudicated under the
6 Juvenile Court Act of 1987 based upon an offense that is
7 determined by the court to have been committed in
8 furtherance of the criminal activities of an organized
9 gang, as provided in Section 5-710 of that Act, and that
10 involved the operation or use of a motor vehicle or the use
11 of a driver's license or permit. The person shall be denied
12 a license or permit for the period determined by the court.
13 The Secretary of State shall retain all conviction
14information, if the information is required to be held
15confidential under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.
16(Source: P.A. 96-607, eff. 8-24-09; 96-740, eff. 1-1-10;
1796-962, eff. 7-2-10; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 97-185, eff.
187-22-11; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13.)
19 (Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 98-167)
20 Sec. 6-103. What persons shall not be licensed as drivers
21or granted permits. The Secretary of State shall not issue,
22renew, or allow the retention of any driver's license nor issue
23any permit under this Code:
24 1. To any person, as a driver, who is under the age of
25 18 years except as provided in Section 6-107, and except

09800SB2640ham001- 1399 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 that an instruction permit may be issued under Section
2 6-107.1 to a child who is not less than 15 years of age if
3 the child is enrolled in an approved driver education
4 course as defined in Section 1-103 of this Code and
5 requires an instruction permit to participate therein,
6 except that an instruction permit may be issued under the
7 provisions of Section 6-107.1 to a child who is 17 years
8 and 3 months of age without the child having enrolled in an
9 approved driver education course and except that an
10 instruction permit may be issued to a child who is at least
11 15 years and 3 months of age, is enrolled in school, meets
12 the educational requirements of the Driver Education Act,
13 and has passed examinations the Secretary of State in his
14 or her discretion may prescribe;
15 1.5. To any person at least 18 years of age but less
16 than 21 years of age unless the person has, in addition to
17 any other requirements of this Code, successfully
18 completed an adult driver education course as provided in
19 Section 6-107.5 of this Code; .
20 2. To any person who is under the age of 18 as an
21 operator of a motorcycle other than a motor driven cycle
22 unless the person has, in addition to meeting the
23 provisions of Section 6-107 of this Code, successfully
24 completed a motorcycle training course approved by the
25 Illinois Department of Transportation and successfully
26 completes the required Secretary of State's motorcycle

09800SB2640ham001- 1400 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 driver's examination;
2 3. To any person, as a driver, whose driver's license
3 or permit has been suspended, during the suspension, nor to
4 any person whose driver's license or permit has been
5 revoked, except as provided in Sections 6-205, 6-206, and
6 6-208;
7 4. To any person, as a driver, who is a user of alcohol
8 or any other drug to a degree that renders the person
9 incapable of safely driving a motor vehicle;
10 5. To any person, as a driver, who has previously been
11 adjudged to be afflicted with or suffering from any mental
12 or physical disability or disease and who has not at the
13 time of application been restored to competency by the
14 methods provided by law;
15 6. To any person, as a driver, who is required by the
16 Secretary of State to submit an alcohol and drug evaluation
17 or take an examination provided for in this Code unless the
18 person has successfully passed the examination and
19 submitted any required evaluation;
20 7. To any person who is required under the provisions
21 of the laws of this State to deposit security or proof of
22 financial responsibility and who has not deposited the
23 security or proof;
24 8. To any person when the Secretary of State has good
25 cause to believe that the person by reason of physical or
26 mental disability would not be able to safely operate a

09800SB2640ham001- 1401 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 motor vehicle upon the highways, unless the person shall
2 furnish to the Secretary of State a verified written
3 statement, acceptable to the Secretary of State, from a
4 competent medical specialist, a licensed physician
5 assistant who has been delegated the performance of medical
6 examinations by his or her supervising physician, or a
7 licensed advanced practice nurse who has a written
8 collaborative agreement with a collaborating physician
9 which authorizes him or her to perform medical
10 examinations, to the effect that the operation of a motor
11 vehicle by the person would not be inimical to the public
12 safety;
13 9. To any person, as a driver, who is 69 years of age
14 or older, unless the person has successfully complied with
15 the provisions of Section 6-109;
16 10. To any person convicted, within 12 months of
17 application for a license, of any of the sexual offenses
18 enumerated in paragraph 2 of subsection (b) of Section
19 6-205;
20 11. To any person who is under the age of 21 years with
21 a classification prohibited in paragraph (b) of Section
22 6-104 and to any person who is under the age of 18 years
23 with a classification prohibited in paragraph (c) of
24 Section 6-104;
25 12. To any person who has been either convicted of or
26 adjudicated under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 based upon

09800SB2640ham001- 1402 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 a violation of the Cannabis Control Act, the Illinois
2 Controlled Substances Act, or the Methamphetamine Control
3 and Community Protection Act while that person was in
4 actual physical control of a motor vehicle. For purposes of
5 this Section, any person placed on probation under Section
6 10 of the Cannabis Control Act, Section 410 of the Illinois
7 Controlled Substances Act, or Section 70 of the
8 Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act shall
9 not be considered convicted. Any person found guilty of
10 this offense, while in actual physical control of a motor
11 vehicle, shall have an entry made in the court record by
12 the judge that this offense did occur while the person was
13 in actual physical control of a motor vehicle and order the
14 clerk of the court to report the violation to the Secretary
15 of State as such. The Secretary of State shall not issue a
16 new license or permit for a period of one year;
17 13. To any person who is under the age of 18 years and
18 who has committed the offense of operating a motor vehicle
19 without a valid license or permit in violation of Section
20 6-101 or a similar out of state offense;
21 14. To any person who is 90 days or more delinquent in
22 court ordered child support payments or has been
23 adjudicated in arrears in an amount equal to 90 days'
24 obligation or more and who has been found in contempt of
25 court for failure to pay the support, subject to the
26 requirements and procedures of Article VII of Chapter 7 of

09800SB2640ham001- 1403 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 the Illinois Vehicle Code;
2 14.5. To any person certified by the Illinois
3 Department of Healthcare and Family Services as being 90
4 days or more delinquent in payment of support under an
5 order of support entered by a court or administrative body
6 of this or any other State, subject to the requirements and
7 procedures of Article VII of Chapter 7 of this Code
8 regarding those certifications;
9 15. To any person released from a term of imprisonment
10 for violating Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or
11 the Criminal Code of 2012, or a similar provision of a law
12 of another state relating to reckless homicide or for
13 violating subparagraph (F) of paragraph (1) of subsection
14 (d) of Section 11-501 of this Code relating to aggravated
15 driving under the influence of alcohol, other drug or
16 drugs, intoxicating compound or compounds, or any
17 combination thereof, if the violation was the proximate
18 cause of a death, within 24 months of release from a term
19 of imprisonment;
20 16. To any person who, with intent to influence any act
21 related to the issuance of any driver's license or permit,
22 by an employee of the Secretary of State's Office, or the
23 owner or employee of any commercial driver training school
24 licensed by the Secretary of State, or any other individual
25 authorized by the laws of this State to give driving
26 instructions or administer all or part of a driver's

09800SB2640ham001- 1404 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 license examination, promises or tenders to that person any
2 property or personal advantage which that person is not
3 authorized by law to accept. Any persons promising or
4 tendering such property or personal advantage shall be
5 disqualified from holding any class of driver's license or
6 permit for 120 consecutive days. The Secretary of State
7 shall establish by rule the procedures for implementing
8 this period of disqualification and the procedures by which
9 persons so disqualified may obtain administrative review
10 of the decision to disqualify;
11 17. To any person for whom the Secretary of State
12 cannot verify the accuracy of any information or
13 documentation submitted in application for a driver's
14 license; or
15 18. To any person who has been adjudicated under the
16 Juvenile Court Act of 1987 based upon an offense that is
17 determined by the court to have been committed in
18 furtherance of the criminal activities of an organized
19 gang, as provided in Section 5-710 of that Act, and that
20 involved the operation or use of a motor vehicle or the use
21 of a driver's license or permit. The person shall be denied
22 a license or permit for the period determined by the court.
23 The Secretary of State shall retain all conviction
24information, if the information is required to be held
25confidential under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.
26(Source: P.A. 97-185, eff. 7-22-11; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13;

09800SB2640ham001- 1405 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
198-167, eff. 7-1-14; revised 9-18-13.)
2 (625 ILCS 5/6-106) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 6-106)
3 Sec. 6-106. Application for license or instruction permit.
4 (a) Every application for any permit or license authorized
5to be issued under this Code Act shall be made upon a form
6furnished by the Secretary of State. Every application shall be
7accompanied by the proper fee and payment of such fee shall
8entitle the applicant to not more than 3 attempts to pass the
9examination within a period of one 1 year after the date of
10application.
11 (b) Every application shall state the legal name, social
12security number, zip code, date of birth, sex, and residence
13address of the applicant; briefly describe the applicant; state
14whether the applicant has theretofore been licensed as a
15driver, and, if so, when and by what state or country, and
16whether any such license has ever been cancelled, suspended,
17revoked or refused, and, if so, the date and reason for such
18cancellation, suspension, revocation or refusal; shall include
19an affirmation by the applicant that all information set forth
20is true and correct; and shall bear the applicant's signature.
21In addition to the residence address, the Secretary may allow
22the applicant to provide a mailing address. In the case of an
23applicant who is a judicial officer or peace officer, the
24Secretary may allow the applicant to provide an office or work
25address in lieu of a residence or mailing address. The

09800SB2640ham001- 1406 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1application form may also require the statement of such
2additional relevant information as the Secretary of State shall
3deem necessary to determine the applicant's competency and
4eligibility. The Secretary of State may, in his discretion, by
5rule or regulation, provide that an application for a drivers
6license or permit may include a suitable photograph of the
7applicant in the form prescribed by the Secretary, and he may
8further provide that each drivers license shall include a
9photograph of the driver. The Secretary of State may utilize a
10photograph process or system most suitable to deter alteration
11or improper reproduction of a drivers license and to prevent
12substitution of another photo thereon. For the purposes of this
13subsection (b), "peace officer" means any person who by virtue
14of his or her office or public employment is vested by law with
15a duty to maintain public order or to make arrests for a
16violation of any penal statute of this State, whether that duty
17extends to all violations or is limited to specific violations.
18 (c) The application form shall include a notice to the
19applicant of the registration obligations of sex offenders
20under the Sex Offender Registration Act. The notice shall be
21provided in a form and manner prescribed by the Secretary of
22State. For purposes of this subsection (c), "sex offender" has
23the meaning ascribed to it in Section 2 of the Sex Offender
24Registration Act.
25 (d) Any male United States citizen or immigrant who applies
26for any permit or license authorized to be issued under this

09800SB2640ham001- 1407 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1Code Act or for a renewal of any permit or license, and who is
2at least 18 years of age but less than 26 years of age, must be
3registered in compliance with the requirements of the federal
4Military Selective Service Act. The Secretary of State must
5forward in an electronic format the necessary personal
6information regarding the applicants identified in this
7subsection (d) to the Selective Service System. The applicant's
8signature on the application serves as an indication that the
9applicant either has already registered with the Selective
10Service System or that he is authorizing the Secretary to
11forward to the Selective Service System the necessary
12information for registration. The Secretary must notify the
13applicant at the time of application that his signature
14constitutes consent to registration with the Selective Service
15System, if he is not already registered.
16 (e) Beginning on or before July 1, 2015, for each original
17or renewal driver's license application under this Code Act,
18the Secretary shall inquire as to whether the applicant is a
19veteran for purposes of issuing a driver's license with a
20veteran designation under subsection (e-5) of Section 6-110 of
21this Code Chapter. The acceptable forms of proof shall include,
22but are not limited to, Department of Defense form DD-214. The
23Secretary shall determine by rule what other forms of proof of
24a person's status as a veteran are acceptable.
25 The Illinois Department of Veterans' Affairs shall confirm
26the status of the applicant as an honorably discharged veteran

09800SB2640ham001- 1408 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1before the Secretary may issue the driver's license.
2 For purposes of this subsection (e):
3 "Active duty" means active duty under an executive order of
4the President of the United States, an Act of the Congress of
5the United States, or an order of the Governor.
6 "Armed forces" means any of the Armed Forces of the United
7States, including a member of any reserve component or National
8Guard unit called to active duty.
9 "Veteran" means a person who has served on active duty in
10the armed forces and was discharged or separated under
11honorable conditions.
12(Source: P.A. 97-263, eff. 8-5-11; 97-739, eff. 1-1-13; 97-847,
13eff. 1-1-13; 98-323, eff. 1-1-14; 98-463, eff. 8-16-13; revised
1411-19-13.)
15 (625 ILCS 5/6-108) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 6-108)
16 Sec. 6-108. Cancellation of license issued to minor.
17 (a) The Secretary of State shall cancel the license or
18permit of any minor under the age of 18 years in any of the
19following events:
20 1. Upon the verified written request of the person who
21 consented to the application of the minor that the license
22 or permit be cancelled;
23 2. Upon receipt of satisfactory evidence of the death
24 of the person who consented to the application of the
25 minor;

09800SB2640ham001- 1409 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 3. Upon receipt of satisfactory evidence that the
2 person who consented to the application of a minor no
3 longer has legal custody of the minor;
4 4. Upon receipt of information, submitted on a form
5 prescribed by the Secretary of State under Section 26-3a of
6 the School Code and provided voluntarily by nonpublic
7 schools, that a license-holding minor no longer meets the
8 school attendance requirements defined in Section 6-107 of
9 this Code.
10 A minor who provides proof acceptable to the Secretary
11 that the minor has resumed regular school attendance or
12 home instruction or that his or her license or permit was
13 cancelled in error shall have his or her license
14 reinstated. The Secretary shall adopt rules for
15 implementing this subdivision (a)4; .
16 5. Upon determination by the Secretary that at the time
17 of license issuance, the minor held an instruction permit
18 and had a traffic citation for which a disposition had not
19 been rendered.
20 After cancellation, the Secretary of State shall not issue
21a new license or permit until the applicant meets the
22provisions of Section 6-107 of this Code.
23 (b) The Secretary of State shall cancel the license or
24permit of any person under the age of 18 years if he or she is
25convicted of violating the Cannabis Control Act, the Illinois
26Controlled Substances Act, or the Methamphetamine Control and

09800SB2640ham001- 1410 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1Community Protection Act while that person was in actual
2physical control of a motor vehicle. For purposes of this
3Section, any person placed on probation under Section 10 of the
4Cannabis Control Act, Section 410 of the Illinois Controlled
5Substances Act, or Section 70 of the Methamphetamine Control
6and Community Protection Act shall not be considered convicted.
7Any person found guilty of this offense, while in actual
8physical control of a motor vehicle, shall have an entry made
9in the court record by the judge that this offense did occur
10while the person was in actual physical control of a motor
11vehicle and order the clerk of the court to report the
12violation to the Secretary of State as such. After the
13cancellation, the Secretary of State shall not issue a new
14license or permit for a period of one year after the date of
15cancellation or until the minor attains the age of 18 years,
16whichever is longer. However, upon application, the Secretary
17of State may, if satisfied that the person applying will not
18endanger the public safety, or welfare, issue a restricted
19driving permit granting the privilege of driving a motor
20vehicle between the person's residence and person's place of
21employment or within the scope of the person's employment
22related duties, or to allow transportation for the person or a
23household member of the person's family for the receipt of
24necessary medical care or, if the professional evaluation
25indicates, provide transportation for the petitioner for
26alcohol remedial or rehabilitative activity, or for the person

09800SB2640ham001- 1411 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1to attend classes, as a student, in an accredited educational
2institution; if the person is able to demonstrate that no
3alternative means of transportation is reasonably available;
4provided that the Secretary's discretion shall be limited to
5cases where undue hardship would result from a failure to issue
6such restricted driving permit. In each case the Secretary of
7State may issue a restricted driving permit for a period as he
8deems appropriate, except that the permit shall expire within
9one year from the date of issuance. A restricted driving permit
10issued hereunder shall be subject to cancellation, revocation,
11and suspension by the Secretary of State in like manner and for
12like cause as a driver's license issued hereunder may be
13cancelled, revoked, or suspended; except that a conviction upon
14one or more offenses against laws or ordinances regulating the
15movement of traffic shall be deemed sufficient cause for the
16revocation, suspension, or cancellation of a restricted
17driving permit. The Secretary of State may, as a condition to
18the issuance of a restricted driving permit, require the
19applicant to participate in a driver remedial or rehabilitative
20program. Thereafter, upon reapplication for a license as
21provided in Section 6-106 of this Code or a permit as provided
22in Section 6-105 of this Code and upon payment of the
23appropriate application fee, the Secretary of State shall issue
24the applicant a license as provided in Section 6-106 of this
25Code or shall issue the applicant a permit as provided in
26Section 6-105.

09800SB2640ham001- 1412 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1(Source: P.A. 98-168, eff. 1-1-14; revised 11-19-13.)
2 (625 ILCS 5/6-118)
3 (Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 98-176)
4 Sec. 6-118. Fees.
5 (a) The fee for licenses and permits under this Article is
6as follows:
7 Original driver's license.............................$30
8 Original or renewal driver's license
9 issued to 18, 19 and 20 year olds.................. 5
10 All driver's licenses for persons
11 age 69 through age 80.............................. 5
12 All driver's licenses for persons
13 age 81 through age 86.............................. 2
14 All driver's licenses for persons
15 age 87 or older.....................................0
16 Renewal driver's license (except for
17 applicants ages 18, 19 and 20 or
18 age 69 and older)..................................30
19 Original instruction permit issued to
20 persons (except those age 69 and older)
21 who do not hold or have not previously
22 held an Illinois instruction permit or
23 driver's license.................................. 20
24 Instruction permit issued to any person
25 holding an Illinois driver's license

09800SB2640ham001- 1413 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 who wishes a change in classifications,
2 other than at the time of renewal.................. 5
3 Any instruction permit issued to a person
4 age 69 and older................................... 5
5 Instruction permit issued to any person,
6 under age 69, not currently holding a
7 valid Illinois driver's license or
8 instruction permit but who has
9 previously been issued either document
10 in Illinois....................................... 10
11 Restricted driving permit.............................. 8
12 Monitoring device driving permit...................... 8
13 Duplicate or corrected driver's license
14 or permit.......................................... 5
15 Duplicate or corrected restricted
16 driving permit..................................... 5
17 Duplicate or corrected monitoring
18 device driving permit.................................. 5
19 Duplicate driver's license or permit issued to
20 an active-duty member of the
21 United States Armed Forces,
22 the member's spouse, or
23 the dependent children living
24 with the member................................... 0
25 Original or renewal M or L endorsement................. 5
26SPECIAL FEES FOR COMMERCIAL DRIVER'S LICENSE

09800SB2640ham001- 1414 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 The fees for commercial driver licenses and permits
2 under Article V shall be as follows:
3 Commercial driver's license:
4 $6 for the CDLIS/AAMVAnet/NMVTIS Trust Fund
5 (Commercial Driver's License Information
6 System/American Association of Motor Vehicle
7 Administrators network/National Motor Vehicle
8 Title Information Service Trust Fund);
9 $20 for the Motor Carrier Safety Inspection Fund;
10 $10 for the driver's license;
11 and $24 for the CDL:............................. $60
12 Renewal commercial driver's license:
13 $6 for the CDLIS/AAMVAnet/NMVTIS Trust Fund;
14 $20 for the Motor Carrier Safety Inspection Fund;
15 $10 for the driver's license; and
16 $24 for the CDL:................................. $60
17 Commercial driver instruction permit
18 issued to any person holding a valid
19 Illinois driver's license for the
20 purpose of changing to a
21 CDL classification: $6 for the
22 CDLIS/AAMVAnet/NMVTIS Trust Fund;
23 $20 for the Motor Carrier
24 Safety Inspection Fund; and
25 $24 for the CDL classification................... $50
26 Commercial driver instruction permit

09800SB2640ham001- 1415 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 issued to any person holding a valid
2 Illinois CDL for the purpose of
3 making a change in a classification,
4 endorsement or restriction........................ $5
5 CDL duplicate or corrected license.................... $5
6 In order to ensure the proper implementation of the Uniform
7Commercial Driver License Act, Article V of this Chapter, the
8Secretary of State is empowered to pro-rate the $24 fee for the
9commercial driver's license proportionate to the expiration
10date of the applicant's Illinois driver's license.
11 The fee for any duplicate license or permit shall be waived
12for any person who presents the Secretary of State's office
13with a police report showing that his license or permit was
14stolen.
15 The fee for any duplicate license or permit shall be waived
16for any person age 60 or older whose driver's license or permit
17has been lost or stolen.
18 No additional fee shall be charged for a driver's license,
19or for a commercial driver's license, when issued to the holder
20of an instruction permit for the same classification or type of
21license who becomes eligible for such license.
22 (b) Any person whose license or privilege to operate a
23motor vehicle in this State has been suspended or revoked under
24Section 3-707, any provision of Chapter 6, Chapter 11, or
25Section 7-205, 7-303, or 7-702 of the Family Financial
26Responsibility Law of this Code, shall in addition to any other

09800SB2640ham001- 1416 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1fees required by this Code, pay a reinstatement fee as follows:
2 Suspension under Section 3-707..................... $100
3 Summary suspension under Section 11-501.1...........$250
4 Summary revocation under Section 11-501.1............$500
5 Other suspension......................................$70
6 Revocation...........................................$500
7 However, any person whose license or privilege to operate a
8motor vehicle in this State has been suspended or revoked for a
9second or subsequent time for a violation of Section 11-501 or
1011-501.1 of this Code or a similar provision of a local
11ordinance or a similar out-of-state offense or Section 9-3 of
12the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 and each
13suspension or revocation was for a violation of Section 11-501
14or 11-501.1 of this Code or a similar provision of a local
15ordinance or a similar out-of-state offense or Section 9-3 of
16the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 shall
17pay, in addition to any other fees required by this Code, a
18reinstatement fee as follows:
19 Summary suspension under Section 11-501.1............$500
20 Summary revocation under Section 11-501.1............$500
21 Revocation...........................................$500
22 (c) All fees collected under the provisions of this Chapter
236 shall be paid into the Road Fund in the State Treasury except
24as follows:
25 1. The following amounts shall be paid into the Driver
26 Education Fund:

09800SB2640ham001- 1417 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 (A) $16 of the $20 fee for an original driver's
2 instruction permit;
3 (B) $5 of the $30 fee for an original driver's
4 license;
5 (C) $5 of the $30 fee for a 4 year renewal driver's
6 license;
7 (D) $4 of the $8 fee for a restricted driving
8 permit; and
9 (E) $4 of the $8 fee for a monitoring device
10 driving permit.
11 2. $30 of the $250 fee for reinstatement of a license
12 summarily suspended under Section 11-501.1 shall be
13 deposited into the Drunk and Drugged Driving Prevention
14 Fund. However, for a person whose license or privilege to
15 operate a motor vehicle in this State has been suspended or
16 revoked for a second or subsequent time for a violation of
17 Section 11-501 or 11-501.1 of this Code or Section 9-3 of
18 the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012,
19 $190 of the $500 fee for reinstatement of a license
20 summarily suspended under Section 11-501.1, and $190 of the
21 $500 fee for reinstatement of a revoked license shall be
22 deposited into the Drunk and Drugged Driving Prevention
23 Fund. $190 of the $500 fee for reinstatement of a license
24 summarily revoked pursuant to Section 11-501.1 shall be
25 deposited into the Drunk and Drugged Driving Prevention
26 Fund.

09800SB2640ham001- 1418 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 3. $6 of such original or renewal fee for a commercial
2 driver's license and $6 of the commercial driver
3 instruction permit fee when such permit is issued to any
4 person holding a valid Illinois driver's license, shall be
5 paid into the CDLIS/AAMVAnet/NMVTIS Trust Fund.
6 4. $30 of the $70 fee for reinstatement of a license
7 suspended under the Family Financial Responsibility Law
8 shall be paid into the Family Responsibility Fund.
9 5. The $5 fee for each original or renewal M or L
10 endorsement shall be deposited into the Cycle Rider Safety
11 Training Fund.
12 6. $20 of any original or renewal fee for a commercial
13 driver's license or commercial driver instruction permit
14 shall be paid into the Motor Carrier Safety Inspection
15 Fund.
16 7. The following amounts shall be paid into the General
17 Revenue Fund:
18 (A) $190 of the $250 reinstatement fee for a
19 summary suspension under Section 11-501.1;
20 (B) $40 of the $70 reinstatement fee for any other
21 suspension provided in subsection (b) of this Section;
22 and
23 (C) $440 of the $500 reinstatement fee for a first
24 offense revocation and $310 of the $500 reinstatement
25 fee for a second or subsequent revocation.
26 (d) All of the proceeds of the additional fees imposed by

09800SB2640ham001- 1419 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly shall be
2deposited into the Capital Projects Fund.
3 (e) The additional fees imposed by this amendatory Act of
4the 96th General Assembly shall become effective 90 days after
5becoming law.
6 (f) As used in this Section, "active-duty member of the
7United States Armed Forces" means a member of the Armed
8Services or Reserve Forces of the United States or a member of
9the Illinois National Guard who is called to active duty
10pursuant to an executive order of the President of the United
11States, an act of the Congress of the United States, or an
12order of the Governor.
13(Source: P.A. 97-333, eff. 8-12-11; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13;
1498-177, eff. 1-1-14.)
15 (Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 98-176)
16 Sec. 6-118. Fees.
17 (a) The fee for licenses and permits under this Article is
18as follows:
19 Original driver's license.............................$30
20 Original or renewal driver's license
21 issued to 18, 19 and 20 year olds.................. 5
22 All driver's licenses for persons
23 age 69 through age 80.............................. 5
24 All driver's licenses for persons
25 age 81 through age 86.............................. 2

09800SB2640ham001- 1420 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 All driver's licenses for persons
2 age 87 or older.....................................0
3 Renewal driver's license (except for
4 applicants ages 18, 19 and 20 or
5 age 69 and older)..................................30
6 Original instruction permit issued to
7 persons (except those age 69 and older)
8 who do not hold or have not previously
9 held an Illinois instruction permit or
10 driver's license.................................. 20
11 Instruction permit issued to any person
12 holding an Illinois driver's license
13 who wishes a change in classifications,
14 other than at the time of renewal.................. 5
15 Any instruction permit issued to a person
16 age 69 and older................................... 5
17 Instruction permit issued to any person,
18 under age 69, not currently holding a
19 valid Illinois driver's license or
20 instruction permit but who has
21 previously been issued either document
22 in Illinois....................................... 10
23 Restricted driving permit.............................. 8
24 Monitoring device driving permit...................... 8
25 Duplicate or corrected driver's license
26 or permit.......................................... 5

09800SB2640ham001- 1421 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 Duplicate or corrected restricted
2 driving permit..................................... 5
3 Duplicate or corrected monitoring
4 device driving permit.................................. 5
5 Duplicate driver's license or permit issued to
6 an active-duty member of the
7 United States Armed Forces,
8 the member's spouse, or
9 the dependent children living
10 with the member................................... 0
11 Original or renewal M or L endorsement................. 5
12SPECIAL FEES FOR COMMERCIAL DRIVER'S LICENSE
13 The fees for commercial driver licenses and permits
14 under Article V shall be as follows:
15 Commercial driver's license:
16 $6 for the CDLIS/AAMVAnet/NMVTIS Trust Fund
17 (Commercial Driver's License Information
18 System/American Association of Motor Vehicle
19 Administrators network/National Motor Vehicle
20 Title Information Service Trust Fund);
21 $20 for the Motor Carrier Safety Inspection Fund;
22 $10 for the driver's license;
23 and $24 for the CDL:............................. $60
24 Renewal commercial driver's license:
25 $6 for the CDLIS/AAMVAnet/NMVTIS Trust Fund;
26 $20 for the Motor Carrier Safety Inspection Fund;

09800SB2640ham001- 1422 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 $10 for the driver's license; and
2 $24 for the CDL:................................. $60
3 Commercial learner's permit
4 issued to any person holding a valid
5 Illinois driver's license for the
6 purpose of changing to a
7 CDL classification: $6 for the
8 CDLIS/AAMVAnet/NMVTIS Trust Fund;
9 $20 for the Motor Carrier
10 Safety Inspection Fund; and
11 $24 for the CDL classification................... $50
12 Commercial learner's permit
13 issued to any person holding a valid
14 Illinois CDL for the purpose of
15 making a change in a classification,
16 endorsement or restriction........................ $5
17 CDL duplicate or corrected license.................... $5
18 In order to ensure the proper implementation of the Uniform
19Commercial Driver License Act, Article V of this Chapter, the
20Secretary of State is empowered to pro-rate the $24 fee for the
21commercial driver's license proportionate to the expiration
22date of the applicant's Illinois driver's license.
23 The fee for any duplicate license or permit shall be waived
24for any person who presents the Secretary of State's office
25with a police report showing that his license or permit was
26stolen.

09800SB2640ham001- 1423 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 The fee for any duplicate license or permit shall be waived
2for any person age 60 or older whose driver's license or permit
3has been lost or stolen.
4 No additional fee shall be charged for a driver's license,
5or for a commercial driver's license, when issued to the holder
6of an instruction permit for the same classification or type of
7license who becomes eligible for such license.
8 (b) Any person whose license or privilege to operate a
9motor vehicle in this State has been suspended or revoked under
10Section 3-707, any provision of Chapter 6, Chapter 11, or
11Section 7-205, 7-303, or 7-702 of the Family Financial
12Responsibility Law of this Code, shall in addition to any other
13fees required by this Code, pay a reinstatement fee as follows:
14 Suspension under Section 3-707..................... $100
15 Summary suspension under Section 11-501.1...........$250
16 Summary revocation under Section 11-501.1............$500
17 Other suspension......................................$70
18 Revocation...........................................$500
19 However, any person whose license or privilege to operate a
20motor vehicle in this State has been suspended or revoked for a
21second or subsequent time for a violation of Section 11-501 or
2211-501.1 of this Code or a similar provision of a local
23ordinance or a similar out-of-state offense or Section 9-3 of
24the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 and each
25suspension or revocation was for a violation of Section 11-501
26or 11-501.1 of this Code or a similar provision of a local

09800SB2640ham001- 1424 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1ordinance or a similar out-of-state offense or Section 9-3 of
2the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 shall
3pay, in addition to any other fees required by this Code, a
4reinstatement fee as follows:
5 Summary suspension under Section 11-501.1............$500
6 Summary revocation under Section 11-501.1............$500
7 Revocation...........................................$500
8 (c) All fees collected under the provisions of this Chapter
96 shall be paid into the Road Fund in the State Treasury except
10as follows:
11 1. The following amounts shall be paid into the Driver
12 Education Fund:
13 (A) $16 of the $20 fee for an original driver's
14 instruction permit;
15 (B) $5 of the $30 fee for an original driver's
16 license;
17 (C) $5 of the $30 fee for a 4 year renewal driver's
18 license;
19 (D) $4 of the $8 fee for a restricted driving
20 permit; and
21 (E) $4 of the $8 fee for a monitoring device
22 driving permit.
23 2. $30 of the $250 fee for reinstatement of a license
24 summarily suspended under Section 11-501.1 shall be
25 deposited into the Drunk and Drugged Driving Prevention
26 Fund. However, for a person whose license or privilege to

09800SB2640ham001- 1425 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 operate a motor vehicle in this State has been suspended or
2 revoked for a second or subsequent time for a violation of
3 Section 11-501 or 11-501.1 of this Code or Section 9-3 of
4 the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012,
5 $190 of the $500 fee for reinstatement of a license
6 summarily suspended under Section 11-501.1, and $190 of the
7 $500 fee for reinstatement of a revoked license shall be
8 deposited into the Drunk and Drugged Driving Prevention
9 Fund. $190 of the $500 fee for reinstatement of a license
10 summarily revoked pursuant to Section 11-501.1 shall be
11 deposited into the Drunk and Drugged Driving Prevention
12 Fund.
13 3. $6 of the original or renewal fee for a commercial
14 driver's license and $6 of the commercial learner's permit
15 fee when the permit is issued to any person holding a valid
16 Illinois driver's license, shall be paid into the
17 CDLIS/AAMVAnet/NMVTIS Trust Fund.
18 4. $30 of the $70 fee for reinstatement of a license
19 suspended under the Family Financial Responsibility Law
20 shall be paid into the Family Responsibility Fund.
21 5. The $5 fee for each original or renewal M or L
22 endorsement shall be deposited into the Cycle Rider Safety
23 Training Fund.
24 6. $20 of any original or renewal fee for a commercial
25 driver's license or commercial learner's permit shall be
26 paid into the Motor Carrier Safety Inspection Fund.

09800SB2640ham001- 1426 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 7. The following amounts shall be paid into the General
2 Revenue Fund:
3 (A) $190 of the $250 reinstatement fee for a
4 summary suspension under Section 11-501.1;
5 (B) $40 of the $70 reinstatement fee for any other
6 suspension provided in subsection (b) of this Section;
7 and
8 (C) $440 of the $500 reinstatement fee for a first
9 offense revocation and $310 of the $500 reinstatement
10 fee for a second or subsequent revocation.
11 (d) All of the proceeds of the additional fees imposed by
12this amendatory Act of the 96th General Assembly shall be
13deposited into the Capital Projects Fund.
14 (e) The additional fees imposed by this amendatory Act of
15the 96th General Assembly shall become effective 90 days after
16becoming law.
17 (f) As used in this Section, "active-duty member of the
18United States Armed Forces" means a member of the Armed
19Services or Reserve Forces of the United States or a member of
20the Illinois National Guard who is called to active duty
21pursuant to an executive order of the President of the United
22States, an act of the Congress of the United States, or an
23order of the Governor.
24(Source: P.A. 97-333, eff. 8-12-11; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13;
2598-176, eff. 7-1-14; 98-177, eff. 1-1-14; revised 9-19-13.)

09800SB2640ham001- 1427 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 (625 ILCS 5/6-201)
2 (Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 98-176)
3 Sec. 6-201. Authority to cancel licenses and permits.
4 (a) The Secretary of State is authorized to cancel any
5license or permit upon determining that the holder thereof:
6 1. was not entitled to the issuance thereof hereunder;
7 or
8 2. failed to give the required or correct information
9 in his application; or
10 3. failed to pay any fees, civil penalties owed to the
11 Illinois Commerce Commission, or taxes due under this Act
12 and upon reasonable notice and demand; or
13 4. committed any fraud in the making of such
14 application; or
15 5. is ineligible therefor under the provisions of
16 Section 6-103 of this Act, as amended; or
17 6. has refused or neglected to submit an alcohol, drug,
18 and intoxicating compound evaluation or to submit to
19 examination or re-examination as required under this Act;
20 or
21 7. has been convicted of violating the Cannabis Control
22 Act, the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, the
23 Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, or
24 the Use of Intoxicating Compounds Act while that individual
25 was in actual physical control of a motor vehicle. For
26 purposes of this Section, any person placed on probation

09800SB2640ham001- 1428 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 under Section 10 of the Cannabis Control Act, Section 410
2 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or Section 70 of
3 the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act
4 shall not be considered convicted. Any person found guilty
5 of this offense, while in actual physical control of a
6 motor vehicle, shall have an entry made in the court record
7 by the judge that this offense did occur while the person
8 was in actual physical control of a motor vehicle and order
9 the clerk of the court to report the violation to the
10 Secretary of State as such. After the cancellation, the
11 Secretary of State shall not issue a new license or permit
12 for a period of one year after the date of cancellation.
13 However, upon application, the Secretary of State may, if
14 satisfied that the person applying will not endanger the
15 public safety, or welfare, issue a restricted driving
16 permit granting the privilege of driving a motor vehicle
17 between the petitioner's residence and petitioner's place
18 of employment or within the scope of the petitioner's
19 employment related duties, or to allow transportation for
20 the petitioner or a household member of the petitioner's
21 family for the receipt of necessary medical care, or
22 provide transportation for the petitioner to and from
23 alcohol or drug remedial or rehabilitative activity
24 recommended by a licensed service provider, or for the
25 petitioner to attend classes, as a student, in an
26 accredited educational institution. The petitioner must

09800SB2640ham001- 1429 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 demonstrate that no alternative means of transportation is
2 reasonably available; provided that the Secretary's
3 discretion shall be limited to cases where undue hardship,
4 as defined by the rules of the Secretary of State, would
5 result from a failure to issue such restricted driving
6 permit. In each case the Secretary of State may issue such
7 restricted driving permit for such period as he deems
8 appropriate, except that such permit shall expire within
9 one year from the date of issuance. A restricted driving
10 permit issued hereunder shall be subject to cancellation,
11 revocation and suspension by the Secretary of State in like
12 manner and for like cause as a driver's license issued
13 hereunder may be cancelled, revoked or suspended; except
14 that a conviction upon one or more offenses against laws or
15 ordinances regulating the movement of traffic shall be
16 deemed sufficient cause for the revocation, suspension or
17 cancellation of a restricted driving permit. The Secretary
18 of State may, as a condition to the issuance of a
19 restricted driving permit, require the applicant to
20 participate in a driver remedial or rehabilitative
21 program. In accordance with 49 C.F.R. 384, the Secretary of
22 State may not issue a restricted driving permit for the
23 operation of a commercial motor vehicle to a person holding
24 a CDL whose driving privileges have been revoked,
25 suspended, cancelled, or disqualified under this Code; or
26 8. failed to submit a report as required by Section

09800SB2640ham001- 1430 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 6-116.5 of this Code; or
2 9. has been convicted of a sex offense as defined in
3 the Sex Offender Registration Act. The driver's license
4 shall remain cancelled until the driver registers as a sex
5 offender as required by the Sex Offender Registration Act,
6 proof of the registration is furnished to the Secretary of
7 State and the sex offender provides proof of current
8 address to the Secretary; or
9 10. is ineligible for a license or permit under Section
10 6-107, 6-107.1, or 6-108 of this Code; or
11 11. refused or neglected to appear at a Driver Services
12 facility to have the license or permit corrected and a new
13 license or permit issued or to present documentation for
14 verification of identity; or
15 12. failed to submit a medical examiner's certificate
16 or medical variance as required by 49 C.F.R. 383.71 or
17 submitted a fraudulent medical examiner's certificate or
18 medical variance; or
19 13. has had his or her medical examiner's certificate,
20 medical variance, or both removed or rescinded by the
21 Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration; or
22 14. failed to self-certify as to the type of driving in
23 which the CDL driver engages or expects to engage; or
24 15. has submitted acceptable documentation indicating
25 out-of-state residency to the Secretary of State to be
26 released from the requirement of showing proof of financial

09800SB2640ham001- 1431 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 responsibility in this State.
2 (b) Upon such cancellation the licensee or permittee must
3surrender the license or permit so cancelled to the Secretary
4of State.
5 (c) Except as provided in Sections 6-206.1 and 7-702.1, the
6Secretary of State shall have exclusive authority to grant,
7issue, deny, cancel, suspend and revoke driving privileges,
8drivers' licenses and restricted driving permits.
9 (d) The Secretary of State may adopt rules to implement
10this Section.
11(Source: P.A. 97-208, eff. 1-1-12; 97-229; eff. 7-28-11;
1297-813, eff. 7-13-12; 97-835, eff. 7-20-12; 98-178, eff.
131-1-14.)
14 (Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 98-176)
15 Sec. 6-201. Authority to cancel licenses and permits.
16 (a) The Secretary of State is authorized to cancel any
17license or permit upon determining that the holder thereof:
18 1. was not entitled to the issuance thereof hereunder;
19 or
20 2. failed to give the required or correct information
21 in his application; or
22 3. failed to pay any fees, civil penalties owed to the
23 Illinois Commerce Commission, or taxes due under this Act
24 and upon reasonable notice and demand; or
25 4. committed any fraud in the making of such

09800SB2640ham001- 1432 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 application; or
2 5. is ineligible therefor under the provisions of
3 Section 6-103 of this Act, as amended; or
4 6. has refused or neglected to submit an alcohol, drug,
5 and intoxicating compound evaluation or to submit to
6 examination or re-examination as required under this Act;
7 or
8 7. has been convicted of violating the Cannabis Control
9 Act, the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, the
10 Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, or
11 the Use of Intoxicating Compounds Act while that individual
12 was in actual physical control of a motor vehicle. For
13 purposes of this Section, any person placed on probation
14 under Section 10 of the Cannabis Control Act, Section 410
15 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or Section 70 of
16 the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act
17 shall not be considered convicted. Any person found guilty
18 of this offense, while in actual physical control of a
19 motor vehicle, shall have an entry made in the court record
20 by the judge that this offense did occur while the person
21 was in actual physical control of a motor vehicle and order
22 the clerk of the court to report the violation to the
23 Secretary of State as such. After the cancellation, the
24 Secretary of State shall not issue a new license or permit
25 for a period of one year after the date of cancellation.
26 However, upon application, the Secretary of State may, if

09800SB2640ham001- 1433 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 satisfied that the person applying will not endanger the
2 public safety, or welfare, issue a restricted driving
3 permit granting the privilege of driving a motor vehicle
4 between the petitioner's residence and petitioner's place
5 of employment or within the scope of the petitioner's
6 employment related duties, or to allow transportation for
7 the petitioner or a household member of the petitioner's
8 family for the receipt of necessary medical care, or
9 provide transportation for the petitioner to and from
10 alcohol or drug remedial or rehabilitative activity
11 recommended by a licensed service provider, or for the
12 petitioner to attend classes, as a student, in an
13 accredited educational institution. The petitioner must
14 demonstrate that no alternative means of transportation is
15 reasonably available; provided that the Secretary's
16 discretion shall be limited to cases where undue hardship,
17 as defined by the rules of the Secretary of State, would
18 result from a failure to issue such restricted driving
19 permit. In each case the Secretary of State may issue such
20 restricted driving permit for such period as he deems
21 appropriate, except that such permit shall expire within
22 one year from the date of issuance. A restricted driving
23 permit issued hereunder shall be subject to cancellation,
24 revocation and suspension by the Secretary of State in like
25 manner and for like cause as a driver's license issued
26 hereunder may be cancelled, revoked or suspended; except

09800SB2640ham001- 1434 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 that a conviction upon one or more offenses against laws or
2 ordinances regulating the movement of traffic shall be
3 deemed sufficient cause for the revocation, suspension or
4 cancellation of a restricted driving permit. The Secretary
5 of State may, as a condition to the issuance of a
6 restricted driving permit, require the applicant to
7 participate in a driver remedial or rehabilitative
8 program. In accordance with 49 C.F.R. 384, the Secretary of
9 State may not issue a restricted driving permit for the
10 operation of a commercial motor vehicle to a person holding
11 a CDL whose driving privileges have been revoked,
12 suspended, cancelled, or disqualified under this Code; or
13 8. failed to submit a report as required by Section
14 6-116.5 of this Code; or
15 9. has been convicted of a sex offense as defined in
16 the Sex Offender Registration Act. The driver's license
17 shall remain cancelled until the driver registers as a sex
18 offender as required by the Sex Offender Registration Act,
19 proof of the registration is furnished to the Secretary of
20 State and the sex offender provides proof of current
21 address to the Secretary; or
22 10. is ineligible for a license or permit under Section
23 6-107, 6-107.1, or 6-108 of this Code; or
24 11. refused or neglected to appear at a Driver Services
25 facility to have the license or permit corrected and a new
26 license or permit issued or to present documentation for

09800SB2640ham001- 1435 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 verification of identity; or
2 12. failed to submit a medical examiner's certificate
3 or medical variance as required by 49 C.F.R. 383.71 or
4 submitted a fraudulent medical examiner's certificate or
5 medical variance; or
6 13. has had his or her medical examiner's certificate,
7 medical variance, or both removed or rescinded by the
8 Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration; or
9 14. failed to self-certify as to the type of driving in
10 which the CDL driver engages or expects to engage; or
11 15. has submitted acceptable documentation indicating
12 out-of-state residency to the Secretary of State to be
13 released from the requirement of showing proof of financial
14 responsibility in this State; or .
15 16. 15. was convicted of fraud relating to the testing
16 or issuance of a CDL or CLP, in which case only the CDL or
17 CLP shall be cancelled. After cancellation, the Secretary
18 shall not issue a CLP or CDL for a period of one year from
19 the date of cancellation.
20 (b) Upon such cancellation the licensee or permittee must
21surrender the license or permit so cancelled to the Secretary
22of State.
23 (c) Except as provided in Sections 6-206.1 and 7-702.1, the
24Secretary of State shall have exclusive authority to grant,
25issue, deny, cancel, suspend and revoke driving privileges,
26drivers' licenses and restricted driving permits.

09800SB2640ham001- 1436 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 (d) The Secretary of State may adopt rules to implement
2this Section.
3(Source: P.A. 97-208, eff. 1-1-12; 97-229; eff. 7-28-11;
497-813, eff. 7-13-12; 97-835, eff. 7-20-12; 98-176, eff.
57-1-14; 98-178, eff. 1-1-14; revised 9-19-13.)
6 (625 ILCS 5/6-206)
7 Sec. 6-206. Discretionary authority to suspend or revoke
8license or permit; Right to a hearing.
9 (a) The Secretary of State is authorized to suspend or
10revoke the driving privileges of any person without preliminary
11hearing upon a showing of the person's records or other
12sufficient evidence that the person:
13 1. Has committed an offense for which mandatory
14 revocation of a driver's license or permit is required upon
15 conviction;
16 2. Has been convicted of not less than 3 offenses
17 against traffic regulations governing the movement of
18 vehicles committed within any 12 month period. No
19 revocation or suspension shall be entered more than 6
20 months after the date of last conviction;
21 3. Has been repeatedly involved as a driver in motor
22 vehicle collisions or has been repeatedly convicted of
23 offenses against laws and ordinances regulating the
24 movement of traffic, to a degree that indicates lack of
25 ability to exercise ordinary and reasonable care in the

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1 safe operation of a motor vehicle or disrespect for the
2 traffic laws and the safety of other persons upon the
3 highway;
4 4. Has by the unlawful operation of a motor vehicle
5 caused or contributed to an accident resulting in injury
6 requiring immediate professional treatment in a medical
7 facility or doctor's office to any person, except that any
8 suspension or revocation imposed by the Secretary of State
9 under the provisions of this subsection shall start no
10 later than 6 months after being convicted of violating a
11 law or ordinance regulating the movement of traffic, which
12 violation is related to the accident, or shall start not
13 more than one year after the date of the accident,
14 whichever date occurs later;
15 5. Has permitted an unlawful or fraudulent use of a
16 driver's license, identification card, or permit;
17 6. Has been lawfully convicted of an offense or
18 offenses in another state, including the authorization
19 contained in Section 6-203.1, which if committed within
20 this State would be grounds for suspension or revocation;
21 7. Has refused or failed to submit to an examination
22 provided for by Section 6-207 or has failed to pass the
23 examination;
24 8. Is ineligible for a driver's license or permit under
25 the provisions of Section 6-103;
26 9. Has made a false statement or knowingly concealed a

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1 material fact or has used false information or
2 identification in any application for a license,
3 identification card, or permit;
4 10. Has possessed, displayed, or attempted to
5 fraudulently use any license, identification card, or
6 permit not issued to the person;
7 11. Has operated a motor vehicle upon a highway of this
8 State when the person's driving privilege or privilege to
9 obtain a driver's license or permit was revoked or
10 suspended unless the operation was authorized by a
11 monitoring device driving permit, judicial driving permit
12 issued prior to January 1, 2009, probationary license to
13 drive, or a restricted driving permit issued under this
14 Code;
15 12. Has submitted to any portion of the application
16 process for another person or has obtained the services of
17 another person to submit to any portion of the application
18 process for the purpose of obtaining a license,
19 identification card, or permit for some other person;
20 13. Has operated a motor vehicle upon a highway of this
21 State when the person's driver's license or permit was
22 invalid under the provisions of Sections 6-107.1 and 6-110;
23 14. Has committed a violation of Section 6-301,
24 6-301.1, or 6-301.2 of this Act, or Section 14, 14A, or 14B
25 of the Illinois Identification Card Act;
26 15. Has been convicted of violating Section 21-2 of the

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1 Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 relating
2 to criminal trespass to vehicles in which case, the
3 suspension shall be for one year;
4 16. Has been convicted of violating Section 11-204 of
5 this Code relating to fleeing from a peace officer;
6 17. Has refused to submit to a test, or tests, as
7 required under Section 11-501.1 of this Code and the person
8 has not sought a hearing as provided for in Section
9 11-501.1;
10 18. Has, since issuance of a driver's license or
11 permit, been adjudged to be afflicted with or suffering
12 from any mental disability or disease;
13 19. Has committed a violation of paragraph (a) or (b)
14 of Section 6-101 relating to driving without a driver's
15 license;
16 20. Has been convicted of violating Section 6-104
17 relating to classification of driver's license;
18 21. Has been convicted of violating Section 11-402 of
19 this Code relating to leaving the scene of an accident
20 resulting in damage to a vehicle in excess of $1,000, in
21 which case the suspension shall be for one year;
22 22. Has used a motor vehicle in violating paragraph
23 (3), (4), (7), or (9) of subsection (a) of Section 24-1 of
24 the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012
25 relating to unlawful use of weapons, in which case the
26 suspension shall be for one year;

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1 23. Has, as a driver, been convicted of committing a
2 violation of paragraph (a) of Section 11-502 of this Code
3 for a second or subsequent time within one year of a
4 similar violation;
5 24. Has been convicted by a court-martial or punished
6 by non-judicial punishment by military authorities of the
7 United States at a military installation in Illinois of or
8 for a traffic related offense that is the same as or
9 similar to an offense specified under Section 6-205 or
10 6-206 of this Code;
11 25. Has permitted any form of identification to be used
12 by another in the application process in order to obtain or
13 attempt to obtain a license, identification card, or
14 permit;
15 26. Has altered or attempted to alter a license or has
16 possessed an altered license, identification card, or
17 permit;
18 27. Has violated Section 6-16 of the Liquor Control Act
19 of 1934;
20 28. Has been convicted for a first time of the illegal
21 possession, while operating or in actual physical control,
22 as a driver, of a motor vehicle, of any controlled
23 substance prohibited under the Illinois Controlled
24 Substances Act, any cannabis prohibited under the Cannabis
25 Control Act, or any methamphetamine prohibited under the
26 Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, in

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1 which case the person's driving privileges shall be
2 suspended for one year. Any defendant found guilty of this
3 offense while operating a motor vehicle, shall have an
4 entry made in the court record by the presiding judge that
5 this offense did occur while the defendant was operating a
6 motor vehicle and order the clerk of the court to report
7 the violation to the Secretary of State;
8 29. Has been convicted of the following offenses that
9 were committed while the person was operating or in actual
10 physical control, as a driver, of a motor vehicle: criminal
11 sexual assault, predatory criminal sexual assault of a
12 child, aggravated criminal sexual assault, criminal sexual
13 abuse, aggravated criminal sexual abuse, juvenile pimping,
14 soliciting for a juvenile prostitute, promoting juvenile
15 prostitution as described in subdivision (a)(1), (a)(2),
16 or (a)(3) of Section 11-14.4 of the Criminal Code of 1961
17 or the Criminal Code of 2012, and the manufacture, sale or
18 delivery of controlled substances or instruments used for
19 illegal drug use or abuse in which case the driver's
20 driving privileges shall be suspended for one year;
21 30. Has been convicted a second or subsequent time for
22 any combination of the offenses named in paragraph 29 of
23 this subsection, in which case the person's driving
24 privileges shall be suspended for 5 years;
25 31. Has refused to submit to a test as required by
26 Section 11-501.6 of this Code or Section 5-16c of the Boat

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1 Registration and Safety Act or has submitted to a test
2 resulting in an alcohol concentration of 0.08 or more or
3 any amount of a drug, substance, or compound resulting from
4 the unlawful use or consumption of cannabis as listed in
5 the Cannabis Control Act, a controlled substance as listed
6 in the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, an intoxicating
7 compound as listed in the Use of Intoxicating Compounds
8 Act, or methamphetamine as listed in the Methamphetamine
9 Control and Community Protection Act, in which case the
10 penalty shall be as prescribed in Section 6-208.1;
11 32. Has been convicted of Section 24-1.2 of the
12 Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 relating
13 to the aggravated discharge of a firearm if the offender
14 was located in a motor vehicle at the time the firearm was
15 discharged, in which case the suspension shall be for 3
16 years;
17 33. Has as a driver, who was less than 21 years of age
18 on the date of the offense, been convicted a first time of
19 a violation of paragraph (a) of Section 11-502 of this Code
20 or a similar provision of a local ordinance;
21 34. Has committed a violation of Section 11-1301.5 of
22 this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance;
23 35. Has committed a violation of Section 11-1301.6 of
24 this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance;
25 36. Is under the age of 21 years at the time of arrest
26 and has been convicted of not less than 2 offenses against

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1 traffic regulations governing the movement of vehicles
2 committed within any 24 month period. No revocation or
3 suspension shall be entered more than 6 months after the
4 date of last conviction;
5 37. Has committed a violation of subsection (c) of
6 Section 11-907 of this Code that resulted in damage to the
7 property of another or the death or injury of another;
8 38. Has been convicted of a violation of Section 6-20
9 of the Liquor Control Act of 1934 or a similar provision of
10 a local ordinance;
11 39. Has committed a second or subsequent violation of
12 Section 11-1201 of this Code;
13 40. Has committed a violation of subsection (a-1) of
14 Section 11-908 of this Code;
15 41. Has committed a second or subsequent violation of
16 Section 11-605.1 of this Code, a similar provision of a
17 local ordinance, or a similar violation in any other state
18 within 2 years of the date of the previous violation, in
19 which case the suspension shall be for 90 days;
20 42. Has committed a violation of subsection (a-1) of
21 Section 11-1301.3 of this Code or a similar provision of a
22 local ordinance;
23 43. Has received a disposition of court supervision for
24 a violation of subsection (a), (d), or (e) of Section 6-20
25 of the Liquor Control Act of 1934 or a similar provision of
26 a local ordinance, in which case the suspension shall be

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1 for a period of 3 months;
2 44. Is under the age of 21 years at the time of arrest
3 and has been convicted of an offense against traffic
4 regulations governing the movement of vehicles after
5 having previously had his or her driving privileges
6 suspended or revoked pursuant to subparagraph 36 of this
7 Section;
8 45. Has, in connection with or during the course of a
9 formal hearing conducted under Section 2-118 of this Code:
10 (i) committed perjury; (ii) submitted fraudulent or
11 falsified documents; (iii) submitted documents that have
12 been materially altered; or (iv) submitted, as his or her
13 own, documents that were in fact prepared or composed for
14 another person;
15 46. Has committed a violation of subsection (j) of
16 Section 3-413 of this Code; or
17 47. Has committed a violation of Section 11-502.1 of
18 this Code.
19 For purposes of paragraphs 5, 9, 10, 12, 14, 19, 25, 26,
20and 27 of this subsection, license means any driver's license,
21any traffic ticket issued when the person's driver's license is
22deposited in lieu of bail, a suspension notice issued by the
23Secretary of State, a duplicate or corrected driver's license,
24a probationary driver's license or a temporary driver's
25license.
26 (b) If any conviction forming the basis of a suspension or

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1revocation authorized under this Section is appealed, the
2Secretary of State may rescind or withhold the entry of the
3order of suspension or revocation, as the case may be, provided
4that a certified copy of a stay order of a court is filed with
5the Secretary of State. If the conviction is affirmed on
6appeal, the date of the conviction shall relate back to the
7time the original judgment of conviction was entered and the 6
8month limitation prescribed shall not apply.
9 (c) 1. Upon suspending or revoking the driver's license or
10permit of any person as authorized in this Section, the
11Secretary of State shall immediately notify the person in
12writing of the revocation or suspension. The notice to be
13deposited in the United States mail, postage prepaid, to the
14last known address of the person.
15 2. If the Secretary of State suspends the driver's
16 license of a person under subsection 2 of paragraph (a) of
17 this Section, a person's privilege to operate a vehicle as
18 an occupation shall not be suspended, provided an affidavit
19 is properly completed, the appropriate fee received, and a
20 permit issued prior to the effective date of the
21 suspension, unless 5 offenses were committed, at least 2 of
22 which occurred while operating a commercial vehicle in
23 connection with the driver's regular occupation. All other
24 driving privileges shall be suspended by the Secretary of
25 State. Any driver prior to operating a vehicle for
26 occupational purposes only must submit the affidavit on

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1 forms to be provided by the Secretary of State setting
2 forth the facts of the person's occupation. The affidavit
3 shall also state the number of offenses committed while
4 operating a vehicle in connection with the driver's regular
5 occupation. The affidavit shall be accompanied by the
6 driver's license. Upon receipt of a properly completed
7 affidavit, the Secretary of State shall issue the driver a
8 permit to operate a vehicle in connection with the driver's
9 regular occupation only. Unless the permit is issued by the
10 Secretary of State prior to the date of suspension, the
11 privilege to drive any motor vehicle shall be suspended as
12 set forth in the notice that was mailed under this Section.
13 If an affidavit is received subsequent to the effective
14 date of this suspension, a permit may be issued for the
15 remainder of the suspension period.
16 The provisions of this subparagraph shall not apply to
17 any driver required to possess a CDL for the purpose of
18 operating a commercial motor vehicle.
19 Any person who falsely states any fact in the affidavit
20 required herein shall be guilty of perjury under Section
21 6-302 and upon conviction thereof shall have all driving
22 privileges revoked without further rights.
23 3. At the conclusion of a hearing under Section 2-118
24 of this Code, the Secretary of State shall either rescind
25 or continue an order of revocation or shall substitute an
26 order of suspension; or, good cause appearing therefor,

09800SB2640ham001- 1447 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 rescind, continue, change, or extend the order of
2 suspension. If the Secretary of State does not rescind the
3 order, the Secretary may upon application, to relieve undue
4 hardship (as defined by the rules of the Secretary of
5 State), issue a restricted driving permit granting the
6 privilege of driving a motor vehicle between the
7 petitioner's residence and petitioner's place of
8 employment or within the scope of the petitioner's
9 employment related duties, or to allow the petitioner to
10 transport himself or herself, or a family member of the
11 petitioner's household to a medical facility, to receive
12 necessary medical care, to allow the petitioner to
13 transport himself or herself to and from alcohol or drug
14 remedial or rehabilitative activity recommended by a
15 licensed service provider, or to allow the petitioner to
16 transport himself or herself or a family member of the
17 petitioner's household to classes, as a student, at an
18 accredited educational institution, or to allow the
19 petitioner to transport children, elderly persons, or
20 disabled persons who do not hold driving privileges and are
21 living in the petitioner's household to and from daycare.
22 The petitioner must demonstrate that no alternative means
23 of transportation is reasonably available and that the
24 petitioner will not endanger the public safety or welfare.
25 Those multiple offenders identified in subdivision (b)4 of
26 Section 6-208 of this Code, however, shall not be eligible

09800SB2640ham001- 1448 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 for the issuance of a restricted driving permit.
2 (A) If a person's license or permit is revoked or
3 suspended due to 2 or more convictions of violating
4 Section 11-501 of this Code or a similar provision of a
5 local ordinance or a similar out-of-state offense, or
6 Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the
7 Criminal Code of 2012, where the use of alcohol or
8 other drugs is recited as an element of the offense, or
9 a similar out-of-state offense, or a combination of
10 these offenses, arising out of separate occurrences,
11 that person, if issued a restricted driving permit, may
12 not operate a vehicle unless it has been equipped with
13 an ignition interlock device as defined in Section
14 1-129.1.
15 (B) If a person's license or permit is revoked or
16 suspended 2 or more times within a 10 year period due
17 to any combination of:
18 (i) a single conviction of violating Section
19 11-501 of this Code or a similar provision of a
20 local ordinance or a similar out-of-state offense
21 or Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the
22 Criminal Code of 2012, where the use of alcohol or
23 other drugs is recited as an element of the
24 offense, or a similar out-of-state offense; or
25 (ii) a statutory summary suspension or
26 revocation under Section 11-501.1; or

09800SB2640ham001- 1449 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 (iii) a suspension under Section 6-203.1;
2 arising out of separate occurrences; that person, if
3 issued a restricted driving permit, may not operate a
4 vehicle unless it has been equipped with an ignition
5 interlock device as defined in Section 1-129.1.
6 (C) The person issued a permit conditioned upon the
7 use of an ignition interlock device must pay to the
8 Secretary of State DUI Administration Fund an amount
9 not to exceed $30 per month. The Secretary shall
10 establish by rule the amount and the procedures, terms,
11 and conditions relating to these fees.
12 (D) If the restricted driving permit is issued for
13 employment purposes, then the prohibition against
14 operating a motor vehicle that is not equipped with an
15 ignition interlock device does not apply to the
16 operation of an occupational vehicle owned or leased by
17 that person's employer when used solely for employment
18 purposes.
19 (E) In each case the Secretary may issue a
20 restricted driving permit for a period deemed
21 appropriate, except that all permits shall expire
22 within one year from the date of issuance. The
23 Secretary may not, however, issue a restricted driving
24 permit to any person whose current revocation is the
25 result of a second or subsequent conviction for a
26 violation of Section 11-501 of this Code or a similar

09800SB2640ham001- 1450 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 provision of a local ordinance or any similar
2 out-of-state offense, or Section 9-3 of the Criminal
3 Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, where the
4 use of alcohol or other drugs is recited as an element
5 of the offense, or any similar out-of-state offense, or
6 any combination of those offenses, until the
7 expiration of at least one year from the date of the
8 revocation. A restricted driving permit issued under
9 this Section shall be subject to cancellation,
10 revocation, and suspension by the Secretary of State in
11 like manner and for like cause as a driver's license
12 issued under this Code may be cancelled, revoked, or
13 suspended; except that a conviction upon one or more
14 offenses against laws or ordinances regulating the
15 movement of traffic shall be deemed sufficient cause
16 for the revocation, suspension, or cancellation of a
17 restricted driving permit. The Secretary of State may,
18 as a condition to the issuance of a restricted driving
19 permit, require the applicant to participate in a
20 designated driver remedial or rehabilitative program.
21 The Secretary of State is authorized to cancel a
22 restricted driving permit if the permit holder does not
23 successfully complete the program.
24 (c-3) In the case of a suspension under paragraph 43 of
25subsection (a), reports received by the Secretary of State
26under this Section shall, except during the actual time the

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1suspension is in effect, be privileged information and for use
2only by the courts, police officers, prosecuting authorities,
3the driver licensing administrator of any other state, the
4Secretary of State, or the parent or legal guardian of a driver
5under the age of 18. However, beginning January 1, 2008, if the
6person is a CDL holder, the suspension shall also be made
7available to the driver licensing administrator of any other
8state, the U.S. Department of Transportation, and the affected
9driver or motor carrier or prospective motor carrier upon
10request.
11 (c-4) In the case of a suspension under paragraph 43 of
12subsection (a), the Secretary of State shall notify the person
13by mail that his or her driving privileges and driver's license
14will be suspended one month after the date of the mailing of
15the notice.
16 (c-5) The Secretary of State may, as a condition of the
17reissuance of a driver's license or permit to an applicant
18whose driver's license or permit has been suspended before he
19or she reached the age of 21 years pursuant to any of the
20provisions of this Section, require the applicant to
21participate in a driver remedial education course and be
22retested under Section 6-109 of this Code.
23 (d) This Section is subject to the provisions of the
24Drivers License Compact.
25 (e) The Secretary of State shall not issue a restricted
26driving permit to a person under the age of 16 years whose

09800SB2640ham001- 1452 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1driving privileges have been suspended or revoked under any
2provisions of this Code.
3 (f) In accordance with 49 C.F.R. 384, the Secretary of
4State may not issue a restricted driving permit for the
5operation of a commercial motor vehicle to a person holding a
6CDL whose driving privileges have been suspended, revoked,
7cancelled, or disqualified under any provisions of this Code.
8(Source: P.A. 97-229, eff. 7-28-11; 97-333, eff. 8-12-11;
997-743, eff. 1-1-13; 97-838, eff. 1-1-13; 97-844, eff. 1-1-13;
1097-1109, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13; 98-103, eff.
111-1-14; 98-122, eff. 1-1-14; revised 9-19-13.)
12 (625 ILCS 5/6-303) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 6-303)
13 Sec. 6-303. Driving while driver's license, permit or
14privilege to operate a motor vehicle is suspended or revoked.
15 (a) Except as otherwise provided in subsection (a-5), any
16person who drives or is in actual physical control of a motor
17vehicle on any highway of this State at a time when such
18person's driver's license, permit or privilege to do so or the
19privilege to obtain a driver's license or permit is revoked or
20suspended as provided by this Code or the law of another state,
21except as may be specifically allowed by a judicial driving
22permit issued prior to January 1, 2009, monitoring device
23driving permit, family financial responsibility driving
24permit, probationary license to drive, or a restricted driving
25permit issued pursuant to this Code or under the law of another

09800SB2640ham001- 1453 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1state, shall be guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.
2 (a-3) A second or subsequent violation of subsection (a) of
3this Section is a Class 4 felony if committed by a person whose
4driving or operation of a motor vehicle is the proximate cause
5of a motor vehicle accident that causes personal injury or
6death to another. For purposes of this subsection, a personal
7injury includes any Type A injury as indicated on the traffic
8accident report completed by a law enforcement officer that
9requires immediate professional attention in either a doctor's
10office or a medical facility. A Type A injury includes severe
11bleeding wounds, distorted extremities, and injuries that
12require the injured party to be carried from the scene.
13 (a-5) Any person who violates this Section as provided in
14subsection (a) while his or her driver's license, permit or
15privilege is revoked because of a violation of Section 9-3 of
16the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012,
17relating to the offense of reckless homicide or a similar
18provision of a law of another state, is guilty of a Class 4
19felony. The person shall be required to undergo a professional
20evaluation, as provided in Section 11-501 of this Code, to
21determine if an alcohol, drug, or intoxicating compound problem
22exists and the extent of the problem, and to undergo the
23imposition of treatment as appropriate.
24 (a-10) A person's driver's license, permit, or privilege to
25obtain a driver's license or permit may be subject to multiple
26revocations, multiple suspensions, or any combination of both

09800SB2640ham001- 1454 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1simultaneously. No revocation or suspension shall serve to
2negate, invalidate, cancel, postpone, or in any way lessen the
3effect of any other revocation or suspension entered prior or
4subsequent to any other revocation or suspension.
5 (b) (Blank).
6 (b-1) Upon receiving a report of the conviction of any
7violation indicating a person was operating a motor vehicle
8during the time when the person's driver's license, permit or
9privilege was suspended by the Secretary of State or the
10driver's licensing administrator of another state, except as
11specifically allowed by a probationary license, judicial
12driving permit, restricted driving permit or monitoring device
13driving permit the Secretary shall extend the suspension for
14the same period of time as the originally imposed suspension
15unless the suspension has already expired, in which case the
16Secretary shall be authorized to suspend the person's driving
17privileges for the same period of time as the originally
18imposed suspension.
19 (b-2) Except as provided in subsection (b-6), upon
20receiving a report of the conviction of any violation
21indicating a person was operating a motor vehicle when the
22person's driver's license, permit or privilege was revoked by
23the Secretary of State or the driver's license administrator of
24any other state, except as specifically allowed by a restricted
25driving permit issued pursuant to this Code or the law of
26another state, the Secretary shall not issue a driver's license

09800SB2640ham001- 1455 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1for an additional period of one year from the date of such
2conviction indicating such person was operating a vehicle
3during such period of revocation.
4 (b-3) (Blank).
5 (b-4) When the Secretary of State receives a report of a
6conviction of any violation indicating a person was operating a
7motor vehicle that was not equipped with an ignition interlock
8device during a time when the person was prohibited from
9operating a motor vehicle not equipped with such a device, the
10Secretary shall not issue a driver's license to that person for
11an additional period of one year from the date of the
12conviction.
13 (b-5) Any person convicted of violating this Section shall
14serve a minimum term of imprisonment of 30 consecutive days or
15300 hours of community service when the person's driving
16privilege was revoked or suspended as a result of a violation
17of Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal
18Code of 2012, relating to the offense of reckless homicide, or
19a similar provision of a law of another state.
20 (b-6) Upon receiving a report of a first conviction of
21operating a motor vehicle while the person's driver's license,
22permit or privilege was revoked where the revocation was for a
23violation of Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the
24Criminal Code of 2012 relating to the offense of reckless
25homicide or a similar out-of-state offense, the Secretary shall
26not issue a driver's license for an additional period of three

09800SB2640ham001- 1456 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1years from the date of such conviction.
2 (c) Except as provided in subsections (c-3) and (c-4), any
3person convicted of violating this Section shall serve a
4minimum term of imprisonment of 10 consecutive days or 30 days
5of community service when the person's driving privilege was
6revoked or suspended as a result of:
7 (1) a violation of Section 11-501 of this Code or a
8 similar provision of a local ordinance relating to the
9 offense of operating or being in physical control of a
10 vehicle while under the influence of alcohol, any other
11 drug or any combination thereof; or
12 (2) a violation of paragraph (b) of Section 11-401 of
13 this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance
14 relating to the offense of leaving the scene of a motor
15 vehicle accident involving personal injury or death; or
16 (3) a statutory summary suspension or revocation under
17 Section 11-501.1 of this Code.
18 Such sentence of imprisonment or community service shall
19not be subject to suspension in order to reduce such sentence.
20 (c-1) Except as provided in subsections (c-5) and (d), any
21person convicted of a second violation of this Section shall be
22ordered by the court to serve a minimum of 100 hours of
23community service.
24 (c-2) In addition to other penalties imposed under this
25Section, the court may impose on any person convicted a fourth
26time of violating this Section any of the following:

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1 (1) Seizure of the license plates of the person's
2 vehicle.
3 (2) Immobilization of the person's vehicle for a period
4 of time to be determined by the court.
5 (c-3) Any person convicted of a violation of this Section
6during a period of summary suspension imposed pursuant to
7Section 11-501.1 when the person was eligible for a MDDP shall
8be guilty of a Class 4 felony and shall serve a minimum term of
9imprisonment of 30 days.
10 (c-4) Any person who has been issued a MDDP and who is
11convicted of a violation of this Section as a result of
12operating or being in actual physical control of a motor
13vehicle not equipped with an ignition interlock device at the
14time of the offense shall be guilty of a Class 4 felony and
15shall serve a minimum term of imprisonment of 30 days.
16 (c-5) Any person convicted of a second violation of this
17Section is guilty of a Class 2 felony, is not eligible for
18probation or conditional discharge, and shall serve a mandatory
19term of imprisonment, if:
20 (1) the current violation occurred when the person's
21 driver's license was suspended or revoked for a violation
22 of Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal
23 Code of 2012, relating to the offense of reckless homicide,
24 or a similar out-of-state offense; and
25 (2) the prior conviction under this Section occurred
26 while the person's driver's license was suspended or

09800SB2640ham001- 1458 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 revoked for a violation of Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code
2 of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 relating to the
3 offense of reckless homicide, or a similar out-of-state
4 offense, or was suspended or revoked for a violation of
5 Section 11-401 or 11-501 of this Code, a similar
6 out-of-state offense, a similar provision of a local
7 ordinance, or a statutory summary suspension or revocation
8 under Section 11-501.1 of this Code.
9 (d) Any person convicted of a second violation of this
10Section shall be guilty of a Class 4 felony and shall serve a
11minimum term of imprisonment of 30 days or 300 hours of
12community service, as determined by the court, if:
13 (1) the current violation occurred when the person's
14 driver's license was suspended or revoked for a violation
15 of Section 11-401 or 11-501 of this Code, a similar
16 out-of-state offense, a similar provision of a local
17 ordinance, or a statutory summary suspension or revocation
18 under Section 11-501.1 of this Code; and
19 (2) the prior conviction under this Section occurred
20 while the person's driver's license was suspended or
21 revoked for a violation of Section 11-401 or 11-501 of this
22 Code, a similar out-of-state offense, a similar provision
23 of a local ordinance, or a statutory summary suspension or
24 revocation under Section 11-501.1 of this Code, or for a
25 violation of Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or
26 the Criminal Code of 2012, relating to the offense of

09800SB2640ham001- 1459 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 reckless homicide, or a similar out-of-state offense.
2 (d-1) Except as provided in subsections (d-2), (d-2.5), and
3(d-3), any person convicted of a third or subsequent violation
4of this Section shall serve a minimum term of imprisonment of
530 days or 300 hours of community service, as determined by the
6court.
7 (d-2) Any person convicted of a third violation of this
8Section is guilty of a Class 4 felony and must serve a minimum
9term of imprisonment of 30 days, if:
10 (1) the current violation occurred when the person's
11 driver's license was suspended or revoked for a violation
12 of Section 11-401 or 11-501 of this Code, or a similar
13 out-of-state offense, or a similar provision of a local
14 ordinance, or a statutory summary suspension or revocation
15 under Section 11-501.1 of this Code; and
16 (2) the prior convictions under this Section occurred
17 while the person's driver's license was suspended or
18 revoked for a violation of Section 11-401 or 11-501 of this
19 Code, a similar out-of-state offense, a similar provision
20 of a local ordinance, or a statutory summary suspension or
21 revocation under Section 11-501.1 of this Code, or for a
22 violation of Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or
23 the Criminal Code of 2012, relating to the offense of
24 reckless homicide, or a similar out-of-state offense.
25 (d-2.5) Any person convicted of a third violation of this
26Section is guilty of a Class 1 felony, is not eligible for

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1probation or conditional discharge, and must serve a mandatory
2term of imprisonment, if:
3 (1) the current violation occurred while the person's
4 driver's license was suspended or revoked for a violation
5 of Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal
6 Code of 2012, relating to the offense of reckless homicide,
7 or a similar out-of-state offense. The person's driving
8 privileges shall be revoked for the remainder of the
9 person's life; and
10 (2) the prior convictions under this Section occurred
11 while the person's driver's license was suspended or
12 revoked for a violation of Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code
13 of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, relating to the
14 offense of reckless homicide, or a similar out-of-state
15 offense, or was suspended or revoked for a violation of
16 Section 11-401 or 11-501 of this Code, a similar
17 out-of-state offense, a similar provision of a local
18 ordinance, or a statutory summary suspension or revocation
19 under Section 11-501.1 of this Code.
20 (d-3) Any person convicted of a fourth, fifth, sixth,
21seventh, eighth, or ninth violation of this Section is guilty
22of a Class 4 felony and must serve a minimum term of
23imprisonment of 180 days, if:
24 (1) the current violation occurred when the person's
25 driver's license was suspended or revoked for a violation
26 of Section 11-401 or 11-501 of this Code, a similar

09800SB2640ham001- 1461 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 out-of-state offense, a similar provision of a local
2 ordinance, or a statutory summary suspension or revocation
3 under Section 11-501.1 of this Code; and
4 (2) the prior convictions under this Section occurred
5 while the person's driver's license was suspended or
6 revoked for a violation of Section 11-401 or 11-501 of this
7 Code, a similar out-of-state offense, a similar provision
8 of a local ordinance, or a statutory summary suspension or
9 revocation under Section 11-501.1 of this Code, or for a
10 violation of Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or
11 the Criminal Code of 2012, relating to the offense of
12 reckless homicide, or a similar out-of-state offense.
13 (d-3.5) Any person convicted of a fourth or subsequent
14violation of this Section is guilty of a Class 1 felony, is not
15eligible for probation or conditional discharge, and must serve
16a mandatory term of imprisonment, and is eligible for an
17extended term, if:
18 (1) the current violation occurred when the person's
19 driver's license was suspended or revoked for a violation
20 of Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal
21 Code of 2012, relating to the offense of reckless homicide,
22 or a similar out-of-state offense; and
23 (2) the prior convictions under this Section occurred
24 while the person's driver's license was suspended or
25 revoked for a violation of Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code
26 of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, relating to the

09800SB2640ham001- 1462 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 offense of reckless homicide, or a similar out-of-state
2 offense, or was suspended or revoked for a violation of
3 Section 11-401 or 11-501 of this Code, a similar
4 out-of-state offense, a similar provision of a local
5 ordinance, or a statutory summary suspension or revocation
6 under Section 11-501.1 of this Code.
7 (d-4) Any person convicted of a tenth, eleventh, twelfth,
8thirteenth, or fourteenth violation of this Section is guilty
9of a Class 3 felony, and is not eligible for probation or
10conditional discharge, if:
11 (1) the current violation occurred when the person's
12 driver's license was suspended or revoked for a violation
13 of Section 11-401 or 11-501 of this Code, or a similar
14 out-of-state offense, or a similar provision of a local
15 ordinance, or a statutory summary suspension or revocation
16 under Section 11-501.1 of this Code; and
17 (2) the prior convictions under this Section occurred
18 while the person's driver's license was suspended or
19 revoked for a violation of Section 11-401 or 11-501 of this
20 Code, a similar out-of-state offense, a similar provision
21 of a local ordinance, or a statutory suspension or
22 revocation under Section 11-501.1 of this Code, or for a
23 violation of Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or
24 the Criminal Code of 2012, relating to the offense of
25 reckless homicide, or a similar out-of-state offense.
26 (d-5) Any person convicted of a fifteenth or subsequent

09800SB2640ham001- 1463 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1violation of this Section is guilty of a Class 2 felony, and is
2not eligible for probation or conditional discharge, if:
3 (1) the current violation occurred when the person's
4 driver's license was suspended or revoked for a violation
5 of Section 11-401 or 11-501 of this Code, or a similar
6 out-of-state offense, or a similar provision of a local
7 ordinance, or a statutory summary suspension or revocation
8 under Section 11-501.1 of this Code; and
9 (2) the prior convictions under this Section occurred
10 while the person's driver's license was suspended or
11 revoked for a violation of Section 11-401 or 11-501 of this
12 Code, a similar out-of-state offense, a similar provision
13 of a local ordinance, or a statutory summary suspension or
14 revocation under Section 11-501.1 of this Code, or for a
15 violation of Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or
16 the Criminal Code of 2012, relating to the offense of
17 reckless homicide, or a similar out-of-state offense.
18 (e) Any person in violation of this Section who is also in
19violation of Section 7-601 of this Code relating to mandatory
20insurance requirements, in addition to other penalties imposed
21under this Section, shall have his or her motor vehicle
22immediately impounded by the arresting law enforcement
23officer. The motor vehicle may be released to any licensed
24driver upon a showing of proof of insurance for the vehicle
25that was impounded and the notarized written consent for the
26release by the vehicle owner.

09800SB2640ham001- 1464 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 (f) For any prosecution under this Section, a certified
2copy of the driving abstract of the defendant shall be admitted
3as proof of any prior conviction.
4 (g) The motor vehicle used in a violation of this Section
5is subject to seizure and forfeiture as provided in Sections
636-1 and 36-2 of the Criminal Code of 2012 if the person's
7driving privilege was revoked or suspended as a result of:
8 (1) a violation of Section 11-501 of this Code, a
9 similar provision of a local ordinance, or a similar
10 provision of a law of another state;
11 (2) a violation of paragraph (b) of Section 11-401 of
12 this Code, a similar provision of a local ordinance, or a
13 similar provision of a law of another state;
14 (3) a statutory summary suspension or revocation under
15 Section 11-501.1 of this Code or a similar provision of a
16 law of another state; or
17 (4) a violation of Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of
18 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 relating to the offense
19 of reckless homicide, or a similar provision of a law of
20 another state.
21(Source: P.A. 97-984, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13;
2298-285, eff. 1-1-14; 98-418, eff. 8-16-13; 98-573, eff.
238-27-13; revised 9-19-13.)
24 (625 ILCS 5/6-508) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 6-508)
25 (Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 98-176)

09800SB2640ham001- 1465 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 Sec. 6-508. Commercial Driver's License (CDL) -
2qualification standards.
3 (a) Testing.
4 (1) General. No person shall be issued an original or
5 renewal CDL unless that person is domiciled in this State.
6 The Secretary shall cause to be administered such tests as
7 the Secretary deems necessary to meet the requirements of
8 49 C.F.R. Part 383, subparts F, G, H, and J.
9 (2) Third party testing. The Secretary of State state
10 may authorize a "third party tester", pursuant to 49 C.F.R.
11 Part 383.75, to administer the skills test or tests
12 specified by the Federal Motor Carrier Safety
13 Administration pursuant to the Commercial Motor Vehicle
14 Safety Act of 1986 and any appropriate federal rule.
15 (b) Waiver of Skills Test. The Secretary of State may waive
16the skills test specified in this Section for a driver
17applicant for a commercial driver license who meets the
18requirements of 49 C.F.R. Part 383.77 and Part 383.123. The
19Secretary of State shall waive the skills tests specified in
20this Section for a driver applicant who has military commercial
21motor vehicle experience, subject to the requirements of 49
22C.F.R. 383.77.
23 (b-1) No person shall be issued a commercial driver
24instruction permit or CDL unless the person certifies to the
25Secretary one of the following types of driving operations in
26which he or she will be engaged:

09800SB2640ham001- 1466 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 (1) non-excepted interstate;
2 (2) non-excepted intrastate;
3 (3) excepted interstate; or
4 (4) excepted intrastate.
5 (b-2) Persons who hold a commercial driver instruction
6permit or CDL on January 30, 2012 must certify to the Secretary
7no later than January 30, 2014 one of the following applicable
8self-certifications:
9 (1) non-excepted interstate;
10 (2) non-excepted intrastate;
11 (3) excepted interstate; or
12 (4) excepted intrastate.
13 (c) Limitations on issuance of a CDL. A CDL, or a
14commercial driver instruction permit, shall not be issued to a
15person while the person is subject to a disqualification from
16driving a commercial motor vehicle, or unless otherwise
17permitted by this Code, while the person's driver's license is
18suspended, revoked or cancelled in any state, or any territory
19or province of Canada; nor may a CDL be issued to a person who
20has a CDL issued by any other state, or foreign jurisdiction,
21unless the person first surrenders all such licenses. No CDL
22shall be issued to or renewed for a person who does not meet
23the requirement of 49 CFR 391.41(b)(11). The requirement may be
24met with the aid of a hearing aid.
25 (c-1) The Secretary may issue a CDL with a school bus
26driver endorsement to allow a person to drive the type of bus

09800SB2640ham001- 1467 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1described in subsection (d-5) of Section 6-104 of this Code.
2The CDL with a school bus driver endorsement may be issued only
3to a person meeting the following requirements:
4 (1) the person has submitted his or her fingerprints to
5 the Department of State Police in the form and manner
6 prescribed by the Department of State Police. These
7 fingerprints shall be checked against the fingerprint
8 records now and hereafter filed in the Department of State
9 Police and Federal Bureau of Investigation criminal
10 history records databases;
11 (2) the person has passed a written test, administered
12 by the Secretary of State, on charter bus operation,
13 charter bus safety, and certain special traffic laws
14 relating to school buses determined by the Secretary of
15 State to be relevant to charter buses, and submitted to a
16 review of the driver applicant's driving habits by the
17 Secretary of State at the time the written test is given;
18 (3) the person has demonstrated physical fitness to
19 operate school buses by submitting the results of a medical
20 examination, including tests for drug use; and
21 (4) the person has not been convicted of committing or
22 attempting to commit any one or more of the following
23 offenses: (i) those offenses defined in Sections 8-1.2,
24 9-1, 9-1.2, 9-2, 9-2.1, 9-3, 9-3.2, 9-3.3, 10-1, 10-2,
25 10-3.1, 10-4, 10-5, 10-5.1, 10-6, 10-7, 10-9, 11-1.20,
26 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 11-6, 11-6.5, 11-6.6,

09800SB2640ham001- 1468 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 11-9, 11-9.1, 11-9.3, 11-9.4, 11-14, 11-14.1, 11-14.3,
2 11-14.4, 11-15, 11-15.1, 11-16, 11-17, 11-17.1, 11-18,
3 11-18.1, 11-19, 11-19.1, 11-19.2, 11-20, 11-20.1,
4 11-20.1B, 11-20.3, 11-21, 11-22, 11-23, 11-24, 11-25,
5 11-26, 11-30, 12-2.6, 12-3.1, 12-4, 12-4.1, 12-4.2,
6 12-4.2-5, 12-4.3, 12-4.4, 12-4.5, 12-4.6, 12-4.7, 12-4.9,
7 12-5.01, 12-6, 12-6.2, 12-7.1, 12-7.3, 12-7.4, 12-7.5,
8 12-11, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15, 12-16, 12-16.2,
9 12-21.5, 12-21.6, 12-33, 12C-5, 12C-10, 12C-20, 12C-30,
10 12C-45, 16-16, 16-16.1, 18-1, 18-2, 18-3, 18-4, 18-5, 19-6,
11 20-1, 20-1.1, 20-1.2, 20-1.3, 20-2, 24-1, 24-1.1, 24-1.2,
12 24-1.2-5, 24-1.6, 24-1.7, 24-2.1, 24-3.3, 24-3.5, 24-3.8,
13 24-3.9, 31A-1, 31A-1.1, 33A-2, and 33D-1, and in subsection
14 (b) of Section 8-1, and in subdivisions (a)(1), (a)(2),
15 (b)(1), (e)(1), (e)(2), (e)(3), (e)(4), and (f)(1) of
16 Section 12-3.05, and in subsection (a) and subsection (b),
17 clause (1), of Section 12-4, and in subsection (A), clauses
18 (a) and (b), of Section 24-3, and those offenses contained
19 in Article 29D of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal
20 Code of 2012; (ii) those offenses defined in the Cannabis
21 Control Act except those offenses defined in subsections
22 (a) and (b) of Section 4, and subsection (a) of Section 5
23 of the Cannabis Control Act; (iii) those offenses defined
24 in the Illinois Controlled Substances Act; (iv) those
25 offenses defined in the Methamphetamine Control and
26 Community Protection Act; (v) any offense committed or

09800SB2640ham001- 1469 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 attempted in any other state or against the laws of the
2 United States, which if committed or attempted in this
3 State would be punishable as one or more of the foregoing
4 offenses; (vi) the offenses defined in Sections 4.1 and 5.1
5 of the Wrongs to Children Act or Section 11-9.1A of the
6 Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012; (vii)
7 those offenses defined in Section 6-16 of the Liquor
8 Control Act of 1934; and (viii) those offenses defined in
9 the Methamphetamine Precursor Control Act.
10 The Department of State Police shall charge a fee for
11conducting the criminal history records check, which shall be
12deposited into the State Police Services Fund and may not
13exceed the actual cost of the records check.
14 (c-2) The Secretary shall issue a CDL with a school bus
15endorsement to allow a person to drive a school bus as defined
16in this Section. The CDL shall be issued according to the
17requirements outlined in 49 C.F.R. 383. A person may not
18operate a school bus as defined in this Section without a
19school bus endorsement. The Secretary of State may adopt rules
20consistent with Federal guidelines to implement this
21subsection (c-2).
22 (d) Commercial driver instruction permit. A commercial
23driver instruction permit may be issued to any person holding a
24valid Illinois driver's license if such person successfully
25passes such tests as the Secretary determines to be necessary.
26A commercial driver instruction permit shall not be issued to a

09800SB2640ham001- 1470 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1person who does not meet the requirements of 49 CFR 391.41
2(b)(11), except for the renewal of a commercial driver
3instruction permit for a person who possesses a commercial
4instruction permit prior to the effective date of this
5amendatory Act of 1999.
6(Source: P.A. 97-208, eff. 1-1-12; 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13;
797-1109, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13; 98-52, eff.
81-1-14; revised 9-19-13.)
9 (Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 98-176)
10 Sec. 6-508. Commercial Driver's License (CDL) -
11qualification standards.
12 (a) Testing.
13 (1) General. No person shall be issued an original or
14 renewal CDL unless that person is domiciled in this State
15 or is applying for a non-domiciled CDL under Sections 6-509
16 and 6-510 of this Code. The Secretary shall cause to be
17 administered such tests as the Secretary deems necessary to
18 meet the requirements of 49 C.F.R. Part 383, subparts F, G,
19 H, and J.
20 (1.5) Effective July 1, 2014, no person shall be issued
21 an original CDL or an upgraded CDL that requires a skills
22 test unless that person has held a CLP, for a minimum of 14
23 calendar days, for the classification of vehicle and
24 endorsement, if any, for which the person is seeking a CDL.
25 (2) Third party testing. The Secretary of State state

09800SB2640ham001- 1471 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 may authorize a "third party tester", pursuant to 49 C.F.R.
2 Part 383.75 and 49 C.F.R. 384.228 and 384.229, to
3 administer the skills test or tests specified by the
4 Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration pursuant to
5 the Commercial Motor Vehicle Safety Act of 1986 and any
6 appropriate federal rule.
7 (b) Waiver of Skills Test. The Secretary of State may waive
8the skills test specified in this Section for a driver
9applicant for a commercial driver license who meets the
10requirements of 49 C.F.R. Part 383.77. The Secretary of State
11shall waive the skills tests specified in this Section for a
12driver applicant who has military commercial motor vehicle
13experience, subject to the requirements of 49 C.F.R. 383.77.
14 (b-1) No person shall be issued a CDL unless the person
15certifies to the Secretary one of the following types of
16driving operations in which he or she will be engaged:
17 (1) non-excepted interstate;
18 (2) non-excepted intrastate;
19 (3) excepted interstate; or
20 (4) excepted intrastate.
21 (b-2) (Blank).
22 (c) Limitations on issuance of a CDL. A CDL shall not be
23issued to a person while the person is subject to a
24disqualification from driving a commercial motor vehicle, or
25unless otherwise permitted by this Code, while the person's
26driver's license is suspended, revoked or cancelled in any

09800SB2640ham001- 1472 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1state, or any territory or province of Canada; nor may a CLP or
2CDL be issued to a person who has a CLP or CDL issued by any
3other state, or foreign jurisdiction, nor may a CDL be issued
4to a person who has an Illinois CLP unless the person first
5surrenders all of these licenses or permits. However, a person
6may hold an Illinois CLP and an Illinois CDL providing the CLP
7is necessary to train or practice for an endorsement or vehicle
8classification not present on the current CDL. No CDL shall be
9issued to or renewed for a person who does not meet the
10requirement of 49 CFR 391.41(b)(11). The requirement may be met
11with the aid of a hearing aid.
12 (c-1) The Secretary may issue a CDL with a school bus
13driver endorsement to allow a person to drive the type of bus
14described in subsection (d-5) of Section 6-104 of this Code.
15The CDL with a school bus driver endorsement may be issued only
16to a person meeting the following requirements:
17 (1) the person has submitted his or her fingerprints to
18 the Department of State Police in the form and manner
19 prescribed by the Department of State Police. These
20 fingerprints shall be checked against the fingerprint
21 records now and hereafter filed in the Department of State
22 Police and Federal Bureau of Investigation criminal
23 history records databases;
24 (2) the person has passed a written test, administered
25 by the Secretary of State, on charter bus operation,
26 charter bus safety, and certain special traffic laws

09800SB2640ham001- 1473 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 relating to school buses determined by the Secretary of
2 State to be relevant to charter buses, and submitted to a
3 review of the driver applicant's driving habits by the
4 Secretary of State at the time the written test is given;
5 (3) the person has demonstrated physical fitness to
6 operate school buses by submitting the results of a medical
7 examination, including tests for drug use; and
8 (4) the person has not been convicted of committing or
9 attempting to commit any one or more of the following
10 offenses: (i) those offenses defined in Sections 8-1.2,
11 9-1, 9-1.2, 9-2, 9-2.1, 9-3, 9-3.2, 9-3.3, 10-1, 10-2,
12 10-3.1, 10-4, 10-5, 10-5.1, 10-6, 10-7, 10-9, 11-1.20,
13 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 11-6, 11-6.5, 11-6.6,
14 11-9, 11-9.1, 11-9.3, 11-9.4, 11-14, 11-14.1, 11-14.3,
15 11-14.4, 11-15, 11-15.1, 11-16, 11-17, 11-17.1, 11-18,
16 11-18.1, 11-19, 11-19.1, 11-19.2, 11-20, 11-20.1,
17 11-20.1B, 11-20.3, 11-21, 11-22, 11-23, 11-24, 11-25,
18 11-26, 11-30, 12-2.6, 12-3.1, 12-4, 12-4.1, 12-4.2,
19 12-4.2-5, 12-4.3, 12-4.4, 12-4.5, 12-4.6, 12-4.7, 12-4.9,
20 12-5.01, 12-6, 12-6.2, 12-7.1, 12-7.3, 12-7.4, 12-7.5,
21 12-11, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15, 12-16, 12-16.2,
22 12-21.5, 12-21.6, 12-33, 12C-5, 12C-10, 12C-20, 12C-30,
23 12C-45, 16-16, 16-16.1, 18-1, 18-2, 18-3, 18-4, 18-5, 19-6,
24 20-1, 20-1.1, 20-1.2, 20-1.3, 20-2, 24-1, 24-1.1, 24-1.2,
25 24-1.2-5, 24-1.6, 24-1.7, 24-2.1, 24-3.3, 24-3.5, 24-3.8,
26 24-3.9, 31A-1, 31A-1.1, 33A-2, and 33D-1, and in subsection

09800SB2640ham001- 1474 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 (b) of Section 8-1, and in subdivisions (a)(1), (a)(2),
2 (b)(1), (e)(1), (e)(2), (e)(3), (e)(4), and (f)(1) of
3 Section 12-3.05, and in subsection (a) and subsection (b),
4 clause (1), of Section 12-4, and in subsection (A), clauses
5 (a) and (b), of Section 24-3, and those offenses contained
6 in Article 29D of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal
7 Code of 2012; (ii) those offenses defined in the Cannabis
8 Control Act except those offenses defined in subsections
9 (a) and (b) of Section 4, and subsection (a) of Section 5
10 of the Cannabis Control Act; (iii) those offenses defined
11 in the Illinois Controlled Substances Act; (iv) those
12 offenses defined in the Methamphetamine Control and
13 Community Protection Act; (v) any offense committed or
14 attempted in any other state or against the laws of the
15 United States, which if committed or attempted in this
16 State would be punishable as one or more of the foregoing
17 offenses; (vi) the offenses defined in Sections 4.1 and 5.1
18 of the Wrongs to Children Act or Section 11-9.1A of the
19 Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012; (vii)
20 those offenses defined in Section 6-16 of the Liquor
21 Control Act of 1934; and (viii) those offenses defined in
22 the Methamphetamine Precursor Control Act.
23 The Department of State Police shall charge a fee for
24conducting the criminal history records check, which shall be
25deposited into the State Police Services Fund and may not
26exceed the actual cost of the records check.

09800SB2640ham001- 1475 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 (c-2) The Secretary shall issue a CDL with a school bus
2endorsement to allow a person to drive a school bus as defined
3in this Section. The CDL shall be issued according to the
4requirements outlined in 49 C.F.R. 383. A person may not
5operate a school bus as defined in this Section without a
6school bus endorsement. The Secretary of State may adopt rules
7consistent with Federal guidelines to implement this
8subsection (c-2).
9 (d) (Blank).
10(Source: P.A. 97-208, eff. 1-1-12; 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13;
1197-1109, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13; 98-52, eff.
121-1-14; 98-176, eff. 7-1-14; revised 9-19-13.)
13 (625 ILCS 5/6-514) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 6-514)
14 (Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 98-176)
15 Sec. 6-514. Commercial Driver's License (CDL) -
16Disqualifications.
17 (a) A person shall be disqualified from driving a
18commercial motor vehicle for a period of not less than 12
19months for the first violation of:
20 (1) Refusing to submit to or failure to complete a test
21 or tests authorized under Section 11-501.1 while driving a
22 commercial motor vehicle or, if the driver is a CDL holder,
23 while driving a non-CMV; or
24 (2) Operating a commercial motor vehicle while the
25 alcohol concentration of the person's blood, breath or

09800SB2640ham001- 1476 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 urine is at least 0.04, or any amount of a drug, substance,
2 or compound in the person's blood or urine resulting from
3 the unlawful use or consumption of cannabis listed in the
4 Cannabis Control Act, a controlled substance listed in the
5 Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or methamphetamine as
6 listed in the Methamphetamine Control and Community
7 Protection Act as indicated by a police officer's sworn
8 report or other verified evidence; or operating a
9 non-commercial motor vehicle while the alcohol
10 concentration of the person's blood, breath, or urine was
11 above the legal limit defined in Section 11-501.1 or
12 11-501.8 or any amount of a drug, substance, or compound in
13 the person's blood or urine resulting from the unlawful use
14 or consumption of cannabis listed in the Cannabis Control
15 Act, a controlled substance listed in the Illinois
16 Controlled Substances Act, or methamphetamine as listed in
17 the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act
18 as indicated by a police officer's sworn report or other
19 verified evidence while holding a commercial driver's
20 license; or
21 (3) Conviction for a first violation of:
22 (i) Driving a commercial motor vehicle or, if the
23 driver is a CDL holder, driving a non-CMV while under
24 the influence of alcohol, or any other drug, or
25 combination of drugs to a degree which renders such
26 person incapable of safely driving; or

09800SB2640ham001- 1477 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 (ii) Knowingly leaving the scene of an accident
2 while operating a commercial motor vehicle or, if the
3 driver is a CDL holder, while driving a non-CMV; or
4 (iii) Driving a commercial motor vehicle or, if the
5 driver is a CDL holder, driving a non-CMV while
6 committing any felony; or
7 (iv) Driving a commercial motor vehicle while the
8 person's driving privileges or driver's license or
9 permit is revoked, suspended, or cancelled or the
10 driver is disqualified from operating a commercial
11 motor vehicle; or
12 (v) Causing a fatality through the negligent
13 operation of a commercial motor vehicle, including but
14 not limited to the crimes of motor vehicle
15 manslaughter, homicide by a motor vehicle, and
16 negligent homicide.
17 As used in this subdivision (a)(3)(v), "motor
18 vehicle manslaughter" means the offense of involuntary
19 manslaughter if committed by means of a vehicle;
20 "homicide by a motor vehicle" means the offense of
21 first degree murder or second degree murder, if either
22 offense is committed by means of a vehicle; and
23 "negligent homicide" means reckless homicide under
24 Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the
25 Criminal Code of 2012 and aggravated driving under the
26 influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs,

09800SB2640ham001- 1478 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 intoxicating compound or compounds, or any combination
2 thereof under subdivision (d)(1)(F) of Section 11-501
3 of this Code.
4 If any of the above violations or refusals occurred
5 while transporting hazardous material(s) required to be
6 placarded, the person shall be disqualified for a period of
7 not less than 3 years; or
8 (4) If the person is a qualifying patient licensed
9 under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot
10 Program Act who is in possession of a valid registry card
11 issued under that Act, operating a commercial motor vehicle
12 under impairment resulting from the consumption of
13 cannabis, as determined by failure of standardized field
14 sobriety tests administered by a law enforcement officer as
15 directed by subsection (a-5) of Section 11-501.2.
16 (b) A person is disqualified for life for a second
17conviction of any of the offenses specified in paragraph (a),
18or any combination of those offenses, arising from 2 or more
19separate incidents.
20 (c) A person is disqualified from driving a commercial
21motor vehicle for life if the person either (i) uses a
22commercial motor vehicle in the commission of any felony
23involving the manufacture, distribution, or dispensing of a
24controlled substance, or possession with intent to
25manufacture, distribute or dispense a controlled substance or
26(ii) if the person is a CDL holder, uses a non-CMV in the

09800SB2640ham001- 1479 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1commission of a felony involving any of those activities.
2 (d) The Secretary of State may, when the United States
3Secretary of Transportation so authorizes, issue regulations
4in which a disqualification for life under paragraph (b) may be
5reduced to a period of not less than 10 years. If a reinstated
6driver is subsequently convicted of another disqualifying
7offense, as specified in subsection (a) of this Section, he or
8she shall be permanently disqualified for life and shall be
9ineligible to again apply for a reduction of the lifetime
10disqualification.
11 (e) A person is disqualified from driving a commercial
12motor vehicle for a period of not less than 2 months if
13convicted of 2 serious traffic violations, committed in a
14commercial motor vehicle, non-CMV while holding a CDL, or any
15combination thereof, arising from separate incidents,
16occurring within a 3 year period, provided the serious traffic
17violation committed in a non-CMV would result in the suspension
18or revocation of the CDL holder's non-CMV privileges. However,
19a person will be disqualified from driving a commercial motor
20vehicle for a period of not less than 4 months if convicted of
213 serious traffic violations, committed in a commercial motor
22vehicle, non-CMV while holding a CDL, or any combination
23thereof, arising from separate incidents, occurring within a 3
24year period, provided the serious traffic violation committed
25in a non-CMV would result in the suspension or revocation of
26the CDL holder's non-CMV privileges. If all the convictions

09800SB2640ham001- 1480 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1occurred in a non-CMV, the disqualification shall be entered
2only if the convictions would result in the suspension or
3revocation of the CDL holder's non-CMV privileges.
4 (e-1) (Blank).
5 (f) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Code, any
6driver disqualified from operating a commercial motor vehicle,
7pursuant to this UCDLA, shall not be eligible for restoration
8of commercial driving privileges during any such period of
9disqualification.
10 (g) After suspending, revoking, or cancelling a commercial
11driver's license, the Secretary of State must update the
12driver's records to reflect such action within 10 days. After
13suspending or revoking the driving privilege of any person who
14has been issued a CDL or commercial driver instruction permit
15from another jurisdiction, the Secretary shall originate
16notification to such issuing jurisdiction within 10 days.
17 (h) The "disqualifications" referred to in this Section
18shall not be imposed upon any commercial motor vehicle driver,
19by the Secretary of State, unless the prohibited action(s)
20occurred after March 31, 1992.
21 (i) A person is disqualified from driving a commercial
22motor vehicle in accordance with the following:
23 (1) For 6 months upon a first conviction of paragraph
24 (2) of subsection (b) or subsection (b-3) of Section 6-507
25 of this Code.
26 (2) For 2 years upon a second conviction of paragraph

09800SB2640ham001- 1481 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 (2) of subsection (b) or subsection (b-3) or any
2 combination of paragraphs (2) or (3) of subsection (b) or
3 subsections (b-3) or (b-5) of Section 6-507 of this Code
4 within a 10-year period if the second conviction is a
5 violation of paragraph (2) of subsection (b) or subsection
6 (b-3).
7 (3) For 3 years upon a third or subsequent conviction
8 of paragraph (2) of subsection (b) or subsection (b-3) or
9 any combination of paragraphs (2) or (3) of subsection (b)
10 or subsections (b-3) or (b-5) of Section 6-507 of this Code
11 within a 10-year period if the third or subsequent
12 conviction is a violation of paragraph (2) of subsection
13 (b) or subsection (b-3).
14 (4) For one year upon a first conviction of paragraph
15 (3) of subsection (b) or subsection (b-5) of Section 6-507
16 of this Code.
17 (5) For 3 years upon a second conviction of paragraph
18 (3) of subsection (b) or subsection (b-5) or any
19 combination of paragraphs (2) or (3) of subsection (b) or
20 subsections (b-3) or (b-5) of Section 6-507 of this Code
21 within a 10-year period if the second conviction is a
22 violation of paragraph (3) of subsection (b) or (b-5).
23 (6) For 5 years upon a third or subsequent conviction
24 of paragraph (3) of subsection (b) or subsection (b-5) or
25 any combination of paragraphs (2) or (3) of subsection (b)
26 or subsections (b-3) or (b-5) of Section 6-507 of this Code

09800SB2640ham001- 1482 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 within a 10-year period if the third or subsequent
2 conviction is a violation of paragraph (3) of subsection
3 (b) or (b-5).
4 (j) Disqualification for railroad-highway grade crossing
5violation.
6 (1) General rule. A driver who is convicted of a
7 violation of a federal, State, or local law or regulation
8 pertaining to one of the following 6 offenses at a
9 railroad-highway grade crossing must be disqualified from
10 operating a commercial motor vehicle for the period of time
11 specified in paragraph (2) of this subsection (j) if the
12 offense was committed while operating a commercial motor
13 vehicle:
14 (i) For drivers who are not required to always
15 stop, failing to slow down and check that the tracks
16 are clear of an approaching train or railroad track
17 equipment, as described in subsection (a-5) of Section
18 11-1201 of this Code;
19 (ii) For drivers who are not required to always
20 stop, failing to stop before reaching the crossing, if
21 the tracks are not clear, as described in subsection
22 (a) of Section 11-1201 of this Code;
23 (iii) For drivers who are always required to stop,
24 failing to stop before driving onto the crossing, as
25 described in Section 11-1202 of this Code;
26 (iv) For all drivers, failing to have sufficient

09800SB2640ham001- 1483 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 space to drive completely through the crossing without
2 stopping, as described in subsection (b) of Section
3 11-1425 of this Code;
4 (v) For all drivers, failing to obey a traffic
5 control device or the directions of an enforcement
6 official at the crossing, as described in subdivision
7 (a)2 of Section 11-1201 of this Code;
8 (vi) For all drivers, failing to negotiate a
9 crossing because of insufficient undercarriage
10 clearance, as described in subsection (d-1) of Section
11 11-1201 of this Code.
12 (2) Duration of disqualification for railroad-highway
13 grade crossing violation.
14 (i) First violation. A driver must be disqualified
15 from operating a commercial motor vehicle for not less
16 than 60 days if the driver is convicted of a violation
17 described in paragraph (1) of this subsection (j) and,
18 in the three-year period preceding the conviction, the
19 driver had no convictions for a violation described in
20 paragraph (1) of this subsection (j).
21 (ii) Second violation. A driver must be
22 disqualified from operating a commercial motor vehicle
23 for not less than 120 days if the driver is convicted
24 of a violation described in paragraph (1) of this
25 subsection (j) and, in the three-year period preceding
26 the conviction, the driver had one other conviction for

09800SB2640ham001- 1484 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 a violation described in paragraph (1) of this
2 subsection (j) that was committed in a separate
3 incident.
4 (iii) Third or subsequent violation. A driver must
5 be disqualified from operating a commercial motor
6 vehicle for not less than one year if the driver is
7 convicted of a violation described in paragraph (1) of
8 this subsection (j) and, in the three-year period
9 preceding the conviction, the driver had 2 or more
10 other convictions for violations described in
11 paragraph (1) of this subsection (j) that were
12 committed in separate incidents.
13 (k) Upon notification of a disqualification of a driver's
14commercial motor vehicle privileges imposed by the U.S.
15Department of Transportation, Federal Motor Carrier Safety
16Administration, in accordance with 49 C.F.R. 383.52, the
17Secretary of State shall immediately record to the driving
18record the notice of disqualification and confirm to the driver
19the action that has been taken.
20(Source: P.A. 97-333, eff. 8-12-11; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13;
2198-122, eff. 1-1-14.)
22 (Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 98-176)
23 Sec. 6-514. Commercial driver's license (CDL); commercial
24learner's permit (CLP); disqualifications. Commercial Driver's
25License (CDL) - Disqualifications.

09800SB2640ham001- 1485 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 (a) A person shall be disqualified from driving a
2commercial motor vehicle for a period of not less than 12
3months for the first violation of:
4 (1) Refusing to submit to or failure to complete a test
5 or tests authorized under Section 11-501.1 while driving a
6 commercial motor vehicle or, if the driver is a CLP or CDL
7 holder, while driving a non-CMV; or
8 (2) Operating a commercial motor vehicle while the
9 alcohol concentration of the person's blood, breath or
10 urine is at least 0.04, or any amount of a drug, substance,
11 or compound in the person's blood or urine resulting from
12 the unlawful use or consumption of cannabis listed in the
13 Cannabis Control Act, a controlled substance listed in the
14 Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or methamphetamine as
15 listed in the Methamphetamine Control and Community
16 Protection Act as indicated by a police officer's sworn
17 report or other verified evidence; or operating a
18 non-commercial motor vehicle while the alcohol
19 concentration of the person's blood, breath, or urine was
20 above the legal limit defined in Section 11-501.1 or
21 11-501.8 or any amount of a drug, substance, or compound in
22 the person's blood or urine resulting from the unlawful use
23 or consumption of cannabis listed in the Cannabis Control
24 Act, a controlled substance listed in the Illinois
25 Controlled Substances Act, or methamphetamine as listed in
26 the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act

09800SB2640ham001- 1486 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 as indicated by a police officer's sworn report or other
2 verified evidence while holding a CLP or CDL; or
3 (3) Conviction for a first violation of:
4 (i) Driving a commercial motor vehicle or, if the
5 driver is a CLP or CDL holder, driving a non-CMV while
6 under the influence of alcohol, or any other drug, or
7 combination of drugs to a degree which renders such
8 person incapable of safely driving; or
9 (ii) Knowingly leaving the scene of an accident
10 while operating a commercial motor vehicle or, if the
11 driver is a CLP or CDL holder, while driving a non-CMV;
12 or
13 (iii) Driving a commercial motor vehicle or, if the
14 driver is a CLP or CDL holder, driving a non-CMV while
15 committing any felony; or
16 (iv) Driving a commercial motor vehicle while the
17 person's driving privileges or driver's license or
18 permit is revoked, suspended, or cancelled or the
19 driver is disqualified from operating a commercial
20 motor vehicle; or
21 (v) Causing a fatality through the negligent
22 operation of a commercial motor vehicle, including but
23 not limited to the crimes of motor vehicle
24 manslaughter, homicide by a motor vehicle, and
25 negligent homicide.
26 As used in this subdivision (a)(3)(v), "motor

09800SB2640ham001- 1487 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 vehicle manslaughter" means the offense of involuntary
2 manslaughter if committed by means of a vehicle;
3 "homicide by a motor vehicle" means the offense of
4 first degree murder or second degree murder, if either
5 offense is committed by means of a vehicle; and
6 "negligent homicide" means reckless homicide under
7 Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the
8 Criminal Code of 2012 and aggravated driving under the
9 influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs,
10 intoxicating compound or compounds, or any combination
11 thereof under subdivision (d)(1)(F) of Section 11-501
12 of this Code.
13 If any of the above violations or refusals occurred
14 while transporting hazardous material(s) required to be
15 placarded, the person shall be disqualified for a period of
16 not less than 3 years; or
17 (4) If the person is a qualifying patient licensed
18 under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot
19 Program Act who is in possession of a valid registry card
20 issued under that Act, operating a commercial motor vehicle
21 under impairment resulting from the consumption of
22 cannabis, as determined by failure of standardized field
23 sobriety tests administered by a law enforcement officer as
24 directed by subsection (a-5) of Section 11-501.2.
25 (b) A person is disqualified for life for a second
26conviction of any of the offenses specified in paragraph (a),

09800SB2640ham001- 1488 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1or any combination of those offenses, arising from 2 or more
2separate incidents.
3 (c) A person is disqualified from driving a commercial
4motor vehicle for life if the person either (i) uses a
5commercial motor vehicle in the commission of any felony
6involving the manufacture, distribution, or dispensing of a
7controlled substance, or possession with intent to
8manufacture, distribute or dispense a controlled substance or
9(ii) if the person is a CLP or CDL holder, uses a non-CMV in the
10commission of a felony involving any of those activities.
11 (d) The Secretary of State may, when the United States
12Secretary of Transportation so authorizes, issue regulations
13in which a disqualification for life under paragraph (b) may be
14reduced to a period of not less than 10 years. If a reinstated
15driver is subsequently convicted of another disqualifying
16offense, as specified in subsection (a) of this Section, he or
17she shall be permanently disqualified for life and shall be
18ineligible to again apply for a reduction of the lifetime
19disqualification.
20 (e) A person is disqualified from driving a commercial
21motor vehicle for a period of not less than 2 months if
22convicted of 2 serious traffic violations, committed in a
23commercial motor vehicle, non-CMV while holding a CLP or CDL,
24or any combination thereof, arising from separate incidents,
25occurring within a 3 year period, provided the serious traffic
26violation committed in a non-CMV would result in the suspension

09800SB2640ham001- 1489 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1or revocation of the CLP or CDL holder's non-CMV privileges.
2However, a person will be disqualified from driving a
3commercial motor vehicle for a period of not less than 4 months
4if convicted of 3 serious traffic violations, committed in a
5commercial motor vehicle, non-CMV while holding a CLP or CDL,
6or any combination thereof, arising from separate incidents,
7occurring within a 3 year period, provided the serious traffic
8violation committed in a non-CMV would result in the suspension
9or revocation of the CLP or CDL holder's non-CMV privileges. If
10all the convictions occurred in a non-CMV, the disqualification
11shall be entered only if the convictions would result in the
12suspension or revocation of the CLP or CDL holder's non-CMV
13privileges.
14 (e-1) (Blank).
15 (f) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Code, any
16driver disqualified from operating a commercial motor vehicle,
17pursuant to this UCDLA, shall not be eligible for restoration
18of commercial driving privileges during any such period of
19disqualification.
20 (g) After suspending, revoking, or cancelling a CLP or CDL,
21the Secretary of State must update the driver's records to
22reflect such action within 10 days. After suspending or
23revoking the driving privilege of any person who has been
24issued a CLP or CDL from another jurisdiction, the Secretary
25shall originate notification to such issuing jurisdiction
26within 10 days.

09800SB2640ham001- 1490 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 (h) The "disqualifications" referred to in this Section
2shall not be imposed upon any commercial motor vehicle driver,
3by the Secretary of State, unless the prohibited action(s)
4occurred after March 31, 1992.
5 (i) A person is disqualified from driving a commercial
6motor vehicle in accordance with the following:
7 (1) For 6 months upon a first conviction of paragraph
8 (2) of subsection (b) or subsection (b-3) of Section 6-507
9 of this Code.
10 (2) For 2 years upon a second conviction of paragraph
11 (2) of subsection (b) or subsection (b-3) or any
12 combination of paragraphs (2) or (3) of subsection (b) or
13 subsections (b-3) or (b-5) of Section 6-507 of this Code
14 within a 10-year period if the second conviction is a
15 violation of paragraph (2) of subsection (b) or subsection
16 (b-3).
17 (3) For 3 years upon a third or subsequent conviction
18 of paragraph (2) of subsection (b) or subsection (b-3) or
19 any combination of paragraphs (2) or (3) of subsection (b)
20 or subsections (b-3) or (b-5) of Section 6-507 of this Code
21 within a 10-year period if the third or subsequent
22 conviction is a violation of paragraph (2) of subsection
23 (b) or subsection (b-3).
24 (4) For one year upon a first conviction of paragraph
25 (3) of subsection (b) or subsection (b-5) of Section 6-507
26 of this Code.

09800SB2640ham001- 1491 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 (5) For 3 years upon a second conviction of paragraph
2 (3) of subsection (b) or subsection (b-5) or any
3 combination of paragraphs (2) or (3) of subsection (b) or
4 subsections (b-3) or (b-5) of Section 6-507 of this Code
5 within a 10-year period if the second conviction is a
6 violation of paragraph (3) of subsection (b) or (b-5).
7 (6) For 5 years upon a third or subsequent conviction
8 of paragraph (3) of subsection (b) or subsection (b-5) or
9 any combination of paragraphs (2) or (3) of subsection (b)
10 or subsections (b-3) or (b-5) of Section 6-507 of this Code
11 within a 10-year period if the third or subsequent
12 conviction is a violation of paragraph (3) of subsection
13 (b) or (b-5).
14 (j) Disqualification for railroad-highway grade crossing
15violation.
16 (1) General rule. A driver who is convicted of a
17 violation of a federal, State, or local law or regulation
18 pertaining to one of the following 6 offenses at a
19 railroad-highway grade crossing must be disqualified from
20 operating a commercial motor vehicle for the period of time
21 specified in paragraph (2) of this subsection (j) if the
22 offense was committed while operating a commercial motor
23 vehicle:
24 (i) For drivers who are not required to always
25 stop, failing to slow down and check that the tracks
26 are clear of an approaching train or railroad track

09800SB2640ham001- 1492 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 equipment, as described in subsection (a-5) of Section
2 11-1201 of this Code;
3 (ii) For drivers who are not required to always
4 stop, failing to stop before reaching the crossing, if
5 the tracks are not clear, as described in subsection
6 (a) of Section 11-1201 of this Code;
7 (iii) For drivers who are always required to stop,
8 failing to stop before driving onto the crossing, as
9 described in Section 11-1202 of this Code;
10 (iv) For all drivers, failing to have sufficient
11 space to drive completely through the crossing without
12 stopping, as described in subsection (b) of Section
13 11-1425 of this Code;
14 (v) For all drivers, failing to obey a traffic
15 control device or the directions of an enforcement
16 official at the crossing, as described in subdivision
17 (a)2 of Section 11-1201 of this Code;
18 (vi) For all drivers, failing to negotiate a
19 crossing because of insufficient undercarriage
20 clearance, as described in subsection (d-1) of Section
21 11-1201 of this Code.
22 (2) Duration of disqualification for railroad-highway
23 grade crossing violation.
24 (i) First violation. A driver must be disqualified
25 from operating a commercial motor vehicle for not less
26 than 60 days if the driver is convicted of a violation

09800SB2640ham001- 1493 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 described in paragraph (1) of this subsection (j) and,
2 in the three-year period preceding the conviction, the
3 driver had no convictions for a violation described in
4 paragraph (1) of this subsection (j).
5 (ii) Second violation. A driver must be
6 disqualified from operating a commercial motor vehicle
7 for not less than 120 days if the driver is convicted
8 of a violation described in paragraph (1) of this
9 subsection (j) and, in the three-year period preceding
10 the conviction, the driver had one other conviction for
11 a violation described in paragraph (1) of this
12 subsection (j) that was committed in a separate
13 incident.
14 (iii) Third or subsequent violation. A driver must
15 be disqualified from operating a commercial motor
16 vehicle for not less than one year if the driver is
17 convicted of a violation described in paragraph (1) of
18 this subsection (j) and, in the three-year period
19 preceding the conviction, the driver had 2 or more
20 other convictions for violations described in
21 paragraph (1) of this subsection (j) that were
22 committed in separate incidents.
23 (k) Upon notification of a disqualification of a driver's
24commercial motor vehicle privileges imposed by the U.S.
25Department of Transportation, Federal Motor Carrier Safety
26Administration, in accordance with 49 C.F.R. 383.52, the

09800SB2640ham001- 1494 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1Secretary of State shall immediately record to the driving
2record the notice of disqualification and confirm to the driver
3the action that has been taken.
4(Source: P.A. 97-333, eff. 8-12-11; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13;
598-122, eff. 1-1-14; 98-176, eff. 7-1-14; revised 8-8-13.)
6 (625 ILCS 5/11-208) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 11-208)
7 Sec. 11-208. Powers of local authorities.
8 (a) The provisions of this Code shall not be deemed to
9prevent local authorities with respect to streets and highways
10under their jurisdiction and within the reasonable exercise of
11the police power from:
12 1. Regulating the standing or parking of vehicles,
13 except as limited by Sections 11-1306 and 11-1307 of this
14 Act;
15 2. Regulating traffic by means of police officers or
16 traffic control signals;
17 3. Regulating or prohibiting processions or
18 assemblages on the highways; and certifying persons to
19 control traffic for processions or assemblages;
20 4. Designating particular highways as one-way highways
21 and requiring that all vehicles thereon be moved in one
22 specific direction;
23 5. Regulating the speed of vehicles in public parks
24 subject to the limitations set forth in Section 11-604;
25 6. Designating any highway as a through highway, as

09800SB2640ham001- 1495 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 authorized in Section 11-302, and requiring that all
2 vehicles stop before entering or crossing the same or
3 designating any intersection as a stop intersection or a
4 yield right-of-way intersection and requiring all vehicles
5 to stop or yield the right-of-way at one or more entrances
6 to such intersections;
7 7. Restricting the use of highways as authorized in
8 Chapter 15;
9 8. Regulating the operation of bicycles and requiring
10 the registration and licensing of same, including the
11 requirement of a registration fee;
12 9. Regulating or prohibiting the turning of vehicles or
13 specified types of vehicles at intersections;
14 10. Altering the speed limits as authorized in Section
15 11-604;
16 11. Prohibiting U-turns;
17 12. Prohibiting pedestrian crossings at other than
18 designated and marked crosswalks or at intersections;
19 13. Prohibiting parking during snow removal operation;
20 14. Imposing fines in accordance with Section
21 11-1301.3 as penalties for use of any parking place
22 reserved for persons with disabilities, as defined by
23 Section 1-159.1, or disabled veterans by any person using a
24 motor vehicle not bearing registration plates specified in
25 Section 11-1301.1 or a special decal or device as defined
26 in Section 11-1301.2 as evidence that the vehicle is

09800SB2640ham001- 1496 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 operated by or for a person with disabilities or disabled
2 veteran;
3 15. Adopting such other traffic regulations as are
4 specifically authorized by this Code; or
5 16. Enforcing the provisions of subsection (f) of
6 Section 3-413 of this Code or a similar local ordinance.
7 (b) No ordinance or regulation enacted under subsections 1,
84, 5, 6, 7, 9, 10, 11 or 13 of paragraph (a) shall be effective
9until signs giving reasonable notice of such local traffic
10regulations are posted.
11 (c) The provisions of this Code shall not prevent any
12municipality having a population of 500,000 or more inhabitants
13from prohibiting any person from driving or operating any motor
14vehicle upon the roadways of such municipality with headlamps
15on high beam or bright.
16 (d) The provisions of this Code shall not be deemed to
17prevent local authorities within the reasonable exercise of
18their police power from prohibiting, on private property, the
19unauthorized use of parking spaces reserved for persons with
20disabilities.
21 (e) No unit of local government, including a home rule
22unit, may enact or enforce an ordinance that applies only to
23motorcycles if the principal purpose for that ordinance is to
24restrict the access of motorcycles to any highway or portion of
25a highway for which federal or State funds have been used for
26the planning, design, construction, or maintenance of that

09800SB2640ham001- 1497 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1highway. No unit of local government, including a home rule
2unit, may enact an ordinance requiring motorcycle users to wear
3protective headgear. Nothing in this subsection (e) shall
4affect the authority of a unit of local government to regulate
5motorcycles for traffic control purposes or in accordance with
6Section 12-602 of this Code. No unit of local government,
7including a home rule unit, may regulate motorcycles in a
8manner inconsistent with this Code. This subsection (e) is a
9limitation under subsection (i) of Section 6 of Article VII of
10the Illinois Constitution on the concurrent exercise by home
11rule units of powers and functions exercised by the State.
12 (f) A municipality or county designated in Section 11-208.6
13may enact an ordinance providing for an automated traffic law
14enforcement system to enforce violations of this Code or a
15similar provision of a local ordinance and imposing liability
16on a registered owner or lessee of a vehicle used in such a
17violation.
18 (g) A municipality or county, as provided in Section
1911-1201.1, may enact an ordinance providing for an automated
20traffic law enforcement system to enforce violations of Section
2111-1201 of this Code or a similar provision of a local
22ordinance and imposing liability on a registered owner of a
23vehicle used in such a violation.
24 (h) A municipality designated in Section 11-208.8 may enact
25an ordinance providing for an automated speed enforcement
26system to enforce violations of Article VI of Chapter 11 of

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1this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance.
2 (i) A municipality or county designated in Section 11-208.9
3may enact an ordinance providing for an automated traffic law
4enforcement system to enforce violations of Section 11-1414 of
5this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance and
6imposing liability on a registered owner or lessee of a vehicle
7used in such a violation.
8(Source: P.A. 97-29, eff. 1-1-12; 97-672, eff. 7-1-12; 98-396,
9eff. 1-1-14; 98-556, eff. 1-1-14; revised 9-19-13.)
10 (625 ILCS 5/11-208.7)
11 Sec. 11-208.7. Administrative fees and procedures for
12impounding vehicles for specified violations.
13 (a) Any municipality may, consistent with this Section,
14provide by ordinance procedures for the release of properly
15impounded vehicles and for the imposition of a reasonable
16administrative fee related to its administrative and
17processing costs associated with the investigation, arrest,
18and detention of an offender, or the removal, impoundment,
19storage, and release of the vehicle. The administrative fee
20imposed by the municipality may be in addition to any fees
21charged for the towing and storage of an impounded vehicle. The
22administrative fee shall be waived by the municipality upon
23verifiable proof that the vehicle was stolen at the time the
24vehicle was impounded.
25 (b) Any ordinance establishing procedures for the release

09800SB2640ham001- 1499 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1of properly impounded vehicles under this Section may impose
2fees for the following violations:
3 (1) operation or use of a motor vehicle in the
4 commission of, or in the attempt to commit, an offense for
5 which a motor vehicle may be seized and forfeited pursuant
6 to Section 36-1 of the Criminal Code of 2012; or
7 (2) driving under the influence of alcohol, another
8 drug or drugs, an intoxicating compound or compounds, or
9 any combination thereof, in violation of Section 11-501 of
10 this Code; or
11 (3) operation or use of a motor vehicle in the
12 commission of, or in the attempt to commit, a felony or in
13 violation of the Cannabis Control Act; or
14 (4) operation or use of a motor vehicle in the
15 commission of, or in the attempt to commit, an offense in
16 violation of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act; or
17 (5) operation or use of a motor vehicle in the
18 commission of, or in the attempt to commit, an offense in
19 violation of Section 24-1, 24-1.5, or 24-3.1 of the
20 Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012; or
21 (6) driving while a driver's license, permit, or
22 privilege to operate a motor vehicle is suspended or
23 revoked pursuant to Section 6-303 of this Code; except that
24 vehicles shall not be subjected to seizure or impoundment
25 if the suspension is for an unpaid citation (parking or
26 moving) or due to failure to comply with emission testing;

09800SB2640ham001- 1500 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 or
2 (7) operation or use of a motor vehicle while
3 soliciting, possessing, or attempting to solicit or
4 possess cannabis or a controlled substance, as defined by
5 the Cannabis Control Act or the Illinois Controlled
6 Substances Act; or
7 (8) operation or use of a motor vehicle with an expired
8 driver's license, in violation of Section 6-101 of this
9 Code, if the period of expiration is greater than one year;
10 or
11 (9) operation or use of a motor vehicle without ever
12 having been issued a driver's license or permit, in
13 violation of Section 6-101 of this Code, or operating a
14 motor vehicle without ever having been issued a driver's
15 license or permit due to a person's age; or
16 (10) operation or use of a motor vehicle by a person
17 against whom a warrant has been issued by a circuit clerk
18 in Illinois for failing to answer charges that the driver
19 violated Section 6-101, 6-303, or 11-501 of this Code; or
20 (11) operation or use of a motor vehicle in the
21 commission of, or in the attempt to commit, an offense in
22 violation of Article 16 or 16A of the Criminal Code of 1961
23 or the Criminal Code of 2012; or
24 (12) operation or use of a motor vehicle in the
25 commission of, or in the attempt to commit, any other
26 misdemeanor or felony offense in violation of the Criminal

09800SB2640ham001- 1501 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, when so provided
2 by local ordinance; or
3 (13) operation or use of a motor vehicle in violation
4 of Section 11-503 of this Code:
5 (A) while the vehicle is part of a funeral
6 procession; or
7 (B) in a manner that interferes with a funeral
8 procession.
9 (c) The following shall apply to any fees imposed for
10administrative and processing costs pursuant to subsection
11(b):
12 (1) All administrative fees and towing and storage
13 charges shall be imposed on the registered owner of the
14 motor vehicle or the agents of that owner.
15 (2) The fees shall be in addition to (i) any other
16 penalties that may be assessed by a court of law for the
17 underlying violations; and (ii) any towing or storage fees,
18 or both, charged by the towing company.
19 (3) The fees shall be uniform for all similarly
20 situated vehicles.
21 (4) The fees shall be collected by and paid to the
22 municipality imposing the fees.
23 (5) The towing or storage fees, or both, shall be
24 collected by and paid to the person, firm, or entity that
25 tows and stores the impounded vehicle.
26 (d) Any ordinance establishing procedures for the release

09800SB2640ham001- 1502 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1of properly impounded vehicles under this Section shall provide
2for an opportunity for a hearing, as provided in subdivision
3(b)(4) of Section 11-208.3 of this Code, and for the release of
4the vehicle to the owner of record, lessee, or a lienholder of
5record upon payment of all administrative fees and towing and
6storage fees.
7 (e) Any ordinance establishing procedures for the
8impoundment and release of vehicles under this Section shall
9include the following provisions concerning notice of
10impoundment:
11 (1) Whenever a police officer has cause to believe that
12 a motor vehicle is subject to impoundment, the officer
13 shall provide for the towing of the vehicle to a facility
14 authorized by the municipality.
15 (2) At the time the vehicle is towed, the municipality
16 shall notify or make a reasonable attempt to notify the
17 owner, lessee, or person identifying himself or herself as
18 the owner or lessee of the vehicle, or any person who is
19 found to be in control of the vehicle at the time of the
20 alleged offense, of the fact of the seizure, and of the
21 vehicle owner's or lessee's right to an administrative
22 hearing.
23 (3) The municipality shall also provide notice that the
24 motor vehicle will remain impounded pending the completion
25 of an administrative hearing, unless the owner or lessee of
26 the vehicle or a lienholder posts with the municipality a

09800SB2640ham001- 1503 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 bond equal to the administrative fee as provided by
2 ordinance and pays for all towing and storage charges.
3 (f) Any ordinance establishing procedures for the
4impoundment and release of vehicles under this Section shall
5include a provision providing that the registered owner or
6lessee of the vehicle and any lienholder of record shall be
7provided with a notice of hearing. The notice shall:
8 (1) be served upon the owner, lessee, and any
9 lienholder of record either by personal service or by first
10 class mail to the interested party's address as registered
11 with the Secretary of State;
12 (2) be served upon interested parties within 10 days
13 after a vehicle is impounded by the municipality; and
14 (3) contain the date, time, and location of the
15 administrative hearing. An initial hearing shall be
16 scheduled and convened no later than 45 days after the date
17 of the mailing of the notice of hearing.
18 (g) In addition to the requirements contained in
19subdivision (b)(4) of Section 11-208.3 of this Code relating to
20administrative hearings, any ordinance providing for the
21impoundment and release of vehicles under this Section shall
22include the following requirements concerning administrative
23hearings:
24 (1) administrative hearings shall be conducted by a
25 hearing officer who is an attorney licensed to practice law
26 in this State for a minimum of 3 years;

09800SB2640ham001- 1504 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 (2) at the conclusion of the administrative hearing,
2 the hearing officer shall issue a written decision either
3 sustaining or overruling the vehicle impoundment;
4 (3) if the basis for the vehicle impoundment is
5 sustained by the administrative hearing officer, any
6 administrative fee posted to secure the release of the
7 vehicle shall be forfeited to the municipality;
8 (4) all final decisions of the administrative hearing
9 officer shall be subject to review under the provisions of
10 the Administrative Review Law; and
11 (5) unless the administrative hearing officer
12 overturns the basis for the vehicle impoundment, no vehicle
13 shall be released to the owner, lessee, or lienholder of
14 record until all administrative fees and towing and storage
15 charges are paid.
16 (h) Vehicles not retrieved from the towing facility or
17storage facility within 35 days after the administrative
18hearing officer issues a written decision shall be deemed
19abandoned and disposed of in accordance with the provisions of
20Article II of Chapter 4 of this Code.
21 (i) Unless stayed by a court of competent jurisdiction, any
22fine, penalty, or administrative fee imposed under this Section
23which remains unpaid in whole or in part after the expiration
24of the deadline for seeking judicial review under the
25Administrative Review Law may be enforced in the same manner as
26a judgment entered by a court of competent jurisdiction.

09800SB2640ham001- 1505 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1(Source: P.A. 97-109, eff. 1-1-12; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13;
298-518, eff. 8-22-13; revised 9-19-13.)
3 (625 ILCS 5/11-501) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 11-501)
4 Sec. 11-501. Driving while under the influence of alcohol,
5other drug or drugs, intoxicating compound or compounds or any
6combination thereof.
7 (a) A person shall not drive or be in actual physical
8control of any vehicle within this State while:
9 (1) the alcohol concentration in the person's blood or
10 breath is 0.08 or more based on the definition of blood and
11 breath units in Section 11-501.2;
12 (2) under the influence of alcohol;
13 (3) under the influence of any intoxicating compound or
14 combination of intoxicating compounds to a degree that
15 renders the person incapable of driving safely;
16 (4) under the influence of any other drug or
17 combination of drugs to a degree that renders the person
18 incapable of safely driving;
19 (5) under the combined influence of alcohol, other drug
20 or drugs, or intoxicating compound or compounds to a degree
21 that renders the person incapable of safely driving; or
22 (6) there is any amount of a drug, substance, or
23 compound in the person's breath, blood, or urine resulting
24 from the unlawful use or consumption of cannabis listed in
25 the Cannabis Control Act, a controlled substance listed in

09800SB2640ham001- 1506 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, an intoxicating
2 compound listed in the Use of Intoxicating Compounds Act,
3 or methamphetamine as listed in the Methamphetamine
4 Control and Community Protection Act. Subject to all other
5 requirements and provisions under this Section, this
6 paragraph (6) does not apply to the lawful consumption of
7 cannabis by a qualifying patient licensed under the
8 Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot Program Act who
9 is in possession of a valid registry card issued under that
10 Act, unless that person is impaired by the use of cannabis.
11 (b) The fact that any person charged with violating this
12Section is or has been legally entitled to use alcohol,
13cannabis under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot
14Program Act, other drug or drugs, or intoxicating compound or
15compounds, or any combination thereof, shall not constitute a
16defense against any charge of violating this Section.
17 (c) Penalties.
18 (1) Except as otherwise provided in this Section, any
19 person convicted of violating subsection (a) of this
20 Section is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.
21 (2) A person who violates subsection (a) or a similar
22 provision a second time shall be sentenced to a mandatory
23 minimum term of either 5 days of imprisonment or 240 hours
24 of community service in addition to any other criminal or
25 administrative sanction.
26 (3) A person who violates subsection (a) is subject to

09800SB2640ham001- 1507 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 6 months of imprisonment, an additional mandatory minimum
2 fine of $1,000, and 25 days of community service in a
3 program benefiting children if the person was transporting
4 a person under the age of 16 at the time of the violation.
5 (4) A person who violates subsection (a) a first time,
6 if the alcohol concentration in his or her blood, breath,
7 or urine was 0.16 or more based on the definition of blood,
8 breath, or urine units in Section 11-501.2, shall be
9 subject, in addition to any other penalty that may be
10 imposed, to a mandatory minimum of 100 hours of community
11 service and a mandatory minimum fine of $500.
12 (5) A person who violates subsection (a) a second time,
13 if at the time of the second violation the alcohol
14 concentration in his or her blood, breath, or urine was
15 0.16 or more based on the definition of blood, breath, or
16 urine units in Section 11-501.2, shall be subject, in
17 addition to any other penalty that may be imposed, to a
18 mandatory minimum of 2 days of imprisonment and a mandatory
19 minimum fine of $1,250.
20 (d) Aggravated driving under the influence of alcohol,
21other drug or drugs, or intoxicating compound or compounds, or
22any combination thereof.
23 (1) Every person convicted of committing a violation of
24 this Section shall be guilty of aggravated driving under
25 the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, or
26 intoxicating compound or compounds, or any combination

09800SB2640ham001- 1508 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 thereof if:
2 (A) the person committed a violation of subsection
3 (a) or a similar provision for the third or subsequent
4 time;
5 (B) the person committed a violation of subsection
6 (a) while driving a school bus with one or more
7 passengers on board;
8 (C) the person in committing a violation of
9 subsection (a) was involved in a motor vehicle accident
10 that resulted in great bodily harm or permanent
11 disability or disfigurement to another, when the
12 violation was a proximate cause of the injuries;
13 (D) the person committed a violation of subsection
14 (a) and has been previously convicted of violating
15 Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the
16 Criminal Code of 2012 or a similar provision of a law
17 of another state relating to reckless homicide in which
18 the person was determined to have been under the
19 influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, or
20 intoxicating compound or compounds as an element of the
21 offense or the person has previously been convicted
22 under subparagraph (C) or subparagraph (F) of this
23 paragraph (1);
24 (E) the person, in committing a violation of
25 subsection (a) while driving at any speed in a school
26 speed zone at a time when a speed limit of 20 miles per

09800SB2640ham001- 1509 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 hour was in effect under subsection (a) of Section
2 11-605 of this Code, was involved in a motor vehicle
3 accident that resulted in bodily harm, other than great
4 bodily harm or permanent disability or disfigurement,
5 to another person, when the violation of subsection (a)
6 was a proximate cause of the bodily harm;
7 (F) the person, in committing a violation of
8 subsection (a), was involved in a motor vehicle,
9 snowmobile, all-terrain vehicle, or watercraft
10 accident that resulted in the death of another person,
11 when the violation of subsection (a) was a proximate
12 cause of the death;
13 (G) the person committed a violation of subsection
14 (a) during a period in which the defendant's driving
15 privileges are revoked or suspended, where the
16 revocation or suspension was for a violation of
17 subsection (a) or a similar provision, Section
18 11-501.1, paragraph (b) of Section 11-401, or for
19 reckless homicide as defined in Section 9-3 of the
20 Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012;
21 (H) the person committed the violation while he or
22 she did not possess a driver's license or permit or a
23 restricted driving permit or a judicial driving permit
24 or a monitoring device driving permit;
25 (I) the person committed the violation while he or
26 she knew or should have known that the vehicle he or

09800SB2640ham001- 1510 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 she was driving was not covered by a liability
2 insurance policy;
3 (J) the person in committing a violation of
4 subsection (a) was involved in a motor vehicle accident
5 that resulted in bodily harm, but not great bodily
6 harm, to the child under the age of 16 being
7 transported by the person, if the violation was the
8 proximate cause of the injury;
9 (K) the person in committing a second violation of
10 subsection (a) or a similar provision was transporting
11 a person under the age of 16; or
12 (L) the person committed a violation of subsection
13 (a) of this Section while transporting one or more
14 passengers in a vehicle for-hire.
15 (2)(A) Except as provided otherwise, a person
16 convicted of aggravated driving under the influence of
17 alcohol, other drug or drugs, or intoxicating compound or
18 compounds, or any combination thereof is guilty of a Class
19 4 felony.
20 (B) A third violation of this Section or a similar
21 provision is a Class 2 felony. If at the time of the third
22 violation the alcohol concentration in his or her blood,
23 breath, or urine was 0.16 or more based on the definition
24 of blood, breath, or urine units in Section 11-501.2, a
25 mandatory minimum of 90 days of imprisonment and a
26 mandatory minimum fine of $2,500 shall be imposed in

09800SB2640ham001- 1511 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 addition to any other criminal or administrative sanction.
2 If at the time of the third violation, the defendant was
3 transporting a person under the age of 16, a mandatory fine
4 of $25,000 and 25 days of community service in a program
5 benefiting children shall be imposed in addition to any
6 other criminal or administrative sanction.
7 (C) A fourth violation of this Section or a similar
8 provision is a Class 2 felony, for which a sentence of
9 probation or conditional discharge may not be imposed. If
10 at the time of the violation, the alcohol concentration in
11 the defendant's blood, breath, or urine was 0.16 or more
12 based on the definition of blood, breath, or urine units in
13 Section 11-501.2, a mandatory minimum fine of $5,000 shall
14 be imposed in addition to any other criminal or
15 administrative sanction. If at the time of the fourth
16 violation, the defendant was transporting a person under
17 the age of 16 a mandatory fine of $25,000 and 25 days of
18 community service in a program benefiting children shall be
19 imposed in addition to any other criminal or administrative
20 sanction.
21 (D) A fifth violation of this Section or a similar
22 provision is a Class 1 felony, for which a sentence of
23 probation or conditional discharge may not be imposed. If
24 at the time of the violation, the alcohol concentration in
25 the defendant's blood, breath, or urine was 0.16 or more
26 based on the definition of blood, breath, or urine units in

09800SB2640ham001- 1512 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 Section 11-501.2, a mandatory minimum fine of $5,000 shall
2 be imposed in addition to any other criminal or
3 administrative sanction. If at the time of the fifth
4 violation, the defendant was transporting a person under
5 the age of 16, a mandatory fine of $25,000, and 25 days of
6 community service in a program benefiting children shall be
7 imposed in addition to any other criminal or administrative
8 sanction.
9 (E) A sixth or subsequent violation of this Section or
10 similar provision is a Class X felony. If at the time of
11 the violation, the alcohol concentration in the
12 defendant's blood, breath, or urine was 0.16 or more based
13 on the definition of blood, breath, or urine units in
14 Section 11-501.2, a mandatory minimum fine of $5,000 shall
15 be imposed in addition to any other criminal or
16 administrative sanction. If at the time of the violation,
17 the defendant was transporting a person under the age of
18 16, a mandatory fine of $25,000 and 25 days of community
19 service in a program benefiting children shall be imposed
20 in addition to any other criminal or administrative
21 sanction.
22 (F) For a violation of subparagraph (C) of paragraph
23 (1) of this subsection (d), the defendant, if sentenced to
24 a term of imprisonment, shall be sentenced to not less than
25 one year nor more than 12 years.
26 (G) A violation of subparagraph (F) of paragraph (1) of

09800SB2640ham001- 1513 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 this subsection (d) is a Class 2 felony, for which the
2 defendant, unless the court determines that extraordinary
3 circumstances exist and require probation, shall be
4 sentenced to: (i) a term of imprisonment of not less than 3
5 years and not more than 14 years if the violation resulted
6 in the death of one person; or (ii) a term of imprisonment
7 of not less than 6 years and not more than 28 years if the
8 violation resulted in the deaths of 2 or more persons.
9 (H) For a violation of subparagraph (J) of paragraph
10 (1) of this subsection (d), a mandatory fine of $2,500, and
11 25 days of community service in a program benefiting
12 children shall be imposed in addition to any other criminal
13 or administrative sanction.
14 (I) A violation of subparagraph (K) of paragraph (1) of
15 this subsection (d), is a Class 2 felony and a mandatory
16 fine of $2,500, and 25 days of community service in a
17 program benefiting children shall be imposed in addition to
18 any other criminal or administrative sanction. If the child
19 being transported suffered bodily harm, but not great
20 bodily harm, in a motor vehicle accident, and the violation
21 was the proximate cause of that injury, a mandatory fine of
22 $5,000 and 25 days of community service in a program
23 benefiting children shall be imposed in addition to any
24 other criminal or administrative sanction.
25 (J) A violation of subparagraph (D) of paragraph (1) of
26 this subsection (d) is a Class 3 felony, for which a

09800SB2640ham001- 1514 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 sentence of probation or conditional discharge may not be
2 imposed.
3 (3) Any person sentenced under this subsection (d) who
4 receives a term of probation or conditional discharge must
5 serve a minimum term of either 480 hours of community
6 service or 10 days of imprisonment as a condition of the
7 probation or conditional discharge in addition to any other
8 criminal or administrative sanction.
9 (e) Any reference to a prior violation of subsection (a) or
10a similar provision includes any violation of a provision of a
11local ordinance or a provision of a law of another state or an
12offense committed on a military installation that is similar to
13a violation of subsection (a) of this Section.
14 (f) The imposition of a mandatory term of imprisonment or
15assignment of community service for a violation of this Section
16shall not be suspended or reduced by the court.
17 (g) Any penalty imposed for driving with a license that has
18been revoked for a previous violation of subsection (a) of this
19Section shall be in addition to the penalty imposed for any
20subsequent violation of subsection (a).
21 (h) For any prosecution under this Section, a certified
22copy of the driving abstract of the defendant shall be admitted
23as proof of any prior conviction.
24(Source: P.A. 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13; 98-122, eff. 1-1-14;
2598-573, eff. 8-27-13; revised 9-19-13.)

09800SB2640ham001- 1515 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 (625 ILCS 5/11-709.2)
2 Sec. 11-709.2. Bus on shoulder pilot program.
3 (a) For purposes of this Section, "bus on shoulders" is the
4use of specifically designated shoulders of roadways by
5authorized transit buses. The shoulders may be used by transit
6buses at times and locations as set by the Department in
7cooperation with the Regional Transportation Authority and the
8Suburban Bus Division of the Regional Transportation
9Authority.
10 (b) Commencing on the effective date of this amendatory Act
11of the 97th General Assembly, the Department along with the
12Regional Transportation Authority and Suburban Bus Division of
13the Regional Transportation Authority in cooperation with the
14Illinois State Police shall establish a 5-year pilot program
15within the boundaries of the Regional Transportation Authority
16for transit buses on highways and shoulders. The pilot program
17may be implemented on shoulders of highways as designated by
18the Department in cooperation with the Regional Transportation
19Authority and Suburban Bus Division of the Regional
20Transportation Authority. The Department may adopt rules
21necessary for transit buses to use roadway shoulders.
22 (c) After the pilot program established under subsection
23(b) of this Section has been operating for 2 years, the
24Department in cooperation with the Regional Transportation
25Transit Authority, the Suburban Bus Division of the Regional
26Transportation Authority, and the Illinois State Police shall

09800SB2640ham001- 1516 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1issue a report to the General Assembly on the effectiveness of
2the bus on shoulders pilot program.
3(Source: P.A. 97-292, eff. 8-11-11; revised 11-19-13.)
4 (625 ILCS 5/12-215) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 12-215)
5 Sec. 12-215. Oscillating, rotating or flashing lights on
6motor vehicles. Except as otherwise provided in this Code:
7 (a) The use of red or white oscillating, rotating or
8flashing lights, whether lighted or unlighted, is prohibited
9except on:
10 1. Law enforcement vehicles of State, Federal or local
11 authorities;
12 2. A vehicle operated by a police officer or county
13 coroner and designated or authorized by local authorities,
14 in writing, as a law enforcement vehicle; however, such
15 designation or authorization must be carried in the
16 vehicle;
17 2.1. A vehicle operated by a fire chief who has
18 completed an emergency vehicle operation training course
19 approved by the Office of the State Fire Marshal and
20 designated or authorized by local authorities, in writing,
21 as a fire department, fire protection district, or township
22 fire department vehicle; however, the designation or
23 authorization must be carried in the vehicle, and the
24 lights may be visible or activated only when responding to
25 a bona fide emergency;

09800SB2640ham001- 1517 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 3. Vehicles of local fire departments and State or
2 federal firefighting vehicles;
3 4. Vehicles which are designed and used exclusively as
4 ambulances or rescue vehicles; furthermore, such lights
5 shall not be lighted except when responding to an emergency
6 call for and while actually conveying the sick or injured;
7 5. Tow trucks licensed in a state that requires such
8 lights; furthermore, such lights shall not be lighted on
9 any such tow truck while the tow truck is operating in the
10 State of Illinois;
11 6. Vehicles of the Illinois Emergency Management
12 Agency, vehicles of the Office of the Illinois State Fire
13 Marshal, vehicles of the Illinois Department of Public
14 Health, vehicles of the Illinois Department of
15 Corrections, and vehicles of the Illinois Department of
16 Juvenile Justice;
17 7. Vehicles operated by a local or county emergency
18 management services agency as defined in the Illinois
19 Emergency Management Agency Act;
20 8. School buses operating alternately flashing head
21 lamps as permitted under Section 12-805 of this Code;
22 9. Vehicles that are equipped and used exclusively as
23 organ transplant vehicles when used in combination with
24 blue oscillating, rotating, or flashing lights;
25 furthermore, these lights shall be lighted only when the
26 transportation is declared an emergency by a member of the

09800SB2640ham001- 1518 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 transplant team or a representative of the organ
2 procurement organization; and
3 10. Vehicles of the Illinois Department of Natural
4 Resources that are used for mine rescue and explosives
5 emergency response; and .
6 11. Vehicles of the Illinois Department of
7 Transportation identified as Emergency Traffic Patrol; the
8 . The lights shall not be lighted except when responding to
9 an emergency call or when parked or stationary while
10 engaged in motor vehicle assistance or at the scene of the
11 emergency.
12 (b) The use of amber oscillating, rotating or flashing
13lights, whether lighted or unlighted, is prohibited except on:
14 1. Second division vehicles designed and used for
15 towing or hoisting vehicles; furthermore, such lights
16 shall not be lighted except as required in this paragraph
17 1; such lights shall be lighted when such vehicles are
18 actually being used at the scene of an accident or
19 disablement; if the towing vehicle is equipped with a flat
20 bed that supports all wheels of the vehicle being
21 transported, the lights shall not be lighted while the
22 vehicle is engaged in towing on a highway; if the towing
23 vehicle is not equipped with a flat bed that supports all
24 wheels of a vehicle being transported, the lights shall be
25 lighted while the towing vehicle is engaged in towing on a
26 highway during all times when the use of headlights is

09800SB2640ham001- 1519 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 required under Section 12-201 of this Code; in addition,
2 these vehicles may use white oscillating, rotating, or
3 flashing lights in combination with amber oscillating,
4 rotating, or flashing lights as provided in this paragraph;
5 2. Motor vehicles or equipment of the State of
6 Illinois, local authorities and contractors; furthermore,
7 such lights shall not be lighted except while such vehicles
8 are engaged in maintenance or construction operations
9 within the limits of construction projects;
10 3. Vehicles or equipment used by engineering or survey
11 crews; furthermore, such lights shall not be lighted except
12 while such vehicles are actually engaged in work on a
13 highway;
14 4. Vehicles of public utilities, municipalities, or
15 other construction, maintenance or automotive service
16 vehicles except that such lights shall be lighted only as a
17 means for indicating the presence of a vehicular traffic
18 hazard requiring unusual care in approaching, overtaking
19 or passing while such vehicles are engaged in maintenance,
20 service or construction on a highway;
21 5. Oversized vehicle or load; however, such lights
22 shall only be lighted when moving under permit issued by
23 the Department under Section 15-301 of this Code;
24 6. The front and rear of motorized equipment owned and
25 operated by the State of Illinois or any political
26 subdivision thereof, which is designed and used for removal

09800SB2640ham001- 1520 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 of snow and ice from highways;
2 6.1. (6.1) The front and rear of motorized equipment or
3 vehicles that (i) are not owned by the State of Illinois or
4 any political subdivision of the State, (ii) are designed
5 and used for removal of snow and ice from highways and
6 parking lots, and (iii) are equipped with a snow plow that
7 is 12 feet in width; these lights may not be lighted except
8 when the motorized equipment or vehicle is actually being
9 used for those purposes on behalf of a unit of government;
10 7. Fleet safety vehicles registered in another state,
11 furthermore, such lights shall not be lighted except as
12 provided for in Section 12-212 of this Code;
13 8. Such other vehicles as may be authorized by local
14 authorities;
15 9. Law enforcement vehicles of State or local
16 authorities when used in combination with red oscillating,
17 rotating or flashing lights;
18 9.5. Propane delivery trucks;
19 10. Vehicles used for collecting or delivering mail for
20 the United States Postal Service provided that such lights
21 shall not be lighted except when such vehicles are actually
22 being used for such purposes;
23 10.5. Vehicles of the Office of the Illinois State Fire
24 Marshal, provided that such lights shall not be lighted
25 except for when such vehicles are engaged in work for the
26 Office of the Illinois State Fire Marshal;

09800SB2640ham001- 1521 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 11. Any vehicle displaying a slow-moving vehicle
2 emblem as provided in Section 12-205.1;
3 12. All trucks equipped with self-compactors or
4 roll-off hoists and roll-on containers for garbage or
5 refuse hauling. Such lights shall not be lighted except
6 when such vehicles are actually being used for such
7 purposes;
8 13. Vehicles used by a security company, alarm
9 responder, control agency, or the Illinois Department of
10 Corrections;
11 14. Security vehicles of the Department of Human
12 Services; however, the lights shall not be lighted except
13 when being used for security related purposes under the
14 direction of the superintendent of the facility where the
15 vehicle is located; and
16 15. Vehicles of union representatives, except that the
17 lights shall be lighted only while the vehicle is within
18 the limits of a construction project.
19 (c) The use of blue oscillating, rotating or flashing
20lights, whether lighted or unlighted, is prohibited except on:
21 1. Rescue squad vehicles not owned by a fire department
22 and vehicles owned or operated by a:
23 voluntary firefighter;
24 paid firefighter;
25 part-paid firefighter;
26 call firefighter;

09800SB2640ham001- 1522 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 member of the board of trustees of a fire
2 protection district;
3 paid or unpaid member of a rescue squad;
4 paid or unpaid member of a voluntary ambulance
5 unit; or
6 paid or unpaid members of a local or county
7 emergency management services agency as defined in the
8 Illinois Emergency Management Agency Act, designated
9 or authorized by local authorities, in writing, and
10 carrying that designation or authorization in the
11 vehicle.
12 However, such lights are not to be lighted except when
13 responding to a bona fide emergency or when parked or
14 stationary at the scene of a fire, rescue call, ambulance
15 call, or motor vehicle accident.
16 Any person using these lights in accordance with this
17 subdivision (c)1 must carry on his or her person an
18 identification card or letter identifying the bona fide
19 member of a fire department, fire protection district,
20 rescue squad, ambulance unit, or emergency management
21 services agency that owns or operates that vehicle. The
22 card or letter must include:
23 (A) the name of the fire department, fire
24 protection district, rescue squad, ambulance unit, or
25 emergency management services agency;
26 (B) the member's position within the fire

09800SB2640ham001- 1523 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 department, fire protection district, rescue squad,
2 ambulance unit, or emergency management services
3 agency;
4 (C) the member's term of service; and
5 (D) the name of a person within the fire
6 department, fire protection district, rescue squad,
7 ambulance unit, or emergency management services
8 agency to contact to verify the information provided.
9 2. Police department vehicles in cities having a
10 population of 500,000 or more inhabitants.
11 3. Law enforcement vehicles of State or local
12 authorities when used in combination with red oscillating,
13 rotating or flashing lights.
14 4. Vehicles of local fire departments and State or
15 federal firefighting vehicles when used in combination
16 with red oscillating, rotating or flashing lights.
17 5. Vehicles which are designed and used exclusively as
18 ambulances or rescue vehicles when used in combination with
19 red oscillating, rotating or flashing lights; furthermore,
20 such lights shall not be lighted except when responding to
21 an emergency call.
22 6. Vehicles that are equipped and used exclusively as
23 organ transport vehicles when used in combination with red
24 oscillating, rotating, or flashing lights; furthermore,
25 these lights shall only be lighted when the transportation
26 is declared an emergency by a member of the transplant team

09800SB2640ham001- 1524 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 or a representative of the organ procurement organization.
2 7. Vehicles of the Illinois Emergency Management
3 Agency, vehicles of the Office of the Illinois State Fire
4 Marshal, vehicles of the Illinois Department of Public
5 Health, vehicles of the Illinois Department of
6 Corrections, and vehicles of the Illinois Department of
7 Juvenile Justice, when used in combination with red
8 oscillating, rotating, or flashing lights.
9 8. Vehicles operated by a local or county emergency
10 management services agency as defined in the Illinois
11 Emergency Management Agency Act, when used in combination
12 with red oscillating, rotating, or flashing lights.
13 9. Vehicles of the Illinois Department of Natural
14 Resources that are used for mine rescue and explosives
15 emergency response, when used in combination with red
16 oscillating, rotating, or flashing lights.
17 (c-1) In addition to the blue oscillating, rotating, or
18flashing lights permitted under subsection (c), and
19notwithstanding subsection (a), a vehicle operated by a
20voluntary firefighter, a voluntary member of a rescue squad, or
21a member of a voluntary ambulance unit may be equipped with
22flashing white headlights and blue grill lights, which may be
23used only in responding to an emergency call or when parked or
24stationary at the scene of a fire, rescue call, ambulance call,
25or motor vehicle accident.
26 (c-2) In addition to the blue oscillating, rotating, or

09800SB2640ham001- 1525 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1flashing lights permitted under subsection (c), and
2notwithstanding subsection (a), a vehicle operated by a paid or
3unpaid member of a local or county emergency management
4services agency as defined in the Illinois Emergency Management
5Agency Act, may be equipped with white oscillating, rotating,
6or flashing lights to be used in combination with blue
7oscillating, rotating, or flashing lights, if authorization by
8local authorities is in writing and carried in the vehicle.
9 (d) The use of a combination of amber and white
10oscillating, rotating or flashing lights, whether lighted or
11unlighted, is prohibited except on second division vehicles
12designed and used for towing or hoisting vehicles or motor
13vehicles or equipment of the State of Illinois, local
14authorities, contractors, and union representatives;
15furthermore, such lights shall not be lighted on second
16division vehicles designed and used for towing or hoisting
17vehicles or vehicles of the State of Illinois, local
18authorities, and contractors except while such vehicles are
19engaged in a tow operation, highway maintenance, or
20construction operations within the limits of highway
21construction projects, and shall not be lighted on the vehicles
22of union representatives except when those vehicles are within
23the limits of a construction project.
24 (e) All oscillating, rotating or flashing lights referred
25to in this Section shall be of sufficient intensity, when
26illuminated, to be visible at 500 feet in normal sunlight.

09800SB2640ham001- 1526 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 (f) Nothing in this Section shall prohibit a manufacturer
2of oscillating, rotating or flashing lights or his
3representative or authorized vendor from temporarily mounting
4such lights on a vehicle for demonstration purposes only. If
5the lights are not covered while the vehicle is operated upon a
6highway, the vehicle shall display signage indicating that the
7vehicle is out of service or not an emergency vehicle. The
8signage shall be displayed on all sides of the vehicle in
9letters at least 2 inches tall and one-half inch wide. A
10vehicle authorized to have oscillating, rotating, or flashing
11lights mounted for demonstration purposes may not activate the
12lights while the vehicle is operated upon a highway.
13 (g) Any person violating the provisions of subsections (a),
14(b), (c) or (d) of this Section who without lawful authority
15stops or detains or attempts to stop or detain another person
16shall be guilty of a Class 2 felony.
17 (h) Except as provided in subsection (g) above, any person
18violating the provisions of subsections (a) or (c) of this
19Section shall be guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.
20(Source: P.A. 97-39, eff. 1-1-12; 97-149, eff. 7-14-11; 97-813,
21eff. 7-13-12; 97-1173, eff. 1-1-14; 98-80, eff. 7-15-13;
2298-123, eff. 1-1-14; 98-468, eff. 8-16-13; revised 10-17-13.)
23 (625 ILCS 5/12-610.2)
24 Sec. 12-610.2. Electronic communication devices.
25 (a) As used in this Section:

09800SB2640ham001- 1527 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 "Electronic communication device" means an electronic
2device, including but not limited to a hand-held wireless
3telephone, hand-held personal digital assistant, or a portable
4or mobile computer, but does not include a global positioning
5system or navigation system or a device that is physically or
6electronically integrated into the motor vehicle.
7 (b) A person may not operate a motor vehicle on a roadway
8while using an electronic communication device.
9 (b-5) A person commits aggravated use of an electronic
10communication device when he or she violates subsection (b) and
11in committing the violation he or she was involved in a motor
12vehicle accident that results in great bodily harm, permanent
13disability, disfigurement, or death to another and the
14violation was a proximate cause of the injury or death.
15 (c) A second or subsequent violation of this Section is an
16offense against traffic regulations governing the movement of
17vehicles. A person who violates this Section shall be fined a
18maximum of $75 for a first offense, $100 for a second offense,
19$125 for a third offense, and $150 for a fourth or subsequent
20offense.
21 (d) This Section does not apply to:
22 (1) a law enforcement officer or operator of an
23 emergency vehicle while performing his or her official
24 duties;
25 (2) a driver using an electronic communication device
26 for the sole purpose of reporting an emergency situation

09800SB2640ham001- 1528 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 and continued communication with emergency personnel
2 during the emergency situation;
3 (3) a driver using an electronic communication device
4 in hands-free or voice-operated mode, which may include the
5 use of a headset;
6 (4) a driver of a commercial motor vehicle reading a
7 message displayed on a permanently installed communication
8 device designed for a commercial motor vehicle with a
9 screen that does not exceed 10 inches tall by 10 inches
10 wide in size;
11 (5) a driver using an electronic communication device
12 while parked on the shoulder of a roadway;
13 (6) a driver using an electronic communication device
14 when the vehicle is stopped due to normal traffic being
15 obstructed and the driver has the motor vehicle
16 transmission in neutral or park;
17 (7) a driver using two-way or citizens band radio
18 services;
19 (8) a driver using two-way mobile radio transmitters or
20 receivers for licensees of the Federal Communications
21 Commission in the amateur radio service;
22 (9) a driver using an electronic communication device
23 by pressing a single button to initiate or terminate a
24 voice communication; or
25 (10) a driver using an electronic communication device
26 capable of performing multiple functions, other than a

09800SB2640ham001- 1529 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 hand-held wireless telephone or hand-held personal digital
2 assistant (for example, a fleet management system,
3 dispatching device, citizens band radio, or music player)
4 for a purpose that is not otherwise prohibited by this
5 Section.
6 (e) A person convicted of violating subsection (b-5)
7commits a Class A misdemeanor if the violation resulted in
8great bodily harm, permanent disability, or disfigurement to
9another. A person convicted of violating subsection (b-5)
10commits a Class 4 felony if the violation resulted in the death
11of another person.
12(Source: P.A. 97-828, eff. 7-20-12; 98-506, eff. 1-1-14;
1398-507, eff. 1-1-14; revised 9-19-13.)
14 (625 ILCS 5/15-111) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 15-111)
15 Sec. 15-111. Wheel and axle loads and gross weights.
16 (a) No vehicle or combination of vehicles with pneumatic
17tires may be operated, unladen or with load, when the total
18weight on the road surface exceeds the following: 20,000 pounds
19on a single axle; 34,000 pounds on a tandem axle with no axle
20within the tandem exceeding 20,000 pounds; 80,000 pounds gross
21weight for vehicle combinations of 5 or more axles; or a total
22weight on a group of 2 or more consecutive axles in excess of
23that weight produced by the application of the following
24formula: W = 500 times the sum of (LN divided by N-1) + 12N +
2536, where "W" equals overall total weight on any group of 2 or

09800SB2640ham001- 1530 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1more consecutive axles to the nearest 500 pounds, "L" equals
2the distance measured to the nearest foot between extremes of
3any group of 2 or more consecutive axles, and "N" equals the
4number of axles in the group under consideration.
5 The above formula when expressed in tabular form results in
6allowable loads as follows:
7Distance measured
8to the nearest
9foot between the
10extremes of any Maximum weight in pounds
11group of 2 or of any group of
12more consecutive 2 or more consecutive axles
13axles
14feet2 axles3 axles4 axles5 axles6 axles
15434,000
16534,000
17634,000
18734,000
19838,000*42,000
20939,00042,500
211040,00043,500
221144,000
231245,00050,000
241345,50050,500
251446,50051,500

09800SB2640ham001- 1531 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
11547,00052,000
21648,00052,50058,000
31748,50053,50058,500
41849,50054,00059,000
51950,00054,50060,000
62051,00055,50060,50066,000
72151,50056,00061,00066,500
82252,50056,50061,50067,000
92353,00057,50062,50068,000
102454,00058,00063,00068,500
112554,50058,50063,50069,000
122655,50059,50064,00069,500
132756,00060,00065,00070,000
142857,00060,50065,50071,000
152957,50061,50066,00071,500
163058,50062,00066,50072,000
173159,00062,50067,50072,500
183260,00063,50068,00073,000
193364,00068,50074,000
203464,50069,00074,500
213565,50070,00075,000
223666,00070,50075,500
233766,50071,00076,000
243867,50072,00077,000
253968,00072,50077,500
264068,50073,00078,000

09800SB2640ham001- 1532 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
14169,50073,50078,500
24270,00074,00079,000
34370,50075,00080,000
44471,50075,500
54572,00076,000
64672,50076,500
74773,50077,500
84874,00078,000
94974,50078,500
105075,50079,000
115176,00080,000
125276,500
135377,500
145478,000
155578,500
165679,500
175780,000
18*If the distance between 2 axles is 96 inches or less, the 2
19axles are tandem axles and the maximum total weight may not
20exceed 34,000 pounds, notwithstanding the higher limit
21resulting from the application of the formula.
22 Vehicles not in a combination having more than 4 axles may
23not exceed the weight in the table in this subsection (a) for 4
24axles measured between the extreme axles of the vehicle.
25 Vehicles in a combination having more than 6 axles may not
26exceed the weight in the table in this subsection (a) for 6

09800SB2640ham001- 1533 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1axles measured between the extreme axles of the combination.
2 Local authorities, with respect to streets and highways
3under their jurisdiction, without additional fees, may also by
4ordinance or resolution allow the weight limitations of this
5subsection, provided the maximum gross weight on any one axle
6shall not exceed 20,000 pounds and the maximum total weight on
7any tandem axle shall not exceed 34,000 pounds, on designated
8highways when appropriate regulatory signs giving notice are
9erected upon the street or highway or portion of any street or
10highway affected by the ordinance or resolution.
11 The following are exceptions to the above formula:
12 (1) Vehicles for which a different limit is established
13 and posted in accordance with Section 15-316 of this Code.
14 (2) Vehicles for which the Department of
15 Transportation and local authorities issue overweight
16 permits under authority of Section 15-301 of this Code.
17 These vehicles are not subject to the bridge formula.
18 (3) Cities having a population of more than 50,000 may
19 permit by ordinance axle loads on 2 axle motor vehicles 33
20 1/2% above those provided for herein, but the increase
21 shall not become effective until the city has officially
22 notified the Department of the passage of the ordinance and
23 shall not apply to those vehicles when outside of the
24 limits of the city, nor shall the gross weight of any 2
25 axle motor vehicle operating over any street of the city
26 exceed 40,000 pounds.

09800SB2640ham001- 1534 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 (4) Weight limitations shall not apply to vehicles
2 (including loads) operated by a public utility when
3 transporting equipment required for emergency repair of
4 public utility facilities or properties or water wells.
5 (5) Two consecutive sets of tandem axles may carry a
6 total weight of 34,000 pounds each if the overall distance
7 between the first and last axles of the consecutive sets of
8 tandem axles is 36 feet or more, notwithstanding the lower
9 limit resulting from the application of the above formula.
10 (6) A truck, not in combination and used exclusively
11 for the collection of rendering materials, may, when laden,
12 transmit upon the road surface, except when on part of the
13 National System of Interstate and Defense Highways, the
14 following maximum weights: 22,000 pounds on a single axle;
15 40,000 pounds on a tandem axle.
16 (7) A truck not in combination, equipped with a self
17 compactor or an industrial roll-off hoist and roll-off
18 container, used exclusively for garbage, refuse, or
19 recycling operations, may, when laden, transmit upon the
20 road surface, except when on part of the National System of
21 Interstate and Defense Highways, the following maximum
22 weights: 22,000 pounds on a single axle; 40,000 pounds on a
23 tandem axle; 40,000 pounds gross weight on a 2-axle
24 vehicle; 54,000 pounds gross weight on a 3-axle vehicle.
25 This vehicle is not subject to the bridge formula.
26 (7.5) A 3-axle rear discharge truck mixer registered as

09800SB2640ham001- 1535 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 a Special Hauling Vehicle, used exclusively for the mixing
2 and transportation of concrete in the plastic state, may,
3 when laden, transmit upon the road surface, except when on
4 part of the National System of Interstate and Defense
5 Highways, the following maximum weights: 22,000 pounds on
6 single axle; 40,000 pounds on a tandem axle; 54,000 pounds
7 gross weight on a 3-axle vehicle. This vehicle is not
8 subject to the bridge formula.
9 (8) Except as provided in paragraph (7.5) of this
10 subsection (a), tandem axles on a 3-axle truck registered
11 as a Special Hauling Vehicle, manufactured prior to or in
12 the model year of 2024 and first registered in Illinois
13 prior to January 1, 2025, with a distance greater than 72
14 inches but not more than 96 inches between any series of 2
15 axles, is allowed a combined weight on the series not to
16 exceed 36,000 pounds and neither axle of the series may
17 exceed 20,000 pounds. Any vehicle of this type manufactured
18 after the model year of 2024 or first registered in
19 Illinois after December 31, 2024 may not exceed a combined
20 weight of 34,000 pounds through the series of 2 axles and
21 neither axle of the series may exceed 20,000 pounds.
22 A 3-axle combination sewer cleaning jetting vacuum
23 truck registered as a Special Hauling Vehicle, used
24 exclusively for the transportation of non-hazardous solid
25 waste, manufactured before or in the model year of 2014,
26 first registered in Illinois before January 1, 2015, may,

09800SB2640ham001- 1536 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 when laden, transmit upon the road surface, except when on
2 part of the National System of Interstate and Defense
3 Highways, the following maximum weights: 22,000 pounds on a
4 single axle; 40,000 pounds on a tandem axle; 54,000 pounds
5 gross weight on a 3-axle vehicle. This vehicle is not
6 subject to the bridge formula.
7 (9) A 4-axle truck mixer registered as a Special
8 Hauling Vehicle, used exclusively for the mixing and
9 transportation of concrete in the plastic state, 2024 2025
10 and not operated on a highway that is part of the National
11 System of Interstate Highways, is allowed the following
12 maximum weights: 20,000 pounds on any single axle; 36,000
13 pounds on a series of axles greater than 72 inches but not
14 more than 96 inches; and 34,000 pounds on any series of 2
15 axles greater than 40 inches but not more than 72 inches.
16 The gross weight of this vehicle may not exceed the weights
17 allowed by the bridge formula for 4 axles. The bridge
18 formula does not apply to any series of 3 axles while the
19 vehicle is transporting concrete in the plastic state, but
20 no axle or tandem axle of the series may exceed the maximum
21 weight permitted under this paragraph (9) of subsection
22 (a).
23 (10) Combinations of vehicles, registered as Special
24 Hauling Vehicles that include a semitrailer manufactured
25 prior to or in the model year of 2024, and registered in
26 Illinois prior to January 1, 2025, having 5 axles with a

09800SB2640ham001- 1537 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 distance of 42 feet or less between extreme axles, may not
2 exceed the following maximum weights: 20,000 pounds on a
3 single axle; 34,000 pounds on a tandem axle; and 72,000
4 pounds gross weight. This combination of vehicles is not
5 subject to the bridge formula. For all those combinations
6 of vehicles that include a semitrailer manufactured after
7 the effective date of P.A. 92-0417, the overall distance
8 between the first and last axles of the 2 sets of tandems
9 must be 18 feet 6 inches or more. Any combination of
10 vehicles that has had its cargo container replaced in its
11 entirety after December 31, 2024 may not exceed the weights
12 allowed by the bridge formula.
13 (11) The maximum weight allowed on a vehicle with
14 crawler type tracks is 40,000 pounds.
15 (12) A combination of vehicles, including a tow truck
16 and a disabled vehicle or disabled combination of vehicles,
17 that exceeds the weight restriction imposed by this Code,
18 may be operated on a public highway in this State provided
19 that neither the disabled vehicle nor any vehicle being
20 towed nor the tow truck itself shall exceed the weight
21 limitations permitted under this Chapter. During the
22 towing operation, neither the tow truck nor the vehicle
23 combination shall exceed 24,000 pounds on a single rear
24 axle and 44,000 pounds on a tandem rear axle, provided the
25 towing vehicle:
26 (i) is specifically designed as a tow truck having

09800SB2640ham001- 1538 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 a gross vehicle weight rating of at least 18,000 pounds
2 and is equipped with air brakes, provided that air
3 brakes are required only if the towing vehicle is
4 towing a vehicle, semitrailer, or tractor-trailer
5 combination that is equipped with air brakes;
6 (ii) is equipped with flashing, rotating, or
7 oscillating amber lights, visible for at least 500 feet
8 in all directions;
9 (iii) is capable of utilizing the lighting and
10 braking systems of the disabled vehicle or combination
11 of vehicles; and
12 (iv) does not engage in a tow exceeding 20 miles
13 from the initial point of wreck or disablement. Any
14 additional movement of the vehicles may occur only upon
15 issuance of authorization for that movement under the
16 provisions of Sections 15-301 through 15-319 of this
17 Code. The towing vehicle, however, may tow any disabled
18 vehicle to a point where repairs are actually to occur.
19 This movement shall be valid only on State routes. The
20 tower must abide by posted bridge weight limits.
21 Gross weight limits shall not apply to the combination of
22the tow truck and vehicles being towed. The tow truck license
23plate must cover the operating empty weight of the tow truck
24only. The weight of each vehicle being towed shall be covered
25by a valid license plate issued to the owner or operator of the
26vehicle being towed and displayed on that vehicle. If no valid

09800SB2640ham001- 1539 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1plate issued to the owner or operator of that vehicle is
2displayed on that vehicle, or the plate displayed on that
3vehicle does not cover the weight of the vehicle, the weight of
4the vehicle shall be covered by the third tow truck plate
5issued to the owner or operator of the tow truck and
6temporarily affixed to the vehicle being towed. If a roll-back
7carrier is registered and being used as a tow truck, however,
8the license plate or plates for the tow truck must cover the
9gross vehicle weight, including any load carried on the bed of
10the roll-back carrier.
11 The Department may by rule or regulation prescribe
12additional requirements. However, nothing in this Code shall
13prohibit a tow truck under instructions of a police officer
14from legally clearing a disabled vehicle, that may be in
15violation of weight limitations of this Chapter, from the
16roadway to the berm or shoulder of the highway. If in the
17opinion of the police officer that location is unsafe, the
18officer is authorized to have the disabled vehicle towed to the
19nearest place of safety.
20 For the purpose of this subsection, gross vehicle weight
21rating, or GVWR, means the value specified by the manufacturer
22as the loaded weight of the tow truck.
23 (b) As used in this Section, "recycling haul" or "recycling
24operation" means the hauling of non-hazardous, non-special,
25non-putrescible materials, such as paper, glass, cans, or
26plastic, for subsequent use in the secondary materials market.

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1 (c) No vehicle or combination of vehicles equipped with
2pneumatic tires shall be operated, unladen or with load, upon
3the highways of this State in violation of the provisions of
4any permit issued under the provisions of Sections 15-301
5through 15-319 of this Chapter.
6 (d) No vehicle or combination of vehicles equipped with
7other than pneumatic tires may be operated, unladen or with
8load, upon the highways of this State when the gross weight on
9the road surface through any wheel exceeds 800 pounds per inch
10width of tire tread or when the gross weight on the road
11surface through any axle exceeds 16,000 pounds.
12 (e) No person shall operate a vehicle or combination of
13vehicles over a bridge or other elevated structure constituting
14part of a highway with a gross weight that is greater than the
15maximum weight permitted by the Department, when the structure
16is sign posted as provided in this Section.
17 (f) The Department upon request from any local authority
18shall, or upon its own initiative may, conduct an investigation
19of any bridge or other elevated structure constituting a part
20of a highway, and if it finds that the structure cannot with
21safety to itself withstand the weight of vehicles otherwise
22permissible under this Code the Department shall determine and
23declare the maximum weight of vehicles that the structures can
24withstand, and shall cause or permit suitable signs stating
25maximum weight to be erected and maintained before each end of
26the structure. No person shall operate a vehicle or combination

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1of vehicles over any structure with a gross weight that is
2greater than the posted maximum weight.
3 (g) Upon the trial of any person charged with a violation
4of subsection (e) or (f) of this Section, proof of the
5determination of the maximum allowable weight by the Department
6and the existence of the signs, constitutes conclusive evidence
7of the maximum weight that can be maintained with safety to the
8bridge or structure.
9(Source: P.A. 97-201, eff. 1-1-12; 98-409, eff. 1-1-14; 98-410,
10eff. 8-16-13; revised 9-19-13.)
11 Section 680. The Snowmobile Registration and Safety Act is
12amended by changing Section 1-2.06 as follows:
13 (625 ILCS 40/1-2.06) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 601-2.06)
14 Sec. 1-2.06. "Intoxicating Beverage" means any beverage
15enumerated in the "Liquor Control Act of 1934".
16(Source: P.A. 78-856; revised 9-23-13.)
17 Section 685. The Circuit Courts Act is amended by changing
18Section 1 as follows:
19 (705 ILCS 35/1) (from Ch. 37, par. 72.1)
20 Sec. 1. Judicial circuits created. The county of Cook shall
21be one judicial circuit and the State of Illinois, exclusive of
22the county of Cook, shall be and is divided into judicial

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1circuits as follows:
2 First Circuit--The counties of Alexander, Pulaski, Massac,
3Pope, Johnson, Union, Jackson, Williamson and Saline.
4 Second Circuit--The counties of Hardin, Gallatin, White,
5Hamilton, Franklin, Wabash, Edwards, Wayne, Jefferson,
6Richland, Lawrence and Crawford.
7 Third Circuit--The counties of Madison and Bond.
8 Fourth Circuit--The counties of Clinton, Marion, Clay,
9Fayette, Effingham, Jasper, Montgomery, Shelby and Christian.
10 Fifth Circuit--The counties of Vermilion, Edgar, Clark,
11Cumberland and Coles.
12 Sixth Circuit--The counties of Champaign, Douglas,
13Moultrie, Macon, DeWitt and Piatt.
14 Seventh Circuit--The counties of Sangamon, Macoupin,
15Morgan, Scott, Greene and Jersey.
16 Eighth Circuit--The counties of Adams, Schuyler, Mason,
17Cass, Brown, Pike, Calhoun and Menard.
18 Ninth Circuit--The counties of Knox, Warren, Henderson,
19Hancock, McDonough and Fulton.
20 Tenth Circuit--The counties of Peoria, Marshall, Putnam,
21Stark and Tazewell.
22 Eleventh Circuit--The counties of McLean, Livingston,
23Logan, Ford and Woodford.
24 Twelfth Circuit--The county of Will.
25 Thirteenth Circuit--The counties of Bureau, LaSalle and
26Grundy.

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1 Fourteenth Circuit--The counties of Rock Island, Mercer,
2Whiteside and Henry.
3 Fifteenth Circuit--The counties of Jo Daviess JoDaviess,
4Stephenson, Carroll, Ogle and Lee.
5 Sixteenth Circuit--Before December 3, 2012, the counties
6of Kane, DeKalb, and Kendall. On and after December 3, 2012,
7the County of Kane.
8 Seventeenth Circuit--The counties of Winnebago and Boone.
9 Eighteenth Circuit--The county of DuPage.
10 Nineteenth Circuit--Before December 4, 2006, the counties
11of Lake and McHenry. On and after December 4, 2006, the County
12of Lake.
13 Twentieth Circuit--The counties of Randolph, Monroe, St.
14Clair, Washington and Perry.
15 Twenty-first Circuit--The counties of Iroquois and
16Kankakee.
17 Twenty-second Circuit--On and after December 4, 2006, the
18County of McHenry.
19 Twenty-third Circuit--On and after December 3, 2012, the
20counties of DeKalb and Kendall.
21(Source: P.A. 97-585, eff. 8-26-11; revised 11-22-13.)
22 Section 690. The Juvenile Court Act of 1987 is amended by
23changing Sections 1-7, 1-8, 2-10, 2-28, 3-12, 4-9, 5-105,
245-130, 5-401.5, 5-410, 5-901, 5-905, and 5-915 as follows:

09800SB2640ham001- 1544 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 (705 ILCS 405/1-7) (from Ch. 37, par. 801-7)
2 Sec. 1-7. Confidentiality of law enforcement records.
3 (A) Inspection and copying of law enforcement records
4maintained by law enforcement agencies that relate to a minor
5who has been arrested or taken into custody before his or her
618th birthday shall be restricted to the following:
7 (1) Any local, State or federal law enforcement
8 officers of any jurisdiction or agency when necessary for
9 the discharge of their official duties during the
10 investigation or prosecution of a crime or relating to a
11 minor who has been adjudicated delinquent and there has
12 been a previous finding that the act which constitutes the
13 previous offense was committed in furtherance of criminal
14 activities by a criminal street gang, or, when necessary
15 for the discharge of its official duties in connection with
16 a particular investigation of the conduct of a law
17 enforcement officer, an independent agency or its staff
18 created by ordinance and charged by a unit of local
19 government with the duty of investigating the conduct of
20 law enforcement officers. For purposes of this Section,
21 "criminal street gang" has the meaning ascribed to it in
22 Section 10 of the Illinois Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus
23 Prevention Act.
24 (2) Prosecutors, probation officers, social workers,
25 or other individuals assigned by the court to conduct a
26 pre-adjudication or pre-disposition investigation, and

09800SB2640ham001- 1545 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 individuals responsible for supervising or providing
2 temporary or permanent care and custody for minors pursuant
3 to the order of the juvenile court, when essential to
4 performing their responsibilities.
5 (3) Prosecutors and probation officers:
6 (a) in the course of a trial when institution of
7 criminal proceedings has been permitted or required
8 under Section 5-805; or
9 (b) when institution of criminal proceedings has
10 been permitted or required under Section 5-805 and such
11 minor is the subject of a proceeding to determine the
12 amount of bail; or
13 (c) when criminal proceedings have been permitted
14 or required under Section 5-805 and such minor is the
15 subject of a pre-trial investigation, pre-sentence
16 investigation, fitness hearing, or proceedings on an
17 application for probation.
18 (4) Adult and Juvenile Prisoner Review Board.
19 (5) Authorized military personnel.
20 (6) Persons engaged in bona fide research, with the
21 permission of the Presiding Judge of the Juvenile Court and
22 the chief executive of the respective law enforcement
23 agency; provided that publication of such research results
24 in no disclosure of a minor's identity and protects the
25 confidentiality of the minor's record.
26 (7) Department of Children and Family Services child

09800SB2640ham001- 1546 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 protection investigators acting in their official
2 capacity.
3 (8) The appropriate school official only if the agency
4 or officer believes that there is an imminent threat of
5 physical harm to students, school personnel, or others who
6 are present in the school or on school grounds.
7 (A) Inspection and copying shall be limited to law
8 enforcement records transmitted to the appropriate
9 school official or officials whom the school has
10 determined to have a legitimate educational or safety
11 interest by a local law enforcement agency under a
12 reciprocal reporting system established and maintained
13 between the school district and the local law
14 enforcement agency under Section 10-20.14 of the
15 School Code concerning a minor enrolled in a school
16 within the school district who has been arrested or
17 taken into custody for any of the following offenses:
18 (i) any violation of Article 24 of the Criminal
19 Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012;
20 (ii) a violation of the Illinois Controlled
21 Substances Act;
22 (iii) a violation of the Cannabis Control Act;
23 (iv) a forcible felony as defined in Section
24 2-8 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal
25 Code of 2012;
26 (v) a violation of the Methamphetamine Control

09800SB2640ham001- 1547 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 and Community Protection Act;
2 (vi) a violation of Section 1-2 of the
3 Harassing and Obscene Communications Act;
4 (vii) a violation of the Hazing Act; or
5 (viii) a violation of Section 12-1, 12-2,
6 12-3, 12-3.05, 12-3.1, 12-3.2, 12-3.4, 12-3.5,
7 12-5, 12-7.3, 12-7.4, 12-7.5, 25-1, or 25-5 of the
8 Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.
9 The information derived from the law enforcement
10 records shall be kept separate from and shall not
11 become a part of the official school record of that
12 child and shall not be a public record. The information
13 shall be used solely by the appropriate school official
14 or officials whom the school has determined to have a
15 legitimate educational or safety interest to aid in the
16 proper rehabilitation of the child and to protect the
17 safety of students and employees in the school. If the
18 designated law enforcement and school officials deem
19 it to be in the best interest of the minor, the student
20 may be referred to in-school or community based social
21 services if those services are available.
22 "Rehabilitation services" may include interventions by
23 school support personnel, evaluation for eligibility
24 for special education, referrals to community-based
25 agencies such as youth services, behavioral healthcare
26 service providers, drug and alcohol prevention or

09800SB2640ham001- 1548 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 treatment programs, and other interventions as deemed
2 appropriate for the student.
3 (B) Any information provided to appropriate school
4 officials whom the school has determined to have a
5 legitimate educational or safety interest by local law
6 enforcement officials about a minor who is the subject
7 of a current police investigation that is directly
8 related to school safety shall consist of oral
9 information only, and not written law enforcement
10 records, and shall be used solely by the appropriate
11 school official or officials to protect the safety of
12 students and employees in the school and aid in the
13 proper rehabilitation of the child. The information
14 derived orally from the local law enforcement
15 officials shall be kept separate from and shall not
16 become a part of the official school record of the
17 child and shall not be a public record. This limitation
18 on the use of information about a minor who is the
19 subject of a current police investigation shall in no
20 way limit the use of this information by prosecutors in
21 pursuing criminal charges arising out of the
22 information disclosed during a police investigation of
23 the minor. For purposes of this paragraph,
24 "investigation" means an official systematic inquiry
25 by a law enforcement agency into actual or suspected
26 criminal activity.

09800SB2640ham001- 1549 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 (9) Mental health professionals on behalf of the
2 Illinois Department of Corrections or the Department of
3 Human Services or prosecutors who are evaluating,
4 prosecuting, or investigating a potential or actual
5 petition brought under the Sexually Violent Persons
6 Commitment Act relating to a person who is the subject of
7 juvenile law enforcement records or the respondent to a
8 petition brought under the Sexually Violent Persons
9 Commitment Act who is the subject of the juvenile law
10 enforcement records sought. Any records and any
11 information obtained from those records under this
12 paragraph (9) may be used only in sexually violent persons
13 commitment proceedings.
14 (10) The president of a park district. Inspection and
15 copying shall be limited to law enforcement records
16 transmitted to the president of the park district by the
17 Illinois State Police under Section 8-23 of the Park
18 District Code or Section 16a-5 of the Chicago Park District
19 Act concerning a person who is seeking employment with that
20 park district and who has been adjudicated a juvenile
21 delinquent for any of the offenses listed in subsection (c)
22 of Section 8-23 of the Park District Code or subsection (c)
23 of Section 16a-5 of the Chicago Park District Act.
24 (B)(1) Except as provided in paragraph (2), no law
25 enforcement officer or other person or agency may knowingly
26 transmit to the Department of Corrections or the Department

09800SB2640ham001- 1550 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 of State Police or to the Federal Bureau of Investigation
2 any fingerprint or photograph relating to a minor who has
3 been arrested or taken into custody before his or her 18th
4 birthday, unless the court in proceedings under this Act
5 authorizes the transmission or enters an order under
6 Section 5-805 permitting or requiring the institution of
7 criminal proceedings.
8 (2) Law enforcement officers or other persons or
9 agencies shall transmit to the Department of State Police
10 copies of fingerprints and descriptions of all minors who
11 have been arrested or taken into custody before their 18th
12 birthday for the offense of unlawful use of weapons under
13 Article 24 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal
14 Code of 2012, a Class X or Class 1 felony, a forcible
15 felony as defined in Section 2-8 of the Criminal Code of
16 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, or a Class 2 or greater
17 felony under the Cannabis Control Act, the Illinois
18 Controlled Substances Act, the Methamphetamine Control and
19 Community Protection Act, or Chapter 4 of the Illinois
20 Vehicle Code, pursuant to Section 5 of the Criminal
21 Identification Act. Information reported to the Department
22 pursuant to this Section may be maintained with records
23 that the Department files pursuant to Section 2.1 of the
24 Criminal Identification Act. Nothing in this Act prohibits
25 a law enforcement agency from fingerprinting a minor taken
26 into custody or arrested before his or her 18th birthday

09800SB2640ham001- 1551 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 for an offense other than those listed in this paragraph
2 (2).
3 (C) The records of law enforcement officers, or of an
4independent agency created by ordinance and charged by a unit
5of local government with the duty of investigating the conduct
6of law enforcement officers, concerning all minors under 18
7years of age must be maintained separate from the records of
8arrests and may not be open to public inspection or their
9contents disclosed to the public except by order of the court
10presiding over matters pursuant to this Act or when the
11institution of criminal proceedings has been permitted or
12required under Section 5-805 or such a person has been
13convicted of a crime and is the subject of pre-sentence
14investigation or proceedings on an application for probation or
15when provided by law. For purposes of obtaining documents
16pursuant to this Section, a civil subpoena is not an order of
17the court.
18 (1) In cases where the law enforcement, or independent
19 agency, records concern a pending juvenile court case, the
20 party seeking to inspect the records shall provide actual
21 notice to the attorney or guardian ad litem of the minor
22 whose records are sought.
23 (2) In cases where the records concern a juvenile court
24 case that is no longer pending, the party seeking to
25 inspect the records shall provide actual notice to the
26 minor or the minor's parent or legal guardian, and the

09800SB2640ham001- 1552 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 matter shall be referred to the chief judge presiding over
2 matters pursuant to this Act.
3 (3) In determining whether the records should be
4 available for inspection, the court shall consider the
5 minor's interest in confidentiality and rehabilitation
6 over the moving party's interest in obtaining the
7 information. Any records obtained in violation of this
8 subsection (C) shall not be admissible in any criminal or
9 civil proceeding, or operate to disqualify a minor from
10 subsequently holding public office or securing employment,
11 or operate as a forfeiture of any public benefit, right,
12 privilege, or right to receive any license granted by
13 public authority.
14 (D) Nothing contained in subsection (C) of this Section
15shall prohibit the inspection or disclosure to victims and
16witnesses of photographs contained in the records of law
17enforcement agencies when the inspection and disclosure is
18conducted in the presence of a law enforcement officer for the
19purpose of the identification or apprehension of any person
20subject to the provisions of this Act or for the investigation
21or prosecution of any crime.
22 (E) Law enforcement officers, and personnel of an
23independent agency created by ordinance and charged by a unit
24of local government with the duty of investigating the conduct
25of law enforcement officers, may not disclose the identity of
26any minor in releasing information to the general public as to

09800SB2640ham001- 1553 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1the arrest, investigation or disposition of any case involving
2a minor.
3 (F) Nothing contained in this Section shall prohibit law
4enforcement agencies from communicating with each other by
5letter, memorandum, teletype or intelligence alert bulletin or
6other means the identity or other relevant information
7pertaining to a person under 18 years of age if there are
8reasonable grounds to believe that the person poses a real and
9present danger to the safety of the public or law enforcement
10officers. The information provided under this subsection (F)
11shall remain confidential and shall not be publicly disclosed,
12except as otherwise allowed by law.
13 (G) Nothing in this Section shall prohibit the right of a
14Civil Service Commission or appointing authority of any state,
15county or municipality examining the character and fitness of
16an applicant for employment with a law enforcement agency,
17correctional institution, or fire department from obtaining
18and examining the records of any law enforcement agency
19relating to any record of the applicant having been arrested or
20taken into custody before the applicant's 18th birthday.
21 (H) The changes made to this Section by Public Act 98-61
22this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly apply to law
23enforcement records of a minor who has been arrested or taken
24into custody on or after January 1, 2014 (the effective date of
25Public Act 98-61) this amendatory Act.
26(Source: P.A. 97-700, eff. 6-22-12; 97-1083, eff. 8-24-12;

09800SB2640ham001- 1554 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
197-1104, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13; 98-61, eff.
21-1-14; revised 11-22-13.)
3 (705 ILCS 405/1-8) (from Ch. 37, par. 801-8)
4 Sec. 1-8. Confidentiality and accessibility of juvenile
5court records.
6 (A) Inspection and copying of juvenile court records
7relating to a minor who is the subject of a proceeding under
8this Act shall be restricted to the following:
9 (1) The minor who is the subject of record, his
10 parents, guardian and counsel.
11 (2) Law enforcement officers and law enforcement
12 agencies when such information is essential to executing an
13 arrest or search warrant or other compulsory process, or to
14 conducting an ongoing investigation or relating to a minor
15 who has been adjudicated delinquent and there has been a
16 previous finding that the act which constitutes the
17 previous offense was committed in furtherance of criminal
18 activities by a criminal street gang.
19 Before July 1, 1994, for the purposes of this Section,
20 "criminal street gang" means any ongoing organization,
21 association, or group of 3 or more persons, whether formal
22 or informal, having as one of its primary activities the
23 commission of one or more criminal acts and that has a
24 common name or common identifying sign, symbol or specific
25 color apparel displayed, and whose members individually or

09800SB2640ham001- 1555 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 collectively engage in or have engaged in a pattern of
2 criminal activity.
3 Beginning July 1, 1994, for purposes of this Section,
4 "criminal street gang" has the meaning ascribed to it in
5 Section 10 of the Illinois Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus
6 Prevention Act.
7 (3) Judges, hearing officers, prosecutors, probation
8 officers, social workers or other individuals assigned by
9 the court to conduct a pre-adjudication or predisposition
10 investigation, and individuals responsible for supervising
11 or providing temporary or permanent care and custody for
12 minors pursuant to the order of the juvenile court when
13 essential to performing their responsibilities.
14 (4) Judges, prosecutors and probation officers:
15 (a) in the course of a trial when institution of
16 criminal proceedings has been permitted or required
17 under Section 5-805; or
18 (b) when criminal proceedings have been permitted
19 or required under Section 5-805 and a minor is the
20 subject of a proceeding to determine the amount of
21 bail; or
22 (c) when criminal proceedings have been permitted
23 or required under Section 5-805 and a minor is the
24 subject of a pre-trial investigation, pre-sentence
25 investigation or fitness hearing, or proceedings on an
26 application for probation; or

09800SB2640ham001- 1556 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 (d) when a minor becomes 18 years of age or older,
2 and is the subject of criminal proceedings, including a
3 hearing to determine the amount of bail, a pre-trial
4 investigation, a pre-sentence investigation, a fitness
5 hearing, or proceedings on an application for
6 probation.
7 (5) Adult and Juvenile Prisoner Review Boards.
8 (6) Authorized military personnel.
9 (7) Victims, their subrogees and legal
10 representatives; however, such persons shall have access
11 only to the name and address of the minor and information
12 pertaining to the disposition or alternative adjustment
13 plan of the juvenile court.
14 (8) Persons engaged in bona fide research, with the
15 permission of the presiding judge of the juvenile court and
16 the chief executive of the agency that prepared the
17 particular records; provided that publication of such
18 research results in no disclosure of a minor's identity and
19 protects the confidentiality of the record.
20 (9) The Secretary of State to whom the Clerk of the
21 Court shall report the disposition of all cases, as
22 required in Section 6-204 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.
23 However, information reported relative to these offenses
24 shall be privileged and available only to the Secretary of
25 State, courts, and police officers.
26 (10) The administrator of a bonafide substance abuse

09800SB2640ham001- 1557 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 student assistance program with the permission of the
2 presiding judge of the juvenile court.
3 (11) Mental health professionals on behalf of the
4 Illinois Department of Corrections or the Department of
5 Human Services or prosecutors who are evaluating,
6 prosecuting, or investigating a potential or actual
7 petition brought under the Sexually Violent Persons
8 Commitment Act relating to a person who is the subject of
9 juvenile court records or the respondent to a petition
10 brought under the Sexually Violent Persons Commitment Act,
11 who is the subject of juvenile court records sought. Any
12 records and any information obtained from those records
13 under this paragraph (11) may be used only in sexually
14 violent persons commitment proceedings.
15 (A-1) Findings and exclusions of paternity entered in
16proceedings occurring under Article II of this Act shall be
17disclosed, in a manner and form approved by the Presiding Judge
18of the Juvenile Court, to the Department of Healthcare and
19Family Services when necessary to discharge the duties of the
20Department of Healthcare and Family Services under Article X of
21the Illinois Public Aid Code.
22 (B) A minor who is the victim in a juvenile proceeding
23shall be provided the same confidentiality regarding
24disclosure of identity as the minor who is the subject of
25record.
26 (C) Except as otherwise provided in this subsection (C),

09800SB2640ham001- 1558 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1juvenile court records shall not be made available to the
2general public. Subject to the limitations in paragraphs (0.1)
3through (0.4) of this subsection (C), the judge presiding over
4a juvenile court proceeding brought under this Act, in his or
5her discretion, may order that juvenile court records of an
6individual case be made available for inspection upon request
7by a representative of an agency, association, or news media
8entity or by a properly interested person. For purposes of
9inspecting documents under this subsection (C), a civil
10subpoena is not an order of the court.
11 (0.1) In cases where the records concern a pending
12 juvenile court case, the requesting party seeking to
13 inspect the juvenile court records shall provide actual
14 notice to the attorney or guardian ad litem of the minor
15 whose records are sought.
16 (0.2) In cases where the records concern a juvenile
17 court case that is no longer pending, the requesting party
18 seeking to inspect the juvenile court records shall provide
19 actual notice to the minor or the minor's parent or legal
20 guardian, and the matter shall be referred to the chief
21 judge presiding over matters pursuant to this Act.
22 (0.3) In determining whether records should be made
23 available for inspection and whether inspection should be
24 limited to certain parts of the file, the court shall
25 consider the minor's interest in confidentiality and
26 rehabilitation over the requesting party's interest in

09800SB2640ham001- 1559 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 obtaining the information. The State's Attorney, the
2 minor, and the minor's parents, guardian, and counsel shall
3 at all times have the right to examine court files and
4 records.
5 (0.4) Any records obtained in violation of this
6 subsection (C) shall not be admissible in any criminal or
7 civil proceeding, or operate to disqualify a minor from
8 subsequently holding public office, or operate as a
9 forfeiture of any public benefit, right, privilege, or
10 right to receive any license granted by public authority.
11 (1) The court shall allow the general public to have
12 access to the name, address, and offense of a minor who is
13 adjudicated a delinquent minor under this Act under either
14 of the following circumstances:
15 (A) The adjudication of delinquency was based upon
16 the minor's commission of first degree murder, attempt
17 to commit first degree murder, aggravated criminal
18 sexual assault, or criminal sexual assault; or
19 (B) The court has made a finding that the minor was
20 at least 13 years of age at the time the act was
21 committed and the adjudication of delinquency was
22 based upon the minor's commission of: (i) an act in
23 furtherance of the commission of a felony as a member
24 of or on behalf of a criminal street gang, (ii) an act
25 involving the use of a firearm in the commission of a
26 felony, (iii) an act that would be a Class X felony

09800SB2640ham001- 1560 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 offense under or the minor's second or subsequent Class
2 2 or greater felony offense under the Cannabis Control
3 Act if committed by an adult, (iv) an act that would be
4 a second or subsequent offense under Section 402 of the
5 Illinois Controlled Substances Act if committed by an
6 adult, (v) an act that would be an offense under
7 Section 401 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act
8 if committed by an adult, (vi) an act that would be a
9 second or subsequent offense under Section 60 of the
10 Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act,
11 or (vii) an act that would be an offense under another
12 Section of the Methamphetamine Control and Community
13 Protection Act.
14 (2) The court shall allow the general public to have
15 access to the name, address, and offense of a minor who is
16 at least 13 years of age at the time the offense is
17 committed and who is convicted, in criminal proceedings
18 permitted or required under Section 5-4, under either of
19 the following circumstances:
20 (A) The minor has been convicted of first degree
21 murder, attempt to commit first degree murder,
22 aggravated criminal sexual assault, or criminal sexual
23 assault,
24 (B) The court has made a finding that the minor was
25 at least 13 years of age at the time the offense was
26 committed and the conviction was based upon the minor's

09800SB2640ham001- 1561 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 commission of: (i) an offense in furtherance of the
2 commission of a felony as a member of or on behalf of a
3 criminal street gang, (ii) an offense involving the use
4 of a firearm in the commission of a felony, (iii) a
5 Class X felony offense under or a second or subsequent
6 Class 2 or greater felony offense under the Cannabis
7 Control Act, (iv) a second or subsequent offense under
8 Section 402 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act,
9 (v) an offense under Section 401 of the Illinois
10 Controlled Substances Act, (vi) an act that would be a
11 second or subsequent offense under Section 60 of the
12 Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act,
13 or (vii) an act that would be an offense under another
14 Section of the Methamphetamine Control and Community
15 Protection Act.
16 (D) Pending or following any adjudication of delinquency
17for any offense defined in Sections 11-1.20 through 11-1.60 or
1812-13 through 12-16 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the
19Criminal Code of 2012, the victim of any such offense shall
20receive the rights set out in Sections 4 and 6 of the Bill of
21Rights for Victims and Witnesses of Violent Crime Act; and the
22juvenile who is the subject of the adjudication,
23notwithstanding any other provision of this Act, shall be
24treated as an adult for the purpose of affording such rights to
25the victim.
26 (E) Nothing in this Section shall affect the right of a

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1Civil Service Commission or appointing authority of any state,
2county or municipality examining the character and fitness of
3an applicant for employment with a law enforcement agency,
4correctional institution, or fire department to ascertain
5whether that applicant was ever adjudicated to be a delinquent
6minor and, if so, to examine the records of disposition or
7evidence which were made in proceedings under this Act.
8 (F) Following any adjudication of delinquency for a crime
9which would be a felony if committed by an adult, or following
10any adjudication of delinquency for a violation of Section
1124-1, 24-3, 24-3.1, or 24-5 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the
12Criminal Code of 2012, the State's Attorney shall ascertain
13whether the minor respondent is enrolled in school and, if so,
14shall provide a copy of the dispositional order to the
15principal or chief administrative officer of the school. Access
16to such juvenile records shall be limited to the principal or
17chief administrative officer of the school and any guidance
18counselor designated by him.
19 (G) Nothing contained in this Act prevents the sharing or
20disclosure of information or records relating or pertaining to
21juveniles subject to the provisions of the Serious Habitual
22Offender Comprehensive Action Program when that information is
23used to assist in the early identification and treatment of
24habitual juvenile offenders.
25 (H) When a Court hearing a proceeding under Article II of
26this Act becomes aware that an earlier proceeding under Article

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1II had been heard in a different county, that Court shall
2request, and the Court in which the earlier proceedings were
3initiated shall transmit, an authenticated copy of the Court
4record, including all documents, petitions, and orders filed
5therein and the minute orders, transcript of proceedings, and
6docket entries of the Court.
7 (I) The Clerk of the Circuit Court shall report to the
8Department of State Police, in the form and manner required by
9the Department of State Police, the final disposition of each
10minor who has been arrested or taken into custody before his or
11her 18th birthday for those offenses required to be reported
12under Section 5 of the Criminal Identification Act. Information
13reported to the Department under this Section may be maintained
14with records that the Department files under Section 2.1 of the
15Criminal Identification Act.
16 (J) The changes made to this Section by Public Act 98-61
17this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly apply to law
18enforcement records of a minor who has been arrested or taken
19into custody on or after January 1, 2014 (the effective date of
20Public Act 98-61) this amendatory Act.
21(Source: P.A. 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13;
2298-61, eff. 1-1-14; 98-552, eff. 8-27-13; revised 1-17-14.)
23 (705 ILCS 405/2-10) (from Ch. 37, par. 802-10)
24 Sec. 2-10. Temporary custody hearing. At the appearance of
25the minor before the court at the temporary custody hearing,

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1all witnesses present shall be examined before the court in
2relation to any matter connected with the allegations made in
3the petition.
4 (1) If the court finds that there is not probable cause to
5believe that the minor is abused, neglected or dependent it
6shall release the minor and dismiss the petition.
7 (2) If the court finds that there is probable cause to
8believe that the minor is abused, neglected or dependent, the
9court shall state in writing the factual basis supporting its
10finding and the minor, his or her parent, guardian, custodian
11and other persons able to give relevant testimony shall be
12examined before the court. The Department of Children and
13Family Services shall give testimony concerning indicated
14reports of abuse and neglect, of which they are aware of
15through the central registry, involving the minor's parent,
16guardian or custodian. After such testimony, the court may,
17consistent with the health, safety and best interests of the
18minor, enter an order that the minor shall be released upon the
19request of parent, guardian or custodian if the parent,
20guardian or custodian appears to take custody. If it is
21determined that a parent's, guardian's, or custodian's
22compliance with critical services mitigates the necessity for
23removal of the minor from his or her home, the court may enter
24an Order of Protection setting forth reasonable conditions of
25behavior that a parent, guardian, or custodian must observe for
26a specified period of time, not to exceed 12 months, without a

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1violation; provided, however, that the 12-month period shall
2begin anew after any violation. Custodian shall include any
3agency of the State which has been given custody or wardship of
4the child. If it is consistent with the health, safety and best
5interests of the minor, the court may also prescribe shelter
6care and order that the minor be kept in a suitable place
7designated by the court or in a shelter care facility
8designated by the Department of Children and Family Services or
9a licensed child welfare agency; however, a minor charged with
10a criminal offense under the Criminal Code of 1961 or the
11Criminal Code of 2012 or adjudicated delinquent shall not be
12placed in the custody of or committed to the Department of
13Children and Family Services by any court, except a minor less
14than 15 years of age and committed to the Department of
15Children and Family Services under Section 5-710 of this Act or
16a minor for whom an independent basis of abuse, neglect, or
17dependency exists. An independent basis exists when the
18allegations or adjudication of abuse, neglect, or dependency do
19not arise from the same facts, incident, or circumstances which
20give rise to a charge or adjudication of delinquency.
21 In placing the minor, the Department or other agency shall,
22to the extent compatible with the court's order, comply with
23Section 7 of the Children and Family Services Act. In
24determining the health, safety and best interests of the minor
25to prescribe shelter care, the court must find that it is a
26matter of immediate and urgent necessity for the safety and

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1protection of the minor or of the person or property of another
2that the minor be placed in a shelter care facility or that he
3or she is likely to flee the jurisdiction of the court, and
4must further find that reasonable efforts have been made or
5that, consistent with the health, safety and best interests of
6the minor, no efforts reasonably can be made to prevent or
7eliminate the necessity of removal of the minor from his or her
8home. The court shall require documentation from the Department
9of Children and Family Services as to the reasonable efforts
10that were made to prevent or eliminate the necessity of removal
11of the minor from his or her home or the reasons why no efforts
12reasonably could be made to prevent or eliminate the necessity
13of removal. When a minor is placed in the home of a relative,
14the Department of Children and Family Services shall complete a
15preliminary background review of the members of the minor's
16custodian's household in accordance with Section 4.3 of the
17Child Care Act of 1969 within 90 days of that placement. If the
18minor is ordered placed in a shelter care facility of the
19Department of Children and Family Services or a licensed child
20welfare agency, the court shall, upon request of the
21appropriate Department or other agency, appoint the Department
22of Children and Family Services Guardianship Administrator or
23other appropriate agency executive temporary custodian of the
24minor and the court may enter such other orders related to the
25temporary custody as it deems fit and proper, including the
26provision of services to the minor or his family to ameliorate

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1the causes contributing to the finding of probable cause or to
2the finding of the existence of immediate and urgent necessity.
3 Where the Department of Children and Family Services
4Guardianship Administrator is appointed as the executive
5temporary custodian, the Department of Children and Family
6Services shall file with the court and serve on the parties a
7parent-child visiting plan, within 10 days, excluding weekends
8and holidays, after the appointment. The parent-child visiting
9plan shall set out the time and place of visits, the frequency
10of visits, the length of visits, who shall be present at the
11visits, and where appropriate, the minor's opportunities to
12have telephone and mail communication with the parents.
13 Where the Department of Children and Family Services
14Guardianship Administrator is appointed as the executive
15temporary custodian, and when the child has siblings in care,
16the Department of Children and Family Services shall file with
17the court and serve on the parties a sibling placement and
18contact plan within 10 days, excluding weekends and holidays,
19after the appointment. The sibling placement and contact plan
20shall set forth whether the siblings are placed together, and
21if they are not placed together, what, if any, efforts are
22being made to place them together. If the Department has
23determined that it is not in a child's best interest to be
24placed with a sibling, the Department shall document in the
25sibling placement and contact plan the basis for its
26determination. For siblings placed separately, the sibling

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1placement and contact plan shall set the time and place for
2visits, the frequency of the visits, the length of visits, who
3shall be present for the visits, and where appropriate, the
4child's opportunities to have contact with their siblings in
5addition to in person contact. If the Department determines it
6is not in the best interest of a sibling to have contact with a
7sibling, the Department shall document in the sibling placement
8and contact plan the basis for its determination. The sibling
9placement and contact plan shall specify a date for development
10of the Sibling Contact Support Plan, under subsection (f) of
11Section 7.4 of the Children and Family Services Act, and shall
12remain in effect until the Sibling Contact Support Plan is
13developed.
14 For good cause, the court may waive the requirement to
15file the parent-child visiting plan or the sibling placement
16and contact plan, or extend the time for filing either plan.
17Any party may, by motion, request the court to review the
18parent-child visiting plan to determine whether it is
19reasonably calculated to expeditiously facilitate the
20achievement of the permanency goal. A party may, by motion,
21request the court to review the parent-child visiting plan or
22the sibling placement and contact plan to determine whether it
23is consistent with the minor's best interest. The court may
24refer the parties to mediation where available. The frequency,
25duration, and locations of visitation shall be measured by the
26needs of the child and family, and not by the convenience of

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1Department personnel. Child development principles shall be
2considered by the court in its analysis of how frequent
3visitation should be, how long it should last, where it should
4take place, and who should be present. If upon motion of the
5party to review either plan and after receiving evidence, the
6court determines that the parent-child visiting plan is not
7reasonably calculated to expeditiously facilitate the
8achievement of the permanency goal or that the restrictions
9placed on parent-child contact or sibling placement or contact
10are contrary to the child's best interests, the court shall put
11in writing the factual basis supporting the determination and
12enter specific findings based on the evidence. The court shall
13enter an order for the Department to implement changes to the
14parent-child visiting plan or sibling placement or contact
15plan, consistent with the court's findings. At any stage of
16proceeding, any party may by motion request the court to enter
17any orders necessary to implement the parent-child visiting
18plan, sibling placement or contact plan or subsequently
19developed Sibling Contact Support Plan. Nothing under this
20subsection (2) shall restrict the court from granting
21discretionary authority to the Department to increase
22opportunities for additional parent-child contacts or sibling
23contacts, without further court orders. Nothing in this
24subsection (2) shall restrict the Department from immediately
25restricting or terminating parent-child contact or sibling
26contacts, without either amending the parent-child visiting

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1plan or the sibling contact plan or obtaining a court order,
2where the Department or its assigns reasonably believe that
3continuation of the contact, as set out in the plan, would be
4contrary to the child's health, safety, and welfare. The
5Department shall file with the court and serve on the parties
6any amendments to the plan within 10 days, excluding weekends
7and holidays, of the change of the visitation.
8 Acceptance of services shall not be considered an admission
9of any allegation in a petition made pursuant to this Act, nor
10may a referral of services be considered as evidence in any
11proceeding pursuant to this Act, except where the issue is
12whether the Department has made reasonable efforts to reunite
13the family. In making its findings that it is consistent with
14the health, safety and best interests of the minor to prescribe
15shelter care, the court shall state in writing (i) the factual
16basis supporting its findings concerning the immediate and
17urgent necessity for the protection of the minor or of the
18person or property of another and (ii) the factual basis
19supporting its findings that reasonable efforts were made to
20prevent or eliminate the removal of the minor from his or her
21home or that no efforts reasonably could be made to prevent or
22eliminate the removal of the minor from his or her home. The
23parents, guardian, custodian, temporary custodian and minor
24shall each be furnished a copy of such written findings. The
25temporary custodian shall maintain a copy of the court order
26and written findings in the case record for the child. The

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1order together with the court's findings of fact in support
2thereof shall be entered of record in the court.
3 Once the court finds that it is a matter of immediate and
4urgent necessity for the protection of the minor that the minor
5be placed in a shelter care facility, the minor shall not be
6returned to the parent, custodian or guardian until the court
7finds that such placement is no longer necessary for the
8protection of the minor.
9 If the child is placed in the temporary custody of the
10Department of Children and Family Services for his or her
11protection, the court shall admonish the parents, guardian,
12custodian or responsible relative that the parents must
13cooperate with the Department of Children and Family Services,
14comply with the terms of the service plans, and correct the
15conditions which require the child to be in care, or risk
16termination of their parental rights.
17 (3) If prior to the shelter care hearing for a minor
18described in Sections 2-3, 2-4, 3-3 and 4-3 the moving party is
19unable to serve notice on the party respondent, the shelter
20care hearing may proceed ex-parte. A shelter care order from an
21ex-parte hearing shall be endorsed with the date and hour of
22issuance and shall be filed with the clerk's office and entered
23of record. The order shall expire after 10 days from the time
24it is issued unless before its expiration it is renewed, at a
25hearing upon appearance of the party respondent, or upon an
26affidavit of the moving party as to all diligent efforts to

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1notify the party respondent by notice as herein prescribed. The
2notice prescribed shall be in writing and shall be personally
3delivered to the minor or the minor's attorney and to the last
4known address of the other person or persons entitled to
5notice. The notice shall also state the nature of the
6allegations, the nature of the order sought by the State,
7including whether temporary custody is sought, and the
8consequences of failure to appear and shall contain a notice
9that the parties will not be entitled to further written
10notices or publication notices of proceedings in this case,
11including the filing of an amended petition or a motion to
12terminate parental rights, except as required by Supreme Court
13Rule 11; and shall explain the right of the parties and the
14procedures to vacate or modify a shelter care order as provided
15in this Section. The notice for a shelter care hearing shall be
16substantially as follows:
17
NOTICE TO PARENTS AND CHILDREN
18
OF SHELTER CARE HEARING
19 On ................ at ........., before the Honorable
20 ................, (address:) ................., the State
21 of Illinois will present evidence (1) that (name of child
22 or children) ....................... are abused, neglected
23 or dependent for the following reasons:
24 .............................................. and (2)
25 whether there is "immediate and urgent necessity" to remove
26 the child or children from the responsible relative.

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1 YOUR FAILURE TO APPEAR AT THE HEARING MAY RESULT IN
2 PLACEMENT of the child or children in foster care until a
3 trial can be held. A trial may not be held for up to 90
4 days. You will not be entitled to further notices of
5 proceedings in this case, including the filing of an
6 amended petition or a motion to terminate parental rights.
7 At the shelter care hearing, parents have the following
8 rights:
9 1. To ask the court to appoint a lawyer if they
10 cannot afford one.
11 2. To ask the court to continue the hearing to
12 allow them time to prepare.
13 3. To present evidence concerning:
14 a. Whether or not the child or children were
15 abused, neglected or dependent.
16 b. Whether or not there is "immediate and
17 urgent necessity" to remove the child from home
18 (including: their ability to care for the child,
19 conditions in the home, alternative means of
20 protecting the child other than removal).
21 c. The best interests of the child.
22 4. To cross examine the State's witnesses.
23 The Notice for rehearings shall be substantially as
24follows:
25
NOTICE OF PARENT'S AND CHILDREN'S RIGHTS

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1
TO REHEARING ON TEMPORARY CUSTODY
2 If you were not present at and did not have adequate
3 notice of the Shelter Care Hearing at which temporary
4 custody of ............... was awarded to
5 ................, you have the right to request a full
6 rehearing on whether the State should have temporary
7 custody of ................. To request this rehearing,
8 you must file with the Clerk of the Juvenile Court
9 (address): ........................, in person or by
10 mailing a statement (affidavit) setting forth the
11 following:
12 1. That you were not present at the shelter care
13 hearing.
14 2. That you did not get adequate notice (explaining
15 how the notice was inadequate).
16 3. Your signature.
17 4. Signature must be notarized.
18 The rehearing should be scheduled within 48 hours of
19 your filing this affidavit.
20 At the rehearing, your rights are the same as at the
21 initial shelter care hearing. The enclosed notice explains
22 those rights.
23 At the Shelter Care Hearing, children have the
24 following rights:
25 1. To have a guardian ad litem appointed.
26 2. To be declared competent as a witness and to

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1 present testimony concerning:
2 a. Whether they are abused, neglected or
3 dependent.
4 b. Whether there is "immediate and urgent
5 necessity" to be removed from home.
6 c. Their best interests.
7 3. To cross examine witnesses for other parties.
8 4. To obtain an explanation of any proceedings and
9 orders of the court.
10 (4) If the parent, guardian, legal custodian, responsible
11relative, minor age 8 or over, or counsel of the minor did not
12have actual notice of or was not present at the shelter care
13hearing, he or she may file an affidavit setting forth these
14facts, and the clerk shall set the matter for rehearing not
15later than 48 hours, excluding Sundays and legal holidays,
16after the filing of the affidavit. At the rehearing, the court
17shall proceed in the same manner as upon the original hearing.
18 (5) Only when there is reasonable cause to believe that the
19minor taken into custody is a person described in subsection
20(3) of Section 5-105 may the minor be kept or detained in a
21detention home or county or municipal jail. This Section shall
22in no way be construed to limit subsection (6).
23 (6) No minor under 16 years of age may be confined in a
24jail or place ordinarily used for the confinement of prisoners
25in a police station. Minors under 18 years of age must be kept
26separate from confined adults and may not at any time be kept

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1in the same cell, room, or yard with adults confined pursuant
2to the criminal law.
3 (7) If the minor is not brought before a judicial officer
4within the time period as specified in Section 2-9, the minor
5must immediately be released from custody.
6 (8) If neither the parent, guardian or custodian appears
7within 24 hours to take custody of a minor released upon
8request pursuant to subsection (2) of this Section, then the
9clerk of the court shall set the matter for rehearing not later
10than 7 days after the original order and shall issue a summons
11directed to the parent, guardian or custodian to appear. At the
12same time the probation department shall prepare a report on
13the minor. If a parent, guardian or custodian does not appear
14at such rehearing, the judge may enter an order prescribing
15that the minor be kept in a suitable place designated by the
16Department of Children and Family Services or a licensed child
17welfare agency.
18 (9) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section any
19interested party, including the State, the temporary
20custodian, an agency providing services to the minor or family
21under a service plan pursuant to Section 8.2 of the Abused and
22Neglected Child Reporting Act, foster parent, or any of their
23representatives, on notice to all parties entitled to notice,
24may file a motion that it is in the best interests of the minor
25to modify or vacate a temporary custody order on any of the
26following grounds:

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1 (a) It is no longer a matter of immediate and urgent
2 necessity that the minor remain in shelter care; or
3 (b) There is a material change in the circumstances of
4 the natural family from which the minor was removed and the
5 child can be cared for at home without endangering the
6 child's health or safety; or
7 (c) A person not a party to the alleged abuse, neglect
8 or dependency, including a parent, relative or legal
9 guardian, is capable of assuming temporary custody of the
10 minor; or
11 (d) Services provided by the Department of Children and
12 Family Services or a child welfare agency or other service
13 provider have been successful in eliminating the need for
14 temporary custody and the child can be cared for at home
15 without endangering the child's health or safety.
16 In ruling on the motion, the court shall determine whether
17it is consistent with the health, safety and best interests of
18the minor to modify or vacate a temporary custody order.
19 The clerk shall set the matter for hearing not later than
2014 days after such motion is filed. In the event that the court
21modifies or vacates a temporary custody order but does not
22vacate its finding of probable cause, the court may order that
23appropriate services be continued or initiated in behalf of the
24minor and his or her family.
25 (10) When the court finds or has found that there is
26probable cause to believe a minor is an abused minor as

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1described in subsection (2) of Section 2-3 and that there is an
2immediate and urgent necessity for the abused minor to be
3placed in shelter care, immediate and urgent necessity shall be
4presumed for any other minor residing in the same household as
5the abused minor provided:
6 (a) Such other minor is the subject of an abuse or
7 neglect petition pending before the court; and
8 (b) A party to the petition is seeking shelter care for
9 such other minor.
10 Once the presumption of immediate and urgent necessity has
11been raised, the burden of demonstrating the lack of immediate
12and urgent necessity shall be on any party that is opposing
13shelter care for the other minor.
14 (11) The changes made to this Section by Public Act 98-61
15this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly apply to a
16minor who has been arrested or taken into custody on or after
17January 1, 2014 (the effective date of Public Act 98-61) this
18amendatory Act.
19(Source: P.A. 97-1076, eff. 8-24-12; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13;
2098-61, eff. 1-1-14; revised 11-22-13.)
21 (705 ILCS 405/2-28) (from Ch. 37, par. 802-28)
22 Sec. 2-28. Court review.
23 (1) The court may require any legal custodian or guardian
24of the person appointed under this Act to report periodically
25to the court or may cite him into court and require him or his

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1agency, to make a full and accurate report of his or its doings
2in behalf of the minor. The custodian or guardian, within 10
3days after such citation, shall make the report, either in
4writing verified by affidavit or orally under oath in open
5court, or otherwise as the court directs. Upon the hearing of
6the report the court may remove the custodian or guardian and
7appoint another in his stead or restore the minor to the
8custody of his parents or former guardian or custodian.
9However, custody of the minor shall not be restored to any
10parent, guardian or legal custodian in any case in which the
11minor is found to be neglected or abused under Section 2-3 or
12dependent under Section 2-4 of this Act, unless the minor can
13be cared for at home without endangering the minor's health or
14safety and it is in the best interests of the minor, and if
15such neglect, abuse, or dependency is found by the court under
16paragraph (1) of Section 2-21 of this Act to have come about
17due to the acts or omissions or both of such parent, guardian
18or legal custodian, until such time as an investigation is made
19as provided in paragraph (5) and a hearing is held on the issue
20of the fitness of such parent, guardian or legal custodian to
21care for the minor and the court enters an order that such
22parent, guardian or legal custodian is fit to care for the
23minor.
24 (2) The first permanency hearing shall be conducted by the
25judge. Subsequent permanency hearings may be heard by a judge
26or by hearing officers appointed or approved by the court in

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1the manner set forth in Section 2-28.1 of this Act. The initial
2hearing shall be held (a) within 12 months from the date
3temporary custody was taken, regardless of whether an
4adjudication or dispositional hearing has been completed
5within that time frame, (b) if the parental rights of both
6parents have been terminated in accordance with the procedure
7described in subsection (5) of Section 2-21, within 30 days of
8the order for termination of parental rights and appointment of
9a guardian with power to consent to adoption, or (c) in
10accordance with subsection (2) of Section 2-13.1. Subsequent
11permanency hearings shall be held every 6 months or more
12frequently if necessary in the court's determination following
13the initial permanency hearing, in accordance with the
14standards set forth in this Section, until the court determines
15that the plan and goal have been achieved. Once the plan and
16goal have been achieved, if the minor remains in substitute
17care, the case shall be reviewed at least every 6 months
18thereafter, subject to the provisions of this Section, unless
19the minor is placed in the guardianship of a suitable relative
20or other person and the court determines that further
21monitoring by the court does not further the health, safety or
22best interest of the child and that this is a stable permanent
23placement. The permanency hearings must occur within the time
24frames set forth in this subsection and may not be delayed in
25anticipation of a report from any source or due to the agency's
26failure to timely file its written report (this written report

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1means the one required under the next paragraph and does not
2mean the service plan also referred to in that paragraph).
3 The public agency that is the custodian or guardian of the
4minor, or another agency responsible for the minor's care,
5shall ensure that all parties to the permanency hearings are
6provided a copy of the most recent service plan prepared within
7the prior 6 months at least 14 days in advance of the hearing.
8If not contained in the plan, the agency shall also include a
9report setting forth (i) any special physical, psychological,
10educational, medical, emotional, or other needs of the minor or
11his or her family that are relevant to a permanency or
12placement determination and (ii) for any minor age 16 or over,
13a written description of the programs and services that will
14enable the minor to prepare for independent living. The
15agency's written report must detail what progress or lack of
16progress the parent has made in correcting the conditions
17requiring the child to be in care; whether the child can be
18returned home without jeopardizing the child's health, safety,
19and welfare, and if not, what permanency goal is recommended to
20be in the best interests of the child, and why the other
21permanency goals are not appropriate. The caseworker must
22appear and testify at the permanency hearing. If a permanency
23hearing has not previously been scheduled by the court, the
24moving party shall move for the setting of a permanency hearing
25and the entry of an order within the time frames set forth in
26this subsection.

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1 At the permanency hearing, the court shall determine the
2future status of the child. The court shall set one of the
3following permanency goals:
4 (A) The minor will be returned home by a specific date
5 within 5 months.
6 (B) The minor will be in short-term care with a
7 continued goal to return home within a period not to exceed
8 one year, where the progress of the parent or parents is
9 substantial giving particular consideration to the age and
10 individual needs of the minor.
11 (B-1) The minor will be in short-term care with a
12 continued goal to return home pending a status hearing.
13 When the court finds that a parent has not made reasonable
14 efforts or reasonable progress to date, the court shall
15 identify what actions the parent and the Department must
16 take in order to justify a finding of reasonable efforts or
17 reasonable progress and shall set a status hearing to be
18 held not earlier than 9 months from the date of
19 adjudication nor later than 11 months from the date of
20 adjudication during which the parent's progress will again
21 be reviewed.
22 (C) The minor will be in substitute care pending court
23 determination on termination of parental rights.
24 (D) Adoption, provided that parental rights have been
25 terminated or relinquished.
26 (E) The guardianship of the minor will be transferred

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1 to an individual or couple on a permanent basis provided
2 that goals (A) through (D) have been ruled out.
3 (F) The minor over age 15 will be in substitute care
4 pending independence.
5 (G) The minor will be in substitute care because he or
6 she cannot be provided for in a home environment due to
7 developmental disabilities or mental illness or because he
8 or she is a danger to self or others, provided that goals
9 (A) through (D) have been ruled out.
10 In selecting any permanency goal, the court shall indicate
11in writing the reasons the goal was selected and why the
12preceding goals were ruled out. Where the court has selected a
13permanency goal other than (A), (B), or (B-1), the Department
14of Children and Family Services shall not provide further
15reunification services, but shall provide services consistent
16with the goal selected.
17 (H) Notwithstanding any other provision in this
18 Section, the court may select the goal of continuing foster
19 care as a permanency goal if:
20 (1) The Department of Children and Family Services
21 has custody and guardianship of the minor;
22 (2) The court has ruled out all other permanency
23 goals based on the child's best interest;
24 (3) The court has found compelling reasons, based
25 on written documentation reviewed by the court, to
26 place the minor in continuing foster care. Compelling

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1 reasons include:
2 (a) the child does not wish to be adopted or to
3 be placed in the guardianship of his or her
4 relative or foster care placement;
5 (b) the child exhibits an extreme level of need
6 such that the removal of the child from his or her
7 placement would be detrimental to the child; or
8 (c) the child who is the subject of the
9 permanency hearing has existing close and strong
10 bonds with a sibling, and achievement of another
11 permanency goal would substantially interfere with
12 the subject child's sibling relationship, taking
13 into consideration the nature and extent of the
14 relationship, and whether ongoing contact is in
15 the subject child's best interest, including
16 long-term emotional interest, as compared with the
17 legal and emotional benefit of permanence;
18 (4) The child has lived with the relative or foster
19 parent for at least one year; and
20 (5) The relative or foster parent currently caring
21 for the child is willing and capable of providing the
22 child with a stable and permanent environment.
23 The court shall set a permanency goal that is in the best
24interest of the child. In determining that goal, the court
25shall consult with the minor in an age-appropriate manner
26regarding the proposed permanency or transition plan for the

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1minor. The court's determination shall include the following
2factors:
3 (1) Age of the child.
4 (2) Options available for permanence, including both
5 out-of-State and in-State placement options.
6 (3) Current placement of the child and the intent of
7 the family regarding adoption.
8 (4) Emotional, physical, and mental status or
9 condition of the child.
10 (5) Types of services previously offered and whether or
11 not the services were successful and, if not successful,
12 the reasons the services failed.
13 (6) Availability of services currently needed and
14 whether the services exist.
15 (7) Status of siblings of the minor.
16 The court shall consider (i) the permanency goal contained
17in the service plan, (ii) the appropriateness of the services
18contained in the plan and whether those services have been
19provided, (iii) whether reasonable efforts have been made by
20all the parties to the service plan to achieve the goal, and
21(iv) whether the plan and goal have been achieved. All evidence
22relevant to determining these questions, including oral and
23written reports, may be admitted and may be relied on to the
24extent of their probative value.
25 The court shall make findings as to whether, in violation
26of Section 8.2 of the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act,

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1any portion of the service plan compels a child or parent to
2engage in any activity or refrain from any activity that is not
3reasonably related to remedying a condition or conditions that
4gave rise or which could give rise to any finding of child
5abuse or neglect. The services contained in the service plan
6shall include services reasonably related to remedy the
7conditions that gave rise to removal of the child from the home
8of his or her parents, guardian, or legal custodian or that the
9court has found must be remedied prior to returning the child
10home. Any tasks the court requires of the parents, guardian, or
11legal custodian or child prior to returning the child home,
12must be reasonably related to remedying a condition or
13conditions that gave rise to or which could give rise to any
14finding of child abuse or neglect.
15 If the permanency goal is to return home, the court shall
16make findings that identify any problems that are causing
17continued placement of the children away from the home and
18identify what outcomes would be considered a resolution to
19these problems. The court shall explain to the parents that
20these findings are based on the information that the court has
21at that time and may be revised, should additional evidence be
22presented to the court.
23 The court shall review the Sibling Contact and Support Plan
24developed or modified under subsection (f) of Section 7.4 of
25the Children and Family Services Act, if applicable. If the
26Department has not convened a meeting to develop or modify a

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1Sibling Contact Support Plan, or if the court finds that the
2existing Plan is not in the child's best interest, the court
3may enter an order requiring the Department to develop, modify
4or implement a Sibling Contact Support Plan, or order
5mediation.
6 If the goal has been achieved, the court shall enter orders
7that are necessary to conform the minor's legal custody and
8status to those findings.
9 If, after receiving evidence, the court determines that the
10services contained in the plan are not reasonably calculated to
11facilitate achievement of the permanency goal, the court shall
12put in writing the factual basis supporting the determination
13and enter specific findings based on the evidence. The court
14also shall enter an order for the Department to develop and
15implement a new service plan or to implement changes to the
16current service plan consistent with the court's findings. The
17new service plan shall be filed with the court and served on
18all parties within 45 days of the date of the order. The court
19shall continue the matter until the new service plan is filed.
20Unless otherwise specifically authorized by law, the court is
21not empowered under this subsection (2) or under subsection (3)
22to order specific placements, specific services, or specific
23service providers to be included in the plan.
24 A guardian or custodian appointed by the court pursuant to
25this Act shall file updated case plans with the court every 6
26months.

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1 Rights of wards of the court under this Act are enforceable
2against any public agency by complaints for relief by mandamus
3filed in any proceedings brought under this Act.
4 (3) Following the permanency hearing, the court shall enter
5a written order that includes the determinations required under
6subsection (2) of this Section and sets forth the following:
7 (a) The future status of the minor, including the
8 permanency goal, and any order necessary to conform the
9 minor's legal custody and status to such determination; or
10 (b) If the permanency goal of the minor cannot be
11 achieved immediately, the specific reasons for continuing
12 the minor in the care of the Department of Children and
13 Family Services or other agency for short term placement,
14 and the following determinations:
15 (i) (Blank).
16 (ii) Whether the services required by the court and
17 by any service plan prepared within the prior 6 months
18 have been provided and (A) if so, whether the services
19 were reasonably calculated to facilitate the
20 achievement of the permanency goal or (B) if not
21 provided, why the services were not provided.
22 (iii) Whether the minor's placement is necessary,
23 and appropriate to the plan and goal, recognizing the
24 right of minors to the least restrictive (most
25 family-like) setting available and in close proximity
26 to the parents' home consistent with the health,

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1 safety, best interest and special needs of the minor
2 and, if the minor is placed out-of-State, whether the
3 out-of-State placement continues to be appropriate and
4 consistent with the health, safety, and best interest
5 of the minor.
6 (iv) (Blank).
7 (v) (Blank).
8 (4) The minor or any person interested in the minor may
9apply to the court for a change in custody of the minor and the
10appointment of a new custodian or guardian of the person or for
11the restoration of the minor to the custody of his parents or
12former guardian or custodian.
13 When return home is not selected as the permanency goal:
14 (a) The Department, the minor, or the current foster
15 parent or relative caregiver seeking private guardianship
16 may file a motion for private guardianship of the minor.
17 Appointment of a guardian under this Section requires
18 approval of the court.
19 (b) The State's Attorney may file a motion to terminate
20 parental rights of any parent who has failed to make
21 reasonable efforts to correct the conditions which led to
22 the removal of the child or reasonable progress toward the
23 return of the child, as defined in subdivision (D)(m) of
24 Section 1 of the Adoption Act or for whom any other
25 unfitness ground for terminating parental rights as
26 defined in subdivision (D) of Section 1 of the Adoption Act

09800SB2640ham001- 1590 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 exists.
2 When parental rights have been terminated for a minimum
3 of 3 years and the child who is the subject of the
4 permanency hearing is 13 years old or older and is not
5 currently placed in a placement likely to achieve
6 permanency, the Department of Children and Family Services
7 shall make reasonable efforts to locate parents whose
8 rights have been terminated, except when the Court
9 determines that those efforts would be futile or
10 inconsistent with the subject child's best interests. The
11 Department of Children and Family Services shall assess the
12 appropriateness of the parent whose rights have been
13 terminated, and shall, as appropriate, foster and support
14 connections between the parent whose rights have been
15 terminated and the youth. The Department of Children and
16 Family Services shall document its determinations and
17 efforts to foster connections in the child's case plan.
18 Custody of the minor shall not be restored to any parent,
19guardian or legal custodian in any case in which the minor is
20found to be neglected or abused under Section 2-3 or dependent
21under Section 2-4 of this Act, unless the minor can be cared
22for at home without endangering his or her health or safety and
23it is in the best interest of the minor, and if such neglect,
24abuse, or dependency is found by the court under paragraph (1)
25of Section 2-21 of this Act to have come about due to the acts
26or omissions or both of such parent, guardian or legal

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1custodian, until such time as an investigation is made as
2provided in paragraph (5) and a hearing is held on the issue of
3the health, safety and best interest of the minor and the
4fitness of such parent, guardian or legal custodian to care for
5the minor and the court enters an order that such parent,
6guardian or legal custodian is fit to care for the minor. In
7the event that the minor has attained 18 years of age and the
8guardian or custodian petitions the court for an order
9terminating his guardianship or custody, guardianship or
10custody shall terminate automatically 30 days after the receipt
11of the petition unless the court orders otherwise. No legal
12custodian or guardian of the person may be removed without his
13consent until given notice and an opportunity to be heard by
14the court.
15 When the court orders a child restored to the custody of
16the parent or parents, the court shall order the parent or
17parents to cooperate with the Department of Children and Family
18Services and comply with the terms of an after-care plan, or
19risk the loss of custody of the child and possible termination
20of their parental rights. The court may also enter an order of
21protective supervision in accordance with Section 2-24.
22 (5) Whenever a parent, guardian, or legal custodian files a
23motion for restoration of custody of the minor, and the minor
24was adjudicated neglected, abused, or dependent as a result of
25physical abuse, the court shall cause to be made an
26investigation as to whether the movant has ever been charged

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1with or convicted of any criminal offense which would indicate
2the likelihood of any further physical abuse to the minor.
3Evidence of such criminal convictions shall be taken into
4account in determining whether the minor can be cared for at
5home without endangering his or her health or safety and
6fitness of the parent, guardian, or legal custodian.
7 (a) Any agency of this State or any subdivision thereof
8 shall co-operate with the agent of the court in providing
9 any information sought in the investigation.
10 (b) The information derived from the investigation and
11 any conclusions or recommendations derived from the
12 information shall be provided to the parent, guardian, or
13 legal custodian seeking restoration of custody prior to the
14 hearing on fitness and the movant shall have an opportunity
15 at the hearing to refute the information or contest its
16 significance.
17 (c) All information obtained from any investigation
18 shall be confidential as provided in Section 5-150 of this
19 Act.
20(Source: P.A. 96-600, eff. 8-21-09; 96-1375, eff. 7-29-10;
2197-425, eff. 8-16-11; 97-1076, eff. 8-24-12; revised
2211-22-13.)
23 (705 ILCS 405/3-12) (from Ch. 37, par. 803-12)
24 Sec. 3-12. Shelter care hearing. At the appearance of the
25minor before the court at the shelter care hearing, all

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1witnesses present shall be examined before the court in
2relation to any matter connected with the allegations made in
3the petition.
4 (1) If the court finds that there is not probable cause to
5believe that the minor is a person requiring authoritative
6intervention, it shall release the minor and dismiss the
7petition.
8 (2) If the court finds that there is probable cause to
9believe that the minor is a person requiring authoritative
10intervention, the minor, his or her parent, guardian, custodian
11and other persons able to give relevant testimony shall be
12examined before the court. After such testimony, the court may
13enter an order that the minor shall be released upon the
14request of a parent, guardian or custodian if the parent,
15guardian or custodian appears to take custody. Custodian shall
16include any agency of the State which has been given custody or
17wardship of the child. The Court shall require documentation by
18representatives of the Department of Children and Family
19Services or the probation department as to the reasonable
20efforts that were made to prevent or eliminate the necessity of
21removal of the minor from his or her home, and shall consider
22the testimony of any person as to those reasonable efforts. If
23the court finds that it is a matter of immediate and urgent
24necessity for the protection of the minor or of the person or
25property of another that the minor be placed in a shelter care
26facility, or that he or she is likely to flee the jurisdiction

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1of the court, and further finds that reasonable efforts have
2been made or good cause has been shown why reasonable efforts
3cannot prevent or eliminate the necessity of removal of the
4minor from his or her home, the court may prescribe shelter
5care and order that the minor be kept in a suitable place
6designated by the court or in a shelter care facility
7designated by the Department of Children and Family Services or
8a licensed child welfare agency; otherwise it shall release the
9minor from custody. If the court prescribes shelter care, then
10in placing the minor, the Department or other agency shall, to
11the extent compatible with the court's order, comply with
12Section 7 of the Children and Family Services Act. If the minor
13is ordered placed in a shelter care facility of the Department
14of Children and Family Services or a licensed child welfare
15agency, the court shall, upon request of the Department or
16other agency, appoint the Department of Children and Family
17Services Guardianship Administrator or other appropriate
18agency executive temporary custodian of the minor and the court
19may enter such other orders related to the temporary custody as
20it deems fit and proper, including the provision of services to
21the minor or his family to ameliorate the causes contributing
22to the finding of probable cause or to the finding of the
23existence of immediate and urgent necessity. Acceptance of
24services shall not be considered an admission of any allegation
25in a petition made pursuant to this Act, nor may a referral of
26services be considered as evidence in any proceeding pursuant

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1to this Act, except where the issue is whether the Department
2has made reasonable efforts to reunite the family. In making
3its findings that reasonable efforts have been made or that
4good cause has been shown why reasonable efforts cannot prevent
5or eliminate the necessity of removal of the minor from his or
6her home, the court shall state in writing its findings
7concerning the nature of the services that were offered or the
8efforts that were made to prevent removal of the child and the
9apparent reasons that such services or efforts could not
10prevent the need for removal. The parents, guardian, custodian,
11temporary custodian and minor shall each be furnished a copy of
12such written findings. The temporary custodian shall maintain a
13copy of the court order and written findings in the case record
14for the child.
15 The order together with the court's findings of fact and
16support thereof shall be entered of record in the court.
17 Once the court finds that it is a matter of immediate and
18urgent necessity for the protection of the minor that the minor
19be placed in a shelter care facility, the minor shall not be
20returned to the parent, custodian or guardian until the court
21finds that such placement is no longer necessary for the
22protection of the minor.
23 (3) If prior to the shelter care hearing for a minor
24described in Sections 2-3, 2-4, 3-3 and 4-3 the petitioner is
25unable to serve notice on the party respondent, the shelter
26care hearing may proceed ex-parte. A shelter care order from an

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1ex-parte hearing shall be endorsed with the date and hour of
2issuance and shall be filed with the clerk's office and entered
3of record. The order shall expire after 10 days from the time
4it is issued unless before its expiration it is renewed, at a
5hearing upon appearance of the party respondent, or upon an
6affidavit of the moving party as to all diligent efforts to
7notify the party respondent by notice as herein prescribed. The
8notice prescribed shall be in writing and shall be personally
9delivered to the minor or the minor's attorney and to the last
10known address of the other person or persons entitled to
11notice. The notice shall also state the nature of the
12allegations, the nature of the order sought by the State,
13including whether temporary custody is sought, and the
14consequences of failure to appear; and shall explain the right
15of the parties and the procedures to vacate or modify a shelter
16care order as provided in this Section. The notice for a
17shelter care hearing shall be substantially as follows:
18
NOTICE TO PARENTS AND CHILDREN OF SHELTER CARE HEARING
19 On ................ at ........., before the Honorable
20................, (address:) ................., the State of
21Illinois will present evidence (1) that (name of child or
22children) ....................... are abused, neglected or
23dependent for the following reasons:
24.............................................................
25and (2) that there is "immediate and urgent necessity" to
26remove the child or children from the responsible relative.

09800SB2640ham001- 1597 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 YOUR FAILURE TO APPEAR AT THE HEARING MAY RESULT IN
2PLACEMENT of the child or children in foster care until a trial
3can be held. A trial may not be held for up to 90 days.
4 At the shelter care hearing, parents have the following
5rights:
6 1. To ask the court to appoint a lawyer if they cannot
7 afford one.
8 2. To ask the court to continue the hearing to allow
9 them time to prepare.
10 3. To present evidence concerning:
11 a. Whether or not the child or children were
12 abused, neglected or dependent.
13 b. Whether or not there is "immediate and urgent
14 necessity" to remove the child from home (including:
15 their ability to care for the child, conditions in the
16 home, alternative means of protecting the child other
17 than removal).
18 c. The best interests of the child.
19 4. To cross examine the State's witnesses.
20 The Notice for rehearings shall be substantially as
21follows:
22
NOTICE OF PARENT'S AND CHILDREN'S RIGHTS
23
TO REHEARING ON TEMPORARY CUSTODY
24 If you were not present at and did not have adequate notice
25of the Shelter Care Hearing at which temporary custody of
26............... was awarded to ................, you have the

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1right to request a full rehearing on whether the State should
2have temporary custody of ................. To request this
3rehearing, you must file with the Clerk of the Juvenile Court
4(address): ........................, in person or by mailing a
5statement (affidavit) setting forth the following:
6 1. That you were not present at the shelter care
7 hearing.
8 2. That you did not get adequate notice (explaining how
9 the notice was inadequate).
10 3. Your signature.
11 4. Signature must be notarized.
12 The rehearing should be scheduled within one day of your
13filing this affidavit.
14 At the rehearing, your rights are the same as at the
15initial shelter care hearing. The enclosed notice explains
16those rights.
17 At the Shelter Care Hearing, children have the following
18rights:
19 1. To have a guardian ad litem appointed.
20 2. To be declared competent as a witness and to present
21 testimony concerning:
22 a. Whether they are abused, neglected or
23 dependent.
24 b. Whether there is "immediate and urgent
25 necessity" to be removed from home.
26 c. Their best interests.

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1 3. To cross examine witnesses for other parties.
2 4. To obtain an explanation of any proceedings and
3 orders of the court.
4 (4) If the parent, guardian, legal custodian, responsible
5relative, or counsel of the minor did not have actual notice of
6or was not present at the shelter care hearing, he or she may
7file an affidavit setting forth these facts, and the clerk
8shall set the matter for rehearing not later than 48 hours,
9excluding Sundays and legal holidays, after the filing of the
10affidavit. At the rehearing, the court shall proceed in the
11same manner as upon the original hearing.
12 (5) Only when there is reasonable cause to believe that the
13minor taken into custody is a person described in subsection
14(3) of Section 5-105 may the minor be kept or detained in a
15detention home or county or municipal jail. This Section shall
16in no way be construed to limit subsection (6).
17 (6) No minor under 16 years of age may be confined in a
18jail or place ordinarily used for the confinement of prisoners
19in a police station. Minors under 18 years of age must be kept
20separate from confined adults and may not at any time be kept
21in the same cell, room, or yard with adults confined pursuant
22to the criminal law.
23 (7) If the minor is not brought before a judicial officer
24within the time period specified in Section 3-11, the minor
25must immediately be released from custody.
26 (8) If neither the parent, guardian or custodian appears

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1within 24 hours to take custody of a minor released upon
2request pursuant to subsection (2) of this Section, then the
3clerk of the court shall set the matter for rehearing not later
4than 7 days after the original order and shall issue a summons
5directed to the parent, guardian or custodian to appear. At the
6same time the probation department shall prepare a report on
7the minor. If a parent, guardian or custodian does not appear
8at such rehearing, the judge may enter an order prescribing
9that the minor be kept in a suitable place designated by the
10Department of Children and Family Services or a licensed child
11welfare agency.
12 (9) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section,
13any interested party, including the State, the temporary
14custodian, an agency providing services to the minor or family
15under a service plan pursuant to Section 8.2 of the Abused and
16Neglected Child Reporting Act, foster parent, or any of their
17representatives, on notice to all parties entitled to notice,
18may file a motion to modify or vacate a temporary custody order
19on any of the following grounds:
20 (a) It is no longer a matter of immediate and urgent
21 necessity that the minor remain in shelter care; or
22 (b) There is a material change in the circumstances of
23 the natural family from which the minor was removed; or
24 (c) A person, including a parent, relative or legal
25 guardian, is capable of assuming temporary custody of the
26 minor; or

09800SB2640ham001- 1601 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 (d) Services provided by the Department of Children and
2 Family Services or a child welfare agency or other service
3 provider have been successful in eliminating the need for
4 temporary custody.
5 The clerk shall set the matter for hearing not later than
614 days after such motion is filed. In the event that the court
7modifies or vacates a temporary custody order but does not
8vacate its finding of probable cause, the court may order that
9appropriate services be continued or initiated in behalf of the
10minor and his or her family.
11 (10) The changes made to this Section by Public Act 98-61
12this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly apply to a
13minor who has been arrested or taken into custody on or after
14January 1, 2014 (the effective date of Public Act 98-61) this
15amendatory Act.
16(Source: P.A. 98-61, eff. 1-1-14; revised 11-22-13.)
17 (705 ILCS 405/4-9) (from Ch. 37, par. 804-9)
18 Sec. 4-9. Shelter care hearing. At the appearance of the
19minor before the court at the shelter care hearing, all
20witnesses present shall be examined before the court in
21relation to any matter connected with the allegations made in
22the petition.
23 (1) If the court finds that there is not probable cause to
24believe that the minor is addicted, it shall release the minor
25and dismiss the petition.

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1 (2) If the court finds that there is probable cause to
2believe that the minor is addicted, the minor, his or her
3parent, guardian, custodian and other persons able to give
4relevant testimony shall be examined before the court. After
5such testimony, the court may enter an order that the minor
6shall be released upon the request of a parent, guardian or
7custodian if the parent, guardian or custodian appears to take
8custody and agrees to abide by a court order which requires the
9minor and his or her parent, guardian, or legal custodian to
10complete an evaluation by an entity licensed by the Department
11of Human Services, as the successor to the Department of
12Alcoholism and Substance Abuse, and complete any treatment
13recommendations indicated by the assessment. Custodian shall
14include any agency of the State which has been given custody or
15wardship of the child.
16 The Court shall require documentation by representatives
17of the Department of Children and Family Services or the
18probation department as to the reasonable efforts that were
19made to prevent or eliminate the necessity of removal of the
20minor from his or her home, and shall consider the testimony of
21any person as to those reasonable efforts. If the court finds
22that it is a matter of immediate and urgent necessity for the
23protection of the minor or of the person or property of another
24that the minor be or placed in a shelter care facility or that
25he or she is likely to flee the jurisdiction of the court, and
26further, finds that reasonable efforts have been made or good

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1cause has been shown why reasonable efforts cannot prevent or
2eliminate the necessity of removal of the minor from his or her
3home, the court may prescribe shelter care and order that the
4minor be kept in a suitable place designated by the court or in
5a shelter care facility designated by the Department of
6Children and Family Services or a licensed child welfare
7agency, or in a facility or program licensed by the Department
8of Human Services for shelter and treatment services; otherwise
9it shall release the minor from custody. If the court
10prescribes shelter care, then in placing the minor, the
11Department or other agency shall, to the extent compatible with
12the court's order, comply with Section 7 of the Children and
13Family Services Act. If the minor is ordered placed in a
14shelter care facility of the Department of Children and Family
15Services or a licensed child welfare agency, or in a facility
16or program licensed by the Department of Human Services for
17shelter and treatment services, the court shall, upon request
18of the appropriate Department or other agency, appoint the
19Department of Children and Family Services Guardianship
20Administrator or other appropriate agency executive temporary
21custodian of the minor and the court may enter such other
22orders related to the temporary custody as it deems fit and
23proper, including the provision of services to the minor or his
24family to ameliorate the causes contributing to the finding of
25probable cause or to the finding of the existence of immediate
26and urgent necessity. Acceptance of services shall not be

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1considered an admission of any allegation in a petition made
2pursuant to this Act, nor may a referral of services be
3considered as evidence in any proceeding pursuant to this Act,
4except where the issue is whether the Department has made
5reasonable efforts to reunite the family. In making its
6findings that reasonable efforts have been made or that good
7cause has been shown why reasonable efforts cannot prevent or
8eliminate the necessity of removal of the minor from his or her
9home, the court shall state in writing its findings concerning
10the nature of the services that were offered or the efforts
11that were made to prevent removal of the child and the apparent
12reasons that such services or efforts could not prevent the
13need for removal. The parents, guardian, custodian, temporary
14custodian and minor shall each be furnished a copy of such
15written findings. The temporary custodian shall maintain a copy
16of the court order and written findings in the case record for
17the child. The order together with the court's findings of fact
18in support thereof shall be entered of record in the court.
19 Once the court finds that it is a matter of immediate and
20urgent necessity for the protection of the minor that the minor
21be placed in a shelter care facility, the minor shall not be
22returned to the parent, custodian or guardian until the court
23finds that such placement is no longer necessary for the
24protection of the minor.
25 (3) If neither the parent, guardian, legal custodian,
26responsible relative nor counsel of the minor has had actual

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1notice of or is present at the shelter care hearing, he or she
2may file his or her affidavit setting forth these facts, and
3the clerk shall set the matter for rehearing not later than 24
4hours, excluding Sundays and legal holidays, after the filing
5of the affidavit. At the rehearing, the court shall proceed in
6the same manner as upon the original hearing.
7 (4) If the minor is not brought before a judicial officer
8within the time period as specified in Section 4-8, the minor
9must immediately be released from custody.
10 (5) Only when there is reasonable cause to believe that the
11minor taken into custody is a person described in subsection
12(3) of Section 5-105 may the minor be kept or detained in a
13detention home or county or municipal jail. This Section shall
14in no way be construed to limit subsection (6).
15 (6) No minor under 16 years of age may be confined in a
16jail or place ordinarily used for the confinement of prisoners
17in a police station. Minors under 18 years of age must be kept
18separate from confined adults and may not at any time be kept
19in the same cell, room or yard with adults confined pursuant to
20the criminal law.
21 (7) If neither the parent, guardian or custodian appears
22within 24 hours to take custody of a minor released upon
23request pursuant to subsection (2) of this Section, then the
24clerk of the court shall set the matter for rehearing not later
25than 7 days after the original order and shall issue a summons
26directed to the parent, guardian or custodian to appear. At the

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1same time the probation department shall prepare a report on
2the minor. If a parent, guardian or custodian does not appear
3at such rehearing, the judge may enter an order prescribing
4that the minor be kept in a suitable place designated by the
5Department of Children and Family Services or a licensed child
6welfare agency.
7 (8) Any interested party, including the State, the
8temporary custodian, an agency providing services to the minor
9or family under a service plan pursuant to Section 8.2 of the
10Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act, foster parent, or any
11of their representatives, may file a motion to modify or vacate
12a temporary custody order on any of the following grounds:
13 (a) It is no longer a matter of immediate and urgent
14 necessity that the minor remain in shelter care; or
15 (b) There is a material change in the circumstances of
16 the natural family from which the minor was removed; or
17 (c) A person, including a parent, relative or legal
18 guardian, is capable of assuming temporary custody of the
19 minor; or
20 (d) Services provided by the Department of Children and
21 Family Services or a child welfare agency or other service
22 provider have been successful in eliminating the need for
23 temporary custody.
24 The clerk shall set the matter for hearing not later than
2514 days after such motion is filed. In the event that the court
26modifies or vacates a temporary custody order but does not

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1vacate its finding of probable cause, the court may order that
2appropriate services be continued or initiated in behalf of the
3minor and his or her family.
4 (9) The changes made to this Section by Public Act 98-61
5this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly apply to a
6minor who has been arrested or taken into custody on or after
7January 1, 2014 (the effective date of Public Act 98-61) this
8amendatory Act.
9(Source: P.A. 98-61, eff. 1-1-14; revised 11-22-13.)
10 (705 ILCS 405/5-105)
11 Sec. 5-105. Definitions. As used in this Article:
12 (1) "Aftercare release" means the conditional and
13 revocable release of an adjudicated delinquent juvenile
14 committed to the Department of Juvenile Justice under the
15 supervision of the Department of Juvenile Justice.
16 (1.5) "Court" means the circuit court in a session or
17 division assigned to hear proceedings under this Act, and
18 includes the term Juvenile Court.
19 (2) "Community service" means uncompensated labor for
20 a community service agency as hereinafter defined.
21 (2.5) "Community service agency" means a
22 not-for-profit organization, community organization,
23 church, charitable organization, individual, public
24 office, or other public body whose purpose is to enhance
25 the physical or mental health of a delinquent minor or to

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1 rehabilitate the minor, or to improve the environmental
2 quality or social welfare of the community which agrees to
3 accept community service from juvenile delinquents and to
4 report on the progress of the community service to the
5 State's Attorney pursuant to an agreement or to the court
6 or to any agency designated by the court or to the
7 authorized diversion program that has referred the
8 delinquent minor for community service.
9 (3) "Delinquent minor" means any minor who prior to his
10 or her 18th birthday has violated or attempted to violate,
11 regardless of where the act occurred, any federal, State,
12 county or municipal law or ordinance.
13 (4) "Department" means the Department of Human
14 Services unless specifically referenced as another
15 department.
16 (5) "Detention" means the temporary care of a minor who
17 is alleged to be or has been adjudicated delinquent and who
18 requires secure custody for the minor's own protection or
19 the community's protection in a facility designed to
20 physically restrict the minor's movements, pending
21 disposition by the court or execution of an order of the
22 court for placement or commitment. Design features that
23 physically restrict movement include, but are not limited
24 to, locked rooms and the secure handcuffing of a minor to a
25 rail or other stationary object. In addition, "detention"
26 includes the court ordered care of an alleged or

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1 adjudicated delinquent minor who requires secure custody
2 pursuant to Section 5-125 of this Act.
3 (6) "Diversion" means the referral of a juvenile,
4 without court intervention, into a program that provides
5 services designed to educate the juvenile and develop a
6 productive and responsible approach to living in the
7 community.
8 (7) "Juvenile detention home" means a public facility
9 with specially trained staff that conforms to the county
10 juvenile detention standards promulgated by the Department
11 of Corrections.
12 (8) "Juvenile justice continuum" means a set of
13 delinquency prevention programs and services designed for
14 the purpose of preventing or reducing delinquent acts,
15 including criminal activity by youth gangs, as well as
16 intervention, rehabilitation, and prevention services
17 targeted at minors who have committed delinquent acts, and
18 minors who have previously been committed to residential
19 treatment programs for delinquents. The term includes
20 children-in-need-of-services and
21 families-in-need-of-services programs; aftercare and
22 reentry services; substance abuse and mental health
23 programs; community service programs; community service
24 work programs; and alternative-dispute resolution programs
25 serving youth-at-risk of delinquency and their families,
26 whether offered or delivered by State or local governmental

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1 entities, public or private for-profit or not-for-profit
2 organizations, or religious or charitable organizations.
3 This term would also encompass any program or service
4 consistent with the purpose of those programs and services
5 enumerated in this subsection.
6 (9) "Juvenile police officer" means a sworn police
7 officer who has completed a Basic Recruit Training Course,
8 has been assigned to the position of juvenile police
9 officer by his or her chief law enforcement officer and has
10 completed the necessary juvenile officers training as
11 prescribed by the Illinois Law Enforcement Training
12 Standards Board, or in the case of a State police officer,
13 juvenile officer training approved by the Director of State
14 Police.
15 (10) "Minor" means a person under the age of 21 years
16 subject to this Act.
17 (11) "Non-secure custody" means confinement where the
18 minor is not physically restricted by being placed in a
19 locked cell or room, by being handcuffed to a rail or other
20 stationary object, or by other means. Non-secure custody
21 may include, but is not limited to, electronic monitoring,
22 foster home placement, home confinement, group home
23 placement, or physical restriction of movement or activity
24 solely through facility staff.
25 (12) "Public or community service" means uncompensated
26 labor for a not-for-profit organization or public body

09800SB2640ham001- 1611 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 whose purpose is to enhance physical or mental stability of
2 the offender, environmental quality or the social welfare
3 and which agrees to accept public or community service from
4 offenders and to report on the progress of the offender and
5 the public or community service to the court or to the
6 authorized diversion program that has referred the
7 offender for public or community service.
8 (13) "Sentencing hearing" means a hearing to determine
9 whether a minor should be adjudged a ward of the court, and
10 to determine what sentence should be imposed on the minor.
11 It is the intent of the General Assembly that the term
12 "sentencing hearing" replace the term "dispositional
13 hearing" and be synonymous with that definition as it was
14 used in the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.
15 (14) "Shelter" means the temporary care of a minor in
16 physically unrestricting facilities pending court
17 disposition or execution of court order for placement.
18 (15) "Site" means a not-for-profit organization,
19 public body, church, charitable organization, or
20 individual agreeing to accept community service from
21 offenders and to report on the progress of ordered or
22 required public or community service to the court or to the
23 authorized diversion program that has referred the
24 offender for public or community service.
25 (16) "Station adjustment" means the informal or formal
26 handling of an alleged offender by a juvenile police

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1 officer.
2 (17) "Trial" means a hearing to determine whether the
3 allegations of a petition under Section 5-520 that a minor
4 is delinquent are proved beyond a reasonable doubt. It is
5 the intent of the General Assembly that the term "trial"
6 replace the term "adjudicatory hearing" and be synonymous
7 with that definition as it was used in the Juvenile Court
8 Act of 1987.
9 The changes made to this Section by Public Act 98-61 this
10amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly apply to violations
11or attempted violations committed on or after January 1, 2014
12(the effective date of Public Act 98-61) this amendatory Act.
13(Source: P.A. 98-61, eff. 1-1-14; 98-558, eff. 1-1-14; revised
141-21-14.)
15 (705 ILCS 405/5-130)
16 Sec. 5-130. Excluded jurisdiction.
17 (1)(a) The definition of delinquent minor under Section
185-120 of this Article shall not apply to any minor who at the
19time of an offense was at least 15 years of age and who is
20charged with: (i) first degree murder, (ii) aggravated criminal
21sexual assault, (iii) aggravated battery with a firearm as
22described in Section 12-4.2 or subdivision (e)(1), (e)(2),
23(e)(3), or (e)(4) of Section 12-3.05 where the minor personally
24discharged a firearm as defined in Section 2-15.5 of the
25Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, (iv) armed

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1robbery when the armed robbery was committed with a firearm, or
2(v) aggravated vehicular hijacking when the hijacking was
3committed with a firearm.
4 These charges and all other charges arising out of the same
5incident shall be prosecuted under the criminal laws of this
6State.
7 (b)(i) If before trial or plea an information or indictment
8is filed that does not charge an offense specified in paragraph
9(a) of this subsection (1) the State's Attorney may proceed on
10any lesser charge or charges, but only in Juvenile Court under
11the provisions of this Article. The State's Attorney may
12proceed on a lesser charge if before trial the minor defendant
13knowingly and with advice of counsel waives, in writing, his or
14her right to have the matter proceed in Juvenile Court.
15 (ii) If before trial or plea an information or indictment
16is filed that includes one or more charges specified in
17paragraph (a) of this subsection (1) and additional charges
18that are not specified in that paragraph, all of the charges
19arising out of the same incident shall be prosecuted under the
20Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.
21 (c)(i) If after trial or plea the minor is convicted of any
22offense covered by paragraph (a) of this subsection (1), then,
23in sentencing the minor, the court shall have available any or
24all dispositions prescribed for that offense under Chapter V of
25the Unified Code of Corrections.
26 (ii) If after trial or plea the court finds that the minor

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1committed an offense not covered by paragraph (a) of this
2subsection (1), that finding shall not invalidate the verdict
3or the prosecution of the minor under the criminal laws of the
4State; however, unless the State requests a hearing for the
5purpose of sentencing the minor under Chapter V of the Unified
6Code of Corrections, the Court must proceed under Sections
75-705 and 5-710 of this Article. To request a hearing, the
8State must file a written motion within 10 days following the
9entry of a finding or the return of a verdict. Reasonable
10notice of the motion shall be given to the minor or his or her
11counsel. If the motion is made by the State, the court shall
12conduct a hearing to determine if the minor should be sentenced
13under Chapter V of the Unified Code of Corrections. In making
14its determination, the court shall consider among other
15matters: (a) whether there is evidence that the offense was
16committed in an aggressive and premeditated manner; (b) the age
17of the minor; (c) the previous history of the minor; (d)
18whether there are facilities particularly available to the
19Juvenile Court or the Department of Juvenile Justice for the
20treatment and rehabilitation of the minor; (e) whether the
21security of the public requires sentencing under Chapter V of
22the Unified Code of Corrections; and (f) whether the minor
23possessed a deadly weapon when committing the offense. The
24rules of evidence shall be the same as if at trial. If after
25the hearing the court finds that the minor should be sentenced
26under Chapter V of the Unified Code of Corrections, then the

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1court shall sentence the minor accordingly having available to
2it any or all dispositions so prescribed.
3 (2) (Blank).
4 (3)(a) The definition of delinquent minor under Section
55-120 of this Article shall not apply to any minor who at the
6time of the offense was at least 15 years of age and who is
7charged with a violation of the provisions of paragraph (1),
8(3), (4), or (10) of subsection (a) of Section 24-1 of the
9Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 while in
10school, regardless of the time of day or the time of year, or
11on the real property comprising any school, regardless of the
12time of day or the time of year. School is defined, for
13purposes of this Section as any public or private elementary or
14secondary school, community college, college, or university.
15These charges and all other charges arising out of the same
16incident shall be prosecuted under the criminal laws of this
17State.
18 (b)(i) If before trial or plea an information or indictment
19is filed that does not charge an offense specified in paragraph
20(a) of this subsection (3) the State's Attorney may proceed on
21any lesser charge or charges, but only in Juvenile Court under
22the provisions of this Article. The State's Attorney may
23proceed under the criminal laws of this State on a lesser
24charge if before trial the minor defendant knowingly and with
25advice of counsel waives, in writing, his or her right to have
26the matter proceed in Juvenile Court.

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1 (ii) If before trial or plea an information or indictment
2is filed that includes one or more charges specified in
3paragraph (a) of this subsection (3) and additional charges
4that are not specified in that paragraph, all of the charges
5arising out of the same incident shall be prosecuted under the
6criminal laws of this State.
7 (c)(i) If after trial or plea the minor is convicted of any
8offense covered by paragraph (a) of this subsection (3), then,
9in sentencing the minor, the court shall have available any or
10all dispositions prescribed for that offense under Chapter V of
11the Unified Code of Corrections.
12 (ii) If after trial or plea the court finds that the minor
13committed an offense not covered by paragraph (a) of this
14subsection (3), that finding shall not invalidate the verdict
15or the prosecution of the minor under the criminal laws of the
16State; however, unless the State requests a hearing for the
17purpose of sentencing the minor under Chapter V of the Unified
18Code of Corrections, the Court must proceed under Sections
195-705 and 5-710 of this Article. To request a hearing, the
20State must file a written motion within 10 days following the
21entry of a finding or the return of a verdict. Reasonable
22notice of the motion shall be given to the minor or his or her
23counsel. If the motion is made by the State, the court shall
24conduct a hearing to determine if the minor should be sentenced
25under Chapter V of the Unified Code of Corrections. In making
26its determination, the court shall consider among other

09800SB2640ham001- 1617 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1matters: (a) whether there is evidence that the offense was
2committed in an aggressive and premeditated manner; (b) the age
3of the minor; (c) the previous history of the minor; (d)
4whether there are facilities particularly available to the
5Juvenile Court or the Department of Juvenile Justice for the
6treatment and rehabilitation of the minor; (e) whether the
7security of the public requires sentencing under Chapter V of
8the Unified Code of Corrections; and (f) whether the minor
9possessed a deadly weapon when committing the offense. The
10rules of evidence shall be the same as if at trial. If after
11the hearing the court finds that the minor should be sentenced
12under Chapter V of the Unified Code of Corrections, then the
13court shall sentence the minor accordingly having available to
14it any or all dispositions so prescribed.
15 (4)(a) The definition of delinquent minor under Section
165-120 of this Article shall not apply to any minor who at the
17time of an offense was at least 13 years of age and who is
18charged with first degree murder committed during the course of
19either aggravated criminal sexual assault, criminal sexual
20assault, or aggravated kidnaping. However, this subsection (4)
21does not include a minor charged with first degree murder based
22exclusively upon the accountability provisions of the Criminal
23Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.
24 (b)(i) If before trial or plea an information or indictment
25is filed that does not charge first degree murder committed
26during the course of aggravated criminal sexual assault,

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1criminal sexual assault, or aggravated kidnaping, the State's
2Attorney may proceed on any lesser charge or charges, but only
3in Juvenile Court under the provisions of this Article. The
4State's Attorney may proceed under the criminal laws of this
5State on a lesser charge if before trial the minor defendant
6knowingly and with advice of counsel waives, in writing, his or
7her right to have the matter proceed in Juvenile Court.
8 (ii) If before trial or plea an information or indictment
9is filed that includes first degree murder committed during the
10course of aggravated criminal sexual assault, criminal sexual
11assault, or aggravated kidnaping, and additional charges that
12are not specified in paragraph (a) of this subsection, all of
13the charges arising out of the same incident shall be
14prosecuted under the criminal laws of this State.
15 (c)(i) If after trial or plea the minor is convicted of
16first degree murder committed during the course of aggravated
17criminal sexual assault, criminal sexual assault, or
18aggravated kidnaping, in sentencing the minor, the court shall
19have available any or all dispositions prescribed for that
20offense under Chapter V of the Unified Code of Corrections.
21 (ii) If the minor was not yet 15 years of age at the time of
22the offense, and if after trial or plea the court finds that
23the minor committed an offense other than first degree murder
24committed during the course of either aggravated criminal
25sexual assault, criminal sexual assault, or aggravated
26kidnapping, the finding shall not invalidate the verdict or the

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1prosecution of the minor under the criminal laws of the State;
2however, unless the State requests a hearing for the purpose of
3sentencing the minor under Chapter V of the Unified Code of
4Corrections, the Court must proceed under Sections 5-705 and
55-710 of this Article. To request a hearing, the State must
6file a written motion within 10 days following the entry of a
7finding or the return of a verdict. Reasonable notice of the
8motion shall be given to the minor or his or her counsel. If
9the motion is made by the State, the court shall conduct a
10hearing to determine whether the minor should be sentenced
11under Chapter V of the Unified Code of Corrections. In making
12its determination, the court shall consider among other
13matters: (a) whether there is evidence that the offense was
14committed in an aggressive and premeditated manner; (b) the age
15of the minor; (c) the previous delinquent history of the minor;
16(d) whether there are facilities particularly available to the
17Juvenile Court or the Department of Juvenile Justice for the
18treatment and rehabilitation of the minor; (e) whether the best
19interest of the minor and the security of the public require
20sentencing under Chapter V of the Unified Code of Corrections;
21and (f) whether the minor possessed a deadly weapon when
22committing the offense. The rules of evidence shall be the same
23as if at trial. If after the hearing the court finds that the
24minor should be sentenced under Chapter V of the Unified Code
25of Corrections, then the court shall sentence the minor
26accordingly having available to it any or all dispositions so

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1prescribed.
2 (5)(a) The definition of delinquent minor under Section
35-120 of this Article shall not apply to any minor who is
4charged with a violation of subsection (a) of Section 31-6 or
5Section 32-10 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code
6of 2012 when the minor is subject to prosecution under the
7criminal laws of this State as a result of the application of
8the provisions of Section 5-125, or subsection (1) or (2) of
9this Section. These charges and all other charges arising out
10of the same incident shall be prosecuted under the criminal
11laws of this State.
12 (b)(i) If before trial or plea an information or indictment
13is filed that does not charge an offense specified in paragraph
14(a) of this subsection (5), the State's Attorney may proceed on
15any lesser charge or charges, but only in Juvenile Court under
16the provisions of this Article. The State's Attorney may
17proceed under the criminal laws of this State on a lesser
18charge if before trial the minor defendant knowingly and with
19advice of counsel waives, in writing, his or her right to have
20the matter proceed in Juvenile Court.
21 (ii) If before trial or plea an information or indictment
22is filed that includes one or more charges specified in
23paragraph (a) of this subsection (5) and additional charges
24that are not specified in that paragraph, all of the charges
25arising out of the same incident shall be prosecuted under the
26criminal laws of this State.

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1 (c)(i) If after trial or plea the minor is convicted of any
2offense covered by paragraph (a) of this subsection (5), then,
3in sentencing the minor, the court shall have available any or
4all dispositions prescribed for that offense under Chapter V of
5the Unified Code of Corrections.
6 (ii) If after trial or plea the court finds that the minor
7committed an offense not covered by paragraph (a) of this
8subsection (5), the conviction shall not invalidate the verdict
9or the prosecution of the minor under the criminal laws of this
10State; however, unless the State requests a hearing for the
11purpose of sentencing the minor under Chapter V of the Unified
12Code of Corrections, the Court must proceed under Sections
135-705 and 5-710 of this Article. To request a hearing, the
14State must file a written motion within 10 days following the
15entry of a finding or the return of a verdict. Reasonable
16notice of the motion shall be given to the minor or his or her
17counsel. If the motion is made by the State, the court shall
18conduct a hearing to determine if whether the minor should be
19sentenced under Chapter V of the Unified Code of Corrections.
20In making its determination, the court shall consider among
21other matters: (a) whether there is evidence that the offense
22was committed in an aggressive and premeditated manner; (b) the
23age of the minor; (c) the previous delinquent history of the
24minor; (d) whether there are facilities particularly available
25to the Juvenile Court or the Department of Juvenile Justice for
26the treatment and rehabilitation of the minor; (e) whether the

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1security of the public requires sentencing under Chapter V of
2the Unified Code of Corrections; and (f) whether the minor
3possessed a deadly weapon when committing the offense. The
4rules of evidence shall be the same as if at trial. If after
5the hearing the court finds that the minor should be sentenced
6under Chapter V of the Unified Code of Corrections, then the
7court shall sentence the minor accordingly having available to
8it any or all dispositions so prescribed.
9 (6) The definition of delinquent minor under Section 5-120
10of this Article shall not apply to any minor who, pursuant to
11subsection (1) or (3) or Section 5-805 or 5-810, has previously
12been placed under the jurisdiction of the criminal court and
13has been convicted of a crime under an adult criminal or penal
14statute. Such a minor shall be subject to prosecution under the
15criminal laws of this State.
16 (7) The procedures set out in this Article for the
17investigation, arrest and prosecution of juvenile offenders
18shall not apply to minors who are excluded from jurisdiction of
19the Juvenile Court, except that minors under 18 years of age
20shall be kept separate from confined adults.
21 (8) Nothing in this Act prohibits or limits the prosecution
22of any minor for an offense committed on or after his or her
2318th birthday even though he or she is at the time of the
24offense a ward of the court.
25 (9) If an original petition for adjudication of wardship
26alleges the commission by a minor 13 years of age or over of an

09800SB2640ham001- 1623 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1act that constitutes a crime under the laws of this State, the
2minor, with the consent of his or her counsel, may, at any time
3before commencement of the adjudicatory hearing, file with the
4court a motion that criminal prosecution be ordered and that
5the petition be dismissed insofar as the act or acts involved
6in the criminal proceedings are concerned. If such a motion is
7filed as herein provided, the court shall enter its order
8accordingly.
9 (10) If, prior to August 12, 2005 (the effective date of
10Public Act 94-574), a minor is charged with a violation of
11Section 401 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act under the
12criminal laws of this State, other than a minor charged with a
13Class X felony violation of the Illinois Controlled Substances
14Act or the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection
15Act, any party including the minor or the court sua sponte may,
16before trial, move for a hearing for the purpose of trying and
17sentencing the minor as a delinquent minor. To request a
18hearing, the party must file a motion prior to trial.
19Reasonable notice of the motion shall be given to all parties.
20On its own motion or upon the filing of a motion by one of the
21parties including the minor, the court shall conduct a hearing
22to determine whether the minor should be tried and sentenced as
23a delinquent minor under this Article. In making its
24determination, the court shall consider among other matters:
25 (a) The age of the minor;
26 (b) Any previous delinquent or criminal history of the

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1 minor;
2 (c) Any previous abuse or neglect history of the minor;
3 (d) Any mental health or educational history of the
4 minor, or both; and
5 (e) Whether there is probable cause to support the
6 charge, whether the minor is charged through
7 accountability, and whether there is evidence the minor
8 possessed a deadly weapon or caused serious bodily harm
9 during the offense.
10 Any material that is relevant and reliable shall be
11admissible at the hearing. In all cases, the judge shall enter
12an order permitting prosecution under the criminal laws of
13Illinois unless the judge makes a finding based on a
14preponderance of the evidence that the minor would be amenable
15to the care, treatment, and training programs available through
16the facilities of the juvenile court based on an evaluation of
17the factors listed in this subsection (10).
18 (11) The changes made to this Section by Public Act 98-61
19this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly apply to a
20minor who has been arrested or taken into custody on or after
21January 1, 2014 (the effective date of Public Act 98-61) this
22amendatory Act.
23(Source: P.A. 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13; 98-61, eff. 1-1-14;
24revised 11-22-13.)
25 (705 ILCS 405/5-401.5)

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1 Sec. 5-401.5. When statements by minor may be used.
2 (a) In this Section, "custodial interrogation" means any
3interrogation (i) during which a reasonable person in the
4subject's position would consider himself or herself to be in
5custody and (ii) during which a question is asked that is
6reasonably likely to elicit an incriminating response.
7 In this Section, "electronic recording" includes motion
8picture, audiotape, videotape, or digital recording.
9 In this Section, "place of detention" means a building or a
10police station that is a place of operation for a municipal
11police department or county sheriff department or other law
12enforcement agency at which persons are or may be held in
13detention in connection with criminal charges against those
14persons or allegations that those persons are delinquent
15minors.
16 (b) An oral, written, or sign language statement of a minor
17who, at the time of the commission of the offense was under the
18age of 18 years, made as a result of a custodial interrogation
19conducted at a police station or other place of detention on or
20after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 93rd
21General Assembly shall be presumed to be inadmissible as
22evidence against the minor in any criminal proceeding or
23juvenile court proceeding, for an act that if committed by an
24adult would be brought under Section 9-1, 9-1.2, 9-2, 9-2.1,
259-3, 9-3.2, or 9-3.3, of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the
26Criminal Code of 2012, or under clause (d)(1)(F) of Section

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111-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code unless:
2 (1) an electronic recording is made of the custodial
3 interrogation; and
4 (2) the recording is substantially accurate and not
5 intentionally altered.
6 (b-5) Under the following circumstances, an oral, written,
7or sign language statement of a minor who, at the time of the
8commission of the offense was under the age of 17 years, made
9as a result of a custodial interrogation conducted at a police
10station or other place of detention shall be presumed to be
11inadmissible as evidence against the minor, unless an
12electronic recording is made of the custodial interrogation and
13the recording is substantially accurate and not intentionally
14altered:
15 (1) in any criminal proceeding or juvenile court
16 proceeding, for an act that if committed by an adult would
17 be brought under Section 11-1.40 or 20-1.1 of the Criminal
18 Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, if the custodial
19 interrogation was conducted on or after June 1, 2014;
20 (2) in any criminal proceeding or juvenile court
21 proceeding, for an act that if committed by an adult would
22 be brought under Section 10-2, 18-4, or 19-6 of the
23 Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, if the
24 custodial interrogation was conducted on or after June 1,
25 2015; and
26 (3) in any criminal proceeding or juvenile court

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1 proceeding, for an act that if committed by an adult would
2 be brought under Section 11-1.30 or 18-2 or subsection (e)
3 of Section 12-3.05 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the
4 Criminal Code of 2012, if the custodial interrogation was
5 conducted on or after June 1, 2016.
6 (b-10) If, during the course of an electronically recorded
7custodial interrogation conducted under this Section of a minor
8who, at the time of the commission of the offense was under the
9age of 17 years, the minor makes a statement that creates a
10reasonable suspicion to believe the minor has committed an act
11that if committed by an adult would be an offense other than an
12offense required to be recorded under subsection (b) or (b-5),
13the interrogators may, without the minor's consent, continue to
14record the interrogation as it relates to the other offense
15notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary. Any oral,
16written, or sign language statement of a minor made as a result
17of an interrogation under this subsection shall be presumed to
18be inadmissible as evidence against the minor in any criminal
19proceeding or juvenile court proceeding, unless the recording
20is substantially accurate and not intentionally altered.
21 (c) Every electronic recording made under this Section must
22be preserved until such time as the minor's adjudication for
23any offense relating to the statement is final and all direct
24and habeas corpus appeals are exhausted, or the prosecution of
25such offenses is barred by law.
26 (d) If the court finds, by a preponderance of the evidence,

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1that the minor was subjected to a custodial interrogation in
2violation of this Section, then any statements made by the
3minor during or following that non-recorded custodial
4interrogation, even if otherwise in compliance with this
5Section, are presumed to be inadmissible in any criminal
6proceeding or juvenile court proceeding against the minor
7except for the purposes of impeachment.
8 (e) Nothing in this Section precludes the admission (i) of
9a statement made by the minor in open court in any criminal
10proceeding or juvenile court proceeding, before a grand jury,
11or at a preliminary hearing, (ii) of a statement made during a
12custodial interrogation that was not recorded as required by
13this Section because electronic recording was not feasible,
14(iii) of a voluntary statement, whether or not the result of a
15custodial interrogation, that has a bearing on the credibility
16of the accused as a witness, (iv) of a spontaneous statement
17that is not made in response to a question, (v) of a statement
18made after questioning that is routinely asked during the
19processing of the arrest of the suspect, (vi) of a statement
20made during a custodial interrogation by a suspect who
21requests, prior to making the statement, to respond to the
22interrogator's questions only if an electronic recording is not
23made of the statement, provided that an electronic recording is
24made of the statement of agreeing to respond to the
25interrogator's question, only if a recording is not made of the
26statement, (vii) of a statement made during a custodial

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1interrogation that is conducted out-of-state, (viii) of a
2statement given in violation of subsection (b) at a time when
3the interrogators are unaware that a death has in fact
4occurred, (ix) of a statement given in violation of subsection
5(b-5) at a time when the interrogators are unaware of facts and
6circumstances that would create probable cause to believe that
7the minor committed an act that if committed by an adult would
8be an offense required to be recorded under subsection (b-5),
9or (x) of any other statement that may be admissible under law.
10The State shall bear the burden of proving, by a preponderance
11of the evidence, that one of the exceptions described in this
12subsection (e) is applicable. Nothing in this Section precludes
13the admission of a statement, otherwise inadmissible under this
14Section, that is used only for impeachment and not as
15substantive evidence.
16 (f) The presumption of inadmissibility of a statement made
17by a suspect at a custodial interrogation at a police station
18or other place of detention may be overcome by a preponderance
19of the evidence that the statement was voluntarily given and is
20reliable, based on the totality of the circumstances.
21 (g) Any electronic recording of any statement made by a
22minor during a custodial interrogation that is compiled by any
23law enforcement agency as required by this Section for the
24purposes of fulfilling the requirements of this Section shall
25be confidential and exempt from public inspection and copying,
26as provided under Section 7 of the Freedom of Information Act,

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1and the information shall not be transmitted to anyone except
2as needed to comply with this Section.
3 (h) A statement, admission, confession, or incriminating
4information made by or obtained from a minor related to the
5instant offense, as part of any behavioral health screening,
6assessment, evaluation, or treatment, whether or not
7court-ordered, shall not be admissible as evidence against the
8minor on the issue of guilt only in the instant juvenile court
9proceeding. The provisions of this subsection (h) are in
10addition to and do not override any existing statutory and
11constitutional prohibition on the admission into evidence in
12delinquency proceedings of information obtained during
13screening, assessment, or treatment.
14 (i) The changes made to this Section by Public Act 98-61
15this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly apply to
16statements of a minor made on or after January 1, 2014 (the
17effective date of Public Act 98-61) this amendatory Act.
18(Source: P.A. 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13; 98-61, eff. 1-1-14;
1998-547, eff. 1-1-14; revised 9-24-13.)
20 (705 ILCS 405/5-410)
21 Sec. 5-410. Non-secure custody or detention.
22 (1) Any minor arrested or taken into custody pursuant to
23this Act who requires care away from his or her home but who
24does not require physical restriction shall be given temporary
25care in a foster family home or other shelter facility

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1designated by the court.
2 (2) (a) Any minor 10 years of age or older arrested
3pursuant to this Act where there is probable cause to believe
4that the minor is a delinquent minor and that (i) secured
5custody is a matter of immediate and urgent necessity for the
6protection of the minor or of the person or property of
7another, (ii) the minor is likely to flee the jurisdiction of
8the court, or (iii) the minor was taken into custody under a
9warrant, may be kept or detained in an authorized detention
10facility. No minor under 12 years of age shall be detained in a
11county jail or a municipal lockup for more than 6 hours.
12 (b) The written authorization of the probation officer or
13detention officer (or other public officer designated by the
14court in a county having 3,000,000 or more inhabitants)
15constitutes authority for the superintendent of any juvenile
16detention home to detain and keep a minor for up to 40 hours,
17excluding Saturdays, Sundays and court-designated holidays.
18These records shall be available to the same persons and
19pursuant to the same conditions as are law enforcement records
20as provided in Section 5-905.
21 (b-4) The consultation required by subsection (b-5) shall
22not be applicable if the probation officer or detention officer
23(or other public officer designated by the court in a county
24having 3,000,000 or more inhabitants) utilizes a scorable
25detention screening instrument, which has been developed with
26input by the State's Attorney, to determine whether a minor

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1should be detained, however, subsection (b-5) shall still be
2applicable where no such screening instrument is used or where
3the probation officer, detention officer (or other public
4officer designated by the court in a county having 3,000,000 or
5more inhabitants) deviates from the screening instrument.
6 (b-5) Subject to the provisions of subsection (b-4), if a
7probation officer or detention officer (or other public officer
8designated by the court in a county having 3,000,000 or more
9inhabitants) does not intend to detain a minor for an offense
10which constitutes one of the following offenses he or she shall
11consult with the State's Attorney's Office prior to the release
12of the minor: first degree murder, second degree murder,
13involuntary manslaughter, criminal sexual assault, aggravated
14criminal sexual assault, aggravated battery with a firearm as
15described in Section 12-4.2 or subdivision (e)(1), (e)(2),
16(e)(3), or (e)(4) of Section 12-3.05, aggravated or heinous
17battery involving permanent disability or disfigurement or
18great bodily harm, robbery, aggravated robbery, armed robbery,
19vehicular hijacking, aggravated vehicular hijacking, vehicular
20invasion, arson, aggravated arson, kidnapping, aggravated
21kidnapping, home invasion, burglary, or residential burglary.
22 (c) Except as otherwise provided in paragraph (a), (d), or
23(e), no minor shall be detained in a county jail or municipal
24lockup for more than 12 hours, unless the offense is a crime of
25violence in which case the minor may be detained up to 24
26hours. For the purpose of this paragraph, "crime of violence"

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1has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 1-10 of the
2Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act.
3 (i) The period of detention is deemed to have begun
4 once the minor has been placed in a locked room or cell or
5 handcuffed to a stationary object in a building housing a
6 county jail or municipal lockup. Time spent transporting a
7 minor is not considered to be time in detention or secure
8 custody.
9 (ii) Any minor so confined shall be under periodic
10 supervision and shall not be permitted to come into or
11 remain in contact with adults in custody in the building.
12 (iii) Upon placement in secure custody in a jail or
13 lockup, the minor shall be informed of the purpose of the
14 detention, the time it is expected to last and the fact
15 that it cannot exceed the time specified under this Act.
16 (iv) A log shall be kept which shows the offense which
17 is the basis for the detention, the reasons and
18 circumstances for the decision to detain and the length of
19 time the minor was in detention.
20 (v) Violation of the time limit on detention in a
21 county jail or municipal lockup shall not, in and of
22 itself, render inadmissible evidence obtained as a result
23 of the violation of this time limit. Minors under 18 years
24 of age shall be kept separate from confined adults and may
25 not at any time be kept in the same cell, room or yard with
26 adults confined pursuant to criminal law. Persons 18 years

09800SB2640ham001- 1634 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 of age and older who have a petition of delinquency filed
2 against them may be confined in an adult detention
3 facility. In making a determination whether to confine a
4 person 18 years of age or older who has a petition of
5 delinquency filed against the person, these factors, among
6 other matters, shall be considered:
7 (A) The age of the person;
8 (B) Any previous delinquent or criminal history of
9 the person;
10 (C) Any previous abuse or neglect history of the
11 person; and
12 (D) Any mental health or educational history of the
13 person, or both.
14 (d) (i) If a minor 12 years of age or older is confined in a
15county jail in a county with a population below 3,000,000
16inhabitants, then the minor's confinement shall be implemented
17in such a manner that there will be no contact by sight, sound
18or otherwise between the minor and adult prisoners. Minors 12
19years of age or older must be kept separate from confined
20adults and may not at any time be kept in the same cell, room,
21or yard with confined adults. This paragraph (d)(i) shall only
22apply to confinement pending an adjudicatory hearing and shall
23not exceed 40 hours, excluding Saturdays, Sundays and court
24designated holidays. To accept or hold minors during this time
25period, county jails shall comply with all monitoring standards
26promulgated by the Department of Corrections and training

09800SB2640ham001- 1635 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1standards approved by the Illinois Law Enforcement Training
2Standards Board.
3 (ii) To accept or hold minors, 12 years of age or older,
4after the time period prescribed in paragraph (d)(i) of this
5subsection (2) of this Section but not exceeding 7 days
6including Saturdays, Sundays and holidays pending an
7adjudicatory hearing, county jails shall comply with all
8temporary detention standards promulgated by the Department of
9Corrections and training standards approved by the Illinois Law
10Enforcement Training Standards Board.
11 (iii) To accept or hold minors 12 years of age or older,
12after the time period prescribed in paragraphs (d)(i) and
13(d)(ii) of this subsection (2) of this Section, county jails
14shall comply with all programmatic and training standards for
15juvenile detention homes promulgated by the Department of
16Corrections.
17 (e) When a minor who is at least 15 years of age is
18prosecuted under the criminal laws of this State, the court may
19enter an order directing that the juvenile be confined in the
20county jail. However, any juvenile confined in the county jail
21under this provision shall be separated from adults who are
22confined in the county jail in such a manner that there will be
23no contact by sight, sound or otherwise between the juvenile
24and adult prisoners.
25 (f) For purposes of appearing in a physical lineup, the
26minor may be taken to a county jail or municipal lockup under

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1the direct and constant supervision of a juvenile police
2officer. During such time as is necessary to conduct a lineup,
3and while supervised by a juvenile police officer, the sight
4and sound separation provisions shall not apply.
5 (g) For purposes of processing a minor, the minor may be
6taken to a County Jail or municipal lockup under the direct and
7constant supervision of a law enforcement officer or
8correctional officer. During such time as is necessary to
9process the minor, and while supervised by a law enforcement
10officer or correctional officer, the sight and sound separation
11provisions shall not apply.
12 (3) If the probation officer or State's Attorney (or such
13other public officer designated by the court in a county having
143,000,000 or more inhabitants) determines that the minor may be
15a delinquent minor as described in subsection (3) of Section
165-105, and should be retained in custody but does not require
17physical restriction, the minor may be placed in non-secure
18custody for up to 40 hours pending a detention hearing.
19 (4) Any minor taken into temporary custody, not requiring
20secure detention, may, however, be detained in the home of his
21or her parent or guardian subject to such conditions as the
22court may impose.
23 (5) The changes made to this Section by Public Act 98-61
24this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly apply to a
25minor who has been arrested or taken into custody on or after
26January 1, 2014 (the effective date of Public Act 98-61) this

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1amendatory Act.
2(Source: P.A. 98-61, eff. 1-1-14; revised 11-22-13.)
3 (705 ILCS 405/5-901)
4 Sec. 5-901. Court file.
5 (1) The Court file with respect to proceedings under this
6Article shall consist of the petitions, pleadings, victim
7impact statements, process, service of process, orders, writs
8and docket entries reflecting hearings held and judgments and
9decrees entered by the court. The court file shall be kept
10separate from other records of the court.
11 (a) The file, including information identifying the
12 victim or alleged victim of any sex offense, shall be
13 disclosed only to the following parties when necessary for
14 discharge of their official duties:
15 (i) A judge of the circuit court and members of the
16 staff of the court designated by the judge;
17 (ii) Parties to the proceedings and their
18 attorneys;
19 (iii) Victims and their attorneys, except in cases
20 of multiple victims of sex offenses in which case the
21 information identifying the nonrequesting victims
22 shall be redacted;
23 (iv) Probation officers, law enforcement officers
24 or prosecutors or their staff;
25 (v) Adult and juvenile Prisoner Review Boards.

09800SB2640ham001- 1638 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 (b) The Court file redacted to remove any information
2 identifying the victim or alleged victim of any sex offense
3 shall be disclosed only to the following parties when
4 necessary for discharge of their official duties:
5 (i) Authorized military personnel;
6 (ii) Persons engaged in bona fide research, with
7 the permission of the judge of the juvenile court and
8 the chief executive of the agency that prepared the
9 particular recording: provided that publication of
10 such research results in no disclosure of a minor's
11 identity and protects the confidentiality of the
12 record;
13 (iii) The Secretary of State to whom the Clerk of
14 the Court shall report the disposition of all cases, as
15 required in Section 6-204 or Section 6-205.1 of the
16 Illinois Vehicle Code. However, information reported
17 relative to these offenses shall be privileged and
18 available only to the Secretary of State, courts, and
19 police officers;
20 (iv) The administrator of a bonafide substance
21 abuse student assistance program with the permission
22 of the presiding judge of the juvenile court;
23 (v) Any individual, or any public or private agency
24 or institution, having custody of the juvenile under
25 court order or providing educational, medical or
26 mental health services to the juvenile or a

09800SB2640ham001- 1639 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 court-approved advocate for the juvenile or any
2 placement provider or potential placement provider as
3 determined by the court.
4 (3) A minor who is the victim or alleged victim in a
5juvenile proceeding shall be provided the same confidentiality
6regarding disclosure of identity as the minor who is the
7subject of record. Information identifying victims and alleged
8victims of sex offenses, shall not be disclosed or open to
9public inspection under any circumstances. Nothing in this
10Section shall prohibit the victim or alleged victim of any sex
11offense from voluntarily disclosing his or her identity.
12 (4) Relevant information, reports and records shall be made
13available to the Department of Juvenile Justice when a juvenile
14offender has been placed in the custody of the Department of
15Juvenile Justice.
16 (5) Except as otherwise provided in this subsection (5),
17juvenile court records shall not be made available to the
18general public but may be inspected by representatives of
19agencies, associations and news media or other properly
20interested persons by general or special order of the court.
21The State's Attorney, the minor, his or her parents, guardian
22and counsel shall at all times have the right to examine court
23files and records.
24 (a) The court shall allow the general public to have
25 access to the name, address, and offense of a minor who is
26 adjudicated a delinquent minor under this Act under either

09800SB2640ham001- 1640 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 of the following circumstances:
2 (i) The adjudication of delinquency was based upon
3 the minor's commission of first degree murder, attempt
4 to commit first degree murder, aggravated criminal
5 sexual assault, or criminal sexual assault; or
6 (ii) The court has made a finding that the minor
7 was at least 13 years of age at the time the act was
8 committed and the adjudication of delinquency was
9 based upon the minor's commission of: (A) an act in
10 furtherance of the commission of a felony as a member
11 of or on behalf of a criminal street gang, (B) an act
12 involving the use of a firearm in the commission of a
13 felony, (C) an act that would be a Class X felony
14 offense under or the minor's second or subsequent Class
15 2 or greater felony offense under the Cannabis Control
16 Act if committed by an adult, (D) an act that would be
17 a second or subsequent offense under Section 402 of the
18 Illinois Controlled Substances Act if committed by an
19 adult, (E) an act that would be an offense under
20 Section 401 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act
21 if committed by an adult, or (F) an act that would be
22 an offense under the Methamphetamine Control and
23 Community Protection Act if committed by an adult.
24 (b) The court shall allow the general public to have
25 access to the name, address, and offense of a minor who is
26 at least 13 years of age at the time the offense is

09800SB2640ham001- 1641 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 committed and who is convicted, in criminal proceedings
2 permitted or required under Section 5-805, under either of
3 the following circumstances:
4 (i) The minor has been convicted of first degree
5 murder, attempt to commit first degree murder,
6 aggravated criminal sexual assault, or criminal sexual
7 assault,
8 (ii) The court has made a finding that the minor
9 was at least 13 years of age at the time the offense
10 was committed and the conviction was based upon the
11 minor's commission of: (A) an offense in furtherance of
12 the commission of a felony as a member of or on behalf
13 of a criminal street gang, (B) an offense involving the
14 use of a firearm in the commission of a felony, (C) a
15 Class X felony offense under the Cannabis Control Act
16 or a second or subsequent Class 2 or greater felony
17 offense under the Cannabis Control Act, (D) a second or
18 subsequent offense under Section 402 of the Illinois
19 Controlled Substances Act, (E) an offense under
20 Section 401 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act,
21 or (F) an offense under the Methamphetamine Control and
22 Community Protection Act.
23 (6) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to limit the
24use of a adjudication of delinquency as evidence in any
25juvenile or criminal proceeding, where it would otherwise be
26admissible under the rules of evidence, including but not

09800SB2640ham001- 1642 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1limited to, use as impeachment evidence against any witness,
2including the minor if he or she testifies.
3 (7) Nothing in this Section shall affect the right of a
4Civil Service Commission or appointing authority examining the
5character and fitness of an applicant for a position as a law
6enforcement officer to ascertain whether that applicant was
7ever adjudicated to be a delinquent minor and, if so, to
8examine the records or evidence which were made in proceedings
9under this Act.
10 (8) Following any adjudication of delinquency for a crime
11which would be a felony if committed by an adult, or following
12any adjudication of delinquency for a violation of Section
1324-1, 24-3, 24-3.1, or 24-5 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the
14Criminal Code of 2012, the State's Attorney shall ascertain
15whether the minor respondent is enrolled in school and, if so,
16shall provide a copy of the sentencing order to the principal
17or chief administrative officer of the school. Access to such
18juvenile records shall be limited to the principal or chief
19administrative officer of the school and any guidance counselor
20designated by him or her.
21 (9) Nothing contained in this Act prevents the sharing or
22disclosure of information or records relating or pertaining to
23juveniles subject to the provisions of the Serious Habitual
24Offender Comprehensive Action Program when that information is
25used to assist in the early identification and treatment of
26habitual juvenile offenders.

09800SB2640ham001- 1643 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 (11) The Clerk of the Circuit Court shall report to the
2Department of State Police, in the form and manner required by
3the Department of State Police, the final disposition of each
4minor who has been arrested or taken into custody before his or
5her 18th birthday for those offenses required to be reported
6under Section 5 of the Criminal Identification Act. Information
7reported to the Department under this Section may be maintained
8with records that the Department files under Section 2.1 of the
9Criminal Identification Act.
10 (12) Information or records may be disclosed to the general
11public when the court is conducting hearings under Section
125-805 or 5-810.
13 (13) The changes made to this Section by Public Act 98-61
14this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly apply to
15juvenile court records of a minor who has been arrested or
16taken into custody on or after January 1, 2014 (the effective
17date of Public Act 98-61) this amendatory Act.
18(Source: P.A. 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13; 98-61, eff. 1-1-14;
19revised 11-22-13.)
20 (705 ILCS 405/5-905)
21 Sec. 5-905. Law enforcement records.
22 (1) Law Enforcement Records. Inspection and copying of law
23enforcement records maintained by law enforcement agencies
24that relate to a minor who has been arrested or taken into
25custody before his or her 18th birthday shall be restricted to

09800SB2640ham001- 1644 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1the following and when necessary for the discharge of their
2official duties:
3 (a) A judge of the circuit court and members of the
4 staff of the court designated by the judge;
5 (b) Law enforcement officers, probation officers or
6 prosecutors or their staff, or, when necessary for the
7 discharge of its official duties in connection with a
8 particular investigation of the conduct of a law
9 enforcement officer, an independent agency or its staff
10 created by ordinance and charged by a unit of local
11 government with the duty of investigating the conduct of
12 law enforcement officers;
13 (c) The minor, the minor's parents or legal guardian
14 and their attorneys, but only when the juvenile has been
15 charged with an offense;
16 (d) Adult and Juvenile Prisoner Review Boards;
17 (e) Authorized military personnel;
18 (f) Persons engaged in bona fide research, with the
19 permission of the judge of juvenile court and the chief
20 executive of the agency that prepared the particular
21 recording: provided that publication of such research
22 results in no disclosure of a minor's identity and protects
23 the confidentiality of the record;
24 (g) Individuals responsible for supervising or
25 providing temporary or permanent care and custody of minors
26 pursuant to orders of the juvenile court or directives from

09800SB2640ham001- 1645 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 officials of the Department of Children and Family Services
2 or the Department of Human Services who certify in writing
3 that the information will not be disclosed to any other
4 party except as provided under law or order of court;
5 (h) The appropriate school official only if the agency
6 or officer believes that there is an imminent threat of
7 physical harm to students, school personnel, or others who
8 are present in the school or on school grounds.
9 (A) Inspection and copying shall be limited to law
10 enforcement records transmitted to the appropriate
11 school official or officials whom the school has
12 determined to have a legitimate educational or safety
13 interest by a local law enforcement agency under a
14 reciprocal reporting system established and maintained
15 between the school district and the local law
16 enforcement agency under Section 10-20.14 of the
17 School Code concerning a minor enrolled in a school
18 within the school district who has been arrested or
19 taken into custody for any of the following offenses:
20 (i) any violation of Article 24 of the Criminal
21 Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012;
22 (ii) a violation of the Illinois Controlled
23 Substances Act;
24 (iii) a violation of the Cannabis Control Act;
25 (iv) a forcible felony as defined in Section
26 2-8 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal

09800SB2640ham001- 1646 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 Code of 2012;
2 (v) a violation of the Methamphetamine Control
3 and Community Protection Act;
4 (vi) a violation of Section 1-2 of the
5 Harassing and Obscene Communications Act;
6 (vii) a violation of the Hazing Act; or
7 (viii) a violation of Section 12-1, 12-2,
8 12-3, 12-3.05, 12-3.1, 12-3.2, 12-3.4, 12-3.5,
9 12-5, 12-7.3, 12-7.4, 12-7.5, 25-1, or 25-5 of the
10 Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.
11 The information derived from the law enforcement
12 records shall be kept separate from and shall not
13 become a part of the official school record of that
14 child and shall not be a public record. The information
15 shall be used solely by the appropriate school official
16 or officials whom the school has determined to have a
17 legitimate educational or safety interest to aid in the
18 proper rehabilitation of the child and to protect the
19 safety of students and employees in the school. If the
20 designated law enforcement and school officials deem
21 it to be in the best interest of the minor, the student
22 may be referred to in-school or community based social
23 services if those services are available.
24 "Rehabilitation services" may include interventions by
25 school support personnel, evaluation for eligibility
26 for special education, referrals to community-based

09800SB2640ham001- 1647 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 agencies such as youth services, behavioral healthcare
2 service providers, drug and alcohol prevention or
3 treatment programs, and other interventions as deemed
4 appropriate for the student.
5 (B) Any information provided to appropriate school
6 officials whom the school has determined to have a
7 legitimate educational or safety interest by local law
8 enforcement officials about a minor who is the subject
9 of a current police investigation that is directly
10 related to school safety shall consist of oral
11 information only, and not written law enforcement
12 records, and shall be used solely by the appropriate
13 school official or officials to protect the safety of
14 students and employees in the school and aid in the
15 proper rehabilitation of the child. The information
16 derived orally from the local law enforcement
17 officials shall be kept separate from and shall not
18 become a part of the official school record of the
19 child and shall not be a public record. This limitation
20 on the use of information about a minor who is the
21 subject of a current police investigation shall in no
22 way limit the use of this information by prosecutors in
23 pursuing criminal charges arising out of the
24 information disclosed during a police investigation of
25 the minor. For purposes of this paragraph,
26 "investigation" means an official systematic inquiry

09800SB2640ham001- 1648 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 by a law enforcement agency into actual or suspected
2 criminal activity;
3 (i) The president of a park district. Inspection and
4 copying shall be limited to law enforcement records
5 transmitted to the president of the park district by the
6 Illinois State Police under Section 8-23 of the Park
7 District Code or Section 16a-5 of the Chicago Park District
8 Act concerning a person who is seeking employment with that
9 park district and who has been adjudicated a juvenile
10 delinquent for any of the offenses listed in subsection (c)
11 of Section 8-23 of the Park District Code or subsection (c)
12 of Section 16a-5 of the Chicago Park District Act.
13 (2) Information identifying victims and alleged victims of
14sex offenses, shall not be disclosed or open to public
15inspection under any circumstances. Nothing in this Section
16shall prohibit the victim or alleged victim of any sex offense
17from voluntarily disclosing his or her identity.
18 (2.5) If the minor is a victim of aggravated battery,
19battery, attempted first degree murder, or other non-sexual
20violent offense, the identity of the victim may be disclosed to
21appropriate school officials, for the purpose of preventing
22foreseeable future violence involving minors, by a local law
23enforcement agency pursuant to an agreement established
24between the school district and a local law enforcement agency
25subject to the approval by the presiding judge of the juvenile
26court.

09800SB2640ham001- 1649 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 (3) Relevant information, reports and records shall be made
2available to the Department of Juvenile Justice when a juvenile
3offender has been placed in the custody of the Department of
4Juvenile Justice.
5 (4) Nothing in this Section shall prohibit the inspection
6or disclosure to victims and witnesses of photographs contained
7in the records of law enforcement agencies when the inspection
8or disclosure is conducted in the presence of a law enforcement
9officer for purposes of identification or apprehension of any
10person in the course of any criminal investigation or
11prosecution.
12 (5) The records of law enforcement officers, or of an
13independent agency created by ordinance and charged by a unit
14of local government with the duty of investigating the conduct
15of law enforcement officers, concerning all minors under 18
16years of age must be maintained separate from the records of
17adults and may not be open to public inspection or their
18contents disclosed to the public except by order of the court
19or when the institution of criminal proceedings has been
20permitted under Section 5-130 or 5-805 or required under
21Section 5-130 or 5-805 or such a person has been convicted of a
22crime and is the subject of pre-sentence investigation or when
23provided by law.
24 (6) Except as otherwise provided in this subsection (6),
25law enforcement officers, and personnel of an independent
26agency created by ordinance and charged by a unit of local

09800SB2640ham001- 1650 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1government with the duty of investigating the conduct of law
2enforcement officers, may not disclose the identity of any
3minor in releasing information to the general public as to the
4arrest, investigation or disposition of any case involving a
5minor. Any victim or parent or legal guardian of a victim may
6petition the court to disclose the name and address of the
7minor and the minor's parents or legal guardian, or both. Upon
8a finding by clear and convincing evidence that the disclosure
9is either necessary for the victim to pursue a civil remedy
10against the minor or the minor's parents or legal guardian, or
11both, or to protect the victim's person or property from the
12minor, then the court may order the disclosure of the
13information to the victim or to the parent or legal guardian of
14the victim only for the purpose of the victim pursuing a civil
15remedy against the minor or the minor's parents or legal
16guardian, or both, or to protect the victim's person or
17property from the minor.
18 (7) Nothing contained in this Section shall prohibit law
19enforcement agencies when acting in their official capacity
20from communicating with each other by letter, memorandum,
21teletype or intelligence alert bulletin or other means the
22identity or other relevant information pertaining to a person
23under 18 years of age. The information provided under this
24subsection (7) shall remain confidential and shall not be
25publicly disclosed, except as otherwise allowed by law.
26 (8) No person shall disclose information under this Section

09800SB2640ham001- 1651 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1except when acting in his or her official capacity and as
2provided by law or order of court.
3 (9) The changes made to this Section by Public Act 98-61
4this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly apply to law
5enforcement records of a minor who has been arrested or taken
6into custody on or after January 1, 2014 (the effective date of
7Public Act 98-61) this amendatory Act.
8(Source: P.A. 97-700, eff. 6-22-12; 97-1104, eff. 1-1-13;
997-1150, eff. 1-25-13; 98-61, eff. 1-1-14; revised 11-22-13.)
10 (705 ILCS 405/5-915)
11 Sec. 5-915. Expungement of juvenile law enforcement and
12court records.
13 (0.05) For purposes of this Section and Section 5-622:
14 "Expunge" means to physically destroy the records and
15 to obliterate the minor's name from any official index or
16 public record, or both. Nothing in this Act shall require
17 the physical destruction of the internal office records,
18 files, or databases maintained by a State's Attorney's
19 Office or other prosecutor.
20 "Law enforcement record" includes but is not limited to
21 records of arrest, station adjustments, fingerprints,
22 probation adjustments, the issuance of a notice to appear,
23 or any other records maintained by a law enforcement agency
24 relating to a minor suspected of committing an offense.
25 (1) Whenever any person has attained the age of 18 or

09800SB2640ham001- 1652 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1whenever all juvenile court proceedings relating to that person
2have been terminated, whichever is later, the person may
3petition the court to expunge law enforcement records relating
4to incidents occurring before his or her 18th birthday or his
5or her juvenile court records, or both, but only in the
6following circumstances:
7 (a) the minor was arrested and no petition for
8 delinquency was filed with the clerk of the circuit court;
9 or
10 (b) the minor was charged with an offense and was found
11 not delinquent of that offense; or
12 (c) the minor was placed under supervision pursuant to
13 Section 5-615, and the order of supervision has since been
14 successfully terminated; or
15 (d) the minor was adjudicated for an offense which
16 would be a Class B misdemeanor, Class C misdemeanor, or a
17 petty or business offense if committed by an adult.
18 (2) Any person may petition the court to expunge all law
19enforcement records relating to any incidents occurring before
20his or her 18th birthday which did not result in proceedings in
21criminal court and all juvenile court records with respect to
22any adjudications except those based upon first degree murder
23and sex offenses which would be felonies if committed by an
24adult, if the person for whom expungement is sought has had no
25convictions for any crime since his or her 18th birthday and:
26 (a) has attained the age of 21 years; or

09800SB2640ham001- 1653 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 (b) 5 years have elapsed since all juvenile court
2 proceedings relating to him or her have been terminated or
3 his or her commitment to the Department of Juvenile Justice
4 pursuant to this Act has been terminated;
5whichever is later of (a) or (b). Nothing in this Section 5-915
6precludes a minor from obtaining expungement under Section
75-622.
8 (2.5) If a minor is arrested and no petition for
9delinquency is filed with the clerk of the circuit court as
10provided in paragraph (a) of subsection (1) at the time the
11minor is released from custody, the youth officer, if
12applicable, or other designated person from the arresting
13agency, shall notify verbally and in writing to the minor or
14the minor's parents or guardians that if the State's Attorney
15does not file a petition for delinquency, the minor has a right
16to petition to have his or her arrest record expunged when the
17minor attains the age of 18 or when all juvenile court
18proceedings relating to that minor have been terminated and
19that unless a petition to expunge is filed, the minor shall
20have an arrest record and shall provide the minor and the
21minor's parents or guardians with an expungement information
22packet, including a petition to expunge juvenile records
23obtained from the clerk of the circuit court.
24 (2.6) If a minor is charged with an offense and is found
25not delinquent of that offense; or if a minor is placed under
26supervision under Section 5-615, and the order of supervision

09800SB2640ham001- 1654 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1is successfully terminated; or if a minor is adjudicated for an
2offense that would be a Class B misdemeanor, a Class C
3misdemeanor, or a business or petty offense if committed by an
4adult; or if a minor has incidents occurring before his or her
518th birthday that have not resulted in proceedings in criminal
6court, or resulted in proceedings in juvenile court, and the
7adjudications were not based upon first degree murder or sex
8offenses that would be felonies if committed by an adult; then
9at the time of sentencing or dismissal of the case, the judge
10shall inform the delinquent minor of his or her right to
11petition for expungement as provided by law, and the clerk of
12the circuit court shall provide an expungement information
13packet to the delinquent minor, written in plain language,
14including a petition for expungement, a sample of a completed
15petition, expungement instructions that shall include
16information informing the minor that (i) once the case is
17expunged, it shall be treated as if it never occurred, (ii) he
18or she may apply to have petition fees waived, (iii) once he or
19she obtains an expungement, he or she may not be required to
20disclose that he or she had a juvenile record, and (iv) he or
21she may file the petition on his or her own or with the
22assistance of an attorney. The failure of the judge to inform
23the delinquent minor of his or her right to petition for
24expungement as provided by law does not create a substantive
25right, nor is that failure grounds for: (i) a reversal of an
26adjudication of delinquency, (ii) a new trial; or (iii) an

09800SB2640ham001- 1655 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1appeal.
2 (2.7) For counties with a population over 3,000,000, the
3clerk of the circuit court shall send a "Notification of a
4Possible Right to Expungement" post card to the minor at the
5address last received by the clerk of the circuit court on the
6date that the minor attains the age of 18 based on the
7birthdate provided to the court by the minor or his or her
8guardian in cases under paragraphs (b), (c), and (d) of
9subsection (1); and when the minor attains the age of 21 based
10on the birthdate provided to the court by the minor or his or
11her guardian in cases under subsection (2).
12 (2.8) The petition for expungement for subsection (1) shall
13be substantially in the following form:
14
IN THE CIRCUIT COURT OF ......, ILLINOIS
15
........ JUDICIAL CIRCUIT
16IN THE INTEREST OF ) NO.
17 )
18 )
19...................)
20(Name of Petitioner)
21
PETITION TO EXPUNGE JUVENILE RECORDS
22
(705 ILCS 405/5-915 (SUBSECTION 1))
23
(Please prepare a separate petition for each offense)
24Now comes ............., petitioner, and respectfully requests

09800SB2640ham001- 1656 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1that this Honorable Court enter an order expunging all juvenile
2law enforcement and court records of petitioner and in support
3thereof states that: Petitioner has attained the age of 18,
4his/her birth date being ......, or all Juvenile Court
5proceedings terminated as of ......, whichever occurred later.
6Petitioner was arrested on ..... by the ....... Police
7Department for the offense of ......., and:
8(Check One:)
9( ) a. no petition was filed with the Clerk of the Circuit
10Court.
11( ) b. was charged with ...... and was found not delinquent of
12the offense.
13( ) c. a petition was filed and the petition was dismissed
14without a finding of delinquency on .....
15( ) d. on ....... placed under supervision pursuant to Section
165-615 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 and such order of
17supervision successfully terminated on ........
18( ) e. was adjudicated for the offense, which would have been a
19Class B misdemeanor, a Class C misdemeanor, or a petty offense
20or business offense if committed by an adult.
21Petitioner .... has .... has not been arrested on charges in
22this or any county other than the charges listed above. If
23petitioner has been arrested on additional charges, please list
24the charges below:
25Charge(s): ......
26Arresting Agency or Agencies: ...........

09800SB2640ham001- 1657 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1Disposition/Result: (choose from a. through e., above): .....
2WHEREFORE, the petitioner respectfully requests this Honorable
3Court to (1) order all law enforcement agencies to expunge all
4records of petitioner to this incident, and (2) to order the
5Clerk of the Court to expunge all records concerning the
6petitioner regarding this incident.
7
......................
8
Petitioner (Signature)
9
..........................
10
Petitioner's Street Address
11
.....................
12
City, State, Zip Code
13
.............................
14
Petitioner's Telephone Number
15Pursuant to the penalties of perjury under the Code of Civil
16Procedure, 735 ILCS 5/1-109, I hereby certify that the
17statements in this petition are true and correct, or on
18information and belief I believe the same to be true.
19
......................
20
Petitioner (Signature)

09800SB2640ham001- 1658 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1The Petition for Expungement for subsection (2) shall be
2substantially in the following form:
3
IN THE CIRCUIT COURT OF ........, ILLINOIS
4
........ JUDICIAL CIRCUIT
5IN THE INTEREST OF ) NO.
6 )
7 )
8...................)
9(Name of Petitioner)
10
PETITION TO EXPUNGE JUVENILE RECORDS
11
(705 ILCS 405/5-915 (SUBSECTION 2))
12
(Please prepare a separate petition for each offense)
13Now comes ............, petitioner, and respectfully requests
14that this Honorable Court enter an order expunging all Juvenile
15Law Enforcement and Court records of petitioner and in support
16thereof states that:
17The incident for which the Petitioner seeks expungement
18occurred before the Petitioner's 18th birthday and did not
19result in proceedings in criminal court and the Petitioner has
20not had any convictions for any crime since his/her 18th
21birthday; and
22The incident for which the Petitioner seeks expungement
23occurred before the Petitioner's 18th birthday and the

09800SB2640ham001- 1659 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1adjudication was not based upon first-degree murder or sex
2offenses which would be felonies if committed by an adult, and
3the Petitioner has not had any convictions for any crime since
4his/her 18th birthday.
5Petitioner was arrested on ...... by the ....... Police
6Department for the offense of ........, and:
7(Check whichever one occurred the latest:)
8( ) a. The Petitioner has attained the age of 21 years, his/her
9birthday being .......; or
10( ) b. 5 years have elapsed since all juvenile court
11proceedings relating to the Petitioner have been terminated; or
12the Petitioner's commitment to the Department of Juvenile
13Justice pursuant to the expungement of juvenile law enforcement
14and court records provisions of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987
15has been terminated. Petitioner ...has ...has not been arrested
16on charges in this or any other county other than the charge
17listed above. If petitioner has been arrested on additional
18charges, please list the charges below:
19Charge(s): ..........
20Arresting Agency or Agencies: .......
21Disposition/Result: (choose from a or b, above): ..........
22WHEREFORE, the petitioner respectfully requests this Honorable
23Court to (1) order all law enforcement agencies to expunge all
24records of petitioner related to this incident, and (2) to
25order the Clerk of the Court to expunge all records concerning
26the petitioner regarding this incident.

09800SB2640ham001- 1660 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1
.......................
2
Petitioner (Signature)
3
......................
4
Petitioner's Street Address
5
.....................
6
City, State, Zip Code
7
.............................
8
Petitioner's Telephone Number
9Pursuant to the penalties of perjury under the Code of Civil
10Procedure, 735 ILCS 5/1-109, I hereby certify that the
11statements in this petition are true and correct, or on
12information and belief I believe the same to be true.
13
......................
14
Petitioner (Signature)
15 (3) The chief judge of the circuit in which an arrest was
16made or a charge was brought or any judge of that circuit
17designated by the chief judge may, upon verified petition of a
18person who is the subject of an arrest or a juvenile court
19proceeding under subsection (1) or (2) of this Section, order
20the law enforcement records or official court file, or both, to
21be expunged from the official records of the arresting
22authority, the clerk of the circuit court and the Department of

09800SB2640ham001- 1661 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1State Police. The person whose records are to be expunged shall
2petition the court using the appropriate form containing his or
3her current address and shall promptly notify the clerk of the
4circuit court of any change of address. Notice of the petition
5shall be served upon the State's Attorney or prosecutor charged
6with the duty of prosecuting the offense, the Department of
7State Police, and the arresting agency or agencies by the clerk
8of the circuit court. If an objection is filed within 45 days
9of the notice of the petition, the clerk of the circuit court
10shall set a date for hearing after the 45 day objection period.
11At the hearing the court shall hear evidence on whether the
12expungement should or should not be granted. Unless the State's
13Attorney or prosecutor, the Department of State Police, or an
14arresting agency objects to the expungement within 45 days of
15the notice, the court may enter an order granting expungement.
16The person whose records are to be expunged shall pay the clerk
17of the circuit court a fee equivalent to the cost associated
18with expungement of records by the clerk and the Department of
19State Police. The clerk shall forward a certified copy of the
20order to the Department of State Police, the appropriate
21portion of the fee to the Department of State Police for
22processing, and deliver a certified copy of the order to the
23arresting agency.
24 (3.1) The Notice of Expungement shall be in substantially
25the following form:
26
IN THE CIRCUIT COURT OF ....., ILLINOIS

09800SB2640ham001- 1662 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1
.... JUDICIAL CIRCUIT
2IN THE INTEREST OF ) NO.
3 )
4 )
5...................)
6(Name of Petitioner)
7
NOTICE
8TO: State's Attorney
9TO: Arresting Agency
10
11................
12................
13
14................
15................
16TO: Illinois State Police
17
18.....................
19
20.....................
21ATTENTION: Expungement
22You are hereby notified that on ....., at ....., in courtroom
23..., located at ..., before the Honorable ..., Judge, or any
24judge sitting in his/her stead, I shall then and there present

09800SB2640ham001- 1663 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1a Petition to Expunge Juvenile records in the above-entitled
2matter, at which time and place you may appear.
3
......................
4
Petitioner's Signature
5
...........................
6
Petitioner's Street Address
7
.....................
8
City, State, Zip Code
9
.............................
10
Petitioner's Telephone Number
11
PROOF OF SERVICE
12On the ....... day of ......, 20..., I on oath state that I
13served this notice and true and correct copies of the
14above-checked documents by:
15(Check One:)
16delivering copies personally to each entity to whom they are
17directed;
18or
19by mailing copies to each entity to whom they are directed by
20depositing the same in the U.S. Mail, proper postage fully
21prepaid, before the hour of 5:00 p.m., at the United States
22Postal Depository located at .................
23
.........................................
24
25Signature
26
Clerk of the Circuit Court or Deputy Clerk

09800SB2640ham001- 1664 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1Printed Name of Delinquent Minor/Petitioner: ....
2Address: ........................................
3Telephone Number: ...............................
4 (3.2) The Order of Expungement shall be in substantially
5the following form:
6
IN THE CIRCUIT COURT OF ....., ILLINOIS
7
.... JUDICIAL CIRCUIT
8IN THE INTEREST OF ) NO.
9 )
10 )
11...................)
12(Name of Petitioner)
13DOB ................
14Arresting Agency/Agencies ......
15
ORDER OF EXPUNGEMENT
16
(705 ILCS 405/5-915 (SUBSECTION 3))
17This matter having been heard on the petitioner's motion and
18the court being fully advised in the premises does find that
19the petitioner is indigent or has presented reasonable cause to
20waive all costs in this matter, IT IS HEREBY ORDERED that:
21 ( ) 1. Clerk of Court and Department of State Police costs
22are hereby waived in this matter.
23 ( ) 2. The Illinois State Police Bureau of Identification
24and the following law enforcement agencies expunge all records

09800SB2640ham001- 1665 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1of petitioner relating to an arrest dated ...... for the
2offense of ......
3
Law Enforcement Agencies:
4
.........................
5
.........................
6 ( ) 3. IT IS FURTHER ORDERED that the Clerk of the Circuit
7Court expunge all records regarding the above-captioned case.
8
ENTER: ......................
9
10JUDGE
11DATED: .......
12Name:
13Attorney for:
14Address: City/State/Zip:
15Attorney Number:
16 (3.3) The Notice of Objection shall be in substantially the
17following form:
18
IN THE CIRCUIT COURT OF ....., ILLINOIS
19
....................... JUDICIAL CIRCUIT
20IN THE INTEREST OF ) NO.
21 )
22 )
23...................)
24(Name of Petitioner)

09800SB2640ham001- 1666 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1
NOTICE OF OBJECTION
2TO:(Attorney, Public Defender, Minor)
3.................................
4.................................
5TO:(Illinois State Police)
6.................................
7.................................
8TO:(Clerk of the Court)
9.................................
10.................................
11TO:(Judge)
12.................................
13.................................
14TO:(Arresting Agency/Agencies)
15.................................
16.................................
17ATTENTION: You are hereby notified that an objection has been
18filed by the following entity regarding the above-named minor's
19petition for expungement of juvenile records:
20( ) State's Attorney's Office;
21( ) Prosecutor (other than State's Attorney's Office) charged
22with the duty of prosecuting the offense sought to be expunged;
23( ) Department of Illinois State Police; or
24( ) Arresting Agency or Agencies.
25The agency checked above respectfully requests that this case
26be continued and set for hearing on whether the expungement

09800SB2640ham001- 1667 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1should or should not be granted.
2DATED: .......
3Name:
4Attorney For:
5Address:
6City/State/Zip:
7Telephone:
8Attorney No.:
9
FOR USE BY CLERK OF THE COURT PERSONNEL ONLY
10This matter has been set for hearing on the foregoing
11objection, on ...... in room ...., located at ....., before the
12Honorable ....., Judge, or any judge sitting in his/her stead.
13(Only one hearing shall be set, regardless of the number of
14Notices of Objection received on the same case).
15A copy of this completed Notice of Objection containing the
16court date, time, and location, has been sent via regular U.S.
17Mail to the following entities. (If more than one Notice of
18Objection is received on the same case, each one must be
19completed with the court date, time and location and mailed to
20the following entities):
21( ) Attorney, Public Defender or Minor;
22( ) State's Attorney's Office;
23( ) Prosecutor (other than State's Attorney's Office) charged
24with the duty of prosecuting the offense sought to be expunged;
25( ) Department of Illinois State Police; and
26( ) Arresting agency or agencies.

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1Date: ......
2Initials of Clerk completing this section: .....
3 (4) Upon entry of an order expunging records or files, the
4offense, which the records or files concern shall be treated as
5if it never occurred. Law enforcement officers and other public
6offices and agencies shall properly reply on inquiry that no
7record or file exists with respect to the person.
8 (5) Records which have not been expunged are sealed, and
9may be obtained only under the provisions of Sections 5-901,
105-905 and 5-915.
11 (6) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to prohibit
12the maintenance of information relating to an offense after
13records or files concerning the offense have been expunged if
14the information is kept in a manner that does not enable
15identification of the offender. This information may only be
16used for statistical and bona fide research purposes.
17 (7)(a) The State Appellate Defender shall establish,
18maintain, and carry out, by December 31, 2004, a juvenile
19expungement program to provide information and assistance to
20minors eligible to have their juvenile records expunged.
21 (b) The State Appellate Defender shall develop brochures,
22pamphlets, and other materials in printed form and through the
23agency's World Wide Web site. The pamphlets and other materials
24shall include at a minimum the following information:
25 (i) An explanation of the State's juvenile expungement
26 process;

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1 (ii) The circumstances under which juvenile
2 expungement may occur;
3 (iii) The juvenile offenses that may be expunged;
4 (iv) The steps necessary to initiate and complete the
5 juvenile expungement process; and
6 (v) Directions on how to contact the State Appellate
7 Defender.
8 (c) The State Appellate Defender shall establish and
9maintain a statewide toll-free telephone number that a person
10may use to receive information or assistance concerning the
11expungement of juvenile records. The State Appellate Defender
12shall advertise the toll-free telephone number statewide. The
13State Appellate Defender shall develop an expungement
14information packet that may be sent to eligible persons seeking
15expungement of their juvenile records, which may include, but
16is not limited to, a pre-printed expungement petition with
17instructions on how to complete the petition and a pamphlet
18containing information that would assist individuals through
19the juvenile expungement process.
20 (d) The State Appellate Defender shall compile a statewide
21list of volunteer attorneys willing to assist eligible
22individuals through the juvenile expungement process.
23 (e) This Section shall be implemented from funds
24appropriated by the General Assembly to the State Appellate
25Defender for this purpose. The State Appellate Defender shall
26employ the necessary staff and adopt the necessary rules for

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1implementation of this Section.
2 (8)(a) Except with respect to law enforcement agencies, the
3Department of Corrections, State's Attorneys, or other
4prosecutors, an expunged juvenile record may not be considered
5by any private or public entity in employment matters,
6certification, licensing, revocation of certification or
7licensure, or registration. Applications for employment must
8contain specific language that states that the applicant is not
9obligated to disclose expunged juvenile records of conviction
10or arrest. Employers may not ask if an applicant has had a
11juvenile record expunged. Effective January 1, 2005, the
12Department of Labor shall develop a link on the Department's
13website to inform employers that employers may not ask if an
14applicant had a juvenile record expunged and that application
15for employment must contain specific language that states that
16the applicant is not obligated to disclose expunged juvenile
17records of arrest or conviction.
18 (b) A person whose juvenile records have been expunged is
19not entitled to remission of any fines, costs, or other money
20paid as a consequence of expungement. This amendatory Act of
21the 93rd General Assembly does not affect the right of the
22victim of a crime to prosecute or defend a civil action for
23damages.
24 (c) The expungement of juvenile records under Section 5-622
25shall be funded by the additional fine imposed under Section
265-9-1.17 of the Unified Code of Corrections and additional

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1appropriations made by the General Assembly for such purpose.
2 (9) The changes made to this Section by Public Act 98-61
3this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly apply to law
4enforcement records of a minor who has been arrested or taken
5into custody on or after January 1, 2014 (the effective date of
6Public Act 98-61) this amendatory Act.
7(Source: P.A. 98-61, eff. 1-1-14; revised 3-27-14.)
8 Section 695. The Criminal Code of 2012 is amended by
9changing Sections 2-10.1, 3-6, 10-9, 11-1.40, 11-9.1B, 11-14,
1012-3.05, 12C-10, 19-4, 21-1.3, 31A-1.1, 33-1, and 33E-18 as
11follows:
12 (720 ILCS 5/2-10.1) (from Ch. 38, par. 2-10.1)
13 Sec. 2-10.1. "Severely or profoundly intellectually
14disabled person" means a person (i) whose intelligence quotient
15does not exceed 40 or (ii) whose intelligence quotient does not
16exceed 55 and who suffers from significant mental illness to
17the extent that the person's ability to exercise rational
18judgment is impaired. In any proceeding in which the defendant
19is charged with committing a violation of Section 10-2, 10-5,
2011-1.30, 11-1.60, 11-14.4, 11-15.1, 11-19.1, 11-19.2, 11-20.1,
2111-20.1B, 11-20.3, 12-4.3, 12-14, or 12-16, or subdivision
22(b)(1) of Section 12-3.05, of this Code against a victim who is
23alleged to be a severely or profoundly intellectually disabled
24person, any findings concerning the victim's status as a

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1severely or profoundly intellectually disabled person, made by
2a court after a judicial admission hearing concerning the
3victim under Articles V and VI of Chapter IV 4 of the Mental
4Health and Developmental Disabilities Code shall be
5admissible.
6(Source: P.A. 96-1551, Article 1, Section 960, eff. 7-1-11;
796-1551, Article 2, Section 1035, eff. 7-1-11; 97-227, eff.
81-1-12; 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13; revised 9-11-13.)
9 (720 ILCS 5/3-6) (from Ch. 38, par. 3-6)
10 Sec. 3-6. Extended limitations. The period within which a
11prosecution must be commenced under the provisions of Section
123-5 or other applicable statute is extended under the following
13conditions:
14 (a) A prosecution for theft involving a breach of a
15fiduciary obligation to the aggrieved person may be commenced
16as follows:
17 (1) If the aggrieved person is a minor or a person
18 under legal disability, then during the minority or legal
19 disability or within one year after the termination
20 thereof.
21 (2) In any other instance, within one year after the
22 discovery of the offense by an aggrieved person, or by a
23 person who has legal capacity to represent an aggrieved
24 person or has a legal duty to report the offense, and is
25 not himself or herself a party to the offense; or in the

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1 absence of such discovery, within one year after the proper
2 prosecuting officer becomes aware of the offense. However,
3 in no such case is the period of limitation so extended
4 more than 3 years beyond the expiration of the period
5 otherwise applicable.
6 (b) A prosecution for any offense based upon misconduct in
7office by a public officer or employee may be commenced within
8one year after discovery of the offense by a person having a
9legal duty to report such offense, or in the absence of such
10discovery, within one year after the proper prosecuting officer
11becomes aware of the offense. However, in no such case is the
12period of limitation so extended more than 3 years beyond the
13expiration of the period otherwise applicable.
14 (b-5) When the victim is under 18 years of age at the time
15of the offense, a prosecution for involuntary servitude,
16involuntary sexual servitude of a minor, or trafficking in
17persons and related offenses under Section 10-9 of this Code
18may be commenced within one year of the victim attaining the
19age of 18 years. However, in no such case shall the time period
20for prosecution expire sooner than 3 years after the commission
21of the offense.
22 (c) (Blank).
23 (d) A prosecution for child pornography, aggravated child
24pornography, indecent solicitation of a child, soliciting for a
25juvenile prostitute, juvenile pimping, exploitation of a
26child, or promoting juvenile prostitution except for keeping a

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1place of juvenile prostitution may be commenced within one year
2of the victim attaining the age of 18 years. However, in no
3such case shall the time period for prosecution expire sooner
4than 3 years after the commission of the offense. When the
5victim is under 18 years of age, a prosecution for criminal
6sexual abuse may be commenced within one year of the victim
7attaining the age of 18 years. However, in no such case shall
8the time period for prosecution expire sooner than 3 years
9after the commission of the offense.
10 (e) Except as otherwise provided in subdivision (j), a
11prosecution for any offense involving sexual conduct or sexual
12penetration, as defined in Section 11-0.1 of this Code, where
13the defendant was within a professional or fiduciary
14relationship or a purported professional or fiduciary
15relationship with the victim at the time of the commission of
16the offense may be commenced within one year after the
17discovery of the offense by the victim.
18 (f) A prosecution for any offense set forth in Section 44
19of the "Environmental Protection Act", approved June 29, 1970,
20as amended, may be commenced within 5 years after the discovery
21of such an offense by a person or agency having the legal duty
22to report the offense or in the absence of such discovery,
23within 5 years after the proper prosecuting officer becomes
24aware of the offense.
25 (f-5) A prosecution for any offense set forth in Section
2616-30 of this Code may be commenced within 5 years after the

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1discovery of the offense by the victim of that offense.
2 (g) (Blank).
3 (h) (Blank).
4 (i) Except as otherwise provided in subdivision (j), a
5prosecution for criminal sexual assault, aggravated criminal
6sexual assault, or aggravated criminal sexual abuse may be
7commenced within 10 years of the commission of the offense if
8the victim reported the offense to law enforcement authorities
9within 3 years after the commission of the offense.
10 Nothing in this subdivision (i) shall be construed to
11shorten a period within which a prosecution must be commenced
12under any other provision of this Section.
13 (j) (1) When the victim is under 18 years of age at the
14time of the offense, a prosecution for criminal sexual assault,
15aggravated criminal sexual assault, predatory criminal sexual
16assault of a child, aggravated criminal sexual abuse, or felony
17criminal sexual abuse may be commenced at any time when
18corroborating physical evidence is available or an individual
19who is required to report an alleged or suspected commission of
20any of these offenses under the Abused and Neglected Child
21Reporting Act fails to do so.
22 (2) In circumstances other than as described in paragraph
23(1) of this subsection (j), when the victim is under 18 years
24of age at the time of the offense, a prosecution for criminal
25sexual assault, aggravated criminal sexual assault, predatory
26criminal sexual assault of a child, aggravated criminal sexual

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1abuse, or felony criminal sexual abuse, or a prosecution for
2failure of a person who is required to report an alleged or
3suspected commission of any of these offenses under the Abused
4and Neglected Child Reporting Act may be commenced within 20
5years after the child victim attains 18 years of age.
6 (3) When the victim is under 18 years of age at the time of
7the offense, a prosecution for misdemeanor criminal sexual
8abuse may be commenced within 10 years after the child victim
9attains 18 years of age.
10 (4) Nothing in this subdivision (j) shall be construed to
11shorten a period within which a prosecution must be commenced
12under any other provision of this Section.
13 (k) A prosecution for theft involving real property
14exceeding $100,000 in value under Section 16-1, identity theft
15under subsection (a) of Section 16-30, aggravated identity
16theft under subsection (b) of Section 16-30, or any offense set
17forth in Article 16H or Section 17-10.6 may be commenced within
187 years of the last act committed in furtherance of the crime.
19 (l) A prosecution for any offense set forth in Section 26-4
20of this Code may be commenced within one year after the
21discovery of the offense by the victim of that offense.
22(Source: P.A. 97-597, eff. 1-1-12; 97-897, eff. 1-1-13; 98-293,
23eff. 1-1-14; 98-379, eff. 1-1-14; revised 9-24-13.)
24 (720 ILCS 5/10-9)
25 Sec. 10-9. Trafficking in persons, involuntary servitude,

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1and related offenses.
2 (a) Definitions. In this Section:
3 (1) "Intimidation" has the meaning prescribed in
4 Section 12-6.
5 (2) "Commercial sexual activity" means any sex act on
6 account of which anything of value is given, promised to,
7 or received by any person.
8 (3) "Financial harm" includes intimidation that brings
9 about financial loss, criminal usury, or employment
10 contracts that violate the Frauds Act.
11 (4) (Blank). "
12 (5) "Labor" means work of economic or financial value.
13 (6) "Maintain" means, in relation to labor or services,
14 to secure continued performance thereof, regardless of any
15 initial agreement on the part of the victim to perform that
16 type of service.
17 (7) "Obtain" means, in relation to labor or services,
18 to secure performance thereof.
19 (7.5) "Serious harm" means any harm, whether physical
20 or nonphysical, including psychological, financial, or
21 reputational harm, that is sufficiently serious, under all
22 the surrounding circumstances, to compel a reasonable
23 person of the same background and in the same circumstances
24 to perform or to continue performing labor or services in
25 order to avoid incurring that harm.
26 (8) "Services" means activities resulting from a

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1 relationship between a person and the actor in which the
2 person performs activities under the supervision of or for
3 the benefit of the actor. Commercial sexual activity and
4 sexually-explicit performances are forms of activities
5 that are "services" under this Section. Nothing in this
6 definition may be construed to legitimize or legalize
7 prostitution.
8 (9) "Sexually-explicit performance" means a live,
9 recorded, broadcast (including over the Internet), or
10 public act or show intended to arouse or satisfy the sexual
11 desires or appeal to the prurient interests of patrons.
12 (10) "Trafficking victim" means a person subjected to
13 the practices set forth in subsection (b), (c), or (d).
14 (b) Involuntary servitude. A person commits involuntary
15servitude when he or she knowingly subjects, attempts to
16subject, or engages in a conspiracy to subject another person
17to labor or services obtained or maintained through any of the
18following means, or any combination of these means:
19 (1) causes or threatens to cause physical harm to any
20 person;
21 (2) physically restrains or threatens to physically
22 restrain another person;
23 (3) abuses or threatens to abuse the law or legal
24 process;
25 (4) knowingly destroys, conceals, removes,
26 confiscates, or possesses any actual or purported passport

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1 or other immigration document, or any other actual or
2 purported government identification document, of another
3 person;
4 (5) uses intimidation, or exerts financial control
5 over any person; or
6 (6) uses any scheme, plan, or pattern intended to cause
7 the person to believe that, if the person did not perform
8 the labor or services, that person or another person would
9 suffer serious harm or physical restraint.
10 Sentence. Except as otherwise provided in subsection (e) or
11(f), a violation of subsection (b)(1) is a Class X felony,
12(b)(2) is a Class 1 felony, (b)(3) is a Class 2 felony, (b)(4)
13is a Class 3 felony, (b)(5) and (b)(6) is a Class 4 felony.
14 (c) Involuntary sexual servitude of a minor. A person
15commits involuntary sexual servitude of a minor when he or she
16knowingly recruits, entices, harbors, transports, provides, or
17obtains by any means, or attempts to recruit, entice, harbor,
18provide, or obtain by any means, another person under 18 years
19of age, knowing that the minor will engage in commercial sexual
20activity, a sexually-explicit performance, or the production
21of pornography, or causes or attempts to cause a minor to
22engage in one or more of those activities and:
23 (1) there is no overt force or threat and the minor is
24 between the ages of 17 and 18 years;
25 (2) there is no overt force or threat and the minor is
26 under the age of 17 years; or

09800SB2640ham001- 1680 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 (3) there is overt force or threat.
2 Sentence. Except as otherwise provided in subsection (e) or
3(f), a violation of subsection (c)(1) is a Class 1 felony,
4(c)(2) is a Class X felony, and (c)(3) is a Class X felony.
5 (d) Trafficking in persons. A person commits trafficking in
6persons when he or she knowingly: (1) recruits, entices,
7harbors, transports, provides, or obtains by any means, or
8attempts to recruit, entice, harbor, transport, provide, or
9obtain by any means, another person, intending or knowing that
10the person will be subjected to involuntary servitude; or (2)
11benefits, financially or by receiving anything of value, from
12participation in a venture that has engaged in an act of
13involuntary servitude or involuntary sexual servitude of a
14minor.
15 Sentence. Except as otherwise provided in subsection (e) or
16(f), a violation of this subsection is a Class 1 felony.
17 (e) Aggravating factors. A violation of this Section
18involving kidnapping or an attempt to kidnap, aggravated
19criminal sexual assault or an attempt to commit aggravated
20criminal sexual assault, or an attempt to commit first degree
21murder is a Class X felony.
22 (f) Sentencing considerations.
23 (1) Bodily injury. If, pursuant to a violation of this
24 Section, a victim suffered bodily injury, the defendant may
25 be sentenced to an extended-term sentence under Section
26 5-8-2 of the Unified Code of Corrections. The sentencing

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1 court must take into account the time in which the victim
2 was held in servitude, with increased penalties for cases
3 in which the victim was held for between 180 days and one
4 year, and increased penalties for cases in which the victim
5 was held for more than one year.
6 (2) Number of victims. In determining sentences within
7 statutory maximums, the sentencing court should take into
8 account the number of victims, and may provide for
9 substantially increased sentences in cases involving more
10 than 10 victims.
11 (g) Restitution. Restitution is mandatory under this
12Section. In addition to any other amount of loss identified,
13the court shall order restitution including the greater of (1)
14the gross income or value to the defendant of the victim's
15labor or services or (2) the value of the victim's labor as
16guaranteed under the Minimum Wage Law and overtime provisions
17of the Fair Labor Standards Act (FLSA) or the Minimum Wage Law,
18whichever is greater.
19 (h) Trafficking victim services. Subject to the
20availability of funds, the Department of Human Services may
21provide or fund emergency services and assistance to
22individuals who are victims of one or more offenses defined in
23this Section.
24 (i) Certification. The Attorney General, a State's
25Attorney, or any law enforcement official shall certify in
26writing to the United States Department of Justice or other

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1federal agency, such as the United States Department of
2Homeland Security, that an investigation or prosecution under
3this Section has begun and the individual who is a likely
4victim of a crime described in this Section is willing to
5cooperate or is cooperating with the investigation to enable
6the individual, if eligible under federal law, to qualify for
7an appropriate special immigrant visa and to access available
8federal benefits. Cooperation with law enforcement shall not be
9required of victims of a crime described in this Section who
10are under 18 years of age. This certification shall be made
11available to the victim and his or her designated legal
12representative.
13 (j) A person who commits involuntary servitude,
14involuntary sexual servitude of a minor, or trafficking in
15persons under subsection (b), (c), or (d) of this Section is
16subject to the property forfeiture provisions set forth in
17Article 124B of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963.
18(Source: P.A. 96-710, eff. 1-1-10; incorporates 96-712, eff.
191-1-10; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 97-897, eff. 1-1-13; revised
2011-12-13.)
21 (720 ILCS 5/11-1.40) (was 720 ILCS 5/12-14.1)
22 Sec. 11-1.40. Predatory criminal sexual assault of a child.
23 (a) A person commits predatory criminal sexual assault of a
24child if that person commits an act of sexual penetration or an
25act of contact, however slight, between the sex organ or anus

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1of one person and the part of the body of another, and the
2accused is 17 years of age or older, and:
3 (1) the victim is under 13 years of age; or
4 (2) the victim is under 13 years of age and that
5 person:
6 (A) is armed with a firearm;
7 (B) personally discharges a firearm during the
8 commission of the offense;
9 (C) causes great bodily harm to the victim that:
10 (i) results in permanent disability; or
11 (ii) is life threatening; or
12 (D) delivers (by injection, inhalation, ingestion,
13 transfer of possession, or any other means) any
14 controlled substance to the victim without the
15 victim's consent or by threat or deception, for other
16 than medical purposes.
17 (b) Sentence.
18 (1) A person convicted of a violation of subsection
19 (a)(1) commits a Class X felony, for which the person shall
20 be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than 6
21 years and not more than 60 years. A person convicted of a
22 violation of subsection (a)(2)(A) commits a Class X felony
23 for which 15 years shall be added to the term of
24 imprisonment imposed by the court. A person convicted of a
25 violation of subsection (a)(2)(B) commits a Class X felony
26 for which 20 years shall be added to the term of

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1 imprisonment imposed by the court. A person convicted of a
2 violation of subsection (a)(2)(C) commits a Class X felony
3 for which the person shall be sentenced to a term of
4 imprisonment of not less than 50 years or up to a term of
5 natural life imprisonment.
6 (1.1) A person convicted of a violation of subsection
7 (a)(2)(D) commits a Class X felony for which the person
8 shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less
9 than 50 years and not more than 60 years.
10 (1.2) A person convicted of predatory criminal sexual
11 assault of a child committed against 2 or more persons
12 regardless of whether the offenses occurred as the result
13 of the same act or of several related or unrelated acts
14 shall be sentenced to a term of natural life imprisonment.
15 (2) A person who is convicted of a second or subsequent
16 offense of predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, or
17 who is convicted of the offense of predatory criminal
18 sexual assault of a child after having previously been
19 convicted of the offense of criminal sexual assault or the
20 offense of aggravated criminal sexual assault, or who is
21 convicted of the offense of predatory criminal sexual
22 assault of a child after having previously been convicted
23 under the laws of this State or any other state of an
24 offense that is substantially equivalent to the offense of
25 predatory criminal sexual assault of a child, the offense
26 of aggravated criminal sexual assault or the offense of

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1 criminal sexual assault, shall be sentenced to a term of
2 natural life imprisonment. The commission of the second or
3 subsequent offense is required to have been after the
4 initial conviction for this paragraph (2) to apply.
5(Source: P.A. 98-370, eff. 1-1-14; revised 11-12-13.)
6 (720 ILCS 5/11-9.1B)
7 Sec. 11-9.1B. Failure to report sexual abuse of a child.
8 (a) For the purposes of this Section:
9 "Child" means any person under the age of 13.
10 "Sexual abuse" means any contact, however slight, between
11the sex organ or anus of the victim or the accused and an
12object or body part, including, but not limited to, the sex
13organ, mouth, or anus of the victim or the accused, or any
14intrusion, however slight, of any part of the body of the
15victim or the accused or of any animal or object into the sex
16organ or anus of the victim or the accused, including, but not
17limited to, cunnilingus, fellatio, or anal penetration.
18Evidence of emission of semen is not required to prove sexual
19abuse.
20 (b) A person over the age of 18 commits failure to report
21sexual abuse of a child when he or she personally observes
22sexual abuse, as defined by this Section, between a person who
23he or she knows is over the age of 18 and a person he or she
24knows is a child, and knowingly fails to report the sexual
25abuse to law enforcement.

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1 (c) This Section does not apply to a person who makes
2timely and reasonable efforts to stop the sexual abuse by
3reporting the sexual abuse in conformance with the Abused and
4Neglected Child Reporting Act or by reporting the sexual abuse
5or causing a report to be made, to medical or law enforcement
6authorities or anyone who is a mandated reporter under Section
74 of the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act.
8 (d) A person may not be charged with the offense of failure
9to report sexual abuse of a child under this Section until the
10person who committed the offense is charged with criminal
11sexual assault, aggravated criminal sexual assault, predatory
12criminal sexual assault of a child, criminal sexual abuse, or
13aggravated criminal sexual abuse.
14 (e) It is an affirmative defense to a charge of failure to
15report sexual abuse of a child under this Section that the
16person who personally observed the sexual abuse had a
17reasonable apprehension that timely action to stop the abuse
18would result in the imminent infliction of death, great bodily
19harm, permanent disfigurement, or permanent disability to that
20person or another in retaliation for reporting.
21 (f) Sentence. A person who commits failure to report sexual
22abuse of a child is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor for the
23first violation and a Class 4 felony for a second or subsequent
24violation.
25 (g) Nothing in this Section shall be construed to allow
26prosecution of a person who personally observes the act of

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1sexual abuse and assists with an investigation and any
2subsequent prosecution of the offender.
3(Source: P.A. 98-370, eff. 1-1-14; revised 11-12-13.)
4 (720 ILCS 5/11-14) (from Ch. 38, par. 11-14)
5 Sec. 11-14. Prostitution.
6 (a) Any person who knowingly performs, offers or agrees to
7perform any act of sexual penetration as defined in Section
811-0.1 of this Code for anything of value, or any touching or
9fondling of the sex organs of one person by another person, for
10anything of value, for the purpose of sexual arousal or
11gratification commits an act of prostitution.
12 (b) Sentence. A violation of this Section is a Class A
13misdemeanor.
14 (c) (Blank). or 5-6-3.4
15 (d) Notwithstanding the foregoing, if it is determined,
16after a reasonable detention for investigative purposes, that a
17person suspected of or charged with a violation of this Section
18is a person under the age of 18, that person shall be immune
19from prosecution for a prostitution offense under this Section,
20and shall be subject to the temporary protective custody
21provisions of Sections 2-5 and 2-6 of the Juvenile Court Act of
221987. Pursuant to the provisions of Section 2-6 of the Juvenile
23Court Act of 1987, a law enforcement officer who takes a person
24under 18 years of age into custody under this Section shall
25immediately report an allegation of a violation of Section 10-9

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1of this Code to the Illinois Department of Children and Family
2Services State Central Register, which shall commence an
3initial investigation into child abuse or child neglect within
424 hours pursuant to Section 7.4 of the Abused and Neglected
5Child Reporting Act.
6(Source: P.A. 97-1118, eff. 1-1-13; 98-164, eff. 1-1-14;
798-538, eff. 8-23-13; revised 9-24-13.)
8 (720 ILCS 5/12-3.05) (was 720 ILCS 5/12-4)
9 Sec. 12-3.05. Aggravated battery.
10 (a) Offense based on injury. A person commits aggravated
11battery when, in committing a battery, other than by the
12discharge of a firearm, he or she knowingly does any of the
13following:
14 (1) Causes great bodily harm or permanent disability or
15 disfigurement.
16 (2) Causes severe and permanent disability, great
17 bodily harm, or disfigurement by means of a caustic or
18 flammable substance, a poisonous gas, a deadly biological
19 or chemical contaminant or agent, a radioactive substance,
20 or a bomb or explosive compound.
21 (3) Causes great bodily harm or permanent disability or
22 disfigurement to an individual whom the person knows to be
23 a peace officer, community policing volunteer, fireman,
24 private security officer, correctional institution
25 employee, or Department of Human Services employee

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1 supervising or controlling sexually dangerous persons or
2 sexually violent persons:
3 (i) performing his or her official duties;
4 (ii) battered to prevent performance of his or her
5 official duties; or
6 (iii) battered in retaliation for performing his
7 or her official duties.
8 (4) Causes great bodily harm or permanent disability or
9 disfigurement to an individual 60 years of age or older.
10 (5) Strangles another individual.
11 (b) Offense based on injury to a child or intellectually
12disabled person. A person who is at least 18 years of age
13commits aggravated battery when, in committing a battery, he or
14she knowingly and without legal justification by any means:
15 (1) causes great bodily harm or permanent disability or
16 disfigurement to any child under the age of 13 years, or to
17 any severely or profoundly intellectually disabled person;
18 or
19 (2) causes bodily harm or disability or disfigurement
20 to any child under the age of 13 years or to any severely
21 or profoundly intellectually disabled person.
22 (c) Offense based on location of conduct. A person commits
23aggravated battery when, in committing a battery, other than by
24the discharge of a firearm, he or she is or the person battered
25is on or about a public way, public property, a public place of
26accommodation or amusement, a sports venue, or a domestic

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1violence shelter.
2 (d) Offense based on status of victim. A person commits
3aggravated battery when, in committing a battery, other than by
4discharge of a firearm, he or she knows the individual battered
5to be any of the following:
6 (1) A person 60 years of age or older.
7 (2) A person who is pregnant or physically handicapped.
8 (3) A teacher or school employee upon school grounds or
9 grounds adjacent to a school or in any part of a building
10 used for school purposes.
11 (4) A peace officer, community policing volunteer,
12 fireman, private security officer, correctional
13 institution employee, or Department of Human Services
14 employee supervising or controlling sexually dangerous
15 persons or sexually violent persons:
16 (i) performing his or her official duties;
17 (ii) battered to prevent performance of his or her
18 official duties; or
19 (iii) battered in retaliation for performing his
20 or her official duties.
21 (5) A judge, emergency management worker, emergency
22 medical technician, or utility worker:
23 (i) performing his or her official duties;
24 (ii) battered to prevent performance of his or her
25 official duties; or
26 (iii) battered in retaliation for performing his

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1 or her official duties.
2 (6) An officer or employee of the State of Illinois, a
3 unit of local government, or a school district, while
4 performing his or her official duties.
5 (7) A transit employee performing his or her official
6 duties, or a transit passenger.
7 (8) A taxi driver on duty.
8 (9) A merchant who detains the person for an alleged
9 commission of retail theft under Section 16-26 of this Code
10 and the person without legal justification by any means
11 causes bodily harm to the merchant.
12 (10) A person authorized to serve process under Section
13 2-202 of the Code of Civil Procedure or a special process
14 server appointed by the circuit court while that individual
15 is in the performance of his or her duties as a process
16 server.
17 (11) A nurse while in the performance of his or her
18 duties as a nurse.
19 (e) Offense based on use of a firearm. A person commits
20aggravated battery when, in committing a battery, he or she
21knowingly does any of the following:
22 (1) Discharges a firearm, other than a machine gun or a
23 firearm equipped with a silencer, and causes any injury to
24 another person.
25 (2) Discharges a firearm, other than a machine gun or a
26 firearm equipped with a silencer, and causes any injury to

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1 a person he or she knows to be a peace officer, community
2 policing volunteer, person summoned by a police officer,
3 fireman, private security officer, correctional
4 institution employee, or emergency management worker:
5 (i) performing his or her official duties;
6 (ii) battered to prevent performance of his or her
7 official duties; or
8 (iii) battered in retaliation for performing his
9 or her official duties.
10 (3) Discharges a firearm, other than a machine gun or a
11 firearm equipped with a silencer, and causes any injury to
12 a person he or she knows to be an emergency medical
13 technician employed by a municipality or other
14 governmental unit:
15 (i) performing his or her official duties;
16 (ii) battered to prevent performance of his or her
17 official duties; or
18 (iii) battered in retaliation for performing his
19 or her official duties.
20 (4) Discharges a firearm and causes any injury to a
21 person he or she knows to be a teacher, a student in a
22 school, or a school employee, and the teacher, student, or
23 employee is upon school grounds or grounds adjacent to a
24 school or in any part of a building used for school
25 purposes.
26 (5) Discharges a machine gun or a firearm equipped with

09800SB2640ham001- 1693 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 a silencer, and causes any injury to another person.
2 (6) Discharges a machine gun or a firearm equipped with
3 a silencer, and causes any injury to a person he or she
4 knows to be a peace officer, community policing volunteer,
5 person summoned by a police officer, fireman, private
6 security officer, correctional institution employee or
7 emergency management worker:
8 (i) performing his or her official duties;
9 (ii) battered to prevent performance of his or her
10 official duties; or
11 (iii) battered in retaliation for performing his
12 or her official duties.
13 (7) Discharges a machine gun or a firearm equipped with
14 a silencer, and causes any injury to a person he or she
15 knows to be an emergency medical technician employed by a
16 municipality or other governmental unit:
17 (i) performing his or her official duties;
18 (ii) battered to prevent performance of his or her
19 official duties; or
20 (iii) battered in retaliation for performing his
21 or her official duties.
22 (8) Discharges a machine gun or a firearm equipped with
23 a silencer, and causes any injury to a person he or she
24 knows to be a teacher, or a student in a school, or a
25 school employee, and the teacher, student, or employee is
26 upon school grounds or grounds adjacent to a school or in

09800SB2640ham001- 1694 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 any part of a building used for school purposes.
2 (f) Offense based on use of a weapon or device. A person
3commits aggravated battery when, in committing a battery, he or
4she does any of the following:
5 (1) Uses a deadly weapon other than by discharge of a
6 firearm, or uses an air rifle as defined in Section
7 24.8-0.1 of this Code the Air Rifle Act.
8 (2) Wears a hood, robe, or mask to conceal his or her
9 identity.
10 (3) Knowingly and without lawful justification shines
11 or flashes a laser gunsight or other laser device attached
12 to a firearm, or used in concert with a firearm, so that
13 the laser beam strikes upon or against the person of
14 another.
15 (4) Knowingly video or audio records the offense with
16 the intent to disseminate the recording.
17 (g) Offense based on certain conduct. A person commits
18aggravated battery when, other than by discharge of a firearm,
19he or she does any of the following:
20 (1) Violates Section 401 of the Illinois Controlled
21 Substances Act by unlawfully delivering a controlled
22 substance to another and any user experiences great bodily
23 harm or permanent disability as a result of the injection,
24 inhalation, or ingestion of any amount of the controlled
25 substance.
26 (2) Knowingly administers to an individual or causes

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1 him or her to take, without his or her consent or by threat
2 or deception, and for other than medical purposes, any
3 intoxicating, poisonous, stupefying, narcotic, anesthetic,
4 or controlled substance, or gives to another person any
5 food containing any substance or object intended to cause
6 physical injury if eaten.
7 (3) Knowingly causes or attempts to cause a
8 correctional institution employee or Department of Human
9 Services employee to come into contact with blood, seminal
10 fluid, urine, or feces by throwing, tossing, or expelling
11 the fluid or material, and the person is an inmate of a
12 penal institution or is a sexually dangerous person or
13 sexually violent person in the custody of the Department of
14 Human Services.
15 (h) Sentence. Unless otherwise provided, aggravated
16battery is a Class 3 felony.
17 Aggravated battery as defined in subdivision (a)(4),
18(d)(4), or (g)(3) is a Class 2 felony.
19 Aggravated battery as defined in subdivision (a)(3) or
20(g)(1) is a Class 1 felony.
21 Aggravated battery as defined in subdivision (a)(1) is a
22Class 1 felony when the aggravated battery was intentional and
23involved the infliction of torture, as defined in paragraph
24(14) of subsection (b) of Section 9-1 of this Code, as the
25infliction of or subjection to extreme physical pain, motivated
26by an intent to increase or prolong the pain, suffering, or

09800SB2640ham001- 1696 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1agony of the victim.
2 Aggravated battery under subdivision (a)(5) is a Class 1
3felony if:
4 (A) the person used or attempted to use a dangerous
5 instrument while committing the offense; or
6 (B) the person caused great bodily harm or permanent
7 disability or disfigurement to the other person while
8 committing the offense; or
9 (C) the person has been previously convicted of a
10 violation of subdivision (a)(5) under the laws of this
11 State or laws similar to subdivision (a)(5) of any other
12 state.
13 Aggravated battery as defined in subdivision (e)(1) is a
14Class X felony.
15 Aggravated battery as defined in subdivision (a)(2) is a
16Class X felony for which a person shall be sentenced to a term
17of imprisonment of a minimum of 6 years and a maximum of 45
18years.
19 Aggravated battery as defined in subdivision (e)(5) is a
20Class X felony for which a person shall be sentenced to a term
21of imprisonment of a minimum of 12 years and a maximum of 45
22years.
23 Aggravated battery as defined in subdivision (e)(2),
24(e)(3), or (e)(4) is a Class X felony for which a person shall
25be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of a minimum of 15 years
26and a maximum of 60 years.

09800SB2640ham001- 1697 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 Aggravated battery as defined in subdivision (e)(6),
2(e)(7), or (e)(8) is a Class X felony for which a person shall
3be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of a minimum of 20 years
4and a maximum of 60 years.
5 Aggravated battery as defined in subdivision (b)(1) is a
6Class X felony, except that:
7 (1) if the person committed the offense while armed
8 with a firearm, 15 years shall be added to the term of
9 imprisonment imposed by the court;
10 (2) if, during the commission of the offense, the
11 person personally discharged a firearm, 20 years shall be
12 added to the term of imprisonment imposed by the court;
13 (3) if, during the commission of the offense, the
14 person personally discharged a firearm that proximately
15 caused great bodily harm, permanent disability, permanent
16 disfigurement, or death to another person, 25 years or up
17 to a term of natural life shall be added to the term of
18 imprisonment imposed by the court.
19 (i) Definitions. For the purposes of this Section:
20 "Building or other structure used to provide shelter" has
21the meaning ascribed to "shelter" in Section 1 of the Domestic
22Violence Shelters Act.
23 "Domestic violence" has the meaning ascribed to it in
24Section 103 of the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986.
25 "Domestic violence shelter" means any building or other
26structure used to provide shelter or other services to victims

09800SB2640ham001- 1698 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1or to the dependent children of victims of domestic violence
2pursuant to the Illinois Domestic Violence Act of 1986 or the
3Domestic Violence Shelters Act, or any place within 500 feet of
4such a building or other structure in the case of a person who
5is going to or from such a building or other structure.
6 "Firearm" has the meaning provided under Section 1.1 of the
7Firearm Owners Identification Card Act, and does not include an
8air rifle as defined by Section 24.8-0.1 of this Code.
9 "Machine gun" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section
1024-1 of this Code.
11 "Merchant" has the meaning ascribed to it in Section 16-0.1
12of this Code.
13 "Strangle" means intentionally impeding the normal
14breathing or circulation of the blood of an individual by
15applying pressure on the throat or neck of that individual or
16by blocking the nose or mouth of that individual.
17(Source: P.A. 97-597, eff. 1-1-12; incorporates 97-227, eff.
181-1-12, 97-313, eff. 1-1-12, and 97-467, eff. 1-1-12; 97-1109,
19eff. 1-1-13; 98-369, eff. 1-1-14; 98-385, eff. 1-1-14; revised
209-24-13.)
21 (720 ILCS 5/12C-10) (was 720 ILCS 5/12-21.5)
22 Sec. 12C-10. Child abandonment.
23 (a) A person commits child abandonment when he or she, as a
24parent, guardian, or other person having physical custody or
25control of a child, without regard for the mental or physical

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1health, safety, or welfare of that child, knowingly leaves that
2child who is under the age of 13 without supervision by a
3responsible person over the age of 14 for a period of 24 hours
4or more. It is not a violation of this Section for a person to
5relinquish a child in accordance with the Abandoned Newborn
6Infant Protection Act.
7 (b) For the purposes of determining whether the child was
8left without regard for the mental or physical health, safety,
9or welfare of that child, the trier of fact shall consider the
10following factors:
11 (1) the age of the child;
12 (2) the number of children left at the location;
13 (3) special needs of the child, including whether the
14 child is physically or mentally handicapped, or otherwise
15 in need of ongoing prescribed medical treatment such as
16 periodic doses of insulin or other medications;
17 (4) the duration of time in which the child was left
18 without supervision;
19 (5) the condition and location of the place where the
20 child was left without supervision;
21 (6) the time of day or night when the child was left
22 without supervision;
23 (7) the weather conditions, including whether the
24 child was left in a location with adequate protection from
25 the natural elements such as adequate heat or light;
26 (8) the location of the parent, guardian, or other

09800SB2640ham001- 1700 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 person having physical custody or control of the child at
2 the time the child was left without supervision, the
3 physical distance the child was from the parent, guardian,
4 or other person having physical custody or control of the
5 child at the time the child was without supervision;
6 (9) whether the child's movement was restricted, or the
7 child was otherwise locked within a room or other
8 structure;
9 (10) whether the child was given a phone number of a
10 person or location to call in the event of an emergency and
11 whether the child was capable of making an emergency call;
12 (11) whether there was food and other provision left
13 for the child;
14 (12) whether any of the conduct is attributable to
15 economic hardship or illness and the parent, guardian or
16 other person having physical custody or control of the
17 child made a good faith effort to provide for the health
18 and safety of the child;
19 (13) the age and physical and mental capabilities of
20 the person or persons who provided supervision for the
21 child;
22 (14) any other factor that would endanger the health or
23 safety of that particular child;
24 (15) whether the child was left under the supervision
25 of another person.
26 (c) (d) Child abandonment is a Class 4 felony. A second or

09800SB2640ham001- 1701 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1subsequent offense after a prior conviction is a Class 3
2felony. A parent, who is found to be in violation of this
3Section with respect to his or her child, may be sentenced to
4probation for this offense pursuant to Section 12C-15.
5(Source: P.A. 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13; revised 11-12-13.)
6 (720 ILCS 5/19-4) (from Ch. 38, par. 19-4)
7 Sec. 19-4. Criminal trespass to a residence.
8 (a) (1) A person commits criminal trespass to a residence
9when, without authority, he or she knowingly enters or remains
10within any residence, including a house trailer that is the
11dwelling place of another.
12 (2) A person commits criminal trespass to a residence when,
13without authority, he or she knowingly enters the residence of
14another and knows or has reason to know that one or more
15persons is present or he or she knowingly enters the residence
16of another and remains in the residence after he or she knows
17or has reason to know that one or more persons is present.
18 (a-5) (3) For purposes of this Section, in the case of a
19multi-unit residential building or complex, "residence" shall
20only include the portion of the building or complex which is
21the actual dwelling place of any person and shall not include
22such places as common recreational areas or lobbies.
23 (b) Sentence.
24 (1) Criminal trespass to a residence under paragraph
25 (1) of subsection (a) is a Class A misdemeanor.

09800SB2640ham001- 1702 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 (2) Criminal trespass to a residence under paragraph
2 (2) of subsection (a) is a Class 4 felony.
3(Source: P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13; revised 11-12-13.)
4 (720 ILCS 5/21-1.3)
5 Sec. 21-1.3. Criminal defacement of property.
6 (a) A person commits criminal defacement of property when
7the person knowingly damages the property of another by
8defacing, deforming, or otherwise damaging the property by the
9use of paint or any other similar substance, or by the use of a
10writing instrument, etching tool, or any other similar device.
11It is an affirmative defense to a violation of this Section
12that the owner of the property damaged consented to such
13damage.
14 (b) Sentence.
15 (1) Criminal defacement of property is a Class A
16misdemeanor for a first offense when the aggregate value of the
17damage to the property does not exceed $300. Criminal
18defacement of property is a Class 4 felony when the aggregate
19value of the damage to property does not exceed $300 and the
20property damaged is a school building or place of worship or
21property which memorializes or honors an individual or group of
22police officers, fire fighters, members of the United States
23Armed Forces or , National Guard, or veterans. Criminal
24defacement of property is a Class 4 felony for a second or
25subsequent conviction or when the aggregate value of the damage

09800SB2640ham001- 1703 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1to the property exceeds $300. Criminal defacement of property
2is a Class 3 felony when the aggregate value of the damage to
3property exceeds $300 and the property damaged is a school
4building or place of worship or property which memorializes or
5honors an individual or group of police officers, fire
6fighters, members of the United States Armed Forces or ,
7National Guard, or veterans.
8 (2) In addition to any other sentence that may be imposed
9for a violation of this Section, a person convicted of criminal
10defacement of property shall:
11 (A) pay the actual costs incurred by the property owner
12 or the unit of government to abate, remediate, repair, or
13 remove the effect of the damage to the property. To the
14 extent permitted by law, reimbursement for the costs of
15 abatement, remediation, repair, or removal shall be
16 payable to the person who incurred the costs; and
17 (B) if convicted of criminal defacement of property
18 that is chargeable as a Class 3 or Class 4 felony, pay a
19 mandatory minimum fine of $500.
20 (3) In addition to any other sentence that may be imposed,
21a court shall order any person convicted of criminal defacement
22of property to perform community service for not less than 30
23and not more than 120 hours, if community service is available
24in the jurisdiction. The community service shall include, but
25need not be limited to, the cleanup and repair of the damage to
26property that was caused by the offense, or similar damage to

09800SB2640ham001- 1704 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1property located in the municipality or county in which the
2offense occurred. When the property damaged is a school
3building, the community service may include cleanup, removal,
4or painting over the defacement. In addition, whenever any
5person is placed on supervision for an alleged offense under
6this Section, the supervision shall be conditioned upon the
7performance of the community service.
8 (4) For the purposes of this subsection (b), aggregate
9value shall be determined by adding the value of the damage to
10one or more properties if the offenses were committed as part
11of a single course of conduct.
12(Source: P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13; 98-315, eff. 1-1-14;
1398-466, eff. 8-16-13; revised 9-24-13.)
14 (720 ILCS 5/31A-1.1) (from Ch. 38, par. 31A-1.1)
15 Sec. 31A-1.1. Bringing Contraband into a Penal
16Institution; Possessing Contraband in a Penal Institution.
17 (a) A person commits bringing contraband into a penal
18institution when he or she knowingly and without authority of
19any person designated or authorized to grant this authority (1)
20brings an item of contraband into a penal institution or (2)
21causes another to bring an item of contraband into a penal
22institution or (3) places an item of contraband in such
23proximity to a penal institution as to give an inmate access to
24the contraband.
25 (b) A person commits possessing contraband in a penal

09800SB2640ham001- 1705 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1institution when he or she knowingly possesses contraband in a
2penal institution, regardless of the intent with which he or
3she possesses it.
4 (c) (Blank).
5 (d) Sentence.
6 (1) Bringing into or possessing alcoholic liquor in a
7 penal institution is a Class 4 felony.
8 (2) Bringing into or possessing cannabis in a penal
9 institution is a Class 3 felony.
10 (3) Bringing into or possessing any amount of a
11 controlled substance classified in Schedules III, IV or V
12 of Article II of the Illinois Controlled Substances
13 Substance Act in a penal institution is a Class 2 felony.
14 (4) Bringing into or possessing any amount of a
15 controlled substance classified in Schedules I or II of
16 Article II of the Illinois Controlled Substances Substance
17 Act in a penal institution is a Class 1 felony.
18 (5) Bringing into or possessing a hypodermic syringe in
19 a penal institution is a Class 1 felony.
20 (6) Bringing into or possessing a weapon, tool to
21 defeat security mechanisms, cutting tool, or electronic
22 contraband in a penal institution is a Class 1 felony.
23 (7) Bringing into or possessing a firearm, firearm
24 ammunition, or explosive in a penal institution is a Class
25 X felony.
26 (e) It shall be an affirmative defense to subsection (b),

09800SB2640ham001- 1706 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1that the possession was specifically authorized by rule,
2regulation, or directive of the governing authority of the
3penal institution or order issued under it.
4 (f) It shall be an affirmative defense to subsection (a)(1)
5and subsection (b) that the person bringing into or possessing
6contraband in a penal institution had been arrested, and that
7person possessed the contraband at the time of his or her
8arrest, and that the contraband was brought into or possessed
9in the penal institution by that person as a direct and
10immediate result of his or her arrest.
11 (g) Items confiscated may be retained for use by the
12Department of Corrections or disposed of as deemed appropriate
13by the Chief Administrative Officer in accordance with
14Department rules or disposed of as required by law.
15(Source: P.A. 96-1112, eff. 1-1-11; 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13;
16revised 11-12-13.)
17 (720 ILCS 5/33-1) (from Ch. 38, par. 33-1)
18 Sec. 33-1. Bribery. A person commits bribery when:
19 (a) With intent to influence the performance of any act
20 related to the employment or function of any public
21 officer, public employee, juror or witness, he or she
22 promises or tenders to that person any property or personal
23 advantage which he or she is not authorized by law to
24 accept; or
25 (b) With intent to influence the performance of any act

09800SB2640ham001- 1707 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 related to the employment or function of any public
2 officer, public employee, juror or witness, he or she
3 promises or tenders to one whom he or she believes to be a
4 public officer, public employee, juror or witness, any
5 property or personal advantage which a public officer,
6 public employee, juror or witness would not be authorized
7 by law to accept; or
8 (c) With intent to cause any person to influence the
9 performance of any act related to the employment or
10 function of any public officer, public employee, juror or
11 witness, he or she promises or tenders to that person any
12 property or personal advantage which he or she is not
13 authorized by law to accept; or
14 (d) He or she receives, retains or agrees to accept any
15 property or personal advantage which he or she is not
16 authorized by law to accept knowing that the property or
17 personal advantage was promised or tendered with intent to
18 cause him or her to influence the performance of any act
19 related to the employment or function of any public
20 officer, public employee, juror or witness; or
21 (e) He or she solicits, receives, retains, or agrees to
22 accept any property or personal advantage pursuant to an
23 understanding that he or she shall improperly influence or
24 attempt to influence the performance of any act related to
25 the employment or function of any public officer, public
26 employee, juror or witness.

09800SB2640ham001- 1708 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 (f) As used in this Section, "tenders" means any delivery
2or proffer made with the requisite intent.
3 (g) Sentence. Bribery is a Class 2 felony.
4(Source: P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13; revised 11-12-13.)
5 (720 ILCS 5/33E-18)
6 Sec. 33E-18. Unlawful stringing of bids.
7 (a) A person commits unlawful stringing of bids when he or
8she, with the intent to evade the bidding requirements of any
9unit of local government or school district, knowingly strings
10or assists in stringing, or attempts to string any contract or
11job order with the unit of local government or school district.
12 (b) Sentence. Unlawful stringing of bids is a Class 4
13felony.
14(Source: P.A. 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13; revised 11-12-13.)
15 Section 700. The Cannabis Control Act is amended by
16changing Section 15.1 as follows:
17 (720 ILCS 550/15.1) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 715.1)
18 Sec. 15.1. (a) If any cannabis derivative is designated or
19rescheduled as a controlled substance under federal law and
20notice thereof is given to the Department, the Department shall
21similarly control the substance under the Illinois Controlled
22Substances Act after the expiration of 30 days from publication
23in the Federal Register of a final order designating a

09800SB2640ham001- 1709 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1substance as a controlled substance or rescheduling a substance
2unless within that 30 day period the Department objects, or a
3party adversely affected files with the Department substantial
4written objections to inclusion or rescheduling. In that case,
5the Department shall publish the reasons for objection or the
6substantial written objections and afford all interested
7parties an opportunity to be heard. At the conclusion of the
8hearing, the Department shall publish its decision, by means of
9a rule, which shall be final unless altered by statute. Upon
10publication of objections by the Department, similar control
11under the Illinois Controlled Substances Act whether by
12inclusion or rescheduling is suspended until the Department
13publishes its ruling.
14 (b) If any cannabis derivative is deleted as a controlled
15substance under Federal law and notice thereof is given to the
16Department, the Department shall similarly control the
17substance under this Act after the expiration of 30 days from
18publication in the Federal Register of a final order deleting a
19substance as a controlled substance or rescheduling a substance
20unless within that 30 day period the Department objects, or a
21party adversely affected files with the Department substantial
22written objections to inclusion or rescheduling. In that case,
23the Department shall publish the reasons for objection or the
24substantial written objections and afford all interested
25parties an opportunity to be heard. At the conclusion of the
26hearing, the Department shall publish its decision, by means of

09800SB2640ham001- 1710 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1a rule, which shall be final unless altered by statute. Upon
2publication of objections by the Department, similar control
3under this Act whether by inclusion or rescheduling is
4suspended until the Department publishes its ruling.
5 (c) Cannabis derivatives are deemed to be regulated under
6this Act until such time as those derivatives are scheduled as
7provided for under the Illinois Controlled Substances Act.
8Following such scheduling, those derivatives shall be excepted
9from this Act and shall be regulated pursuant to the Illinois
10Controlled Substances Act. At such time that any derivative is
11deleted from schedules provided for under the Illinois
12Controlled Substances Substance Act, that derivative shall be
13regulated pursuant to this Act.
14(Source: P.A. 84-1313; 84-1362; revised 11-12-13.)
15 Section 705. The Illinois Controlled Substances Act is
16amended by changing Sections 102 and 201 as follows:
17 (720 ILCS 570/102) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 1102)
18 Sec. 102. Definitions. As used in this Act, unless the
19context otherwise requires:
20 (a) "Addict" means any person who habitually uses any drug,
21chemical, substance or dangerous drug other than alcohol so as
22to endanger the public morals, health, safety or welfare or who
23is so far addicted to the use of a dangerous drug or controlled
24substance other than alcohol as to have lost the power of self

09800SB2640ham001- 1711 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1control with reference to his or her addiction.
2 (b) "Administer" means the direct application of a
3controlled substance, whether by injection, inhalation,
4ingestion, or any other means, to the body of a patient,
5research subject, or animal (as defined by the Humane
6Euthanasia in Animal Shelters Act) by:
7 (1) a practitioner (or, in his or her presence, by his
8 or her authorized agent),
9 (2) the patient or research subject pursuant to an
10 order, or
11 (3) a euthanasia technician as defined by the Humane
12 Euthanasia in Animal Shelters Act.
13 (c) "Agent" means an authorized person who acts on behalf
14of or at the direction of a manufacturer, distributor,
15dispenser, prescriber, or practitioner. It does not include a
16common or contract carrier, public warehouseman or employee of
17the carrier or warehouseman.
18 (c-1) "Anabolic Steroids" means any drug or hormonal
19substance, chemically and pharmacologically related to
20testosterone (other than estrogens, progestins,
21corticosteroids, and dehydroepiandrosterone), and includes:
22 (i) 3[beta],17-dihydroxy-5a-androstane,
23 (ii) 3[alpha],17[beta]-dihydroxy-5a-androstane,
24 (iii) 5[alpha]-androstan-3,17-dione,
25 (iv) 1-androstenediol (3[beta],
26 17[beta]-dihydroxy-5[alpha]-androst-1-ene),

09800SB2640ham001- 1712 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 (v) 1-androstenediol (3[alpha],
2 17[beta]-dihydroxy-5[alpha]-androst-1-ene),
3 (vi) 4-androstenediol
4 (3[beta],17[beta]-dihydroxy-androst-4-ene),
5 (vii) 5-androstenediol
6 (3[beta],17[beta]-dihydroxy-androst-5-ene),
7 (viii) 1-androstenedione
8 ([5alpha]-androst-1-en-3,17-dione),
9 (ix) 4-androstenedione
10 (androst-4-en-3,17-dione),
11 (x) 5-androstenedione
12 (androst-5-en-3,17-dione),
13 (xi) bolasterone (7[alpha],17a-dimethyl-17[beta]-
14 hydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one),
15 (xii) boldenone (17[beta]-hydroxyandrost-
16 1,4,-diene-3-one),
17 (xiii) boldione (androsta-1,4-
18 diene-3,17-dione),
19 (xiv) calusterone (7[beta],17[alpha]-dimethyl-17
20 [beta]-hydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one),
21 (xv) clostebol (4-chloro-17[beta]-
22 hydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one),
23 (xvi) dehydrochloromethyltestosterone (4-chloro-
24 17[beta]-hydroxy-17[alpha]-methyl-
25 androst-1,4-dien-3-one),
26 (xvii) desoxymethyltestosterone

09800SB2640ham001- 1713 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 (17[alpha]-methyl-5[alpha]
2 -androst-2-en-17[beta]-ol)(a.k.a., madol),
3 (xviii) [delta]1-dihydrotestosterone (a.k.a.
4 '1-testosterone') (17[beta]-hydroxy-
5 5[alpha]-androst-1-en-3-one),
6 (xix) 4-dihydrotestosterone (17[beta]-hydroxy-
7 androstan-3-one),
8 (xx) drostanolone (17[beta]-hydroxy-2[alpha]-methyl-
9 5[alpha]-androstan-3-one),
10 (xxi) ethylestrenol (17[alpha]-ethyl-17[beta]-
11 hydroxyestr-4-ene),
12 (xxii) fluoxymesterone (9-fluoro-17[alpha]-methyl-
13 1[beta],17[beta]-dihydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one),
14 (xxiii) formebolone (2-formyl-17[alpha]-methyl-11[alpha],
15 17[beta]-dihydroxyandrost-1,4-dien-3-one),
16 (xxiv) furazabol (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-
17 hydroxyandrostano[2,3-c]-furazan),
18 (xxv) 13[beta]-ethyl-17[beta]-hydroxygon-4-en-3-one)
19 (xxvi) 4-hydroxytestosterone (4,17[beta]-dihydroxy-
20 androst-4-en-3-one),
21 (xxvii) 4-hydroxy-19-nortestosterone (4,17[beta]-
22 dihydroxy-estr-4-en-3-one),
23 (xxviii) mestanolone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-
24 hydroxy-5-androstan-3-one),
25 (xxix) mesterolone (1amethyl-17[beta]-hydroxy-
26 [5a]-androstan-3-one),

09800SB2640ham001- 1714 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 (xxx) methandienone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-
2 hydroxyandrost-1,4-dien-3-one),
3 (xxxi) methandriol (17[alpha]-methyl-3[beta],17[beta]-
4 dihydroxyandrost-5-ene),
5 (xxxii) methenolone (1-methyl-17[beta]-hydroxy-
6 5[alpha]-androst-1-en-3-one),
7 (xxxiii) 17[alpha]-methyl-3[beta], 17[beta]-
8 dihydroxy-5a-androstane),
9 (xxxiv) 17[alpha]-methyl-3[alpha],17[beta]-dihydroxy
10 -5a-androstane),
11 (xxxv) 17[alpha]-methyl-3[beta],17[beta]-
12 dihydroxyandrost-4-ene),
13 (xxxvi) 17[alpha]-methyl-4-hydroxynandrolone (17[alpha]-
14 methyl-4-hydroxy-17[beta]-hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one),
15 (xxxvii) methyldienolone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-
16 hydroxyestra-4,9(10)-dien-3-one),
17 (xxxviii) methyltrienolone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-
18 hydroxyestra-4,9-11-trien-3-one),
19 (xxxix) methyltestosterone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-
20 hydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one),
21 (xl) mibolerone (7[alpha],17a-dimethyl-17[beta]-
22 hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one),
23 (xli) 17[alpha]-methyl-[delta]1-dihydrotestosterone
24 (17b[beta]-hydroxy-17[alpha]-methyl-5[alpha]-
25 androst-1-en-3-one)(a.k.a. '17-[alpha]-methyl-
26 1-testosterone'),

09800SB2640ham001- 1715 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 (xlii) nandrolone (17[beta]-hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one),
2 (xliii) 19-nor-4-androstenediol (3[beta], 17[beta]-
3 dihydroxyestr-4-ene),
4 (xliv) 19-nor-4-androstenediol (3[alpha], 17[beta]-
5 dihydroxyestr-4-ene),
6 (xlv) 19-nor-5-androstenediol (3[beta], 17[beta]-
7 dihydroxyestr-5-ene),
8 (xlvi) 19-nor-5-androstenediol (3[alpha], 17[beta]-
9 dihydroxyestr-5-ene),
10 (xlvii) 19-nor-4,9(10)-androstadienedione
11 (estra-4,9(10)-diene-3,17-dione),
12 (xlviii) 19-nor-4-androstenedione (estr-4-
13 en-3,17-dione),
14 (xlix) 19-nor-5-androstenedione (estr-5-
15 en-3,17-dione),
16 (l) norbolethone (13[beta], 17a-diethyl-17[beta]-
17 hydroxygon-4-en-3-one),
18 (li) norclostebol (4-chloro-17[beta]-
19 hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one),
20 (lii) norethandrolone (17[alpha]-ethyl-17[beta]-
21 hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one),
22 (liii) normethandrolone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-
23 hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one),
24 (liv) oxandrolone (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-hydroxy-
25 2-oxa-5[alpha]-androstan-3-one),
26 (lv) oxymesterone (17[alpha]-methyl-4,17[beta]-

09800SB2640ham001- 1716 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 dihydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one),
2 (lvi) oxymetholone (17[alpha]-methyl-2-hydroxymethylene-
3 17[beta]-hydroxy-(5[alpha]-androstan-3-one),
4 (lvii) stanozolol (17[alpha]-methyl-17[beta]-hydroxy-
5 (5[alpha]-androst-2-eno[3,2-c]-pyrazole),
6 (lviii) stenbolone (17[beta]-hydroxy-2-methyl-
7 (5[alpha]-androst-1-en-3-one),
8 (lix) testolactone (13-hydroxy-3-oxo-13,17-
9 secoandrosta-1,4-dien-17-oic
10 acid lactone),
11 (lx) testosterone (17[beta]-hydroxyandrost-
12 4-en-3-one),
13 (lxi) tetrahydrogestrinone (13[beta], 17[alpha]-
14 diethyl-17[beta]-hydroxygon-
15 4,9,11-trien-3-one),
16 (lxii) trenbolone (17[beta]-hydroxyestr-4,9,
17 11-trien-3-one).
18 Any person who is otherwise lawfully in possession of an
19anabolic steroid, or who otherwise lawfully manufactures,
20distributes, dispenses, delivers, or possesses with intent to
21deliver an anabolic steroid, which anabolic steroid is
22expressly intended for and lawfully allowed to be administered
23through implants to livestock or other nonhuman species, and
24which is approved by the Secretary of Health and Human Services
25for such administration, and which the person intends to
26administer or have administered through such implants, shall

09800SB2640ham001- 1717 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1not be considered to be in unauthorized possession or to
2unlawfully manufacture, distribute, dispense, deliver, or
3possess with intent to deliver such anabolic steroid for
4purposes of this Act.
5 (d) "Administration" means the Drug Enforcement
6Administration, United States Department of Justice, or its
7successor agency.
8 (d-5) "Clinical Director, Prescription Monitoring Program"
9means a Department of Human Services administrative employee
10licensed to either prescribe or dispense controlled substances
11who shall run the clinical aspects of the Department of Human
12Services Prescription Monitoring Program and its Prescription
13Information Library.
14 (d-10) "Compounding" means the preparation and mixing of
15components, excluding flavorings, (1) as the result of a
16prescriber's prescription drug order or initiative based on the
17prescriber-patient-pharmacist relationship in the course of
18professional practice or (2) for the purpose of, or incident
19to, research, teaching, or chemical analysis and not for sale
20or dispensing. "Compounding" includes the preparation of drugs
21or devices in anticipation of receiving prescription drug
22orders based on routine, regularly observed dispensing
23patterns. Commercially available products may be compounded
24for dispensing to individual patients only if both of the
25following conditions are met: (i) the commercial product is not
26reasonably available from normal distribution channels in a

09800SB2640ham001- 1718 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1timely manner to meet the patient's needs and (ii) the
2prescribing practitioner has requested that the drug be
3compounded.
4 (e) "Control" means to add a drug or other substance, or
5immediate precursor, to a Schedule whether by transfer from
6another Schedule or otherwise.
7 (f) "Controlled Substance" means (i) a drug, substance, or
8immediate precursor in the Schedules of Article II of this Act
9or (ii) a drug or other substance, or immediate precursor,
10designated as a controlled substance by the Department through
11administrative rule. The term does not include distilled
12spirits, wine, malt beverages, or tobacco, as those terms are
13defined or used in the Liquor Control Act of 1934 and the
14Tobacco Products Tax Act of 1995.
15 (f-5) "Controlled substance analog" means a substance:
16 (1) the chemical structure of which is substantially
17 similar to the chemical structure of a controlled substance
18 in Schedule I or II;
19 (2) which has a stimulant, depressant, or
20 hallucinogenic effect on the central nervous system that is
21 substantially similar to or greater than the stimulant,
22 depressant, or hallucinogenic effect on the central
23 nervous system of a controlled substance in Schedule I or
24 II; or
25 (3) with respect to a particular person, which such
26 person represents or intends to have a stimulant,

09800SB2640ham001- 1719 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 depressant, or hallucinogenic effect on the central
2 nervous system that is substantially similar to or greater
3 than the stimulant, depressant, or hallucinogenic effect
4 on the central nervous system of a controlled substance in
5 Schedule I or II.
6 (g) "Counterfeit substance" means a controlled substance,
7which, or the container or labeling of which, without
8authorization bears the trademark, trade name, or other
9identifying mark, imprint, number or device, or any likeness
10thereof, of a manufacturer, distributor, or dispenser other
11than the person who in fact manufactured, distributed, or
12dispensed the substance.
13 (h) "Deliver" or "delivery" means the actual, constructive
14or attempted transfer of possession of a controlled substance,
15with or without consideration, whether or not there is an
16agency relationship.
17 (i) "Department" means the Illinois Department of Human
18Services (as successor to the Department of Alcoholism and
19Substance Abuse) or its successor agency.
20 (j) (Blank).
21 (k) "Department of Corrections" means the Department of
22Corrections of the State of Illinois or its successor agency.
23 (l) "Department of Financial and Professional Regulation"
24means the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation
25of the State of Illinois or its successor agency.
26 (m) "Depressant" means any drug that (i) causes an overall

09800SB2640ham001- 1720 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1depression of central nervous system functions, (ii) causes
2impaired consciousness and awareness, and (iii) can be
3habit-forming or lead to a substance abuse problem, including
4but not limited to alcohol, cannabis and its active principles
5and their analogs, benzodiazepines and their analogs,
6barbiturates and their analogs, opioids (natural and
7synthetic) and their analogs, and chloral hydrate and similar
8sedative hypnotics.
9 (n) (Blank).
10 (o) "Director" means the Director of the Illinois State
11Police or his or her designated agents.
12 (p) "Dispense" means to deliver a controlled substance to
13an ultimate user or research subject by or pursuant to the
14lawful order of a prescriber, including the prescribing,
15administering, packaging, labeling, or compounding necessary
16to prepare the substance for that delivery.
17 (q) "Dispenser" means a practitioner who dispenses.
18 (r) "Distribute" means to deliver, other than by
19administering or dispensing, a controlled substance.
20 (s) "Distributor" means a person who distributes.
21 (t) "Drug" means (1) substances recognized as drugs in the
22official United States Pharmacopoeia, Official Homeopathic
23Pharmacopoeia of the United States, or official National
24Formulary, or any supplement to any of them; (2) substances
25intended for use in diagnosis, cure, mitigation, treatment, or
26prevention of disease in man or animals; (3) substances (other

09800SB2640ham001- 1721 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1than food) intended to affect the structure of any function of
2the body of man or animals and (4) substances intended for use
3as a component of any article specified in clause (1), (2), or
4(3) of this subsection. It does not include devices or their
5components, parts, or accessories.
6 (t-5) "Euthanasia agency" means an entity certified by the
7Department of Financial and Professional Regulation for the
8purpose of animal euthanasia that holds an animal control
9facility license or animal shelter license under the Animal
10Welfare Act. A euthanasia agency is authorized to purchase,
11store, possess, and utilize Schedule II nonnarcotic and
12Schedule III nonnarcotic drugs for the sole purpose of animal
13euthanasia.
14 (t-10) "Euthanasia drugs" means Schedule II or Schedule III
15substances (nonnarcotic controlled substances) that are used
16by a euthanasia agency for the purpose of animal euthanasia.
17 (u) "Good faith" means the prescribing or dispensing of a
18controlled substance by a practitioner in the regular course of
19professional treatment to or for any person who is under his or
20her treatment for a pathology or condition other than that
21individual's physical or psychological dependence upon or
22addiction to a controlled substance, except as provided herein:
23and application of the term to a pharmacist shall mean the
24dispensing of a controlled substance pursuant to the
25prescriber's order which in the professional judgment of the
26pharmacist is lawful. The pharmacist shall be guided by

09800SB2640ham001- 1722 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1accepted professional standards including, but not limited to
2the following, in making the judgment:
3 (1) lack of consistency of prescriber-patient
4 relationship,
5 (2) frequency of prescriptions for same drug by one
6 prescriber for large numbers of patients,
7 (3) quantities beyond those normally prescribed,
8 (4) unusual dosages (recognizing that there may be
9 clinical circumstances where more or less than the usual
10 dose may be used legitimately),
11 (5) unusual geographic distances between patient,
12 pharmacist and prescriber,
13 (6) consistent prescribing of habit-forming drugs.
14 (u-0.5) "Hallucinogen" means a drug that causes markedly
15altered sensory perception leading to hallucinations of any
16type.
17 (u-1) "Home infusion services" means services provided by a
18pharmacy in compounding solutions for direct administration to
19a patient in a private residence, long-term care facility, or
20hospice setting by means of parenteral, intravenous,
21intramuscular, subcutaneous, or intraspinal infusion.
22 (u-5) "Illinois State Police" means the State Police of the
23State of Illinois, or its successor agency.
24 (v) "Immediate precursor" means a substance:
25 (1) which the Department has found to be and by rule
26 designated as being a principal compound used, or produced

09800SB2640ham001- 1723 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 primarily for use, in the manufacture of a controlled
2 substance;
3 (2) which is an immediate chemical intermediary used or
4 likely to be used in the manufacture of such controlled
5 substance; and
6 (3) the control of which is necessary to prevent,
7 curtail or limit the manufacture of such controlled
8 substance.
9 (w) "Instructional activities" means the acts of teaching,
10educating or instructing by practitioners using controlled
11substances within educational facilities approved by the State
12Board of Education or its successor agency.
13 (x) "Local authorities" means a duly organized State,
14County or Municipal peace unit or police force.
15 (y) "Look-alike substance" means a substance, other than a
16controlled substance which (1) by overall dosage unit
17appearance, including shape, color, size, markings or lack
18thereof, taste, consistency, or any other identifying physical
19characteristic of the substance, would lead a reasonable person
20to believe that the substance is a controlled substance, or (2)
21is expressly or impliedly represented to be a controlled
22substance or is distributed under circumstances which would
23lead a reasonable person to believe that the substance is a
24controlled substance. For the purpose of determining whether
25the representations made or the circumstances of the
26distribution would lead a reasonable person to believe the

09800SB2640ham001- 1724 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1substance to be a controlled substance under this clause (2) of
2subsection (y), the court or other authority may consider the
3following factors in addition to any other factor that may be
4relevant:
5 (a) statements made by the owner or person in control
6 of the substance concerning its nature, use or effect;
7 (b) statements made to the buyer or recipient that the
8 substance may be resold for profit;
9 (c) whether the substance is packaged in a manner
10 normally used for the illegal distribution of controlled
11 substances;
12 (d) whether the distribution or attempted distribution
13 included an exchange of or demand for money or other
14 property as consideration, and whether the amount of the
15 consideration was substantially greater than the
16 reasonable retail market value of the substance.
17 Clause (1) of this subsection (y) shall not apply to a
18noncontrolled substance in its finished dosage form that was
19initially introduced into commerce prior to the initial
20introduction into commerce of a controlled substance in its
21finished dosage form which it may substantially resemble.
22 Nothing in this subsection (y) prohibits the dispensing or
23distributing of noncontrolled substances by persons authorized
24to dispense and distribute controlled substances under this
25Act, provided that such action would be deemed to be carried
26out in good faith under subsection (u) if the substances

09800SB2640ham001- 1725 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1involved were controlled substances.
2 Nothing in this subsection (y) or in this Act prohibits the
3manufacture, preparation, propagation, compounding,
4processing, packaging, advertising or distribution of a drug or
5drugs by any person registered pursuant to Section 510 of the
6Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. 360).
7 (y-1) "Mail-order pharmacy" means a pharmacy that is
8located in a state of the United States that delivers,
9dispenses or distributes, through the United States Postal
10Service or other common carrier, to Illinois residents, any
11substance which requires a prescription.
12 (z) "Manufacture" means the production, preparation,
13propagation, compounding, conversion or processing of a
14controlled substance other than methamphetamine, either
15directly or indirectly, by extraction from substances of
16natural origin, or independently by means of chemical
17synthesis, or by a combination of extraction and chemical
18synthesis, and includes any packaging or repackaging of the
19substance or labeling of its container, except that this term
20does not include:
21 (1) by an ultimate user, the preparation or compounding
22 of a controlled substance for his or her own use; or
23 (2) by a practitioner, or his or her authorized agent
24 under his or her supervision, the preparation,
25 compounding, packaging, or labeling of a controlled
26 substance:

09800SB2640ham001- 1726 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 (a) as an incident to his or her administering or
2 dispensing of a controlled substance in the course of
3 his or her professional practice; or
4 (b) as an incident to lawful research, teaching or
5 chemical analysis and not for sale.
6 (z-1) (Blank).
7 (z-5) "Medication shopping" means the conduct prohibited
8under subsection (a) of Section 314.5 of this Act.
9 (z-10) "Mid-level practitioner" means (i) a physician
10assistant who has been delegated authority to prescribe through
11a written delegation of authority by a physician licensed to
12practice medicine in all of its branches, in accordance with
13Section 7.5 of the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987,
14(ii) an advanced practice nurse who has been delegated
15authority to prescribe through a written delegation of
16authority by a physician licensed to practice medicine in all
17of its branches or by a podiatric physician, in accordance with
18Section 65-40 of the Nurse Practice Act, or (iii) an animal
19euthanasia agency.
20 (aa) "Narcotic drug" means any of the following, whether
21produced directly or indirectly by extraction from substances
22of vegetable origin, or independently by means of chemical
23synthesis, or by a combination of extraction and chemical
24synthesis:
25 (1) opium, opiates, derivatives of opium and opiates,
26 including their isomers, esters, ethers, salts, and salts

09800SB2640ham001- 1727 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 of isomers, esters, and ethers, whenever the existence of
2 such isomers, esters, ethers, and salts is possible within
3 the specific chemical designation; however the term
4 "narcotic drug" does not include the isoquinoline
5 alkaloids of opium;
6 (2) (blank);
7 (3) opium poppy and poppy straw;
8 (4) coca leaves, except coca leaves and extracts of
9 coca leaves from which substantially all of the cocaine and
10 ecgonine, and their isomers, derivatives and salts, have
11 been removed;
12 (5) cocaine, its salts, optical and geometric isomers,
13 and salts of isomers;
14 (6) ecgonine, its derivatives, their salts, isomers,
15 and salts of isomers;
16 (7) any compound, mixture, or preparation which
17 contains any quantity of any of the substances referred to
18 in subparagraphs (1) through (6).
19 (bb) "Nurse" means a registered nurse licensed under the
20Nurse Practice Act.
21 (cc) (Blank).
22 (dd) "Opiate" means any substance having an addiction
23forming or addiction sustaining liability similar to morphine
24or being capable of conversion into a drug having addiction
25forming or addiction sustaining liability.
26 (ee) "Opium poppy" means the plant of the species Papaver

09800SB2640ham001- 1728 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1somniferum L., except its seeds.
2 (ee-5) "Oral dosage" means a tablet, capsule, elixir, or
3solution or other liquid form of medication intended for
4administration by mouth, but the term does not include a form
5of medication intended for buccal, sublingual, or transmucosal
6administration.
7 (ff) "Parole and Pardon Board" means the Parole and Pardon
8Board of the State of Illinois or its successor agency.
9 (gg) "Person" means any individual, corporation,
10mail-order pharmacy, government or governmental subdivision or
11agency, business trust, estate, trust, partnership or
12association, or any other entity.
13 (hh) "Pharmacist" means any person who holds a license or
14certificate of registration as a registered pharmacist, a local
15registered pharmacist or a registered assistant pharmacist
16under the Pharmacy Practice Act.
17 (ii) "Pharmacy" means any store, ship or other place in
18which pharmacy is authorized to be practiced under the Pharmacy
19Practice Act.
20 (ii-5) "Pharmacy shopping" means the conduct prohibited
21under subsection (b) of Section 314.5 of this Act.
22 (ii-10) "Physician" (except when the context otherwise
23requires) means a person licensed to practice medicine in all
24of its branches.
25 (jj) "Poppy straw" means all parts, except the seeds, of
26the opium poppy, after mowing.

09800SB2640ham001- 1729 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 (kk) "Practitioner" means a physician licensed to practice
2medicine in all its branches, dentist, optometrist, podiatric
3physician, veterinarian, scientific investigator, pharmacist,
4physician assistant, advanced practice nurse, licensed
5practical nurse, registered nurse, hospital, laboratory, or
6pharmacy, or other person licensed, registered, or otherwise
7lawfully permitted by the United States or this State to
8distribute, dispense, conduct research with respect to,
9administer or use in teaching or chemical analysis, a
10controlled substance in the course of professional practice or
11research.
12 (ll) "Pre-printed prescription" means a written
13prescription upon which the designated drug has been indicated
14prior to the time of issuance; the term does not mean a written
15prescription that is individually generated by machine or
16computer in the prescriber's office.
17 (mm) "Prescriber" means a physician licensed to practice
18medicine in all its branches, dentist, optometrist, podiatric
19physician or veterinarian who issues a prescription, a
20physician assistant who issues a prescription for a controlled
21substance in accordance with Section 303.05, a written
22delegation, and a written supervision agreement required under
23Section 7.5 of the Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987, or
24an advanced practice nurse with prescriptive authority
25delegated under Section 65-40 of the Nurse Practice Act and in
26accordance with Section 303.05, a written delegation, and a

09800SB2640ham001- 1730 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1written collaborative agreement under Section 65-35 of the
2Nurse Practice Act.
3 (nn) "Prescription" means a written, facsimile, or oral
4order, or an electronic order that complies with applicable
5federal requirements, of a physician licensed to practice
6medicine in all its branches, dentist, podiatric physician or
7veterinarian for any controlled substance, of an optometrist
8for a Schedule III, IV, or V controlled substance in accordance
9with Section 15.1 of the Illinois Optometric Practice Act of
101987, of a physician assistant for a controlled substance in
11accordance with Section 303.05, a written delegation, and a
12written supervision agreement required under Section 7.5 of the
13Physician Assistant Practice Act of 1987, or of an advanced
14practice nurse with prescriptive authority delegated under
15Section 65-40 of the Nurse Practice Act who issues a
16prescription for a controlled substance in accordance with
17Section 303.05, a written delegation, and a written
18collaborative agreement under Section 65-35 of the Nurse
19Practice Act when required by law.
20 (nn-5) "Prescription Information Library" (PIL) means an
21electronic library that contains reported controlled substance
22data.
23 (nn-10) "Prescription Monitoring Program" (PMP) means the
24entity that collects, tracks, and stores reported data on
25controlled substances and select drugs pursuant to Section 316.
26 (oo) "Production" or "produce" means manufacture,

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1planting, cultivating, growing, or harvesting of a controlled
2substance other than methamphetamine.
3 (pp) "Registrant" means every person who is required to
4register under Section 302 of this Act.
5 (qq) "Registry number" means the number assigned to each
6person authorized to handle controlled substances under the
7laws of the United States and of this State.
8 (qq-5) "Secretary" means, as the context requires, either
9the Secretary of the Department or the Secretary of the
10Department of Financial and Professional Regulation, and the
11Secretary's designated agents.
12 (rr) "State" includes the State of Illinois and any state,
13district, commonwealth, territory, insular possession thereof,
14and any area subject to the legal authority of the United
15States of America.
16 (rr-5) "Stimulant" means any drug that (i) causes an
17overall excitation of central nervous system functions, (ii)
18causes impaired consciousness and awareness, and (iii) can be
19habit-forming or lead to a substance abuse problem, including
20but not limited to amphetamines and their analogs,
21methylphenidate and its analogs, cocaine, and phencyclidine
22and its analogs.
23 (ss) "Ultimate user" means a person who lawfully possesses
24a controlled substance for his or her own use or for the use of
25a member of his or her household or for administering to an
26animal owned by him or her or by a member of his or her

09800SB2640ham001- 1732 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1household.
2(Source: P.A. 97-334, eff. 1-1-12; 98-214, eff. 8-9-13; revised
311-12-13.)
4 (720 ILCS 570/201) (from Ch. 56 1/2, par. 1201)
5 Sec. 201. (a) The Department shall carry out the provisions
6of this Article. The Department or its successor agency may, by
7administrative rule, add additional substances to or delete or
8reschedule all controlled substances in the Schedules of
9Sections 204, 206, 208, 210 and 212 of this Act. In making a
10determination regarding the addition, deletion, or
11rescheduling of a substance, the Department shall consider the
12following:
13 (1) the actual or relative potential for abuse;
14 (2) the scientific evidence of its pharmacological
15 effect, if known;
16 (3) the state of current scientific knowledge
17 regarding the substance;
18 (4) the history and current pattern of abuse;
19 (5) the scope, duration, and significance of abuse;
20 (6) the risk to the public health;
21 (7) the potential of the substance to produce
22 psychological or physiological dependence;
23 (8) whether the substance is an immediate precursor of
24 a substance already controlled under this Article;
25 (9) the immediate harmful effect in terms of

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1 potentially fatal dosage; and
2 (10) the long-range effects in terms of permanent
3 health impairment.
4 (b) (Blank).
5 (c) (Blank).
6 (d) If any substance is scheduled, rescheduled, or deleted
7as a controlled substance under Federal law and notice thereof
8is given to the Department, the Department shall similarly
9control the substance under this Act after the expiration of 30
10days from publication in the Federal Register of a final order
11scheduling a substance as a controlled substance or
12rescheduling or deleting a substance, unless within that 30 day
13period the Department objects, or a party adversely affected
14files with the Department substantial written objections
15objecting to inclusion, rescheduling, or deletion. In that
16case, the Department shall publish the reasons for objection or
17the substantial written objections and afford all interested
18parties an opportunity to be heard. At the conclusion of the
19hearing, the Department shall publish its decision, by means of
20a rule, which shall be final unless altered by statute. Upon
21publication of objections by the Department, similar control
22under this Act whether by inclusion, rescheduling or deletion
23is stayed until the Department publishes its ruling.
24 (e) (Blank).
25 (f) (Blank).
26 (g) Authority to control under this Section does not extend

09800SB2640ham001- 1734 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1to distilled spirits, wine, malt beverages, or tobacco as those
2terms are defined or used in the Liquor Control Act of 1934 and
3the Tobacco Products Tax Act of 1995.
4 (h) Persons registered with the Drug Enforcement
5Administration to manufacture or distribute controlled
6substances shall maintain adequate security and provide
7effective controls and procedures to guard against theft and
8diversion, but shall not otherwise be required to meet the
9physical security control requirements (such as cage or vault)
10for Schedule V controlled substances containing
11pseudoephedrine or Schedule II controlled substances
12containing dextromethorphan.
13(Source: P.A. 97-334, eff. 1-1-12; revised 11-12-13.)
14 Section 710. The Rights of Crime Victims and Witnesses Act
15is amended by changing Section 4.5 as follows:
16 (725 ILCS 120/4.5)
17 Sec. 4.5. Procedures to implement the rights of crime
18victims. To afford crime victims their rights, law enforcement,
19prosecutors, judges and corrections will provide information,
20as appropriate of the following procedures:
21 (a) At the request of the crime victim, law enforcement
22authorities investigating the case shall provide notice of the
23status of the investigation, except where the State's Attorney
24determines that disclosure of such information would

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1unreasonably interfere with the investigation, until such time
2as the alleged assailant is apprehended or the investigation is
3closed.
4 (a-5) When law enforcement authorities re-open a closed
5case to resume investigating, they shall provide notice of the
6re-opening of the case, except where the State's Attorney
7determines that disclosure of such information would
8unreasonably interfere with the investigation.
9 (b) The office of the State's Attorney:
10 (1) shall provide notice of the filing of information,
11 the return of an indictment by which a prosecution for any
12 violent crime is commenced, or the filing of a petition to
13 adjudicate a minor as a delinquent for a violent crime;
14 (2) shall provide notice of the date, time, and place
15 of trial;
16 (3) or victim advocate personnel shall provide
17 information of social services and financial assistance
18 available for victims of crime, including information of
19 how to apply for these services and assistance;
20 (3.5) or victim advocate personnel shall provide
21 information about available victim services, including
22 referrals to programs, counselors, and agencies that
23 assist a victim to deal with trauma, loss, and grief;
24 (4) shall assist in having any stolen or other personal
25 property held by law enforcement authorities for
26 evidentiary or other purposes returned as expeditiously as

09800SB2640ham001- 1736 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 possible, pursuant to the procedures set out in Section
2 115-9 of the Code of Criminal Procedure of 1963;
3 (5) or victim advocate personnel shall provide
4 appropriate employer intercession services to ensure that
5 employers of victims will cooperate with the criminal
6 justice system in order to minimize an employee's loss of
7 pay and other benefits resulting from court appearances;
8 (6) shall provide information whenever possible, of a
9 secure waiting area during court proceedings that does not
10 require victims to be in close proximity to defendant or
11 juveniles accused of a violent crime, and their families
12 and friends;
13 (7) shall provide notice to the crime victim of the
14 right to have a translator present at all court proceedings
15 and, in compliance with the federal Americans with
16 Disabilities Act of 1990, the right to communications
17 access through a sign language interpreter or by other
18 means;
19 (8) in the case of the death of a person, which death
20 occurred in the same transaction or occurrence in which
21 acts occurred for which a defendant is charged with an
22 offense, shall notify the spouse, parent, child or sibling
23 of the decedent of the date of the trial of the person or
24 persons allegedly responsible for the death;
25 (9) shall inform the victim of the right to have
26 present at all court proceedings, subject to the rules of

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1 evidence, an advocate or other support person of the
2 victim's choice, and the right to retain an attorney, at
3 the victim's own expense, who, upon written notice filed
4 with the clerk of the court and State's Attorney, is to
5 receive copies of all notices, motions and court orders
6 filed thereafter in the case, in the same manner as if the
7 victim were a named party in the case;
8 (9.5) shall inform the victim of (A) the victim's right
9 under Section 6 of this Act to make a victim impact
10 statement at the sentencing hearing; (B) the right of the
11 victim's spouse, guardian, parent, grandparent and other
12 immediate family and household members under Section 6 of
13 this Act to present an impact statement at sentencing; and
14 (C) if a presentence report is to be prepared, the right of
15 the victim's spouse, guardian, parent, grandparent and
16 other immediate family and household members to submit
17 information to the preparer of the presentence report about
18 the effect the offense has had on the victim and the
19 person;
20 (10) at the sentencing hearing shall make a good faith
21 attempt to explain the minimum amount of time during which
22 the defendant may actually be physically imprisoned. The
23 Office of the State's Attorney shall further notify the
24 crime victim of the right to request from the Prisoner
25 Review Board information concerning the release of the
26 defendant under subparagraph (d)(1) of this Section;

09800SB2640ham001- 1738 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 (11) shall request restitution at sentencing and shall
2 consider restitution in any plea negotiation, as provided
3 by law; and
4 (12) shall, upon the court entering a verdict of not
5 guilty by reason of insanity, inform the victim of the
6 notification services available from the Department of
7 Human Services, including the statewide telephone number,
8 under subparagraph (d)(2) of this Section.
9 (c) At the written request of the crime victim, the office
10of the State's Attorney shall:
11 (1) provide notice a reasonable time in advance of the
12 following court proceedings: preliminary hearing, any
13 hearing the effect of which may be the release of defendant
14 from custody, or to alter the conditions of bond and the
15 sentencing hearing. The crime victim shall also be notified
16 of the cancellation of the court proceeding in sufficient
17 time, wherever possible, to prevent an unnecessary
18 appearance in court;
19 (2) provide notice within a reasonable time after
20 receipt of notice from the custodian, of the release of the
21 defendant on bail or personal recognizance or the release
22 from detention of a minor who has been detained for a
23 violent crime;
24 (3) explain in nontechnical language the details of any
25 plea or verdict of a defendant, or any adjudication of a
26 juvenile as a delinquent for a violent crime;

09800SB2640ham001- 1739 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 (4) where practical, consult with the crime victim
2 before the Office of the State's Attorney makes an offer of
3 a plea bargain to the defendant or enters into negotiations
4 with the defendant concerning a possible plea agreement,
5 and shall consider the written victim impact statement, if
6 prepared prior to entering into a plea agreement;
7 (5) provide notice of the ultimate disposition of the
8 cases arising from an indictment or an information, or a
9 petition to have a juvenile adjudicated as a delinquent for
10 a violent crime;
11 (6) provide notice of any appeal taken by the defendant
12 and information on how to contact the appropriate agency
13 handling the appeal;
14 (7) provide notice of any request for post-conviction
15 review filed by the defendant under Article 122 of the Code
16 of Criminal Procedure of 1963, and of the date, time and
17 place of any hearing concerning the petition. Whenever
18 possible, notice of the hearing shall be given in advance;
19 (8) forward a copy of any statement presented under
20 Section 6 to the Prisoner Review Board to be considered by
21 the Board in making its determination under subsection (b)
22 of Section 3-3-8 of the Unified Code of Corrections.
23 (d)(1) The Prisoner Review Board shall inform a victim or
24any other concerned citizen, upon written request, of the
25prisoner's release on parole, aftercare release, mandatory
26supervised release, electronic detention, work release,

09800SB2640ham001- 1740 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1international transfer or exchange, or by the custodian of the
2discharge of any individual who was adjudicated a delinquent
3for a violent crime from State custody and by the sheriff of
4the appropriate county of any such person's final discharge
5from county custody. The Prisoner Review Board, upon written
6request, shall provide to a victim or any other concerned
7citizen a recent photograph of any person convicted of a
8felony, upon his or her release from custody. The Prisoner
9Review Board, upon written request, shall inform a victim or
10any other concerned citizen when feasible at least 7 days prior
11to the prisoner's release on furlough of the times and dates of
12such furlough. Upon written request by the victim or any other
13concerned citizen, the State's Attorney shall notify the person
14once of the times and dates of release of a prisoner sentenced
15to periodic imprisonment. Notification shall be based on the
16most recent information as to victim's or other concerned
17citizen's residence or other location available to the
18notifying authority.
19 (2) When the defendant has been committed to the Department
20of Human Services pursuant to Section 5-2-4 or any other
21provision of the Unified Code of Corrections, the victim may
22request to be notified by the releasing authority of the
23approval by the court of an on-grounds pass, a supervised
24off-grounds pass, an unsupervised off-grounds pass, or
25conditional release; the release on an off-grounds pass; the
26return from an off-grounds pass; transfer to another facility;

09800SB2640ham001- 1741 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1conditional release; escape; death; or final discharge from
2State custody. The Department of Human Services shall establish
3and maintain a statewide telephone number to be used by victims
4to make notification requests under these provisions and shall
5publicize this telephone number on its website and to the
6State's Attorney of each county.
7 (3) In the event of an escape from State custody, the
8Department of Corrections or the Department of Juvenile Justice
9immediately shall notify the Prisoner Review Board of the
10escape and the Prisoner Review Board shall notify the victim.
11The notification shall be based upon the most recent
12information as to the victim's residence or other location
13available to the Board. When no such information is available,
14the Board shall make all reasonable efforts to obtain the
15information and make the notification. When the escapee is
16apprehended, the Department of Corrections or the Department of
17Juvenile Justice immediately shall notify the Prisoner Review
18Board and the Board shall notify the victim.
19 (4) The victim of the crime for which the prisoner has been
20sentenced shall receive reasonable written notice not less than
2130 days prior to the parole or aftercare release hearing and
22may submit, in writing, on film, videotape or other electronic
23means or in the form of a recording or in person at the parole
24or aftercare release hearing or if a victim of a violent crime,
25by calling the toll-free number established in subsection (f)
26of this Section, information for consideration by the Prisoner

09800SB2640ham001- 1742 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1Review Board. The victim shall be notified within 7 days after
2the prisoner has been granted parole or aftercare release and
3shall be informed of the right to inspect the registry of
4parole or aftercare release decisions, established under
5subsection (g) of Section 3-3-5 of the Unified Code of
6Corrections. The provisions of this paragraph (4) are subject
7to the Open Parole Hearings Act.
8 (5) If a statement is presented under Section 6, the
9Prisoner Review Board shall inform the victim of any order of
10discharge entered by the Board pursuant to Section 3-3-8 of the
11Unified Code of Corrections.
12 (6) At the written request of the victim of the crime for
13which the prisoner was sentenced or the State's Attorney of the
14county where the person seeking parole or aftercare release was
15prosecuted, the Prisoner Review Board shall notify the victim
16and the State's Attorney of the county where the person seeking
17parole or aftercare release was prosecuted of the death of the
18prisoner if the prisoner died while on parole or aftercare
19release or mandatory supervised release.
20 (7) When a defendant who has been committed to the
21Department of Corrections, the Department of Juvenile Justice,
22or the Department of Human Services is released or discharged
23and subsequently committed to the Department of Human Services
24as a sexually violent person and the victim had requested to be
25notified by the releasing authority of the defendant's
26discharge, conditional release, death, or escape from State

09800SB2640ham001- 1743 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1custody, the releasing authority shall provide to the
2Department of Human Services such information that would allow
3the Department of Human Services to contact the victim.
4 (8) When a defendant has been convicted of a sex offense as
5defined in Section 2 of the Sex Offender Registration Act and
6has been sentenced to the Department of Corrections or the
7Department of Juvenile Justice, the Prisoner Review Board shall
8notify the victim of the sex offense of the prisoner's
9eligibility for release on parole, aftercare release,
10mandatory supervised release, electronic detention, work
11release, international transfer or exchange, or by the
12custodian of the discharge of any individual who was
13adjudicated a delinquent for a sex offense from State custody
14and by the sheriff of the appropriate county of any such
15person's final discharge from county custody. The notification
16shall be made to the victim at least 30 days, whenever
17possible, before release of the sex offender.
18 (e) The officials named in this Section may satisfy some or
19all of their obligations to provide notices and other
20information through participation in a statewide victim and
21witness notification system established by the Attorney
22General under Section 8.5 of this Act.
23 (f) To permit a victim of a violent crime to provide
24information to the Prisoner Review Board for consideration by
25the Board at a parole or aftercare release hearing of a person
26who committed the crime against the victim in accordance with

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1clause (d)(4) of this Section or at a proceeding to determine
2the conditions of mandatory supervised release of a person
3sentenced to a determinate sentence or at a hearing on
4revocation of mandatory supervised release of a person
5sentenced to a determinate sentence, the Board shall establish
6a toll-free number that may be accessed by the victim of a
7violent crime to present that information to the Board.
8(Source: P.A. 97-457, eff. 1-1-12; 97-572, eff. 1-1-12; 97-813,
9eff. 7-13-12; 97-815, eff. 1-1-13; 98-372, eff. 1-1-14; 98-558,
10eff. 1-1-14; revised 9-24-13.)
11 Section 715. The Sexually Violent Persons Commitment Act is
12amended by changing Section 30 as follows:
13 (725 ILCS 207/30)
14 Sec. 30. Detention; probable cause hearing; transfer for
15examination.
16 (a) Upon the filing of a petition under Section 15 of this
17Act, the court shall review the petition to determine whether
18to issue an order for detention of the person who is the
19subject of the petition. The person shall be detained only if
20there is cause to believe that the person is eligible for
21commitment under subsection (f) of Section 35 of this Act. A
22person detained under this Section shall be held in a facility
23approved by the Department. The Department may elect to place
24persons who have been ordered by the court to be detained in a

09800SB2640ham001- 1745 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1State-operated mental health facility or a portion of that
2facility. Persons placed in a State-operated mental health
3facility under this Act shall be separated and shall not
4comingle with the recipients of the mental health facility. The
5portion of a State-operated mental health facility that is used
6for the persons detained under this Act shall not be a part of
7the mental health facility for the enforcement and
8implementation of the Mental Health and Developmental
9Disabilities Code nor shall their care and treatment be subject
10to the provisions of the Mental Health and Developmental
11Disabilities Code. The changes added to this Section by Public
12Act 98-79 this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly are
13inoperative on and after June 30, 2015. If the person is
14serving a sentence of imprisonment, is in a Department of
15Corrections correctional facility or juvenile correctional
16facility or is committed to institutional care, and the court
17orders detention under this Section, the court shall order that
18the person be transferred to a detention facility approved by
19the Department. A detention order under this Section remains in
20effect until the person is discharged after a trial under
21Section 35 of this Act or until the effective date of a
22commitment order under Section 40 of this Act, whichever is
23applicable.
24 (b) Whenever a petition is filed under Section 15 of this
25Act, the court shall hold a hearing to determine whether there
26is probable cause to believe that the person named in the

09800SB2640ham001- 1746 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1petition is a sexually violent person. If the person named in
2the petition is in custody, the court shall hold the probable
3cause hearing within 72 hours after the petition is filed,
4excluding Saturdays, Sundays and legal holidays. The court may
5grant a continuance of the probable cause hearing for no more
6than 7 additional days upon the motion of the respondent, for
7good cause. If the person named in the petition has been
8released, is on parole, is on aftercare release, is on
9mandatory supervised release, or otherwise is not in custody,
10the court shall hold the probable cause hearing within a
11reasonable time after the filing of the petition. At the
12probable cause hearing, the court shall admit and consider all
13relevant hearsay evidence.
14 (c) If the court determines after a hearing that there is
15probable cause to believe that the person named in the petition
16is a sexually violent person, the court shall order that the
17person be taken into custody if he or she is not in custody and
18shall order the person to be transferred within a reasonable
19time to an appropriate facility for an evaluation as to whether
20the person is a sexually violent person. If the person who is
21named in the petition refuses to speak to, communicate with, or
22otherwise fails to cooperate with the examining evaluator from
23the Department of Human Services or the Department of
24Corrections, that person may only introduce evidence and
25testimony from any expert or professional person who is
26retained or court-appointed to conduct an examination of the

09800SB2640ham001- 1747 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1person that results from a review of the records and may not
2introduce evidence resulting from an examination of the person.
3Notwithstanding the provisions of Section 10 of the Mental
4Health and Developmental Disabilities Confidentiality Act, all
5evaluations conducted pursuant to this Act and all Illinois
6Department of Corrections treatment records shall be
7admissible at all proceedings held pursuant to this Act,
8including the probable cause hearing and the trial.
9 If the court determines that probable cause does not exist
10to believe that the person is a sexually violent person, the
11court shall dismiss the petition.
12 (d) The Department shall promulgate rules that provide the
13qualifications for persons conducting evaluations under
14subsection (c) of this Section.
15 (e) If the person named in the petition claims or appears
16to be indigent, the court shall, prior to the probable cause
17hearing under subsection (b) of this Section, appoint counsel.
18(Source: P.A. 98-79, eff. 7-15-13; 98-558, eff. 1-1-14; revised
199-24-13.)
20 Section 720. The Unified Code of Corrections is amended by
21changing Sections 3-2-2, 3-2.5-20, 3-3-2, 3-5-1, 5-5-3,
225-5-3.2, 5-5-5, and 5-8A-3 as follows:
23 (730 ILCS 5/3-2-2) (from Ch. 38, par. 1003-2-2)
24 Sec. 3-2-2. Powers and Duties of the Department.

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1 (1) In addition to the powers, duties and responsibilities
2which are otherwise provided by law, the Department shall have
3the following powers:
4 (a) To accept persons committed to it by the courts of
5 this State for care, custody, treatment and
6 rehabilitation, and to accept federal prisoners and aliens
7 over whom the Office of the Federal Detention Trustee is
8 authorized to exercise the federal detention function for
9 limited purposes and periods of time.
10 (b) To develop and maintain reception and evaluation
11 units for purposes of analyzing the custody and
12 rehabilitation needs of persons committed to it and to
13 assign such persons to institutions and programs under its
14 control or transfer them to other appropriate agencies. In
15 consultation with the Department of Alcoholism and
16 Substance Abuse (now the Department of Human Services), the
17 Department of Corrections shall develop a master plan for
18 the screening and evaluation of persons committed to its
19 custody who have alcohol or drug abuse problems, and for
20 making appropriate treatment available to such persons;
21 the Department shall report to the General Assembly on such
22 plan not later than April 1, 1987. The maintenance and
23 implementation of such plan shall be contingent upon the
24 availability of funds.
25 (b-1) To create and implement, on January 1, 2002, a
26 pilot program to establish the effectiveness of

09800SB2640ham001- 1749 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 pupillometer technology (the measurement of the pupil's
2 reaction to light) as an alternative to a urine test for
3 purposes of screening and evaluating persons committed to
4 its custody who have alcohol or drug problems. The pilot
5 program shall require the pupillometer technology to be
6 used in at least one Department of Corrections facility.
7 The Director may expand the pilot program to include an
8 additional facility or facilities as he or she deems
9 appropriate. A minimum of 4,000 tests shall be included in
10 the pilot program. The Department must report to the
11 General Assembly on the effectiveness of the program by
12 January 1, 2003.
13 (b-5) To develop, in consultation with the Department
14 of State Police, a program for tracking and evaluating each
15 inmate from commitment through release for recording his or
16 her gang affiliations, activities, or ranks.
17 (c) To maintain and administer all State correctional
18 institutions and facilities under its control and to
19 establish new ones as needed. Pursuant to its power to
20 establish new institutions and facilities, the Department
21 may, with the written approval of the Governor, authorize
22 the Department of Central Management Services to enter into
23 an agreement of the type described in subsection (d) of
24 Section 405-300 of the Department of Central Management
25 Services Law (20 ILCS 405/405-300). The Department shall
26 designate those institutions which shall constitute the

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1 State Penitentiary System.
2 Pursuant to its power to establish new institutions and
3 facilities, the Department may authorize the Department of
4 Central Management Services to accept bids from counties
5 and municipalities for the construction, remodeling or
6 conversion of a structure to be leased to the Department of
7 Corrections for the purposes of its serving as a
8 correctional institution or facility. Such construction,
9 remodeling or conversion may be financed with revenue bonds
10 issued pursuant to the Industrial Building Revenue Bond Act
11 by the municipality or county. The lease specified in a bid
12 shall be for a term of not less than the time needed to
13 retire any revenue bonds used to finance the project, but
14 not to exceed 40 years. The lease may grant to the State
15 the option to purchase the structure outright.
16 Upon receipt of the bids, the Department may certify
17 one or more of the bids and shall submit any such bids to
18 the General Assembly for approval. Upon approval of a bid
19 by a constitutional majority of both houses of the General
20 Assembly, pursuant to joint resolution, the Department of
21 Central Management Services may enter into an agreement
22 with the county or municipality pursuant to such bid.
23 (c-5) To build and maintain regional juvenile
24 detention centers and to charge a per diem to the counties
25 as established by the Department to defray the costs of
26 housing each minor in a center. In this subsection (c-5),

09800SB2640ham001- 1751 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 "juvenile detention center" means a facility to house
2 minors during pendency of trial who have been transferred
3 from proceedings under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 to
4 prosecutions under the criminal laws of this State in
5 accordance with Section 5-805 of the Juvenile Court Act of
6 1987, whether the transfer was by operation of law or
7 permissive under that Section. The Department shall
8 designate the counties to be served by each regional
9 juvenile detention center.
10 (d) To develop and maintain programs of control,
11 rehabilitation and employment of committed persons within
12 its institutions.
13 (d-5) To provide a pre-release job preparation program
14 for inmates at Illinois adult correctional centers.
15 (e) To establish a system of supervision and guidance
16 of committed persons in the community.
17 (f) To establish in cooperation with the Department of
18 Transportation to supply a sufficient number of prisoners
19 for use by the Department of Transportation to clean up the
20 trash and garbage along State, county, township, or
21 municipal highways as designated by the Department of
22 Transportation. The Department of Corrections, at the
23 request of the Department of Transportation, shall furnish
24 such prisoners at least annually for a period to be agreed
25 upon between the Director of Corrections and the Director
26 of Transportation. The prisoners used on this program shall

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1 be selected by the Director of Corrections on whatever
2 basis he deems proper in consideration of their term,
3 behavior and earned eligibility to participate in such
4 program - where they will be outside of the prison facility
5 but still in the custody of the Department of Corrections.
6 Prisoners convicted of first degree murder, or a Class X
7 felony, or armed violence, or aggravated kidnapping, or
8 criminal sexual assault, aggravated criminal sexual abuse
9 or a subsequent conviction for criminal sexual abuse, or
10 forcible detention, or arson, or a prisoner adjudged a
11 Habitual Criminal shall not be eligible for selection to
12 participate in such program. The prisoners shall remain as
13 prisoners in the custody of the Department of Corrections
14 and such Department shall furnish whatever security is
15 necessary. The Department of Transportation shall furnish
16 trucks and equipment for the highway cleanup program and
17 personnel to supervise and direct the program. Neither the
18 Department of Corrections nor the Department of
19 Transportation shall replace any regular employee with a
20 prisoner.
21 (g) To maintain records of persons committed to it and
22 to establish programs of research, statistics and
23 planning.
24 (h) To investigate the grievances of any person
25 committed to the Department, to inquire into any alleged
26 misconduct by employees or committed persons, and to

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1 investigate the assets of committed persons to implement
2 Section 3-7-6 of this Code; and for these purposes it may
3 issue subpoenas and compel the attendance of witnesses and
4 the production of writings and papers, and may examine
5 under oath any witnesses who may appear before it; to also
6 investigate alleged violations of a parolee's or
7 releasee's conditions of parole or release; and for this
8 purpose it may issue subpoenas and compel the attendance of
9 witnesses and the production of documents only if there is
10 reason to believe that such procedures would provide
11 evidence that such violations have occurred.
12 If any person fails to obey a subpoena issued under
13 this subsection, the Director may apply to any circuit
14 court to secure compliance with the subpoena. The failure
15 to comply with the order of the court issued in response
16 thereto shall be punishable as contempt of court.
17 (i) To appoint and remove the chief administrative
18 officers, and administer programs of training and
19 development of personnel of the Department. Personnel
20 assigned by the Department to be responsible for the
21 custody and control of committed persons or to investigate
22 the alleged misconduct of committed persons or employees or
23 alleged violations of a parolee's or releasee's conditions
24 of parole shall be conservators of the peace for those
25 purposes, and shall have the full power of peace officers
26 outside of the facilities of the Department in the

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1 protection, arrest, retaking and reconfining of committed
2 persons or where the exercise of such power is necessary to
3 the investigation of such misconduct or violations. This
4 subsection shall not apply to persons committed to the
5 Department of Juvenile Justice under the Juvenile Court Act
6 of 1987 on aftercare release.
7 (j) To cooperate with other departments and agencies
8 and with local communities for the development of standards
9 and programs for better correctional services in this
10 State.
11 (k) To administer all moneys and properties of the
12 Department.
13 (l) To report annually to the Governor on the committed
14 persons, institutions and programs of the Department.
15 (l-5) (Blank).
16 (m) To make all rules and regulations and exercise all
17 powers and duties vested by law in the Department.
18 (n) To establish rules and regulations for
19 administering a system of sentence credits, established in
20 accordance with Section 3-6-3, subject to review by the
21 Prisoner Review Board.
22 (o) To administer the distribution of funds from the
23 State Treasury to reimburse counties where State penal
24 institutions are located for the payment of assistant
25 state's attorneys' salaries under Section 4-2001 of the
26 Counties Code.

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1 (p) To exchange information with the Department of
2 Human Services and the Department of Healthcare and Family
3 Services for the purpose of verifying living arrangements
4 and for other purposes directly connected with the
5 administration of this Code and the Illinois Public Aid
6 Code.
7 (q) To establish a diversion program.
8 The program shall provide a structured environment for
9 selected technical parole or mandatory supervised release
10 violators and committed persons who have violated the rules
11 governing their conduct while in work release. This program
12 shall not apply to those persons who have committed a new
13 offense while serving on parole or mandatory supervised
14 release or while committed to work release.
15 Elements of the program shall include, but shall not be
16 limited to, the following:
17 (1) The staff of a diversion facility shall provide
18 supervision in accordance with required objectives set
19 by the facility.
20 (2) Participants shall be required to maintain
21 employment.
22 (3) Each participant shall pay for room and board
23 at the facility on a sliding-scale basis according to
24 the participant's income.
25 (4) Each participant shall:
26 (A) provide restitution to victims in

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1 accordance with any court order;
2 (B) provide financial support to his
3 dependents; and
4 (C) make appropriate payments toward any other
5 court-ordered obligations.
6 (5) Each participant shall complete community
7 service in addition to employment.
8 (6) Participants shall take part in such
9 counseling, educational and other programs as the
10 Department may deem appropriate.
11 (7) Participants shall submit to drug and alcohol
12 screening.
13 (8) The Department shall promulgate rules
14 governing the administration of the program.
15 (r) To enter into intergovernmental cooperation
16 agreements under which persons in the custody of the
17 Department may participate in a county impact
18 incarceration program established under Section 3-6038 or
19 3-15003.5 of the Counties Code.
20 (r-5) (Blank).
21 (r-10) To systematically and routinely identify with
22 respect to each streetgang active within the correctional
23 system: (1) each active gang; (2) every existing inter-gang
24 affiliation or alliance; and (3) the current leaders in
25 each gang. The Department shall promptly segregate leaders
26 from inmates who belong to their gangs and allied gangs.

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1 "Segregate" means no physical contact and, to the extent
2 possible under the conditions and space available at the
3 correctional facility, prohibition of visual and sound
4 communication. For the purposes of this paragraph (r-10),
5 "leaders" means persons who:
6 (i) are members of a criminal streetgang;
7 (ii) with respect to other individuals within the
8 streetgang, occupy a position of organizer,
9 supervisor, or other position of management or
10 leadership; and
11 (iii) are actively and personally engaged in
12 directing, ordering, authorizing, or requesting
13 commission of criminal acts by others, which are
14 punishable as a felony, in furtherance of streetgang
15 related activity both within and outside of the
16 Department of Corrections.
17 "Streetgang", "gang", and "streetgang related" have the
18 meanings ascribed to them in Section 10 of the Illinois
19 Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act.
20 (s) To operate a super-maximum security institution,
21 in order to manage and supervise inmates who are disruptive
22 or dangerous and provide for the safety and security of the
23 staff and the other inmates.
24 (t) To monitor any unprivileged conversation or any
25 unprivileged communication, whether in person or by mail,
26 telephone, or other means, between an inmate who, before

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1 commitment to the Department, was a member of an organized
2 gang and any other person without the need to show cause or
3 satisfy any other requirement of law before beginning the
4 monitoring, except as constitutionally required. The
5 monitoring may be by video, voice, or other method of
6 recording or by any other means. As used in this
7 subdivision (1)(t), "organized gang" has the meaning
8 ascribed to it in Section 10 of the Illinois Streetgang
9 Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act.
10 As used in this subdivision (1)(t), "unprivileged
11 conversation" or "unprivileged communication" means a
12 conversation or communication that is not protected by any
13 privilege recognized by law or by decision, rule, or order
14 of the Illinois Supreme Court.
15 (u) To establish a Women's and Children's Pre-release
16 Community Supervision Program for the purpose of providing
17 housing and services to eligible female inmates, as
18 determined by the Department, and their newborn and young
19 children.
20 (u-5) To issue an order, whenever a person committed to
21 the Department absconds or absents himself or herself,
22 without authority to do so, from any facility or program to
23 which he or she is assigned. The order shall be certified
24 by the Director, the Supervisor of the Apprehension Unit,
25 or any person duly designated by the Director, with the
26 seal of the Department affixed. The order shall be directed

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1 to all sheriffs, coroners, and police officers, or to any
2 particular person named in the order. Any order issued
3 pursuant to this subdivision (1) (u-5) shall be sufficient
4 warrant for the officer or person named in the order to
5 arrest and deliver the committed person to the proper
6 correctional officials and shall be executed the same as
7 criminal process.
8 (v) To do all other acts necessary to carry out the
9 provisions of this Chapter.
10 (2) The Department of Corrections shall by January 1, 1998,
11consider building and operating a correctional facility within
12100 miles of a county of over 2,000,000 inhabitants, especially
13a facility designed to house juvenile participants in the
14impact incarceration program.
15 (3) When the Department lets bids for contracts for medical
16services to be provided to persons committed to Department
17facilities by a health maintenance organization, medical
18service corporation, or other health care provider, the bid may
19only be let to a health care provider that has obtained an
20irrevocable letter of credit or performance bond issued by a
21company whose bonds have an investment grade or higher rating
22by a bond rating organization.
23 (4) When the Department lets bids for contracts for food or
24commissary services to be provided to Department facilities,
25the bid may only be let to a food or commissary services
26provider that has obtained an irrevocable letter of credit or

09800SB2640ham001- 1760 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1performance bond issued by a company whose bonds have an
2investment grade or higher rating by a bond rating
3organization.
4 (5) On and after the date 6 months after August 16, 2013
5(the effective date of Public Act 98-488) this amendatory Act
6of the 98th General Assembly, as provided in the Executive
7Order 1 (2012) Implementation Act, all of the powers, duties,
8rights, and responsibilities related to State healthcare
9purchasing under this Code that were transferred from the
10Department of Corrections to the Department of Healthcare and
11Family Services by Executive Order 3 (2005) are transferred
12back to the Department of Corrections; however, powers, duties,
13rights, and responsibilities related to State healthcare
14purchasing under this Code that were exercised by the
15Department of Corrections before the effective date of
16Executive Order 3 (2005) but that pertain to individuals
17resident in facilities operated by the Department of Juvenile
18Justice are transferred to the Department of Juvenile Justice.
19(Source: P.A. 97-697, eff. 6-22-12; 97-800, eff. 7-13-12;
2097-802, eff. 7-13-12; 98-463, eff. 8-16-13; 98-488, eff.
218-16-13; 98-558, eff. 1-1-14; revised 9-24-13.)
22 (730 ILCS 5/3-2.5-20)
23 Sec. 3-2.5-20. General powers and duties.
24 (a) In addition to the powers, duties, and responsibilities
25which are otherwise provided by law or transferred to the

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1Department as a result of this Article, the Department, as
2determined by the Director, shall have, but are not limited to,
3the following rights, powers, functions and duties:
4 (1) To accept juveniles committed to it by the courts
5 of this State for care, custody, treatment, and
6 rehabilitation.
7 (2) To maintain and administer all State juvenile
8 correctional institutions previously under the control of
9 the Juvenile and Women's & Children Divisions of the
10 Department of Corrections, and to establish and maintain
11 institutions as needed to meet the needs of the youth
12 committed to its care.
13 (3) To identify the need for and recommend the funding
14 and implementation of an appropriate mix of programs and
15 services within the juvenile justice continuum, including
16 but not limited to prevention, nonresidential and
17 residential commitment programs, day treatment, and
18 conditional release programs and services, with the
19 support of educational, vocational, alcohol, drug abuse,
20 and mental health services where appropriate.
21 (3.5) To assist youth committed to the Department of
22 Juvenile Justice under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 with
23 successful reintegration into society, the Department
24 shall retain custody and control of all adjudicated
25 delinquent juveniles released under Section 3-3-10 of this
26 Code, shall provide a continuum of post-release treatment

09800SB2640ham001- 1762 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 and services to those youth, and shall supervise those
2 youth during their release period in accordance with the
3 conditions set by the Prisoner Review Board.
4 (4) To establish and provide transitional and
5 post-release treatment programs for juveniles committed to
6 the Department. Services shall include but are not limited
7 to:
8 (i) family and individual counseling and treatment
9 placement;
10 (ii) referral services to any other State or local
11 agencies;
12 (iii) mental health services;
13 (iv) educational services;
14 (v) family counseling services; and
15 (vi) substance abuse services.
16 (5) To access vital records of juveniles for the
17 purposes of providing necessary documentation for
18 transitional services such as obtaining identification,
19 educational enrollment, employment, and housing.
20 (6) To develop staffing and workload standards and
21 coordinate staff development and training appropriate for
22 juvenile populations.
23 (7) To develop, with the approval of the Office of the
24 Governor and the Governor's Office of Management and
25 Budget, annual budget requests.
26 (8) To administer the Interstate Compact for

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1 Juveniles, with respect to all juveniles under its
2 jurisdiction, and to cooperate with the Department of Human
3 Services with regard to all non-offender juveniles subject
4 to the Interstate Compact for Juveniles.
5 (b) The Department may employ personnel in accordance with
6the Personnel Code and Section 3-2.5-15 of this Code, provide
7facilities, contract for goods and services, and adopt rules as
8necessary to carry out its functions and purposes, all in
9accordance with applicable State and federal law.
10 (c) On and after the date 6 months after August 16, 2013
11(the effective date of Public Act 98-488) this amendatory Act
12of the 98th General Assembly, as provided in the Executive
13Order 1 (2012) Implementation Act, all of the powers, duties,
14rights, and responsibilities related to State healthcare
15purchasing under this Code that were transferred from the
16Department of Corrections to the Department of Healthcare and
17Family Services by Executive Order 3 (2005) are transferred
18back to the Department of Corrections; however, powers, duties,
19rights, and responsibilities related to State healthcare
20purchasing under this Code that were exercised by the
21Department of Corrections before the effective date of
22Executive Order 3 (2005) but that pertain to individuals
23resident in facilities operated by the Department of Juvenile
24Justice are transferred to the Department of Juvenile Justice.
25(Source: P.A. 98-488, eff. 8-16-13; 98-558, eff. 1-1-14;
26revised 9-24-13.)

09800SB2640ham001- 1764 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 (730 ILCS 5/3-3-2) (from Ch. 38, par. 1003-3-2)
2 Sec. 3-3-2. Powers and Duties.
3 (a) The Parole and Pardon Board is abolished and the term
4"Parole and Pardon Board" as used in any law of Illinois, shall
5read "Prisoner Review Board." After the effective date of this
6amendatory Act of 1977, the Prisoner Review Board shall provide
7by rule for the orderly transition of all files, records, and
8documents of the Parole and Pardon Board and for such other
9steps as may be necessary to effect an orderly transition and
10shall:
11 (1) hear by at least one member and through a panel of
12 at least 3 members decide, cases of prisoners who were
13 sentenced under the law in effect prior to the effective
14 date of this amendatory Act of 1977, and who are eligible
15 for parole;
16 (2) hear by at least one member and through a panel of
17 at least 3 members decide, the conditions of parole and the
18 time of discharge from parole, impose sanctions for
19 violations of parole, and revoke parole for those sentenced
20 under the law in effect prior to this amendatory Act of
21 1977; provided that the decision to parole and the
22 conditions of parole for all prisoners who were sentenced
23 for first degree murder or who received a minimum sentence
24 of 20 years or more under the law in effect prior to
25 February 1, 1978 shall be determined by a majority vote of

09800SB2640ham001- 1765 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 the Prisoner Review Board. One representative supporting
2 parole and one representative opposing parole will be
3 allowed to speak. Their comments shall be limited to making
4 corrections and filling in omissions to the Board's
5 presentation and discussion;
6 (3) hear by at least one member and through a panel of
7 at least 3 members decide, the conditions of mandatory
8 supervised release and the time of discharge from mandatory
9 supervised release, impose sanctions for violations of
10 mandatory supervised release, and revoke mandatory
11 supervised release for those sentenced under the law in
12 effect after the effective date of this amendatory Act of
13 1977;
14 (3.5) hear by at least one member and through a panel
15 of at least 3 members decide, the conditions of mandatory
16 supervised release and the time of discharge from mandatory
17 supervised release, to impose sanctions for violations of
18 mandatory supervised release and revoke mandatory
19 supervised release for those serving extended supervised
20 release terms pursuant to paragraph (4) of subsection (d)
21 of Section 5-8-1;
22 (3.6) hear by at least one member and through a panel
23 of at least 3 members decide, the time of aftercare
24 release, the conditions of aftercare release and the time
25 of discharge from aftercare release, impose sanctions for
26 violations of aftercare release, and revoke aftercare

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1 release for those adjudicated delinquent under the
2 Juvenile Court Act of 1987;
3 (4) hear by at least one member and through a panel of
4 at least 3 members, decide cases brought by the Department
5 of Corrections against a prisoner in the custody of the
6 Department for alleged violation of Department rules with
7 respect to sentence credits under Section 3-6-3 of this
8 Code in which the Department seeks to revoke sentence
9 credits, if the amount of time at issue exceeds 30 days or
10 when, during any 12 month period, the cumulative amount of
11 credit revoked exceeds 30 days except where the infraction
12 is committed or discovered within 60 days of scheduled
13 release. In such cases, the Department of Corrections may
14 revoke up to 30 days of sentence credit. The Board may
15 subsequently approve the revocation of additional sentence
16 credit, if the Department seeks to revoke sentence credit
17 in excess of thirty days. However, the Board shall not be
18 empowered to review the Department's decision with respect
19 to the loss of 30 days of sentence credit for any prisoner
20 or to increase any penalty beyond the length requested by
21 the Department;
22 (5) hear by at least one member and through a panel of
23 at least 3 members decide, the release dates for certain
24 prisoners sentenced under the law in existence prior to the
25 effective date of this amendatory Act of 1977, in
26 accordance with Section 3-3-2.1 of this Code;

09800SB2640ham001- 1767 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 (6) hear by at least one member and through a panel of
2 at least 3 members decide, all requests for pardon,
3 reprieve or commutation, and make confidential
4 recommendations to the Governor;
5 (7) comply with the requirements of the Open Parole
6 Hearings Act;
7 (8) hear by at least one member and, through a panel of
8 at least 3 members, decide cases brought by the Department
9 of Corrections against a prisoner in the custody of the
10 Department for court dismissal of a frivolous lawsuit
11 pursuant to Section 3-6-3(d) of this Code in which the
12 Department seeks to revoke up to 180 days of sentence
13 credit, and if the prisoner has not accumulated 180 days of
14 sentence credit at the time of the dismissal, then all
15 sentence credit accumulated by the prisoner shall be
16 revoked;
17 (9) hear by at least 3 members, and, through a panel of
18 at least 3 members, decide whether to grant certificates of
19 relief from disabilities or certificates of good conduct as
20 provided in Article 5.5 of Chapter V;
21 (10) upon a petition by a person who has been convicted
22 of a Class 3 or Class 4 felony and who meets the
23 requirements of this paragraph, hear by at least 3 members
24 and, with the unanimous vote of a panel of 3 members, issue
25 a certificate of eligibility for sealing recommending that
26 the court order the sealing of all official records of the

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1 arresting authority, the circuit court clerk, and the
2 Department of State Police concerning the arrest and
3 conviction for the Class 3 or 4 felony. A person may not
4 apply to the Board for a certificate of eligibility for
5 sealing:
6 (A) until 5 years have elapsed since the expiration
7 of his or her sentence;
8 (B) until 5 years have elapsed since any arrests or
9 detentions by a law enforcement officer for an alleged
10 violation of law, other than a petty offense, traffic
11 offense, conservation offense, or local ordinance
12 offense;
13 (C) if convicted of a violation of the Cannabis
14 Control Act, Illinois Controlled Substances Act, the
15 Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act,
16 the Methamphetamine Precursor Control Act, or the
17 Methamphetamine Precursor Tracking Act unless the
18 petitioner has completed a drug abuse program for the
19 offense on which sealing is sought and provides proof
20 that he or she has completed the program successfully;
21 (D) if convicted of:
22 (i) a sex offense described in Article 11 or
23 Sections 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15, or 12-16 of
24 the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of
25 2012;
26 (ii) aggravated assault;

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1 (iii) aggravated battery;
2 (iv) domestic battery;
3 (v) aggravated domestic battery;
4 (vi) violation of an order of protection;
5 (vii) an offense under the Criminal Code of
6 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 involving a
7 firearm;
8 (viii) driving while under the influence of
9 alcohol, other drug or drugs, intoxicating
10 compound or compounds or any combination thereof;
11 (ix) aggravated driving while under the
12 influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs,
13 intoxicating compound or compounds or any
14 combination thereof; or
15 (x) any crime defined as a crime of violence
16 under Section 2 of the Crime Victims Compensation
17 Act.
18 If a person has applied to the Board for a certificate
19 of eligibility for sealing and the Board denies the
20 certificate, the person must wait at least 4 years before
21 filing again or filing for pardon from the Governor unless
22 the Chairman of the Prisoner Review Board grants a waiver.
23 The decision to issue or refrain from issuing a
24 certificate of eligibility for sealing shall be at the
25 Board's sole discretion, and shall not give rise to any
26 cause of action against either the Board or its members.

09800SB2640ham001- 1770 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 The Board may only authorize the sealing of Class 3 and
2 4 felony convictions of the petitioner from one information
3 or indictment under this paragraph (10). A petitioner may
4 only receive one certificate of eligibility for sealing
5 under this provision for life; and
6 (11) upon a petition by a person who after having been
7 convicted of a Class 3 or Class 4 felony thereafter served
8 in the United States Armed Forces or National Guard of this
9 or any other state and had received an honorable discharge
10 from the United States Armed Forces or National Guard or
11 who at the time of filing the petition is enlisted in the
12 United States Armed Forces or National Guard of this or any
13 other state and served one tour of duty and who meets the
14 requirements of this paragraph, hear by at least 3 members
15 and, with the unanimous vote of a panel of 3 members, issue
16 a certificate of eligibility for expungement recommending
17 that the court order the expungement of all official
18 records of the arresting authority, the circuit court
19 clerk, and the Department of State Police concerning the
20 arrest and conviction for the Class 3 or 4 felony. A person
21 may not apply to the Board for a certificate of eligibility
22 for expungement:
23 (A) if convicted of:
24 (i) a sex offense described in Article 11 or
25 Sections 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15, or 12-16 of
26 the Criminal Code of 1961 or Criminal Code of 2012;

09800SB2640ham001- 1771 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 (ii) an offense under the Criminal Code of 1961
2 or Criminal Code of 2012 involving a firearm; or
3 (iii) a crime of violence as defined in Section
4 2 of the Crime Victims Compensation Act; or
5 (B) if the person has not served in the United
6 States Armed Forces or National Guard of this or any
7 other state or has not received an honorable discharge
8 from the United States Armed Forces or National Guard
9 of this or any other state or who at the time of the
10 filing of the petition is serving in the United States
11 Armed Forces or National Guard of this or any other
12 state and has not completed one tour of duty.
13 If a person has applied to the Board for a certificate
14 of eligibility for expungement and the Board denies the
15 certificate, the person must wait at least 4 years before
16 filing again or filing for a pardon with authorization for
17 expungement from the Governor unless the Governor or
18 Chairman of the Prisoner Review Board grants a waiver.
19 (a-5) The Prisoner Review Board, with the cooperation of
20and in coordination with the Department of Corrections and the
21Department of Central Management Services, shall implement a
22pilot project in 3 correctional institutions providing for the
23conduct of hearings under paragraphs (1) and (4) of subsection
24(a) of this Section through interactive video conferences. The
25project shall be implemented within 6 months after the
26effective date of this amendatory Act of 1996. Within 6 months

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1after the implementation of the pilot project, the Prisoner
2Review Board, with the cooperation of and in coordination with
3the Department of Corrections and the Department of Central
4Management Services, shall report to the Governor and the
5General Assembly regarding the use, costs, effectiveness, and
6future viability of interactive video conferences for Prisoner
7Review Board hearings.
8 (b) Upon recommendation of the Department the Board may
9restore sentence credit previously revoked.
10 (c) The Board shall cooperate with the Department in
11promoting an effective system of parole, aftercare release, and
12mandatory supervised release.
13 (d) The Board shall promulgate rules for the conduct of its
14work, and the Chairman shall file a copy of such rules and any
15amendments thereto with the Director and with the Secretary of
16State.
17 (e) The Board shall keep records of all of its official
18actions and shall make them accessible in accordance with law
19and the rules of the Board.
20 (f) The Board or one who has allegedly violated the
21conditions of his or her parole, aftercare release, or
22mandatory supervised release may require by subpoena the
23attendance and testimony of witnesses and the production of
24documentary evidence relating to any matter under
25investigation or hearing. The Chairman of the Board may sign
26subpoenas which shall be served by any agent or public official

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1authorized by the Chairman of the Board, or by any person
2lawfully authorized to serve a subpoena under the laws of the
3State of Illinois. The attendance of witnesses, and the
4production of documentary evidence, may be required from any
5place in the State to a hearing location in the State before
6the Chairman of the Board or his or her designated agent or
7agents or any duly constituted Committee or Subcommittee of the
8Board. Witnesses so summoned shall be paid the same fees and
9mileage that are paid witnesses in the circuit courts of the
10State, and witnesses whose depositions are taken and the
11persons taking those depositions are each entitled to the same
12fees as are paid for like services in actions in the circuit
13courts of the State. Fees and mileage shall be vouchered for
14payment when the witness is discharged from further attendance.
15 In case of disobedience to a subpoena, the Board may
16petition any circuit court of the State for an order requiring
17the attendance and testimony of witnesses or the production of
18documentary evidence or both. A copy of such petition shall be
19served by personal service or by registered or certified mail
20upon the person who has failed to obey the subpoena, and such
21person shall be advised in writing that a hearing upon the
22petition will be requested in a court room to be designated in
23such notice before the judge hearing motions or extraordinary
24remedies at a specified time, on a specified date, not less
25than 10 nor more than 15 days after the deposit of the copy of
26the written notice and petition in the U.S. mails addressed to

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1the person at his last known address or after the personal
2service of the copy of the notice and petition upon such
3person. The court upon the filing of such a petition, may order
4the person refusing to obey the subpoena to appear at an
5investigation or hearing, or to there produce documentary
6evidence, if so ordered, or to give evidence relative to the
7subject matter of that investigation or hearing. Any failure to
8obey such order of the circuit court may be punished by that
9court as a contempt of court.
10 Each member of the Board and any hearing officer designated
11by the Board shall have the power to administer oaths and to
12take the testimony of persons under oath.
13 (g) Except under subsection (a) of this Section, a majority
14of the members then appointed to the Prisoner Review Board
15shall constitute a quorum for the transaction of all business
16of the Board.
17 (h) The Prisoner Review Board shall annually transmit to
18the Director a detailed report of its work for the preceding
19calendar year. The annual report shall also be transmitted to
20the Governor for submission to the Legislature.
21(Source: P.A. 97-697, eff. 6-22-12; 97-1120, eff. 1-1-13;
2297-1150, eff. 1-25-13; 98-399, eff. 8-16-13; 98-558, eff.
231-1-14; revised 8-28-13.)
24 (730 ILCS 5/3-5-1) (from Ch. 38, par. 1003-5-1)
25 (Text of Section before amendment by P.A. 98-528)

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1 Sec. 3-5-1. Master Record File.
2 (a) The Department of Corrections and the Department of
3Juvenile Justice shall maintain a master record file on each
4person committed to it, which shall contain the following
5information:
6 (1) all information from the committing court;
7 (2) reception summary;
8 (3) evaluation and assignment reports and
9 recommendations;
10 (4) reports as to program assignment and progress;
11 (5) reports of disciplinary infractions and
12 disposition, including tickets and Administrative Review
13 Board action;
14 (6) any parole or aftercare release plan;
15 (7) any parole or aftercare release reports;
16 (8) the date and circumstances of final discharge;
17 (9) criminal history;
18 (10) current and past gang affiliations and ranks;
19 (11) information regarding associations and family
20 relationships;
21 (12) any grievances filed and responses to those
22 grievances; and
23 (13) other information that the respective Department
24 determines is relevant to the secure confinement and
25 rehabilitation of the committed person.
26 (b) All files shall be confidential and access shall be

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1limited to authorized personnel of the respective Department.
2Personnel of other correctional, welfare or law enforcement
3agencies may have access to files under rules and regulations
4of the respective Department. The respective Department shall
5keep a record of all outside personnel who have access to
6files, the files reviewed, any file material copied, and the
7purpose of access. If the respective Department or the Prisoner
8Review Board makes a determination under this Code which
9affects the length of the period of confinement or commitment,
10the committed person and his counsel shall be advised of
11factual information relied upon by the respective Department or
12Board to make the determination, provided that the Department
13or Board shall not be required to advise a person committed to
14the Department of Juvenile Justice any such information which
15in the opinion of the Department of Juvenile Justice or Board
16would be detrimental to his treatment or rehabilitation.
17 (c) The master file shall be maintained at a place
18convenient to its use by personnel of the respective Department
19in charge of the person. When custody of a person is
20transferred from the Department to another department or
21agency, a summary of the file shall be forwarded to the
22receiving agency with such other information required by law or
23requested by the agency under rules and regulations of the
24respective Department.
25 (d) The master file of a person no longer in the custody of
26the respective Department shall be placed on inactive status

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1and its use shall be restricted subject to rules and
2regulations of the Department.
3 (e) All public agencies may make available to the
4respective Department on request any factual data not otherwise
5privileged as a matter of law in their possession in respect to
6individuals committed to the respective Department.
7(Source: P.A. 97-696, eff. 6-22-12; 98-558, eff. 1-1-14.)
8 (Text of Section after amendment by P.A. 98-528)
9 Sec. 3-5-1. Master Record File.
10 (a) The Department of Corrections and the Department of
11Juvenile Justice shall maintain a master record file on each
12person committed to it, which shall contain the following
13information:
14 (1) all information from the committing court;
15 (1.5) ethnic and racial background data collected in
16 accordance with Section 4.5 of the Criminal Identification
17 Act;
18 (2) reception summary;
19 (3) evaluation and assignment reports and
20 recommendations;
21 (4) reports as to program assignment and progress;
22 (5) reports of disciplinary infractions and
23 disposition, including tickets and Administrative Review
24 Board action;
25 (6) any parole or aftercare release plan;

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1 (7) any parole or aftercare release reports;
2 (8) the date and circumstances of final discharge;
3 (9) criminal history;
4 (10) current and past gang affiliations and ranks;
5 (11) information regarding associations and family
6 relationships;
7 (12) any grievances filed and responses to those
8 grievances; and
9 (13) other information that the respective Department
10 determines is relevant to the secure confinement and
11 rehabilitation of the committed person.
12 (b) All files shall be confidential and access shall be
13limited to authorized personnel of the respective Department.
14Personnel of other correctional, welfare or law enforcement
15agencies may have access to files under rules and regulations
16of the respective Department. The respective Department shall
17keep a record of all outside personnel who have access to
18files, the files reviewed, any file material copied, and the
19purpose of access. If the respective Department or the Prisoner
20Review Board makes a determination under this Code which
21affects the length of the period of confinement or commitment,
22the committed person and his counsel shall be advised of
23factual information relied upon by the respective Department or
24Board to make the determination, provided that the Department
25or Board shall not be required to advise a person committed to
26the Department of Juvenile Justice any such information which

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1in the opinion of the Department of Juvenile Justice or Board
2would be detrimental to his treatment or rehabilitation.
3 (c) The master file shall be maintained at a place
4convenient to its use by personnel of the respective Department
5in charge of the person. When custody of a person is
6transferred from the Department to another department or
7agency, a summary of the file shall be forwarded to the
8receiving agency with such other information required by law or
9requested by the agency under rules and regulations of the
10respective Department.
11 (d) The master file of a person no longer in the custody of
12the respective Department shall be placed on inactive status
13and its use shall be restricted subject to rules and
14regulations of the Department.
15 (e) All public agencies may make available to the
16respective Department on request any factual data not otherwise
17privileged as a matter of law in their possession in respect to
18individuals committed to the respective Department.
19(Source: P.A. 97-696, eff. 6-22-12; 98-528, eff. 1-1-15;
2098-558, eff. 1-1-14; revised 9-24-13.)
21 (730 ILCS 5/5-5-3) (from Ch. 38, par. 1005-5-3)
22 Sec. 5-5-3. Disposition.
23 (a) (Blank).
24 (b) (Blank).
25 (c) (1) (Blank).

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1 (2) A period of probation, a term of periodic
2 imprisonment or conditional discharge shall not be imposed
3 for the following offenses. The court shall sentence the
4 offender to not less than the minimum term of imprisonment
5 set forth in this Code for the following offenses, and may
6 order a fine or restitution or both in conjunction with
7 such term of imprisonment:
8 (A) First degree murder where the death penalty is
9 not imposed.
10 (B) Attempted first degree murder.
11 (C) A Class X felony.
12 (D) A violation of Section 401.1 or 407 of the
13 Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or a violation of
14 subdivision (c)(1.5) or (c)(2) of Section 401 of that
15 Act which relates to more than 5 grams of a substance
16 containing cocaine, fentanyl, or an analog thereof.
17 (D-5) A violation of subdivision (c)(1) of Section
18 401 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act which
19 relates to 3 or more grams of a substance containing
20 heroin or an analog thereof.
21 (E) A violation of Section 5.1 or 9 of the Cannabis
22 Control Act.
23 (F) A Class 2 or greater felony if the offender had
24 been convicted of a Class 2 or greater felony,
25 including any state or federal conviction for an
26 offense that contained, at the time it was committed,

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1 the same elements as an offense now (the date of the
2 offense committed after the prior Class 2 or greater
3 felony) classified as a Class 2 or greater felony,
4 within 10 years of the date on which the offender
5 committed the offense for which he or she is being
6 sentenced, except as otherwise provided in Section
7 40-10 of the Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and
8 Dependency Act.
9 (F-5) A violation of Section 24-1, 24-1.1, or
10 24-1.6 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal
11 Code of 2012 for which imprisonment is prescribed in
12 those Sections.
13 (G) Residential burglary, except as otherwise
14 provided in Section 40-10 of the Alcoholism and Other
15 Drug Abuse and Dependency Act.
16 (H) Criminal sexual assault.
17 (I) Aggravated battery of a senior citizen as
18 described in Section 12-4.6 or subdivision (a)(4) of
19 Section 12-3.05 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the
20 Criminal Code of 2012.
21 (J) A forcible felony if the offense was related to
22 the activities of an organized gang.
23 Before July 1, 1994, for the purposes of this
24 paragraph, "organized gang" means an association of 5
25 or more persons, with an established hierarchy, that
26 encourages members of the association to perpetrate

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1 crimes or provides support to the members of the
2 association who do commit crimes.
3 Beginning July 1, 1994, for the purposes of this
4 paragraph, "organized gang" has the meaning ascribed
5 to it in Section 10 of the Illinois Streetgang
6 Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act.
7 (K) Vehicular hijacking.
8 (L) A second or subsequent conviction for the
9 offense of hate crime when the underlying offense upon
10 which the hate crime is based is felony aggravated
11 assault or felony mob action.
12 (M) A second or subsequent conviction for the
13 offense of institutional vandalism if the damage to the
14 property exceeds $300.
15 (N) A Class 3 felony violation of paragraph (1) of
16 subsection (a) of Section 2 of the Firearm Owners
17 Identification Card Act.
18 (O) A violation of Section 12-6.1 or 12-6.5 of the
19 Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.
20 (P) A violation of paragraph (1), (2), (3), (4),
21 (5), or (7) of subsection (a) of Section 11-20.1 of the
22 Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.
23 (Q) A violation of subsection (b) or (b-5) of
24 Section 20-1, Section 20-1.2, or Section 20-1.3 of the
25 Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.
26 (R) A violation of Section 24-3A of the Criminal

09800SB2640ham001- 1783 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.
2 (S) (Blank).
3 (T) A second or subsequent violation of the
4 Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act.
5 (U) A second or subsequent violation of Section
6 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code committed while his
7 or her driver's license, permit, or privilege was
8 revoked because of a violation of Section 9-3 of the
9 Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012,
10 relating to the offense of reckless homicide, or a
11 similar provision of a law of another state.
12 (V) A violation of paragraph (4) of subsection (c)
13 of Section 11-20.1B or paragraph (4) of subsection (c)
14 of Section 11-20.3 of the Criminal Code of 1961, or
15 paragraph (6) of subsection (a) of Section 11-20.1 of
16 the Criminal Code of 2012 when the victim is under 13
17 years of age and the defendant has previously been
18 convicted under the laws of this State or any other
19 state of the offense of child pornography, aggravated
20 child pornography, aggravated criminal sexual abuse,
21 aggravated criminal sexual assault, predatory criminal
22 sexual assault of a child, or any of the offenses
23 formerly known as rape, deviate sexual assault,
24 indecent liberties with a child, or aggravated
25 indecent liberties with a child where the victim was
26 under the age of 18 years or an offense that is

09800SB2640ham001- 1784 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 substantially equivalent to those offenses.
2 (W) A violation of Section 24-3.5 of the Criminal
3 Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.
4 (X) A violation of subsection (a) of Section 31-1a
5 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of
6 2012.
7 (Y) A conviction for unlawful possession of a
8 firearm by a street gang member when the firearm was
9 loaded or contained firearm ammunition.
10 (Z) A Class 1 felony committed while he or she was
11 serving a term of probation or conditional discharge
12 for a felony.
13 (AA) Theft of property exceeding $500,000 and not
14 exceeding $1,000,000 in value.
15 (BB) Laundering of criminally derived property of
16 a value exceeding $500,000.
17 (CC) Knowingly selling, offering for sale, holding
18 for sale, or using 2,000 or more counterfeit items or
19 counterfeit items having a retail value in the
20 aggregate of $500,000 or more.
21 (DD) A conviction for aggravated assault under
22 paragraph (6) of subsection (c) of Section 12-2 of the
23 Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 if
24 the firearm is aimed toward the person against whom the
25 firearm is being used.
26 (3) (Blank).

09800SB2640ham001- 1785 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 (4) A minimum term of imprisonment of not less than 10
2 consecutive days or 30 days of community service shall be
3 imposed for a violation of paragraph (c) of Section 6-303
4 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.
5 (4.1) (Blank).
6 (4.2) Except as provided in paragraphs (4.3) and (4.8)
7 of this subsection (c), a minimum of 100 hours of community
8 service shall be imposed for a second violation of Section
9 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.
10 (4.3) A minimum term of imprisonment of 30 days or 300
11 hours of community service, as determined by the court,
12 shall be imposed for a second violation of subsection (c)
13 of Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.
14 (4.4) Except as provided in paragraphs (4.5), (4.6),
15 and (4.9) of this subsection (c), a minimum term of
16 imprisonment of 30 days or 300 hours of community service,
17 as determined by the court, shall be imposed for a third or
18 subsequent violation of Section 6-303 of the Illinois
19 Vehicle Code.
20 (4.5) A minimum term of imprisonment of 30 days shall
21 be imposed for a third violation of subsection (c) of
22 Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code.
23 (4.6) Except as provided in paragraph (4.10) of this
24 subsection (c), a minimum term of imprisonment of 180 days
25 shall be imposed for a fourth or subsequent violation of
26 subsection (c) of Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle

09800SB2640ham001- 1786 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 Code.
2 (4.7) A minimum term of imprisonment of not less than
3 30 consecutive days, or 300 hours of community service,
4 shall be imposed for a violation of subsection (a-5) of
5 Section 6-303 of the Illinois Vehicle Code, as provided in
6 subsection (b-5) of that Section.
7 (4.8) A mandatory prison sentence shall be imposed for
8 a second violation of subsection (a-5) of Section 6-303 of
9 the Illinois Vehicle Code, as provided in subsection (c-5)
10 of that Section. The person's driving privileges shall be
11 revoked for a period of not less than 5 years from the date
12 of his or her release from prison.
13 (4.9) A mandatory prison sentence of not less than 4
14 and not more than 15 years shall be imposed for a third
15 violation of subsection (a-5) of Section 6-303 of the
16 Illinois Vehicle Code, as provided in subsection (d-2.5) of
17 that Section. The person's driving privileges shall be
18 revoked for the remainder of his or her life.
19 (4.10) A mandatory prison sentence for a Class 1 felony
20 shall be imposed, and the person shall be eligible for an
21 extended term sentence, for a fourth or subsequent
22 violation of subsection (a-5) of Section 6-303 of the
23 Illinois Vehicle Code, as provided in subsection (d-3.5) of
24 that Section. The person's driving privileges shall be
25 revoked for the remainder of his or her life.
26 (5) The court may sentence a corporation or

09800SB2640ham001- 1787 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 unincorporated association convicted of any offense to:
2 (A) a period of conditional discharge;
3 (B) a fine;
4 (C) make restitution to the victim under Section
5 5-5-6 of this Code.
6 (5.1) In addition to any other penalties imposed, and
7 except as provided in paragraph (5.2) or (5.3), a person
8 convicted of violating subsection (c) of Section 11-907 of
9 the Illinois Vehicle Code shall have his or her driver's
10 license, permit, or privileges suspended for at least 90
11 days but not more than one year, if the violation resulted
12 in damage to the property of another person.
13 (5.2) In addition to any other penalties imposed, and
14 except as provided in paragraph (5.3), a person convicted
15 of violating subsection (c) of Section 11-907 of the
16 Illinois Vehicle Code shall have his or her driver's
17 license, permit, or privileges suspended for at least 180
18 days but not more than 2 years, if the violation resulted
19 in injury to another person.
20 (5.3) In addition to any other penalties imposed, a
21 person convicted of violating subsection (c) of Section
22 11-907 of the Illinois Vehicle Code shall have his or her
23 driver's license, permit, or privileges suspended for 2
24 years, if the violation resulted in the death of another
25 person.
26 (5.4) In addition to any other penalties imposed, a

09800SB2640ham001- 1788 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 person convicted of violating Section 3-707 of the Illinois
2 Vehicle Code shall have his or her driver's license,
3 permit, or privileges suspended for 3 months and until he
4 or she has paid a reinstatement fee of $100.
5 (5.5) In addition to any other penalties imposed, a
6 person convicted of violating Section 3-707 of the Illinois
7 Vehicle Code during a period in which his or her driver's
8 license, permit, or privileges were suspended for a
9 previous violation of that Section shall have his or her
10 driver's license, permit, or privileges suspended for an
11 additional 6 months after the expiration of the original
12 3-month suspension and until he or she has paid a
13 reinstatement fee of $100.
14 (6) (Blank).
15 (7) (Blank).
16 (8) (Blank).
17 (9) A defendant convicted of a second or subsequent
18 offense of ritualized abuse of a child may be sentenced to
19 a term of natural life imprisonment.
20 (10) (Blank).
21 (11) The court shall impose a minimum fine of $1,000
22 for a first offense and $2,000 for a second or subsequent
23 offense upon a person convicted of or placed on supervision
24 for battery when the individual harmed was a sports
25 official or coach at any level of competition and the act
26 causing harm to the sports official or coach occurred

09800SB2640ham001- 1789 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 within an athletic facility or within the immediate
2 vicinity of the athletic facility at which the sports
3 official or coach was an active participant of the athletic
4 contest held at the athletic facility. For the purposes of
5 this paragraph (11), "sports official" means a person at an
6 athletic contest who enforces the rules of the contest,
7 such as an umpire or referee; "athletic facility" means an
8 indoor or outdoor playing field or recreational area where
9 sports activities are conducted; and "coach" means a person
10 recognized as a coach by the sanctioning authority that
11 conducted the sporting event.
12 (12) A person may not receive a disposition of court
13 supervision for a violation of Section 5-16 of the Boat
14 Registration and Safety Act if that person has previously
15 received a disposition of court supervision for a violation
16 of that Section.
17 (13) A person convicted of or placed on court
18 supervision for an assault or aggravated assault when the
19 victim and the offender are family or household members as
20 defined in Section 103 of the Illinois Domestic Violence
21 Act of 1986 or convicted of domestic battery or aggravated
22 domestic battery may be required to attend a Partner Abuse
23 Intervention Program under protocols set forth by the
24 Illinois Department of Human Services under such terms and
25 conditions imposed by the court. The costs of such classes
26 shall be paid by the offender.

09800SB2640ham001- 1790 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 (d) In any case in which a sentence originally imposed is
2vacated, the case shall be remanded to the trial court. The
3trial court shall hold a hearing under Section 5-4-1 of the
4Unified Code of Corrections which may include evidence of the
5defendant's life, moral character and occupation during the
6time since the original sentence was passed. The trial court
7shall then impose sentence upon the defendant. The trial court
8may impose any sentence which could have been imposed at the
9original trial subject to Section 5-5-4 of the Unified Code of
10Corrections. If a sentence is vacated on appeal or on
11collateral attack due to the failure of the trier of fact at
12trial to determine beyond a reasonable doubt the existence of a
13fact (other than a prior conviction) necessary to increase the
14punishment for the offense beyond the statutory maximum
15otherwise applicable, either the defendant may be re-sentenced
16to a term within the range otherwise provided or, if the State
17files notice of its intention to again seek the extended
18sentence, the defendant shall be afforded a new trial.
19 (e) In cases where prosecution for aggravated criminal
20sexual abuse under Section 11-1.60 or 12-16 of the Criminal
21Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 results in conviction
22of a defendant who was a family member of the victim at the
23time of the commission of the offense, the court shall consider
24the safety and welfare of the victim and may impose a sentence
25of probation only where:
26 (1) the court finds (A) or (B) or both are appropriate:

09800SB2640ham001- 1791 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 (A) the defendant is willing to undergo a court
2 approved counseling program for a minimum duration of 2
3 years; or
4 (B) the defendant is willing to participate in a
5 court approved plan including but not limited to the
6 defendant's:
7 (i) removal from the household;
8 (ii) restricted contact with the victim;
9 (iii) continued financial support of the
10 family;
11 (iv) restitution for harm done to the victim;
12 and
13 (v) compliance with any other measures that
14 the court may deem appropriate; and
15 (2) the court orders the defendant to pay for the
16 victim's counseling services, to the extent that the court
17 finds, after considering the defendant's income and
18 assets, that the defendant is financially capable of paying
19 for such services, if the victim was under 18 years of age
20 at the time the offense was committed and requires
21 counseling as a result of the offense.
22 Probation may be revoked or modified pursuant to Section
235-6-4; except where the court determines at the hearing that
24the defendant violated a condition of his or her probation
25restricting contact with the victim or other family members or
26commits another offense with the victim or other family

09800SB2640ham001- 1792 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1members, the court shall revoke the defendant's probation and
2impose a term of imprisonment.
3 For the purposes of this Section, "family member" and
4"victim" shall have the meanings ascribed to them in Section
511-0.1 of the Criminal Code of 2012.
6 (f) (Blank).
7 (g) Whenever a defendant is convicted of an offense under
8Sections 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 11-14,
911-14.3, 11-14.4 except for an offense that involves keeping a
10place of juvenile prostitution, 11-15, 11-15.1, 11-16, 11-17,
1111-18, 11-18.1, 11-19, 11-19.1, 11-19.2, 12-13, 12-14,
1212-14.1, 12-15 or 12-16 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the
13Criminal Code of 2012, the defendant shall undergo medical
14testing to determine whether the defendant has any sexually
15transmissible disease, including a test for infection with
16human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) or any other identified
17causative agent of acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS).
18Any such medical test shall be performed only by appropriately
19licensed medical practitioners and may include an analysis of
20any bodily fluids as well as an examination of the defendant's
21person. Except as otherwise provided by law, the results of
22such test shall be kept strictly confidential by all medical
23personnel involved in the testing and must be personally
24delivered in a sealed envelope to the judge of the court in
25which the conviction was entered for the judge's inspection in
26camera. Acting in accordance with the best interests of the

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1victim and the public, the judge shall have the discretion to
2determine to whom, if anyone, the results of the testing may be
3revealed. The court shall notify the defendant of the test
4results. The court shall also notify the victim if requested by
5the victim, and if the victim is under the age of 15 and if
6requested by the victim's parents or legal guardian, the court
7shall notify the victim's parents or legal guardian of the test
8results. The court shall provide information on the
9availability of HIV testing and counseling at Department of
10Public Health facilities to all parties to whom the results of
11the testing are revealed and shall direct the State's Attorney
12to provide the information to the victim when possible. A
13State's Attorney may petition the court to obtain the results
14of any HIV test administered under this Section, and the court
15shall grant the disclosure if the State's Attorney shows it is
16relevant in order to prosecute a charge of criminal
17transmission of HIV under Section 12-5.01 or 12-16.2 of the
18Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 against the
19defendant. The court shall order that the cost of any such test
20shall be paid by the county and may be taxed as costs against
21the convicted defendant.
22 (g-5) When an inmate is tested for an airborne communicable
23disease, as determined by the Illinois Department of Public
24Health including but not limited to tuberculosis, the results
25of the test shall be personally delivered by the warden or his
26or her designee in a sealed envelope to the judge of the court

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1in which the inmate must appear for the judge's inspection in
2camera if requested by the judge. Acting in accordance with the
3best interests of those in the courtroom, the judge shall have
4the discretion to determine what if any precautions need to be
5taken to prevent transmission of the disease in the courtroom.
6 (h) Whenever a defendant is convicted of an offense under
7Section 1 or 2 of the Hypodermic Syringes and Needles Act, the
8defendant shall undergo medical testing to determine whether
9the defendant has been exposed to human immunodeficiency virus
10(HIV) or any other identified causative agent of acquired
11immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). Except as otherwise provided
12by law, the results of such test shall be kept strictly
13confidential by all medical personnel involved in the testing
14and must be personally delivered in a sealed envelope to the
15judge of the court in which the conviction was entered for the
16judge's inspection in camera. Acting in accordance with the
17best interests of the public, the judge shall have the
18discretion to determine to whom, if anyone, the results of the
19testing may be revealed. The court shall notify the defendant
20of a positive test showing an infection with the human
21immunodeficiency virus (HIV). The court shall provide
22information on the availability of HIV testing and counseling
23at Department of Public Health facilities to all parties to
24whom the results of the testing are revealed and shall direct
25the State's Attorney to provide the information to the victim
26when possible. A State's Attorney may petition the court to

09800SB2640ham001- 1795 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1obtain the results of any HIV test administered under this
2Section, and the court shall grant the disclosure if the
3State's Attorney shows it is relevant in order to prosecute a
4charge of criminal transmission of HIV under Section 12-5.01 or
512-16.2 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of
62012 against the defendant. The court shall order that the cost
7of any such test shall be paid by the county and may be taxed as
8costs against the convicted defendant.
9 (i) All fines and penalties imposed under this Section for
10any violation of Chapters 3, 4, 6, and 11 of the Illinois
11Vehicle Code, or a similar provision of a local ordinance, and
12any violation of the Child Passenger Protection Act, or a
13similar provision of a local ordinance, shall be collected and
14disbursed by the circuit clerk as provided under Section 27.5
15of the Clerks of Courts Act.
16 (j) In cases when prosecution for any violation of Section
1711-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 11-6, 11-8, 11-9,
1811-11, 11-14, 11-14.3, 11-14.4, 11-15, 11-15.1, 11-16, 11-17,
1911-17.1, 11-18, 11-18.1, 11-19, 11-19.1, 11-19.2, 11-20.1,
2011-20.1B, 11-20.3, 11-21, 11-30, 11-40, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1,
2112-15, or 12-16 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal
22Code of 2012, any violation of the Illinois Controlled
23Substances Act, any violation of the Cannabis Control Act, or
24any violation of the Methamphetamine Control and Community
25Protection Act results in conviction, a disposition of court
26supervision, or an order of probation granted under Section 10

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1of the Cannabis Control Act, Section 410 of the Illinois
2Controlled Substances Substance Act, or Section 70 of the
3Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act of a
4defendant, the court shall determine whether the defendant is
5employed by a facility or center as defined under the Child
6Care Act of 1969, a public or private elementary or secondary
7school, or otherwise works with children under 18 years of age
8on a daily basis. When a defendant is so employed, the court
9shall order the Clerk of the Court to send a copy of the
10judgment of conviction or order of supervision or probation to
11the defendant's employer by certified mail. If the employer of
12the defendant is a school, the Clerk of the Court shall direct
13the mailing of a copy of the judgment of conviction or order of
14supervision or probation to the appropriate regional
15superintendent of schools. The regional superintendent of
16schools shall notify the State Board of Education of any
17notification under this subsection.
18 (j-5) A defendant at least 17 years of age who is convicted
19of a felony and who has not been previously convicted of a
20misdemeanor or felony and who is sentenced to a term of
21imprisonment in the Illinois Department of Corrections shall as
22a condition of his or her sentence be required by the court to
23attend educational courses designed to prepare the defendant
24for a high school diploma and to work toward a high school
25diploma or to work toward passing the high school level Test of
26General Educational Development (GED) or to work toward

09800SB2640ham001- 1797 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1completing a vocational training program offered by the
2Department of Corrections. If a defendant fails to complete the
3educational training required by his or her sentence during the
4term of incarceration, the Prisoner Review Board shall, as a
5condition of mandatory supervised release, require the
6defendant, at his or her own expense, to pursue a course of
7study toward a high school diploma or passage of the GED test.
8The Prisoner Review Board shall revoke the mandatory supervised
9release of a defendant who wilfully fails to comply with this
10subsection (j-5) upon his or her release from confinement in a
11penal institution while serving a mandatory supervised release
12term; however, the inability of the defendant after making a
13good faith effort to obtain financial aid or pay for the
14educational training shall not be deemed a wilful failure to
15comply. The Prisoner Review Board shall recommit the defendant
16whose mandatory supervised release term has been revoked under
17this subsection (j-5) as provided in Section 3-3-9. This
18subsection (j-5) does not apply to a defendant who has a high
19school diploma or has successfully passed the GED test. This
20subsection (j-5) does not apply to a defendant who is
21determined by the court to be developmentally disabled or
22otherwise mentally incapable of completing the educational or
23vocational program.
24 (k) (Blank).
25 (l) (A) Except as provided in paragraph (C) of subsection
26 (l), whenever a defendant, who is an alien as defined by

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1 the Immigration and Nationality Act, is convicted of any
2 felony or misdemeanor offense, the court after sentencing
3 the defendant may, upon motion of the State's Attorney,
4 hold sentence in abeyance and remand the defendant to the
5 custody of the Attorney General of the United States or his
6 or her designated agent to be deported when:
7 (1) a final order of deportation has been issued
8 against the defendant pursuant to proceedings under
9 the Immigration and Nationality Act, and
10 (2) the deportation of the defendant would not
11 deprecate the seriousness of the defendant's conduct
12 and would not be inconsistent with the ends of justice.
13 Otherwise, the defendant shall be sentenced as
14 provided in this Chapter V.
15 (B) If the defendant has already been sentenced for a
16 felony or misdemeanor offense, or has been placed on
17 probation under Section 10 of the Cannabis Control Act,
18 Section 410 of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or
19 Section 70 of the Methamphetamine Control and Community
20 Protection Act, the court may, upon motion of the State's
21 Attorney to suspend the sentence imposed, commit the
22 defendant to the custody of the Attorney General of the
23 United States or his or her designated agent when:
24 (1) a final order of deportation has been issued
25 against the defendant pursuant to proceedings under
26 the Immigration and Nationality Act, and

09800SB2640ham001- 1799 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 (2) the deportation of the defendant would not
2 deprecate the seriousness of the defendant's conduct
3 and would not be inconsistent with the ends of justice.
4 (C) This subsection (l) does not apply to offenders who
5 are subject to the provisions of paragraph (2) of
6 subsection (a) of Section 3-6-3.
7 (D) Upon motion of the State's Attorney, if a defendant
8 sentenced under this Section returns to the jurisdiction of
9 the United States, the defendant shall be recommitted to
10 the custody of the county from which he or she was
11 sentenced. Thereafter, the defendant shall be brought
12 before the sentencing court, which may impose any sentence
13 that was available under Section 5-5-3 at the time of
14 initial sentencing. In addition, the defendant shall not be
15 eligible for additional sentence credit for good conduct as
16 provided under Section 3-6-3.
17 (m) A person convicted of criminal defacement of property
18under Section 21-1.3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the
19Criminal Code of 2012, in which the property damage exceeds
20$300 and the property damaged is a school building, shall be
21ordered to perform community service that may include cleanup,
22removal, or painting over the defacement.
23 (n) The court may sentence a person convicted of a
24violation of Section 12-19, 12-21, 16-1.3, or 17-56, or
25subsection (a) or (b) of Section 12-4.4a, of the Criminal Code
26of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 (i) to an impact

09800SB2640ham001- 1800 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1incarceration program if the person is otherwise eligible for
2that program under Section 5-8-1.1, (ii) to community service,
3or (iii) if the person is an addict or alcoholic, as defined in
4the Alcoholism and Other Drug Abuse and Dependency Act, to a
5substance or alcohol abuse program licensed under that Act.
6 (o) Whenever a person is convicted of a sex offense as
7defined in Section 2 of the Sex Offender Registration Act, the
8defendant's driver's license or permit shall be subject to
9renewal on an annual basis in accordance with the provisions of
10license renewal established by the Secretary of State.
11(Source: P.A. 96-348, eff. 8-12-09; 96-400, eff. 8-13-09;
1296-829, eff. 12-3-09; 96-1200, eff. 7-22-10; 96-1551, Article
131, Section 970, eff. 7-1-11; 96-1551, Article 2, Section 1065,
14eff. 7-1-11; 96-1551, Article 10, Section 10-150, eff. 7-1-11;
1597-159, eff. 7-21-11; 97-697, eff. 6-22-12; 97-917, eff.
168-9-12; 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1150,
17eff. 1-25-13; revised 11-12-13.)
18 (730 ILCS 5/5-5-3.2)
19 Sec. 5-5-3.2. Factors in Aggravation and Extended-Term
20Sentencing.
21 (a) The following factors shall be accorded weight in favor
22of imposing a term of imprisonment or may be considered by the
23court as reasons to impose a more severe sentence under Section
245-8-1 or Article 4.5 of Chapter V:
25 (1) the defendant's conduct caused or threatened

09800SB2640ham001- 1801 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 serious harm;
2 (2) the defendant received compensation for committing
3 the offense;
4 (3) the defendant has a history of prior delinquency or
5 criminal activity;
6 (4) the defendant, by the duties of his office or by
7 his position, was obliged to prevent the particular offense
8 committed or to bring the offenders committing it to
9 justice;
10 (5) the defendant held public office at the time of the
11 offense, and the offense related to the conduct of that
12 office;
13 (6) the defendant utilized his professional reputation
14 or position in the community to commit the offense, or to
15 afford him an easier means of committing it;
16 (7) the sentence is necessary to deter others from
17 committing the same crime;
18 (8) the defendant committed the offense against a
19 person 60 years of age or older or such person's property;
20 (9) the defendant committed the offense against a
21 person who is physically handicapped or such person's
22 property;
23 (10) by reason of another individual's actual or
24 perceived race, color, creed, religion, ancestry, gender,
25 sexual orientation, physical or mental disability, or
26 national origin, the defendant committed the offense

09800SB2640ham001- 1802 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 against (i) the person or property of that individual; (ii)
2 the person or property of a person who has an association
3 with, is married to, or has a friendship with the other
4 individual; or (iii) the person or property of a relative
5 (by blood or marriage) of a person described in clause (i)
6 or (ii). For the purposes of this Section, "sexual
7 orientation" means heterosexuality, homosexuality, or
8 bisexuality;
9 (11) the offense took place in a place of worship or on
10 the grounds of a place of worship, immediately prior to,
11 during or immediately following worship services. For
12 purposes of this subparagraph, "place of worship" shall
13 mean any church, synagogue or other building, structure or
14 place used primarily for religious worship;
15 (12) the defendant was convicted of a felony committed
16 while he was released on bail or his own recognizance
17 pending trial for a prior felony and was convicted of such
18 prior felony, or the defendant was convicted of a felony
19 committed while he was serving a period of probation,
20 conditional discharge, or mandatory supervised release
21 under subsection (d) of Section 5-8-1 for a prior felony;
22 (13) the defendant committed or attempted to commit a
23 felony while he was wearing a bulletproof vest. For the
24 purposes of this paragraph (13), a bulletproof vest is any
25 device which is designed for the purpose of protecting the
26 wearer from bullets, shot or other lethal projectiles;

09800SB2640ham001- 1803 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 (14) the defendant held a position of trust or
2 supervision such as, but not limited to, family member as
3 defined in Section 11-0.1 of the Criminal Code of 2012,
4 teacher, scout leader, baby sitter, or day care worker, in
5 relation to a victim under 18 years of age, and the
6 defendant committed an offense in violation of Section
7 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40, 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 11-6, 11-11,
8 11-14.4 except for an offense that involves keeping a place
9 of juvenile prostitution, 11-15.1, 11-19.1, 11-19.2,
10 11-20.1, 11-20.1B, 11-20.3, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15
11 or 12-16 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code
12 of 2012 against that victim;
13 (15) the defendant committed an offense related to the
14 activities of an organized gang. For the purposes of this
15 factor, "organized gang" has the meaning ascribed to it in
16 Section 10 of the Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention
17 Act;
18 (16) the defendant committed an offense in violation of
19 one of the following Sections while in a school, regardless
20 of the time of day or time of year; on any conveyance
21 owned, leased, or contracted by a school to transport
22 students to or from school or a school related activity; on
23 the real property of a school; or on a public way within
24 1,000 feet of the real property comprising any school:
25 Section 10-1, 10-2, 10-5, 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40,
26 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 11-14.4, 11-15.1, 11-17.1, 11-18.1,

09800SB2640ham001- 1804 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 11-19.1, 11-19.2, 12-2, 12-4, 12-4.1, 12-4.2, 12-4.3,
2 12-6, 12-6.1, 12-6.5, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15, 12-16,
3 18-2, or 33A-2, or Section 12-3.05 except for subdivision
4 (a)(4) or (g)(1), of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the
5 Criminal Code of 2012;
6 (16.5) the defendant committed an offense in violation
7 of one of the following Sections while in a day care
8 center, regardless of the time of day or time of year; on
9 the real property of a day care center, regardless of the
10 time of day or time of year; or on a public way within
11 1,000 feet of the real property comprising any day care
12 center, regardless of the time of day or time of year:
13 Section 10-1, 10-2, 10-5, 11-1.20, 11-1.30, 11-1.40,
14 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 11-14.4, 11-15.1, 11-17.1, 11-18.1,
15 11-19.1, 11-19.2, 12-2, 12-4, 12-4.1, 12-4.2, 12-4.3,
16 12-6, 12-6.1, 12-6.5, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15, 12-16,
17 18-2, or 33A-2, or Section 12-3.05 except for subdivision
18 (a)(4) or (g)(1), of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the
19 Criminal Code of 2012;
20 (17) the defendant committed the offense by reason of
21 any person's activity as a community policing volunteer or
22 to prevent any person from engaging in activity as a
23 community policing volunteer. For the purpose of this
24 Section, "community policing volunteer" has the meaning
25 ascribed to it in Section 2-3.5 of the Criminal Code of
26 2012;

09800SB2640ham001- 1805 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 (18) the defendant committed the offense in a nursing
2 home or on the real property comprising a nursing home. For
3 the purposes of this paragraph (18), "nursing home" means a
4 skilled nursing or intermediate long term care facility
5 that is subject to license by the Illinois Department of
6 Public Health under the Nursing Home Care Act, the
7 Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act of 2013, or
8 the ID/DD Community Care Act;
9 (19) the defendant was a federally licensed firearm
10 dealer and was previously convicted of a violation of
11 subsection (a) of Section 3 of the Firearm Owners
12 Identification Card Act and has now committed either a
13 felony violation of the Firearm Owners Identification Card
14 Act or an act of armed violence while armed with a firearm;
15 (20) the defendant (i) committed the offense of
16 reckless homicide under Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of
17 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 or the offense of driving
18 under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs,
19 intoxicating compound or compounds or any combination
20 thereof under Section 11-501 of the Illinois Vehicle Code
21 or a similar provision of a local ordinance and (ii) was
22 operating a motor vehicle in excess of 20 miles per hour
23 over the posted speed limit as provided in Article VI of
24 Chapter 11 of the Illinois Vehicle Code;
25 (21) the defendant (i) committed the offense of
26 reckless driving or aggravated reckless driving under

09800SB2640ham001- 1806 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 Section 11-503 of the Illinois Vehicle Code and (ii) was
2 operating a motor vehicle in excess of 20 miles per hour
3 over the posted speed limit as provided in Article VI of
4 Chapter 11 of the Illinois Vehicle Code;
5 (22) the defendant committed the offense against a
6 person that the defendant knew, or reasonably should have
7 known, was a member of the Armed Forces of the United
8 States serving on active duty. For purposes of this clause
9 (22), the term "Armed Forces" means any of the Armed Forces
10 of the United States, including a member of any reserve
11 component thereof or National Guard unit called to active
12 duty;
13 (23) the defendant committed the offense against a
14 person who was elderly, disabled, or infirm by taking
15 advantage of a family or fiduciary relationship with the
16 elderly, disabled, or infirm person;
17 (24) the defendant committed any offense under Section
18 11-20.1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code
19 of 2012 and possessed 100 or more images;
20 (25) the defendant committed the offense while the
21 defendant or the victim was in a train, bus, or other
22 vehicle used for public transportation;
23 (26) the defendant committed the offense of child
24 pornography or aggravated child pornography, specifically
25 including paragraph (1), (2), (3), (4), (5), or (7) of
26 subsection (a) of Section 11-20.1 of the Criminal Code of

09800SB2640ham001- 1807 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 where a child engaged in,
2 solicited for, depicted in, or posed in any act of sexual
3 penetration or bound, fettered, or subject to sadistic,
4 masochistic, or sadomasochistic abuse in a sexual context
5 and specifically including paragraph (1), (2), (3), (4),
6 (5), or (7) of subsection (a) of Section 11-20.1B or
7 Section 11-20.3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 where a child
8 engaged in, solicited for, depicted in, or posed in any act
9 of sexual penetration or bound, fettered, or subject to
10 sadistic, masochistic, or sadomasochistic abuse in a
11 sexual context;
12 (27) the defendant committed the offense of first
13 degree murder, assault, aggravated assault, battery,
14 aggravated battery, robbery, armed robbery, or aggravated
15 robbery against a person who was a veteran and the
16 defendant knew, or reasonably should have known, that the
17 person was a veteran performing duties as a representative
18 of a veterans' organization. For the purposes of this
19 paragraph (27), "veteran" means an Illinois resident who
20 has served as a member of the United States Armed Forces, a
21 member of the Illinois National Guard, or a member of the
22 United States Reserve Forces; and "veterans' organization"
23 means an organization comprised of members of which
24 substantially all are individuals who are veterans or
25 spouses, widows, or widowers of veterans, the primary
26 purpose of which is to promote the welfare of its members

09800SB2640ham001- 1808 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 and to provide assistance to the general public in such a
2 way as to confer a public benefit; or
3 (28) the defendant committed the offense of assault,
4 aggravated assault, battery, aggravated battery, robbery,
5 armed robbery, or aggravated robbery against a person that
6 the defendant knew or reasonably should have known was a
7 letter carrier or postal worker while that person was
8 performing his or her duties delivering mail for the United
9 States Postal Service.
10 For the purposes of this Section:
11 "School" is defined as a public or private elementary or
12secondary school, community college, college, or university.
13 "Day care center" means a public or private State certified
14and licensed day care center as defined in Section 2.09 of the
15Child Care Act of 1969 that displays a sign in plain view
16stating that the property is a day care center.
17 "Public transportation" means the transportation or
18conveyance of persons by means available to the general public,
19and includes paratransit services.
20 (b) The following factors, related to all felonies, may be
21considered by the court as reasons to impose an extended term
22sentence under Section 5-8-2 upon any offender:
23 (1) When a defendant is convicted of any felony, after
24 having been previously convicted in Illinois or any other
25 jurisdiction of the same or similar class felony or greater
26 class felony, when such conviction has occurred within 10

09800SB2640ham001- 1809 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 years after the previous conviction, excluding time spent
2 in custody, and such charges are separately brought and
3 tried and arise out of different series of acts; or
4 (2) When a defendant is convicted of any felony and the
5 court finds that the offense was accompanied by
6 exceptionally brutal or heinous behavior indicative of
7 wanton cruelty; or
8 (3) When a defendant is convicted of any felony
9 committed against:
10 (i) a person under 12 years of age at the time of
11 the offense or such person's property;
12 (ii) a person 60 years of age or older at the time
13 of the offense or such person's property; or
14 (iii) a person physically handicapped at the time
15 of the offense or such person's property; or
16 (4) When a defendant is convicted of any felony and the
17 offense involved any of the following types of specific
18 misconduct committed as part of a ceremony, rite,
19 initiation, observance, performance, practice or activity
20 of any actual or ostensible religious, fraternal, or social
21 group:
22 (i) the brutalizing or torturing of humans or
23 animals;
24 (ii) the theft of human corpses;
25 (iii) the kidnapping of humans;
26 (iv) the desecration of any cemetery, religious,

09800SB2640ham001- 1810 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 fraternal, business, governmental, educational, or
2 other building or property; or
3 (v) ritualized abuse of a child; or
4 (5) When a defendant is convicted of a felony other
5 than conspiracy and the court finds that the felony was
6 committed under an agreement with 2 or more other persons
7 to commit that offense and the defendant, with respect to
8 the other individuals, occupied a position of organizer,
9 supervisor, financier, or any other position of management
10 or leadership, and the court further finds that the felony
11 committed was related to or in furtherance of the criminal
12 activities of an organized gang or was motivated by the
13 defendant's leadership in an organized gang; or
14 (6) When a defendant is convicted of an offense
15 committed while using a firearm with a laser sight attached
16 to it. For purposes of this paragraph, "laser sight" has
17 the meaning ascribed to it in Section 26-7 of the Criminal
18 Code of 2012; or
19 (7) When a defendant who was at least 17 years of age
20 at the time of the commission of the offense is convicted
21 of a felony and has been previously adjudicated a
22 delinquent minor under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 for
23 an act that if committed by an adult would be a Class X or
24 Class 1 felony when the conviction has occurred within 10
25 years after the previous adjudication, excluding time
26 spent in custody; or

09800SB2640ham001- 1811 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 (8) When a defendant commits any felony and the
2 defendant used, possessed, exercised control over, or
3 otherwise directed an animal to assault a law enforcement
4 officer engaged in the execution of his or her official
5 duties or in furtherance of the criminal activities of an
6 organized gang in which the defendant is engaged; or
7 (9) When a defendant commits any felony and the
8 defendant knowingly video or audio records the offense with
9 the intent to disseminate the recording.
10 (c) The following factors may be considered by the court as
11reasons to impose an extended term sentence under Section 5-8-2
12(730 ILCS 5/5-8-2) upon any offender for the listed offenses:
13 (1) When a defendant is convicted of first degree
14 murder, after having been previously convicted in Illinois
15 of any offense listed under paragraph (c)(2) of Section
16 5-5-3 (730 ILCS 5/5-5-3), when that conviction has occurred
17 within 10 years after the previous conviction, excluding
18 time spent in custody, and the charges are separately
19 brought and tried and arise out of different series of
20 acts.
21 (1.5) When a defendant is convicted of first degree
22 murder, after having been previously convicted of domestic
23 battery (720 ILCS 5/12-3.2) or aggravated domestic battery
24 (720 ILCS 5/12-3.3) committed on the same victim or after
25 having been previously convicted of violation of an order
26 of protection (720 ILCS 5/12-30) in which the same victim

09800SB2640ham001- 1812 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 was the protected person.
2 (2) When a defendant is convicted of voluntary
3 manslaughter, second degree murder, involuntary
4 manslaughter, or reckless homicide in which the defendant
5 has been convicted of causing the death of more than one
6 individual.
7 (3) When a defendant is convicted of aggravated
8 criminal sexual assault or criminal sexual assault, when
9 there is a finding that aggravated criminal sexual assault
10 or criminal sexual assault was also committed on the same
11 victim by one or more other individuals, and the defendant
12 voluntarily participated in the crime with the knowledge of
13 the participation of the others in the crime, and the
14 commission of the crime was part of a single course of
15 conduct during which there was no substantial change in the
16 nature of the criminal objective.
17 (4) If the victim was under 18 years of age at the time
18 of the commission of the offense, when a defendant is
19 convicted of aggravated criminal sexual assault or
20 predatory criminal sexual assault of a child under
21 subsection (a)(1) of Section 11-1.40 or subsection (a)(1)
22 of Section 12-14.1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the
23 Criminal Code of 2012 (720 ILCS 5/11-1.40 or 5/12-14.1).
24 (5) When a defendant is convicted of a felony violation
25 of Section 24-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the
26 Criminal Code of 2012 (720 ILCS 5/24-1) and there is a

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1 finding that the defendant is a member of an organized
2 gang.
3 (6) When a defendant was convicted of unlawful use of
4 weapons under Section 24-1 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or
5 the Criminal Code of 2012 (720 ILCS 5/24-1) for possessing
6 a weapon that is not readily distinguishable as one of the
7 weapons enumerated in Section 24-1 of the Criminal Code of
8 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 (720 ILCS 5/24-1).
9 (7) When a defendant is convicted of an offense
10 involving the illegal manufacture of a controlled
11 substance under Section 401 of the Illinois Controlled
12 Substances Act (720 ILCS 570/401), the illegal manufacture
13 of methamphetamine under Section 25 of the Methamphetamine
14 Control and Community Protection Act (720 ILCS 646/25), or
15 the illegal possession of explosives and an emergency
16 response officer in the performance of his or her duties is
17 killed or injured at the scene of the offense while
18 responding to the emergency caused by the commission of the
19 offense. In this paragraph, "emergency" means a situation
20 in which a person's life, health, or safety is in jeopardy;
21 and "emergency response officer" means a peace officer,
22 community policing volunteer, fireman, emergency medical
23 technician-ambulance, emergency medical
24 technician-intermediate, emergency medical
25 technician-paramedic, ambulance driver, other medical
26 assistance or first aid personnel, or hospital emergency

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1 room personnel.
2 (8) When the defendant is convicted of attempted mob
3 action, solicitation to commit mob action, or conspiracy to
4 commit mob action under Section 8-1, 8-2, or 8-4 of the
5 Criminal Code of 2012, where the criminal object is a
6 violation of Section 25-1 of the Criminal Code of 2012, and
7 an electronic communication is used in the commission of
8 the offense. For the purposes of this paragraph (8),
9 "electronic communication" shall have the meaning provided
10 in Section 26.5-0.1 of the Criminal Code of 2012.
11 (d) For the purposes of this Section, "organized gang" has
12the meaning ascribed to it in Section 10 of the Illinois
13Streetgang Terrorism Omnibus Prevention Act.
14 (e) The court may impose an extended term sentence under
15Article 4.5 of Chapter V upon an offender who has been
16convicted of a felony violation of Section 11-1.20, 11-1.30,
1711-1.40, 11-1.50, 11-1.60, 12-13, 12-14, 12-14.1, 12-15, or
1812-16 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012
19when the victim of the offense is under 18 years of age at the
20time of the commission of the offense and, during the
21commission of the offense, the victim was under the influence
22of alcohol, regardless of whether or not the alcohol was
23supplied by the offender; and the offender, at the time of the
24commission of the offense, knew or should have known that the
25victim had consumed alcohol.
26(Source: P.A. 97-38, eff. 6-28-11, 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-333,

09800SB2640ham001- 1815 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1eff. 8-12-11; 97-693, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13;
297-1109, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13; 98-14, eff.
31-1-14; 98-104, eff. 7-22-13; 98-385, eff. 1-1-14; revised
49-24-13.)
5 (730 ILCS 5/5-5-5) (from Ch. 38, par. 1005-5-5)
6 Sec. 5-5-5. Loss and Restoration of Rights.
7 (a) Conviction and disposition shall not entail the loss by
8the defendant of any civil rights, except under this Section
9and Sections 29-6 and 29-10 of The Election Code, as now or
10hereafter amended.
11 (b) A person convicted of a felony shall be ineligible to
12hold an office created by the Constitution of this State until
13the completion of his sentence.
14 (c) A person sentenced to imprisonment shall lose his right
15to vote until released from imprisonment.
16 (d) On completion of sentence of imprisonment or upon
17discharge from probation, conditional discharge or periodic
18imprisonment, or at any time thereafter, all license rights and
19privileges granted under the authority of this State which have
20been revoked or suspended because of conviction of an offense
21shall be restored unless the authority having jurisdiction of
22such license rights finds after investigation and hearing that
23restoration is not in the public interest. This paragraph (d)
24shall not apply to the suspension or revocation of a license to
25operate a motor vehicle under the Illinois Vehicle Code.

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1 (e) Upon a person's discharge from incarceration or parole,
2or upon a person's discharge from probation or at any time
3thereafter, the committing court may enter an order certifying
4that the sentence has been satisfactorily completed when the
5court believes it would assist in the rehabilitation of the
6person and be consistent with the public welfare. Such order
7may be entered upon the motion of the defendant or the State or
8upon the court's own motion.
9 (f) Upon entry of the order, the court shall issue to the
10person in whose favor the order has been entered a certificate
11stating that his behavior after conviction has warranted the
12issuance of the order.
13 (g) This Section shall not affect the right of a defendant
14to collaterally attack his conviction or to rely on it in bar
15of subsequent proceedings for the same offense.
16 (h) No application for any license specified in subsection
17(i) of this Section granted under the authority of this State
18shall be denied by reason of an eligible offender who has
19obtained a certificate of relief from disabilities, as defined
20in Article 5.5 of this Chapter, having been previously
21convicted of one or more criminal offenses, or by reason of a
22finding of lack of "good moral character" when the finding is
23based upon the fact that the applicant has previously been
24convicted of one or more criminal offenses, unless:
25 (1) there is a direct relationship between one or more
26 of the previous criminal offenses and the specific license

09800SB2640ham001- 1817 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 sought; or
2 (2) the issuance of the license would involve an
3 unreasonable risk to property or to the safety or welfare
4 of specific individuals or the general public.
5 In making such a determination, the licensing agency shall
6consider the following factors:
7 (1) the public policy of this State, as expressed in
8 Article 5.5 of this Chapter, to encourage the licensure and
9 employment of persons previously convicted of one or more
10 criminal offenses;
11 (2) the specific duties and responsibilities
12 necessarily related to the license being sought;
13 (3) the bearing, if any, the criminal offenses or
14 offenses for which the person was previously convicted will
15 have on his or her fitness or ability to perform one or
16 more such duties and responsibilities;
17 (4) the time which has elapsed since the occurrence of
18 the criminal offense or offenses;
19 (5) the age of the person at the time of occurrence of
20 the criminal offense or offenses;
21 (6) the seriousness of the offense or offenses;
22 (7) any information produced by the person or produced
23 on his or her behalf in regard to his or her rehabilitation
24 and good conduct, including a certificate of relief from
25 disabilities issued to the applicant, which certificate
26 shall create a presumption of rehabilitation in regard to

09800SB2640ham001- 1818 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 the offense or offenses specified in the certificate; and
2 (8) the legitimate interest of the licensing agency in
3 protecting property, and the safety and welfare of specific
4 individuals or the general public.
5 (i) A certificate of relief from disabilities shall be
6issued only for a license or certification issued under the
7following Acts:
8 (1) the Animal Welfare Act; except that a certificate
9 of relief from disabilities may not be granted to provide
10 for the issuance or restoration of a license under the
11 Animal Welfare Act for any person convicted of violating
12 Section 3, 3.01, 3.02, 3.03, 3.03-1, or 4.01 of the Humane
13 Care for Animals Act or Section 26-5 or 48-1 of the
14 Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012;
15 (2) the Illinois Athletic Trainers Practice Act;
16 (3) the Barber, Cosmetology, Esthetics, Hair Braiding,
17 and Nail Technology Act of 1985;
18 (4) the Boiler and Pressure Vessel Repairer Regulation
19 Act;
20 (5) the Boxing and Full-contact Martial Arts Act;
21 (6) the Illinois Certified Shorthand Reporters Act of
22 1984;
23 (7) the Illinois Farm Labor Contractor Certification
24 Act;
25 (8) the Interior Design Title Act;
26 (9) the Illinois Professional Land Surveyor Act of

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1 1989;
2 (10) the Illinois Landscape Architecture Act of 1989;
3 (11) the Marriage and Family Therapy Licensing Act;
4 (12) the Private Employment Agency Act;
5 (13) the Professional Counselor and Clinical
6 Professional Counselor Licensing and Practice Act;
7 (14) the Real Estate License Act of 2000;
8 (15) the Illinois Roofing Industry Licensing Act;
9 (16) the Professional Engineering Practice Act of
10 1989;
11 (17) the Water Well and Pump Installation Contractor's
12 License Act;
13 (18) the Electrologist Licensing Act;
14 (19) the Auction License Act;
15 (20) the Illinois Architecture Practice Act of 1989;
16 (21) the Dietitian Nutritionist Practice Act;
17 (22) the Environmental Health Practitioner Licensing
18 Act;
19 (23) the Funeral Directors and Embalmers Licensing
20 Code;
21 (24) the Land Sales Registration Act of 1999;
22 (25) the Professional Geologist Licensing Act;
23 (26) the Illinois Public Accounting Act; and
24 (27) the Structural Engineering Practice Act of 1989.
25(Source: P.A. 96-1246, eff. 1-1-11; 97-119, eff. 7-14-11;
2697-706, eff. 6-25-12; 97-1108, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1141, eff.

09800SB2640ham001- 1820 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
112-28-12; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13; revised 2-22-13.)
2 (730 ILCS 5/5-8A-3) (from Ch. 38, par. 1005-8A-3)
3 Sec. 5-8A-3. Application.
4 (a) Except as provided in subsection (d), a person charged
5with or convicted of an excluded offense may not be placed in
6an electronic home detention program, except for bond pending
7trial or appeal or while on parole, aftercare release, or
8mandatory supervised release.
9 (b) A person serving a sentence for a conviction of a Class
101 felony, other than an excluded offense, may be placed in an
11electronic home detention program for a period not to exceed
12the last 90 days of incarceration.
13 (c) A person serving a sentence for a conviction of a Class
14X felony, other than an excluded offense, may be placed in an
15electronic home detention program for a period not to exceed
16the last 90 days of incarceration, provided that the person was
17sentenced on or after the effective date of this amendatory Act
18of 1993 and provided that the court has not prohibited the
19program for the person in the sentencing order.
20 (d) A person serving a sentence for conviction of an
21offense other than for predatory criminal sexual assault of a
22child, aggravated criminal sexual assault, criminal sexual
23assault, aggravated criminal sexual abuse, or felony criminal
24sexual abuse, may be placed in an electronic home detention
25program for a period not to exceed the last 12 months of

09800SB2640ham001- 1821 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1incarceration, provided that (i) the person is 55 years of age
2or older; (ii) the person is serving a determinate sentence;
3(iii) the person has served at least 25% of the sentenced
4prison term; and (iv) placement in an electronic home detention
5program is approved by the Prisoner Review Board.
6 (e) A person serving a sentence for conviction of a Class
72, 3 or 4 felony offense which is not an excluded offense may
8be placed in an electronic home detention program pursuant to
9Department administrative directives.
10 (f) Applications for electronic home detention may include
11the following:
12 (1) pretrial or pre-adjudicatory detention;
13 (2) probation;
14 (3) conditional discharge;
15 (4) periodic imprisonment;
16 (5) parole, aftercare release, or mandatory supervised
17 release;
18 (6) work release;
19 (7) furlough; or
20 (8) post-trial incarceration.
21 (g) A person convicted of an offense described in clause
22(4) or (5) of subsection (d) of Section 5-8-1 of this Code
23shall be placed in an electronic home detention program for at
24least the first 2 years of the person's mandatory supervised
25release term.
26(Source: P.A. 98-558, eff. 1-1-14; revised 11-12-13.)

09800SB2640ham001- 1822 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 Section 725. The Code of Civil Procedure is amended by
2changing Sections 8-2001, 8-2005, 11-106, and 13-110 as
3follows:
4 (735 ILCS 5/8-2001) (from Ch. 110, par. 8-2001)
5 Sec. 8-2001. Examination of health care records.
6 (a) In this Section:
7 "Health care facility" or "facility" means a public or
8private hospital, ambulatory surgical treatment center,
9nursing home, independent practice association, or physician
10hospital organization, or any other entity where health care
11services are provided to any person. The term does not include
12a health care practitioner.
13 "Health care practitioner" means any health care
14practitioner, including a physician, dentist, podiatric
15physician, advanced practice nurse, physician assistant,
16clinical psychologist, or clinical social worker. The term
17includes a medical office, health care clinic, health
18department, group practice, and any other organizational
19structure for a licensed professional to provide health care
20services. The term does not include a health care facility.
21 (b) Every private and public health care facility shall,
22upon the request of any patient who has been treated in such
23health care facility, or any person, entity, or organization
24presenting a valid authorization for the release of records

09800SB2640ham001- 1823 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1signed by the patient or the patient's legally authorized
2representative, or as authorized by Section 8-2001.5, permit
3the patient, his or her health care practitioner, authorized
4attorney, or any person, entity, or organization presenting a
5valid authorization for the release of records signed by the
6patient or the patient's legally authorized representative to
7examine the health care facility patient care records,
8including but not limited to the history, bedside notes,
9charts, pictures and plates, kept in connection with the
10treatment of such patient, and permit copies of such records to
11be made by him or her or his or her health care practitioner or
12authorized attorney.
13 (c) Every health care practitioner shall, upon the request
14of any patient who has been treated by the health care
15practitioner, or any person, entity, or organization
16presenting a valid authorization for the release of records
17signed by the patient or the patient's legally authorized
18representative, permit the patient and the patient's health
19care practitioner or authorized attorney, or any person,
20entity, or organization presenting a valid authorization for
21the release of records signed by the patient or the patient's
22legally authorized representative, to examine and copy the
23patient's records, including but not limited to those relating
24to the diagnosis, treatment, prognosis, history, charts,
25pictures and plates, kept in connection with the treatment of
26such patient.

09800SB2640ham001- 1824 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 (d) A request for copies of the records shall be in writing
2and shall be delivered to the administrator or manager of such
3health care facility or to the health care practitioner. The
4person (including patients, health care practitioners and
5attorneys) requesting copies of records shall reimburse the
6facility or the health care practitioner at the time of such
7copying for all reasonable expenses, including the costs of
8independent copy service companies, incurred in connection
9with such copying not to exceed a $20 handling charge for
10processing the request and the actual postage or shipping
11charge, if any, plus: (1) for paper copies 75 cents per page
12for the first through 25th pages, 50 cents per page for the
1326th through 50th pages, and 25 cents per page for all pages in
14excess of 50 (except that the charge shall not exceed $1.25 per
15page for any copies made from microfiche or microfilm; records
16retrieved from scanning, digital imaging, electronic
17information or other digital format do not qualify as
18microfiche or microfilm retrieval for purposes of calculating
19charges); and (2) for electronic records, retrieved from a
20scanning, digital imaging, electronic information or other
21digital format in an a electronic document, a charge of 50% of
22the per page charge for paper copies under subdivision (d)(1).
23This per page charge includes the cost of each CD Rom, DVD, or
24other storage media. Records already maintained in an
25electronic or digital format shall be provided in an electronic
26format when so requested. If the records system does not allow

09800SB2640ham001- 1825 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1for the creation or transmission of an electronic or digital
2record, then the facility or practitioner shall inform the
3requester in writing of the reason the records can not be
4provided electronically. The written explanation may be
5included with the production of paper copies, if the requester
6chooses to order paper copies. These rates shall be
7automatically adjusted as set forth in Section 8-2006. The
8facility or health care practitioner may, however, charge for
9the reasonable cost of all duplication of record material or
10information that cannot routinely be copied or duplicated on a
11standard commercial photocopy machine such as x-ray films or
12pictures.
13 (d-5) The handling fee shall not be collected from the
14patient or the patient's personal representative who obtains
15copies of records under Section 8-2001.5.
16 (e) The requirements of this Section shall be satisfied
17within 30 days of the receipt of a written request by a patient
18or by his or her legally authorized representative, health care
19practitioner, authorized attorney, or any person, entity, or
20organization presenting a valid authorization for the release
21of records signed by the patient or the patient's legally
22authorized representative. If the facility or health care
23practitioner needs more time to comply with the request, then
24within 30 days after receiving the request, the facility or
25health care practitioner must provide the requesting party with
26a written statement of the reasons for the delay and the date

09800SB2640ham001- 1826 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1by which the requested information will be provided. In any
2event, the facility or health care practitioner must provide
3the requested information no later than 60 days after receiving
4the request.
5 (f) A health care facility or health care practitioner must
6provide the public with at least 30 days prior notice of the
7closure of the facility or the health care practitioner's
8practice. The notice must include an explanation of how copies
9of the facility's records may be accessed by patients. The
10notice may be given by publication in a newspaper of general
11circulation in the area in which the health care facility or
12health care practitioner is located.
13 (g) Failure to comply with the time limit requirement of
14this Section shall subject the denying party to expenses and
15reasonable attorneys' fees incurred in connection with any
16court ordered enforcement of the provisions of this Section.
17(Source: P.A. 97-623, eff. 11-23-11; 97-867, eff. 7-30-12;
1898-214, eff. 8-9-13; revised 11-22-13.)
19 (735 ILCS 5/8-2005)
20 Sec. 8-2005. Attorney's records. This Section applies only
21if a client and his or her authorized attorney have complied
22with all applicable legal requirements regarding examination
23and copying of client files, including but not limited to
24satisfaction of expenses and attorney retaining liens.
25 Upon the request of a client, an attorney shall permit the

09800SB2640ham001- 1827 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1client's authorized attorney to examine and copy the records
2kept by the attorney in connection with the representation of
3the client, with the exception of attorney work product. The
4request for examination and copying of the records shall be in
5writing and shall be delivered to the attorney. Within a
6reasonable time after the attorney receives the written
7request, the attorney shall comply with the written request at
8his or her office or any other place designated by him or her.
9At the time of copying, the person requesting the records shall
10reimburse the attorney for all reasonable expenses, including
11the costs of independent copy service companies, incurred by
12the attorney in connection with the copying not to exceed a $20
13handling charge for processing the request, and the actual
14postage or shipping charges, if any, plus (1) for paper copies
1575 cents per page for the first through 25th pages, 50 cents
16per page for the 26th through 50th pages, and 25 cents per page
17for all pages in excess of 50 (except that the charge shall not
18exceed $1.25 per page for any copies made from microfiche or
19microfilm; records retrieved from scanning, digital imaging,
20electronic information or other digital format do not qualify
21as microfiche or microfilm retrieval for purposes of
22calculating charges); and (2) for electronic records,
23retrieved from a scanning, digital imaging, electronic
24information or other digital format in an a electronic
25document, a charge of 50% of the per page charge for paper
26copies under subdivision (d)(1). This per page charge includes

09800SB2640ham001- 1828 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1the cost of each CD Rom, DVD, or other storage media. Records
2already maintained in an electronic or digital format shall be
3provided in an electronic format when so requested. If the
4records system does not allow for the creation or transmission
5of an electronic or digital record, then the attorney shall
6inform the requester in writing of the reason the records
7cannot be provided electronically. The written explanation may
8be included with the production of paper copies, if the
9requester chooses to order paper copies. These rates shall be
10automatically adjusted as set forth in Section 8-2006. The
11attorney may, however, charge for the reasonable cost of all
12duplication of record material or information that cannot
13routinely be copied or duplicated on a standard commercial
14photocopy machine such as pictures.
15 An attorney shall satisfy the requirements of this Section
16within 60 days after he or she receives a request from a client
17or his or her authorized attorney. An attorney who fails to
18comply with the time limit requirement of this Section shall be
19required to pay expenses and reasonable attorney's fees
20incurred in connection with any court-ordered enforcement of
21the requirements of this Section.
22(Source: P.A. 95-478, eff. 1-1-08 (changed from 8-27-07 by P.A.
2395-480); 95-480, eff. 1-1-08; revised 11-22-13.)
24 (735 ILCS 5/11-106) (from Ch. 110, par. 11-106)
25 Sec. 11-106. Injunctive relief on Saturday, Sunday or legal

09800SB2640ham001- 1829 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1holiday. When an application is made on a Saturday, Sunday,
2legal holiday or on a day when courts are not in session for
3injunctive relief and there is filed with the complaint an
4affidavit of the plaintiff, or his, her or their agent or
5attorney, stating that the benefits of injunctive relief will
6be lost or endangered, or irremediable damage occasioned unless
7such injunctive relief is immediately granted, and stating the
8bases for such alleged consequence,, and if it appears to the
9court from such affidavit that the benefits of injunctive
10relief will be lost or endangered, or irremediable damage
11occasioned unless such injunctive relief is immediately
12granted, and if the plaintiff otherwise is entitled to such
13relief under the law, the court may grant injunctive relief on
14a Saturday, Sunday, legal holiday, or on a day when courts are
15not in session; and it shall be lawful for the clerk to
16certify, and for the sheriff or coroner to serve such order for
17injunctive relief on a Saturday, Sunday, legal holiday or on a
18day when courts are not in session as on any other day, and all
19affidavits and bonds made and proceedings had in such case
20shall have the same force and effect as if made or had on any
21other day.
22(Source: P.A. 82-280; revised 11-22-13.)
23 (735 ILCS 5/13-110) (from Ch. 110, par. 13-110)
24 Sec. 13-110. Vacant land - Payment of taxes with color of
25title. Whenever a person having color of title, made in good

09800SB2640ham001- 1830 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1faith, to vacant and unoccupied land, pays all taxes legally
2assessed thereon for 7 successive years, he or she shall be
3deemed and adjudged to be the legal owner of such vacant and
4unoccupied land, to the extent and according to the purport of
5his or her paper title. All persons holding under such
6taxpayer, by purchase, legacy or descent, before such 7 years
7expired, and who continue to pay the taxes, as above set out,
8so as to complete the payment of taxes for the such term, are
9entitled to the benefit of this Section. However, if any
10person, having a better paper title to such vacant and
11unoccupied land, during the term of 7 years, pays the taxes
12assessed on such land for any one or more years of the term of 7
13years, then such taxpayer, his or her heirs, legatees or
14assigns, shall not be entitled to the benefit of this Section.
15(Source: P.A. 83-707; revised 11-22-13.)
16 Section 730. The Eminent Domain Act is amended by changing
17Sections 15-5-15, 15-5-35, and 15-5-47 and by setting forth and
18renumbering multiple versions of Section 25-5-45 as follows:
19 (735 ILCS 30/15-5-15)
20 Sec. 15-5-15. Eminent domain powers in ILCS Chapters 70
21through 75. The following provisions of law may include express
22grants of the power to acquire property by condemnation or
23eminent domain:

09800SB2640ham001- 1831 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1(70 ILCS 5/8.02 and 5/9); Airport Authorities Act; airport
2 authorities; for public airport facilities.
3(70 ILCS 5/8.05 and 5/9); Airport Authorities Act; airport
4 authorities; for removal of airport hazards.
5(70 ILCS 5/8.06 and 5/9); Airport Authorities Act; airport
6 authorities; for reduction of the height of objects or
7 structures.
8(70 ILCS 10/4); Interstate Airport Authorities Act; interstate
9 airport authorities; for general purposes.
10(70 ILCS 15/3); Kankakee River Valley Area Airport Authority
11 Act; Kankakee River Valley Area Airport Authority; for
12 acquisition of land for airports.
13(70 ILCS 200/2-20); Civic Center Code; civic center
14 authorities; for grounds, centers, buildings, and parking.
15(70 ILCS 200/5-35); Civic Center Code; Aledo Civic Center
16 Authority; for grounds, centers, buildings, and parking.
17(70 ILCS 200/10-15); Civic Center Code; Aurora Metropolitan
18 Exposition, Auditorium and Office Building Authority; for
19 grounds, centers, buildings, and parking.
20(70 ILCS 200/15-40); Civic Center Code; Benton Civic Center
21 Authority; for grounds, centers, buildings, and parking.
22(70 ILCS 200/20-15); Civic Center Code; Bloomington Civic
23 Center Authority; for grounds, centers, buildings, and
24 parking.
25(70 ILCS 200/35-35); Civic Center Code; Brownstown Park
26 District Civic Center Authority; for grounds, centers,

09800SB2640ham001- 1832 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 buildings, and parking.
2(70 ILCS 200/40-35); Civic Center Code; Carbondale Civic Center
3 Authority; for grounds, centers, buildings, and parking.
4(70 ILCS 200/55-60); Civic Center Code; Chicago South Civic
5 Center Authority; for grounds, centers, buildings, and
6 parking.
7(70 ILCS 200/60-30); Civic Center Code; Collinsville
8 Metropolitan Exposition, Auditorium and Office Building
9 Authority; for grounds, centers, buildings, and parking.
10(70 ILCS 200/70-35); Civic Center Code; Crystal Lake Civic
11 Center Authority; for grounds, centers, buildings, and
12 parking.
13(70 ILCS 200/75-20); Civic Center Code; Decatur Metropolitan
14 Exposition, Auditorium and Office Building Authority; for
15 grounds, centers, buildings, and parking.
16(70 ILCS 200/80-15); Civic Center Code; DuPage County
17 Metropolitan Exposition, Auditorium and Office Building
18 Authority; for grounds, centers, buildings, and parking.
19(70 ILCS 200/85-35); Civic Center Code; Elgin Metropolitan
20 Exposition, Auditorium and Office Building Authority; for
21 grounds, centers, buildings, and parking.
22(70 ILCS 200/95-25); Civic Center Code; Herrin Metropolitan
23 Exposition, Auditorium and Office Building Authority; for
24 grounds, centers, buildings, and parking.
25(70 ILCS 200/110-35); Civic Center Code; Illinois Valley Civic
26 Center Authority; for grounds, centers, buildings, and

09800SB2640ham001- 1833 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 parking.
2(70 ILCS 200/115-35); Civic Center Code; Jasper County Civic
3 Center Authority; for grounds, centers, buildings, and
4 parking.
5(70 ILCS 200/120-25); Civic Center Code; Jefferson County
6 Metropolitan Exposition, Auditorium and Office Building
7 Authority; for grounds, centers, buildings, and parking.
8(70 ILCS 200/125-15); Civic Center Code; Jo Daviess County
9 Civic Center Authority; for grounds, centers, buildings,
10 and parking.
11(70 ILCS 200/130-30); Civic Center Code; Katherine Dunham
12 Metropolitan Exposition, Auditorium and Office Building
13 Authority; for grounds, centers, buildings, and parking.
14(70 ILCS 200/145-35); Civic Center Code; Marengo Civic Center
15 Authority; for grounds, centers, buildings, and parking.
16(70 ILCS 200/150-35); Civic Center Code; Mason County Civic
17 Center Authority; for grounds, centers, buildings, and
18 parking.
19(70 ILCS 200/155-15); Civic Center Code; Matteson Metropolitan
20 Civic Center Authority; for grounds, centers, buildings,
21 and parking.
22(70 ILCS 200/160-35); Civic Center Code; Maywood Civic Center
23 Authority; for grounds, centers, buildings, and parking.
24(70 ILCS 200/165-35); Civic Center Code; Melrose Park
25 Metropolitan Exposition Auditorium and Office Building
26 Authority; for grounds, centers, buildings, and parking.

09800SB2640ham001- 1834 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1(70 ILCS 200/170-20); Civic Center Code; certain Metropolitan
2 Exposition, Auditorium and Office Building Authorities;
3 for general purposes.
4(70 ILCS 200/180-35); Civic Center Code; Normal Civic Center
5 Authority; for grounds, centers, buildings, and parking.
6(70 ILCS 200/185-15); Civic Center Code; Oak Park Civic Center
7 Authority; for grounds, centers, buildings, and parking.
8(70 ILCS 200/195-35); Civic Center Code; Ottawa Civic Center
9 Authority; for grounds, centers, buildings, and parking.
10(70 ILCS 200/200-15); Civic Center Code; Pekin Civic Center
11 Authority; for grounds, centers, buildings, and parking.
12(70 ILCS 200/205-15); Civic Center Code; Peoria Civic Center
13 Authority; for grounds, centers, buildings, and parking.
14(70 ILCS 200/210-35); Civic Center Code; Pontiac Civic Center
15 Authority; for grounds, centers, buildings, and parking.
16(70 ILCS 200/215-15); Civic Center Code; Illinois Quad City
17 Civic Center Authority; for grounds, centers, buildings,
18 and parking.
19(70 ILCS 200/220-30); Civic Center Code; Quincy Metropolitan
20 Exposition, Auditorium and Office Building Authority; for
21 grounds, centers, buildings, and parking.
22(70 ILCS 200/225-35); Civic Center Code; Randolph County Civic
23 Center Authority; for grounds, centers, buildings, and
24 parking.
25(70 ILCS 200/230-35); Civic Center Code; River Forest
26 Metropolitan Exposition, Auditorium and Office Building

09800SB2640ham001- 1835 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 Authority; for grounds, centers, buildings, and parking.
2(70 ILCS 200/235-40); Civic Center Code; Riverside Civic Center
3 Authority; for grounds, centers, buildings, and parking.
4(70 ILCS 200/245-35); Civic Center Code; Salem Civic Center
5 Authority; for grounds, centers, buildings, and parking.
6(70 ILCS 200/255-20); Civic Center Code; Springfield
7 Metropolitan Exposition and Auditorium Authority; for
8 grounds, centers, and parking.
9(70 ILCS 200/260-35); Civic Center Code; Sterling Metropolitan
10 Exposition, Auditorium and Office Building Authority; for
11 grounds, centers, buildings, and parking.
12(70 ILCS 200/265-20); Civic Center Code; Vermilion County
13 Metropolitan Exposition, Auditorium and Office Building
14 Authority; for grounds, centers, buildings, and parking.
15(70 ILCS 200/270-35); Civic Center Code; Waukegan Civic Center
16 Authority; for grounds, centers, buildings, and parking.
17(70 ILCS 200/275-35); Civic Center Code; West Frankfort Civic
18 Center Authority; for grounds, centers, buildings, and
19 parking.
20(70 ILCS 200/280-20); Civic Center Code; Will County
21 Metropolitan Exposition and Auditorium Authority; for
22 grounds, centers, and parking.
23(70 ILCS 210/5); Metropolitan Pier and Exposition Authority
24 Act; Metropolitan Pier and Exposition Authority; for
25 general purposes, including quick-take power.
26(70 ILCS 405/22.04); Soil and Water Conservation Districts Act;

09800SB2640ham001- 1836 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 soil and water conservation districts; for general
2 purposes.
3(70 ILCS 410/10 and 410/12); Conservation District Act;
4 conservation districts; for open space, wildland, scenic
5 roadway, pathway, outdoor recreation, or other
6 conservation benefits.
7(70 ILCS 503/25); Chanute-Rantoul National Aviation Center
8 Redevelopment Commission Act; Chanute-Rantoul National
9 Aviation Center Redevelopment Commission; for general
10 purposes.
11(70 ILCS 507/15); Fort Sheridan Redevelopment Commission Act;
12 Fort Sheridan Redevelopment Commission; for general
13 purposes or to carry out comprehensive or redevelopment
14 plans.
15(70 ILCS 520/8); Southwestern Illinois Development Authority
16 Act; Southwestern Illinois Development Authority; for
17 general purposes, including quick-take power.
18(70 ILCS 605/4-17 and 605/5-7); Illinois Drainage Code;
19 drainage districts; for general purposes.
20(70 ILCS 615/5 and 615/6); Chicago Drainage District Act;
21 corporate authorities; for construction and maintenance of
22 works.
23(70 ILCS 705/10); Fire Protection District Act; fire protection
24 districts; for general purposes.
25(70 ILCS 750/20); Flood Prevention District Act; flood
26 prevention districts; for general purposes.

09800SB2640ham001- 1837 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1(70 ILCS 805/6); Downstate Forest Preserve District Act;
2 certain forest preserve districts; for general purposes.
3(70 ILCS 805/18.8); Downstate Forest Preserve District Act;
4 certain forest preserve districts; for recreational and
5 cultural facilities.
6(70 ILCS 810/8); Cook County Forest Preserve District Act;
7 Forest Preserve District of Cook County; for general
8 purposes.
9(70 ILCS 810/38); Cook County Forest Preserve District Act;
10 Forest Preserve District of Cook County; for recreational
11 facilities.
12(70 ILCS 910/15 and 910/16); Hospital District Law; hospital
13 districts; for hospitals or hospital facilities.
14(70 ILCS 915/3); Illinois Medical District Act; Illinois
15 Medical District Commission; for general purposes.
16(70 ILCS 915/4.5); Illinois Medical District Act; Illinois
17 Medical District Commission; quick-take power for the
18 Illinois State Police Forensic Science Laboratory
19 (obsolete).
20(70 ILCS 920/5); Tuberculosis Sanitarium District Act;
21 tuberculosis sanitarium districts; for tuberculosis
22 sanitariums.
23(70 ILCS 925/20); Mid-Illinois Medical District Act;
24 Mid-Illinois Medical District; for general purposes.
25(70 ILCS 930/20); Mid-America Medical District Act;
26 Mid-America Medical District Commission; for general

09800SB2640ham001- 1838 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 purposes.
2(70 ILCS 935/20); Roseland Community Medical District Act;
3 medical district; for general purposes.
4(70 ILCS 1005/7); Mosquito Abatement District Act; mosquito
5 abatement districts; for general purposes.
6(70 ILCS 1105/8); Museum District Act; museum districts; for
7 general purposes.
8(70 ILCS 1205/7-1); Park District Code; park districts; for
9 streets and other purposes.
10(70 ILCS 1205/8-1); Park District Code; park districts; for
11 parks.
12(70 ILCS 1205/9-2 and 1205/9-4); Park District Code; park
13 districts; for airports and landing fields.
14(70 ILCS 1205/11-2 and 1205/11-3); Park District Code; park
15 districts; for State land abutting public water and certain
16 access rights.
17(70 ILCS 1205/11.1-3); Park District Code; park districts; for
18 harbors.
19(70 ILCS 1225/2); Park Commissioners Land Condemnation Act;
20 park districts; for street widening.
21(70 ILCS 1230/1 and 1230/1-a); Park Commissioners Water Control
22 Act; park districts; for parks, boulevards, driveways,
23 parkways, viaducts, bridges, or tunnels.
24(70 ILCS 1250/2); Park Commissioners Street Control (1889) Act;
25 park districts; for boulevards or driveways.
26(70 ILCS 1290/1); Park District Aquarium and Museum Act;

09800SB2640ham001- 1839 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 municipalities or park districts; for aquariums or
2 museums.
3(70 ILCS 1305/2); Park District Airport Zoning Act; park
4 districts; for restriction of the height of structures.
5(70 ILCS 1310/5); Park District Elevated Highway Act; park
6 districts; for elevated highways.
7(70 ILCS 1505/15); Chicago Park District Act; Chicago Park
8 District; for parks and other purposes.
9(70 ILCS 1505/25.1); Chicago Park District Act; Chicago Park
10 District; for parking lots or garages.
11(70 ILCS 1505/26.3); Chicago Park District Act; Chicago Park
12 District; for harbors.
13(70 ILCS 1570/5); Lincoln Park Commissioners Land Condemnation
14 Act; Lincoln Park Commissioners; for land and interests in
15 land, including riparian rights.
16(70 ILCS 1801/30); Alexander-Cairo Port District Act;
17 Alexander-Cairo Port District; for general purposes.
18(70 ILCS 1805/8); Havana Regional Port District Act; Havana
19 Regional Port District; for general purposes.
20(70 ILCS 1810/7); Illinois International Port District Act;
21 Illinois International Port District; for general
22 purposes.
23(70 ILCS 1815/13); Illinois Valley Regional Port District Act;
24 Illinois Valley Regional Port District; for general
25 purposes.
26(70 ILCS 1820/4); Jackson-Union Counties Regional Port

09800SB2640ham001- 1840 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 District Act; Jackson-Union Counties Regional Port
2 District; for removal of airport hazards or reduction of
3 the height of objects or structures.
4(70 ILCS 1820/5); Jackson-Union Counties Regional Port
5 District Act; Jackson-Union Counties Regional Port
6 District; for general purposes.
7(70 ILCS 1825/4.9); Joliet Regional Port District Act; Joliet
8 Regional Port District; for removal of airport hazards.
9(70 ILCS 1825/4.10); Joliet Regional Port District Act; Joliet
10 Regional Port District; for reduction of the height of
11 objects or structures.
12(70 ILCS 1825/4.18); Joliet Regional Port District Act; Joliet
13 Regional Port District; for removal of hazards from ports
14 and terminals.
15(70 ILCS 1825/5); Joliet Regional Port District Act; Joliet
16 Regional Port District; for general purposes.
17(70 ILCS 1830/7.1); Kaskaskia Regional Port District Act;
18 Kaskaskia Regional Port District; for removal of hazards
19 from ports and terminals.
20(70 ILCS 1830/14); Kaskaskia Regional Port District Act;
21 Kaskaskia Regional Port District; for general purposes.
22(70 ILCS 1831/30); Massac-Metropolis Port District Act;
23 Massac-Metropolis Port District; for general purposes.
24(70 ILCS 1835/5.10); Mt. Carmel Regional Port District Act; Mt.
25 Carmel Regional Port District; for removal of airport
26 hazards.

09800SB2640ham001- 1841 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1(70 ILCS 1835/5.11); Mt. Carmel Regional Port District Act; Mt.
2 Carmel Regional Port District; for reduction of the height
3 of objects or structures.
4(70 ILCS 1835/6); Mt. Carmel Regional Port District Act; Mt.
5 Carmel Regional Port District; for general purposes.
6(70 ILCS 1837/30); Ottawa Port District Act; Ottawa Port
7 District; for general purposes.
8(70 ILCS 1845/4.9); Seneca Regional Port District Act; Seneca
9 Regional Port District; for removal of airport hazards.
10(70 ILCS 1845/4.10); Seneca Regional Port District Act; Seneca
11 Regional Port District; for reduction of the height of
12 objects or structures.
13(70 ILCS 1845/5); Seneca Regional Port District Act; Seneca
14 Regional Port District; for general purposes.
15(70 ILCS 1850/4); Shawneetown Regional Port District Act;
16 Shawneetown Regional Port District; for removal of airport
17 hazards or reduction of the height of objects or
18 structures.
19(70 ILCS 1850/5); Shawneetown Regional Port District Act;
20 Shawneetown Regional Port District; for general purposes.
21(70 ILCS 1855/4); Southwest Regional Port District Act;
22 Southwest Regional Port District; for removal of airport
23 hazards or reduction of the height of objects or
24 structures.
25(70 ILCS 1855/5); Southwest Regional Port District Act;
26 Southwest Regional Port District; for general purposes.

09800SB2640ham001- 1842 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1(70 ILCS 1860/4); Tri-City Regional Port District Act; Tri-City
2 Regional Port District; for removal of airport hazards.
3(70 ILCS 1860/5); Tri-City Regional Port District Act; Tri-City
4 Regional Port District; for the development of facilities.
5(70 ILCS 1863/11); Upper Mississippi River International Port
6 District Act; Upper Mississippi River International Port
7 District; for general purposes.
8(70 ILCS 1865/4.9); Waukegan Port District Act; Waukegan Port
9 District; for removal of airport hazards.
10(70 ILCS 1865/4.10); Waukegan Port District Act; Waukegan Port
11 District; for restricting the height of objects or
12 structures.
13(70 ILCS 1865/5); Waukegan Port District Act; Waukegan Port
14 District; for the development of facilities.
15(70 ILCS 1870/8); White County Port District Act; White County
16 Port District; for the development of facilities.
17(70 ILCS 1905/16); Railroad Terminal Authority Act; Railroad
18 Terminal Authority (Chicago); for general purposes.
19(70 ILCS 1915/25); Grand Avenue Railroad Relocation Authority
20 Act; Grand Avenue Railroad Relocation Authority; for
21 general purposes, including quick-take power (now
22 obsolete).
23 (70 ILCS 1935/25); Elmwood Park Grade Separation Authority Act;
24 Elmwood Park Grade Separation Authority; for general
25 purposes.
26(70 ILCS 2105/9b); River Conservancy Districts Act; river

09800SB2640ham001- 1843 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 conservancy districts; for general purposes.
2(70 ILCS 2105/10a); River Conservancy Districts Act; river
3 conservancy districts; for corporate purposes.
4(70 ILCS 2205/15); Sanitary District Act of 1907; sanitary
5 districts; for corporate purposes.
6(70 ILCS 2205/18); Sanitary District Act of 1907; sanitary
7 districts; for improvements and works.
8(70 ILCS 2205/19); Sanitary District Act of 1907; sanitary
9 districts; for access to property.
10(70 ILCS 2305/8); North Shore Sanitary District Act; North
11 Shore Sanitary District; for corporate purposes.
12(70 ILCS 2305/15); North Shore Sanitary District Act; North
13 Shore Sanitary District; for improvements.
14(70 ILCS 2405/7.9); Sanitary District Act of 1917; Sanitary
15 District of Decatur; for carrying out agreements to sell,
16 convey, or disburse treated wastewater to a private entity.
17(70 ILCS 2405/8); Sanitary District Act of 1917; sanitary
18 districts; for corporate purposes.
19(70 ILCS 2405/15); Sanitary District Act of 1917; sanitary
20 districts; for improvements.
21(70 ILCS 2405/16.9 and 2405/16.10); Sanitary District Act of
22 1917; sanitary districts; for waterworks.
23(70 ILCS 2405/17.2); Sanitary District Act of 1917; sanitary
24 districts; for public sewer and water utility treatment
25 works.
26(70 ILCS 2405/18); Sanitary District Act of 1917; sanitary

09800SB2640ham001- 1844 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 districts; for dams or other structures to regulate water
2 flow.
3(70 ILCS 2605/8); Metropolitan Water Reclamation District Act;
4 Metropolitan Water Reclamation District; for corporate
5 purposes.
6(70 ILCS 2605/16); Metropolitan Water Reclamation District
7 Act; Metropolitan Water Reclamation District; quick-take
8 power for improvements.
9(70 ILCS 2605/17); Metropolitan Water Reclamation District
10 Act; Metropolitan Water Reclamation District; for bridges.
11(70 ILCS 2605/35); Metropolitan Water Reclamation District
12 Act; Metropolitan Water Reclamation District; for widening
13 and deepening a navigable stream.
14(70 ILCS 2805/10); Sanitary District Act of 1936; sanitary
15 districts; for corporate purposes.
16(70 ILCS 2805/24); Sanitary District Act of 1936; sanitary
17 districts; for improvements.
18(70 ILCS 2805/26i and 2805/26j); Sanitary District Act of 1936;
19 sanitary districts; for drainage systems.
20(70 ILCS 2805/27); Sanitary District Act of 1936; sanitary
21 districts; for dams or other structures to regulate water
22 flow.
23(70 ILCS 2805/32k); Sanitary District Act of 1936; sanitary
24 districts; for water supply.
25(70 ILCS 2805/32l); Sanitary District Act of 1936; sanitary
26 districts; for waterworks.

09800SB2640ham001- 1845 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1(70 ILCS 2905/2-7); Metro-East Sanitary District Act of 1974;
2 Metro-East Sanitary District; for corporate purposes.
3(70 ILCS 2905/2-8); Metro-East Sanitary District Act of 1974;
4 Metro-East Sanitary District; for access to property.
5(70 ILCS 3010/10); Sanitary District Revenue Bond Act; sanitary
6 districts; for sewerage systems.
7(70 ILCS 3205/12); Illinois Sports Facilities Authority Act;
8 Illinois Sports Facilities Authority; quick-take power for
9 its corporate purposes (obsolete).
10(70 ILCS 3405/16); Surface Water Protection District Act;
11 surface water protection districts; for corporate
12 purposes.
13(70 ILCS 3605/7); Metropolitan Transit Authority Act; Chicago
14 Transit Authority; for transportation systems.
15(70 ILCS 3605/8); Metropolitan Transit Authority Act; Chicago
16 Transit Authority; for general purposes.
17(70 ILCS 3605/10); Metropolitan Transit Authority Act; Chicago
18 Transit Authority; for general purposes, including
19 railroad property.
20(70 ILCS 3610/3 and 3610/5); Local Mass Transit District Act;
21 local mass transit districts; for general purposes.
22(70 ILCS 3615/2.13); Regional Transportation Authority Act;
23 Regional Transportation Authority; for general purposes.
24(70 ILCS 3705/8 and 3705/12); Public Water District Act; public
25 water districts; for waterworks.
26(70 ILCS 3705/23a); Public Water District Act; public water

09800SB2640ham001- 1846 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 districts; for sewerage properties.
2(70 ILCS 3705/23e); Public Water District Act; public water
3 districts; for combined waterworks and sewerage systems.
4(70 ILCS 3715/6); Water Authorities Act; water authorities; for
5 facilities to ensure adequate water supply.
6(70 ILCS 3715/27); Water Authorities Act; water authorities;
7 for access to property.
8(75 ILCS 5/4-7); Illinois Local Library Act; boards of library
9 trustees; for library buildings.
10(75 ILCS 16/30-55.80); Public Library District Act of 1991;
11 public library districts; for general purposes.
12(75 ILCS 65/1 and 65/3); Libraries in Parks Act; corporate
13 authorities of city or park district, or board of park
14 commissioners; for free public library buildings.
15(Source: P.A. 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 97-333, eff. 8-12-11;
16incorporates 96-1522, eff. 2-14-11, and 97-259, eff. 8-5-11;
1797-813, eff. 7-13-12; incorporates 98-564, eff. 8-27-13;
18revised 11-25-13.)
19 (735 ILCS 30/15-5-35)
20 Sec. 15-5-35. Eminent domain powers in ILCS Chapters 605
21through 625. The following provisions of law may include
22express grants of the power to acquire property by condemnation
23or eminent domain:
24(605 ILCS 5/4-501); Illinois Highway Code; Department of

09800SB2640ham001- 1847 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 Transportation and counties; for highway purposes.
2(605 ILCS 5/4-502); Illinois Highway Code; Department of
3 Transportation; for ditches and drains.
4(605 ILCS 5/4-505); Illinois Highway Code; Department of
5 Transportation; for replacement of railroad and public
6 utility property taken for highway purposes.
7(605 ILCS 5/4-509); Illinois Highway Code; Department of
8 Transportation; for replacement of property taken for
9 highway purposes.
10(605 ILCS 5/4-510); Illinois Highway Code; Department of
11 Transportation; for rights-of-way for future highway
12 purposes.
13(605 ILCS 5/4-511); Illinois Highway Code; Department of
14 Transportation; for relocation of structures taken for
15 highway purposes.
16(605 ILCS 5/5-107); Illinois Highway Code; counties; for county
17 highway relocation.
18(605 ILCS 5/5-801); Illinois Highway Code; counties; for
19 highway purposes.
20(605 ILCS 5/5-802); Illinois Highway Code; counties; for
21 ditches and drains.
22(605 ILCS 5/6-309); Illinois Highway Code; highway
23 commissioners or county superintendents; for township or
24 road district roads.
25(605 ILCS 5/6-801); Illinois Highway Code; highway
26 commissioners; for road district or township roads.

09800SB2640ham001- 1848 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1(605 ILCS 5/6-802); Illinois Highway Code; highway
2 commissioners; for ditches and drains.
3(605 ILCS 5/8-102); Illinois Highway Code; Department of
4 Transportation, counties, and municipalities; for limiting
5 freeway access.
6(605 ILCS 5/8-103); Illinois Highway Code; Department of
7 Transportation, counties, and municipalities; for freeway
8 purposes.
9(605 ILCS 5/8-106); Illinois Highway Code; Department of
10 Transportation and counties; for relocation of existing
11 crossings for freeway purposes.
12(605 ILCS 5/9-113); Illinois Highway Code; highway
13 authorities; for utility and other uses in rights-of-ways.
14(605 ILCS 5/10-302); Illinois Highway Code; counties; for
15 bridge purposes.
16(605 ILCS 5/10-602); Illinois Highway Code; municipalities;
17 for ferry and bridge purposes.
18(605 ILCS 5/10-702); Illinois Highway Code; municipalities;
19 for bridge purposes.
20(605 ILCS 5/10-901); Illinois Highway Code; Department of
21 Transportation; for ferry property.
22(605 ILCS 10/9); Toll Highway Act; Illinois State Toll Highway
23 Authority; for toll highway purposes.
24(605 ILCS 10/9.5); Toll Highway Act; Illinois State Toll
25 Highway Authority; for its authorized purposes.
26(605 ILCS 10/10); Toll Highway Act; Illinois State Toll Highway

09800SB2640ham001- 1849 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 Authority; for property of a municipality or political
2 subdivision for toll highway purposes.
3(605 ILCS 115/14); Toll Bridge Act; counties; for toll bridge
4 purposes.
5(605 ILCS 115/15); Toll Bridge Act; counties; for the purpose
6 of taking a toll bridge to make it a free bridge.
7(605 ILCS 130/80); Public Private Agreements for the Illiana
8 Expressway Act; Department of Transportation; for the
9 Illiana Expressway project.
10(610 ILCS 5/17); Railroad Incorporation Act; railroad
11 corporation; for real estate for railroad purposes.
12(610 ILCS 5/18); Railroad Incorporation Act; railroad
13 corporations; for materials for railways.
14(610 ILCS 5/19); Railroad Incorporation Act; railways; for land
15 along highways.
16(610 ILCS 70/1); Railroad Powers Act; purchasers and lessees of
17 railroad companies; for railroad purposes.
18(610 ILCS 115/2 and 115/3); Street Railroad Right of Way Act;
19 street railroad companies; for street railroad purposes.
20(615 ILCS 5/19); Rivers, Lakes, and Streams Act; Department of
21 Natural Resources; for land along public waters for
22 pleasure, recreation, or sport purposes.
23(615 ILCS 10/7.8); Illinois Waterway Act; Department of Natural
24 Resources; for waterways and appurtenances.
25(615 ILCS 15/7); Flood Control Act of 1945; Department of
26 Natural Resources; for the purposes of the Act.

09800SB2640ham001- 1850 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1(615 ILCS 30/9); Illinois and Michigan Canal Management Act;
2 Department of Natural Resources; for dams, locks, and
3 improvements.
4(615 ILCS 45/10); Illinois and Michigan Canal Development Act;
5 Department of Natural Resources; for development and
6 management of the canal.
7(620 ILCS 5/72); Illinois Aeronautics Act; Division of
8 Aeronautics of the Department of Transportation; for
9 airport purposes.
10(620 ILCS 5/73); Illinois Aeronautics Act; Division of
11 Aeronautics of the Department of Transportation; for
12 removal of airport hazards.
13(620 ILCS 5/74); Illinois Aeronautics Act; Division of
14 Aeronautics of the Department of Transportation; for
15 airport purposes.
16(620 ILCS 25/33); Airport Zoning Act; Division of Aeronautics
17 of the Department of Transportation; for air rights.
18(620 ILCS 40/2 and 40/3); General County Airport and Landing
19 Field Act; counties; for airport purposes.
20(620 ILCS 40/5); General County Airport and Landing Field Act;
21 counties; for removing hazards.
22(620 ILCS 45/6 and 45/7); County Airport Law of 1943; boards of
23 directors of airports and landing fields; for airport and
24 landing field purposes.
25(620 ILCS 50/22 and 50/31); County Airports Act; counties; for
26 airport purposes.

09800SB2640ham001- 1851 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1(620 ILCS 50/24); County Airports Act; counties; for removal of
2 airport hazards.
3(620 ILCS 50/26); County Airports Act; counties; for
4 acquisition of airport protection privileges.
5(620 ILCS 52/15); County Air Corridor Protection Act; counties;
6 for airport zones.
7(620 ILCS 55/1); East St. Louis Airport Act; Department of
8 Transportation; for airport in East St. Louis metropolitan
9 area.
10(620 ILCS 65/15); O'Hare Modernization Act; Chicago; for the
11 O'Hare modernization program, including quick-take power.
12 (620 ILCS 75/2-15 and 75/2-90); Public-Private Agreements for
13 the South Suburban Airport Act; Department of
14 Transportation; for South Suburban Airport purposes.
15(625 ILCS 5/2-105); Illinois Vehicle Code; Secretary of State;
16 for general purposes.
17(625 ILCS 5/18c-7501); Illinois Vehicle Code; rail carriers;
18 for railroad purposes, including quick-take power.
19(Source: P.A. 97-808, eff. 7-13-12; incorporates 98-109, eff.
207-25-13; revised 11-25-13.)
21 (735 ILCS 30/15-5-47)
22 Sec. 15-5-47. Eminent domain powers in new Acts. The
23following provisions of law may include express grants of the
24power to acquire property by condemnation or eminent domain:

09800SB2640ham001- 1852 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1(Reserved).
2 The Elmwood Park Grade Separation Authority Act; Elmwood Park
3 Grade Separation Authority; for general purposes.
4 Public-Private Agreements for the South Suburban Airport Act;
5 Department of Transportation; for South Suburban Airport
6 purposes.
7(Source: P.A. 98-109, eff. 7-25-13; 98-564, eff. 8-27-13;
8revised 11-25-13.)
9 (735 ILCS 30/25-5-45)
10 Sec. 25-5-45. Quick-take; South Suburban Airport.
11Quick-take proceedings under Article 20 may be used by the
12Department of Transportation for the purpose of development of
13the South Suburban Airport within the boundaries designated on
14the map filed with the Secretary of State on May 28, 2013 and
15known as file number 98-GA-D01.
16(Source: P.A. 98-109, eff. 7-25-13.)
17 (735 ILCS 30/25-5-50)
18 Sec. 25-5-50 25-5-45. Quick-take; McHenry County.
19Quick-take proceedings under Article 20 may be used for a
20period of no longer than one year from the effective date of
21this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly by McHenry
22County for the acquisition of the following described property
23for the purpose of public improvements to serve McHenry County:

09800SB2640ham001- 1853 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1Route: F.A.U. 168 (Johnsburg Road)
2Section: 05-00314-00-WR
3County: McHenry Job No.: R-91-005-06
4Parcel: 1HK0045
5Sta. 58+07.09 To Sta. 58+31.89
6Sta. 176+10.72 To Sta. 177+36.15
7Owner: JNL-Johnsburg Properties, Inc.
8Index No. 09-13-277-001
909-13-277-002
10That part of Sub Lot 2 of Lot 28 in Plat Number 3 McHenry,
11County Clerk's Plat of Section 13, Township 45 North, Range 8
12East of the Third Principal Meridian, according to the plat
13thereof recorded May 6, 1902 as document number 14079, in
14McHenry County, Illinois, described as follows:
15Commencing at the southeast corner of the Northeast Quarter of
16said Section 13; thence on an assumed bearing of South 89
17degrees 15 minutes 13 seconds West along the south line of the
18Northeast Quarter of said Section 13, as monumented and
19occupied, a distance of 824.94 feet (825.2 feet, recorded)
20(826.0 feet, recorded) to a point of intersection with the
21Southerly extension of the east line of the grantor; thence
22North 1 degree 20 minutes 53 seconds East along the said
23Southerly extension of the east line of the grantor, a distance
24of 132.49 feet to the northeasterly right of way line of Chapel

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1Hill Road recorded January 26, 1932 as document number 100422,
2being also the southeast corner of the grantor; thence North 46
3degrees 56 minutes 58 seconds West along the said northeasterly
4right of way line of Chapel Hill Road and along the
5northeasterly right of way line of Chapel Hill Road recorded
6January 26, 1932 as document number 100421, a distance of
7261.08 feet to the point of beginning; thence continuing North
846 degrees 56 minutes 58 seconds West along the northeasterly
9right of way line of Chapel Hill Road recorded as document
10number 100421, a distance of 14.94 feet to the east right of
11way line of Chapel Hill Road recorded January 26, 1932 as
12document number 100420; thence North 2 degrees 09 minutes 50
13seconds East along the said east right of way line of Chapel
14Hill Road and the Northerly extension thereof, a distance of
1564.92 feet (64.91 feet, more or less, recorded) to the center
16line of Johnsburg Road; thence North 87 degrees 42 minutes 53
17seconds East along the said center line of Johnsburg Road, a
18distance of 123.08 feet; thence South 2 degrees 17 minutes 07
19seconds East, a distance of 30.00 feet to the south right of
20way line of Johnsburg Road according to a Plat of Survey by the
21County Surveyor dated October 21, 1952 in Surveyor Book Number
225, page 204; thence South 2 degrees 48 minutes 02 seconds East,
23a distance of 1.05 feet; thence westerly 59.83 feet along a
24curve to the left having a radius of 987.47 feet, the chord of
25said curve bears South 85 degrees 27 minutes 49 seconds West,
2659.82 feet; thence South 70 degrees 14 minutes 11 seconds West,

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1a distance of 47.08 feet; thence South 22 degrees 40 minutes 19
2seconds West, a distance of 30.69 feet to the point of
3beginning.
4Said parcel containing 0.117 acre, more or less, of which 0.086
5acre, more or less, was previously dedicated or used for
6highway purposes.
7(Source: P.A. 98-229, eff. 8-9-13; revised 10-25-13.)
8 Section 735. The Crime Victims Compensation Act is amended
9by changing Section 17 as follows:
10 (740 ILCS 45/17) (from Ch. 70, par. 87)
11 Sec. 17. (a) Subrogation.
12 (a) The Court of Claims may award compensation on the
13condition that the applicant subrogate to the State his rights
14to collect damages from the assailant or any third party who
15may be liable in damages to the applicant. In such a case the
16Attorney General may, on behalf of the State, bring an action
17against an assailant or third party for money damages, but must
18first notify the applicant and give him an opportunity to
19participate in the prosecution of the action. The excess of the
20amount recovered in such action over the amount of the
21compensation offered and accepted or awarded under this Act
22plus costs of the action and attorneys' fees actually incurred
23shall be paid to the applicant.

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1 (b) Nothing in this Act affects the right of the applicant
2to seek civil damages from the assailant and any other party,
3but that applicant must give written notice to the Attorney
4General within 10 days after the making of a claim or the
5filing of an action for such damages, and within 10 days after
6the conclusion of the claim or action. The applicant must
7attach to the written notice a copy of the complaint,
8settlement agreement, jury verdict, or judgment. Failure to
9timely notify the Attorney General of such claims and actions
10is a willful omission of fact and the applicant thereby becomes
11subject to the provisions of Section 20 of this Act.
12 (c) The State has a charge for the amount of compensation
13paid under this Act upon all claims or causes of action against
14an assailant and any other party to recover for the injuries or
15death of a victim which were the basis for that payment of
16compensation. At the time compensation is ordered to be paid
17under this Act, the Court of Claims shall give written notice
18of this charge to the applicant. The charge attaches to any
19verdict or judgment entered and to any money or property which
20is recovered on account of the claim or cause of action against
21the assailant or any other party after the notice is given. On
22petition filed by the Attorney General on behalf of the State
23or by the applicant, the circuit court, on written notice to
24all interested parties, shall adjudicate the right of the
25parties and enforce the charge. This subsection does not affect
26the priority of a lien under "AN ACT creating attorney's lien

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1and for enforcement of same", filed June 16, 1909, as amended.
2 Only the Court of Claims may reduce the State's lien under
3this Act. The Court of Claims may consider the nature and
4extent of the injury, economic loss, settlements, hospital
5costs, physician costs, attorney's fees and costs, and all
6other appropriate costs. The burden of producing evidence
7sufficient to support the exercise by the Court of Claims of
8its discretion to reduce the amount of a proven charge sought
9to be enforced against the recovery shall rest with the party
10seeking such reduction. The charges of the State described in
11this Section, however, shall take priority over all other liens
12and charges existing under the laws of the State of Illinois.
13 (d) Where compensation is awarded under this Act and the
14person receiving same also receives any sum required to be, and
15that has not been deducted under Section 10.1, he shall refund
16to the State the amount of compensation paid to him which would
17have been deducted at the time the award was made.
18 (e) An amount not to exceed 25% of all money recovered
19under subsections (b) or (c) of this Section shall be placed in
20the Violent Crime Victims Assistance Fund to assist with costs
21related to recovery efforts. "Recovery efforts" means those
22activities that are directly attributable to obtaining
23restitution, civil suit recoveries, and other reimbursements.
24 (f) The applicant must give written notice to the Attorney
25General within 10 days after an offender is ordered by a court
26to pay restitution. The applicant shall attach a copy of the

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1restitution order or judgment to the written notice. Failure to
2timely notify the Attorney General of court-ordered
3restitution is a willful omission of fact and the applicant
4thereby becomes subject to the provisions of Section 20 of this
5Act. The Attorney General may file a written copy of the Court
6of Claims' decision awarding crime victims compensation in a
7criminal case in which the offender has been ordered to pay
8restitution for the victim's expenses incurred as a result of
9the same criminal conduct. Upon the filing of the order, the
10circuit court clerk shall send restitution payments directly to
11the compensation program for any paid expense reflected in the
12Court of Claims' decision.
13(Source: P.A. 97-817, eff. 1-1-13; revised 11-12-13.)
14 Section 740. The Mental Health and Developmental
15Disabilities Confidentiality Act is amended by changing
16Section 12.2 as follows:
17 (740 ILCS 110/12.2) (from Ch. 91 1/2, par. 812.2)
18 Sec. 12.2. (a) When a recipient who has been judicially or
19involuntarily admitted, or is a forensic recipient admitted to
20a developmental disability or mental health facility, as
21defined in Section 1-107 or 1-114 of the Mental Health and
22Developmental Disabilities Code, is on an unauthorized absence
23or otherwise has left the facility without being discharged or
24being free to do so, the facility director shall immediately

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1furnish and disclose to the appropriate local law enforcement
2agency identifying information, as defined in this Section, and
3all further information unrelated to the diagnosis, treatment
4or evaluation of the recipient's mental or physical health that
5would aid the law enforcement agency in locating and
6apprehending the recipient and returning him to the facility.
7When a forensic recipient is on an unauthorized absence or
8otherwise has left the facility without being discharged or
9being free to do so, the facility director, or designee, of a
10mental health facility or developmental facility operated by
11the Department shall also immediately notify, in like manner,
12the Department of State Police.
13 (b) If a law enforcement agency requests information from a
14developmental disability or mental health facility, as defined
15in Section 1-107 or 1-114 of the Mental Health and
16Developmental Disabilities Code, relating to a recipient who
17has been admitted to the facility and for whom a missing person
18report has been filed with a law enforcement agency, the
19facility director shall, except in the case of a voluntary
20recipient wherein the recipient's permission in writing must
21first be obtained, furnish and disclose to the law enforcement
22agency identifying information as is necessary to confirm or
23deny whether that person is, or has been since the missing
24person report was filed, a resident of that facility. The
25facility director shall notify the law enforcement agency if
26the missing person is admitted after the request. Any person

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1participating in good faith in the disclosure of information in
2accordance with this provision shall have immunity from any
3liability, civil, criminal, or otherwise, if the information is
4disclosed relying upon the representation of an officer of a
5law enforcement agency that a missing person report has been
6filed.
7 (c) Upon the request of a law enforcement agency in
8connection with the investigation of a particular felony or sex
9offense, when the investigation case file number is furnished
10by the law enforcement agency, a facility director shall
11immediately disclose to that law enforcement agency
12identifying information on any forensic recipient who is
13admitted to a developmental disability or mental health
14facility, as defined in Section 1-107 or 1-114 of the Mental
15Health and Developmental Disabilities Code, who was or may have
16been away from the facility at or about the time of the
17commission of a particular felony or sex offense, and: (1)
18whose description, clothing, or both reasonably match the
19physical description of any person allegedly involved in that
20particular felony or sex offense; or (2) whose past modus
21operandi matches the modus operandi of that particular felony
22or sex offense.
23 (d) For the purposes of this Section and Section 12.1, "law
24enforcement agency" means an agency of the State or unit of
25local government that is vested by law or ordinance with the
26duty to maintain public order and to enforce criminal laws or

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1ordinances, the Federal Bureau of Investigation, the Central
2Intelligence Agency, and the United States Secret Service.
3 (e) For the purpose of this Section, "identifying
4information" means the name, address, age, and a physical
5description, including clothing, of the recipient of services,
6the names and addresses of the recipient's nearest known
7relatives, where the recipient was known to have been during
8any past unauthorized absences from a facility, whether the
9recipient may be suicidal, and the condition of the recipient's
10physical health as it relates to exposure to the weather.
11Except as provided in Section 11, in no case shall the facility
12director disclose to the law enforcement agency any information
13relating to the diagnosis, treatment, or evaluation of the
14recipient's mental or physical health, unless the disclosure is
15deemed necessary by the facility director to insure the safety
16of the investigating officers or general public.
17 (f) For the purpose of this Section, "forensic recipient"
18means a recipient who is placed in a developmental disability
19facility or mental health facility, as defined in Section 1-107
20or 1-114 of the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities
21Code, pursuant to Article 104 of the Code of Criminal Procedure
22of 1963 or Sections 3-8-5, 3-10-5 or 5-2-4 of the Unified Code
23of Corrections.
24(Source: P.A. 96-1191, eff. 7-22-10; revised 11-22-13.)
25 Section 745. The Illinois Parentage Act of 1984 is amended

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1by changing Section 15 as follows:
2 (750 ILCS 45/15) (from Ch. 40, par. 2515)
3 Sec. 15. Enforcement of Judgment or Order.
4 (a) If existence of the parent and child relationship is
5declared, or paternity or duty of support has been established
6under this Act or under prior law or under the law of any other
7jurisdiction, the judgment rendered thereunder may be enforced
8in the same or other proceedings by any party or any person or
9agency that has furnished or may furnish financial assistance
10or services to the child. The Income Withholding for Support
11Act and Sections 14 and 16 of this Act shall also be applicable
12with respect to entry, modification and enforcement of any
13support judgment entered under provisions of the "Paternity
14Act", approved July 5, 1957, as amended, repealed July 1, 1985.
15 (b) Failure to comply with any order of the court shall be
16punishable as contempt as in other cases of failure to comply
17under the "Illinois Marriage and Dissolution of Marriage Act",
18as now or hereafter amended. In addition to other penalties
19provided by law, the court may, after finding the party guilty
20of contempt, order that the party be:
21 (1) Placed on probation with such conditions of
22 probation as the court deems advisable;
23 (2) Sentenced to periodic imprisonment for a period not
24 to exceed 6 months. However, the court may permit the party
25 to be released for periods of time during the day or night

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1 to work or conduct business or other self-employed
2 occupation. The court may further order any part of all the
3 earnings of a party during a sentence of periodic
4 imprisonment to be paid to the Clerk of the Circuit Court
5 or to the person or parent having custody of the minor
6 child for the support of said child until further order of
7 the court.
8 (c) (2.5) The court may also pierce the ownership veil of a
9person, persons, or business entity to discover assets of a
10non-custodial parent held in the name of that person, those
11persons, or that business entity if there is a unity of
12interest and ownership sufficient to render no financial
13separation between the non-custodial parent and that person,
14those persons, or the business entity. The following
15circumstances are sufficient for a court to order discovery of
16the assets of a person, persons, or business entity and to
17compel the application of any discovered assets toward payment
18on the judgment for support:
19 (1) The (A) the non-custodial parent and the person,
20 persons, or business entity maintain records together.
21 (2) The (B) the non-custodial parent and the person,
22 persons, or business entity fail to maintain an arms length
23 relationship between themselves with regard to any assets.
24 (3) The (C) the non-custodial parent transfers assets
25 to the person, persons, or business entity with the intent
26 to perpetrate a fraud on the custodial parent.

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1 With respect to assets which are real property, no order
2entered under this subsection (c) subdivision (2.5) shall
3affect the rights of bona fide purchasers, mortgagees, judgment
4creditors, or other lien holders who acquire their interests in
5the property prior to the time a notice of lis pendens pursuant
6to the Code of Civil Procedure or a copy of the order is placed
7of record in the office of the recorder of deeds for the county
8in which the real property is located.
9 (d) (3) The court may also order that, in cases where the
10party is 90 days or more delinquent in payment of support or
11has been adjudicated in arrears in an amount equal to 90 days
12obligation or more, that the party's Illinois driving
13privileges be suspended until the court determines that the
14party is in compliance with the judgement or duty of support.
15The court may also order that the parent be issued a family
16financial responsibility driving permit that would allow
17limited driving privileges for employment and medical purposes
18in accordance with Section 7-702.1 of the Illinois Vehicle
19Code. The clerk of the circuit court shall certify the order
20suspending the driving privileges of the parent or granting the
21issuance of a family financial responsibility driving permit to
22the Secretary of State on forms prescribed by the Secretary.
23Upon receipt of the authenticated documents, the Secretary of
24State shall suspend the party's driving privileges until
25further order of the court and shall, if ordered by the court,
26subject to the provisions of Section 7-702.1 of the Illinois

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1Vehicle Code, issue a family financial responsibility driving
2permit to the parent.
3 (e) In addition to the penalties or punishment that may be
4imposed under this Section, any person whose conduct
5constitutes a violation of Section 15 of the Non-Support
6Punishment Act may be prosecuted under that Act, and a person
7convicted under that Act may be sentenced in accordance with
8that Act. The sentence may include but need not be limited to a
9requirement that the person perform community service under
10Section 50 of that Act or participate in a work alternative
11program under Section 50 of that Act. A person may not be
12required to participate in a work alternative program under
13Section 50 of that Act if the person is currently participating
14in a work program pursuant to Section 15.1 of this Act.
15 (f) (b-5) If a party who is found guilty of contempt for a
16failure to comply with an order to pay support is a person who
17conducts a business or who is self-employed, the court may in
18addition to other penalties provided by law order that the
19party do one or more of the following: (i) provide to the court
20monthly financial statements showing income and expenses from
21the business or the self-employment; (ii) seek employment and
22report periodically to the court with a diary, listing, or
23other memorandum of his or her employment search efforts; or
24(iii) report to the Department of Employment Security for job
25search services to find employment that will be subject to
26withholding of child support.

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1 (g) (c) In any post-judgment proceeding to enforce or
2modify the judgment the parties shall continue to be designated
3as in the original proceeding.
4(Source: P.A. 97-1029, eff. 1-1-13; revised 11-22-13.)
5 Section 750. The Adoption Act is amended by changing
6Section 1 as follows:
7 (750 ILCS 50/1) (from Ch. 40, par. 1501)
8 Sec. 1. Definitions. When used in this Act, unless the
9context otherwise requires:
10 A. "Child" means a person under legal age subject to
11adoption under this Act.
12 B. "Related child" means a child subject to adoption where
13either or both of the adopting parents stands in any of the
14following relationships to the child by blood or marriage:
15parent, grand-parent, brother, sister, step-parent,
16step-grandparent, step-brother, step-sister, uncle, aunt,
17great-uncle, great-aunt, or cousin of first degree. A child
18whose parent has executed a final irrevocable consent to
19adoption or a final irrevocable surrender for purposes of
20adoption, or whose parent has had his or her parental rights
21terminated, is not a related child to that person, unless the
22consent is determined to be void or is void pursuant to
23subsection O of Section 10.
24 C. "Agency" for the purpose of this Act means a public

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1child welfare agency or a licensed child welfare agency.
2 D. "Unfit person" means any person whom the court shall
3find to be unfit to have a child, without regard to the
4likelihood that the child will be placed for adoption. The
5grounds of unfitness are any one or more of the following,
6except that a person shall not be considered an unfit person
7for the sole reason that the person has relinquished a child in
8accordance with the Abandoned Newborn Infant Protection Act:
9 (a) Abandonment of the child.
10 (a-1) Abandonment of a newborn infant in a hospital.
11 (a-2) Abandonment of a newborn infant in any setting
12 where the evidence suggests that the parent intended to
13 relinquish his or her parental rights.
14 (b) Failure to maintain a reasonable degree of
15 interest, concern or responsibility as to the child's
16 welfare.
17 (c) Desertion of the child for more than 3 months next
18 preceding the commencement of the Adoption proceeding.
19 (d) Substantial neglect of the child if continuous or
20 repeated.
21 (d-1) Substantial neglect, if continuous or repeated,
22 of any child residing in the household which resulted in
23 the death of that child.
24 (e) Extreme or repeated cruelty to the child.
25 (f) There is a rebuttable presumption, which can be
26 overcome only by clear and convincing evidence, that a

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1 parent is unfit if:
2 (1) Two or more findings of physical abuse have
3 been entered regarding any children under Section 2-21
4 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, the most recent of
5 which was determined by the juvenile court hearing the
6 matter to be supported by clear and convincing
7 evidence; or
8 (2) The parent has been convicted or found not
9 guilty by reason of insanity and the conviction or
10 finding resulted from the death of any child by
11 physical abuse; or
12 (3) There is a finding of physical child abuse
13 resulting from the death of any child under Section
14 2-21 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.
15 No conviction or finding of delinquency pursuant
16 to Article V 5 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 shall
17 be considered a criminal conviction for the purpose of
18 applying any presumption under this item (f).
19 (g) Failure to protect the child from conditions within
20 his environment injurious to the child's welfare.
21 (h) Other neglect of, or misconduct toward the child;
22 provided that in making a finding of unfitness the court
23 hearing the adoption proceeding shall not be bound by any
24 previous finding, order or judgment affecting or
25 determining the rights of the parents toward the child
26 sought to be adopted in any other proceeding except such

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1 proceedings terminating parental rights as shall be had
2 under either this Act, the Juvenile Court Act or the
3 Juvenile Court Act of 1987.
4 (i) Depravity. Conviction of any one of the following
5 crimes shall create a presumption that a parent is depraved
6 which can be overcome only by clear and convincing
7 evidence: (1) first degree murder in violation of paragraph
8 1 or 2 of subsection (a) of Section 9-1 of the Criminal
9 Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 or conviction of
10 second degree murder in violation of subsection (a) of
11 Section 9-2 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal
12 Code of 2012 of a parent of the child to be adopted; (2)
13 first degree murder or second degree murder of any child in
14 violation of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code
15 of 2012; (3) attempt or conspiracy to commit first degree
16 murder or second degree murder of any child in violation of
17 the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012; (4)
18 solicitation to commit murder of any child, solicitation to
19 commit murder of any child for hire, or solicitation to
20 commit second degree murder of any child in violation of
21 the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012; (5)
22 predatory criminal sexual assault of a child in violation
23 of Section 11-1.40 or 12-14.1 of the Criminal Code of 1961
24 or the Criminal Code of 2012; (6) heinous battery of any
25 child in violation of the Criminal Code of 1961; or (7)
26 aggravated battery of any child in violation of the

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1 Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012.
2 There is a rebuttable presumption that a parent is
3 depraved if the parent has been criminally convicted of at
4 least 3 felonies under the laws of this State or any other
5 state, or under federal law, or the criminal laws of any
6 United States territory; and at least one of these
7 convictions took place within 5 years of the filing of the
8 petition or motion seeking termination of parental rights.
9 There is a rebuttable presumption that a parent is
10 depraved if that parent has been criminally convicted of
11 either first or second degree murder of any person as
12 defined in the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code
13 of 2012 within 10 years of the filing date of the petition
14 or motion to terminate parental rights.
15 No conviction or finding of delinquency pursuant to
16 Article 5 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 shall be
17 considered a criminal conviction for the purpose of
18 applying any presumption under this item (i).
19 (j) Open and notorious adultery or fornication.
20 (j-1) (Blank).
21 (k) Habitual drunkenness or addiction to drugs, other
22 than those prescribed by a physician, for at least one year
23 immediately prior to the commencement of the unfitness
24 proceeding.
25 There is a rebuttable presumption that a parent is
26 unfit under this subsection with respect to any child to

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1 which that parent gives birth where there is a confirmed
2 test result that at birth the child's blood, urine, or
3 meconium contained any amount of a controlled substance as
4 defined in subsection (f) of Section 102 of the Illinois
5 Controlled Substances Act or metabolites of such
6 substances, the presence of which in the newborn infant was
7 not the result of medical treatment administered to the
8 mother or the newborn infant; and the biological mother of
9 this child is the biological mother of at least one other
10 child who was adjudicated a neglected minor under
11 subsection (c) of Section 2-3 of the Juvenile Court Act of
12 1987.
13 (l) Failure to demonstrate a reasonable degree of
14 interest, concern or responsibility as to the welfare of a
15 new born child during the first 30 days after its birth.
16 (m) Failure by a parent (i) to make reasonable efforts
17 to correct the conditions that were the basis for the
18 removal of the child from the parent during any 9-month
19 period following the adjudication of neglected or abused
20 minor under Section 2-3 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987
21 or dependent minor under Section 2-4 of that Act, or (ii)
22 to make reasonable progress toward the return of the child
23 to the parent during any 9-month period following the
24 adjudication of neglected or abused minor under Section 2-3
25 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 or dependent minor under
26 Section 2-4 of that Act. If a service plan has been

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1 established as required under Section 8.2 of the Abused and
2 Neglected Child Reporting Act to correct the conditions
3 that were the basis for the removal of the child from the
4 parent and if those services were available, then, for
5 purposes of this Act, "failure to make reasonable progress
6 toward the return of the child to the parent" includes the
7 parent's failure to substantially fulfill his or her
8 obligations under the service plan and correct the
9 conditions that brought the child into care during any
10 9-month period following the adjudication under Section
11 2-3 or 2-4 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987.
12 Notwithstanding any other provision, when a petition or
13 motion seeks to terminate parental rights on the basis of
14 item (ii) of this subsection (m), the petitioner shall file
15 with the court and serve on the parties a pleading that
16 specifies the 9-month period or periods relied on. The
17 pleading shall be filed and served on the parties no later
18 than 3 weeks before the date set by the court for closure
19 of discovery, and the allegations in the pleading shall be
20 treated as incorporated into the petition or motion.
21 Failure of a respondent to file a written denial of the
22 allegations in the pleading shall not be treated as an
23 admission that the allegations are true.
24 (m-1) Pursuant to the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, a
25 child has been in foster care for 15 months out of any 22
26 month period which begins on or after the effective date of

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1 this amendatory Act of 1998 unless the child's parent can
2 prove by a preponderance of the evidence that it is more
3 likely than not that it will be in the best interests of
4 the child to be returned to the parent within 6 months of
5 the date on which a petition for termination of parental
6 rights is filed under the Juvenile Court Act of 1987. The
7 15 month time limit is tolled during any period for which
8 there is a court finding that the appointed custodian or
9 guardian failed to make reasonable efforts to reunify the
10 child with his or her family, provided that (i) the finding
11 of no reasonable efforts is made within 60 days of the
12 period when reasonable efforts were not made or (ii) the
13 parent filed a motion requesting a finding of no reasonable
14 efforts within 60 days of the period when reasonable
15 efforts were not made. For purposes of this subdivision
16 (m-1), the date of entering foster care is the earlier of:
17 (i) the date of a judicial finding at an adjudicatory
18 hearing that the child is an abused, neglected, or
19 dependent minor; or (ii) 60 days after the date on which
20 the child is removed from his or her parent, guardian, or
21 legal custodian.
22 (n) Evidence of intent to forgo his or her parental
23 rights, whether or not the child is a ward of the court,
24 (1) as manifested by his or her failure for a period of 12
25 months: (i) to visit the child, (ii) to communicate with
26 the child or agency, although able to do so and not

09800SB2640ham001- 1874 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 prevented from doing so by an agency or by court order, or
2 (iii) to maintain contact with or plan for the future of
3 the child, although physically able to do so, or (2) as
4 manifested by the father's failure, where he and the mother
5 of the child were unmarried to each other at the time of
6 the child's birth, (i) to commence legal proceedings to
7 establish his paternity under the Illinois Parentage Act of
8 1984 or the law of the jurisdiction of the child's birth
9 within 30 days of being informed, pursuant to Section 12a
10 of this Act, that he is the father or the likely father of
11 the child or, after being so informed where the child is
12 not yet born, within 30 days of the child's birth, or (ii)
13 to make a good faith effort to pay a reasonable amount of
14 the expenses related to the birth of the child and to
15 provide a reasonable amount for the financial support of
16 the child, the court to consider in its determination all
17 relevant circumstances, including the financial condition
18 of both parents; provided that the ground for termination
19 provided in this subparagraph (n)(2)(ii) shall only be
20 available where the petition is brought by the mother or
21 the husband of the mother.
22 Contact or communication by a parent with his or her
23 child that does not demonstrate affection and concern does
24 not constitute reasonable contact and planning under
25 subdivision (n). In the absence of evidence to the
26 contrary, the ability to visit, communicate, maintain

09800SB2640ham001- 1875 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 contact, pay expenses and plan for the future shall be
2 presumed. The subjective intent of the parent, whether
3 expressed or otherwise, unsupported by evidence of the
4 foregoing parental acts manifesting that intent, shall not
5 preclude a determination that the parent has intended to
6 forgo his or her parental rights. In making this
7 determination, the court may consider but shall not require
8 a showing of diligent efforts by an authorized agency to
9 encourage the parent to perform the acts specified in
10 subdivision (n).
11 It shall be an affirmative defense to any allegation
12 under paragraph (2) of this subsection that the father's
13 failure was due to circumstances beyond his control or to
14 impediments created by the mother or any other person
15 having legal custody. Proof of that fact need only be by a
16 preponderance of the evidence.
17 (o) Repeated or continuous failure by the parents,
18 although physically and financially able, to provide the
19 child with adequate food, clothing, or shelter.
20 (p) Inability to discharge parental responsibilities
21 supported by competent evidence from a psychiatrist,
22 licensed clinical social worker, or clinical psychologist
23 of mental impairment, mental illness or an intellectual
24 disability as defined in Section 1-116 of the Mental Health
25 and Developmental Disabilities Code, or developmental
26 disability as defined in Section 1-106 of that Code, and

09800SB2640ham001- 1876 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 there is sufficient justification to believe that the
2 inability to discharge parental responsibilities shall
3 extend beyond a reasonable time period. However, this
4 subdivision (p) shall not be construed so as to permit a
5 licensed clinical social worker to conduct any medical
6 diagnosis to determine mental illness or mental
7 impairment.
8 (q) (Blank).
9 (r) The child is in the temporary custody or
10 guardianship of the Department of Children and Family
11 Services, the parent is incarcerated as a result of
12 criminal conviction at the time the petition or motion for
13 termination of parental rights is filed, prior to
14 incarceration the parent had little or no contact with the
15 child or provided little or no support for the child, and
16 the parent's incarceration will prevent the parent from
17 discharging his or her parental responsibilities for the
18 child for a period in excess of 2 years after the filing of
19 the petition or motion for termination of parental rights.
20 (s) The child is in the temporary custody or
21 guardianship of the Department of Children and Family
22 Services, the parent is incarcerated at the time the
23 petition or motion for termination of parental rights is
24 filed, the parent has been repeatedly incarcerated as a
25 result of criminal convictions, and the parent's repeated
26 incarceration has prevented the parent from discharging

09800SB2640ham001- 1877 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 his or her parental responsibilities for the child.
2 (t) A finding that at birth the child's blood, urine,
3 or meconium contained any amount of a controlled substance
4 as defined in subsection (f) of Section 102 of the Illinois
5 Controlled Substances Act, or a metabolite of a controlled
6 substance, with the exception of controlled substances or
7 metabolites of such substances, the presence of which in
8 the newborn infant was the result of medical treatment
9 administered to the mother or the newborn infant, and that
10 the biological mother of this child is the biological
11 mother of at least one other child who was adjudicated a
12 neglected minor under subsection (c) of Section 2-3 of the
13 Juvenile Court Act of 1987, after which the biological
14 mother had the opportunity to enroll in and participate in
15 a clinically appropriate substance abuse counseling,
16 treatment, and rehabilitation program.
17 E. "Parent" means the father or mother of a lawful child of
18the parties or child born out of wedlock. For the purpose of
19this Act, a person who has executed a final and irrevocable
20consent to adoption or a final and irrevocable surrender for
21purposes of adoption, or whose parental rights have been
22terminated by a court, is not a parent of the child who was the
23subject of the consent or surrender, unless the consent is void
24pursuant to subsection O of Section 10.
25 F. A person is available for adoption when the person is:
26 (a) a child who has been surrendered for adoption to an

09800SB2640ham001- 1878 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 agency and to whose adoption the agency has thereafter
2 consented;
3 (b) a child to whose adoption a person authorized by
4 law, other than his parents, has consented, or to whose
5 adoption no consent is required pursuant to Section 8 of
6 this Act;
7 (c) a child who is in the custody of persons who intend
8 to adopt him through placement made by his parents;
9 (c-1) a child for whom a parent has signed a specific
10 consent pursuant to subsection O of Section 10;
11 (d) an adult who meets the conditions set forth in
12 Section 3 of this Act; or
13 (e) a child who has been relinquished as defined in
14 Section 10 of the Abandoned Newborn Infant Protection Act.
15 A person who would otherwise be available for adoption
16shall not be deemed unavailable for adoption solely by reason
17of his or her death.
18 G. The singular includes the plural and the plural includes
19the singular and the "male" includes the "female", as the
20context of this Act may require.
21 H. "Adoption disruption" occurs when an adoptive placement
22does not prove successful and it becomes necessary for the
23child to be removed from placement before the adoption is
24finalized.
25 I. "Habitual residence" has the meaning ascribed to it in
26the federal Intercountry Adoption Act of 2000 and regulations

09800SB2640ham001- 1879 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1promulgated thereunder.
2 J. "Immediate relatives" means the biological parents, the
3parents of the biological parents and siblings of the
4biological parents.
5 K. "Intercountry adoption" is a process by which a child
6from a country other than the United States is adopted by
7persons who are habitual residents of the United States, or the
8child is a habitual resident of the United States who is
9adopted by persons who are habitual residents of a country
10other than the United States.
11 L. "Intercountry Adoption Coordinator" means a staff
12person of the Department of Children and Family Services
13appointed by the Director to coordinate the provision of
14services related to an intercountry adoption.
15 M. "Interstate Compact on the Placement of Children" is a
16law enacted by all states and certain territories for the
17purpose of establishing uniform procedures for handling the
18interstate placement of children in foster homes, adoptive
19homes, or other child care facilities.
20 N. (Blank).
21 O. "Preadoption requirements" means any conditions or
22standards established by the laws or administrative rules of
23this State that must be met by a prospective adoptive parent
24prior to the placement of a child in an adoptive home.
25 P. "Abused child" means a child whose parent or immediate
26family member, or any person responsible for the child's

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1welfare, or any individual residing in the same home as the
2child, or a paramour of the child's parent:
3 (a) inflicts, causes to be inflicted, or allows to be
4 inflicted upon the child physical injury, by other than
5 accidental means, that causes death, disfigurement,
6 impairment of physical or emotional health, or loss or
7 impairment of any bodily function;
8 (b) creates a substantial risk of physical injury to
9 the child by other than accidental means which would be
10 likely to cause death, disfigurement, impairment of
11 physical or emotional health, or loss or impairment of any
12 bodily function;
13 (c) commits or allows to be committed any sex offense
14 against the child, as sex offenses are defined in the
15 Criminal Code of 2012 and extending those definitions of
16 sex offenses to include children under 18 years of age;
17 (d) commits or allows to be committed an act or acts of
18 torture upon the child; or
19 (e) inflicts excessive corporal punishment.
20 Q. "Neglected child" means any child whose parent or other
21person responsible for the child's welfare withholds or denies
22nourishment or medically indicated treatment including food or
23care denied solely on the basis of the present or anticipated
24mental or physical impairment as determined by a physician
25acting alone or in consultation with other physicians or
26otherwise does not provide the proper or necessary support,

09800SB2640ham001- 1881 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1education as required by law, or medical or other remedial care
2recognized under State law as necessary for a child's
3well-being, or other care necessary for his or her well-being,
4including adequate food, clothing and shelter; or who is
5abandoned by his or her parents or other person responsible for
6the child's welfare.
7 A child shall not be considered neglected or abused for the
8sole reason that the child's parent or other person responsible
9for his or her welfare depends upon spiritual means through
10prayer alone for the treatment or cure of disease or remedial
11care as provided under Section 4 of the Abused and Neglected
12Child Reporting Act. A child shall not be considered neglected
13or abused for the sole reason that the child's parent or other
14person responsible for the child's welfare failed to vaccinate,
15delayed vaccination, or refused vaccination for the child due
16to a waiver on religious or medical grounds as permitted by
17law.
18 R. "Putative father" means a man who may be a child's
19father, but who (1) is not married to the child's mother on or
20before the date that the child was or is to be born and (2) has
21not established paternity of the child in a court proceeding
22before the filing of a petition for the adoption of the child.
23The term includes a male who is less than 18 years of age.
24"Putative father" does not mean a man who is the child's father
25as a result of criminal sexual abuse or assault as defined
26under Article 11 of the Criminal Code of 2012.

09800SB2640ham001- 1882 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 S. "Standby adoption" means an adoption in which a parent
2consents to custody and termination of parental rights to
3become effective upon the occurrence of a future event, which
4is either the death of the parent or the request of the parent
5for the entry of a final judgment of adoption.
6 T. (Blank).
7 U. "Interstate adoption" means the placement of a minor
8child with a prospective adoptive parent for the purpose of
9pursuing an adoption for that child that is subject to the
10provisions of the Interstate Compact on Placement of Children.
11 V. "Endorsement letter" means the letter issued by the
12Department of Children and Family Services to document that a
13prospective adoptive parent has met preadoption requirements
14and has been deemed suitable by the Department to adopt a child
15who is the subject of an intercountry adoption.
16 W. "Denial letter" means the letter issued by the
17Department of Children and Family Services to document that a
18prospective adoptive parent has not met preadoption
19requirements and has not been deemed suitable by the Department
20to adopt a child who is the subject of an intercountry
21adoption.
22(Source: P.A. 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13;
2397-1150, eff. 1-25-13; 98-455, eff. 1-1-14; 98-532, eff.
241-1-14; revised 9-24-13.)
25 Section 755. The Illinois Religious Freedom Protection and

09800SB2640ham001- 1883 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1Civil Union Act is amended by changing Section 25 as follows:
2 (750 ILCS 75/25)
3 Sec. 25. Prohibited civil unions. The following civil
4unions are prohibited:
5 (1) a civil union entered into prior to both parties
6 attaining 18 years of age;
7 (2) a civil union entered into prior to the dissolution
8 of a marriage or civil union or substantially similar legal
9 relationship of one of the parties;
10 (3) a civil union between an ancestor and a descendant
11 descendent or between siblings whether the relationship is
12 by the half or the whole blood or by adoption;
13 (4) a civil union between an aunt or uncle and a niece
14 or nephew, whether the relationship is by the half or the
15 whole blood or by adoption; and
16 (5) a civil union between first cousins.
17(Source: P.A. 96-1513, eff. 6-1-11; revised 11-22-13.)
18 Section 760. The Probate Act of 1975 is amended by changing
19Sections 11a-10 and 11a-23 as follows:
20 (755 ILCS 5/11a-10) (from Ch. 110 1/2, par. 11a-10)
21 Sec. 11a-10. Procedures preliminary to hearing.
22 (a) Upon the filing of a petition pursuant to Section
2311a-8, the court shall set a date and place for hearing to take

09800SB2640ham001- 1884 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1place within 30 days. The court shall appoint a guardian ad
2litem to report to the court concerning the respondent's best
3interests consistent with the provisions of this Section,
4except that the appointment of a guardian ad litem shall not be
5required when the court determines that such appointment is not
6necessary for the protection of the respondent or a reasonably
7informed decision on the petition. If the guardian ad litem is
8not a licensed attorney, he or she shall be qualified, by
9training or experience, to work with or advocate for the
10developmentally disabled, mentally ill, physically disabled,
11the elderly, or persons disabled because of mental
12deterioration, depending on the type of disability that is
13alleged in the petition. The court may allow the guardian ad
14litem reasonable compensation. The guardian ad litem may
15consult with a person who by training or experience is
16qualified to work with persons with a developmental disability,
17persons with mental illness, or physically disabled persons, or
18persons disabled because of mental deterioration, depending on
19the type of disability that is alleged. The guardian ad litem
20shall personally observe the respondent prior to the hearing
21and shall inform him orally and in writing of the contents of
22the petition and of his rights under Section 11a-11. The
23guardian ad litem shall also attempt to elicit the respondent's
24position concerning the adjudication of disability, the
25proposed guardian, a proposed change in residential placement,
26changes in care that might result from the guardianship, and

09800SB2640ham001- 1885 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1other areas of inquiry deemed appropriate by the court.
2Notwithstanding any provision in the Mental Health and
3Developmental Disabilities Confidentiality Act or any other
4law, a guardian ad litem shall have the right to inspect and
5copy any medical or mental health record of the respondent
6which the guardian ad litem deems necessary, provided that the
7information so disclosed shall not be utilized for any other
8purpose nor be redisclosed except in connection with the
9proceedings. At or before the hearing, the guardian ad litem
10shall file a written report detailing his or her observations
11of the respondent, the responses of the respondent to any of
12the inquires detailed in this Section, the opinion of the
13guardian ad litem or other professionals with whom the guardian
14ad litem consulted concerning the appropriateness of
15guardianship, and any other material issue discovered by the
16guardian ad litem. The guardian ad litem shall appear at the
17hearing and testify as to any issues presented in his or her
18report.
19 (b) The court (1) may appoint counsel for the respondent,
20if the court finds that the interests of the respondent will be
21best served by the appointment, and (2) shall appoint counsel
22upon respondent's request or if the respondent takes a position
23adverse to that of the guardian ad litem. The respondent shall
24be permitted to obtain the appointment of counsel either at the
25hearing or by any written or oral request communicated to the
26court prior to the hearing. The summons shall inform the

09800SB2640ham001- 1886 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1respondent of this right to obtain appointed counsel. The court
2may allow counsel for the respondent reasonable compensation.
3 (c) If the respondent is unable to pay the fee of the
4guardian ad litem or appointed counsel, or both, the court may
5enter an order for the petitioner to pay all such fees or such
6amounts as the respondent or the respondent's estate may be
7unable to pay. However, in cases where the Office of State
8Guardian is the petitioner, consistent with Section 30 of the
9Guardianship and Advocacy Act, where the public guardian is the
10petitioner, consistent with Section 13-5 of the Probate Act of
111975, where an adult protective services agency is the
12petitioner, pursuant to Section 9 of the Adult Protective
13Services Act, or where the Department of Children and Family
14Services is the petitioner under subparagraph (d) of subsection
15(1) of Section 2-27 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987, no
16guardian ad litem or legal fees shall be assessed against the
17Office of State Guardian, the public guardian, or the adult
18protective services agency, or the Department of Children and
19Family Services.
20 (d) The hearing may be held at such convenient place as the
21court directs, including at a facility in which the respondent
22resides.
23 (e) Unless he is the petitioner, the respondent shall be
24personally served with a copy of the petition and a summons not
25less than 14 days before the hearing. The summons shall be
26printed in large, bold type and shall include the following

09800SB2640ham001- 1887 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1notice:
2
NOTICE OF RIGHTS OF RESPONDENT
3 You have been named as a respondent in a guardianship
4petition asking that you be declared a disabled person. If the
5court grants the petition, a guardian will be appointed for
6you. A copy of the guardianship petition is attached for your
7convenience.
8The date and time of the hearing are:
9The place where the hearing will occur is:
10The Judge's name and phone number is:
11 If a guardian is appointed for you, the guardian may be
12given the right to make all important personal decisions for
13you, such as where you may live, what medical treatment you may
14receive, what places you may visit, and who may visit you. A
15guardian may also be given the right to control and manage your
16money and other property, including your home, if you own one.
17You may lose the right to make these decisions for yourself.
18 You have the following legal rights:
19 (1) You have the right to be present at the court
20 hearing.
21 (2) You have the right to be represented by a lawyer,
22 either one that you retain, or one appointed by the Judge.
23 (3) You have the right to ask for a jury of six persons
24 to hear your case.
25 (4) You have the right to present evidence to the court
26 and to confront and cross-examine witnesses.

09800SB2640ham001- 1888 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 (5) You have the right to ask the Judge to appoint an
2 independent expert to examine you and give an opinion about
3 your need for a guardian.
4 (6) You have the right to ask that the court hearing be
5 closed to the public.
6 (7) You have the right to tell the court whom you
7 prefer to have for your guardian.
8 You do not have to attend the court hearing if you do not
9want to be there. If you do not attend, the Judge may appoint a
10guardian if the Judge finds that a guardian would be of benefit
11to you. The hearing will not be postponed or canceled if you do
12not attend.
13 IT IS VERY IMPORTANT THAT YOU ATTEND THE HEARING IF YOU DO
14NOT WANT A GUARDIAN OR IF YOU WANT SOMEONE OTHER THAN THE
15PERSON NAMED IN THE GUARDIANSHIP PETITION TO BE YOUR GUARDIAN.
16IF YOU DO NOT WANT A GUARDIAN OF IF YOU HAVE ANY OTHER
17PROBLEMS, YOU SHOULD CONTACT AN ATTORNEY OR COME TO COURT AND
18TELL THE JUDGE.
19 Service of summons and the petition may be made by a
20private person 18 years of age or over who is not a party to the
21action.
22 (f) Notice of the time and place of the hearing shall be
23given by the petitioner by mail or in person to those persons,
24including the proposed guardian, whose names and addresses
25appear in the petition and who do not waive notice, not less
26than 14 days before the hearing.

09800SB2640ham001- 1889 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1(Source: P.A. 97-375, eff. 8-15-11; 97-1095, eff. 8-24-12;
298-49, eff. 7-1-13; 98-89, eff. 7-15-13; revised 9-24-13.)
3 (755 ILCS 5/11a-23)
4 Sec. 11a-23. Reliance on authority of guardian, standby
5guardian, short-term guardian.
6 (a) For the purpose of this Section, "guardian", "standby
7guardian", and "short-term guardian" includes temporary,
8plenary, or limited guardians of all wards.
9 (b) Every health care provider and other person (reliant)
10has the right to rely on any decision or direction made by the
11guardian, standby guardian, or short-term guardian that is not
12clearly contrary to the law, to the same extent and with the
13same effect as though the decision or direction had been made
14or given by the ward. Any person dealing with the guardian,
15standby guardian, or short-term guardian may presume in the
16absence of actual knowledge to the contrary that the acts of
17the guardian, standby guardian, or short-term guardian conform
18to the provisions of the law. A reliant shall not be protected
19if the reliant has actual knowledge that the guardian, standby
20guardian, or short-term guardian is not entitled to act or that
21any particular action or inaction is contrary to the provisions
22of the law.
23 (c) A health care provider (provider) who relies on and
24carries out a guardian's, standby guardian's, or short-term
25guardian's directions and who acts with due care and in

09800SB2640ham001- 1890 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1accordance with the law shall not be subject to any claim based
2on lack of consent, or to criminal prosecution, or to
3discipline for unprofessional conduct. Nothing in this Section
4shall be deemed to protect a provider from liability for the
5provider's own negligence in the performance of the provider's
6duties or in carrying out any instructions of the guardian,
7standby guardian, or short-term guardian, and nothing in this
8Section shall be deemed to alter the law of negligence as it
9applies to the acts of any guardian or provider.
10 (d) A guardian, standby guardian, or short-term short term
11guardian, who acts or refrains from acting is not subject to
12criminal prosecution or any claim based upon lack of his or her
13authority or failure to act, if the act or failure to act was
14with due care and in accordance with law. The guardian, standby
15guardian, or short-term short term guardian, shall not be
16liable merely because he or she may benefit from the act, has
17individual or conflicting interests in relation to the care and
18affairs of the ward, or acts in a different manner with respect
19to the guardian's, standby guardian's, or short-term
20guardian's own care or interests.
21(Source: P.A. 89-438, eff. 12-15-95; 90-796, eff. 12-15-98;
22revised 11-22-13.)
23 Section 765. The Illinois Power of Attorney Act is amended
24by changing Sections 2-7 and 2-10 as follows:

09800SB2640ham001- 1891 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 (755 ILCS 45/2-7) (from Ch. 110 1/2, par. 802-7)
2 Sec. 2-7. Duty - standard of care - record-keeping -
3exoneration.
4 (a) The agent shall be under no duty to exercise the powers
5granted by the agency or to assume control of or responsibility
6for any of the principal's property, care or affairs,
7regardless of the principal's physical or mental condition.
8Whenever a power is exercised, the agent shall act in good
9faith for the benefit of the principal using due care,
10competence, and diligence in accordance with the terms of the
11agency and shall be liable for negligent exercise. An agent who
12acts with due care for the benefit of the principal shall not
13be liable or limited merely because the agent also benefits
14from the act, has individual or conflicting interests in
15relation to the property, care or affairs of the principal or
16acts in a different manner with respect to the agency and the
17agent's individual interests. The agent shall not be affected
18by any amendment or termination of the agency until the agent
19has actual knowledge thereof. The agent shall not be liable for
20any loss due to error of judgment nor for the act or default of
21any other person.
22 (b) An agent that has accepted appointment must act in
23accordance with the principal's expectations to the extent
24actually known to the agent and otherwise in the principal's
25best interests.
26 (c) An agent shall keep a record of all receipts,

09800SB2640ham001- 1892 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1disbursements, and significant actions taken under the
2authority of the agency and shall provide a copy of this record
3when requested to do so by:
4 (1) the principal, a guardian, another fiduciary
5 acting on behalf of the principal, and, after the death of
6 the principal, the personal representative or successors
7 in interest of the principal's estate;
8 (2) a representative of a provider agency, as defined
9 in Section 2 of the Adult Protective Services Act, acting
10 in the course of an assessment of a complaint of elder
11 abuse or neglect under that Act;
12 (3) a representative of the Office of the State Long
13 Term Care Ombudsman, acting in the course of an
14 investigation of a complaint of financial exploitation of a
15 nursing home resident under Section 4.04 of the Illinois
16 Act on the Aging;
17 (4) a representative of the Office of Inspector General
18 for the Department of Human Services, acting in the course
19 of an assessment of a complaint of financial exploitation
20 of an adult with disabilities pursuant to Section 35 of the
21 Abuse of Adults with Disabilities Intervention Act;
22 (5) a court under Section 2-10 of this Act; or
23 (6) a representative of the Office of State Guardian or
24 public guardian for the county in which the principal
25 resides acting in the course of investigating whether to
26 file a petition for guardianship of the principal under

09800SB2640ham001- 1893 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 Section 11a-4 or 11a-8 of the Probate Act of 1975.
2 (d) If the agent fails to provide his or her record of all
3receipts, disbursements, and significant actions within 21
4days after a request under subsection (c), the adult abuse
5provider agency, the State Guardian, the public guardian, or
6the State Long Term Care Ombudsman may petition the court for
7an order requiring the agent to produce his or her record of
8receipts, disbursements, and significant actions. If the court
9finds that the agent's failure to provide his or her record in
10a timely manner to the adult abuse provider agency, the State
11Guardian, the public guardian, or the State Long Term Care
12Ombudsman was without good cause, the court may assess
13reasonable costs and attorney's fees against the agent, and
14order such other relief as is appropriate.
15 (e) An agent is not required to disclose receipts,
16disbursements, or other significant actions conducted on
17behalf of the principal except as otherwise provided in the
18power of attorney or as required under subsection (c).
19 (f) An agent that violates this Act is liable to the
20principal or the principal's successors in interest for the
21amount required (i) to restore the value of the principal's
22property to what it would have been had the violation not
23occurred, and (ii) to reimburse the principal or the
24principal's successors in interest for the attorney's fees and
25costs paid on the agent's behalf. This subsection does not
26limit any other applicable legal or equitable remedies.

09800SB2640ham001- 1894 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1(Source: P.A. 98-49, eff. 7-1-13; 98-562, eff. 8-27-13; revised
29-24-13.)
3 (755 ILCS 45/2-10) (from Ch. 110 1/2, par. 802-10)
4 Sec. 2-10. Agency-court relationship.
5 (a) Upon petition by any interested person (including the
6agent), with such notice to interested persons as the court
7directs and a finding by the court that the principal lacks
8either the capacity to control or the capacity to revoke the
9agency, the court may construe a power of attorney, review the
10agent's conduct, and grant appropriate relief including
11compensatory damages.
12 (b) If the court finds that the agent is not acting for the
13benefit of the principal in accordance with the terms of the
14agency or that the agent's action or inaction has caused or
15threatens substantial harm to the principal's person or
16property in a manner not authorized or intended by the
17principal, the court may order a guardian of the principal's
18person or estate to exercise any powers of the principal under
19the agency, including the power to revoke the agency, or may
20enter such other orders without appointment of a guardian as
21the court deems necessary to provide for the best interests of
22the principal.
23 (c) If the court finds that the agency requires
24interpretation, the court may construe the agency and instruct
25the agent, but the court may not amend the agency.

09800SB2640ham001- 1895 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 (d) If the court finds that the agent has not acted for the
2benefit of the principal in accordance with the terms of the
3agency and the Illinois Power of Attorney Act, or that the
4agent's action caused or threatened substantial harm to the
5principal's person or property in a manner not authorized or
6intended by the principal, then the agent shall not be
7authorized to pay or be reimbursed from the estate of the
8principal the attorneys' fees and costs of the agent in
9defending a proceeding brought pursuant to this Section.
10 (e) Upon a finding that the agent's action has caused
11substantial harm to the principal's person or property, the
12court may assess against the agent reasonable costs and
13attorney's fees to a prevailing party who is a provider agency
14as defined in Section 2 of the Adult Protective Services Act, a
15representative of the Office of the State Long Term Care
16Ombudsman, the State Guardian, a public guardian, or a
17governmental agency having regulatory authority to protect the
18welfare of the principal.
19 (f) As used in this Section, the term "interested person"
20includes (1) the principal or the agent; (2) a guardian of the
21person, guardian of the estate, or other fiduciary charged with
22management of the principal's property; (3) the principal's
23spouse, parent, or descendant; (4) a person who would be a
24presumptive heir-at-law of the principal; (5) a person named as
25a beneficiary to receive any property, benefit, or contractual
26right upon the principal's death, or as a beneficiary of a

09800SB2640ham001- 1896 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1trust created by or for the principal; (6) a provider agency as
2defined in Section 2 of the Adult Protective Services Act, a
3representative of the Office of the State Long Term Care
4Ombudsman, the State Guardian, a public guardian, or a
5governmental agency having regulatory authority to protect the
6welfare of the principal; and (7) the principal's caregiver or
7another person who demonstrates sufficient interest in the
8principal's welfare.
9 (g) Absent court order directing a guardian to exercise
10powers of the principal under the agency, a guardian will have
11no power, duty or liability with respect to any property
12subject to the agency or any personal or health care matters
13covered by the agency.
14 (h) Proceedings under this Section shall be commenced in
15the county where the guardian was appointed or, if no Illinois
16guardian is acting, then in the county where the agent or
17principal resides or where the principal owns real property.
18 (i) This Section shall not be construed to limit any other
19remedies available.
20(Source: P.A. 98-49, eff. 7-1-13; 98-562, eff. 8-27-13; revised
219-24-13.)
22 Section 770. The Illinois Anatomical Gift Act is amended by
23changing Section 1-10 as follows:
24 (755 ILCS 50/1-10) (was 755 ILCS 50/2)

09800SB2640ham001- 1897 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 Sec. 1-10. Definitions.
2 "Close friend" means any person 18 years of age or older
3who has exhibited special care and concern for the decedent and
4who presents an affidavit to the decedent's attending
5physician, or the hospital administrator or his or her
6designated representative, stating that he or she (i) was a
7close friend of the decedent, (ii) is willing and able to
8authorize the donation, and (iii) maintained such regular
9contact with the decedent as to be familiar with the decedent's
10health and social history, and religious and moral beliefs. The
11affidavit must also state facts and circumstances that
12demonstrate that familiarity.
13 "Death" means, for the purposes of the Act, when, according
14to accepted medical standards, there is (i) an irreversible
15cessation of circulatory and respiratory functions; or (ii) an
16irreversible cessation of all functions of the entire brain,
17including the brain stem.
18 "Decedent" means a deceased individual and includes a
19stillborn infant or fetus.
20 "Disinterested witness" means a witness other than the
21spouse, child, parent, sibling, grandchild, grandparent, or
22guardian of the individual who makes, amends, revokes, or
23refuses to make an anatomical gift, or another adult who
24exhibited special care and concern for the individual. The term
25does not include a person to whom an anatomical gift could pass
26under Section 5-12.

09800SB2640ham001- 1898 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 "Document of gift" means a donor card or other record used
2to make an anatomical gift. The term includes a donor registry.
3 "Donee" means the individual designated by the donor as the
4intended recipient or an entity which receives the anatomical
5gift, including, but not limited to, a hospital; an accredited
6medical school, dental school, college, or university; an organ
7procurement organization; an eye bank; a tissue bank; for
8research or education, a non-transplant anatomic bank; or other
9appropriate person.
10 "Donor" means an individual whose body or part is the
11subject of an anatomical gift..
12 "Hospital" means a hospital licensed, accredited or
13approved under the laws of any state; and includes a hospital
14operated by the United States government, a state, or a
15subdivision thereof, although not required to be licensed under
16state laws.
17 "Non-transplant anatomic bank" means any facility or
18program operating or providing services in this State that is
19accredited by the American Association of Tissue Banks and that
20is involved in procuring, furnishing, or distributing whole
21bodies or parts for the purpose of medical education. For
22purposes of this Section, a non-transplant anatomic bank
23operating under the auspices of a hospital, accredited medical
24school, dental school, college or university, or federally
25designated organ procurement organization is not required to be
26accredited by the American Association of Tissue Banks.

09800SB2640ham001- 1899 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 "Organ" means a human kidney, liver, heart, lung, pancreas,
2small bowel, or other transplantable vascular body part as
3determined by the Organ Procurement and Transplantation
4Network, as periodically selected by the U.S. Department of
5Health and Human Services.
6 "Organ procurement organization" means the organ
7procurement organization designated by the Secretary of the
8U.S. Department of Health and Human Services for the service
9area in which a hospital is located, or the organ procurement
10organization for which the Secretary of the U.S. Department of
11Health and Human Services has granted the hospital a waiver
12pursuant to 42 U.S.C. 1320b-8(a).
13 "Part" means organs, tissues, eyes, bones, arteries,
14blood, other fluids and any other portions of a human body.
15 "Person" means an individual, corporation, government or
16governmental subdivision or agency, business trust, estate,
17trust, partnership or association or any other legal entity.
18 "Physician" or "surgeon" means a physician or surgeon
19licensed or authorized to practice medicine in all of its
20branches under the laws of any state.
21 "Procurement organization" means an organ procurement
22organization or a tissue bank.
23 "Reasonably available for the giving of consent or refusal"
24means being able to be contacted by a procurement organization
25without undue effort and being willing and able to act in a
26timely manner consistent with existing medical criteria

09800SB2640ham001- 1900 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1necessary for the making of an anatomical gift.
2 "Recipient" means an individual into whose body a donor's
3part has been or is intended to be transplanted.
4 "State" includes any state, district, commonwealth,
5territory, insular possession, and any other area subject to
6the legislative authority of the United States of America.
7 "Technician" means an individual trained and certified to
8remove tissue, by a recognized medical training institution in
9the State of Illinois.
10 "Tissue" means eyes, bones, heart valves, veins, skin, and
11any other portions of a human body excluding blood, blood
12products or organs.
13 "Tissue bank" means any facility or program operating in
14Illinois that is accredited by the American Association of
15Tissue Banks, the Eye Bank Association of America, or the
16Association of Organ Procurement Organizations and is involved
17in procuring, furnishing, donating, or distributing corneas,
18bones, or other human tissue for the purpose of injecting,
19transfusing, or transplanting any of them into the human body
20or for the purpose of research or education. "Tissue bank" does
21not include a licensed blood bank. For the purposes of this
22Act, "tissue" does not include organs or blood or blood
23products.
24(Source: P.A. 98-172, eff. 1-1-14; revised 11-22-13.)
25 Section 775. The Common Interest Community Association Act

09800SB2640ham001- 1901 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1is amended by changing Section 1-30 as follows:
2 (765 ILCS 160/1-30)
3 Sec. 1-30. Board duties and obligations; records.
4 (a) The board shall meet at least 4 times annually.
5 (b) A common interest community association may not enter
6into a contract with a current board member, or with a
7corporation or partnership in which a board member or a member
8of his or her immediate family has 25% or more interest, unless
9notice of intent to enter into the contract is given to members
10within 20 days after a decision is made to enter into the
11contract and the members are afforded an opportunity by filing
12a petition, signed by 20% of the membership, for an election to
13approve or disapprove the contract; such petition shall be
14filed within 20 days after such notice and such election shall
15be held within 30 days after filing the petition. For purposes
16of this subsection, a board member's immediate family means the
17board member's spouse, parents, siblings, and children.
18 (c) The bylaws shall provide for the maintenance, repair,
19and replacement of the common areas and payments therefor,
20including the method of approving payment vouchers.
21 (d) (Blank).
22 (e) The association may engage the services of a manager or
23management company.
24 (f) The association shall have one class of membership
25unless the declaration or bylaws provide otherwise; however,

09800SB2640ham001- 1902 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1this subsection (f) shall not be construed to limit the
2operation of subsection (c) of Section 1-20 of this Act.
3 (g) The board shall have the power, after notice and an
4opportunity to be heard, to levy and collect reasonable fines
5from members or unit owners for violations of the declaration,
6bylaws, and rules and regulations of the common interest
7community association.
8 (h) Other than attorney's fees and court or arbitration
9costs, no fees pertaining to the collection of a member's or
10unit owner's financial obligation to the association,
11including fees charged by a manager or managing agent, shall be
12added to and deemed a part of a member's or unit owner's
13respective share of the common expenses unless: (i) the
14managing agent fees relate to the costs to collect common
15expenses for the association; (ii) the fees are set forth in a
16contract between the managing agent and the association; and
17(iii) the authority to add the management fees to a member's or
18unit owner's respective share of the common expenses is
19specifically stated in the declaration or bylaws of the
20association.
21 (i) Board records.
22 (1) The board shall maintain the following records of
23 the association and make them available for examination and
24 copying at convenient hours of weekdays by any member or
25 unit owner in a common interest community subject to the
26 authority of the board, their mortgagees, and their duly

09800SB2640ham001- 1903 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 authorized agents or attorneys:
2 (i) Copies of the recorded declaration, other
3 community instruments, other duly recorded covenants
4 and bylaws and any amendments, articles of
5 incorporation, annual reports, and any rules and
6 regulations adopted by the board shall be available.
7 Prior to the organization of the board, the developer
8 shall maintain and make available the records set forth
9 in this paragraph (i) for examination and copying.
10 (ii) Detailed and accurate records in
11 chronological order of the receipts and expenditures
12 affecting the common areas, specifying and itemizing
13 the maintenance and repair expenses of the common areas
14 and any other expenses incurred, and copies of all
15 contracts, leases, or other agreements entered into by
16 the board shall be maintained.
17 (iii) The minutes of all meetings of the board
18 which shall be maintained for not less than 7 years.
19 (iv) With a written statement of a proper purpose,
20 ballots and proxies related thereto, if any, for any
21 election held for the board and for any other matters
22 voted on by the members, which shall be maintained for
23 not less than one year.
24 (v) With a written statement of a proper purpose,
25 such other records of the board as are available for
26 inspection by members of a not-for-profit corporation

09800SB2640ham001- 1904 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 pursuant to Section 107.75 of the General Not For
2 Profit Corporation Act of 1986 shall be maintained.
3 (vi) With respect to units owned by a land trust, a
4 living trust, or other legal entity, the trustee,
5 officer, or manager of the entity may designate, in
6 writing, a person to cast votes on behalf of the member
7 or unit owner and a designation shall remain in effect
8 until a subsequent document is filed with the
9 association.
10 (2) Where a request for records under this subsection
11 is made in writing to the board or its agent, failure to
12 provide the requested record or to respond within 30 days
13 shall be deemed a denial by the board.
14 (3) A reasonable fee may be charged by the board for
15 the cost of retrieving and copying records properly
16 requested.
17 (4) If the board fails to provide records properly
18 requested under paragraph (1) of this subsection (i) within
19 the time period provided in that paragraph (1), the member
20 may seek appropriate relief and shall be entitled to an
21 award of reasonable attorney's fees and costs if the member
22 prevails and the court finds that such failure is due to
23 the acts or omissions of the board of managers or the board
24 of directors.
25 (j) The board shall have standing and capacity to act in a
26representative capacity in relation to matters involving the

09800SB2640ham001- 1905 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1common areas or more than one unit, on behalf of the members or
2unit owners as their interests may appear.
3(Source: P.A. 97-605, eff. 8-26-11; 97-1090, eff. 8-24-12;
498-232, eff. 1-1-14; 98-241, eff. 8-9-13; revised 9-24-13.)
5 Section 780. The Illinois Coordinate System Act is amended
6by changing Section 3 as follows:
7 (765 ILCS 225/3) (from Ch. 133, par. 103)
8 Sec. 3. For the purpose of the use of the Illinois
9Coordinate System, the State is divided into an "East Zone" and
10a "West Zone".
11 The area now included in the following counties constitutes
12the "East Zone": Boone, Champaign, Clark, Clay, Coles, Cook,
13Crawford, Cumberland, DeKalb, DeWitt, Douglas, DuPage, Edgar,
14Edwards, Effingham, Fayette, Ford, Franklin, Gallatin, Grundy,
15Hamilton, Hardin, Iroquois, Jasper, Jefferson, Johnson, Kane,
16Kankakee, Kendall, Lake, LaSalle, Lawrence, Livingston,
17McHenry, McLean, Macon, Marion, Massac, Moultrie, Piatt, Pope,
18Richland, Saline, Shelby, Vermilion, Wabash, Wayne, White,
19Will and Williamson.
20 The area now included in the following counties constitutes
21the "West Zone": Adams, Alexander, Bond, Brown, Bureau,
22Calhoun, Carroll, Cass, Christian, Clinton, Fulton, Greene,
23Hancock, Henderson, Henry, Jackson, Jersey, Jo Daviess
24JoDaviess, Knox, Lee, Logan, McDonough, Macoupin, Madison,

09800SB2640ham001- 1906 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1Marshall, Mason, Menard, Mercer, Monroe, Montgomery, Morgan,
2Ogle, Peoria, Perry, Pike, Pulaski, Putnam, Randolph, Rock
3Island, St. Clair, Sangamon, Schuyler, Scott, Stark,
4Stephenson, Tazewell, Union, Warren, Washington, Whiteside,
5Winnebago and Woodford.
6(Source: P.A. 83-742; revised 11-22-13.)
7 Section 785. The Security Deposit Return Act is amended by
8changing Section 1.2 as follows:
9 (765 ILCS 710/1.2)
10 Sec. 1.2. Security deposit transfer. Notwithstanding
11Section 1.1, when a lessor transfers actual possession of a
12security deposit received from a lessee, including any
13statutory interest that has not been paid to a lessee, to a
14holder of the certificate of sale or deed issued pursuant to
15that certificate or, if no certificate or deed was issued, the
16purchaser of a foreclosed property under Article XV 15 of the
17Code of Civil Procedure, the holder or purchaser shall be
18liable to a lessee for the transferred security deposit,
19including any statutory interest that has not been paid to the
20lessee, as provided in this Act. Within 21 days after the
21transfer of the security deposits and receipt of the name and
22address of any lessee who paid a deposit, the holder or
23purchaser shall post a written notice on the primary entrance
24of each dwelling unit at the property with respect to which the

09800SB2640ham001- 1907 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1holder or purchaser has acquired actual possession of a
2security deposit. The written notice shall state that the
3holder or purchaser has acquired the security deposit paid by
4the lessee in connection with the lessee's rental of that
5dwelling unit.
6(Source: P.A. 97-575, eff. 8-26-11; revised 11-22-13.)
7 Section 790. The Cemetery Protection Act is amended by
8changing Sections 13 and 14 as follows:
9 (765 ILCS 835/13) (from Ch. 21, par. 21.6)
10 Sec. 13. In the event that, at any time within one year
11after adjudication of abandonment, the owner or claimant of an
12a interment right, entombment rights in a community mausoleum
13or lawn crypt section, or an inurnment right in a community
14columbarium which has been adjudged abandoned, shall contact
15the court or the cemetery authority and pay all maintenance or
16care charges that are due and unpaid, shall reimburse the
17cemetery authority for the costs of suit and necessary expenses
18incurred in the proceeding with respect to such interment
19right, entombment rights in a community mausoleum or lawn crypt
20section, or inurnment right in a community columbarium and
21shall contract for its future care and maintenance, then such
22lot, or part thereof, shall not be sold as herein provided and,
23upon petition of the owner or claimant, the order or judgment
24adjudging the same to have been abandoned shall be vacated as

09800SB2640ham001- 1908 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1to such interment right, entombment rights in a community
2mausoleum or lawn crypt section, or inurnment right in a
3community columbarium.
4(Source: P.A. 94-44, eff. 6-17-05; revised 11-22-13.)
5 (765 ILCS 835/14) (from Ch. 21, par. 21.7)
6 Sec. 14. After the expiration of one year from the date of
7entry of an order adjudging an a interment right, entombment
8rights in a community mausoleum or lawn crypt section, or
9inurnment right in a community columbarium to have been
10abandoned, a cemetery authority shall have the right to do so
11and may sell such interment right, entombment rights in a
12community mausoleum or lawn crypt section, or inurnment right
13in a community columbarium at public sale and grant an easement
14therein for burial purposes to the purchaser at such sale,
15subject to the interment of any human remains theretofore
16placed therein and the right to maintain memorials placed
17thereon. A cemetery authority may bid at and purchase such
18interment right, entombment rights in a community mausoleum or
19lawn crypt section, or inurnment right in a community
20columbarium at such sale.
21 Notice of the time and place of any sale held pursuant to
22an order adjudicating abandonment of a cemetery interment
23right, entombment rights in a community mausoleum or lawn crypt
24section, or inurnment right in a community columbarium shall be
25published once in a newspaper of general circulation in the

09800SB2640ham001- 1909 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1county in which the cemetery is located, such publication to be
2not less than 30 days prior to the date of sale.
3 The proceeds derived from any sale shall be used to
4reimburse the petitioner for the costs of suit and necessary
5expenses, including attorney's fees, incurred by petitioner in
6the proceeding, and the balance, if any, shall be deposited
7into the cemetery authority's care fund or, if there is no care
8fund, used by the cemetery authority for the care of its
9cemetery and for no other purpose.
10(Source: P.A. 94-44, eff. 6-17-05; revised 11-22-13.)
11 Section 795. The Uniform Disposition of Unclaimed Property
12Act is amended by changing Section 18 as follows:
13 (765 ILCS 1025/18) (from Ch. 141, par. 118)
14 Sec. 18. Deposit of funds received under the Act.
15 (a) The State Treasurer shall retain all funds received
16under this Act, including the proceeds from the sale of
17abandoned property under Section 17, in a trust fund. The State
18Treasurer may deposit any amount in the Trust Fund into the
19State Pensions Fund during the fiscal year at his or her
20discretion; however, he or she shall, on April 15 and October
2115 of each year, deposit any amount in the trust fund exceeding
22$2,500,000 into the State Pensions Fund. If on either April 15
23or October 15, the State Treasurer determines that a balance of
24$2,500,000 is insufficient for the prompt payment of unclaimed

09800SB2640ham001- 1910 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1property claims authorized under this Act, the Treasurer may
2retain more than $2,500,000 in the Unclaimed Property Trust
3Fund in order to ensure the prompt payment of claims. Beginning
4in State fiscal year 2015, all amounts that are deposited into
5the State Pensions Fund from the Unclaimed Property Trust Fund
6shall be apportioned to the designated retirement systems as
7provided in subsection (c-6) of Section 8.12 of the State
8Finance Act to reduce their actuarial reserve deficiencies. He
9or she shall make prompt payment of claims he or she duly
10allows as provided for in this Act for the trust fund. Before
11making the deposit the State Treasurer shall record the name
12and last known address of each person appearing from the
13holders' reports to be entitled to the abandoned property. The
14record shall be available for public inspection during
15reasonable business hours.
16 (b) Before making any deposit to the credit of the State
17Pensions Fund, the State Treasurer may deduct: (1) any costs in
18connection with sale of abandoned property, (2) any costs of
19mailing and publication in connection with any abandoned
20property, and (3) any costs in connection with the maintenance
21of records or disposition of claims made pursuant to this Act.
22The State Treasurer shall semiannually file an itemized report
23of all such expenses with the Legislative Audit Commission.
24(Source: P.A. 97-732, eff. 6-30-12; 98-19, eff. 6-10-13; 98-24,
25eff. 6-19-13; revised 9-24-13.)

09800SB2640ham001- 1911 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 Section 800. The Business Corporation Act of 1983 is
2amended by changing Section 15.75 as follows:
3 (805 ILCS 5/15.75) (from Ch. 32, par. 15.75)
4 Sec. 15.75. Rate of franchise taxes payable by foreign
5corporations.
6 (a) The annual franchise tax payable by each foreign
7corporation shall be computed at the rate of 1/12 of 1/10 of 1%
8for each calendar month or fraction thereof for the period
9commencing on the first day of July 1983 to the first day of
10the anniversary month in 1984, but in no event shall the amount
11of the annual franchise tax be less than $2.083333 per month
12based on a minimum of $25 per annum or more than $83,333.333333
13per month; commencing on January 1, 1984 to the first day of
14the anniversary month in 2004, the annual franchise tax payable
15by each foreign corporation shall be computed at the rate of
161/10 of 1% for the 12-months' period commencing on the first
17day of the anniversary month or, in the case of a corporation
18that has established an extended filing month, the extended
19filing month of the corporation, but in no event shall the
20amount of the annual franchise tax be less than $25 nor more
21than $1,000,000 per annum; commencing on January 1, 2004, the
22annual franchise tax payable by each foreign corporation shall
23be computed at the rate of 1/10 of 1% for the 12-month period
24commencing on the first day of the anniversary month or, in the
25case of a corporation that has established an extended filing

09800SB2640ham001- 1912 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1month, the extended filing month of the corporation, but in no
2event shall the amount of the annual franchise tax be less than
3$25 nor more than then $2,000,000 per annum.
4 (b) The annual franchise tax payable by each foreign
5corporation at the time of filing a statement of election and
6interim annual report in connection with an anniversary month
7prior to January, 2004 shall be computed at the rate of 1/10 of
81% for the 12 month period commencing on the first day of the
9anniversary month of the corporation next following the filing,
10but in no event shall the amount of the annual franchise tax be
11less than $25 nor more than $1,000,000 per annum; commencing
12with the first anniversary month that occurs after December,
132003, the annual franchise tax payable by each foreign
14corporation at the time of filing a statement of election and
15interim annual report shall be computed at the rate of 1/10 of
161% for the 12-month period commencing on the first day of the
17anniversary month of the corporation next following such
18filing, but in no event shall the amount of the annual
19franchise tax be less than $25 nor more than $2,000,000 per
20annum.
21 (c) The annual franchise tax payable at the time of filing
22the final transition annual report in connection with an
23anniversary month prior to January, 2004 shall be an amount
24equal to (i) 1/12 of 1/10 of 1% per month of the proportion of
25paid-in capital represented in this State as shown in the final
26transition annual report multiplied by (ii) the number of

09800SB2640ham001- 1913 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1months commencing with the anniversary month next following the
2filing of the statement of election until, but excluding, the
3second extended filing month, less the annual franchise tax
4theretofore paid at the time of filing the statement of
5election, but in no event shall the amount of the annual
6franchise tax be less than $2.083333 per month based on a
7minimum of $25 per annum or more than $83,333.333333 per month;
8commencing with the first anniversary month that occurs after
9December, 2003, the annual franchise tax payable at the time of
10filing the final transition annual report shall be an amount
11equal to (i) 1/12 of 1/10 of 1% per month of the proportion of
12paid-in capital represented in this State as shown in the final
13transition annual report multiplied by (ii) the number of
14months commencing with the anniversary month next following the
15filing of the statement of election until, but excluding, the
16second extended filing month, less the annual franchise tax
17theretofore paid at the time of filing the statement of
18election, but in no event shall the amount of the annual
19franchise tax be less than $2.083333 per month based on a
20minimum of $25 per annum or more than $166,666.666666 per
21month.
22 (d) The initial franchise tax payable after January 1,
231983, but prior to January 1, 1991, by each foreign corporation
24shall be computed at the rate of 1/10 of 1% for the 12 months'
25period commencing on the first day of the anniversary month in
26which the application for authority is filed by the corporation

09800SB2640ham001- 1914 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1under Section 13.15 of this Act, but in no event shall the
2franchise tax be less than $25 nor more than $1,000,000 per
3annum. Except in the case of a foreign corporation that has
4begun transacting business in Illinois prior to January 1,
51991, the initial franchise tax payable on or after January 1,
61991, by each foreign corporation, shall be computed at the
7rate of 15/100 of 1% for the 12-month period commencing on the
8first day of the anniversary month in which the application for
9authority is filed by the corporation under Section 13.15 of
10this Act, but in no event shall the franchise tax for a taxable
11year commencing prior to January 1, 2004 be less than $25 nor
12more than $1,000,000 per annum plus 1/20 of 1% of the basis
13therefor and in no event shall the franchise tax for a taxable
14year commencing on or after January 1, 2004 be less than $25 or
15more than $2,000,000 per annum plus 1/20 of 1% of the basis
16therefor.
17 (e) Whenever the application for authority indicates that
18the corporation commenced transacting business:
19 (1) prior to January 1, 1991, the initial franchise tax
20 shall be computed at the rate of 1/12 of 1/10 of 1% for
21 each calendar month; or
22 (2) after December 31, 1990, the initial franchise tax
23 shall be computed at the rate of 1/12 of 15/100 of 1% for
24 each calendar month.
25 (f) Each additional franchise tax payable by each foreign
26corporation for the period beginning January 1, 1983 through

09800SB2640ham001- 1915 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1December 31, 1983 shall be computed at the rate of 1/12 of 1/10
2of 1% for each calendar month or fraction thereof between the
3date of each respective increase in its paid-in capital and its
4anniversary month in 1984; thereafter until the last day of the
5month that is both after December 31, 1990 and the third month
6immediately preceding the anniversary month in 1991, each
7additional franchise tax payable by each foreign corporation
8shall be computed at the rate of 1/12 of 1/10 of 1% for each
9calendar month, or fraction thereof, between the date of each
10respective increase in its paid-in capital and its next
11anniversary month; however, if the increase occurs within the 2
12month period immediately preceding the anniversary month, the
13tax shall be computed to the anniversary month of the next
14succeeding calendar year. Commencing with increases in paid-in
15capital that occur subsequent to both December 31, 1990 and the
16last day of the third month immediately preceding the
17anniversary month in 1991, the additional franchise tax payable
18by a foreign corporation shall be computed at the rate of
1915/100 of 1%.
20(Source: P.A. 92-33, eff. 7-1-01; 93-32, eff. 12-1-03; revised
2111-14-13.)
22 Section 805. The Illinois Securities Law of 1953 is amended
23by changing Section 11.5 as follows:
24 (815 ILCS 5/11.5)

09800SB2640ham001- 1916 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 Sec. 11.5. Securities exchange registration.
2 (a) A person shall not operate a securities exchange in
3this State unless it has been registered with the Secretary of
4State.
5 (b) The Secretary of State shall adopt rules or regulations
6necessary to carry out the provisions of this Section,
7including rules or regulations prescribing:
8 (1) The fees for the registration of a securities
9 exchange; and
10 (2) The bonding and minimum capitalization
11 requirements for a securities exchange.
12 (c) The Securities Director, or his or her designee, shall
13investigate the qualifications of each person who applies to
14the Secretary of State for the registration of a securities
15exchange. The applicant shall pay the cost of the
16investigation.
17 (d) The Secretary of State may deny, suspend, or revoke the
18registration of a securities exchange if the Securities
19Director, or his or her designee, determines that such action
20is in the public interest and the provisions of subsection (a)
21of this Section are applicable to the person who applied for
22the registration of a securities exchange.
23 (e) A securities exchange located in this State shall not
24allow the trading of a security in this State unless it is
25issued by an issuer that has complied with the requirements of
26this Act and any other applicable requirements of federal or

09800SB2640ham001- 1917 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1State law.
2 (f) Any transaction, solicitation, or other activity
3directly related to the purchase, sale, or other transfer of
4securities listed on a securities exchange located in this
5State shall be deemed to be a transaction in this State.
6 (g) The Secretary of State may establish reasonable fees by
7rule or regulation.
8 (h) A registered dealer or salesperson shall not use a
9securities exchange to effect or report any transaction
10concerning a security unless the securities exchange is
11registered with the Secretary of State or is excluded from the
12provisions of Section 2.28 and this Section of the Act.
13(Source: P.A. 89-209, eff. 1-1-96; revised 11-14-13.)
14 Section 810. The Waste Oil Recovery Act is amended by
15changing Section 2 as follows:
16 (815 ILCS 440/2) (from Ch. 96 1/2, par. 7702)
17 Sec. 2. Definitions. As used in this Act, unless the
18context otherwise requires, words and phrases shall have the
19meanings ascribed to them in the Sections following this
20Section and preceding Section 3 Sections 2.1 through 2.10.
21(Source: P.A. 81-379; revised 11-14-13.)
22 Section 815. The Consumer Fraud and Deceptive Business
23Practices Act is amended by changing Section 2MM as follows:

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1 (815 ILCS 505/2MM)
2 Sec. 2MM. Verification of accuracy of consumer reporting
3information used to extend consumers credit and security freeze
4on credit reports.
5 (a) A credit card issuer who mails an offer or solicitation
6to apply for a credit card and who receives a completed
7application in response to the offer or solicitation which
8lists an address that is not substantially the same as the
9address on the offer or solicitation may not issue a credit
10card based on that application until reasonable steps have been
11taken to verify the applicant's change of address.
12 (b) Any person who uses a consumer credit report in
13connection with the approval of credit based on the application
14for an extension of credit, and who has received notification
15of a police report filed with a consumer reporting agency that
16the applicant has been a victim of financial identity theft, as
17defined in Section 16-30 or 16G-15 of the Criminal Code of 1961
18or the Criminal Code of 2012, may not lend money or extend
19credit without taking reasonable steps to verify the consumer's
20identity and confirm that the application for an extension of
21credit is not the result of financial identity theft.
22 (c) A consumer may request that a security freeze be placed
23on his or her credit report by sending a request in writing by
24certified mail to a consumer reporting agency at an address
25designated by the consumer reporting agency to receive such

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1requests.
2 The following persons may request that a security freeze be
3placed on the credit report of a disabled person:
4 (1) a guardian of the disabled person that is the
5 subject of the request, appointed under Article XIa of the
6 Probate Act of 1975; and
7 (2) an agent of the disabled person that is the subject
8 of the request, under a written durable power of attorney
9 that complies with the Illinois Power of Attorney Act.
10 The following persons may request that a security freeze
11be placed on the credit report of a minor:
12 (1) a guardian of the minor that is the subject of the
13 request, appointed under Article XI of the Probate Act of
14 1975;
15 (2) a parent of the minor that is the subject of the
16 request; and
17 (3) a guardian appointed under the Juvenile Court Act
18 of 1987 for a minor under the age of 18 who is the subject
19 of the request or, with a court order authorizing the
20 guardian consent power, for a youth who is the subject of
21 the request who has attained the age of 18, but who is
22 under the age of 21.
23 This subsection (c) does not prevent a consumer reporting
24agency from advising a third party that a security freeze is in
25effect with respect to the consumer's credit report.
26 (d) A consumer reporting agency shall place a security

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1freeze on a consumer's credit report no later than 5 business
2days after receiving a written request from the consumer:
3 (1) a written request described in subsection (c);
4 (2) proper identification; and
5 (3) payment of a fee, if applicable.
6 (e) Upon placing the security freeze on the consumer's
7credit report, the consumer reporting agency shall send to the
8consumer within 10 business days a written confirmation of the
9placement of the security freeze and a unique personal
10identification number or password or similar device, other than
11the consumer's Social Security number, to be used by the
12consumer when providing authorization for the release of his or
13her credit report for a specific party or period of time.
14 (f) If the consumer wishes to allow his or her credit
15report to be accessed for a specific party or period of time
16while a freeze is in place, he or she shall contact the
17consumer reporting agency using a point of contact designated
18by the consumer reporting agency, request that the freeze be
19temporarily lifted, and provide the following:
20 (1) Proper identification;
21 (2) The unique personal identification number or
22 password or similar device provided by the consumer
23 reporting agency;
24 (3) The proper information regarding the third party or
25 time period for which the report shall be available to
26 users of the credit report; and

09800SB2640ham001- 1921 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 (4) A fee, if applicable.
2 A security freeze for a minor may not be temporarily
3lifted. This Section does not require a consumer reporting
4agency to provide to a minor or a parent or guardian of a minor
5on behalf of the minor a unique personal identification number,
6password, or similar device provided by the consumer reporting
7agency for the minor, or parent or guardian of the minor, to
8use to authorize the consumer reporting agency to release
9information from a minor.
10 (g) A consumer reporting agency shall develop a contact
11method to receive and process a request from a consumer to
12temporarily lift a freeze on a credit report pursuant to
13subsection (f) in an expedited manner.
14 A contact method under this subsection shall include: (i) a
15postal address; and (ii) an electronic contact method chosen by
16the consumer reporting agency, which may include the use of
17telephone, fax, Internet, or other electronic means.
18 (h) A consumer reporting agency that receives a request
19from a consumer to temporarily lift a freeze on a credit report
20pursuant to subsection (f), shall comply with the request no
21later than 3 business days after receiving the request.
22 (i) A consumer reporting agency shall remove or temporarily
23lift a freeze placed on a consumer's credit report only in the
24following cases:
25 (1) upon consumer request, pursuant to subsection (f)
26 or subsection (l) of this Section; or

09800SB2640ham001- 1922 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 (2) if the consumer's credit report was frozen due to a
2 material misrepresentation of fact by the consumer.
3 If a consumer reporting agency intends to remove a freeze
4upon a consumer's credit report pursuant to this subsection,
5the consumer reporting agency shall notify the consumer in
6writing prior to removing the freeze on the consumer's credit
7report.
8 (j) If a third party requests access to a credit report on
9which a security freeze is in effect, and this request is in
10connection with an application for credit or any other use, and
11the consumer does not allow his or her credit report to be
12accessed for that specific party or period of time, the third
13party may treat the application as incomplete.
14 (k) If a consumer requests a security freeze, the credit
15reporting agency shall disclose to the consumer the process of
16placing and temporarily lifting a security freeze, and the
17process for allowing access to information from the consumer's
18credit report for a specific party or period of time while the
19freeze is in place.
20 (l) A security freeze shall remain in place until the
21consumer or person authorized under subsection (c) to act on
22behalf of the minor or disabled person that is the subject of
23the security freeze requests, using a point of contact
24designated by the consumer reporting agency, that the security
25freeze be removed. A credit reporting agency shall remove a
26security freeze within 3 business days of receiving a request

09800SB2640ham001- 1923 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1for removal from the consumer, who provides:
2 (1) Proper identification;
3 (2) The unique personal identification number or
4 password or similar device provided by the consumer
5 reporting agency; and
6 (3) A fee, if applicable.
7 (m) A consumer reporting agency shall require proper
8identification of the person making a request to place or
9remove a security freeze and may require proper identification
10and proper authority from the person making the request to
11place or remove a freeze on behalf of the disabled person or
12minor.
13 (n) The provisions of subsections (c) through (m) of this
14Section do not apply to the use of a consumer credit report by
15any of the following:
16 (1) A person or entity, or a subsidiary, affiliate, or
17 agent of that person or entity, or an assignee of a
18 financial obligation owing by the consumer to that person
19 or entity, or a prospective assignee of a financial
20 obligation owing by the consumer to that person or entity
21 in conjunction with the proposed purchase of the financial
22 obligation, with which the consumer has or had prior to
23 assignment an account or contract, including a demand
24 deposit account, or to whom the consumer issued a
25 negotiable instrument, for the purposes of reviewing the
26 account or collecting the financial obligation owing for

09800SB2640ham001- 1924 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 the account, contract, or negotiable instrument. For
2 purposes of this subsection, "reviewing the account"
3 includes activities related to account maintenance,
4 monitoring, credit line increases, and account upgrades
5 and enhancements.
6 (2) A subsidiary, affiliate, agent, assignee, or
7 prospective assignee of a person to whom access has been
8 granted under subsection (f) of this Section for purposes
9 of facilitating the extension of credit or other
10 permissible use.
11 (3) Any state or local agency, law enforcement agency,
12 trial court, or private collection agency acting pursuant
13 to a court order, warrant, or subpoena.
14 (4) A child support agency acting pursuant to Title
15 IV-D of the Social Security Act.
16 (5) The State or its agents or assigns acting to
17 investigate fraud.
18 (6) The Department of Revenue or its agents or assigns
19 acting to investigate or collect delinquent taxes or unpaid
20 court orders or to fulfill any of its other statutory
21 responsibilities.
22 (7) The use of credit information for the purposes of
23 prescreening as provided for by the federal Fair Credit
24 Reporting Act.
25 (8) Any person or entity administering a credit file
26 monitoring subscription or similar service to which the

09800SB2640ham001- 1925 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 consumer has subscribed.
2 (9) Any person or entity for the purpose of providing a
3 consumer with a copy of his or her credit report or score
4 upon the consumer's request.
5 (10) Any person using the information in connection
6 with the underwriting of insurance.
7 (n-5) This Section does not prevent a consumer reporting
8agency from charging a fee of no more than $10 to a consumer
9for each freeze, removal, or temporary lift of the freeze,
10regarding access to a consumer credit report, except that a
11consumer reporting agency may not charge a fee to (i) a
12consumer 65 years of age or over for placement and removal of a
13freeze, or (ii) a victim of identity theft who has submitted to
14the consumer reporting agency a valid copy of a police report,
15investigative report, or complaint that the consumer has filed
16with a law enforcement agency about unlawful use of his or her
17personal information by another person.
18 (o) If a security freeze is in place, a consumer reporting
19agency shall not change any of the following official
20information in a credit report without sending a written
21confirmation of the change to the consumer within 30 days of
22the change being posted to the consumer's file: (i) name, (ii)
23date of birth, (iii) Social Security number, and (iv) address.
24Written confirmation is not required for technical
25modifications of a consumer's official information, including
26name and street abbreviations, complete spellings, or

09800SB2640ham001- 1926 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1transposition of numbers or letters. In the case of an address
2change, the written confirmation shall be sent to both the new
3address and to the former address.
4 (p) The following entities are not required to place a
5security freeze in a consumer report, however, pursuant to
6paragraph (3) of this subsection, a consumer reporting agency
7acting as a reseller shall honor any security freeze placed on
8a consumer credit report by another consumer reporting agency:
9 (1) A check services or fraud prevention services
10 company, which issues reports on incidents of fraud or
11 authorizations for the purpose of approving or processing
12 negotiable instruments, electronic funds transfers, or
13 similar methods of payment.
14 (2) A deposit account information service company,
15 which issues reports regarding account closures due to
16 fraud, substantial overdrafts, ATM abuse, or similar
17 negative information regarding a consumer to inquiring
18 banks or other financial institutions for use only in
19 reviewing a consumer request for a deposit account at the
20 inquiring bank or financial institution.
21 (3) A consumer reporting agency that:
22 (A) acts only to resell credit information by
23 assembling and merging information contained in a
24 database of one or more consumer reporting agencies;
25 and
26 (B) does not maintain a permanent database of

09800SB2640ham001- 1927 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 credit information from which new credit reports are
2 produced.
3 (q) For purposes of this Section:
4 "Credit report" has the same meaning as "consumer report",
5as ascribed to it in 15 U.S.C. Sec. 1681a(d).
6 "Consumer reporting agency" has the meaning ascribed to it
7in 15 U.S.C. Sec. 1681a(f).
8 "Security freeze" means a notice placed in a consumer's
9credit report, at the request of the consumer and subject to
10certain exceptions, that prohibits the consumer reporting
11agency from releasing the consumer's credit report or score
12relating to an extension of credit, without the express
13authorization of the consumer.
14 "Extension of credit" does not include an increase in an
15existing open-end credit plan, as defined in Regulation Z of
16the Federal Reserve System (12 C.F.R. 226.2), or any change to
17or review of an existing credit account.
18 "Proper authority" means documentation that shows that a
19parent, guardian, or agent has authority to act on behalf of a
20minor or disabled person. "Proper authority" includes (1) an
21order issued by a court of law that shows that a guardian has
22authority to act on behalf of a minor or disabled person, (2) a
23written, notarized statement signed by a parent that expressly
24describes the authority of the parent to act on behalf of the
25minor, or (3) a durable power of attorney that complies with
26the Illinois Power of Attorney Act.

09800SB2640ham001- 1928 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 "Proper identification" means information generally deemed
2sufficient to identify a person. Only if the consumer is unable
3to reasonably identify himself or herself with the information
4described above, may a consumer reporting agency require
5additional information concerning the consumer's employment
6and personal or family history in order to verify his or her
7identity.
8 (r) Any person who violates this Section commits an
9unlawful practice within the meaning of this Act.
10(Source: P.A. 97-597, eff. 1-1-12; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13;
1198-486, eff. 1-1-14; revised 11-14-13.)
12 Section 820. The Dating Referral Services Act is amended by
13changing Sections 20 and 25 as follows:
14 (815 ILCS 615/20) (from Ch. 29, par. 1051-20)
15 Sec. 20. Cancellation and refund requirements.
16 (a) Every contract for dating referral services shall
17provide the following:
18 (1) That the contract may be cancelled by the customer
19 within 3 business days after the first business day after
20 the contract is signed by the customer, and that all monies
21 paid under the contract shall be refunded to the customer.
22 For the purposes of this Section, "business day" means any
23 day on which the facility is open for business. A customer
24 purchasing a plan at a facility that has not yet opened for

09800SB2640ham001- 1929 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 business at the time the contract is signed, or who does
2 not purchase a contract at an existing facility, shall have
3 7 calendar days in which to cancel the contract and receive
4 a full refund of all monies paid. The customer's rights to
5 cancel described in this Section are in addition to any
6 other contract rights or remedies provided by law.
7 (2) In the event of the relocation of a customer's
8 residence to a location that is more than 20 miles farther
9 than the original distance from the customer's residence to
10 the original enterprise, and upon the failure of the
11 original enterprise to designate an a enterprise, with
12 comparable facilities and services within 25 miles of the
13 customer's new residence that agrees to accept the original
14 enterprise's obligations under the contract, the customer
15 may cancel the contract and shall be liable for only that
16 portion of the charges allocable to the time before
17 reasonable evidence of the relocation is presented to the
18 enterprise, plus a reasonable fee if so provided in the
19 contract, but the fee shall not exceed 10% of the unused
20 balance, or $50, whichever is less.
21 (3) If the customer dies during the term of the
22 contract, the customer's estate shall be liable for only
23 that portion of the charges allocable to the time before
24 the customer's death. The enterprise shall have the right
25 to require and verify reasonable evidence of the death.
26 (b) Every contract for dating referral services shall

09800SB2640ham001- 1930 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1provide that notice of cancellation under subsection (a) of
2this Section shall be made in writing and delivered by
3certified or registered mail to the enterprise at the address
4specified in the contract. All refunds to which a customer or
5his or her estate is entitled shall be made within 30 days of
6receipt by the enterprise of the cancellation notice.
7(Source: P.A. 87-450; revised 11-14-13.)
8 (815 ILCS 615/25) (from Ch. 29, par. 1051-25)
9 Sec. 25. Contract requirements for planned enterprises.
10Every contract for dating referral services at a planned dating
11referral enterprise or an a enterprise under construction shall
12further provide that, in the event that the facilities and
13services contracted for are not available within 6 months from
14the date the contract is entered into, or within 3 months of a
15date specified in the contract, whichever is earlier, the
16contract may be cancelled at the option of the customer, and
17all payments refunded within 30 days of receipt by the
18enterprise of the cancellation notice.
19(Source: P.A. 87-450; revised 11-14-13.)
20 Section 825. The Prevailing Wage Act is amended by changing
21Sections 2 and 5 as follows:
22 (820 ILCS 130/2) (from Ch. 48, par. 39s-2)
23 Sec. 2. This Act applies to the wages of laborers,

09800SB2640ham001- 1931 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1mechanics and other workers employed in any public works, as
2hereinafter defined, by any public body and to anyone under
3contracts for public works. This includes any maintenance,
4repair, assembly, or disassembly work performed on equipment
5whether owned, leased, or rented.
6 As used in this Act, unless the context indicates
7otherwise:
8 "Public works" means all fixed works constructed or
9demolished by any public body, or paid for wholly or in part
10out of public funds. "Public works" as defined herein includes
11all projects financed in whole or in part with bonds, grants,
12loans, or other funds made available by or through the State or
13any of its political subdivisions, including but not limited
14to: bonds issued under the Industrial Project Revenue Bond Act
15(Article 11, Division 74 of the Illinois Municipal Code), the
16Industrial Building Revenue Bond Act, the Illinois Finance
17Authority Act, the Illinois Sports Facilities Authority Act, or
18the Build Illinois Bond Act; loans or other funds made
19available pursuant to the Build Illinois Act; loans or other
20funds made available pursuant to the Riverfront Development
21Fund under Section 10-15 of the River Edge Redevelopment Zone
22Act; or funds from the Fund for Illinois' Future under Section
236z-47 of the State Finance Act, funds for school construction
24under Section 5 of the General Obligation Bond Act, funds
25authorized under Section 3 of the School Construction Bond Act,
26funds for school infrastructure under Section 6z-45 of the

09800SB2640ham001- 1932 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1State Finance Act, and funds for transportation purposes under
2Section 4 of the General Obligation Bond Act. "Public works"
3also includes (i) all projects financed in whole or in part
4with funds from the Department of Commerce and Economic
5Opportunity under the Illinois Renewable Fuels Development
6Program Act for which there is no project labor agreement; (ii)
7all work performed pursuant to a public private agreement under
8the Public Private Agreements for the Illiana Expressway Act or
9the Public-Private Agreements for the South Suburban Airport
10Act; and (iii) all projects undertaken under a public-private
11agreement under the Public-Private Partnerships for
12Transportation Act. "Public works" also includes all projects
13at leased facility property used for airport purposes under
14Section 35 of the Local Government Facility Lease Act. "Public
15works" also includes the construction of a new wind power
16facility by a business designated as a High Impact Business
17under Section 5.5(a)(3)(E) of the Illinois Enterprise Zone Act.
18"Public works" does not include work done directly by any
19public utility company, whether or not done under public
20supervision or direction, or paid for wholly or in part out of
21public funds. "Public works" also includes any corrective
22action performed pursuant to Title XVI of the Environmental
23Protection Act for which payment from the Underground Storage
24Tank Fund is requested. "Public works" does not include
25projects undertaken by the owner at an owner-occupied
26single-family residence or at an owner-occupied unit of a

09800SB2640ham001- 1933 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1multi-family residence.
2 "Construction" means all work on public works involving
3laborers, workers or mechanics. This includes any maintenance,
4repair, assembly, or disassembly work performed on equipment
5whether owned, leased, or rented.
6 "Locality" means the county where the physical work upon
7public works is performed, except (1) that if there is not
8available in the county a sufficient number of competent
9skilled laborers, workers and mechanics to construct the public
10works efficiently and properly, "locality" includes any other
11county nearest the one in which the work or construction is to
12be performed and from which such persons may be obtained in
13sufficient numbers to perform the work and (2) that, with
14respect to contracts for highway work with the Department of
15Transportation of this State, "locality" may at the discretion
16of the Secretary of the Department of Transportation be
17construed to include two or more adjacent counties from which
18workers may be accessible for work on such construction.
19 "Public body" means the State or any officer, board or
20commission of the State or any political subdivision or
21department thereof, or any institution supported in whole or in
22part by public funds, and includes every county, city, town,
23village, township, school district, irrigation, utility,
24reclamation improvement or other district and every other
25political subdivision, district or municipality of the state
26whether such political subdivision, municipality or district

09800SB2640ham001- 1934 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1operates under a special charter or not.
2 The terms "general prevailing rate of hourly wages",
3"general prevailing rate of wages" or "prevailing rate of
4wages" when used in this Act mean the hourly cash wages plus
5annualized fringe benefits for training and apprenticeship
6programs approved by the U.S. Department of Labor, Bureau of
7Apprenticeship and Training, health and welfare, insurance,
8vacations and pensions paid generally, in the locality in which
9the work is being performed, to employees engaged in work of a
10similar character on public works.
11(Source: P.A. 97-502, eff. 8-23-11; 98-109, eff. 7-25-13;
1298-482, eff. 1-1-14; revised 9-24-13.)
13 (820 ILCS 130/5) (from Ch. 48, par. 39s-5)
14 Sec. 5. Certified payroll.
15 (a) Any contractor and each subcontractor who participates
16in public works shall:
17 (1) make and keep, for a period of not less than 3
18 years from the date of the last payment made before January
19 1, 2014 (the effective date of Public Act 98-328) the
20 effective date of this amendatory Act of the 98th General
21 Assembly and for a period of 5 years from the date of the
22 last payment made on or after January 1, 2014 (the
23 effective date of Public Act 98-328) the effective date of
24 this amendatory Act of the 98th General Assembly on a
25 contract or subcontract for public works, records of all

09800SB2640ham001- 1935 -LRB098 15113 AMC 59838 a
1 laborers, mechanics, and other workers employed by them on
2 the project; the records shall include (i) the worker's
3 name, (ii) the worker's address, (iii) the worker's
4 telephone number when available, (iv) the worker's social
5 security number, (v) the worker's classification or
6 classifications, (vi) the worker's gross and net wages paid
7 in each pay period, (vii) the worker's number of hours
8 worked each day, (viii) the worker's starting and ending
9 times of work each day, (ix) the worker's hourly wage rate,
10 (x) the worker's hourly overtime wage rate, (xi) the
11 worker's hourly fringe benefit rates, (xii) the name and
12 address of each fringe benefit fund, (xiii) the plan
13 sponsor of each fringe benefit, if applicable, and (xiv)
14 the plan administrator of each fringe benefit, if
15 applicable; and
16 (2) no later than the 15th day of each calendar month
17 file a certified payroll for the immediately preceding
18 month with the public body in charge of the project. A
19 certified payroll must be filed for only those calendar
20 months during which construction on a public works project
21 has occurred. The certified payroll shall consist of a
22 complete copy of the records identified in paragraph (1) of
23 this subsection (a), but may exclude the starting and
24 ending times of work each day. The certified payroll shall
25 be accompanied by a statement signed by the contractor or
26 subcontractor or an officer, employee, or agent of the

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1 contractor or subcontractor which avers that: (i) he or she
2 has examined the certified payroll records required to be
3 submitted by the Act and such records are true and
4 accurate; (ii) the hourly rate paid to each worker is not
5 less than the general prevailing rate of hourly wages
6 required by this Act; and (iii) the contractor or
7 subcontractor is aware that filing a certified payroll that
8 he or she knows to be false is a Class A misdemeanor. A
9 general contractor is not prohibited from relying on the
10 certification of a lower tier subcontractor, provided the
11 general contractor does not knowingly rely upon a
12 subcontractor's false certification. Any contractor or
13 subcontractor subject to this Act and any officer,
14 employee, or agent of such contractor or subcontractor
15 whose duty as such officer, employee, or agent it is to
16 file such certified payroll who willfully fails to file
17 such a certified payroll on or before the date such
18 certified payroll is required by this paragraph to be filed
19 and any person who willfully files a false certified
20 payroll that is false as to any material fact is in
21 violation of this Act and guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.
22 The public body in charge of the project shall keep the
23 records submitted in accordance with this paragraph (2) of
24 subsection (a) before January 1, 2014 (the effective date
25 of Public Act 98-328) the effective date of this amendatory
26 Act of the 98th General Assembly for a period of not less

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1 than 3 years, and the records submitted in accordance with
2 this paragraph (2) of subsection (a) on or after January 1,
3 2014 (the effective date of Public Act 98-328) the
4 effective date of this amendatory Act of the 98th General
5 Assembly for a period of 5 years, from the date of the last
6 payment for work on a contract or subcontract for public
7 works. The records submitted in accordance with this
8 paragraph (2) of subsection (a) shall be considered public
9 records, except an employee's address, telephone number,
10 and social security number, and made available in
11 accordance with the Freedom of Information Act. The public
12 body shall accept any reasonable submissions by the
13 contractor that meet the requirements of this Section.
14 A contractor, subcontractor, or public body may retain
15records required under this Section in paper or electronic
16format.
17 (b) Upon 7 business days' notice, the contractor and each
18subcontractor shall make available for inspection and copying
19at a location within this State during reasonable hours, the
20records identified in paragraph (1) of subsection (a) of this
21Section to the public body in charge of the project, its
22officers and agents, the Director of Labor and his deputies and
23agents, and to federal, State, or local law enforcement
24agencies and prosecutors.
25 (c) A contractor or subcontractor who remits contributions
26to fringe benefit funds that are jointly maintained and jointly

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1governed by one or more employers and one or more labor
2organizations in accordance with the federal Labor Management
3Relations Act shall make and keep certified payroll records
4that include the information required under items (i) through
5(viii) of paragraph (1) of subsection (a) only. However, the
6information required under items (ix) through (xiv) of
7paragraph (1) of subsection (a) shall be required for any
8contractor or subcontractor who remits contributions to a
9fringe benefit fund that is not jointly maintained and jointly
10governed by one or more employers and one or more labor
11organizations in accordance with the federal Labor Management
12Relations Act.
13(Source: P.A. 97-571, eff. 1-1-12; 98-328, eff. 1-1-14; 98-482,
14eff. 1-1-14; revised 9-24-13.)
15 Section 995. No acceleration or delay. Where this Act makes
16changes in a statute that is represented in this Act by text
17that is not yet or no longer in effect (for example, a Section
18represented by multiple versions), the use of that text does
19not accelerate or delay the taking effect of (i) the changes
20made by this Act or (ii) provisions derived from any other
21Public Act.
22 Section 996. No revival or extension. This Act does not
23revive or extend any Section or Act otherwise repealed.

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1 Section 999. Effective date. This Act takes effect upon
2becoming law.".