Amended in Senate May 28, 2013

Amended in Senate April 22, 2013

California Legislature—2013–14 Regular Session

Assembly BillNo. 383


Introduced by Assembly Member Wagner

February 14, 2013


An act to amend Sections 1202, 4836.1, 4999.32, 5096.10, 21609.1, 23958.4, 25502.2, and 25600.2 of the Business and Professions Code, to amend Sections 55.56, 56.16, 1195, 1950.5, 2877, 2923.55, 2924.8, 2924.19, 2950, and 3509 of the Civil Code, to amend Sections 116.940, 425.50, 684.115, and 1282.4 of the Code of Civil Procedure, to amend Section 7237 of, and to amend and renumber the heading of Chapter 5.5 (commencing with Section 15900) of Title 2 of, the Corporations Code, to amend Sections 15282, 17193.5, 17250.25, 18720, 22138.5, 33195, 35583, 38000, 41320.1, 41326, 47660, 48853, 48853.5, 48900, 48902, 48911, 49076, 49548, 52052, 60200.8, 60209, 60605.87, 60852.1, 66407, 81378.1, and 88620 of the Education Code, to amend Sections 2162, 2224, 2225, 3111, 13115, and 21000 of the Elections Code, to amend Sections 3047, 3200.5, and 4055 of the Family Code, to amend Sections 1587 and 15100 of the Fish and Game Code, to amend Sections 4101.3, 4106, 14611, 19447, 55527.6, and 64101 of the Food and Agricultural Code, to amend Sections 3513, 3527, 7522.20, 7522.56, 7522.57, 7522.72, 8164.1, 11019, 11020, 11435.15, 11552, 12460, 12838.14, 12926, 14837, 15820.922, 19815, 20391, 20410, 20516, 20677.7, 25060, 25062, 65040.7, 65302.5, and 65915 of, to amend the heading of Chapter 3.1 (commencing with Section 8240) of Division 1 of Title 2 of, to amend and renumber Sections 15606.5, 15814.25, and 15819.30 of, to repeal Section 7480 of, and to repeal the heading of Chapter 3 (commencing with Section 15570) of Part 8.5 of Division 3 of Title 2 of, the Government Code, to amend Sections 80.2 and 82 of, and to amend the heading of Chapter 3 (commencing with Section 80) of Division 1 of, the Harbors and Navigation Code, to amend Sections 1339.40, 1339.41, 1367.65, 1531.15, 11378, 11755, 25110.11, 34177, 34183.5, 39053, 39510, 39710, 39712, 39716, 39718, 106985, 114365.5, 114380, 116565, 120365, 123327, 123940, 123955, 125286.20, 128570, 129725, and 136000 of the Health and Safety Code, to amend Sections 395, 676.75, 922.41, 1063.1, 1754, 10113.71, 10124, 10271, 11665, and 12694.1 of the Insurance Code, to amend Sections 980, 4709, and 5502 of the Labor Code, to amend Sections 136.2, 166, 171c, 273.6, 289.6, 496a, 626.95, 626.10, 781, 830.41, 830.55, 1001.20, 1170, 1203.097, 1203.4a, 1230, 1370.1, 2602, 3000.08, 3060.7, 4024.2, 4115.55, 5072, 6030, 11165.7, 11166, 12022, and 12022.1 of, and to repeal the heading of Title 4.5 (commencing with Section 13600) of Part 4 of, the Penal Code, to amend Sections 10295.6 and 20651.7 of the Public Contract Code, to amend Sections 4629.5, 4629.9, 6224.5, 21080.37, 21080.5, 21084, and 72410 of the Public Resources Code, to amend Sections 2827.10, 2862, 5142, 5143, 9506, and 185035 of the Public Utilities Code, to amend Sections 2188.6, 7285.3, 17276.20, 18152.5, 18738, 23685, 24416.20 of, and to amend and renumber Section 24900 of, the Revenue and Taxation Code, to amend Sections 1755 and 14211 of the Unemployment Insurance Code, to amend Sections 11205, 12804.11, 16028, 23612, 34510.5, and 40000.20 of the Vehicle Code, to amend Section 85057.5 of the Water Code, to amend Sections 366.21, 366.22, 366.25, 4141, 4427.5, 4648, 4684.53, 5008, 5328.03, 6254, 7295, 12306, 14005.27, 14043.25, 14043.7, 14132.275, 14132.276, 14169.32, 14182, 14182.16, 15630, 15650, and 18969 of, and to repeal Section 4792.1 of, the Welfare and Institutions Code, to amend Section 1 of Chapter 357 of the Statutes of 2012, to amend Section 1 of Chapter 513 of the Statutes of 2012, to amend Section 1 of Chapter 541 of the Statutes of 2012, and to amend Section 2 of Chapter 719 of the Statutes of 2012, relating to maintenance of the codes.

LEGISLATIVE COUNSEL’S DIGEST

AB 383, as amended, Wagner. Maintenance of the codes.

Existing law directs the Legislative Counsel to advise the Legislature from time to time as to legislation necessary to maintain the codes.

This bill would make nonsubstantive changes in various provisions of law to effectuate the recommendations made by the Legislative Counsel to the Legislature.

Vote: majority. Appropriation: no. Fiscal committee: no. State-mandated local program: no.

The people of the State of California do enact as follows:

P3    1

SECTION 1.  

Section 1202 of the Business and Professions
2Code
is amended to read:

3

1202.  

As used in this chapter, “department” means the State
4Department of Public Health.

5

SEC. 2.  

Section 4836.1 of the Business and Professions Code
6 is amended to read:

7

4836.1.  

(a) Notwithstanding any other law, a registered
8veterinary technician or a veterinary assistant may administer a
9drug, including, but not limited to, a drug that is a controlled
10substance, under the direct or indirect supervision of a licensed
11veterinarian when done pursuant to the order, control, and full
12professional responsibility of a licensed veterinarian. However,
13no person, other than a licensed veterinarian, may induce anesthesia
14unless authorized by regulation of the board.

15(b) Access to controlled substances by veterinary assistants
16under this section is limited to persons who have undergone a
17background check and who, to the best of the licensee manager’s
18knowledge, do not have any drug- or alcohol-related felony
19convictions.

20(c) Notwithstanding subdivision (b), if the Veterinary Medical
21Board, in consultation with the Board of Pharmacy, identifies a
22dangerous drug, as defined in Section 4022, as a drug which has
23an established pattern of being diverted, the Veterinary Medical
24Board may restrict access to that drug by veterinary assistants.

25(d) For purposes of this section, the following definitions apply:

26(1) “Controlled substance” has the same meaning as that term
27is defined in Section 11007 of the Health and Safety Code.

28(2) “Direct supervision” has the same meaning as that term is
29defined in subdivision (e) of Section 2034 of Title 16 of the
30California Code of Regulations.

31(3) “Drug” has the same meaning as that term is defined in
32Section 11014 of the Health and Safety Code.

P4    1(4) “Indirect supervision” has the same meaning as that term is
2defined in subdivision (f) of Section 2034 of Title 16 of the
3California Code of Regulations.

4(e) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2015,
5and as of that date is repealed, unless a later enacted statute, that
6is enacted before January 1, 2015, deletes or extends that date.

7

SEC. 3.  

Section 4999.32 of the Business and Professions Code
8 is amended to read:

9

4999.32.  

(a) This section shall apply to applicants for
10examination eligibility or registration who begin graduate study
11before August 1, 2012, and complete that study on or before
12December 31, 2018. Those applicants may alternatively qualify
13under paragraph (2) of subdivision (a) of Section 4999.33.

14(b) To qualify for examination eligibility or registration,
15applicants shall possess a master’s or doctoral degree that is
16counseling or psychotherapy in content and that meets the
17requirements of this section, obtained from an accredited or
18approved institution, as defined in Section 4999.12. For purposes
19of this subdivision, a degree is “counseling or psychotherapy in
20content” if it contains the supervised practicum or field study
21experience described in paragraph (3) of subdivision (c) and, except
22as provided in subdivision (d), the coursework in the core content
23areas listed in subparagraphs (A) to (I), inclusive, of paragraph (1)
24of subdivision (c).

25(c) The degree described in subdivision (b) shall contain not
26less than 48 graduate semester or 72 graduate quarter units of
27instruction, which shall, except as provided in subdivision (d),
28include all of the following:

29(1) The equivalent of at least three semester units or four and
30one-half quarter units of graduate study in each of the following
31core content areas:

32(A) Counseling and psychotherapeutic theories and techniques,
33including the counseling process in a multicultural society, an
34orientation to wellness and prevention, counseling theories to assist
35in selection of appropriate counseling interventions, models of
36counseling consistent with current professional research and
37practice, development of a personal model of counseling, and
38multidisciplinary responses to crises, emergencies, and disasters.

39(B) Human growth and development across the lifespan,
40including normal and abnormal behavior and an understanding of
P5    1developmental crises, disability, psychopathology, and situational
2and environmental factors that affect both normal and abnormal
3behavior.

4(C) Career development theories and techniques, including
5career development decisionmaking models and interrelationships
6among and between work, family, and other life roles and factors,
7including the role of multicultural issues in career development.

8(D) Group counseling theories and techniques, including
9principles of group dynamics, group process components,
10developmental stage theories, therapeutic factors of group work,
11group leadership styles and approaches, pertinent research and
12literature, group counseling methods, and evaluation of
13effectiveness.

14(E) Assessment, appraisal, and testing of individuals, including
15basic concepts of standardized and nonstandardized testing and
16other assessment techniques, norm-referenced and
17criterion-referenced assessment, statistical concepts, social and
18cultural factors related to assessment and evaluation of individuals
19and groups, and ethical strategies for selecting, administering, and
20interpreting assessment instruments and techniques in counseling.

21(F) Multicultural counseling theories and techniques, including
22counselors’ roles in developing cultural self-awareness, identity
23development, promoting cultural social justice, individual and
24community strategies for working with and advocating for diverse
25 populations, and counselors’ roles in eliminating biases and
26prejudices, and processes of intentional and unintentional
27oppression and discrimination.

28(G) Principles of the diagnostic process, including differential
29diagnosis, and the use of current diagnostic tools, such as the
30current edition of the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual, the impact
31of co-occurring substance use disorders or medical psychological
32disorders, established diagnostic criteria for mental or emotional
33disorders, and the treatment modalities and placement criteria
34within the continuum of care.

35(H) Research and evaluation, including studies that provide an
36understanding of research methods, statistical analysis, the use of
37research to inform evidence-based practice, the importance of
38research in advancing the profession of counseling, and statistical
39methods used in conducting research, needs assessment, and
40 program evaluation.

P6    1(I) Professional orientation, ethics, and law in counseling,
2including professional ethical standards and legal considerations,
3licensing law and process, regulatory laws that delineate the
4profession’s scope of practice, counselor-client privilege,
5confidentiality, the client dangerous to self or others, treatment of
6minors with or without parental consent, relationship between
7practitioner’s sense of self and human values, functions and
8relationships with other human service providers, strategies for
9collaboration, and advocacy processes needed to address
10institutional and social barriers that impede access, equity, and
11success for clients.

12(2) In addition to the course requirements described in paragraph
13(1), a minimum of 12 semester units or 18 quarter units of advanced
14coursework to develop knowledge of specific treatment issues,
15special populations, application of counseling constructs,
16assessment and treatment planning, clinical interventions,
17therapeutic relationships, psychopathology, or other clinical topics.

18(3) Not less than six semester units or nine quarter units of
19supervised practicum or field study experience, or the equivalent,
20in a clinical setting that provides a range of professional clinical
21counseling experience, including the following:

22(A) Applied psychotherapeutic techniques.

23(B) Assessment.

24(C) Diagnosis.

25(D) Prognosis.

26(E) Treatment.

27(F) Issues of development, adjustment, and maladjustment.

28(G) Health and wellness promotion.

29(H) Other recognized counseling interventions.

30(I) A minimum of 150 hours of face-to-face supervised clinical
31experience counseling individuals, families, or groups.

32(d) (1) An applicant whose degree is deficient in no more than
33two of the required areas of study listed in subparagraphs (A) to
34(I), inclusive, of paragraph (1) of subdivision (c) may satisfy those
35deficiencies by successfully completing post-master’s or
36postdoctoral degree coursework at an accredited or approved
37institution, as defined in Section 4999.12.

38(2) Coursework taken to meet deficiencies in the required areas
39of study listed in subparagraphs (A) to (I), inclusive, of paragraph
P7    1(1) of subdivision (c) shall be the equivalent of three semester units
2or four and one-half quarter units of study.

3(3) The board shall make the final determination as to whether
4a degree meets all requirements, including, but not limited to,
5course requirements, regardless of accreditation.

6(e) In addition to the degree described in this section, or as part
7of that degree, an applicant shall complete the following
8coursework or training prior to registration as an intern:

9(1) A minimum of 15 contact hours of instruction in alcoholism
10and other chemical substance abuse dependency, as specified by
11regulation.

12(2) A minimum of 10 contact hours of training or coursework
13in human sexuality as specified in Section 25, and any regulations
14promulgated thereunder.

15(3) A two semester unit or three quarter unit survey course in
16psychopharmacology.

17(4) A minimum of 15 contact hours of instruction in spousal or
18partner abuse assessment, detection, and intervention strategies,
19including knowledge of community resources, cultural factors,
20and same gender abuse dynamics.

21(5) A minimum of seven contact hours of training or coursework
22in child abuse assessment and reporting as specified in Section 28
23and any regulations adopted thereunder.

24(6) A minimum of 18 contact hours of instruction in California
25law and professional ethics for professional clinical counselors
26that includes, but is not limited to, instruction in advertising, scope
27of practice, scope of competence, treatment of minors,
28confidentiality, dangerous clients, psychotherapist-client privilege,
29recordkeeping, client access to records, dual relationships, child
30abuse, elder and dependent adult abuse, online therapy, insurance
31reimbursement, civil liability, disciplinary actions and
32unprofessional conduct, ethics complaints and ethical standards,
33termination of therapy, standards of care, relevant family law,
34therapist disclosures to clients, and state and federal laws related
35to confidentiality of patient health information. When coursework
36in a master’s or doctoral degree program is acquired to satisfy this
37requirement, it shall be considered as part of the 48 semester unit
38or 72 quarter unit requirement in subdivision (c).

39(7) A minimum of 10 contact hours of instruction in aging and
40long-term care, which may include, but is not limited to, the
P8    1biological, social, and psychological aspects of aging. On and after
2January 1, 2012, this coursework shall include instruction on the
3assessment and reporting of, as well as treatment related to, elder
4and dependent adult abuse and neglect.

5(8) A minimum of 15 contact hours of instruction in crisis or
6trauma counseling, including multidisciplinary responses to crises,
7emergencies, or disasters, and brief, intermediate, and long-term
8approaches.

9(f) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2019,
10and as of that date is repealed, unless a later enacted statute that
11is enacted before January 1, 2019, deletes or extends that date.

12

SEC. 4.  

Section 5096.10 of the Business and Professions Code,
13as amended by Section 32 of Chapter 411 of the Statutes of 2012,
14is amended to read:

15

5096.10.  

(a) The provisions of this article shall only be
16operative if there is an appropriation from the Accountancy Fund
17in the annual Budget Act to fund the activities in the article and
18sufficient hiring authority is granted pursuant to a budget change
19proposal to the board to provide staffing to implement this article.

20(b) This section shall become inoperative on July 1, 2013, and,
21as of January 1, 2014, is repealed, unless a later enacted statute,
22that becomes operative on or before January 1, 2014, deletes or
23extends the dates on which it becomes inoperative and is repealed.

24

SEC. 5.  

Section 21609.1 of the Business and Professions Code
25 is amended to read:

26

21609.1.  

(a) No junk dealer or recycler shall possess any
27reasonably recognizable, disassembled, or inoperative fire hydrant
28or fire department connection, including, but not limited to,
29reasonably recognizable brass fittings and parts, or any manhole
30cover or lid or reasonably recognizable part of a manhole cover
31or lid, or any backflow device or connection to that device or
32reasonably recognizable part of that device, that was owned or
33previously owned by an agency, in the absence of a written
34certification on the letterhead of the agency owning or previously
35owning the material described in the certification that the agency
36has either sold the material described or is offering the material
37for sale, salvage, or recycling, and that the person possessing the
38certification and identified in the certification is authorized to
39negotiate the sale of that material.

P9    1(b) A junk dealer or recycler who unknowingly takes possession
2of one or more of the items listed in subdivision (a) as part of a
3load of otherwise nonprohibited materials without a written
4certification has a duty to notify the appropriate law enforcement
5agency by the end of the next business day upon discovery of the
6prohibited material. Written certification shall relieve the junk
7dealer or recycler from any civil or criminal penalty for possession
8of the prohibited material. The prohibited material shall be set
9aside and not sold pending a determination made by a law
10enforcement agency pursuant to Section 21609.

11(c) For purposes of this section, the following definitions apply:

12(1) “Agency” means a public agency, city, county, city and
13county, special district, or private utility regulated by the Public
14Utilities Commission.

15(2) “Appropriate law enforcement agency” means either of the
16following:

17(A) The police chief of the city, or his or her designee, if the
18item or items listed in subdivision (a) are located within the
19territorial limits of an incorporated city.

20(B) The sheriff of the county or his or her designee if the item
21or items listed are located within the county but outside the
22territorial limits of an incorporated city.

23(3) “Written certification” means a certification in written form
24by the junk dealer or recycler to a law enforcement agency,
25including electronic mail, facsimile, or a letter delivered in person
26or by certified mail.

27

SEC. 6.  

Section 23958.4 of the Business and Professions Code
28 is amended to read:

29

23958.4.  

(a) For purposes of Section 23958, “undue
30concentration” means the case in which the applicant premises for
31an original or premises-to-premises transfer of any retail license
32are located in an area where any of the following conditions exist:

33(1) The applicant premises are located in a crime reporting
34district that has a 20 percent greater number of reported crimes,
35as defined in subdivision (c), than the average number of reported
36crimes as determined from all crime reporting districts within the
37jurisdiction of the local law enforcement agency.

38(2) As to on-sale retail license applications, the ratio of on-sale
39retail licenses to population in the census tract or census division
40in which the applicant premises are located exceeds the ratio of
P10   1on-sale retail licenses to population in the county in which the
2applicant premises are located.

3(3) As to off-sale retail license applications, the ratio of off-sale
4retail licenses to population in the census tract or census division
5in which the applicant premises are located exceeds the ratio of
6off-sale retail licenses to population in the county in which the
7applicant premises are located.

8(b) Notwithstanding Section 23958, the department may issue
9a license as follows:

10(1) With respect to a nonretail license, a retail on-sale bona fide
11eating place license, a retail license issued for a hotel, motel, or
12other lodging establishment, as defined in subdivision (b) of
13Section 25503.16, a retail license issued in conjunction with a beer
14manufacturer’s license, or a winegrower’s license, if the applicant
15shows that public convenience or necessity would be served by
16the issuance.

17(2) With respect to any other license, if the local governing body
18of the area in which the applicant premises are located, or its
19designated subordinate officer or body, determines within 90 days
20of notification of a completed application that public convenience
21or necessity would be served by the issuance. The 90-day period
22shall commence upon receipt by the local governing body of (A)
23notification by the department of an application for licensure, or
24(B) a completed application according to local requirements, if
25any, whichever is later.

26If the local governing body, or its designated subordinate officer
27or body, does not make a determination within the 90-day period,
28then the department may issue a license if the applicant shows the
29department that public convenience or necessity would be served
30by the issuance. In making its determination, the department shall
31not attribute any weight to the failure of the local governing body,
32or its designated subordinate officer or body, to make a
33determination regarding public convenience or necessity within
34the 90-day period.

35(c) For purposes of this section, the following definitions shall
36apply:

37(1) “Reporting districts” means geographical areas within the
38boundaries of a single governmental entity (city or the
39unincorporated area of a county) that are identified by the local
P11   1law enforcement agency in the compilation and maintenance of
2statistical information on reported crimes and arrests.

3(2) “Reported crimes” means the most recent yearly compilation
4by the local law enforcement agency of reported offenses of
5criminal homicide, forcible rape, robbery, aggravated assault,
6burglary, larceny, theft, and motor vehicle theft, combined with
7all arrests for other crimes, both felonies and misdemeanors, except
8traffic citations.

9(3) “Population within the census tract or census division” means
10the population as determined by the most recent United States
11decennial or special census. The population determination shall
12not operate to prevent an applicant from establishing that an
13increase of resident population has occurred within the census tract
14or census division.

15(4) “Population in the county” shall be determined by the annual
16population estimate for California counties published by the
17Population Research Unit of the Department of Finance.

18(5) “Retail licenses” shall include the following:

19(A) Off-sale retail licenses: Type 20 (off-sale beer and wine)
20and Type 21 (off-sale general).

21(B) On-sale retail licenses: All retail on-sale licenses, except
22Type 43 (on-sale beer and wine for train), Type 44 (on-sale beer
23and wine for fishing party boat), Type 45 (on-sale beer and wine
24for boat), Type 46 (on-sale beer and wine for airplane), Type 53
25(on-sale general for train and sleeping car), Type 54 (on-sale
26general for boat), Type 55 (on-sale general for airplane), Type 56
27(on-sale general for vessels of more than 1,000 tons burden), and
28Type 62 (on-sale general bona fide public eating place intermittent
29dockside license for vessels of more than 15,000 tons
30displacement).

31(6) A “premises-to-premises transfer” refers to each license
32being separate and distinct, and transferable upon approval of the
33department.

34(d) For purposes of this section, the number of retail licenses
35in the county shall be established by the department on an annual
36basis.

37(e) The enactment of this section shall not affect any existing
38rights of any holder of a retail license issued before April 29, 1992,
39whose premises were destroyed or rendered unusable as a result
P12   1of the civil disturbances occurring in Los Angeles from April 29
2to May 2, 1992, to reopen and operate those licensed premises.

3(f) This section shall not apply if the premises have been
4licensed and operated with the same type license within 90 days
5of the application.

6

SEC. 7.  

Section 25502.2 of the Business and Professions Code
7 is amended to read:

8

25502.2.  

(a) A person employed or engaged by an authorized
9licensee may appear at a promotional event at the premises of an
10off-sale retail licensee for the purposes of providing autographs
11to consumers at the promotional event only under the following
12conditions:

13(1) A purchase from the off-sale retail licensee is not required.

14(2) A fee is not charged to attend the promotional event.

15(3) Autographing may only be provided on consumer advertising
16specialities given by the authorized licensee to a consumer or on
17any item provided by the consumer.

18(4) The promotional event does not exceed four hours in
19duration.

20(5) There are no more than two promotional events per calendar
21year involving the same authorized licensee at a single premises
22of an off-sale retail licensee.

23(6) The off-sale retail licensee may advertise the promotional
24event to be held at its licensed premises.

25(7) An authorized licensee may advertise in advance of the
26promotional event only in publications of the authorized licensee,
27subject to the following conditions:

28(A) The advertising only lists the name and address of the
29off-sale retail licensee, the name of the alcoholic beverage product
30being featured at the promotional event, and the time, date, and
31location of the off-sale retail licensee location where the
32promotional event is being held.

33(B) The listing of the off-sale retail licensee’s name and address
34is the only reference to the off-sale retail licensee in the
35advertisement and is relatively inconspicuous in relation to the
36advertisement as a whole, and the advertisement does not contain
37any pictures or illustrations of the off-sale retail licensee’s premises
38or laudatory references to the off-sale retail licensee.

39(8) A wholesaler does not directly or indirectly underwrite,
40share in, or contribute to any costs related to the promotional event,
P13   1except that a beer and wine wholesaler that holds at least six
2distilled spirits wholesaler licenses may directly or indirectly
3underwrite, share in, or contribute to any costs related to a
4promotional event for which the wholesaler employs or engages
5the person providing autographs to consumers at the promotional
6event.

7(9) The authorized licensee notifies the department in writing
8of the promotional event at least 30 days in advance of the
9promotional event.

10(10) The authorized licensee maintains records necessary to
11establish its compliance with this section.

12(b) For purposes of this section, “authorized licensee” means a
13manufacturer, winegrower, manufacturer’s agent, California
14winegrower’s agent, rectifier, importer, brandy manufacturer,
15brandy importer, or wholesaler.

16(c) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2016,
17and as of that date is repealed, unless a later enacted statute, that
18is enacted before January 1, 2016, deletes or extends that date.

19

SEC. 8.  

Section 25600.2 of the Business and Professions Code
20 is amended to read:

21

25600.2.  

(a) An authorized licensee may conduct or sponsor
22consumer sweepstakes, subject to the following conditions:

23(1) (A) No entry fee may be charged to participate in a
24sweepstakes authorized by this subdivision. Entry or extra chances
25in a sweepstakes shall not be made available via the purchase of
26an alcoholic beverage.

27(B) Entry into or participation in a sweepstakes shall be limited
28to persons 21 years of age or older.

29(C) No sweepstakes shall involve consumption of alcoholic
30beverages by a participant.

31(D) Subject to subparagraph (B), any sweepstakes offered in
32California shall be open to all residents of California.

33(E) A sweepstakes may not be conducted for the benefit of any
34permanent retail license.

35(2) (A) Closures, caps, cap liners, corks, labels, cartons, cases,
36packaging, or other similar material shall not be used as an entry
37to a sweepstakes or as a means of determining the amount or size
38of the prize or the winner in a sweepstakes, except as provided in
39subparagraphs (D) and (F).

P14   1(B) The authorized licensee shall provide an alternative means
2of entry that does not require a visit to a licensed premises.

3(C) Except as provided in subparagraph (D), removable entry
4forms shall not be used on alcoholic beverage labels, containers,
5packaging, cases, or cartons.

6(D) Removable entry forms that are neck hangers shall be used
7only on bottles of wine or distilled spirits, and shall not require
8purchase of the product. Removable neck hangers shall be used
9only if other entry forms are available at the point of sale or if an
10alternative means of entry is also available.

11(E) Entry forms may be provided through electronic or other
12media, including point of sale.

13(F) Codes that may be scanned or electronically entered by a
14consumer where the authorized licensee has permanently affixed
15the codes as part of the original alcoholic beverage label, container,
16packaging, case, or carton and where the codes are not removable
17and not required to be removed are permitted as a form of entry.

18(G) All permitted means of entry, including the use of electronic
19or scanner codes, shall clearly indicate that no purchase is required
20to enter.

21(H) All sweepstakes entries shall provide the entrant with an
22equal odds of winning.

23(3) A sweepstakes shall not provide for the instant or immediate
24awarding of a prize or prizes. Instant or immediate notification to
25the consumer that he or she is a winner is permissible.

26(4) Except for providing a means of entry, a sweepstakes
27authorized by this section shall not be conducted at the premises
28of a retail licensee or the premises of a winegrower or beer
29manufacturer operating under a duplicate license for a branch
30office.

31(5) Alcoholic beverages or anything redeemable for alcoholic
32beverages shall not be awarded as a sweepstakes prize. This
33 paragraph shall not prohibit a sweepstakes in which the prize is
34cash or cash equivalent or the awarding of cash or cash equivalent.

35(6) A retail licensee shall not serve as the agent of an authorized
36licensee by collecting or forwarding entries or awarding prizes to,
37or redeeming prizes for, a sweepstakes winner. The matching of
38entries with numbers or pictures on the point-of-sale materials at
39retail licensed premises is permitted only if entrants are also offered
40the opportunity to use an alternative means to determine
P15   1prize-winning status. An authorized licensee may furnish and
2maintain a deposit box on a retail licensed premises for the
3collection and forwarding of sweepstakes entry forms.

4(7) A licensee that is not an authorized licensee shall not directly
5or indirectly underwrite, share in, or contribute to, the costs of a
6sweepstakes authorized by this section or serve as the agent of an
7authorized licensee to collect or forward entries or to furnish any
8prize to a sweepstakes winner.

9(8) (A) Advertising of a sweepstakes shall comply with the
10signage and advertising restrictions contained in this chapter,
11Chapter 15 (commencing with Section 25500), and any regulations
12issued by the department.

13(B) Advertising or promotion of a sweepstakes shall not identify
14or refer to a retail licensee.

15(C) A retail licensee shall only advertise or promote a
16sweepstakes authorized by this section in the manner specified in
17subparagraph (A).

18(D) Advertising or promotion of a sweepstakes shall only be
19conducted on the premises of a retail licensee when such
20advertisement or promotion involves a minimum of three
21 unaffiliated retail licensees. For purposes of this subparagraph,
22“unaffiliated retail licensees” shall not include a retail licensee
23owned or controlled in whole or in part by an authorized licensee
24or any officer, director, or agent of that licensee.

25(E) Placement of signs or other advertising of a sweepstakes in
26a licensed retail premises shall not be conditioned upon the
27following:

28(i) The placement of a product within the licensed premises or
29the restriction, in any way, of the purchase of a product by a
30licensee, the removal of a product from the sales area of a licensed
31premises, or the resetting or repositioning of a product within the
32licensed premises.

33(ii) The purchase or sale of a product produced, imported,
34distributed, represented, or promoted by an authorized licensee or
35its agent.

36(F) An agreement, whether written or oral, entered into, by, and
37between a retail licensee and an authorized licensee that precludes
38the advertisement or promotion of a sweepstakes on the premises
39of the retail licensee by another authorized licensee or its agent is
40prohibited.

P16   1(9) Sweepstakes prizes shall not be awarded to an authorized
2licensee, retail licensee, or wholesale licensee or agent, officer,
3employee, or family member of an authorized licensee, retail
4licensee, or wholesale licensee. For the purposes of this paragraph,
5“family member” means a spouse, parent, sibling, child, son-in-law,
6daughter-in-law, and lineal descendants, including those by
7adoption. An authorized licensee shall maintain all records
8pertaining to a sweepstakes for three years following the
9completion of a sweepstakes.

10(b) For purposes of this section:

11(1) (A) “Authorized licensee” means a winegrower, beer and
12wine importer general, beer manufacturer, out-of-state beer
13manufacturer certificate holder, distilled spirits manufacturer,
14distilled spirits manufacturer’s agent, distilled spirits importer
15general, distilled spirits general rectifier, rectifier, out-of-state
16distilled spirits shipper’s certificate holder, brandy manufacturer,
17and brandy importer. An authorized licensee may conduct, sponsor,
18or participate in a sweepstakes pursuant to this section regardless
19of whether the licensee holds an additional license not included in
20this paragraph.

21(B) An “authorized licensee” shall not include a beer and wine
22wholesaler, a beer and wine importer general, or distilled spirits
23importer general that only holds a wholesaler’s or retailer’s license
24as an additional license.

25(2) “Sweepstakes” means a procedure, activity, or event for the
26distribution of anything of value by lot, chance, or random selection
27where the odds for winning a prize are equal for each entry.

28(c) Nothing in this section authorizes conducting sweepstakes
29where consumers are entitled to an allotment or accumulation of
30points based on purchases made over a period of time that can be
31redeemed for prizes, things of value, or additional sweepstakes
32entries.

33(d) A prize awarded for a sweepstakes conducted pursuant to
34this section shall not be subject to the monetary limitation imposed
35by Section 25600 or a regulation of the department.

36(e) An authorized licensee that violates this section, in addition
37to any other penalty imposed by this division, may be prohibited
38by the department from offering a sweepstakes to California
39residents for a period of 12 months.

40

SEC. 9.  

Section 55.56 of the Civil Code is amended to read:

P17   1

55.56.  

(a) Statutory damages under either subdivision (a) of
2Section 52 or subdivision (a) of Section 54.3 may be recovered in
3a construction-related accessibility claim against a place of public
4accommodation only if a violation or violations of one or more
5construction-related accessibility standards denied the plaintiff
6full and equal access to the place of public accommodation on a
7particular occasion.

8(b) A plaintiff is denied full and equal access only if the plaintiff
9personally encountered the violation on a particular occasion, or
10the plaintiff was deterred from accessing a place of public
11accommodation on a particular occasion.

12(c) A violation personally encountered by a plaintiff may be
13sufficient to cause a denial of full and equal access if the plaintiff
14experienced difficulty, discomfort, or embarrassment because of
15the violation.

16(d) A plaintiff demonstrates that he or she was deterred from
17accessing a place of public accommodation on a particular occasion
18only if both of the following apply:

19(1) The plaintiff had actual knowledge of a violation or
20violations that prevented or reasonably dissuaded the plaintiff from
21accessing a place of public accommodation that the plaintiff
22intended to use on a particular occasion.

23(2) The violation or violations would have actually denied the
24plaintiff full and equal access if the plaintiff had accessed the place
25of public accommodation on that particular occasion.

26(e) Statutory damages may be assessed pursuant to subdivision
27(a) based on each particular occasion that the plaintiff was denied
28full and equal access, and not upon the number of violations of
29construction-related accessibility standards identified at the place
30of public accommodation where the denial of full and equal access
31occurred. If the place of public accommodation consists of distinct
32facilities that offer distinct services, statutory damages may be
33assessed based on each denial of full and equal access to the distinct
34facility, and not upon the number of violations of
35construction-related accessibility standards identified at the place
36of public accommodation where the denial of full and equal access
37occurred.

38(f) (1) Notwithstanding any other law, a defendant’s liability
39for statutory damages in a construction-related accessibility claim
40against a place of public accommodation is reduced to a minimum
P18   1of one thousand dollars ($1,000) for each offense if the defendant
2demonstrates that it has corrected all construction-related violations
3that are the basis of a claim within 60 days of being served with
4the complaint, and the defendant demonstrates any of the following:

5(A) The structure or area of the alleged violation was determined
6to be “CASp-inspected” or “meets applicable standards” and, to
7the best of the defendant’s knowledge, there were no modifications
8or alterations that impacted compliance with construction-related
9accessibility standards with respect to the plaintiff’s claim that
10were completed or commenced between the date of that
11determination and the particular occasion on which the plaintiff
12was allegedly denied full and equal access.

13(B) The structure or area of the alleged violation was the subject
14of an inspection report indicating “CASp determination pending”
15or “Inspected by a CASp,” and the defendant has either
16implemented reasonable measures to correct the alleged violation
17before the particular occasion on which the plaintiff was allegedly
18denied full and equal access, or the defendant was in the process
19of correcting the alleged violation within a reasonable time and
20manner before the particular occasion on which the plaintiff was
21allegedly denied full and equal access.

22(C) For a claim alleging a construction-related accessibility
23violation filed before January 1, 2018, the structure or area of the
24alleged violation was a new construction or an improvement that
25was approved by, and passed inspection by, the local building
26department permit and inspection process on or after January 1,
272008, and before January 1, 2016, and, to the best of the
28defendant’s knowledge, there were no modifications or alterations
29that impacted compliance with respect to the plaintiff’s claim that
30were completed or commenced between the completion date of
31the new construction or improvement and the particular occasion
32on which the plaintiff was allegedly denied full and equal access.

33(D) The structure or area of the alleged violation was new
34construction or an improvement that was approved by, and passed
35inspection by, a local building department official who is a certified
36access specialist, and, to the best of the defendant’s knowledge,
37there were no modifications or alterations that affected compliance
38with respect to the plaintiff’s claim that were completed or
39commenced between the completion date of the new construction
P19   1or improvement and the particular occasion on which the plaintiff
2was allegedly denied full and equal access.

3(2) Notwithstanding any other law, a defendant’s liability for
4statutory damages in a construction-related accessibility claim
5against a place of public accommodation is reduced to a minimum
6of two thousand dollars ($2,000) for each offense if the defendant
7demonstrates both of the following:

8(A) The defendant has corrected all construction-related
9violations that are the basis of a claim within 30 days of being
10served with the complaint.

11(B) The defendant is a small business that has employed 25 or
12fewer employees on average over the past three years, or for the
13years it has been in existence if less than three years, as evidenced
14by wage report forms filed with the Economic Development
15Department, and has average annual gross receipts of less than
16three million five hundred thousand dollars ($3,500,000) over the
17previous three years, or for the years it has been in existence if
18less than three years, as evidenced by federal or state income tax
19returns. The average annual gross receipts dollar amount shall be
20adjusted biannually by the Department of General Services for
21changes in the California Consumer Price Index for All Urban
22Consumers, as compiled by the Department of Industrial Relations.
23The Department of General Services shall post that adjusted
24amount on its Internet Web site.

25(3) This subdivision shall not be applicable to intentional
26violations.

27(4) Nothing in this subdivision affects the awarding of actual
28damages, or affects the awarding of treble actual damages.

29(5) This subdivision shall apply only to claims filed on or after
30the effective date of Senate Bill 1186 of the 2011-12 Regular
31Session of the Legislature. Nothing in this subdivision is intended
32to affect a complaint filed before that date.

33(g) This section does not alter the applicable law for the
34awarding of injunctive or other equitable relief for a violation or
35violations of one or more construction-related accessibility
36standards, nor alter any legal obligation of a party to mitigate
37damages.

38(h) In assessing liability under subdivision (d), in an action
39alleging multiple claims for the same construction-related
40accessibility violation on different particular occasions, the court
P20   1shall consider the reasonableness of the plaintiff’s conduct in light
2of the plaintiff’s obligation, if any, to mitigate damages.

3

SEC. 10.  

Section 56.16 of the Civil Code is amended to read:

4

56.16.  

For disclosures not addressed by Section 56.1007, unless
5there is a specific written request by the patient to the contrary,
6nothing in this part shall be construed to prevent a general acute
7care hospital, as defined in subdivision (a) of Section 1250 of the
8Health and Safety Code, upon an inquiry concerning a specific
9patient, from releasing at its discretion any of the following
10information: the patient’s name, address, age, and sex; a general
11description of the reason for treatment (whether an injury, a burn,
12poisoning, or some unrelated condition); the general nature of the
13injury, burn, poisoning, or other condition; the general condition
14of the patient; and any information that is not medical information
15as defined in subdivision (g) of Section 56.05.

16

SEC. 11.  

Section 1195 of the Civil Code is amended to read:

17

1195.  

(a) Proof of the execution of an instrument, when not
18acknowledged, may be made by any of the following:

19(1) By the party executing it, or either of them.

20(2) By a subscribing witness.

21(3) By other witnesses, in cases mentioned in Section 1198.

22(b) (1)  Proof of the execution of a power of attorney, grant
23deed, mortgage, deed of trust, quitclaim deed, security agreement,
24or any instrument affecting real property is not permitted pursuant
25to Section 27287 of the Government Code, though proof of the
26execution of a trustee’s deed or deed of reconveyance is permitted.

27(2) Proof of the execution for any instrument requiring a notary
28public to obtain a thumbprint from the party signing the document
29in the notary public’s journal is not permitted.

30(c) Any certificate for proof of execution taken within this state
31may be in the following form, although the use of other,
32substantially similar forms is not precluded:


33

 

State of California

⎫

ss.

   

County of    

⎭

   

P20  369P20  12

 

37On ____ (date), before me, the undersigned, a notary public for the state,
38personally appeared ____ (name of subscribing witness), proved to me to be
39the person whose name is subscribed to the within instrument, as a witness
40thereto, on the oath of ____ (name of credible witness), a credible witness who
P21   1is known to me and provided a satisfactory identifying document. ____ (name
2of subscribing witness), being by me duly sworn, said that he/she was present
3and saw/heard ____ (name[s] of principal[s]), the same person(s) described in
4and whose name(s) is/are subscribed to the within or attached instrument in
5his/her/their authorized capacity(ies) as (a) party(ies) thereto, execute or
6acknowledge executing the same, and that said affiant subscribed his/her name
7to the within or attached instrument as a witness at the request of ____ (name[s]
8 of principal[s]).

 

 WITNESS my hand and official seal.

 

Signature    (Notary public seal)

 
P20  12

 

13

SEC. 12.  

Section 1950.5 of the Civil Code is amended to read:

14

1950.5.  

(a) This section applies to security for a rental
15agreement for residential property that is used as the dwelling of
16the tenant.

17(b) As used in this section, “security” means any payment, fee,
18deposit, or charge, including, but not limited to, any payment, fee,
19deposit, or charge, except as provided in Section 1950.6, that is
20imposed at the beginning of the tenancy to be used to reimburse
21the landlord for costs associated with processing a new tenant or
22that is imposed as an advance payment of rent, used or to be used
23for any purpose, including, but not limited to, any of the following:

24(1) The compensation of a landlord for a tenant’s default in the
25payment of rent.

26(2) The repair of damages to the premises, exclusive of ordinary
27wear and tear, caused by the tenant or by a guest or licensee of the
28tenant.

29(3) The cleaning of the premises upon termination of the tenancy
30necessary to return the unit to the same level of cleanliness it was
31in at the inception of the tenancy. The amendments to this
32paragraph enacted by the act adding this sentence shall apply only
33to tenancies for which the tenant’s right to occupy begins after
34January 1, 2003.

35(4) To remedy future defaults by the tenant in any obligation
36under the rental agreement to restore, replace, or return personal
37property or appurtenances, exclusive of ordinary wear and tear, if
38the security deposit is authorized to be applied thereto by the rental
39agreement.

P22   1(c) A landlord may not demand or receive security, however
2denominated, in an amount or value in excess of an amount equal
3to two months’ rent, in the case of unfurnished residential property,
4and an amount equal to three months’ rent, in the case of furnished
5residential property, in addition to any rent for the first month paid
6on or before initial occupancy.

7This subdivision does not prohibit an advance payment of not
8less than six months’ rent if the term of the lease is six months or
9longer.

10This subdivision does not preclude a landlord and a tenant from
11entering into a mutual agreement for the landlord, at the request
12of the tenant and for a specified fee or charge, to make structural,
13decorative, furnishing, or other similar alterations, if the alterations
14are other than cleaning or repairing for which the landlord may
15charge the previous tenant as provided by subdivision (e).

16(d) Any security shall be held by the landlord for the tenant who
17is party to the lease or agreement. The claim of a tenant to the
18security shall be prior to the claim of any creditor of the landlord.

19(e) The landlord may claim of the security only those amounts
20as are reasonably necessary for the purposes specified in
21subdivision (b). The landlord may not assert a claim against the
22tenant or the security for damages to the premises or any defective
23conditions that preexisted the tenancy, for ordinary wear and tear
24or the effects thereof, whether the wear and tear preexisted the
25tenancy or occurred during the tenancy, or for the cumulative
26effects of ordinary wear and tear occurring during any one or more
27tenancies.

28(f) (1) Within a reasonable time after notification of either
29party’s intention to terminate the tenancy, or before the end of the
30lease term, the landlord shall notify the tenant in writing of his or
31her option to request an initial inspection and of his or her right to
32be present at the inspection. The requirements of this subdivision
33do not apply when the tenancy is terminated pursuant to subdivision
34(2), (3), or (4) of Section 1161 of the Code of Civil Procedure. At
35a reasonable time, but no earlier than two weeks before the
36termination or the end of lease date, the landlord, or an agent of
37the landlord, shall, upon the request of the tenant, make an initial
38inspection of the premises prior to any final inspection the landlord
39makes after the tenant has vacated the premises. The purpose of
40the initial inspection shall be to allow the tenant an opportunity to
P23   1remedy identified deficiencies, in a manner consistent with the
2rights and obligations of the parties under the rental agreement, in
3order to avoid deductions from the security. If a tenant chooses
4not to request an initial inspection, the duties of the landlord under
5this subdivision are discharged. If an inspection is requested, the
6parties shall attempt to schedule the inspection at a mutually
7acceptable date and time. The landlord shall give at least 48 hours’
8prior written notice of the date and time of the inspection if either
9a mutual time is agreed upon, or if a mutually agreed time cannot
10be scheduled but the tenant still wishes an inspection. The tenant
11and landlord may agree to forgo the 48-hour prior written notice
12by both signing a written waiver. The landlord shall proceed with
13the inspection whether the tenant is present or not, unless the tenant
14previously withdrew his or her request for the inspection. Written
15notice by the landlord shall contain, in substantially the same form,
16the following:


18“State law permits former tenants to reclaim abandoned personal
19property left at the former address of the tenant, subject to certain
20 conditions. You may or may not be able to reclaim property without
21incurring additional costs, depending on the cost of storing the
22property and the length of time before it is reclaimed. In general,
23these costs will be lower the sooner you contact your former
24landlord after being notified that property belonging to you was
25left behind after you moved out.”


27(2) Based on the inspection, the landlord shall give the tenant
28an itemized statement specifying repairs or cleanings that are
29proposed to be the basis of any deductions from the security the
30landlord intends to make pursuant to paragraphs (1) to (4),
31inclusive, of subdivision (b). This statement shall also include the
32texts of paragraphs (1) to (4), inclusive, of subdivision (b). The
33statement shall be given to the tenant, if the tenant is present for
34the inspection, or shall be left inside the premises.

35(3) The tenant shall have the opportunity during the period
36following the initial inspection until termination of the tenancy to
37remedy identified deficiencies, in a manner consistent with the
38rights and obligations of the parties under the rental agreement, in
39order to avoid deductions from the security.

P24   1(4) Nothing in this subdivision shall prevent a landlord from
2using the security for deductions itemized in the statement provided
3for in paragraph (2) that were not cured by the tenant so long as
4the deductions are for damages authorized by this section.

5(5) Nothing in this subdivision shall prevent a landlord from
6using the security for any purpose specified in paragraphs (1) to
7(4), inclusive, of subdivision (b) that occurs between completion
8of the initial inspection and termination of the tenancy or was not
9 identified during the initial inspection due to the presence of a
10tenant’s possessions.

11(g) (1) No later than 21 calendar days after the tenant has
12vacated the premises, but not earlier than the time that either the
13landlord or the tenant provides a notice to terminate the tenancy
14under Section 1946 or 1946.1, Section 1161 of the Code of Civil
15Procedure, or not earlier than 60 calendar days prior to the
16expiration of a fixed-term lease, the landlord shall furnish the
17tenant, by personal delivery or by first-class mail, postage prepaid,
18a copy of an itemized statement indicating the basis for, and the
19amount of, any security received and the disposition of the security,
20and shall return any remaining portion of the security to the tenant.
21After either the landlord or the tenant provides notice to terminate
22the tenancy, the landlord and tenant may mutually agree to have
23the landlord deposit any remaining portion of the security deposit
24electronically to a bank account or other financial institution
25designated by the tenant. After either the landlord or the tenant
26provides notice to terminate the tenancy, the landlord and the tenant
27may also agree to have the landlord provide a copy of the itemized
28statement along with the copies required by paragraph (2) to an
29email account provided by the tenant.

30(2) Along with the itemized statement, the landlord shall also
31include copies of documents showing charges incurred and
32deducted by the landlord to repair or clean the premises, as follows:

33(A) If the landlord or landlord’s employee did the work, the
34itemized statement shall reasonably describe the work performed.
35The itemized statement shall include the time spent and the
36reasonable hourly rate charged.

37(B) If the landlord or landlord’s employee did not do the work,
38the landlord shall provide the tenant a copy of the bill, invoice, or
39receipt supplied by the person or entity performing the work. The
40itemized statement shall provide the tenant with the name, address,
P25   1and telephone number of the person or entity, if the bill, invoice,
2or receipt does not include that information.

3(C) If a deduction is made for materials or supplies, the landlord
4shall provide a copy of the bill, invoice, or receipt. If a particular
5material or supply item is purchased by the landlord on an ongoing
6basis, the landlord may document the cost of the item by providing
7a copy of a bill, invoice, receipt, vendor price list, or other vendor
8document that reasonably documents the cost of the item used in
9the repair or cleaning of the unit.

10(3) If a repair to be done by the landlord or the landlord’s
11employee cannot reasonably be completed within 21 calendar days
12after the tenant has vacated the premises, or if the documents from
13a person or entity providing services, materials, or supplies are not
14in the landlord’s possession within 21 calendar days after the tenant
15has vacated the premises, the landlord may deduct the amount of
16a good faith estimate of the charges that will be incurred and
17provide that estimate with the itemized statement. If the reason for
18the estimate is because the documents from a person or entity
19providing services, materials, or supplies are not in the landlord’s
20possession, the itemized statement shall include the name, address,
21and telephone number of the person or entity. Within 14 calendar
22days of completing the repair or receiving the documentation, the
23landlord shall complete the requirements in paragraphs (1) and (2)
24in the manner specified.

25(4) The landlord need not comply with paragraph (2) or (3) if
26either of the following applies:

27(A) The deductions for repairs and cleaning together do not
28exceed one hundred twenty-five dollars ($125).

29(B) The tenant waived the rights specified in paragraphs (2) and
30(3). The waiver shall only be effective if it is signed by the tenant
31at the same time or after a notice to terminate a tenancy under
32Section 1946 or 1946.1 has been given, a notice under Section
331161 of the Code of Civil Procedure has been given, or no earlier
34than 60 calendar days prior to the expiration of a fixed-term lease.
35The waiver shall substantially include the text of paragraph (2).

36(5) Notwithstanding paragraph (4), the landlord shall comply
37with paragraphs (2) and (3) when a tenant makes a request for
38documentation within 14 calendar days after receiving the itemized
39statement specified in paragraph (1). The landlord shall comply
40within 14 calendar days after receiving the request from the tenant.

P26   1(6) Any mailings to the tenant pursuant to this subdivision shall
2be sent to the address provided by the tenant. If the tenant does
3not provide an address, mailings pursuant to this subdivision shall
4be sent to the unit that has been vacated.

5(h) Upon termination of the landlord’s interest in the premises,
6whether by sale, assignment, death, appointment of receiver, or
7otherwise, the landlord or the landlord’s agent shall, within a
8reasonable time, do one of the following acts, either of which shall
9relieve the landlord of further liability with respect to the security
10held:

11(1) Transfer the portion of the security remaining after any
12lawful deductions made under subdivision (e) to the landlord’s
13successor in interest. The landlord shall thereafter notify the tenant
14by personal delivery or by first-class mail, postage prepaid, of the
15transfer, of any claims made against the security, of the amount
16of the security deposited, and of the names of the successors in
17interest, their addresses, and their telephone numbers. If the notice
18to the tenant is made by personal delivery, the tenant shall
19acknowledge receipt of the notice and sign his or her name on the
20landlord’s copy of the notice.

21(2) Return the portion of the security remaining after any lawful
22deductions made under subdivision (e) to the tenant, together with
23an accounting as provided in subdivision (g).

24(i) Prior to the voluntary transfer of a landlord’s interest in the
25premises, the landlord shall deliver to the landlord’s successor in
26interest a written statement indicating the following:

27(1) The security remaining after any lawful deductions are made.

28(2) An itemization of any lawful deductions from any security
29received.

30(3) His or her election under paragraph (1) or (2) of subdivision
31(h).

32This subdivision does not affect the validity of title to the real
33property transferred in violation of this subdivision.

34(j) (1) In the event of noncompliance with subdivision (h), the
35landlord’s successors in interest shall be jointly and severally liable
36with the landlord for repayment of the security, or that portion
37thereof to which the tenant is entitled, when and as provided in
38subdivisions (e) and (g). A successor in interest of a landlord may
39not require the tenant to post any security to replace that amount
40not transferred to the tenant or successors in interest as provided
P27   1in subdivision (h), unless and until the successor in interest first
2makes restitution of the initial security as provided in paragraph
3(2) of subdivision (h) or provides the tenant with an accounting as
4provided in subdivision (g).

5(2) This subdivision does not preclude a successor in interest
6from recovering from the tenant compensatory damages that are
7in excess of the security received from the landlord previously
8paid by the tenant to the landlord.

9(3) Notwithstanding this subdivision, if, upon inquiry and
10reasonable investigation, a landlord’s successor in interest has a
11good faith belief that the lawfully remaining security deposit is
12transferred to him or her or returned to the tenant pursuant to
13subdivision (h), he or she is not liable for damages as provided in
14subdivision (l), or any security not transferred pursuant to
15subdivision (h).

16(k) Upon receipt of any portion of the security under paragraph
17(1) of subdivision (h), the landlord’s successors in interest shall
18have all of the rights and obligations of a landlord holding the
19security with respect to the security.

20(l) The bad faith claim or retention by a landlord or the
21landlord’s successors in interest of the security or any portion
22thereof in violation of this section, or the bad faith demand of
23replacement security in violation of subdivision (j), may subject
24the landlord or the landlord’s successors in interest to statutory
25damages of up to twice the amount of the security, in addition to
26actual damages. The court may award damages for bad faith
27whenever the facts warrant that award, regardless of whether the
28injured party has specifically requested relief. In an action under
29this section, the landlord or the landlord’s successors in interest
30shall have the burden of proof as to the reasonableness of the
31amounts claimed or the authority pursuant to this section to demand
32additional security deposits.

33(m) No lease or rental agreement may contain a provision
34characterizing any security as “nonrefundable.”

35(n) An action under this section may be maintained in small
36claims court if the damages claimed, whether actual, statutory, or
37both, are within the jurisdictional amount allowed by Section
38116.220 or 116.221 of the Code of Civil Procedure.

39(o) Proof of the existence of and the amount of a security deposit
40may be established by any credible evidence, including, but not
P28   1limited to, a canceled check, a receipt, a lease indicating the
2requirement of a deposit as well as the amount, prior consistent
3statements or actions of the landlord or tenant, or a statement under
4penalty of perjury that satisfies the credibility requirements set
5forth in Section 780 of the Evidence Code.

6(p) The amendments to this section made during the 1985
7portion of the 1985-86 Regular Session of the Legislature that are
8set forth in subdivision (e) are declaratory of existing law.

9(q) The amendments to this section made during the 2003
10portion of the 2003-04 Regular Session of the Legislature that are
11set forth in paragraph (1) of subdivision (f) are declaratory of
12existing law.

13

SEC. 13.  

Section 2877 of the Civil Code is amended to read:

14

2877.  

Contracts of mortgage, pledge, bottomry, or respondentia
15are subject to all of the provisions of this chapter.

16

SEC. 14.  

Section 2923.55 of the Civil Code, as added by
17Section 6 of Chapter 86 of the Statutes of 2012, is amended to
18 read:

19

2923.55.  

(a) A mortgage servicer, mortgagee, trustee,
20beneficiary, or authorized agent may not record a notice of default
21pursuant to Section 2924 until all of the following:

22(1) The mortgage servicer has satisfied the requirements of
23paragraph (1) of subdivision (b).

24(2) Either 30 days after initial contact is made as required by
25paragraph (2) of subdivision (b) or 30 days after satisfying the due
26diligence requirements as described in subdivision (f).

27(3) The mortgage servicer complies with subdivision (c) of
28Section 2923.6, if the borrower has provided a complete application
29as defined in subdivision (h) of Section 2923.6.

30(b) (1) As specified in subdivision (a), a mortgage servicer shall
31send the following information in writing to the borrower:

32(A) A statement that if the borrower is a servicemember or a
33dependent of a servicemember, he or she may be entitled to certain
34protections under the federal Servicemembers Civil Relief Act (50
35U.S.C. Appen. Sec. 501 et seq.) regarding the servicemember’s
36interest rate and the risk of foreclosure, and counseling for covered
37servicemembers that is available at agencies such as Military
38OneSource and Armed Forces Legal Assistance.

39(B) A statement that the borrower may request the following:

P29   1(i) A copy of the borrower’s promissory note or other evidence
2of indebtedness.

3(ii) A copy of the borrower’s deed of trust or mortgage.

4(iii) A copy of any assignment, if applicable, of the borrower’s
5mortgage or deed of trust required to demonstrate the right of the
6mortgage servicer to foreclose.

7(iv) A copy of the borrower’s payment history since the
8borrower was last less than 60 days past due.

9(2) A mortgage servicer shall contact the borrower in person or
10by telephone in order to assess the borrower’s financial situation
11and explore options for the borrower to avoid foreclosure. During
12the initial contact, the mortgage servicer shall advise the borrower
13that he or she has the right to request a subsequent meeting and,
14if requested, the mortgage servicer shall schedule the meeting to
15occur within 14 days. The assessment of the borrower’s financial
16situation and discussion of options may occur during the first
17contact, or at the subsequent meeting scheduled for that purpose.
18In either case, the borrower shall be provided the toll-free telephone
19number made available by the United States Department of
20Housing and Urban Development (HUD) to find a HUD-certified
21housing counseling agency. Any meeting may occur telephonically.

22(c) A notice of default recorded pursuant to Section 2924 shall
23include a declaration that the mortgage servicer has contacted the
24borrower, has tried with due diligence to contact the borrower as
25required by this section, or that no contact was required because
26the individual did not meet the definition of “borrower” pursuant
27to subdivision (c) of Section 2920.5.

28(d) A mortgage servicer’s loss mitigation personnel may
29participate by telephone during any contact required by this section.

30(e) A borrower may designate, with consent given in writing,
31a HUD-certified housing counseling agency, attorney, or other
32adviser to discuss with the mortgage servicer, on the borrower’s
33behalf, the borrower’s financial situation and options for the
34borrower to avoid foreclosure. That contact made at the direction
35of the borrower shall satisfy the contact requirements of paragraph
36(2) of subdivision (b). Any foreclosure prevention alternative
37offered at the meeting by the mortgage servicer is subject to
38approval by the borrower.

39(f) A notice of default may be recorded pursuant to Section 2924
40when a mortgage servicer has not contacted a borrower as required
P30   1by paragraph (2) of subdivision (b), provided that the failure to
2contact the borrower occurred despite the due diligence of the
3mortgage servicer. For purposes of this section, “due diligence”
4shall require and mean all of the following:

5(1) A mortgage servicer shall first attempt to contact a borrower
6by sending a first-class letter that includes the toll-free telephone
7number made available by HUD to find a HUD-certified housing
8counseling agency.

9(2) (A) After the letter has been sent, the mortgage servicer shall
10attempt to contact the borrower by telephone at least three times
11at different hours and on different days. Telephone calls shall be
12made to the primary telephone number on file.

13(B) A mortgage servicer may attempt to contact a borrower
14using an automated system to dial borrowers, provided that, if the
15telephone call is answered, the call is connected to a live
16representative of the mortgage servicer.

17(C) A mortgage servicer satisfies the telephone contact
18requirements of this paragraph if it determines, after attempting
19contact pursuant to this paragraph, that the borrower’s primary
20telephone number and secondary telephone number or numbers
21on file, if any, have been disconnected.

22(3) If the borrower does not respond within two weeks after the
23telephone call requirements of paragraph (2) have been satisfied,
24the mortgage servicer shall then send a certified letter, with return
25receipt requested, that includes the toll-free telephone number
26made available by HUD to find a HUD-certified housing
27counseling agency.

28(4) The mortgage servicer shall provide a means for the borrower
29to contact it in a timely manner, including a toll-free telephone
30number that will provide access to a live representative during
31business hours.

32(5) The mortgage servicer has posted a prominent link on the
33homepage of its Internet Web site, if any, to the following
34information:

35(A) Options that may be available to borrowers who are unable
36to afford their mortgage payments and who wish to avoid
37foreclosure, and instructions to borrowers advising them on steps
38to take to explore those options.

P31   1(B) A list of financial documents borrowers should collect and
2be prepared to present to the mortgage servicer when discussing
3options for avoiding foreclosure.

4(C) A toll-free telephone number for borrowers who wish to
5discuss options for avoiding foreclosure with their mortgage
6servicer.

7(D) The toll-free telephone number made available by HUD to
8find a HUD-certified housing counseling agency.

9(g) This section shall not apply to entities described in
10subdivision (b) of Section 2924.18.

11(h) This section shall apply only to mortgages or deeds of trust
12described in Section 2924.15.

13(i)  This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2018,
14and as of that date is repealed, unless a later enacted statute, that
15is enacted before January 1, 2018, deletes or extends that date.

16

SEC. 15.  

Section 2923.55 of the Civil Code, as added by
17Section 6 of Chapter 87 of the Statutes of 2012, is amended to
18 read:

19

2923.55.  

(a) A mortgage servicer, mortgagee, trustee,
20beneficiary, or authorized agent may not record a notice of default
21pursuant to Section 2924 until all of the following:

22(1) The mortgage servicer has satisfied the requirements of
23paragraph (1) of subdivision (b).

24(2) Either 30 days after initial contact is made as required by
25paragraph (2) of subdivision (b) or 30 days after satisfying the due
26diligence requirements as described in subdivision (f).

27(3) The mortgage servicer complies with subdivision (c) of
28Section 2923.6, if the borrower has provided a complete application
29as defined in subdivision (h) of Section 2923.6.

30(b) (1) As specified in subdivision (a), a mortgage servicer shall
31send the following information in writing to the borrower:

32(A) A statement that if the borrower is a servicemember or a
33dependent of a servicemember, he or she may be entitled to certain
34protections under the federal Servicemembers Civil Relief Act (50
35U.S.C. Appen. Sec. 501 et seq.) regarding the servicemember’s
36interest rate and the risk of foreclosure, and counseling for covered
37servicemembers that is available at agencies such as Military
38OneSource and Armed Forces Legal Assistance.

39(B) A statement that the borrower may request the following:

P32   1(i) A copy of the borrower’s promissory note or other evidence
2of indebtedness.

3(ii) A copy of the borrower’s deed of trust or mortgage.

4(iii) A copy of any assignment, if applicable, of the borrower’s
5mortgage or deed of trust required to demonstrate the right of the
6mortgage servicer to foreclose.

7(iv) A copy of the borrower’s payment history since the
8borrower was last less than 60 days past due.

9(2) A mortgage servicer shall contact the borrower in person or
10by telephone in order to assess the borrower’s financial situation
11and explore options for the borrower to avoid foreclosure. During
12the initial contact, the mortgage servicer shall advise the borrower
13that he or she has the right to request a subsequent meeting and,
14if requested, the mortgage servicer shall schedule the meeting to
15occur within 14 days. The assessment of the borrower’s financial
16situation and discussion of options may occur during the first
17contact, or at the subsequent meeting scheduled for that purpose.
18In either case, the borrower shall be provided the toll-free telephone
19number made available by the United States Department of
20Housing and Urban Development (HUD) to find a HUD-certified
21housing counseling agency. Any meeting may occur telephonically.

22(c) A notice of default recorded pursuant to Section 2924 shall
23include a declaration that the mortgage servicer has contacted the
24borrower, has tried with due diligence to contact the borrower as
25required by this section, or that no contact was required because
26the individual did not meet the definition of “borrower” pursuant
27to subdivision (c) of Section 2920.5.

28(d) A mortgage servicer’s loss mitigation personnel may
29participate by telephone during any contact required by this section.

30(e) A borrower may designate, with consent given in writing,
31a HUD-certified housing counseling agency, attorney, or other
32adviser to discuss with the mortgage servicer, on the borrower’s
33behalf, the borrower’s financial situation and options for the
34borrower to avoid foreclosure. That contact made at the direction
35of the borrower shall satisfy the contact requirements of paragraph
36(2) of subdivision (b). Any foreclosure prevention alternative
37offered at the meeting by the mortgage servicer is subject to
38approval by the borrower.

39(f) A notice of default may be recorded pursuant to Section 2924
40when a mortgage servicer has not contacted a borrower as required
P33   1by paragraph (2) of subdivision (b), provided that the failure to
2contact the borrower occurred despite the due diligence of the
3mortgage servicer. For purposes of this section, “due diligence”
4shall require and mean all of the following:

5(1) A mortgage servicer shall first attempt to contact a borrower
6by sending a first-class letter that includes the toll-free telephone
7number made available by HUD to find a HUD-certified housing
8counseling agency.

9(2) (A) After the letter has been sent, the mortgage servicer shall
10attempt to contact the borrower by telephone at least three times
11at different hours and on different days. Telephone calls shall be
12made to the primary telephone number on file.

13(B) A mortgage servicer may attempt to contact a borrower
14using an automated system to dial borrowers, provided that, if the
15telephone call is answered, the call is connected to a live
16representative of the mortgage servicer.

17(C) A mortgage servicer satisfies the telephone contact
18requirements of this paragraph if it determines, after attempting
19contact pursuant to this paragraph, that the borrower’s primary
20telephone number and secondary telephone number or numbers
21on file, if any, have been disconnected.

22(3) If the borrower does not respond within two weeks after the
23telephone call requirements of paragraph (2) have been satisfied,
24the mortgage servicer shall then send a certified letter, with return
25receipt requested, that includes the toll-free telephone number
26made available by HUD to find a HUD-certified housing
27counseling agency.

28(4) The mortgage servicer shall provide a means for the borrower
29to contact it in a timely manner, including a toll-free telephone
30number that will provide access to a live representative during
31business hours.

32(5) The mortgage servicer has posted a prominent link on the
33homepage of its Internet Web site, if any, to the following
34information:

35(A) Options that may be available to borrowers who are unable
36to afford their mortgage payments and who wish to avoid
37foreclosure, and instructions to borrowers advising them on steps
38to take to explore those options.

P34   1(B) A list of financial documents borrowers should collect and
2be prepared to present to the mortgage servicer when discussing
3options for avoiding foreclosure.

4(C) A toll-free telephone number for borrowers who wish to
5discuss options for avoiding foreclosure with their mortgage
6servicer.

7(D) The toll-free telephone number made available by HUD to
8find a HUD-certified housing counseling agency.

9(g) This section shall not apply to entities described in
10subdivision (b) of Section 2924.18.

11(h) This section shall apply only to mortgages or deeds of trust
12described in Section 2924.15.

13(i)  This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2018,
14and as of that date is repealed, unless a later enacted statute, that
15is enacted before January 1, 2018, deletes or extends that date.

16

SEC. 16.  

Section 2924.8 of the Civil Code is amended to read:

17

2924.8.  

(a) (1) Upon posting a notice of sale pursuant to
18Section 2924f, a trustee or authorized agent shall also post the
19following notice, in the manner required for posting the notice of
20sale on the property to be sold, and a mortgagee, trustee,
21beneficiary, or authorized agent, concurrently with the mailing of
22the notice of sale pursuant to Section 2924b, shall send by
23first-class mail in an envelope addressed to the “Resident of
24property subject to foreclosure sale” the following notice in English
25and the languages described in Section 1632:


27Foreclosure process has begun on this property, which may affect
28your right to continue to live in this property. Twenty days or more
29after the date of this notice, this property may be sold at
30foreclosure. If you are renting this property, the new property
31owner may either give you a new lease or rental agreement or
32provide you with a 90-day eviction notice. You may have a right
33to stay in your home for longer than 90 days. If you have a
34fixed-term lease, the new owner must honor the lease unless the
35new owner will occupy the property as a primary residence or in
36other limited circumstances. Also, in some cases and in some cities
37with a “just cause for eviction” law, you may not have to move at
38all. All rights and obligations under your lease or tenancy, including
39your obligation to pay rent, will continue after the foreclosure sale.
P35   1You may wish to contact a lawyer or your local legal aid office or
2housing counseling agency to discuss any rights you may have.

3

4(2) The amendments to the notice in this subdivision made by
5the act that added this paragraph shall become operative on March
61, 2013, or 60 days following posting of a dated notice
7incorporating those amendments on the Department of Consumer
8Affairs Internet Web site, whichever date is later.

9(b) It is an infraction to tear down the notice described in
10subdivision (a) within 72 hours of posting. Violators shall be
11subject to a fine of one hundred dollars ($100).

12(c) The Department of Consumer Affairs shall make available
13translations of the notice described in subdivision (a) which may
14be used by a mortgagee, trustee, beneficiary, or authorized agent
15to satisfy the requirements of this section.

16(d) This section shall only apply to loans secured by residential
17real property, and if the billing address for the mortgage note is
18different than the property address.

19(e) This section shall remain in effect only until December 31,
202019, and as of that date is repealed, unless a later enacted statute,
21that is enacted before December 31, 2019, deletes or extends that
22date.

23

SEC. 17.  

Section 2924.19 of the Civil Code, as added by
24Section 22 of Chapter 86 of the Statutes of 2012, is amended to
25 read:

26

2924.19.  

(a) (1) If a trustee’s deed upon sale has not been
27recorded, a borrower may bring an action for injunctive relief to
28enjoin a material violation of Section 2923.5, 2924.17, or 2924.18.

29(2) An injunction shall remain in place and any trustee’s sale
30shall be enjoined until the court determines that the mortgage
31servicer, mortgagee, beneficiary, or authorized agent has corrected
32and remedied the violation or violations giving rise to the action
33for injunctive relief. An enjoined entity may move to dissolve an
34injunction based on a showing that the material violation has been
35corrected and remedied.

36(b) After a trustee’s deed upon sale has been recorded, a
37mortgage servicer, mortgagee, beneficiary, or authorized agent
38shall be liable to a borrower for actual economic damages pursuant
39to Section 3281, resulting from a material violation of Section
402923.5, 2924.17, or 2924.18 by that mortgage servicer, mortgagee,
P36   1beneficiary, or authorized agent where the violation was not
2corrected and remedied prior to the recordation of the trustee’s
3deed upon sale. If the court finds that the material violation was
4intentional or reckless, or resulted from willful misconduct by a
5mortgage servicer, mortgagee, beneficiary, or authorized agent,
6the court may award the borrower the greater of treble actual
7damages or statutory damages of fifty thousand dollars ($50,000).

8(c) A mortgage servicer, mortgagee, beneficiary, or authorized
9agent shall not be liable for any violation that it has corrected and
10remedied prior to the recordation of the trustee’s deed upon sale,
11or that has been corrected and remedied by third parties working
12 on its behalf prior to the recordation of the trustee’s deed upon
13sale.

14(d) A violation of Section 2923.5, 2924.17, or 2924.18 by a
15person licensed by the Department of Corporations, the Department
16of Financial Institutions, or the Department of Real Estate shall
17be deemed to be a violation of that person’s licensing law.

18(e) A violation of this article shall not affect the validity of a
19sale in favor of a bona fide purchaser and any of its encumbrancers
20for value without notice.

21(f) A third-party encumbrancer shall not be relieved of liability
22resulting from violations of Section 2923.5, 2924.17, or 2924.18,
23committed by that third-party encumbrancer, that occurred prior
24to the sale of the subject property to the bona fide purchaser.

25(g) The rights, remedies, and procedures provided by this section
26are in addition to and independent of any other rights, remedies,
27or procedures under any other law. Nothing in this section shall
28be construed to alter, limit, or negate any other rights, remedies,
29or procedures provided by law.

30(h) A court may award a prevailing borrower reasonable
31attorney’s fees and costs in an action brought pursuant to this
32section. A borrower shall be deemed to have prevailed for purposes
33of this subdivision if the borrower obtained injunctive relief or
34damages pursuant to this section.

35(i) This section shall apply only to entities described in
36subdivision (b) of Section 2924.18.

37(j)  This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2018,
38and as of that date is repealed, unless a later enacted statute, that
39is enacted before January 1, 2018, deletes or extends that date.

P37   1

SEC. 18.  

Section 2924.19 of the Civil Code, as added by
2Section 22 of Chapter 87 of the Statutes of 2012, is amended to
3 read:

4

2924.19.  

(a) (1) If a trustee’s deed upon sale has not been
5recorded, a borrower may bring an action for injunctive relief to
6enjoin a material violation of Section 2923.5, 2924.17, or 2924.18.

7(2) An injunction shall remain in place and any trustee’s sale
8shall be enjoined until the court determines that the mortgage
9servicer, mortgagee, beneficiary, or authorized agent has corrected
10and remedied the violation or violations giving rise to the action
11for injunctive relief. An enjoined entity may move to dissolve an
12injunction based on a showing that the material violation has been
13corrected and remedied.

14(b) After a trustee’s deed upon sale has been recorded, a
15mortgage servicer, mortgagee, beneficiary, or authorized agent
16shall be liable to a borrower for actual economic damages pursuant
17to Section 3281, resulting from a material violation of Section
182923.5, 2924.17, or 2924.18 by that mortgage servicer, mortgagee,
19beneficiary, or authorized agent where the violation was not
20corrected and remedied prior to the recordation of the trustee’s
21deed upon sale. If the court finds that the material violation was
22intentional or reckless, or resulted from willful misconduct by a
23mortgage servicer, mortgagee, beneficiary, or authorized agent,
24the court may award the borrower the greater of treble actual
25damages or statutory damages of fifty thousand dollars ($50,000).

26(c) A mortgage servicer, mortgagee, beneficiary, or authorized
27agent shall not be liable for any violation that it has corrected and
28remedied prior to the recordation of the trustee’s deed upon sale,
29or that has been corrected and remedied by third parties working
30 on its behalf prior to the recordation of the trustee’s deed upon
31sale.

32(d) A violation of Section 2923.5, 2924.17, or 2924.18 by a
33person licensed by the Department of Corporations, the Department
34of Financial Institutions, or the Department of Real Estate shall
35be deemed to be a violation of that person’s licensing law.

36(e) A violation of this article shall not affect the validity of a
37sale in favor of a bona fide purchaser and any of its encumbrancers
38for value without notice.

39(f) A third-party encumbrancer shall not be relieved of liability
40resulting from violations of Section 2923.5, 2924.17, or 2924.18,
P38   1committed by that third-party encumbrancer, that occurred prior
2to the sale of the subject property to the bona fide purchaser.

3(g) The rights, remedies, and procedures provided by this section
4are in addition to and independent of any other rights, remedies,
5or procedures under any other law. Nothing in this section shall
6be construed to alter, limit, or negate any other rights, remedies,
7or procedures provided by law.

8(h) A court may award a prevailing borrower reasonable
9attorney’s fees and costs in an action brought pursuant to this
10section. A borrower shall be deemed to have prevailed for purposes
11of this subdivision if the borrower obtained injunctive relief or
12damages pursuant to this section.

13(i) This section shall apply only to entities described in
14subdivision (b) of Section 2924.18.

15(j)  This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2018,
16and as of that date is repealed, unless a later enacted statute, that
17is enacted before January 1, 2018, deletes or extends that date.

18

SEC. 19.  

Section 2950 of the Civil Code is amended to read:

19

2950.  

When a grant of real property purports to be an absolute
20conveyance, but is intended to be defeasible on the performance
21of certain conditions, such grant is not defeated or affected as
22against any person other than the grantee or his or her heirs or
23devisees, or persons having actual notice, unless an instrument of
24defeasance, duly executed and acknowledged, shall have been
25recorded in the office of the county recorder of the county where
26the property is situated.

27

SEC. 20.  

Section 3509 of the Civil Code is amended to read:

28

3509.  

The maxims of jurisprudence hereinafter set forth are
29intended not to qualify any of the foregoing provisions of this code,
30but to aid in their just application.

31

SEC. 21.  

Section 116.940 of the Code of Civil Procedure is
32amended to read:

33

116.940.  

(a) Except as otherwise provided in this section or
34in rules adopted by the Judicial Council, which are consistent with
35the requirements of this section, the characteristics of the small
36claims advisory service required by Section 116.260 shall be
37determined by each county, or by the superior court in a county
38where the small claims advisory service is administered by the
39court, in accordance with local needs and conditions.

40(b) Each advisory service shall provide the following services:

P39   1(1) Individual personal advisory services, in person or by
2telephone, and by any other means reasonably calculated to provide
3timely and appropriate assistance. The topics covered by individual
4personal advisory services shall include, but not be limited to,
5preparation of small claims court filings, procedures, including
6procedures related to the conduct of the hearing, and information
7on the collection of small claims court judgments.

8(2) Recorded telephone messages may be used to supplement
9the individual personal advisory services, but shall not be the sole
10means of providing advice available in the county.

11(3) Adjacent counties, superior courts in adjacent counties, or
12any combination thereof, may provide advisory services jointly.

13(c) In a county in which the number of small claims actions
14filed annually is 1,000 or less as averaged over the immediately
15preceding two fiscal years, the county or the superior court may
16elect to exempt itself from the requirements set forth in subdivision
17(b). If the small claims advisory service is administered by the
18county, this exemption shall be formally noticed through the
19adoption of a resolution by the board of supervisors. If the small
20claims advisory service is administered by the superior court, this
21exemption shall be formally noticed through adoption of a local
22rule. If a county or court so exempts itself, the county or court
23shall nevertheless provide the following minimum advisory
24services in accordance with rules adopted by the Judicial Council:

25(1) Recorded telephone messages providing general information
26relating to small claims actions filed in the county shall be provided
27during regular business hours.

28(2) Small claims information booklets shall be provided in the
29court clerk’s office of each superior court, appropriate county
30offices, and in any other location that is convenient to prospective
31small claims litigants in the county.

32(d) The advisory service shall operate in conjunction and
33cooperation with the small claims division, and shall be
34administered so as to avoid the existence or appearance of a conflict
35of interest between the individuals providing the advisory services
36and any party to a particular small claims action or any judicial
37officer deciding small claims actions.

38(e) Advisers may be volunteers, and shall be members of the
39State Bar, law students, paralegals, or persons experienced in
40resolving minor disputes, and shall be familiar with small claims
P40   1court rules and procedures. Advisers may not appear in court as
2an advocate for any party.

3(f) Advisers, including independent contractors, other
4employees, and volunteers, have the immunity conferred by Section
5818.9 of the Government Code with respect to advice provided as
6a public service on behalf of a court or county to small claims
7litigants and potential litigants under this chapter.

8(g) This section does not preclude a court or county from
9contracting with a third party to provide small claims advisory
10services as described in this section.

11

SEC. 22.  

Section 425.50 of the Code of Civil Procedure is
12amended to read:

13

425.50.  

(a) An allegation of a construction-related accessibility
14claim in a complaint, as defined in subdivision (a) of Section 55.52
15of the Civil Code, shall state facts sufficient to allow a reasonable
16person to identify the basis of the violation or violations supporting
17the claim, including all of the following:

18(1) A plain language explanation of the specific access barrier
19or barriers the individual encountered, or by which the individual
20alleges he or she was deterred, with sufficient information about
21the location of the alleged barrier to enable a reasonable person to
22identify the access barrier.

23(2) The way in which the barrier denied the individual full and
24equal use or access, or in which it deterred the individual, on each
25particular occasion.

26(3) The date or dates of each particular occasion on which the
27claimant encountered the specific access barrier, or on which he
28or she was deterred.

29(b) A complaint alleging a construction-related accessibility
30claim, as those terms are defined in subdivision (a) of Section 55.3
31of the Civil Code, shall be verified by the plaintiff. A complaint
32filed without verification shall be subject to a motion to strike.

33(c) Nothing in this section shall limit the right of a plaintiff to
34amend a complaint under Section 472, or with leave of the court
35under Section 473. However, an amended pleading alleging a
36construction-related accessibility claim shall be pled as required
37by subdivision (a).

38(d) This section shall become operative on January 1, 2013.

39

SEC. 23.  

Section 684.115 of the Code of Civil Procedure is
40amended to read:

P41   1

684.115.  

(a) A financial institution may, and if it has more
2than nine branches or offices at which it conducts its business
3within this state shall, designate one or more central locations for
4service of legal process within this state. Each designated location
5shall be referred to as a “central location.” If a financial institution
6elects or is required to designate a central location for service of
7legal process, the financial institution shall file a notice of its
8designation with the Department of Financial Institutions, which
9filing shall be effective upon filing and shall contain all of the
10following:

11(1) The physical address of the central location.

12(2) The days and hours during which service will be accepted
13at the central location.

14(3) If the central location will not accept service of legal process
15directed at deposit accounts maintained or property held at all of
16the financial institution’s branches or offices within this state, or
17if the service accepted at the central location will not apply to
18safe-deposit boxes or other property of the judgment debtor held
19by or for the judgment debtor, the filing shall also contain sufficient
20information to permit a determination of the limitation or
21limitations, including, in the case of a limitation applicable to
22certain branches or offices, an identification of the branches or
23offices as to which service at the central location will not apply
24and the nature of the limitation applicable to those branches or
25offices. If the limitation will apply to all branches or offices of the
26financial institution within this state, the filing may indicate the
27nature of the limitation and that it applies to all branches or offices,
28in lieu of an identification of branches or offices as to which the
29limitation applies. To the extent that a financial institution’s
30designation of a central location for service of legal process covers
31the process directed at deposit accounts, safe-deposit boxes, or
32other property of the judgment debtor held by or for the judgment
33debtor at a particular branch or office located within this state, the
34branch or office shall be a branch or office covered by central
35process.

36(b) Should a financial institution required to designate a central
37location fail to do so, each branch of that institution located in this
38state shall be deemed to be a central location at which service of
39legal process may be made, and all of the institution’s branches
P42   1or offices located within this state shall be deemed to be a branch
2or office covered by central process.

3(c) Subject to any limitation noted pursuant to paragraph (3) of
4subdivision (a), service of legal process at a central location of a
5financial institution shall be effective against all deposit accounts
6and all property held for safekeeping, as collateral for an obligation
7owed to the financial institution or in a safe-deposit box if the same
8is described in the legal process and held by the financial institution
9at any branch or office covered by central process and located
10within this state. However, while service of legal process at the
11central location will establish a lien on all property, if any property
12other than deposit accounts is physically held by the financial
13institution in a county other than that in which the designated
14central location is located, the financial institution shall include in
15its garnishee’s memorandum the location or locations of the
16property, and the judgment creditor shall obtain a writ of execution
17covering the property and directed to the levying officer in that
18county to accomplish the turnover of the property and shall forward
19the writ and related required documentation to the levying officer
20in the county in which the property is held.

21(d) A financial institution may modify or revoke any designation
22made pursuant to subdivision (a) by filing the modification or
23revocation with the Department of Financial Institutions. The
24modification or revocation shall be effective when the Department
25of Financial Institutions’ records have been updated to reflect the
26modification or revocation, provided that the judgment creditor
27may rely upon the superseded designation during the 30-day period
28following the effective date of the revocation or modification.

29(e) (1) The Department of Financial Institutions shall update its
30online records to reflect a filing by a financial institution pursuant
31to subdivision (a) or a modification or revocation filed by a
32financial institution pursuant to subdivision (d) within 10 business
33days following the filing by the financial institution. The
34Department of Financial Institutions’ Internet Web site shall reflect
35the date its online records for each financial institution have most
36recently been updated.

37(2) The Department of Financial Institutions shall provide any
38person requesting it with a copy of each current filing made by a
39financial institution pursuant to subdivision (a). The Department
40of Financial Institutions may satisfy its obligation under this
P43   1subdivision by posting all current designations of a financial
2institution, or the pertinent information therein, on an Internet Web
3site available to the public without charge, and if that information
4is made available, the Department of Financial Institutions may
5impose a reasonable fee for furnishing that information in any
6other manner.

7(f) As to deposit accounts maintained or property held for
8safekeeping, as collateral for an obligation owed to the financial
9institution or in a safe-deposit box at a branch or office covered
10by central process, service of legal process at a location other than
11a central location designated by the financial institution shall not
12be effective unless the financial institution, in its absolute
13discretion, elects to act upon the process at that location as if it
14were effective. In the absence of an election, the financial
15institution may respond to the legal process by mailing or delivery
16of the garnishee’s memorandum to the levying officer within the
17time otherwise provided therefor, with a statement on the
18garnishee’s memorandum that the legal process was not properly
19served at the financial institution’s designated location for receiving
20legal process, and, therefore, was not processed, and the address
21at which the financial institution is to receive legal process.

22(g) If any legal process is served at a central location of a
23financial institution pursuant to this section, all related papers to
24be served on the financial institution shall be served at that location,
25unless agreed to the contrary between the serving party and the
26financial institution.

27(h) This subdivision shall apply whenever a financial institution
28operates within this state at least one branch or office in addition
29to its head office or main office, as applicable, or a financial
30institution headquartered in another state operates more than one
31branch or office within this state, and no central location has been
32designated or deemed to have been designated by the institution
33for service of legal process relating to deposit accounts maintained
34at the financial institution’s head office or main office, as
35applicable, and branches located within this state. If a judgment
36creditor reasonably believes that, pursuant to Section 700.140 and,
37if applicable, Section 700.160, any act of enforcement would be
38effective against a specific deposit account maintained at a financial
39institution described in this subdivision, the judgment creditor may
40file with the financial institution a written request that the financial
P44   1institution identify the branch or office within this state at which
2a specified account might be maintained by the financial institution.
3The written request shall contain the following statements or
4information:

5(1) The name of the person reasonably believed by the judgment
6creditor to be a person in whose name the specified deposit account
7stands.

8(2) If the name of the person reasonably believed by the
9judgment creditor to be a person in whose name the specified
10deposit account stands is not a judgment debtor identified in the
11writ of execution, a statement that a person reasonably believed
12 by the judgment creditor to be a person in whose name the specified
13deposit account stands will be appropriately identified in the legal
14process to be served pursuant to Section 700.160, including any
15supplementary papers, such as a court order or affidavit if the same
16will be required by Section 700.160.

17(3) The specific identifying number of the account reasonably
18believed to be maintained with the financial institution and standing
19in the name of the judgment debtor or other person.

20(4) The address of the requesting party.

21(5) An affidavit by the judgment creditor or the judgment
22creditor’s counsel stating substantially the following:

23

24I hereby declare that this deposit account location request
25complies with Section 684.115 of the Code of Civil Procedure,
26that the account or accounts of the judgment debtor or other person
27or persons appropriately identified in the legal process and
28specified herein are subject to a valid writ of execution, or court
29order, that I have a reasonable belief, formed after an inquiry
30reasonable under the circumstances, that the financial institution
31receiving this deposit account location request has an account
32standing in the name of the judgment debtor or other person or
33persons appropriately identified in the legal process, and that
34information pertaining to the location of the account will assist the
35judgment creditor in enforcing the judgment.

36

37(i) The affidavit contemplated by subdivision (h) shall be signed
38by the judgment creditor or the judgment creditor’s counsel and
39filed at the financial institution’s head office located within this
40state or, if the financial institution’s head office is in another state,
P45   1at one of its branches or offices within this state. Failure to comply
2with the requirements of subdivision (h) and this subdivision shall
3be sufficient basis for the financial institution to refuse to produce
4the information that would otherwise be required by subdivision
5(j).

6(j) Within 10 banking days following receipt by a financial
7institution at the applicable location specified in subdivision (i) of
8a request contemplated by subdivision (h), as to each specific
9deposit account identified in the request contemplated by
10subdivision (h), the financial institution shall respond by mailing,
11by first-class mail with postage prepaid, to the requester’s address
12as specified in the request a response indicating the branch or office
13location of the financial institution at which the specified deposit
14account might be maintained, or, if the specified deposit account,
15if it exists, would not be maintained at a specific location, at least
16one place within this state at which legal process relating to the
17deposit account should or may be served. The response to be
18furnished pursuant to this subdivision shall not require the financial
19institution to determine whether an account exists or, if an account
20does exist, whether it would be reached by the legal process, rather,
21the branch or office location shall be determined and reported by
22the financial institution based solely upon its determination that
23an account with the identifying number provided by the requester
24would be maintained at that branch if an account did exist, and the
25response shall not contain any information about the name in which
26the account stands or any other information concerning the account,
27if it exists. If more than one account number is specified in the
28request, the financial institution’s responses as to some or all of
29those account numbers may be combined in a single writing.

30(k) A response furnished in good faith by the financial institution
31pursuant to subdivision (j) shall not be deemed to violate the
32privacy of any person in whose name the specified deposit account
33stands nor the privacy of any other person, and shall not require
34the consent of the person in whose name the account stands nor
35that of any other person.

36(l) A financial institution shall not notify the person in whose
37name the specified deposit account stands or any other person
38related to the specified account of the receipt of any request made
39pursuant to subdivision (h) and affecting that person’s or persons’
40accounts at the financial institution, provided that the financial
P46   1institution shall have no liability for its failure to comply with the
2provisions of this subdivision.

3

SEC. 24.  

Section 1282.4 of the Code of Civil Procedure is
4amended to read:

5

1282.4.  

(a) A party to the arbitration has the right to be
6represented by an attorney at any proceeding or hearing in
7arbitration under this title. A waiver of this right may be revoked;
8but if a party revokes that waiver, the other party is entitled to a
9reasonable continuance for the purpose of procuring an attorney.

10(b) Notwithstanding any other law, including Section 6125 of
11the Business and Professions Code, an attorney admitted to the
12bar of any other state may represent the parties in the course of,
13or in connection with, an arbitration proceeding in this state,
14provided that the attorney, if not admitted to the State Bar of
15California, satisfies all of the following:

16(1) He or she timely serves the certificate described in
17subdivision (c).

18(2) The attorney’s appearance is approved in writing on that
19certificate by the arbitrator, the arbitrators, or the arbitral forum.

20(3) The certificate bearing approval of the attorney’s appearance
21is filed with the State Bar of California and served on the parties
22as described in this section.

23(c) Within a reasonable period of time after the attorney
24described in subdivision (b) indicates an intention to appear in the
25arbitration, the attorney shall serve a certificate in a form prescribed
26by the State Bar of California on the arbitrator, arbitrators, or
27arbitral forum, the State Bar of California, and all other parties
28and counsel in the arbitration whose addresses are known to the
29attorney. The certificate shall state all of the following:

30(1) The case name and number, and the name of the arbitrator,
31arbitrators, or arbitral forum assigned to the proceeding in which
32the attorney seeks to appear.

33(2) The attorney’s residence and office address.

34(3) The courts before which the attorney has been admitted to
35practice and the dates of admission.

36(4) That the attorney is currently a member in good standing
37of, and eligible to practice law before, the bar of those courts.

38(5) That the attorney is not currently on suspension or disbarred
39from the practice of law before the bar of any court.

40(6) That the attorney is not a resident of the State of California.

P47   1(7) That the attorney is not regularly employed in the State of
2California.

3(8) That the attorney is not regularly engaged in substantial
4business, professional, or other activities in the State of California.

5(9) That the attorney agrees to be subject to the jurisdiction of
6the courts of this state with respect to the law of this state governing
7the conduct of attorneys to the same extent as a member of the
8State Bar of California.

9(10) The title of the court and the cause in which the attorney
10has filed an application to appear as counsel pro hac vice in this
11state or filed a certificate pursuant to this section in the preceding
12two years, the date of each application or certificate, and whether
13or not it was granted. If the attorney has made repeated
14 appearances, the certificate shall reflect the special circumstances
15that warrant the approval of the attorney’s appearance in the
16arbitration.

17(11) The name, address, and telephone number of the active
18member of the State Bar of California who is the attorney of record.

19(d) The arbitrator, arbitrators, or arbitral forum may approve
20the attorney’s appearance if the attorney has complied with
21subdivision (c). Failure to timely file and serve the certificate
22described in subdivision (c) shall be grounds for disapproval of
23the appearance and disqualification from serving as an attorney in
24the arbitration in which the certificate was filed. In the absence of
25special circumstances, repeated appearances shall be grounds for
26disapproval of the appearance and disqualification from serving
27as an attorney in the arbitration in which the certificate was filed.

28(e) Within a reasonable period of time after the arbitrator,
29arbitrators, or arbitral forum approves the certificate, the attorney
30shall file the certificate with the State Bar of California and serve
31the certificate as described in Section 1013a on all parties and
32counsel in the arbitration whosebegin delete address isend deletebegin insert addresses areend insert known
33to the attorney.

34(f) An attorney who fails to file or serve the certificate required
35by this section or files or serves a certificate containing false
36information or who otherwise fails to comply with the standards
37of professional conduct required of members of the State Bar of
38California shall be subject to the disciplinary jurisdiction of the
39State Bar with respect to that certificate or any of his or her acts
40occurring in the course of the arbitration.

P48   1(g) Notwithstanding any other law, including Section 6125 of
2the Business and Professions Code, an attorney who is a member
3in good standing of the bar of any state may represent the parties
4in connection with rendering legal services in this state in the
5course of and in connection with an arbitration pending in another
6state.

7(h) Notwithstanding any other law, including Section 6125 of
8the Business and Professions Code, any party to an arbitration
9arising under collective bargaining agreements in industries and
10provisions subject to either state or federal law may be represented
11in the course of, and in connection with, those proceedings by any
12person, regardless of whether that person is licensed to practice
13law in this state.

14(i) Nothing in this section shall apply to Division 4 (commencing
15with Section 3201) of the Labor Code.

16(j) (1) In enacting the amendments to this section made by
17Assembly Bill 2086 of the 1997-98 Regular Session, it is the intent
18of the Legislature to respond to the holding in Birbrower v.
19Superior Court (1998) 17 Cal.4th 119, as modified at 17 Cal.4th
20643a (hereafter Birbrower), to provide a procedure for nonresident
21attorneys who are not licensed in this state to appear in California
22arbitration proceedings.

23(2) In enacting subdivision (h), it is the intent of the Legislature
24to make clear that any party to an arbitration arising under a
25collective bargaining agreement governed by the laws of this state
26may be represented in the course of and in connection with those
27proceedings by any person regardless of whether that person is
28licensed to practice law in this state.

29(3) Except as otherwise specifically provided in this section, in
30enacting the amendments to this section made by Assembly Bill
312086 of the 1997-98 Regular Session, it is the Legislature’s intent
32that nothing in this section is intended to expand or restrict the
33ability of a party prior to the decision in Birbrower to elect to be
34represented by any person in a nonjudicial arbitration proceeding,
35to the extent those rights or abilities existed prior to that decision.
36To the extent that Birbrower is interpreted to expand or restrict
37that right or ability pursuant to the laws of this state, it is hereby
38abrogated except as specifically provided in this section.

39(4) In enacting subdivision (i), it is the intent of the Legislature
40to make clear that nothing in this section shall affect those
P49   1provisions of law governing the right of injured workers to elect
2 to be represented by any person, regardless of whether that person
3is licensed to practice law in this state, as set forth in Division 4
4(commencing with Section 3200) of the Labor Code.

5

SEC. 25.  

Section 7237 of the Corporations Code is amended
6to read:

7

7237.  

(a) For purposes of this section, “agent” means a person
8who is or was a director, officer, employee, or other agent of the
9corporation, or is or was serving at the request of the corporation
10as a director, officer, employee, or agent of another foreign or
11domestic corporation, partnership, joint venture, trust or other
12enterprise, or was a director, officer, employee, or agent of a
13foreign or domestic corporation that was a predecessor corporation
14of the corporation or of another enterprise at the request of the
15predecessor corporation; “proceeding” means any threatened,
16pending, or completed action or proceeding, whether civil, criminal,
17administrative, or investigative; and “expenses” includes, without
18limitation, attorneys’ fees and any expenses of establishing a right
19to indemnification under subdivision (d) or paragraph (3) of
20subdivision (e).

21(b) A corporation shall have power to indemnify a person who
22was or is a party or is threatened to be made a party to any
23proceeding (other than an action by or in the right of the
24corporation to procure a judgment in its favor, an action brought
25under Section 5233 of Part 2 (commencing with Section 5110)
26made applicable pursuant to Section 7238, or an action brought
27by the Attorney General or a person granted relator status by the
28Attorney General for any breach of duty relating to assets held in
29charitable trust) by reason of the fact that the person is or was an
30agent of the corporation, against expenses, judgments, fines,
31settlements, and other amounts actually and reasonably incurred
32in connection with the proceeding if the person acted in good faith
33and in a manner the person reasonably believed to be in the best
34interests of the corporation and, in the case of a criminal
35proceeding, had no reasonable cause to believe the conduct of the
36person was unlawful. The termination of any proceeding by
37judgment, order, settlement, conviction, or upon a plea of nolo
38contendere or its equivalent shall not, of itself, create a presumption
39that the person did not act in good faith and in a manner which the
40person reasonably believed to be in the best interests of the
P50   1corporation or that the person had reasonable cause to believe that
2the person’s conduct was unlawful.

3(c) A corporation shall have power to indemnify a person who
4was or is a party or is threatened to be made a party to any
5threatened, pending, or completed action by or in the right of the
6corporation, or brought under Section 5233 of Part 2 (commencing
7with Section 5110) made applicable pursuant to Section 7238, or
8brought by the Attorney General or a person granted relator status
9by the Attorney General for breach of duty relating to assets held
10in charitable trust, to procure a judgment in its favor by reason of
11the fact that the person is or was an agent of the corporation, against
12expenses actually and reasonably incurred by the person in
13connection with the defense or settlement of the action if the person
14acted in good faith, in a manner the person believed to be in the
15best interests of the corporation and with such care, including
16reasonable inquiry, as an ordinarily prudent person in a like
17position would use under similar circumstances. No
18indemnification shall be made under this subdivision:

19(1) With respect to any claim, issue, or matter as to which the
20person shall have been adjudged to be liable to the corporation in
21the performance of the person’s duty to the corporation, unless
22and only to the extent that the court in which the proceeding is or
23was pending shall determine upon application that, in view of all
24the circumstances of the case, the person is fairly and reasonably
25entitled to indemnity for the expenses which the court shall
26determine;

27(2) Of amounts paid in settling or otherwise disposing of a
28threatened or pending action, with or without court approval; or

29(3) Of expenses incurred in defending a threatened or pending
30action that is settled or otherwise disposed of without court
31approval unless the action concerns assets held in charitable trust
32and is settled with the approval of the Attorney General.

33(d) To the extent that an agent of a corporation has been
34successful on the merits in defense of any proceeding referred to
35in subdivision (b) or (c) or in defense of any claim, issue, or matter
36therein, the agent shall be indemnified against expenses actually
37and reasonably incurred by the agent in connection therewith.

38(e) Except as provided in subdivision (d), any indemnification
39under this section shall be made by the corporation only if
40authorized in the specific case, upon a determination that
P51   1indemnification of the agent is proper in the circumstances because
2the agent has met the applicable standard of conduct set forth in
3subdivision (b) or (c), by:

4(1) A majority vote of a quorum consisting of directors who are
5not parties to the proceeding;

6(2) Approval of the members (Section 5034), with the persons
7to be indemnified not being entitled to vote thereon; or

8(3) The court in which the proceeding is or was pending upon
9application made by the corporation or the agent or the attorney,
10or other person rendering services in connection with the defense,
11whether or not the application by the agent, attorney or other person
12is opposed by the corporation.

13(f) Expenses incurred in defending any proceeding may be
14advanced by the corporation before the final disposition of the
15proceeding upon receipt of an undertaking by or on behalf of the
16agent to repay the amount unless it shall be determined ultimately
17that the agent is entitled to be indemnified as authorized in this
18section. The provisions of subdivision (a) of Section 7235 do not
19apply to advances made pursuant to this subdivision.

20(g) A provision made by a corporation to indemnify its or its
21subsidiary’s directors or officers for the defense of any proceeding,
22whether contained in the articles, bylaws, a resolution of members
23or directors, an agreement, or otherwise, shall not be valid unless
24consistent with this section. Nothing contained in this section shall
25affect any right to indemnification to which persons other than the
26directors and officers may be entitled by contract or otherwise.

27(h) No indemnification or advance shall be made under this
28section, except as provided in subdivision (d) or paragraph (3) of
29subdivision (e), in any circumstance where it appears:

30(1) That it would be inconsistent with a provision of the articles,
31bylaws, a resolution of the members, or an agreement in effect at
32the time of the accrual of the alleged cause of action asserted in
33the proceeding in which the expenses were incurred or other
34amounts were paid, which prohibits or otherwise limits
35indemnification; or

36(2) That it would be inconsistent with any condition expressly
37imposed by a court in approving a settlement.

38(i) A corporation shall have power to purchase and maintain
39insurance on behalf of an agent of the corporation against any
40 liability asserted against or incurred by the agent in that capacity
P52   1or arising out of the agent’s status as such whether or not the
2corporation would have the power to indemnify the agent against
3that liability under the provisions of this section.

4(j) This section does not apply to any proceeding against a
5trustee, investment manager, or other fiduciary of a pension,
6deferred compensation, saving, thrift, or other retirement, incentive,
7or benefit plan, trust, or provision for any or all of the corporation’s
8directors, officers, employees, and persons providing services to
9the corporation or any of its subsidiary or related or affiliated
10corporations, in that person’s capacity as such, even though the
11person may also be an agent as defined in subdivision (a) of the
12employer corporation. A corporation shall have power to indemnify
13the trustee, investment manager, or other fiduciary to the extent
14permitted by subdivision (e) of Section 7140.

15

SEC. 26.  

The heading of Chapter 5.5 (commencing with
16Section 15900) of Title 2 of the Corporations Code is amended
17and renumbered to read:

18 

19Chapter  4.5. Uniform Limited Partnership Act of 2008
20

 

21

SEC. 27.  

Section 15282 of the Education Code is amended to
22read:

23

15282.  

(a) The citizens’ oversight committee shall consist of
24at least seven members who shall serve for a minimum term of
25two years without compensation and for no more than three
26consecutive terms. While consisting of a minimum of at least seven
27members, the citizens’ oversight committee shall be comprised,
28as follows:

29(1) One member shall be active in a business organization
30representing the business community located within the school
31district or community college district.

32(2) One member shall be active in a senior citizens’ organization.

33(3) One member shall be active in a bona fide taxpayers’
34organization.

35(4) For a school district, one member shall be the parent or
36guardian of a child enrolled in the school district. For a community
37college district, one member shall be a student who is both
38currently enrolled in the community college district and active in
39a community college group, such as student government. The
40community college student member may, at the discretion of the
P53   1governing board of the community college district, serve up to six
2months after his or her graduation.

3(5) For a school district, one member shall be both a parent or
4guardian of a child enrolled in the school district and active in a
5parent-teacher organization, such as the Parent Teacher Association
6or schoolsite council. For a community college district, one
7member shall be active in the support and organization of a
8community college or the community colleges of the district, such
9as a member of an advisory council or foundation.

10(b) An employee or official of the school district or community
11college district shall not be appointed to the citizens’ oversight
12committee. A vendor, contractor, or consultant of the school district
13or community college district shall not be appointed to the citizens’
14oversight committee. Members of the citizens’ oversight committee
15shall, pursuant to Sections 35233 and 72533, abide by the
16prohibitions contained in Article 4 (commencing with Section
171090) and Article 4.7 (commencing with Section 1125) of Chapter
181 of Division 4 of Title 1 of the Government Code.

19

SEC. 28.  

Section 17193.5 of the Education Code is amended
20to read:

21

17193.5.  

(a) For purposes of this section, “public credit
22provider” means any financial institution or combination of
23financial institutions, that consists either solely, or has as a member
24or participant, a public retirement system. Notwithstanding any
25other law, a public credit provider, in connection with providing
26credit enhancement for bonds, notes, certificates of participation,
27or other evidences of indebtedness of a participating party, may
28require the participating party to agree to the following conditions:

29(1) If a participating party adopts a resolution by a majority vote
30of its board to participate under this section, it shall provide notice
31to the Controller of that election. The notice shall include a
32schedule for the repayment of principal and interest on the bonds,
33notes, certificates of participation, or other evidence of
34indebtedness and identify the public credit provider that provided
35credit enhancement. The notice shall be provided not later than
36the date of issuance of the bonds.

37(2) If, for any reason, a public credit provider is required to
38make principal or interest payments, or both, pursuant to a credit
39enhancement agreement, the public credit provider shall
P54   1immediately notify the Controller of that fact and of the amount
2paid out by the public credit provider.

3(3) Upon receipt of the notice required by paragraph (2), the
4Controller shall make an apportionment to the public credit
5provider in the amount of the payments made by the public credit
6provider for the purpose of reimbursing the public credit provider
7for its expenditures made pursuant to the credit enhancement
8agreement. The Controller shall make that apportionment only
9from moneys designated for apportionments to a participating
10party, provided that such moneys are from one or more of the
11following:

12(A) Any revenue limit apportionments to a school district or
13county office of education without regard to the specific funding
14source of the apportionment.

15(B) Any general apportionments to a community college district
16without regard to the specific funding source of the apportionment.

17(C) Any charter school block grant apportionments to a charter
18school without regard to the specific funding source of the
19apportionment.

20(D) Any charter school categorical block grant apportionments
21to a charter school without regard to the specific funding source
22of the apportionment.

23(b) The amount apportioned for a participating party pursuant
24to this section shall be deemed to be an allocation to the
25participating party and shall be included in the computation of
26allocation, limit, entitlement, or apportionment for the participating
27party. The participating party and its creditors do not have a claim
28to funds apportioned or anticipated to be apportioned to the trustee
29by the Controller pursuant to paragraph (3) of subdivision (a).

30

SEC. 29.  

Section 17250.25 of the Education Code is amended
31to read:

32

17250.25.  

Design-build projects shall progress as follows:

33(a) (1) The school district governing board shall prepare a
34request for proposal setting forth the scope of the project that may
35include, but is not limited to, the size, type, and desired design
36character of the buildings and site, performance specifications
37covering the quality of materials, equipment, and workmanship,
38preliminary plans or building layouts, or any other information
39deemed necessary to describe adequately the school district’s
40needs. The performance specifications and any plans shall be
P55   1prepared by a design professional duly licensed or registered in
2this state. The request for proposal shall not include a
3design-build-operate contract for educational facilities pursuant
4to this chapter.

5(2) Each request for proposal shall do all of the following:

6(A) Identify the basic scope and needs of the project or contract,
7the expected cost range, and other information deemed necessary
8by the school district to inform interested parties of the contracting
9opportunity.

10(B) Invite interested parties to submit competitive sealed
11proposals in the manner prescribed by the school district.

12(C) Include a section identifying and describing the following:

13(i) All significant factors and subfactors that the school district
14reasonably expects to consider in evaluating proposals, including
15cost or price and all nonprice related factors and subfactors.

16(ii) The methodology and rating or weighting scheme that will
17be used by the school district governing board in evaluating
18competitive proposals and specifically whether proposals will be
19rated according to numeric or qualitative values.

20(iii) The relative importance or weight assigned to each of the
21factors identified in the request for proposal.

22(iv) As an alternative to clause (iii), the governing board of a
23school district shall specifically disclose whether all evaluation
24factors other than cost or price, when combined, are any of the
25following:

26(I) Significantly more important than cost or price.

27(II) Approximately equal in importance to cost or price.

28(III) Significantly less important than cost or price.

29(v) If the school district governing board wishes to reserve the
30right to hold discussions or negotiations with responsive bidders,
31it shall so specify in the request for proposal and shall publish
32separately or incorporate into the request for proposal applicable
33rules and procedures to be observed by the school district to ensure
34that any discussions or negotiations are conducted in a fair and
35impartial manner.

36(3) Notwithstanding Section 4-315 of Title 24 of the California
37Code of Regulations, an architect or structural engineer who is
38party to a design-build entity may perform the services set forth
39in Section 17302.

P56   1(b) (1) The school district shall establish a procedure to
2 prequalify design-build entities using a standard questionnaire
3developed by the Director of the Department of Industrial
4Relations. In preparing the questionnaire, the director shall consult
5with the construction industry, including representatives of the
6building trades, surety industry, school districts, and other affected
7parties. This questionnaire shall require information including, but
8not limited to, all of the following:

9(A) If the design-build entity is a partnership, limited
10partnership, or other association, a listing of all of the partners,
11general partners, or association members who will participate as
12subcontractors in the design-build contract, including, but not
13limited to, electrical and mechanical subcontractors.

14(B) Evidence that the members of the design-build entity have
15completed, or demonstrated, the experience, competency,
16capability, and capacity to complete projects of similar size, scope,
17or complexity, and that proposed key personnel have sufficient
18experience and training to competently manage and complete the
19design and construction of the project.

20(C) The licenses, registration, and credentials required to design
21and construct the project, including information on the revocation
22or suspension of a license, credential, or registration.

23(D) Evidence that establishes that the design-build entity has
24the capacity to obtain all required payment and performance
25bonding, liability insurance, and errors and omissions insurance,
26as well as a financial statement that ensures the school district that
27the design-build entity has the capacity to complete the project.

28(E) Any prior serious or willful violation of the California
29Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1973 (Part 1 (commencing
30with Section 6300) of Division 5 of the Labor Code) or the federal
31Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970 (P.L. 91-596), settled
32against a member of the design-build entity, and information
33concerning a contractor member’s workers’ compensation
34experience history and worker safety program.

35(F) Information concerning any debarment, disqualification, or
36removal from a federal, state, or local government public works
37project.

38(G) Any instance where an entity, its owners, officers, or
39managing employees, submitted a bid on a public works project
40and were found by an awarding body not to be a responsible bidder.

P57   1(H) Any instance where the entity, its owners, officers, or
2managing employees defaulted on a construction contract.

3(I) Any prior violations of the Contractors’ State License Law
4(Chapter 9 (commencing with Section 7000) of Division 3 of the
5Business and Professions Code), excluding alleged violations of
6federal or state law including the payment of wages, benefits,
7apprenticeship requirements, or personal income tax withholding,
8or of Federal Insurance Contribution Act (FICA) withholding
9requirements, settled against a member of the design-build entity.

10(J) Information concerning the bankruptcy or receivership of a
11member of the entity, including information concerning any work
12completed by a surety.

13(K) Information concerning all settled adverse claims, disputes,
14or lawsuits between the owner of a public works project and a
15member of the design-build entity during the five-year period
16preceding submission of the bid pursuant to this section, in which
17the claim, settlement, or judgment exceeds fifty thousand dollars
18($50,000). Information shall also be provided concerning any work
19completed by a surety during this period.

20(L) In the case of a partnership or other association that is not
21a legal entity, a copy of the agreement creating the partnership or
22association.

23(2) The information required pursuant to this subdivision shall
24be verified under oath by the design-build entity and its members
25in the manner in which civil pleadings in civil actions are verified.
26Information that is not a public record pursuant to the California
27Public Records Act (Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 6250)
28of Division 7 of Title 1 of the Government Code) shall not be open
29to public inspection.

30(c) The school district shall establish a procedure for final
31selection of the design-build entity. Selection shall be based on
32either of the following criteria:

33(1) A competitive bidding process resulting in lump-sum bids
34by the prequalified design-build entities. Award shall be made on
35the basis of the lowest responsible bid.

36(2) Notwithstanding any other provision of this code or of
37Section 20110 of the Public Contract Code, a school district may
38use a design-build competition based upon performance and other
39criteria set forth by the governing board of the school district in
40the solicitation of proposals. Criteria used in this evaluation of
P58   1proposals may include, but need not be limited to, the proposed
2design approach, life-cycle costs, project features, and project
3functions. However, competitive proposals shall be evaluated by
4using the criteria and source selection procedures specifically
5identified in the request for proposal. Once the evaluation is
6complete, all responsive bidders shall be ranked from the most
7advantageous to least advantageous to the school district.

8(A) An architectural or engineering firm or individual retained
9by the governing board of the school district to assist in the
10development criteria or preparation of the request for proposal
11shall not be eligible to participate in the competition with the
12design-build entity.

13(B) The award of the contract shall be made to the responsible
14bidder whose proposal is determined, in writing by the school
15district, to be the best value to the school district.

16(C) Proposals shall be evaluated and scored solely on the basis
17of the factors and source selection procedures identified in the
18request for proposal. However, the following minimum factors
19shall collectively represent at least 50 percent of the total weight
20or consideration given to all criteria factors: price, technical
21expertise, life-cycle costs over 15 years or more, skilled labor force
22availability, and acceptable safety record.

23(D) The school district governing board shall issue a written
24decision supporting its contract award and stating in detail the
25basis of the award. The decision and the contract file must be
26sufficient to satisfy an external audit.

27(E) Notwithstanding any provision of the Public Contract Code,
28upon issuance of a contract award, the school district governing
29board shall publicly announce its awards identifying the contractor
30to whom the award is made, the winning contractor’s price proposal
31and its overall combined rating on the request for proposal
32evaluation factors. The notice of award shall also include the
33agency’s ranking in relation to all other responsive bidders and
34their respective price proposals and a summary of the school
35district’s rationale for the contract award.

36(F) For purposes of this chapter, “skilled labor force availability”
37means that an agreement exists with a registered apprenticeship
38program, approved by the California Apprenticeship Council,
39which has graduated apprentices in the preceding five years. This
40graduation requirement shall not apply to programs providing
P59   1apprenticeship training for any craft that has not been deemed by
2the United States Department of Labor and the Department of
3Industrial Relations to be an apprenticable craft in the two years
4before enactment of this act.

5(G) For purposes of this chapter, a bidder’s “safety record” shall
6be deemed “acceptable” if its experience modification rate for the
7most recent three-year period is an average of 1.00 or less, and its
8average total recordable injury or illness rate and average lost work
9rate for the most recent three-year period do not exceed the
10applicable statistical standards for its business category, or if the
11bidder is a party to an alternative dispute resolution system as
12provided for in Section 3201.5 of the Labor Code.

13

SEC. 30.  

Section 18720 of the Education Code is amended to
14read:

15

18720.  

(a) There is hereby established in the state government
16the California Library Services Board, to consist of 13 members.
17The Governor shall appoint nine members of the board. Three of
18the Governor’s appointments shall be representative of laypersons,
19one of whom shall represent people with disabilities, one of whom
20shall represent limited- and non-English-speaking persons, and
21one of whom shall represent economically disadvantaged persons.

22(b) The Governor shall also appoint six members of the board,
23each of whom shall represent one of the following categories:
24school libraries, libraries for institutionalized persons, public library
25trustees or commissioners, public libraries, special libraries, and
26academic libraries.

27(c) The Legislature shall appoint the remaining four public
28members from persons who are not representative of categories
29mentioned in this section. Two shall be appointed by the Senate
30Committee on Rules and two shall be appointed by the Speaker
31of the Assembly.

32(d) The terms of office of members of the board shall be for
33four years and shall begin on January 1 of the year in which the
34respective terms are to start.

35(e) On January 1, 2013, the members of the board shall be those
36persons serving on the former Library of California Board,
37appointed pursuant to former Section 18820, as it existed on
38December 31, 2012, who shall serve for the duration of their terms.

P60   1

SEC. 31.  

Section 22138.5 of the Education Code, as added by
2Section 2 of Chapter 829 of the Statutes of 2012, is amended to
3read:

4

22138.5.  

(a) (1) “Full time” means the days or hours of
5creditable service the employer requires to be performed by a class
6of employees in a school year in order to earn the compensation
7earnable as defined in Section 22115 and specified under the terms
8of a collective bargaining agreement or employment agreement.
9For the purpose of crediting service under this part, “full time”
10may not be less than the minimum standard specified in this
11section. Each collective bargaining agreement or employment
12agreement that applies to a member subject to the minimum
13standard specified in either paragraph (5) or (6) of subdivision (c)
14shall specify the number of hours of creditable service that equals
15“full time” pursuant to this section for each class of employee
16subject to either paragraph and make specific reference to this
17 section, and the district shall submit a copy of the agreement to
18the system.

19(2) The copies of each agreement shall be submitted
20electronically in a format determined by the system that ensures
21the security of the transmitted member data.

22(3) The copies shall be electronically submitted annually to the
23system on or before July 1, or on or before the effective date of
24the agreement, whichever is later.

25(b) The minimum standard for full time in prekindergarten
26through grade 12 is as follows:

27(1) One hundred seventy-five days per year or 1,050 hours per
28year, except as provided in paragraphs (2) and (3).

29(2) (A)   One hundred ninety days per year or 1,520 hours per
30year for all principals and program managers, including advisers,
31coordinators, consultants, and developers or planners of curricula,
32instructional materials, or programs, and for administrators, except
33as provided in subparagraph (B).

34(B) Two hundred fifteen days per year or 1,720 hours per year
35including school and legal holidays pursuant to the policy adopted
36by the employer’s governing board for administrators at a county
37office of education.

38(3) One thousand fifty hours per year for teachers in adult
39education programs.

P61   1(c) The minimum standard for full time in community colleges
2is as follows:

3(1) One hundred seventy-five days per year or 1,050 hours per
4year, except as provided in paragraphs (2), (3), (4), (5), and (6).
5Full time includes time for duties the employer requires to be
6performed as part of the full-time assignment for a particular class
7of employees.

8(2) One hundred ninety days per year or 1,520 hours per year
9for all program managers and for administrators, except as provided
10in paragraph (3).

11(3) Two hundred fifteen days per year or 1,720 hours per year
12including school and legal holidays pursuant to the policy adopted
13by the employer’s governing board for administrators at a district
14office.

15(4) One hundred seventy-five days per year or 1,050 hours per
16year for all counselors and librarians.

17(5) Five hundred twenty-five instructional hours per school year
18for all instructors employed on a part-time basis, except instructors
19specified in paragraph (6). If an instructor receives compensation
20for office hours pursuant to Article 10 (commencing with Section
2187880) of Chapter 3 of Part 51 of Division 7 of Title 3, the
22minimum standard shall be increased appropriately by the number
23of office hours required annually for the class of employees.

24(6) Eight hundred seventy-five instructional hours per school
25year for all instructors employed in adult education programs. If
26an instructor receives compensation for office hours pursuant to
27Article 10 (commencing with Section 87880) of Chapter 3 of Part
2851 of Division 7 of Title 3, the minimum standard shall be
29increased appropriately by the number of office hours required
30annually for the class of employees.

31(d) The board has final authority to determine full time for
32purposes of crediting service under this part if full time is not
33otherwise specified in this section.

34(e) This section shall become operative on July 1, 2013.

35

SEC. 32.  

Section 33195 of the Education Code is amended to
36read:

37

33195.  

(a) Every person, firm, association, partnership, or
38corporation operating a heritage school as defined in Section
3933195.4 shall, between the 1st and 31st day of January of each
40year, commencing on January 1, 2011, file with the Superintendent
P62   1an electronic registration form, under penalty of perjury, by the
2owner or other head setting forth the following information for the
3current year:

4(1) All names, whether real or fictitious, of the person, firm,
5association, partnership, or corporation under which it has done
6and is doing business.

7(2) The address, including city and street, of the location at
8which the heritage school delivers services to pupils.

9(3) The names and addresses, including city and street, of the
10directors, if any, and principal officers of the person, firm,
11association, partnership, or corporation.

12(4) The school enrollment, by grade span, number of teachers,
13and coeducational or enrollment limited to boys or girls.

14(5) That the following records are maintained at the address
15stated, and are true and accurate:

16(A) The courses of study offered by the institution.

17(B) The names and addresses, including city and street, of its
18faculty, together with a record of the educational qualifications of
19each faculty member.

20(6) Criminal record summary information that has been obtained
21pursuant to Section 44237.

22(7) The heritage school telephone number.

23(8) Acknowledgment that the director of the heritage school
24and all employees are mandated reporters and subject to the
25requirements established by the Child Abuse and Neglect Reporting
26Act (Article 2.5 (commencing with Section 11164) of Chapter 2
27of Title 1 of Part 4 of the Penal Code) and, consistent with that
28act, certification that:

29(A) The employer is aware that it is encouraged to provide its
30employees with training in the duties imposed by the act.

31(B) Employees have signed a statement provided by the
32employer that the employees have knowledge of the act and will
33comply with its provisions.

34(C) Employees have been notified by the employer of their
35reporting obligations and confidentiality rights, pursuant to Section
3611165.9 of the Penal Code.

37(b) If two or more heritage schools are under the effective
38control or supervision of a single administrative unit, the
39administrative unit shall comply with the provisions of this section
P63   1by submitting an electronic registration form on behalf of every
2heritage school under its effective control or supervision.

3(c) Filing pursuant to this section shall not be interpreted to
4mean, and it shall be unlawful for a school to expressly or impliedly
5represent, that the State of California, the Superintendent, the state
6board, the department or a division or bureau of the department,
7or an accrediting agency has made an evaluation, recognition,
8approval, or endorsement of the school or course, unless this is an
9actual fact.

10(d) Filing pursuant to this section does not grant a heritage
11school a right to receive state funding.

12

SEC. 33.  

Section 35583 of the Education Code is amended to
13read:

14

35583.  

For purposes of paragraph (1) of subdivision (a) of
15Section 35735.1, the blended revenue limit per unit of average
16daily attendance for the Wiseburn Unified School District shall be
17calculated as follows:

18(a) Multiply the Wiseburn School District revenue limit per unit
19of average daily attendance for the 2012-13 fiscal year by nine.

20(b) Multiply the Centinela Valley Union High School District
21revenue limit per unit of average daily attendance for the 2012-13
22fiscal year by four.

23(c) Add the products determined pursuant to subdivisions (a)
24and (b).

25(d) Divide the sum determined pursuant to subdivision (c) by
2613. This amount shall be the blended revenue limit per unit of
27average daily attendance for the Wiseburn Unified School District.

28

SEC. 34.  

Section 38000 of the Education Code is amended to
29read:

30

38000.  

(a) The governing board of a school district may
31establish a security department under the supervision of a chief of
32security as designated by, and under the direction of, the
33superintendent of the school district. In accordance with Chapter
345 (commencing with Section 45100) of Part 25, the governing
35board of a school district may employ personnel to ensure the
36safety of school district personnel and pupils and the security of
37the real and personal property of the school district. It is the intent
38of the Legislature in enacting this section that a school district
39security department is supplementary to city and county law
40enforcement agencies and is not vested with general police powers.

P64   1(b) The governing board of a school district may establish a
2school police department under the supervision of a school chief
3of police and, in accordance with Chapter 5 (commencing with
4Section 45100) of Part 25, may employ peace officers, as defined
5in subdivision (b) of Section 830.32 of the Penal Code, to ensure
6the safety of school district personnel and pupils, and the security
7of the real and personal property of the school district.

8(c) The governing board of a school district that establishes a
9security department or a police department shall set minimum
10qualifications of employment for the chief of security or school
11chief of police, respectively, including, but not limited to, prior
12employment as a peace officer or completion of a peace officer
13training course approved by the Commission on Peace Officer
14Standards and Training. A chief of security or school chief of
15police shall comply with the prior employment or training
16requirement set forth in this subdivision as of January 1, 1993, or
17a date one year subsequent to the initial employment of the chief
18of security or school chief of police by the school district,
19whichever occurs later. This subdivision shall not be construed to
20require the employment by a school district of additional personnel.

21(d) A school district may assign a school police reserve officer
22who is deputized pursuant to Section 35021.5 to a schoolsite to
23supplement the duties of school police officers pursuant to this
24section.

25

SEC. 35.  

Section 41320.1 of the Education Code is amended
26to read:

27

41320.1.  

Acceptance by the school district of the
28apportionments made pursuant to Section 41320 constitutes the
29agreement by the school district to all of the following conditions:

30(a) The Superintendent shall appoint a trustee who has
31recognized expertise in management and finance and may employ,
32on a short-term basis, staff necessary to assist the trustee, including,
33but not limited to, certified public accountants, as follows:

34(1) The expenses incurred by the trustee and necessary staff
35shall be borne by the school district.

36(2) The Superintendent shall establish the terms and conditions
37of the employment, including the remuneration of the trustee. The
38trustee shall serve at the pleasure of, and report directly to, the
39Superintendent.

P65   1(3) The trustee, and necessary staff, shall serve until the school
2district has adequate fiscal systems and controls in place, the
3Superintendent has determined that the school district’s future
4compliance with the fiscal plan approved for the school district
5under Section 41320 is probable, and the Superintendent decides
6to terminate the trustee’s appointment, but in no event, for less
7than three years. The Superintendent shall notify the county
8superintendent of schools, the Legislature, the Department of
9Finance, and the Controller no less than 60 days before the time
10that the Superintendent expects these conditions to be met.

11(4) Before the school district repays the loan, including interest,
12the recipient of the loan shall select an auditor from a list
13established by the Superintendent and the Controller to conduct
14an audit of its fiscal systems. If the fiscal systems are deemed to
15be inadequate, the Superintendent may retain the trustee until the
16deficiencies are corrected. The cost of this audit and any additional
17cost of the trustee shall be borne by the school district.

18(5) Notwithstanding any other law, all reports submitted to the
19trustee are public records.

20(6) To facilitate the appointment of the trustee and the
21employment of necessary staff, for purposes of this section, the
22Superintendent is exempt from the requirements of Article 6
23(commencing with Section 999) of Chapter 6 of Division 4 of the
24Military and Veterans Code and Part 2 (commencing with Section
2510100) of Division 2 of the Public Contract Code.

26(7) Notwithstanding any other law, the Superintendent may
27appoint an employee of the department to act as trustee for up to
28the duration of the trusteeship. The salary and benefits of that
29employee shall be established by the Superintendent and paid by
30the school district. During the time of appointment, the employee
31is an employee of the school district, but shall remain in the same
32retirement system under the same plan as if the employee had
33remained in the department. Upon the expiration or termination
34of the appointment, the employee shall have the right to return to
35his or her former position, or to a position at substantially the same
36level as that position, with the department. The time served in the
37appointment shall be counted for all purposes as if the employee
38had served that time in his or her former position with the
39department.

P66   1(b) (1) The trustee appointed by the Superintendent shall
2monitor and review the operation of the school district. During the
3period of his or her service, the trustee may stay or rescind an
4action of the governing board of the school district that, in the
5judgment of the trustee, may affect the financial condition of the
6school district.

7(2) After the trustee’s period of service, and until the loan is
8repaid, the county superintendent of schools that has jurisdiction
9over the school district may stay or rescind an action of the
10governing board of the school district that, in his or her judgment,
11may affect the financial condition of the school district. The county
12superintendent of schools shall notify the Superintendent, within
13five business days, if he or she stays or rescinds an action of the
14governing board of the school district. The notice shall include,
15but not be limited to, both of the following:

16(A) A description of the governing board of the school district’s
17intended action and its financial implications.

18(B) The rationale and findings that support the county
19superintendent of school’s decision to stay or rescind the action
20of the governing board of the school district.

21(3) If the Superintendent is notified by the county superintendent
22of schools pursuant to paragraph (2), the Superintendent shall
23report to the Legislature, on or before December 30 of every year,
24whether the school district is complying with the fiscal plan
25approved for the school district.

26(4) The Superintendent may establish timelines and prescribe
27formats for reports and other materials to be used by the trustee to
28monitor and review the operations of the school district. The trustee
29shall approve or reject all reports and other materials required from
30the school district as a condition of receiving the apportionment.
31The Superintendent, upon the recommendation of the trustee, may
32reduce an apportionment to the school district in an amount up to
33two hundred dollars ($200) per day for each late or unacceptable
34report or other material required under this part, and shall report
35to the Legislature a failure of the school district to comply with
36the requirements of this section. If the Superintendent determines,
37at any time, that the fiscal plan approved for the school district
38under Section 41320 is unsatisfactory, he or she may modify the
39plan as necessary, and the school district shall comply with the
40plan as modified.

P67   1(c) At the request of the Superintendent, the Controller shall
2transfer to the department, from an apportionment to which the
3school district would otherwise have been entitled pursuant to
4Section 42238, the amount necessary to pay the expenses incurred
5by the trustee and associated costs incurred by the county
6superintendent of schools.

7(d) For the fiscal year in which the apportionments are disbursed
8and every year thereafter, the Controller, or his or her designee,
9shall cause an audit to be conducted of the books and accounts of
10the school district, in lieu of the audit required by Section 41020.
11At the Controller’s discretion, the audit may be conducted by the
12Controller, his or her designee, or an auditor selected by the school
13district and approved by the Controller. The costs of these audits
14shall be borne by the school district. These audits shall be required
15until the Controller determines, in consultation with the
16Superintendent, that the school district is financially solvent, but
17in no event earlier than one year following the implementation of
18the plan or later than the time the apportionment made is repaid,
19including interest. In addition, the Controller shall conduct quality
20control reviews pursuant to subdivision (c) of Section 14504.2.

21(e) For purposes of errors and omissions liability insurance
22policies, the trustee appointed pursuant to this section is an
23employee of the local educational agency to which he or she is
24assigned. For purposes of workers’ compensation benefits, the
25trustee is an employee of the local educational agency to which
26he or she is assigned, except that a trustee appointed pursuant to
27paragraph (7) of subdivision (a) is an employee of the department
28for those purposes.

29(f) Except for an individual appointed by the Superintendent as
30trustee pursuant to paragraph (7) of subdivision (a), the
31state-appointed trustee is a member of the State Teachers’
32Retirement System, if qualified, for the period of service as trustee,
33unless the trustee elects in writing not to become a member. A
34person who is a member or retirant of the State Teachers’
35Retirement System at the time of appointment shall continue to
36be a member or retirant of the system for the duration of the
37appointment. If the trustee chooses to become a member or is
38already a member, the trustee shall be placed on the payroll of the
39school district for the purpose of providing appropriate
40contributions to the system. The Superintendent may also require
P68   1that an individual appointed as trustee pursuant to paragraph (7)
2of subdivision (a) be placed on the payroll of the school district
3for purposes of remuneration, other benefits, and payroll
4deductions. For purposes of workers’ compensation benefits, the
5state-appointed trustee is deemed an employee of the local
6educational agency to which he or she is assigned, except that a
7trustee who is appointed pursuant to paragraph (7) of subdivision
8(a) is an employee of the department for those purposes.

9

SEC. 36.  

Section 41326 of the Education Code is amended to
10read:

11

41326.  

(a) Notwithstanding any other provision of this code,
12the acceptance by a school district of an apportionment made
13pursuant to Section 41320 that exceeds an amount equal to 200
14percent of the amount of the reserve recommended for that school
15district under the standards and criteria adopted pursuant to Section
1633127 constitutes the agreement by the school district to the
17conditions set forth in this article. Before applying for an
18emergency apportionment in the amount identified in this
19subdivision, the governing board of a school district shall discuss
20the need for that apportionment at a regular or special meeting of
21the governing board of the school district and, at that meeting,
22shall receive testimony regarding the apportionment from parents,
23exclusive representatives of employees of the school district, and
24other members of the community. For purposes of this article,
25“qualifying school district” means a school district that accepts a
26loan as described in this subdivision.

27(b) The Superintendent shall assume all the legal rights, duties,
28and powers of the governing board of a qualifying school district.
29The Superintendent, in consultation with the county superintendent
30of schools, shall appoint an administrator to act on his or her behalf
31in exercising the authority described in this subdivision in
32accordance with all of the following:

33(1) The administrator shall serve under the direction and
34supervision of the Superintendent until terminated by the
35Superintendent at his or her discretion. The Superintendent shall
36consult with the county superintendent of schools before
37terminating the administrator.

38(2) The administrator shall have recognized expertise in
39management and finance.

P69   1(3) To facilitate the appointment of the administrator and the
2employment of necessary staff, for purposes of this section, the
3Superintendent is exempt from the requirements of Article 6
4(commencing with Section 999) of Chapter 6 of Division 4 of the
5Military and Veterans Code and Part 2 (commencing with Section
610100) of Division 2 of the Public Contract Code.

7(4) Notwithstanding any other law, the Superintendent may
8appoint an employee of the state or the office of the county
9superintendent of schools to act as administrator for up to the
10duration of the administratorship. During the tenure of his or her
11appointment, the administrator, if he or she is an employee of the
12state or the office of the county superintendent of schools, is an
13employee of the qualifying school district, but shall remain in the
14same retirement system under the same plan that has been provided
15by his or her employment with the state or the office of the county
16superintendent of schools. Upon the expiration or termination of
17the appointment, the employee shall have the right to return to his
18or her former position, or to a position at substantially the same
19level as that position, with the state or the office of the county
20superintendent of schools. The time served in the appointment
21shall be counted for all purposes as if the administrator had served
22that time in his or her former position with the state or the office
23of the county superintendent of schools.

24(5) Except for an individual appointed as an administrator by
25the Superintendent pursuant to paragraph (4), the administrator
26shall be a member of the State Teachers’ Retirement System, if
27qualified, for the period of service as administrator, unless he or
28she elects in writing not to become a member. A person who is a
29member or retirant of the State Teachers’ Retirement System at
30the time of appointment shall continue to be a member or retirant
31of the system for the duration of the appointment. If the
32administrator chooses to become a member or is already a member,
33the administrator shall be placed on the payroll of the qualifying
34school district for purposes of providing appropriate contributions
35to the system. The Superintendent may also require the
36administrator to be placed on the payroll of the qualifying school
37district for purposes of remuneration, other benefits, and payroll
38deductions.

39(6) For purposes of workers’ compensation benefits, the
40administrator is an employee of the qualifying school district,
P70   1except that an administrator appointed pursuant to paragraph (4)
2may be deemed an employee of the state or office of the county
3superintendent of schools, as applicable.

4(7) The qualifying school district shall add the administrator as
5a covered employee of the qualifying school district for all purposes
6of errors and omissions liability insurance policies.

7(8) The salary and benefits of the administrator shall be
8established by the Superintendent and paid by the qualifying school
9district.

10(9) The Superintendent or the administrator may employ, on a
11short-term basis and at the expense of the qualifying school district,
12any staff necessary to assist the administrator, including, but not
13limited to, a certified public accountant.

14(10) The administrator may do all of the following:

15(A) Implement substantial changes in the fiscal policies and
16practices of the qualifying school district, including, if necessary,
17the filing of a petition under Chapter 9 (commencing with Section
18901) of Title 11 of the United States Code for the adjustment of
19indebtedness.

20(B) Revise the educational program of the qualifying school
21district to reflect realistic income projections and pupil performance
22relative to state standards.

23(C) Encourage all members of the school community to accept
24a fair share of the burden of the fiscal recovery of the qualifying
25school district.

26(D) Consult, for the purposes described in this subdivision, with
27the governing board of the qualifying school district, the exclusive
28representatives of the employees of the qualifying school district,
29parents, and the community.

30(E) Consult with, and seek recommendations from, the
31Superintendent, the county superintendent of schools, and the
32County Office Fiscal Crisis and Management Assistance Team
33authorized pursuant to subdivision (c) of Section 42127.8 for
34purposes described in this article.

35(F) With the approval of the Superintendent, enter into
36agreements on behalf of the qualifying school district and, subject
37to any contractual obligation of the qualifying school district,
38change existing school district rules, regulations, policies, or
39practices as necessary for the effective implementation of the
40recovery plans referred to in Sections 41327 and 41327.1.

P71   1(c) (1) Except as provided for in paragraph (2), the period of
2time during which the Superintendent exercises the authority
3described in subdivision (b), the governing board of the qualifying
4school district shall serve as an advisory body reporting to the
5state-appointed administrator, and has no rights, duties, or powers,
6and is not entitled to any stipend, benefits, or other compensation
7from the qualifying school district.

8(2) (A) After one complete fiscal year has elapsed following
9the qualifying school district’s acceptance of an emergency
10apportionment, the governing board of the qualifying school district
11may conduct an annual advisory evaluation of an administrator
12for the duration of the administratorship.

13(B) An advisory evaluation of an administrator shall focus on
14the administrator’s effectiveness in leading the qualifying school
15district toward fiscal recovery and improved academic
16achievement. Advisory evaluation criteria shall be agreed upon
17by the governing board of the qualifying school district and the
18administrator before the advisory evaluation. The advisory
19evaluation shall include, but not be limited to, all of the following:

20(i) Goals and standards consistent with Section 41327.1.

21(ii) Commendations in the areas of the administrator’s strengths
22and achievements.

23(iii) Recommendations for improving the administrator’s
24effectiveness in areas of concern and unsatisfactory performance.

25(C) An advisory evaluation of an administrator conducted by
26the governing board of a qualifying school district shall be
27submitted to the Governor, the Legislature, the Superintendent,
28and the County Office Fiscal Crisis and Management Assistance
29Team.

30(3) Upon the appointment of an administrator pursuant to this
31section, the district superintendent is no longer an employee of the
32qualifying school district.

33(4) A determination of the severance compensation for the
34district superintendent shall be made pursuant to subdivision (j).

35(d) Notwithstanding Section 35031 or any other law, the
36administrator, after according the affected employee reasonable
37notice and the opportunity for a hearing, may terminate the
38employment of a deputy, associate, assistant superintendent, or
39other school district level administrator who is employed by a
40qualifying school district under a contract of employment signed
P72   1or renewed after January 1, 1992, if the employee fails to
2document, to the satisfaction of the administrator, that before the
3date of the acceptance of the emergency apportionment he or she
4either advised the governing board of the qualifying school district,
5or his or her superior, that actions contemplated or taken by the
6governing board of the qualifying school district could result in
7the fiscal insolvency of the qualifying school district, or took other
8appropriate action to avert that fiscal insolvency.

9(e) The authority of the Superintendent, and the administrator,
10under this section shall continue until all of the following occur:

11(1) (A) After one complete fiscal year has elapsed following
12the qualifying school district’s acceptance of an emergency
13apportionment as described in subdivision (a), the administrator
14determines, and so notifies the Superintendent and the county
15superintendent of schools, that future compliance by the qualifying
16school district with the recovery plans approved pursuant to
17paragraph (2) is probable.

18(B) The Superintendent may return power to the governing
19board of the qualifying school district for an area listed in
20subdivision (a) of Section 41327.1 if performance under the
21recovery plan for that area has been demonstrated to the satisfaction
22of the Superintendent.

23(2) The Superintendent has approved all of the recovery plans
24referred to in subdivision (a) of Section 41327 and the County
25Office Fiscal Crisis and Management Assistance Team completes
26the improvement plans specified in Section 41327.1 and has
27completed a minimum of two reports identifying the qualifying
28school district’s progress in implementing the improvement plans.

29(3) The administrator certifies that all necessary collective
30bargaining agreements have been negotiated and ratified, and that
31the agreements are consistent with the terms of the recovery plans.

32(4) The qualifying school district has completed all reports
33required by the Superintendent and the administrator.

34(5) The Superintendent determines that future compliance by
35the qualifying school district with the recovery plans approved
36pursuant to paragraph (2) is probable.

37(f) When the conditions stated in subdivision (e) have been met,
38and at least 60 days after the Superintendent has notified the
39Legislature, the Department of Finance, the Controller, and the
40county superintendent of schools that he or she expects the
P73   1conditions prescribed pursuant to this section to be met, the
2governing board of the qualifying school district shall regain all
3of its legal rights, duties, and powers, except for the powers held
4by the trustee provided for pursuant to Article 2 (commencing with
5Section 41320). The Superintendent shall appoint a trustee under
6Section 41320.1 to monitor and review the operations of the
7qualifying school district until the conditions of subdivision (b)
8of that section have been met.

9(g) Notwithstanding subdivision (f), if the qualifying school
10district violates a provision of the recovery plans approved by the
11Superintendent pursuant to this article within five years after the
12trustee appointed pursuant to Section 41320.1 is removed or after
13the emergency apportionment is repaid, whichever occurs later,
14or the improvement plans specified in Section 41327.1 during the
15period of the trustee’s appointment, the Superintendent may
16reassume, either directly or through an administrator appointed in
17accordance with this section, all of the legal rights, duties, and
18powers of the governing board of the qualifying school district.
19The Superintendent shall return to the governing board of the
20qualifying school district all of its legal rights, duties, and powers
21reassumed under this subdivision when he or she determines that
22future compliance with the approved recovery plans is probable,
23or after a period of one year, whichever occurs later.

24(h) Article 2 (commencing with Section 41320) shall apply
25except as otherwise specified in this article.

26(i) It is the intent of the Legislature that the legislative budget
27subcommittees annually conduct a review of each qualifying school
28district that includes an evaluation of the financial condition of the
29qualifying school district, the impact of the recovery plans upon
30the qualifying school district’s educational program, and the efforts
31made by the state-appointed administrator to obtain input from the
32community and the governing board of the qualifying school
33district.

34(j) (1) The district superintendent is entitled to a due process
35hearing for purposes of determining final compensation. The final
36compensation of the district superintendent shall be between zero
37and six times his or her monthly salary. The outcome of the due
38process hearing shall be reported to the Superintendent and the
39public. The information provided to the public shall explain the
40rationale for the compensation.

P74   1(2) This subdivision applies only to a contract for employment
2negotiated on or after June 21, 2004.

3(k) (1) When the Superintendent assumes control over a
4qualifying school district pursuant to subdivision (b), he or she
5shall, in consultation with the County Office Fiscal Crisis and
6Management Assistance Team, review the fiscal oversight of the
7qualifying school district by the county superintendent of schools.
8The Superintendent may consult with other fiscal experts, including
9other county superintendents of schools and regional fiscal teams,
10in conducting this review.

11(2) Within three months of assuming control over a qualifying
12school district, the Superintendent shall report his or her findings
13to the Legislature and shall provide a copy of that report to the
14Department of Finance. This report shall include findings as to
15fiscal oversight actions that were or were not taken and may include
16recommendations as to an appropriate legislative response to
17improve fiscal oversight.

18(3) If, after performing the duties described in paragraphs (1)
19and (2), the Superintendent determines that the county
20superintendent of schools failed to carry out his or her
21responsibilities for fiscal oversight as required by this code, the
22Superintendent may exercise the authority of the county
23superintendent of schools who has oversight responsibilities for a
24qualifying school district. If the Superintendent finds, based on
25the report required in paragraph (2), that the county superintendent
26of schools failed to appropriately take into account particular types
27of indicators of financial distress, or failed to take appropriate
28remedial actions in the qualifying school district, the
29Superintendent shall further investigate whether the county
30superintendent of schools failed to take into account those
31indicators, or similarly failed to take appropriate actions in other
32school districts with negative or qualified certifications, and shall
33provide an additional report on the fiscal oversight practices of the
34county superintendent of schools to the appropriate policy and
35fiscal committees of each house of the Legislature and the
36Department of Finance.

37

SEC. 37.  

Section 47660 of the Education Code is amended to
38read:

39

47660.  

(a) For purposes of computing eligibility for, and
40entitlements to, general purpose funding and operational funding
P75   1for categorical programs, the enrollment and average daily
2attendance of a sponsoring local educational agency shall exclude
3the enrollment and attendance of pupils in its charter schools
4funded pursuant to this chapter.

5(b) (1) Notwithstanding subdivision (a), and commencing with
6the 2005-06 fiscal year, for purposes of computing eligibility for,
7and entitlements to, revenue limit funding, the average daily
8attendance of a unified school district, other than a unified school
9district that has converted all of its schools to charter status
10pursuant to Section 47606, shall include all attendance of pupils
11who reside in the unified school district and who would otherwise
12have been eligible to attend a noncharter school of the school
13district, if the school district was a basic aid school district in the
14prior fiscal year, or if the pupils reside in the unified school district
15and attended a charter school of that school district that converted
16to charter status on or after July 1, 2005. Only the attendance of
17the pupils described by this paragraph shall be included in the
18calculation made pursuant to paragraph (7) of subdivision (h) of
19Section 42238.

20(2) Notwithstanding subdivision (a), for the 2005-06 fiscal year
21only, for purposes of computing eligibility for, and entitlements
22to, revenue limit funding, the average daily attendance of a unified
23school district, other than a unified school district that has
24converted all of its schools to charter status pursuant to Section
2547606 and is operating them as charter schools, shall include all
26attendance of pupils who reside in the unified school district and
27who would otherwise have been eligible to attend a noncharter
28school of the unified school district if the pupils attended a charter
29school operating in the unified school district prior to July 1, 2005.
30Only the attendance of pupils described by this paragraph shall be
31included in the calculation made pursuant to Section 42241.3. The
32attendance of the pupils described by this paragraph shall be
33included in the calculation made pursuant to paragraph (7) of
34subdivision (h) of Section 42238.

35(c) (1) For the attendance of pupils specified in subdivision (b),
36the general-purpose entitlement for a charter school that is
37established through the conversion of an existing public school
38within a unified school district on or after July 1, 2005, but before
39January 1, 2010, shall be determined using the following amount
40of general-purpose funding per unit of average daily attendance,
P76   1in lieu of the amount calculated pursuant to subdivision (a) of
2Section 47633:

3(A) The amount of the actual unrestricted revenues expended
4per unit of average daily attendance for that school in the year
5prior to its conversion to, and operation as, a charter school,
6adjusted for the base revenue limit per pupil inflation increase
7adjustment set forth in Section 42238.1, if this adjustment is
8provided, and also adjusted for equalization, deficit reduction, and
9other state general-purpose increases, if any, provided for the
10unified school district in the year of conversion to, and operation
11as a charter school.

12(B) For a subsequent fiscal year, the general-purpose entitlement
13shall be determined based on the amount per unit of average daily
14attendance allocated in the prior fiscal year adjusted for the base
15revenue limit per pupil inflation increase adjustment set forth in
16Section 42238.1, if this adjustment is provided, and also adjusted
17for equalization, deficit reduction, and other state general-purpose
18increases, if any, provided for the unified school district in that
19fiscal year.

20(2) This subdivision shall not apply to a charter school that is
21established through the conversion of an existing public school
22within a unified school district on or after January 1, 2010, which
23instead shall receive general-purpose funding pursuant to Section
2447633. This paragraph does not preclude a charter school or unified
25school district from agreeing to an alternative funding formula.

26(d) Commencing with the 2005-06 fiscal year, the
27general-purpose funding per unit of average daily attendance
28specified for a unified school district for purposes of paragraph
29(7) of subdivision (h) of Section 42238 for a school within the
30unified school district that converted to charter status on or after
31July 1, 2005, shall be deemed to be the amount computed pursuant
32to subdivision (c).

33(e) A unified school district that is the sponsoring local
34educational agency, as defined in subdivision (j) of Section 47632,
35of a charter school that is subject to paragraphs (1) and (2) of
36subdivision (c) shall certify to the Superintendent the amount
37specified in paragraph (1) of subdivision (c) prior to the approval
38of the charter petition by the governing board of the school district.
39This amount may be based on estimates of the unrestricted revenues
40expended in the fiscal year prior to the school’s conversion to
P77   1charter status and the school’s operation as a charter school,
2provided that the amount is recertified when the actual data
3becomes available.

4(f) For the purposes of this section, “basic aid school district”
5means a school district that does not receive from the state an
6 apportionment of state funds pursuant to subdivision (h) of Section
742238.

8(g) A school district may use the existing Standardized Account
9Code Structure and cost allocation methods, if appropriate, for an
10accounting of the actual unrestricted revenues expended in support
11of a school pursuant to subdivision (c).

12(h) For purposes of this section and Section 42241.3, “operating”
13means that pupils are attending and receiving instruction at the
14charter school.

15

SEC. 38.  

Section 48853 of the Education Code is amended to
16read:

17

48853.  

(a) A pupil described in subdivision (a) of Section
1848853.5 who is placed in a licensed children’s institution or foster
19family home shall attend programs operated by the local
20educational agency, unless one of the following applies:

21(1) The pupil is entitled to remain in his or her school of origin
22pursuant to paragraph (1) of subdivision (d) of Section 48853.5.

23(2) The pupil has an individualized education program requiring
24placement in a nonpublic, nonsectarian school or agency, or in
25another local educational agency.

26(3) The parent or guardian, or other person holding the right to
27make educational decisions for the pupil pursuant to Section 361
28or 726 of the Welfare and Institutions Code or Section 56055,
29determines that it is in the best interests of the pupil to be placed
30in another educational program, in which case the parent or
31guardian or other person holding the right to make educational
32decisions for the pupil shall provide a written statement that he or
33she has made that determination to the local educational agency.
34This statement shall include a declaration that the parent, guardian,
35or other person holding the right to make educational decisions
36for the pupil is aware of all of the following:

37(A) The pupil has a right to attend a regular public school in the
38least restrictive environment.

39(B) The alternate education program is a special education
40program, if applicable.

P78   1(C) The decision to unilaterally remove the pupil from the
2 regular public school and to place the pupil in an alternate
3education program may not be financed by the local educational
4agency.

5(D) Any attempt to seek reimbursement for the alternate
6education program may be at the expense of the parent, guardian,
7or other person holding the right to make educational decisions
8for the pupil.

9(b) For purposes of ensuring a parent, guardian, or other person
10holding the right to make educational decisions for the pupil is
11aware of the information described in subparagraphs (A) to (D),
12inclusive, of paragraph (3) of subdivision (a), the local educational
13agency may provide him or her with that information in writing.

14(c) Before any decision is made to place a pupil in a juvenile
15court school as defined by Section 48645.1, a community school
16as described in Sections 1981 and 48660, or other alternative
17educational setting, the parent or guardian, or person holding the
18right to make educational decisions for the pupil pursuant to
19Section 361 or 726 of the Welfare and Institutions Code or Section
2056055, shall first consider placement in the regular public school.

21(d) If any dispute arises as to the school placement of a pupil
22subject to this section, the pupil has the right to remain in his or
23her school of origin, as defined in subdivision (e) of Section
2448853.5, pending resolution of the dispute. The dispute shall be
25resolved in accordance with the existing dispute resolution process
26available to any pupil served by the local educational agency.

27(e) This section does not supersede other laws that govern pupil
28expulsion.

29(f) This section does not supersede any other law governing the
30educational placement in a juvenile court school, as defined by
31Section 48645.1, of a pupil detained in a county juvenile hall, or
32committed to a county juvenile ranch, camp, forestry camp, or
33regional facility.

34(g) Foster children living in emergency shelters, as referenced
35in the federal McKinney-Vento Homeless Assistance Act (42
36U.S.C. Sec. 11301 et seq.), may receive educational services at
37the emergency shelter as necessary for short periods of time for
38either of the following reasons:

39(1) For health and safety emergencies.

P79   1(2) To provide temporary, special, and supplementary services
2to meet the child’s unique needs if a decision regarding whether
3it is in the child’s best interests to attend the school of origin cannot
4be made promptly, it is not practical to transport the child to the
5school of origin, and the child would otherwise not receive
6educational services.

7The educational services may be provided at the shelter pending
8a determination by the person holding the right regarding the
9educational placement of the child.

10(h) All educational and school placement decisions shall be
11made to ensure that the child is placed in the least restrictive
12educational programs and has access to academic resources,
13services, and extracurricular and enrichment activities that are
14available to all pupils. In all instances, educational and school
15placement decisions shall be based on the best interests of the
16child.

17

SEC. 39.  

Section 48853.5 of the Education Code is amended
18to read:

19

48853.5.  

(a) This section applies to a foster child. “Foster
20child” means a child who has been removed from his or her home
21pursuant to Section 309 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, is
22the subject of a petition filed under Section 300 or 602 of the
23Welfare and Institutions Code, or has been removed from his or
24her home and is the subject of a petition filed under Section 300
25or 602 of the Welfare and Institutions Code.

26(b) Each local educational agency shall designate a staff person
27as the educational liaison for foster children. In a school district
28that operates a foster children services program pursuant to Chapter
2911.3 (commencing with Section 42920) of Part 24 of Division 3,
30the educational liaison shall be affiliated with the local foster
31children services program. The educational liaison shall do all of
32the following:

33(1) Ensure and facilitate the proper educational placement,
34enrollment in school, and checkout from school of foster children.

35(2) Assist foster children when transferring from one school to
36another school or from one school district to another school district
37in ensuring proper transfer of credits, records, and grades.

38(c) If so designated by the superintendent of the local educational
39agency, the educational liaison shall notify a foster child’s attorney
40and the appropriate representative of the county child welfare
P80   1agency of pending expulsion proceedings if the decision to
2recommend expulsion is a discretionary act, pending proceedings
3to extend a suspension until an expulsion decision is rendered if
4the decision to recommend expulsion is a discretionary act, and,
5if the foster child is an individual with exceptional needs, pending
6manifestation determinations pursuant to Section 1415(k) of Title
720 of the United States Code if the local educational agency has
8proposed a change in placement due to an act for which the
9decision to recommend expulsion is at the discretion of the
10principal or the district superintendent of schools.

11(d) This section does not grant authority to the educational
12liaison that supersedes the authority granted under state and federal
13law to a parent or legal guardian retaining educational rights, a
14responsible adult appointed by the court to represent the child
15pursuant to Section 361 or 726 of the Welfare and Institutions
16Code, a surrogate parent, or a foster parent exercising the authority
17granted under Section 56055. The role of the educational liaison
18is advisory with respect to placement decisions and determination
19of the school of origin.

20(e) (1) At the initial detention or placement, or any subsequent
21change in placement of a foster child, the local educational agency
22serving the foster child shall allow the foster child to continue his
23or her education in the school of origin for the duration of the
24jurisdiction of the court.

25(2) If the jurisdiction of the court is terminated before the end
26of an academic year, the local educational agency shall allow a
27former foster child who is in kindergarten or any of grades 1 to 8,
28inclusive, to continue his or her education in the school of origin
29through the duration of the academic school year.

30(3) (A) If the jurisdiction of the court is terminated while a
31foster child is in high school, the local educational agency shall
32allow the former foster child to continue his or her education in
33the school of origin through graduation.

34(B) For purposes of this paragraph, a school district is not
35required to provide transportation to a former foster child who has
36an individualized education program that does not require
37transportation as a related service and who changes residence but
38remains in his or her school of origin pursuant to this paragraph,
39unless the individualized education program team determines that
40transportation is a necessary related service.

P81   1(4) To ensure that the foster child has the benefit of matriculating
2with his or her peers in accordance with the established feeder
3patterns of school districts, if the foster child is transitioning
4between school grade levels, the local educational agency shall
5allow the foster child to continue in the school district of origin in
6the same attendance area, or, if the foster child is transitioning to
7a middle school or high school, and the school designated for
8matriculation is in another school district, to the school designated
9for matriculation in that school district.

10(5) Paragraphs (2), (3), and (4) do not require a school district
11to provide transportation services to allow a foster child to attend
12a school or school district, unless otherwise required under federal
13law. This paragraph does not prohibit a school district from, at its
14discretion, providing transportation services to allow a foster child
15to attend a school or school district.

16(6) The educational liaison, in consultation with, and with the
17agreement of, the foster child and the person holding the right to
18make educational decisions for the foster child, may recommend,
19in accordance with the foster child’s best interests, that the foster
20child’s right to attend the school of origin be waived and the foster
21child be enrolled in a public school that pupils living in the
22attendance area in which the foster child resides are eligible to
23attend.

24(7) Before making a recommendation to move a foster child
25from his or her school of origin, the educational liaison shall
26provide the foster child and the person holding the right to make
27educational decisions for the foster child with a written explanation
28stating the basis for the recommendation and how the
29recommendation serves the foster child’s best interest.

30(8) (A) If the educational liaison, in consultation with the foster
31child and the person holding the right to make educational decisions
32for the foster child, agrees that the best interests of the foster child
33would best be served by his or her transfer to a school other than
34the school of origin, the foster child shall immediately be enrolled
35in the new school.

36(B) The new school shall immediately enroll the foster child
37even if the foster child has outstanding fees, fines, textbooks, or
38other items or moneys due to the school last attended or is unable
39to produce clothing or records normally required for enrollment,
40such as previous academic records, medical records, including,
P82   1but not limited to, records or other proof of immunization history
2pursuant to Chapter 1 (commencing with Section 120325) of Part
32 of Division 105 of the Health and Safety Code, proof of
4residency, other documentation, or school uniforms.

5(C) Within two business days of the foster child’s request for
6enrollment, the educational liaison for the new school shall contact
7the school last attended by the foster child to obtain all academic
8and other records. The last school attended by the foster child shall
9provide all required records to the new school regardless of any
10outstanding fees, fines, textbooks, or other items or moneys owed
11to the school last attended. The educational liaison for the school
12last attended shall provide all records to the new school within two
13business days of receiving the request.

14(9) If a dispute arises regarding the request of a foster child to
15remain in the school of origin, the foster child has the right to
16remain in the school of origin pending resolution of the dispute.
17The dispute shall be resolved in accordance with the existing
18dispute resolution process available to a pupil served by the local
19educational agency.

20(10) The local educational agency and the county placing agency
21are encouraged to collaborate to ensure maximum use of available
22federal moneys, explore public-private partnerships, and access
23any other funding sources to promote the well-being of foster
24children through educational stability.

25(11) It is the intent of the Legislature that this subdivision shall
26not supersede or exceed other laws governing special education
27services for eligible foster children.

28(f) For purposes of this section, “school of origin” means the
29school that the foster child attended when permanently housed or
30the school in which the foster child was last enrolled. If the school
31the foster child attended when permanently housed is different
32from the school in which the foster child was last enrolled, or if
33there is some other school that the foster child attended with which
34the foster child is connected and that the foster child attended
35within the immediately preceding 15 months, the educational
36liaison, in consultation with, and with the agreement of, the foster
37child and the person holding the right to make educational decisions
38for the foster child, shall determine, in the best interests of the
39foster child, the school that shall be deemed the school of origin.

P83   1(g) This section does not supersede other law governing the
2educational placements in juvenile court schools, as described in
3Section 48645.1, by the juvenile court under Section 602 of the
4Welfare and Institutions Code.

5

SEC. 40.  

Section 48900 of the Education Code is amended to
6read:

7

48900.  

A pupil shall not be suspended from school or
8recommended for expulsion, unless the superintendent of the school
9district or the principal of the school in which the pupil is enrolled
10determines that the pupil has committed an act as defined pursuant
11to any of subdivisions (a) to (r), inclusive:

12(a) (1) Caused, attempted to cause, or threatened to cause
13physical injury to another person.

14(2) Willfully used force or violence upon the person of another,
15except in self-defense.

16(b) Possessed, sold, or otherwise furnished a firearm, knife,
17explosive, or other dangerous object, unless, in the case of
18possession of an object of this type, the pupil had obtained written
19permission to possess the item from a certificated school employee,
20which is concurred in by the principal or the designee of the
21principal.

22(c) Unlawfully possessed, used, sold, or otherwise furnished,
23or been under the influence of, a controlled substance listed in
24Chapter 2 (commencing with Section 11053) of Division 10 of the
25Health and Safety Code, an alcoholic beverage, or an intoxicant
26of any kind.

27(d) Unlawfully offered, arranged, or negotiated to sell a
28controlled substance listed in Chapter 2 (commencing with Section
2911053) of Division 10 of the Health and Safety Code, an alcoholic
30beverage, or an intoxicant of any kind, and either sold, delivered,
31or otherwise furnished to a person another liquid, substance, or
32material and represented the liquid, substance, or material as a
33controlled substance, alcoholic beverage, or intoxicant.

34(e) Committed or attempted to commit robbery or extortion.

35(f) Caused or attempted to cause damage to school property or
36private property.

37(g) Stole or attempted to steal school property or private
38property.

39(h) Possessed or used tobacco, or products containing tobacco
40or nicotine products, including, but not limited to, cigarettes, cigars,
P84   1miniature cigars, clove cigarettes, smokeless tobacco, snuff, chew
2packets, and betel. However, this section does not prohibit use or
3possession by a pupil of his or her own prescription products.

4(i) Committed an obscene act or engaged in habitual profanity
5or vulgarity.

6(j) Unlawfully possessed or unlawfully offered, arranged, or
7negotiated to sell drug paraphernalia, as defined in Section 11014.5
8of the Health and Safety Code.

9(k) Disrupted school activities or otherwise willfully defied the
10valid authority of supervisors, teachers, administrators, school
11officials, or other school personnel engaged in the performance of
12their duties.

13(l) Knowingly received stolen school property or private
14property.

15(m) Possessed an imitation firearm. As used in this section,
16“imitation firearm” means a replica of a firearm that is so
17substantially similar in physical properties to an existing firearm
18as to lead a reasonable person to conclude that the replica is a
19firearm.

20(n) Committed or attempted to commit a sexual assault as
21defined in Section 261, 266c, 286, 288, 288a, or 289 of the Penal
22Code or committed a sexual battery as defined in Section 243.4
23of the Penal Code.

24(o) Harassed, threatened, or intimidated a pupil who is a
25complaining witness or a witness in a school disciplinary
26proceeding for purposes of either preventing that pupil from being
27a witness or retaliating against that pupil for being a witness, or
28both.

29(p) Unlawfully offered, arranged to sell, negotiated to sell, or
30sold the prescription drug Soma.

31(q) Engaged in, or attempted to engage in, hazing. For purposes
32of this subdivision, “hazing” means a method of initiation or
33preinitiation into a pupil organization or body, whether or not the
34pupil organization or body is officially recognized by an
35educational institution, which is likely to cause serious bodily
36injury or personal degradation or disgrace resulting in physical or
37mental harm to a former, current, or prospective pupil. For purposes
38of this subdivision, “hazing” does not include athletic events or
39school-sanctioned events.

P85   1(r) Engaged in an act of bullying. For purposes of this
2subdivision, the following terms have the following meanings:

3(1)  “Bullying” means any severe or pervasive physical or verbal
4act or conduct, including communications made in writing or by
5means of an electronic act, and including one or more acts
6committed by a pupil or group of pupils as defined in Section
748900.2, 48900.3, or 48900.4, directed toward one or more pupils
8that have or can be reasonably predicted to have the effect of one
9or more of the following:

10(A) Placing a reasonable pupil or pupils in fear of harm to that
11pupil’s or those pupils’ person or property.

12(B) Causing a reasonable pupil to experience a substantially
13detrimental effect on his or her physical or mental health.

14(C) Causing a reasonable pupil to experience substantial
15interference with his or her academic performance.

16(D) Causing a reasonable pupil to experience substantial
17interference with his or her ability to participate in or benefit from
18the services, activities, or privileges provided by a school.

19(2) (A) “Electronic act” means the transmission, by means of
20an electronic device, including, but not limited to, a telephone,
21wireless telephone, or other wireless communication device,
22computer, or pager, of a communication, including, but not limited
23to, any of the following:

24(i) A message, text, sound, or image.

25(ii) A post on a social network Internet Web site, including, but
26not limited to:

27(I) Posting to or creating a burn page. “Burn page” means an
28Internet Web site created for the purpose of having one or more
29of the effects listed in paragraph (1).

30(II) Creating a credible impersonation of another actual pupil
31for the purpose of having one or more of the effects listed in
32paragraph (1). “Credible impersonation” means to knowingly and
33without consent impersonate a pupil for the purpose of bullying
34the pupil and such that another pupil would reasonably believe, or
35has reasonably believed, that the pupil was or is the pupil who was
36impersonated.

37(III) Creating a false profile for the purpose of having one or
38more of the effects listed in paragraph (1). “False profile” means
39a profile of a fictitious pupil or a profile using the likeness or
P86   1attributes of an actual pupil other than the pupil who created the
2false profile.

3(B) Notwithstanding paragraph (1) and subparagraph (A), an
4electronic act shall not constitute pervasive conduct solely on the
5basis that it has been transmitted on the Internet or is currently
6posted on the Internet.

7(3) “Reasonable pupil” means a pupil, including, but not limited
8to, an exceptional needs pupil, who exercises average care, skill,
9and judgment in conduct for a person of his or her age, or for a
10person of his or her age with his or her exceptional needs.

11(s) A pupil shall not be suspended or expelled for any of the
12acts enumerated in this section unless the act is related to a school
13activity or school attendance occurring within a school under the
14jurisdiction of the superintendent of the school district or principal
15or occurring within any other school district. A pupil may be
16suspended or expelled for acts that are enumerated in this section
17and related to a school activity or school attendance that occur at
18any time, including, but not limited to, any of the following:

19(1) While on school grounds.

20(2) While going to or coming from school.

21(3) During the lunch period whether on or off the campus.

22(4) During, or while going to or coming from, a
23school-sponsored activity.

24(t) A pupil who aids or abets, as defined in Section 31 of the
25Penal Code, the infliction or attempted infliction of physical injury
26to another person may be subject to suspension, but not expulsion,
27pursuant to this section, except that a pupil who has been adjudged
28by a juvenile court to have committed, as an aider and abettor, a
29crime of physical violence in which the victim suffered great bodily
30injury or serious bodily injury shall be subject to discipline pursuant
31to subdivision (a).

32(u) As used in this section, “school property” includes, but is
33not limited to, electronic files and databases.

34(v) For a pupil subject to discipline under this section, a
35superintendent of the school district or principal may use his or
36her discretion to provide alternatives to suspension or expulsion
37that are age appropriate and designed to address and correct the
38pupil’s specific misbehavior as specified in Section 48900.5.

P87   1(w) It is the intent of the Legislature that alternatives to
2suspension or expulsion be imposed against a pupil who is truant,
3tardy, or otherwise absent from school activities.

4

SEC. 41.  

Section 48902 of the Education Code is amended to
5read:

6

48902.  

(a) The principal of a school or the principal’s designee
7shall, before the suspension or expulsion of any pupil, notify the
8appropriate law enforcement authorities of the county or city in
9which the school is situated, of any acts of the pupil that may
10violate Section 245 of the Penal Code.

11(b) The principal of a school or the principal’s designee shall,
12within one schoolday after suspension or expulsion of any pupil,
13notify, by telephone or any other appropriate method chosen by
14the school, the appropriate law enforcement authorities of the
15county or the school district in which the school is situated of any
16acts of the pupil that may violate subdivision (c) or (d) of Section
1748900.

18(c) Notwithstanding subdivision (b), the principal of a school
19or the principal’s designee shall notify the appropriate law
20enforcement authorities of the county or city in which the school
21is located of any acts of a pupil that may involve the possession
22or sale of narcotics or of a controlled substance or a violation of
23Section 626.9 or 626.10 of the Penal Code. The principal of a
24school or the principal’s designee shall report any act specified in
25paragraph (1) or (5) of subdivision (c) of Section 48915 committed
26by a pupil or nonpupil on a schoolsite to the city police or county
27sheriff with jurisdiction over the school and the school security
28department or the school police department, as applicable.

29(d) A principal, the principal’s designee, or any other person
30reporting a known or suspected act described in subdivision (a) or
31(b) is not civilly or criminally liable as a result of making any
32report authorized by this article unless it can be proven that a false
33report was made and that the person knew the report was false or
34the report was made with reckless disregard for the truth or falsity
35of the report.

36(e) The principal of a school or the principal’s designee reporting
37a criminal act committed by a schoolage individual with
38exceptional needs, as defined in Section 56026, shall ensure that
39copies of the special education and disciplinary records of the pupil
40are transmitted, as described in Section 1415(k)(6) of Title 20 of
P88   1the United States Code, for consideration by the appropriate
2authorities to whom he or she reports the criminal act. Any copies
3of the pupil’s special education and disciplinary records may be
4transmitted only to the extent permissible under the federal Family
5Educational Rights and Privacy Act of 1974 (20 U.S.C. Sec. 1232g
6et seq.).

7

SEC. 42.  

Section 48911 of the Education Code is amended to
8read:

9

48911.  

(a) The principal of the school, the principal’s designee,
10or the district superintendent of schools may suspend a pupil from
11the school for any of the reasons enumerated in Section 48900,
12and pursuant to Section 48900.5, for no more than five consecutive
13schooldays.

14(b) Suspension by the principal, the principal’s designee, or the
15district superintendent of schools shall be preceded by an informal
16conference conducted by the principal, the principal’s designee,
17or the district superintendent of schools between the pupil and,
18whenever practicable, the teacher, supervisor, or school employee
19who referred the pupil to the principal, the principal’s designee,
20or the district superintendent of schools. At the conference, the
21pupil shall be informed of the reason for the disciplinary action
22and the evidence against him or her, and shall be given the
23opportunity to present his or her version and evidence in his or her
24defense.

25(c) A principal, the principal’s designee, or the district
26superintendent of schools may suspend a pupil without affording
27the pupil an opportunity for a conference only if the principal, the
28principal’s designee, or the district superintendent of schools
29determines that an emergency situation exists. “Emergency
30situation,” as used in this article, means a situation determined by
31the principal, the principal’s designee, or the district superintendent
32of schools to constitute a clear and present danger to the life, safety,
33or health of pupils or school personnel. If a pupil is suspended
34without a conference before suspension, both the parent and the
35pupil shall be notified of the pupil’s right to a conference and the
36pupil’s right to return to school for the purpose of a conference.
37The conference shall be held within two schooldays, unless the
38pupil waives this right or is physically unable to attend for any
39reason, including, but not limited to, incarceration or
P89   1hospitalization. The conference shall then be held as soon as the
2pupil is physically able to return to school for the conference.

3(d) At the time of suspension, a school employee shall make a
4reasonable effort to contact the pupil’s parent or guardian in person
5or by telephone. If a pupil is suspended from school, the parent or
6guardian shall be notified in writing of the suspension.

7(e) A school employee shall report the suspension of the pupil,
8including the cause for the suspension, to the governing board of
9the school district or to the district superintendent of schools in
10accordance with the regulations of the governing board of the
11school district.

12(f) The parent or guardian of a pupil shall respond without delay
13to a request from school officials to attend a conference regarding
14his or her child’s behavior.

15No penalties shall be imposed on a pupil for failure of the pupil’s
16parent or guardian to attend a conference with school officials.
17Reinstatement of the suspended pupil shall not be contingent upon
18attendance by the pupil’s parent or guardian at the conference.

19(g) In a case where expulsion from a school or suspension for
20the balance of the semester from continuation school is being
21processed by the governing board of the school district, the district
22superintendent of schools or other person designated by the district
23superintendent of schools in writing may extend the suspension
24until the governing board of the school district has rendered a
25decision in the action. However, an extension may be granted only
26if the district superintendent of schools or the district
27superintendent’s designee has determined, following a meeting in
28which the pupil and the pupil’s parent or guardian are invited to
29participate, that the presence of the pupil at the school or in an
30alternative school placement would cause a danger to persons or
31property or a threat of disrupting the instructional process. If the
32pupil is a foster child, as defined in Section 48853.5, the district
33superintendent of schools or the district superintendent’s designee,
34including, but not limited to, the educational liaison for the school
35district, shall also invite the pupil’s attorney and an appropriate
36representative of the county child welfare agency to participate in
37the meeting. If the pupil or the pupil’s parent or guardian has
38requested a meeting to challenge the original suspension pursuant
39to Section 48914, the purpose of the meeting shall be to decide
40upon the extension of the suspension order under this section and
P90   1 may be held in conjunction with the initial meeting on the merits
2of the suspension.

3(h) For purposes of this section, a “principal’s designee” is one
4or more administrators at the schoolsite specifically designated by
5the principal, in writing, to assist with disciplinary procedures.

6In the event that there is not an administrator in addition to the
7principal at the schoolsite, a certificated person at the schoolsite
8may be specifically designated by the principal, in writing, as a
9“principal’s designee,” to assist with disciplinary procedures. The
10principal may designate only one person at a time as the principal’s
11primary designee for the school year.

12An additional person meeting the requirements of this
13subdivision may be designated by the principal, in writing, to act
14for purposes of this article when both the principal and the
15principal’s primary designee are absent from the schoolsite. The
16name of the person, and the names of any person or persons
17designated as “principal’s designee,” shall be on file in the
18principal’s office.

19This section is not an exception to, nor does it place any
20limitation on, Section 48903.

21

SEC. 43.  

Section 49076 of the Education Code is amended to
22read:

23

49076.  

(a) A school district shall not permit access to pupil
24records to a person without written parental consent or under
25judicial order except as set forth in this section and as permitted
26by Part 99 (commencing with Section 99.1) of Title 34 of the Code
27of Federal Regulations.

28(1) Access to those particular records relevant to the legitimate
29educational interests of the requester shall be permitted to the
30following:

31(A) School officials and employees of the school district,
32members of a school attendance review board appointed pursuant
33to Section 48321 who are authorized representatives of the school
34district, and any volunteer aide, 18 years of age or older, who has
35been investigated, selected, and trained by a school attendance
36review board for the purpose of providing followup services to
37pupils referred to the school attendance review board, provided
38that the person has a legitimate educational interest to inspect a
39record.

P91   1(B) Officials and employees of other public schools or school
2systems, including local, county, or state correctional facilities
3where educational programs leading to high school graduation are
4provided or where the pupil intends to or is directed to enroll,
5subject to the rights of parents as provided in Section 49068.

6(C) Authorized representatives of the Comptroller General of
7the United States, the Secretary of Education, and state and local
8educational authorities, or the United States Department of
9Education’s Office for Civil Rights, if the information is necessary
10to audit or evaluate a state or federally supported education
11program, or in connection with the enforcement of, or compliance
12with, the federal legal requirements that relate to such a program.
13Records released pursuant to this subparagraph shall comply with
14the requirements of Section 99.35 of Title 34 of the Code of Federal
15Regulations.

16(D) Other state and local officials to the extent that information
17is specifically required to be reported pursuant to state law adopted
18before November 19, 1974.

19(E) Parents of a pupil 18 years of age or older who is a
20dependent as defined in Section 152 of Title 26 of the United States
21Code.

22(F) A pupil 16 years of age or older or having completed the
2310th grade who requests access.

24(G) A district attorney who is participating in or conducting a
25truancy mediation program pursuant to Section 48263.5, or Section
26601.3 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, or participating in the
27presentation of evidence in a truancy petition pursuant to Section
28681 of the Welfare and Institutions Code.

29(H) A district attorney’s office for consideration against a parent
30or guardian for failure to comply with the Compulsory Education
31Law (Chapter 2 (commencing with Section 48200)) or with
32Compulsory Continuation Education (Chapter 3 (commencing
33with Section 48400)).

34(I) (i) A probation officer, district attorney, or counsel of record
35for a minor for purposes of conducting a criminal investigation or
36an investigation in regards to declaring a person a ward of the court
37or involving a violation of a condition of probation.

38(ii) For purposes of this subparagraph, a probation officer,
39district attorney, and counsel of record for a minor shall be deemed
P92   1to be local officials for purposes of Section 99.31(a)(5)(i) of Title
234 of the Code of Federal Regulations.

3(iii) Pupil records obtained pursuant to this subparagraph shall
4be subject to the evidentiary rules described in Section 701 of the
5Welfare and Institutions Code.

6(J) A judge or probation officer for the purpose of conducting
7a truancy mediation program for a pupil, or for purposes of
8presenting evidence in a truancy petition pursuant to Section 681
9of the Welfare and Institutions Code. The judge or probation officer
10shall certify in writing to the school district that the information
11will be used only for truancy purposes. A school district releasing
12pupil information to a judge or probation officer pursuant to this
13subparagraph shall inform, or provide written notification to, the
14parent or guardian of the pupil within 24 hours of the release of
15the information.

16(K) A county placing agency when acting as an authorized
17representative of a state or local educational agency pursuant to
18subparagraph (C). School districts, county offices of education,
19and county placing agencies may develop cooperative agreements
20to facilitate confidential access to and exchange of the pupil
21information by email, facsimile, electronic format, or other secure
22means, provided the agreement complies with the requirements
23set forth in Section 99.35 of Title 34 of the Code of Federal
24Regulations.

25(2) School districts may release information from pupil records
26to the following:

27(A) Appropriate persons in connection with an emergency if
28the knowledge of the information is necessary to protect the health
29or safety of a pupil or other persons. Schools or school districts
30releasing information pursuant to this subparagraph shall comply
31with the requirements set forth in Section 99.31(a)(5) of Title 34
32of the Code of Federal Regulations.

33(B) Agencies or organizations in connection with the application
34of a pupil for, or receipt of, financial aid. However, information
35permitting the personal identification of a pupil or his or her parents
36may be disclosed only as may be necessary for purposes as to
37determine the eligibility of the pupil for financial aid, to determine
38the amount of the financial aid, to determine the conditions which
39will be imposed regarding the financial aid, or to enforce the terms
40or conditions of the financial aid.

P93   1(C) Pursuant to Section 99.37 of Title 34 of the Code of Federal
2Regulations, a county elections official, for the purpose of
3identifying pupils eligible to register to vote, or for conducting
4programs to offer pupils an opportunity to register to vote. The
5information shall not be used for any other purpose or given or
6transferred to any other person or agency.

7(D) Accrediting associations in order to carry out their
8accrediting functions.

9(E) Organizations conducting studies for, or on behalf of,
10educational agencies or institutions for the purpose of developing,
11validating, or administering predictive tests, administering student
12aid programs, and improving instruction, if the studies are
13conducted in a manner that will not permit the personal
14identification of pupils or their parents by persons other than
15representatives of the organizations, the information will be
16destroyed when no longer needed for the purpose for which it is
17obtained, and the organization enters into a written agreement with
18the educational agency or institution that complies with Section
1999.31(a)(6) of Title 34 of the Code of Federal Regulations.

20(F) Officials and employees of private schools or school systems
21where the pupil is enrolled or intends to enroll, subject to the rights
22of parents as provided in Section 49068 and in compliance with
23the requirements in Section 99.34 of Title 34 of the Code of Federal
24Regulations. This information shall be in addition to the pupil’s
25permanent record transferred pursuant to Section 49068.

26(G) (i) A contractor or consultant with a legitimate educational
27interest who has a formal written agreement or contract with the
28school district regarding the provision of outsourced institutional
29services or functions by the contractor or consultant.

30(ii) Notwithstanding Section 99.31(a)(1)(i)(B) of Title 34 of the
31Code of Federal Regulations, a disclosure pursuant to this
32subparagraph shall not be permitted to a volunteer or other party.

33(3) A person, persons, agency, or organization permitted access
34to pupil records pursuant to this section shall not permit access to
35any information obtained from those records by another person,
36persons, agency, or organization, except for allowable exceptions
37contained within the federal Family Educational Rights and Privacy
38Act of 2001 (20 U.S.C. Sec. 1232g) and state law, without the
39written consent of the pupil’s parent. This paragraph does not
40require prior parental consent when information obtained pursuant
P94   1to this section is shared with other persons within the educational
2institution, agency, or organization obtaining access, so long as
3those persons have a legitimate educational interest in the
4information pursuant to Section 99.31(a)(1) of Title 34 of the Code
5of Federal Regulations.

6(4) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, a school district,
7including a county office of education or county superintendent
8of schools, may participate in an interagency data information
9system that permits access to a computerized database system
10within and between governmental agencies or school districts as
11to information or records that are nonprivileged, and where release
12is authorized as to the requesting agency under state or federal law
13or regulation, if each of the following requirements are met:

14(A) Each agency and school district shall develop security
15procedures or devices by which unauthorized personnel cannot
16access data contained in the system.

17(B) Each agency and school district shall develop procedures
18or devices to secure privileged or confidential data from
19unauthorized disclosure.

20(C) Each school district shall comply with the access log
21requirements of Section 49064.

22(D) The right of access granted shall not include the right to
23add, delete, or alter data without the written permission of the
24agency holding the data.

25(E) An agency or school district shall not make public or
26otherwise release information on an individual contained in the
27database if the information is protected from disclosure or release
28as to the requesting agency by state or federal law or regulation.

29(b) The officials and authorities to whom pupil records are
30disclosed pursuant to subdivision (e) of Section 48902 and
31subparagraph (I) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (a) shall certify
32in writing to the disclosing school district that the information
33shall not be disclosed to another party, except as provided under
34the federal Family Educational Rights and Privacy Act of 2001
35(20 U.S.C. Sec. 1232g) and state law, without the prior written
36consent of the parent of the pupil or the person identified as the
37holder of the pupil’s educational rights.

38(c) (1) Any person or party who is not permitted access to pupil
39records pursuant to subdivision (a) or (b) may request access to
40pupil records as provided for in paragraph (2).

P95   1(2) A local educational agency or other person or party who has
2received pupil records, or information from pupil records, may
3release the records or information to a person or party identified
4in paragraph (1) without the consent of the pupil’s parent or
5guardian pursuant to Section 99.31(b) of Title 34 of the Code of
6Federal Regulations, if the records or information are deidentified,
7which requires the removal of all personally identifiable
8 information, provided that the disclosing local educational agency
9or other person or party has made a reasonable determination that
10a pupil’s identity is not personally identifiable, whether through
11single or multiple releases, and has taken into account other
12pertinent reasonably available information.

13

SEC. 44.  

Section 49548 of the Education Code is amended to
14read:

15

49548.  

(a) The state board, in order to effect compliance with
16legislative findings expressed in Section 49547, shall restrict the
17criteria for the issuance of waivers from the requirements of Section
1849550 to feed children during a summer school session. A waiver
19shall be granted for a period not to exceed one year if either of the
20following conditions exists:

21(1) (A) A summer school session serving pupils enrolled in
22elementary school, as defined in clause (iii), shall be granted a
23waiver if a Summer Food Service Program for Children site is
24available within one-half mile of the schoolsite and either of the
25following conditions exists:

26(i) The hours of operation of the Summer Food Service Program
27for Children site commence no later than one-half hour after the
28completion of the summer school session day.

29(ii) The hours of operation of the Summer Food Service Program
30for Children site conclude no earlier than one hour after the
31completion of the summer school session day.

32(iii) For purposes of this subdivision, “elementary school” means
33a public school that maintains kindergarten or any of grades 1 to
348, inclusive.

35(B) A summer school session serving pupils enrolled in middle
36school, junior high school, or high school shall be granted a waiver
37if a Summer Food Service Program for Children site is available
38within one mile of the schoolsite and either of the following
39conditions exists:

P96   1(i) The hours of operation of the Summer Food Service Program
2for Children site commence no later than one-half hour after the
3completion of the summer school session day.

4(ii) The hours of operation of the Summer Food Service Program
5for Children site conclude no earlier than one hour after the
6completion of the summer school session day.

7(2) (A) Serving meals during the summer school session would
8result in a financial loss to the school district, documented in a
9financial analysis performed by the school district, in an amount
10equal to one-third of net cash resources, as defined in Section 210.2
11of Part 210 of Title 7 of the Code of Federal Regulations, which,
12for purposes of this article, shall exclude funds that are
13encumbered. If there are no net cash resources, an amount equal
14to the operating costs of one month as averaged over the summer
15school sessions.

16(B) The financial analysis required by subparagraph (A) shall
17include a projection of future meal program participation based
18on either of the following:

19(i) Commencement of a meal service period after the
20commencement of the summer school session day and conclusion
21of a meal service period before the completion of the summer
22school session day.

23(ii) Operation of a schoolsite as an open Summer Seamless
24Option or a Summer Food Service Program for Children site, and
25providing adequate notification thereof, including flyers and
26banners, in order to fulfill community needs under the Summer
27Food Service Program for Children (7 C.F.R. 225.14(d)(3)).

28(3) The entire summer school day is two hours or less in
29duration.

30(b) The state board and the Superintendent shall provide
31leadership to encourage and support schools and public agencies
32to participate in the Summer Food Service Program for Children,
33consistent with the intent of Section 49504.

34(c) An application for a waiver shall be submitted no later than
3560 days before the last regular meeting of the state board before
36the commencement of the summer school session for which the
37waiver is sought.

38

SEC. 45.  

Section 52052 of the Education Code is amended to
39read:

P97   1

52052.  

(a) (1) The Superintendent, with approval of the state
2board, shall develop an Academic Performance Index (API) to
3measure the performance of schools, especially the academic
4performance of pupils.

5(2) A school shall demonstrate comparable improvement in
6academic achievement as measured by the API by all numerically
7significant pupil subgroups at the school, including:

8(A) Ethnic subgroups.

9(B) Socioeconomically disadvantaged pupils.

10(C) English learners.

11(D) Pupils with disabilities.

12(3) (A) For purposes of this section, a numerically significant
13pupil subgroup is one that meets both of the following criteria:

14(i) The subgroup consists of at least 50 pupils, each of whom
15has a valid test score.

16(ii) The subgroup constitutes at least 15 percent of the total
17population of pupils at a school who have valid test scores.

18(B) If a subgroup does not constitute 15 percent of the total
19population of pupils at a school who have valid test scores, the
20subgroup may constitute a numerically significant pupil subgroup
21if it has at least 100 valid test scores.

22(C) For a school with an API score that is based on no fewer
23than 11 and no more than 99 pupils with valid test scores,
24numerically significant pupil subgroups shall be defined by the
25Superintendent, with approval by the state board.

26(4) (A) The API shall consist of a variety of indicators currently
27reported to the department, including, but not limited to, the results
28of the achievement test administered pursuant to Section 60640,
29attendance rates for pupils in elementary schools, middle schools,
30and secondary schools, and the graduation rates for pupils in
31secondary schools.

32(B) The Superintendent, with the approval of the state board,
33may also incorporate into the API the rates at which pupils
34successfully promote from one grade to the next in middle school
35and high school, and successfully matriculate from middle school
36to high school.

37(C) Graduation rates for pupils in secondary schools shall be
38 calculated for the API as follows:

39(i) Four-year graduation rates shall be calculated by taking the
40number of pupils who graduated on time for the current school
P98   1year, which is considered to be three school years after the pupils
2entered grade 9 for the first time, and dividing that number by the
3total calculated in clause (ii).

4(ii) The number of pupils entering grade 9 for the first time in
5the school year three school years before the current school year,
6plus the number of pupils who transferred into the class graduating
7at the end of the current school year between the school year that
8was three school years before the current school year and the date
9of graduation, less the number of pupils who transferred out of the
10school between the school year that was three school years before
11the current school year and the date of graduation who were
12members of the class that is graduating at the end of the current
13school year.

14(iii) Five-year graduation rates shall be calculated by taking the
15number of pupils who graduated on time for the current school
16year, which is considered to be four school years after the pupils
17entered grade 9 for the first time, and dividing that number by the
18total calculated in clause (iv).

19(iv) The number of pupils entering grade 9 for the first time in
20the school year four years before the current school year, plus the
21number of pupils who transferred into the class graduating at the
22end of the current school year between the school year that was
23four school years before the current school year and the date of
24graduation, less the number of pupils who transferred out of the
25school between the school year that was four years before the
26current school year and the date of graduation who were members
27of the class that is graduating at the end of the current school year.

28(v) Six-year graduation rates shall be calculated by taking the
29number of pupils who graduated on time for the current school
30year, which is considered to be five school years after the pupils
31entered grade 9 for the first time, and dividing that number by the
32total calculated in clause (vi).

33(vi) The number of pupils entering grade 9 for the first time in
34the school year five years before the current school year, plus the
35number of pupils who transferred into the class graduating at the
36end of the current school year between the school year that was
37five school years before the current school year and the date of
38graduation, less the number of pupils who transferred out of the
39school between the school year that was five years before the
P99   1current school year and the date of graduation who were members
2of the class that is graduating at the end of the current school year.

3(D) The inclusion of five- and six-year graduation rates for
4pupils in secondary schools shall meet the following requirements:

5(i) Schools shall be granted one-half the credit in their API
6scores for graduating pupils in five years that they are granted for
7graduating pupils in four years.

8(ii) Schools shall be granted one-quarter the credit in their API
9scores for graduating pupils in six years that they are granted for
10graduating pupils in four years.

11(iii) Notwithstanding clauses (i) and (ii), schools shall be granted
12full credit in their API scores for graduating in five or six years a
13pupil with disabilities who graduates in accordance with his or her
14individualized education program.

15(E) The pupil data collected for the API that comes from the
16achievement test administered pursuant to Section 60640 and the
17high school exit examination administered pursuant to Section
1860851, when fully implemented, shall be disaggregated by special
19education status, English learners, socioeconomic status, gender,
20and ethnic group. Only the test scores of pupils who were counted
21as part of the enrollment in the annual data collection of the
22California Basic Educational Data System for the current fiscal
23year and who were continuously enrolled during that year may be
24included in the test result reports in the API score of the school.

25(F) (i) Commencing with the baseline API calculation in 2016,
26and for each year thereafter, results of the achievement test and
27other tests specified in subdivision (b) shall constitute no more
28than 60 percent of the value of the index for secondary schools.

29(ii)  In addition to the elements required by this paragraph, the
30Superintendent, with approval of the state board, may incorporate
31into the index for secondary schools valid, reliable, and stable
32measures of pupil preparedness for postsecondary education and
33career.

34(G) Results of the achievement test and other tests specified in
35subdivision (b) shall constitute at least 60 percent of the value of
36the index for primary schools and middle schools.

37(H) It is the intent of the Legislature that the state’s system of
38public school accountability be more closely aligned with both the
39public’s expectations for public education and the workforce needs
40of the state’s economy. It is therefore necessary that the
P100  1accountability system evolve beyond its narrow focus on pupil test
2scores to encompass other valuable information about school
3performance, including, but not limited to, pupil preparedness for
4college and career, as well as the high school graduation rates
5already required by law.

6(I) The Superintendent shall annually determine the accuracy
7of the graduation rate data. Notwithstanding any other law,
8graduation rates for pupils in dropout recovery high schools shall
9not be included in the API. For purposes of this subparagraph,
10“dropout recovery high school” means a high school in which 50
11percent or more of its pupils have been designated as dropouts
12pursuant to the exit/withdrawal codes developed by the department
13or left a school and were not otherwise enrolled in a school for a
14period of at least 180 days.

15(J) To complement the API, the Superintendent, with the
16approval of the state board, may develop and implement a program
17of school quality review that features locally convened panels to
18visit schools, observe teachers, interview pupils, and examine pupil
19work, if an appropriation for this purpose is made in the annual
20Budget Act.

21(K) The Superintendent shall annually provide to local
22educational agencies and the public a transparent and
23understandable explanation of the individual components of the
24API and their relative values within the API.

25(L) An additional element chosen by the Superintendent and
26the state board for inclusion in the API pursuant to this paragraph
27shall not be incorporated into the API until at least one full school
28year after the state board’s decision to include the element into the
29API.

30(b) Pupil scores from the following tests, when available and
31when found to be valid and reliable for this purpose, shall be
32 incorporated into the API:

33(1) The standards-based achievement tests provided for in
34Section 60642.5.

35(2) The high school exit examination.

36(c) Based on the API, the Superintendent shall develop, and the
37state board shall adopt, expected annual percentage growth targets
38for all schools based on their API baseline score from the previous
39year. Schools are expected to meet these growth targets through
40effective allocation of available resources. For schools below the
P101  1statewide API performance target adopted by the state board
2pursuant to subdivision (d), the minimum annual percentage growth
3target shall be 5 percent of the difference between the actual API
4score of a school and the statewide API performance target, or one
5API point, whichever is greater. Schools at or above the statewide
6API performance target shall have, as their growth target,
7maintenance of their API score above the statewide API
8performance target. However, the state board may set differential
9growth targets based on grade level of instruction and may set
10higher growth targets for the lowest performing schools because
11they have the greatest room for improvement. To meet its growth
12target, a school shall demonstrate that the annual growth in its API
13is equal to or more than its schoolwide annual percentage growth
14target and that all numerically significant pupil subgroups, as
15defined in subdivision (a), are making comparable improvement.

16(d) Upon adoption of state performance standards by the state
17board, the Superintendent shall recommend, and the state board
18shall adopt, a statewide API performance target that includes
19consideration of performance standards and represents the
20proficiency level required to meet the state performance target.
21When the API is fully developed, schools, at a minimum, shall
22meet their annual API growth targets to be eligible for the
23Governor’s Performance Award Program as set forth in Section
2452057. The state board may establish additional criteria that schools
25must meet to be eligible for the Governor’s Performance Award
26Program.

27(e) (1) A school with 11 to 99 pupils with valid test scores shall
28receive an API score with an asterisk that indicates less statistical
29certainty than API scores based on 100 or more test scores.

30(2) A school annually shall receive an API score, unless the
31Superintendent determines that an API score would be an invalid
32measure of the performance of the school for one or more of the
33following reasons:

34(A) Irregularities in testing procedures occurred.

35(B) The data used to calculate the API score of the school are
36not representative of the pupil population at the school.

37(C) Significant demographic changes in the pupil population
38render year-to-year comparisons of pupil performance invalid.

39(D) The department discovers or receives information indicating
40that the integrity of the API score has been compromised.

P102  1(E) Insufficient pupil participation in the assessments included
2in the API.

3(3) If a school has fewer than 100 pupils with valid test scores,
4the calculation of the API or adequate yearly progress pursuant to
5the federal No Child Left Behind Act of 2001 (20 U.S.C. Sec. 6301
6et seq.) and federal regulations may be calculated over more than
7one annual administration of the tests administered pursuant to
8Section 60640 and the high school exit examination administered
9pursuant to Section 60851, consistent with regulations adopted by
10the state board.

11(f) Only schools with 100 or more test scores contributing to
12the API may be included in the API rankings.

13(g) The Superintendent, with the approval of the state board,
14shall develop an alternative accountability system for schools under
15the jurisdiction of a county board of education or a county
16superintendent of schools, community day schools, nonpublic,
17nonsectarian schools pursuant to Section 56366, and alternative
18schools serving high-risk pupils, including continuation high
19schools and opportunity schools. Schools in the alternative
20accountability system may receive an API score, but shall not be
21included in the API rankings.

22

SEC. 46.  

Section 60200.8 of the Education Code is amended
23to read:

24

60200.8.  

(a) Notwithstanding Section 60200.7, the state board
25may consider the adoption of a revised curriculum framework and
26evaluation criteria for instructional materials in history-social
27science.

28(b) The department shall conduct work necessary to revise the
29curriculum framework and evaluation criteria for instructional
30materials in history-social science only after it has completed work
31related to the development of curriculum frameworks for the
32common core academic content standards pursuant to Section
3360207.

34

SEC. 47.  

Section 60209 of the Education Code is amended to
35read:

36

60209.  

For purposes of conducting an adoption of basic
37instructional materials for mathematics pursuant to Section 60207,
38all of the following shall apply:

39(a) The department shall provide notice, pursuant to subdivision
40(b), to all publishers or manufacturers known to produce basic
P103  1instructional materials in that subject, post an appropriate notice
2on the Internet Web site of the department, and take other
3reasonable measures to ensure that appropriate notice is widely
4circulated to potentially interested publishers and manufacturers.

5(b) The notice shall specify that each publisher or manufacturer
6choosing to participate in the adoption shall be assessed a fee based
7on the number of programs the publisher or manufacturer indicates
8will be submitted for review and the number of grade levels
9proposed to be covered by each program.

10(c) The fee assessed pursuant to subdivision (d) shall be in an
11amount that does not exceed the reasonable costs to the department
12in conducting the adoption process. The department shall take
13reasonable steps to limit costs of the adoption and to keep the fee
14modest.

15(d) The department, before incurring substantial costs for the
16adoption, shall require that a publisher or manufacturer that wishes
17to participate in the adoption first declare the intent to submit one
18or more specific programs for adoption and specify the specific
19grade levels to be covered by each program.

20(1) After a publisher or manufacturer declares the intent to
21submit one or more programs and the grade levels to be covered
22by each program, the department shall assess a fee that shall be
23payable by the publisher or manufacturer even if the publisher or
24manufacturer subsequently chooses to withdraw a program or
25reduce the number of grade levels covered.

26(2) A submission by a publisher or manufacturer shall not be
27reviewed for purposes of adoption until the fee assessed has been
28paid in full.

29(e) (1) Upon the request of a small publisher or small
30manufacturer, the state board may reduce the fee for participation
31in the adoption.

32(2) For purposes of this section, “small publisher” and “small
33manufacturer” mean an independently owned or operated publisher
34or manufacturer that is not dominant in its field of operation and
35that, together with its affiliates, has 100 or fewer employees, and
36has average annual gross receipts of ten million dollars
37($10,000,000) or less over the previous three years.

38(f) If the department determines that there is little or no interest
39in participating in an adoption by publishers and manufacturers,
40the department shall recommend to the state board whether or not
P104  1the adoption shall be conducted, and the state board may choose
2not to conduct the adoption.

3(g) Revenue derived from fees assessed pursuant to subdivision
4(d) shall be budgeted as reimbursements and subject to review
5through the annual budget process, and may be used to pay for
6costs associated with any adoption and for any costs associated
7with the review of instructional materials, including reimbursement
8of substitute costs for teacher reviewers and may be used to cover
9stipends for content review experts.

10

SEC. 48.  

Section 60605.87 of the Education Code is amended
11to read:

12

60605.87.  

(a) The department shall recommend, and the state
13board shall approve, evaluation criteria to guide the development
14and review of supplemental instructional materials for English
15learners.

16(b) Notwithstanding any other law, and on a one-time basis, the
17department, on or before March 1, 2014, shall develop a list of
18supplemental instructional materials for beginning through
19advanced levels of proficiency for use in kindergarten and grades
201 to 8, inclusive, that are aligned with the revised English language
21development standards adopted pursuant to Section 60811.3. The
22supplemental instructional materials shall provide a bridge between
23the current English language development standards and the revised
24English language development standards pursuant to Section
25 60811.3 with the purpose of ensuring the supplemental instructional
26materials address the unique features of the English language
27development standards and remain consistent with the relevant
28elements of the evaluation criteria for English language arts
29supplemental instructional materials adopted pursuant to Section
3060605.86.

31(c) (1) The department shall recommend, and the state board
32shall approve, content review experts to review, in an open and
33transparent process, supplemental instructional materials submitted
34for approval in the subject area of English language development.

35(2) The majority of content review experts approved pursuant
36to paragraph (1) shall be elementary and secondary schoolteachers
37who are credentialed in English language arts, possess the
38appropriate state English learner authorization, and have five years
39of classroom experience instructing English learners. The content
40review experts also shall include appropriate persons possessing
P105  1English learner expertise from postsecondary educational
2institutions and school and school district curriculum administrators
3possessing English learner expertise, and other persons who are
4knowledgeable in English language arts and English language
5development.

6(d) (1) On or before June 30, 2014, the state board shall do the
7following:

8(A) Approve all, or a portion, of the list of supplemental
9instructional materials proposed by the department, taking into
10consideration the review of the content review experts and any
11other relevant information, as appropriate.

12(B) Reject all, or a portion, of the list of supplemental
13instructional materials proposed by the department, taking into
14 consideration the review of the content review experts and any
15other relevant information, as appropriate.

16(2) If the state board rejects all, or a portion, of the list of
17supplemental instructional materials proposed by the department,
18or adds an item to the list, the state board, in a public meeting held
19pursuant to the Bagley-Keene Open Meeting Act (Article 9
20(commencing with Section 11120) of Chapter 1 of Part 1 of
21Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code), shall provide
22written reasons for the removal or addition of an item on the list.
23The state board shall not approve a supplemental instructional
24material it adds to the list at the same time it provides its written
25reason for adding the material; instead, the state board shall
26approve the added material at a subsequent public meeting.

27(e) (1) The governing board of a school district and a county
28 board of education may approve supplemental instructional
29materials other than those approved by the state board pursuant to
30subdivision (d) if the governing board of a school district or county
31board of education determines that other supplemental instructional
32materials are aligned with the revised English language
33development standards adopted pursuant to Section 60811.3 and
34meet the needs of pupils of the district who are English learners.
35The governing board of a school district or the county board of
36education may only approve supplemental instructional materials
37that comply with all of the following:

38(A) The evaluation criteria approved pursuant to subdivision
39(a).

40(B) Section 60226.

P106  1(C) Subdivision (h).

2(D) Article 4 (commencing with Section 60060) of Chapter 1.

3(2) (A) A supplemental instructional material approved by a
4governing board of a school district or county board of education
5pursuant to this subdivision that is in the subject area of English
6language development shall be reviewed by content review experts
7chosen by the governing board.

8(B) The majority of the content review experts chosen pursuant
9to subparagraph (A) shall be elementary and secondary
10schoolteachers who are credentialed in English language arts,
11possess the appropriate state English learner authorization, and
12have five years of classroom experience instructing English
13learners.

14(C) The content review experts also shall include appropriate
15persons possessing English learner expertise from postsecondary
16educational institutions and school and school district curriculum
17administrators possessing English learner expertise, and other
18persons who are knowledgeable in English language arts and
19English language development.

20(f) Publishers choosing to submit supplemental instructional
21materials for approval by the state board shall submit standards
22maps.

23(g) (1) Before approving supplemental instructional materials
24pursuant to this section, the state board shall review those
25instructional materials for academic content, social content, and
26instructional support to teachers and pupils. Supplemental
27instructional materials approved by the state board pursuant to this
28section shall meet required program criteria for grade-level
29programs and shall include materials for use by teachers.

30(2) Before approving supplemental instructional materials
31pursuant to this section, the governing board of a school district
32or county board of education shall review those instructional
33materials for academic content and instructional support to teachers
34and pupils who are English learners. Supplemental instructional
35materials approved by the governing board of a school district or
36county board of education pursuant to this section shall meet
37required program criteria for grade-level programs and shall include
38materials for use by teachers.

P107  1(h) Supplemental instructional materials approved pursuant to
2this section shall comply with the social content review
3requirements pursuant to Section 60050.

4(i) The department shall maintain on its Internet Web site the
5list of supplemental instructional materials approved by the state
6board pursuant to subdivision (d).

7(j) This section shall become inoperative on July 1, 2014, and,
8as of July 1, 2015, is repealed, unless a later enacted statute, that
9becomes operative on or before July 1, 2015, deletes or extends
10the dates on which it becomes inoperative and is repealed.

11

SEC. 49.  

Section 60852.1 of the Education Code is amended
12to read:

13

60852.1.  

(a) The Superintendent shall recommend, and the
14state board shall select, members of a panel that shall convene to
15make recommendations regarding alternative means for eligible
16pupils with disabilities to demonstrate that they have achieved the
17same level of academic achievement in the content standards in
18English language arts or mathematics, or both, required for passage
19of the high school exit examination.

20(1) The panel shall be composed of educators and other
21individuals who have experience with the population of pupils
22with disabilities eligible for alternative means of demonstrating
23academic achievement, as defined in Section 60852.2, and
24educators and other individuals who have expertise with multiple
25forms of assessment. The panel shall consult with experts in other
26states that offer alternative means for pupils with disabilities to
27demonstrate academic achievement. A majority of the panel shall
28be classroom teachers.

29(2) The panel shall make findings and recommendations
30regarding all of the following:

31(A) Specific options for alternative assessments, submission of
32evidence, or other alternative means by which eligible pupils with
33disabilities may demonstrate that they have achieved the same
34level of academic achievement in the content standards in English
35language arts or mathematics, or both, required for passage of the
36high school exit examination.

37(B) Scoring or other evaluation systems designed to ensure that
38the eligible pupil with a disability has achieved the same
39competence in the content standards required for passage of the
40high school exit examination.

P108  1(C) Processes to ensure that the form, content, and scoring of
2assessments, evidence, or other means of demonstrating academic
3achievement are applied uniformly across the state.

4(D) Estimates of one-time or ongoing costs, and whether each
5option should be implemented on a statewide or regional basis, or
6both.

7(3) The panel shall present its options and make its findings and
8recommendations to the Superintendent and to the state board by
9October 1, 2009.

10(b) For those portions of, or those academic content standards
11assessed by, the high school exit examination for which the state
12board determines it is feasible to create alternative means by which
13eligible pupils with disabilities may demonstrate the same level
14of academic achievement required for passage of the high school
15exit examination, the state board, taking into consideration the
16findings and recommendations of the panel, shall adopt regulations
17for alternative means by which eligible pupils with disabilities, as
18defined in Section 60852.2, may demonstrate that they have
19achieved the same level of academic achievement in the content
20standards required for passage of the high school exit examination.
21The regulations shall include appropriate timelines and the manner
22in which eligible pupils with disabilities and school districts shall
23be timely notified of the results.

24

SEC. 50.  

Section 66407 of the Education Code is amended to
25read:

26

66407.  

(a) (1) The publisher of a textbook, or an agent or
27employee of the publisher, shall provide a prospective purchaser
28of the textbook with all of the following:

29(A) A list of all the products offered for sale by the publisher
30germane to the prospective purchaser’s subject area of interest.

31(B) For a product listed pursuant to subparagraph (A), the
32wholesale or retail price of the product, and the estimated length
33of time the publisher intends to keep the product on the market.

34(C) For each new edition of a product listed pursuant to
35subparagraph (A), a list of the substantial content differences or
36changes between the new edition and the previous edition of the
37textbook.

38(2) The publisher shall make the lists required by paragraph (1)
39available to a prospective purchaser at the commencement of a
40sales interaction, including, but not necessarily limited to, a sales
P109  1interaction conducted in person, by telephone, or electronically.
2The publisher shall also post in a prominent position on its Internet
3Web site the lists required by paragraph (1).

4(b) As used in this section, the following terms have the
5following meanings:

6(1) “Product” means each version, including, but not necessarily
7limited to, a version in a digital format, of a textbook, or set of
8textbooks, in a particular subject area, including, but not necessarily
9limited to, a supplemental item, whether or not the supplemental
10item is sold separately or together with a textbook.

11(2) “Publisher” has the same meaning as defined in subdivision
12(b) of Section 66406.7.

13(3) “Purchaser” means a faculty member of a public or private
14postsecondary educational institution who selects the textbooks
15assigned to students.

16(4) “Textbook” has the same meaning as defined in subdivision
17(b) of Section 66406.7.

18

SEC. 51.  

Section 81378.1 of the Education Code is amended
19to read:

20

81378.1.  

(a) The governing board of a community college
21district may, without complying with any other provision of this
22article, let, in the name of the district, any buildings, grounds, or
23space therein, together with any personal property located thereon,
24not needed for academic activities, upon the terms and conditions
25agreed upon by the governing board and the lessee for a period of
26more than five days but less than five years, as determined by the
27governing board. Before executing the lease, the governing board
28shall include in an agenda of a meeting of the board open to the
29public a description of the proposed lease and an explanation of
30the methodology used to establish the lease rate and for determining
31the fair market value of the lease.

32(b) The governing board shall give public notice before taking
33any action pursuant to subdivision (a). The notice shall include a
34description of the governing board’s intended action. The notice
35shall be printed once a week for three successive weeks prior to
36the board meeting described in subdivision (a) in a newspaper of
37general circulation that is published at least once a week.

38(c) The governing board shall include, as a condition in any
39agreement to let any buildings, grounds, or space therein, together
40with any personal property located thereon, a provision that the
P110  1agreement shall be subject to renegotiation and may be rescinded
2after 60 days’ notice to the lessee if the governing board determines
3at any time during the term of the agreement that the buildings,
4grounds, or space therein subject to the agreement are needed for
5academic activities. Any revenue derived pursuant to the agreement
6shall be retained for the exclusive use of the community college
7 district whose buildings, grounds, or space therein are the basis of
8the agreement and shall be used to supplement, but not supplant,
9any state funding. Any buildings, grounds, or space therein let by
10the district shall be included as space actually available for use by
11the college in any calculations related to any plan for capital
12construction submitted to the board of governors pursuant to
13Chapter 4 (commencing with Section 81800), or any other law.

14(d) The authority of a governing board under this section does
15not apply to the letting of an entire campus.

16(e) The use of any buildings, grounds, or space therein, together
17with any personal property located thereon, let by the governing
18board pursuant to this section shall be consistent with all applicable
19zoning ordinances and regulations.

20

SEC. 52.  

Section 88620 of the Education Code is amended to
21read:

22

88620.  

The following definitions govern the construction of
23this part:

24(a) “Board of governors” means the Board of Governors of the
25California Community Colleges.

26(b) “Business Resource Assistance and Innovation Network”
27means the network of projects and programs that comprise the
28California Community Colleges Economic and Workforce
29Development Program.

30(c) “California Community Colleges Economic and Workforce
31Development Program” and “economic and workforce development
32program” mean the program.

33(d) “Career pathways,” and “career ladders,” or “career lattices”
34mean an identified series of positions, work experiences, or
35educational benchmarks or credentials that offer occupational and
36financial advancement within a specified career field or related
37fields over time.

38(e) (1) “Center” means a comprehensive program of services
39offered by one or more community colleges to an economic region
40of the state in accordance with criteria established by the
P111  1chancellor’s office for designation as an economic and workforce
2development program center. Center services shall be designed to
3respond to the statewide strategic priorities pursuant to the mission
4of the community colleges’ economic and workforce development
5program, and to be consistent with programmatic priorities,
6competitive and emerging industry sectors and industry clusters,
7identified economic development, career technical education,
8business development, and continuous workforce training needs
9of a region. Centers shall provide a foundation for a long-term,
10 sustained relationship with businesses, labor, colleges, and other
11workforce education and training delivery systems, such as local
12workforce investment boards, in the region.

13(2) A center shall support, develop, and deliver direct services
14to students, businesses, colleges, labor organizations, employees,
15and employers. For purposes of this subdivision, direct services
16include, but are not necessarily limited to, data analysis both of
17labor market information and college performance; intraregion
18and multiregion sector coordination and logistics; inventory of
19community college and other assets relevant to meeting a labor
20market need; curriculum development, curriculum model
21development, or job task analysis development; articulation of
22curriculum in a career pathway or career lattice or in a system of
23stackable credentials; faculty training; calibration to a career
24readiness or other assessment; assessment administration; career
25guidance module development or counseling; convenings, such
26as seminars, workshops, conferences, and training; facilitating
27collaboration between faculty working in related disciplines and
28sectors; upgrading, leveraging, and developing technology; and
29other educational services. The establishment and maintenance of
30the centers is under the sole authority of the chancellor’s office in
31order to preserve the flexibility of the system to adapt to labor
32market needs and to integrate resources.

33(f) “Chancellor” means the Chancellor of the California
34Community Colleges.

35(g) “Economic security” means, with respect to a worker,
36earning a wage sufficient to adequately support a family and to,
37over time, save money for emergency expenses and adequate
38retirement income, the sufficiency of which is determined
39considering a variety of factors including household size, the cost
P112  1of living in the worker’s community, and other factors that may
2vary by region.

3(h) “High-priority occupation” means an occupation that has a
4significant presence in a targeted industry sector or industry cluster,
5is in demand by employers, and pays or leads to payment of high
6wages.

7(i) “Industry cluster” means a geographic concentration or
8emerging concentration of interdependent industries with direct
9service, supplier, and research relationships, or independent
10industries that share common resources in a given regional
11economy or labor market. An industry cluster is a group of
12employers closely linked by a common product or services,
13workforce needs, similar technologies, and supply chains in a given
14regional economy or labor market.

15(j) “Industry-driven regional collaborative” means a regional
16public, private, or other community organizational structure that
17jointly defines priorities, delivers services across programs, sectors,
18and in response to, or driven by, industry needs. The
19industry-driven regional collaborative projects meet the needs and
20fill gaps in services that respond to regional business, employee,
21and labor needs. These service-delivery structures offer flexibility
22to local communities and partners to meet the identified needs in
23an economic development region. Industry-driven regional
24collaboratives are broadly defined to allow maximum local
25autonomy in developing projects responding to the needs of
26business, industry, and labor.

27(k) “Industry sector” means those firms that produce similar
28products or provide similar services using somewhat similar
29business processes.

30(l) “Initiative” is an identified strategic priority area that is
31organized statewide, but is a regionally based effort to develop
32and implement innovative solutions designed to facilitate the
33development, implementation, and coordination of community
34college economic development and related programs and services.
35Each initiative shall be workforce and business development driven
36by a statewide committee made up of community college faculty
37and administrators and practitioners and managers from business,
38labor, and industry. Centers, industry-driven regional
39collaboratives, and other economic and workforce development
40programs performing services as a part of the implementation of
P113  1an initiative shall coordinate services statewide and within regions
2of the state, as appropriate.

3(m) “Job development incentive training” means programs that
4provide incentives to employers to create entry-level positions in
5their businesses, or through their suppliers or prime customers, for
6welfare recipients and the working poor.

7(n) “Matching resources” means any combination of public or
8private resources, either cash or in-kind, derived from sources
9other than the economic and workforce development program
10funds appropriated by the annual Budget Act, that are determined
11to be necessary for the success of the project to which they are
12applied. The criteria for in-kind resources shall be developed by
13the board of governors, with advice from the chancellor and the
14California Community Colleges Economic and Workforce
15Development Program Advisory Committee, and shall be consistent
16with generally accepted accounting practices for state and federal
17matching requirements. The ratio of matching resources to
18economic and workforce development program funding shall be
19determined by the board of governors.

20(o) “Performance improvement training” means training
21delivered by a community college that includes all of the following:

22(1) An initial needs assessment process that identifies both
23training and nontraining issues that need to be addressed to improve
24individual and organizational performance.

25(2) Consultation with employers to develop action plans that
26address business or nonprofit performance improvements.

27(3) Training programs that link individual performance
28requirements with quantifiable business measures, resulting in
29demonstrable productivity gains, and, as appropriate, job retention,
30job creation, improvement in wages, or attainment of wages that
31provide economic security.

32(p) “Program” means the California Community Colleges
33Economic and Workforce Development Program established under
34this part.

35(q) “Region” means a geographic area of the state defined by
36economic and labor market factors containing at least one industry
37cluster and the cities, counties, or community college districts, or
38all of them, in the industry cluster’s geographic area. For the
39purposes of this chapter, “California Community College economic
40development regions” shall be designated by the board of governors
P114  1based on factors, including, but not necessarily limited to, all of
2the following:

3(1) Regional economic development and training needs of
4business and industry.

5(2) Regional collaboration, as appropriate, among community
6colleges and districts, and existing economic development,
7continuous workforce improvement, technology deployment, and
8business development.

9(3) Other state economic development definitions of regions.

10(r) “Sector strategies” means prioritizing investments in
11competitive and emerging industry sectors and industry clusters
12on the basis of labor market and other economic data that indicate
13strategic growth potential, especially with regard to jobs and
14income. Sector strategies focus workforce investment in education
15and workforce training programs that are likely to lead to
16high-wage jobs or to entry-level jobs with well-articulated career
17pathways into high-wage jobs. Sector strategies effectively boost
18labor productivity or reduce business barriers to growth and
19expansion stemming from workforce supply problems, including
20skills gaps, and occupational shortages by directing resources and
21making investments to plug skills gaps and provide education and
22training programs for high-priority occupations. Sector strategies
23may be implemented using articulated career pathways or career
24lattices and a system of stackable credentials. Sector strategies
25often target underserved communities, disconnected youth,
26incumbent workers, and recently separated military veterans.
27Cluster-based sector strategies focus workforce and economic
28development on those sectors that have demonstrated a capacity
29for economic growth and job creation in a particular geographic
30area. Industry clusters are similar to industry sectors, but the focus
31is on a geographic concentration of interdependent industries.

32(s) “Skills panel” means a collaboration which brings together
33multiple employers from an industry sector or industry cluster with
34career technical educators, including, but not limited to, community
35college career technical education faculty, and other stakeholders
36which may include workers and organized labor to address
37common workforce needs. Skills panels assess workforce training
38and education needs through the identification of assets relevant
39to industry need, produce curricula models, perform job task
40analysis, define how curricula articulate into career pathways or
P115  1career lattices or a system of stackable credentials, calibrate career
2readiness, develop other assessment tools, and produce career
3guidance tools.

4(t) “Stackable credentials” means a progression of training
5modules, credentials, or certificates that build on one another and
6are linked to educational and career advancement.

7

SEC. 53.  

Section 2162 of the Elections Code is amended to
8read:

9

2162.  

(a) No affidavits of registration other than those provided
10by the Secretary of State to the county elections officials or the
11national voter registration forms authorized pursuant to the federal
12National Voter Registration Act of 1993 (42 U.S.C. Sec. 1973gg
13et seq.) shall be used for the registration of voters.

14(b) A voter registration card shall not be altered, defaced, or
15changed in any way, other than by the insertion of a mailing
16address and the affixing of postage, if mailed, or as otherwise
17specifically authorized by the Secretary of State, prior to
18distribution of the cards.

19(c) The affidavit portion of a voter registration card shall not
20be marked, stamped, or partially or fully completed by a person
21other than an elector attempting to register to vote or by a person
22assisting the elector in completing the affidavit at the request of
23the elector.

24

SEC. 54.  

Section 2224 of the Elections Code is amended to
25read:

26

2224.  

(a) If a voter has not voted in an election within the
27preceding four years, and his or her residence address, name, or
28party affiliation has not been updated during that time, the county
29elections official may send an alternate residency confirmation
30postcard. The use of this postcard may be sent subsequent to NCOA
31or sample ballot returns, but shall not be used in the residency
32confirmation process conducted under Section 2220. The postcard
33shall be forwardable, including a postage-paid and preaddressed
34return form to enable the voter to verify or correct the address
35information, and shall be in substantially the following form:

36“If the person named on the postcard is not at this address,
37PLEASE help keep the voter rolls current and save taxpayer dollars
38by returning this postcard to your mail carrier.”

39“IMPORTANT NOTICE”

P116  1“According to our records you have not voted in any election
2during the past four years, which may indicate that you no longer
3reside in ____ County. If you continue to reside in this county you
4must confirm your residency address in order to remain on the
5active voter list and receive election materials in the mail.”

6“If confirmation has not been received within 15 days, you may
7be required to provide proof of your residence address in order to
8vote at future elections. If you no longer live in ____ County, you
9must reregister at your new residence address in order to vote in
10the next election. California residents may obtain a mail registration
11form by calling the county elections office or the Secretary of
12State’s office.”

13(b) The use of a toll-free number to confirm the old residence
14address is optional. Any change to a voter’s address shall be
15received in writing.

16(c) A county using the alternate residency confirmation
17procedure shall notify all voters of the procedure in the sample
18ballot pamphlet or in a separate mailing.

19

SEC. 55.  

Section 2225 of the Elections Code is amended to
20read:

21

2225.  

(a) Based on change-of-address data received from the
22United States Postal Service or its licensees, the county elections
23official shall send a forwardable notice, including a postage-paid
24and preaddressed return form, to enable the voter to verify or
25correct address information.

26Notification received through NCOA or Operation Mail that a
27voter has moved and has given no forwarding address shall not
28require the mailing of a forwardable notice to that voter.

29(b) If postal service change-of-address data indicates that the
30voter has moved to a new residence address in the same county,
31the forwardable notice shall be in substantially the following form:


33“We have received notification that the voter has moved to a
34new residence address in ____ County. You will be registered to
35vote at your new address unless you notify our office within 15
36days that the address to which this card was mailed is not a change
37of your permanent residence. You must notify our office by either
38returning the attached postage-paid postcard, or by calling toll
39free. If this is not a permanent residence, and if you do not notify
P117  1us within 15 days, you may be required to provide proof of your
2residence address in order to vote at future elections.”


4(c) If postal service change-of-address data indicates that the
5voter has moved to a new address in another county, the
6forwardable notice shall be in substantially the following form:


8“We have received notification that you have moved to a new
9address not in ____ County. Please use the attached postage-paid
10postcard to: (1) advise us if this is or is not a permanent change of
11residence address, or (2) to advise us if our information is incorrect.
12If you do not return this card within 15 days and continue to reside
13in ____ County, you may be required to provide proof of your
14residence address in order to vote at future elections and, if you
15do not offer to vote at any election in the period between the date
16of this notice and the second federal general election following
17this notice, your voter registration will be canceled and you will
18have to reregister in order to vote. If you no longer live in ____
19County, you must reregister at your new residence address in order
20to vote in the next election. California residents may obtain a mail
21registration form by calling the county elections officer or
221-800-345-VOTE.”


24(d) If postal service change-of-address data received from a
25nonforwardable mailing indicates that a voter has moved and left
26no forwarding address, a forwardable notice shall be sent in
27substantially the following form:


29“We are attempting to verify postal notification that the voter to
30whom this card is addressed has moved and left no forwarding
31address. If the person receiving this card is the addressed voter,
32please confirm your continued residence or provide current
33residence information on the attached postage-paid postcard within
3415 days. If you do not return this card and continue to reside in
35____ County, you may be required to provide proof of your
36residence address in order to vote at future elections and, if you
37do not offer to vote at any election in the period between the date
38of this notice and the second federal general election following
39this notice, your voter registration will be cancelled and you will
40have to reregister in order to vote. If you no longer live in ____
P118  1County, you must reregister at your new residence address in order
2to vote in the next election. California residents may obtain a mail
3registration form by calling the county elections office or the
4Secretary of State’s office.”


6(e) The use of a toll-free number to confirm the old residence
7address is optional. Any change to the voter address must be
8received in writing.

9

SEC. 56.  

Section 3111 of the Elections Code is amended to
10read:

11

3111.  

If a military or overseas voter is unable to appear at his
12or her polling place because of being recalled to service after the
13final day for making application for a vote by mail ballot, but
14before 5 p.m. on the day before the day of election, he or she may
15appear before the elections official in the county in which the
16military or overseas voter is registered or, if within the state, in
17the county in which he or she is recalled to service and make
18application for a vote by mail ballot, which may be submitted by
19facsimile, or by electronic mail or online transmission if the
20elections official makes the transmission option available. The
21elections official shall deliver to him or her a vote by mail ballot
22which may be voted in the elections official’s office or voted
23outside the elections official’s office on or before the close of the
24polls on the day of election and returned as are other vote by mail
25ballots. To be counted, the ballot shall be returned to the elections
26official’s office in person, by facsimile transmission, or by an
27authorized person on or before the close of the polls on the day of
28the election. If the military or overseas voter appears in the county
29in which he or she is recalled to service, rather than the county to
30which he or she is registered, the elections official shall coordinate
31with the elections official in the county in which the military or
32overseas voter is registered to provide the ballot that contains the
33appropriate measures and races for the precinct in which the
34military or overseas voter is registered.

35

SEC. 57.  

Section 13115 of the Elections Code is amended to
36read:

37

13115.  

The order in which all state measures that are to be
38submitted to the voters shall appear on the ballot is as follows:

39(a) Bond measures, including those proposed by initiative, in
40the order in which they qualify.

P119  1(b) Constitutional amendments, including those proposed by
2initiative, in the order in which they qualify.

3(c) Legislative measures, other than those described in
4subdivision (a) or (b), in the order in which they are approved by
5the Legislature.

6(d) Initiative measures, other than those described in subdivision
7(a) or (b), in the order in which they qualify.

8(e) Referendum measures, in the order in which they qualify.

9

SEC. 58.  

Section 21000 of the Elections Code is amended to
10read:

11

21000.  

The county elections official in each county shall
12compile and make available to the Legislature or any appropriate
13committee of the Legislature any information and statistics that
14may be necessary for use in connection with the reapportionment
15of legislative districts, including, but not limited to, precinct maps
16indicating the boundaries of municipalities, school districts, judicial
17districts, Assembly districts, senatorial districts, and congressional
18districts, lists showing the election returns for each precinct, and
19election returns for each precinct reflecting the vote total for all
20ballots cast, including both vote by mail ballots and ballots cast at
21polling places, compiled pursuant to Section 15321 in the county
22at each statewide election. If the county elections official stores
23the information and statistics in data-processing files, he or she
24shall make the files available, along with whatever documentation
25shall be necessary in order to allow the use of the files by the
26appropriate committee of the Legislature and shall retain these
27files until the next reapportionment has been completed.

28

SEC. 59.  

Section 3047 of the Family Code is amended to read:

29

3047.  

(a) A party’s absence, relocation, or failure to comply
30with custody and visitation orders shall not, by itself, be sufficient
31to justify a modification of a custody or visitation order if the
32reason for the absence, relocation, or failure to comply is the party’s
33activation to military duty or temporary duty, mobilization in
34support of combat or other military operation, or military
35deployment out of state.

36(b) (1) If a party with sole or joint physical custody or visitation
37receives temporary duty, deployment, or mobilization orders from
38the military that require the party to move a substantial distance
39from his or her residence or otherwise has a material effect on the
40ability of the party to exercise custody or visitation rights, any
P120  1 necessary modification of the existing custody order shall be
2deemed a temporary custody order made without prejudice, which
3shall be subject to review and reconsideration upon the return of
4the party from military deployment, mobilization, or temporary
5duty.

6(2) If the temporary order is reviewed upon return of the party
7from military deployment, mobilization, or temporary duty, there
8shall be a presumption that the custody order shall revert to the
9order that was in place before the modification, unless the court
10determines that it is not in the best interest of the child. The court
11shall not, as part of its review of the temporary order upon the
12return of the deploying party, order a child custody evaluation
13under Section 3111 of this code or Section 730 of the Evidence
14Code, unless the party opposing reversion of the order makes a
15prima facie showing that reversion is not in the best interest of the
16child.

17(3) (A) If the court makes a temporary custody order, it shall
18consider any appropriate orders to ensure that the relocating party
19can maintain frequent and continuing contact with the child by
20means that are reasonably available.

21(B) Upon a motion by the relocating party, the court may grant
22reasonable visitation rights to a stepparent, grandparent, or other
23family member if the court does all of the following:

24(i) Finds that there is a preexisting relationship between the
25family member and the child that has engendered a bond such that
26visitation is in the best interest of the child.

27(ii) Finds that the visitation will facilitate the child’s contact
28with the relocating party.

29(iii) Balances the interest of the child in having visitation with
30the family member against the right of the parents to exercise
31parental authority.

32(C) Nothing in this paragraph shall increase the authority of the
33persons described in subparagraph (B) to seek visitation orders
34independently.

35(D) The granting of visitation rights to a nonparent pursuant to
36subparagraph (B) shall not impact the calculation of child support.

37(c) If a party’s deployment, mobilization, or temporary duty
38will have a material effect on his or her ability, or anticipated
39ability, to appear in person at a regularly scheduled hearing, the
40court shall do either of the following:

P121  1(1) Upon motion of the party, hold an expedited hearing to
2determine custody and visitation issues prior to the departure of
3the party.

4(2) Upon motion of the party, allow the party to present
5testimony and evidence and participate in court-ordered child
6custody mediation by electronic means, including, but not limited
7to, telephone, video teleconferencing, or the Internet, to the extent
8that this technology is reasonably available to the court and protects
9the due process rights of all parties.

10(d) A relocation by a nondeploying parent during a period of a
11deployed parent’s absence while a temporary modification order
12for a parenting plan is in effect shall not, by itself, terminate the
13exclusive and continuing jurisdiction of the court for purposes of
14later determining custody or parenting time under this chapter.

15(e) When a court of this state has issued a custody or visitation
16order, the absence of a child from this state during the deployment
17of a parent shall be considered a “temporary absence” for purposes
18of the Uniform Child Custody Jurisdiction and Enforcement Act
19(Part 3 (commencing with Section 3400)), and the court shall retain
20exclusive continuing jurisdiction under Section 3422.

21(f) The deployment of a parent shall not be used as a basis to
22assert inconvenience of the forum under Section 3427.

23(g) For purposes of this section, the following terms have the
24following meanings:

25(1) “Deployment” means the temporary transfer of a member
26of the Armed Forces in active-duty status in support of combat or
27some other military operation.

28(2) “Mobilization” means the transfer of a member of the
29National Guard or Military Reserve to extended active-duty status,
30but does not include National Guard or Military Reserve annual
31training.

32(3) “Temporary duty” means the transfer of a service member
33from one military base to a different location, usually another base,
34for a limited period of time to accomplish training or to assist in
35the performance of a noncombat mission.

36(h) It is the intent of the Legislature that this section provide a
37fair, efficient, and expeditious process to resolve child custody
38and visitation issues when a party receives temporary duty,
39deployment, or mobilization orders from the military, as well as
40at the time that the party returns from service and files a motion
P122  1to revert back to the custody order in place before the deployment.
2The Legislature intends that family courts shall, to the extent
3feasible within existing resources and court practices, prioritize
4the calendaring of these cases, avoid unnecessary delay or
5continuances, and ensure that parties who serve in the military are
6not penalized for their service by a delay in appropriate access to
7their children.

8

SEC. 60.  

Section 3200.5 of the Family Code is amended to
9read:

10

3200.5.  

(a) Any standards for supervised visitation providers
11adopted by the Judicial Council pursuant to Section 3200 shall
12conform to this section. A provider, as described in Section 3200,
13shall be a professional provider or nonprofessional provider.

14(b) In any case in which the court has determined that there is
15domestic violence or child abuse or neglect, as defined in Section
1611165.6 of the Penal Code, and the court determines supervision
17is necessary, the court shall consider whether to use a professional
18or nonprofessional provider based upon the child’s best interest.

19(c) For the purposes of this section, the following definitions
20apply:

21(1) “Nonprofessional provider” means any person who is not
22paid for providing supervised visitation services. Unless otherwise
23ordered by the court or stipulated by the parties, the
24nonprofessional provider shall:

25(A) Have no record of a conviction for child molestation, child
26abuse, or other crimes against a person.

27(B) Have proof of automobile insurance if transporting the child.

28(C) Have no current or past court order in which the provider
29is the person being supervised.

30(D) Agree to adhere to and enforce the court order regarding
31supervised visitation.

32(2) “Professional provider” means any person paid for providing
33supervised visitation services, or an independent contractor,
34employee, intern, or volunteer operating independently or through
35a supervised visitation center or agency. The professional provider
36shall:

37(A) Be at least 21 years of age.

38(B) Have no record of a conviction for driving under the
39influence (DUI) within the last five years.

40(C) Not have been on probation or parole for the last 10 years.

P123  1(D) Have no record of a conviction for child molestation, child
2abuse, or other crimes against a person.

3(E) Have proof of automobile insurance if transporting the child.

4(F) Have no civil, criminal, or juvenile restraining orders within
5the last 10 years.

6(G) Have no current or past court order in which the provider
7is the person being supervised.

8(H) Be able to speak the language of the party being supervised
9and of the child, or the provider must provide a neutral interpreter
10over 18 years of age who is able to do so.

11(I) Agree to adhere to and enforce the court order regarding
12supervised visitation.

13(J) Meet the training requirements set forth in subdivision (d).

14(d) (1) Professional providers shall have received 24 hours of
15training that includes training in the following subjects:

16(A)  The role of a professional provider.

17(B)  Child abuse reporting laws.

18(C)  Recordkeeping procedures.

19(D)  Screening, monitoring, and termination of visitation.

20(E)  Developmental needs of children.

21(F)  Legal responsibilities and obligations of a provider.

22(G)  Cultural sensitivity.

23(H)  Conflicts of interest.

24(I)  Confidentiality.

25(J)  Issues relating to substance abuse, child abuse, sexual abuse,
26and domestic violence.

27(K)  Basic knowledge of family and juvenile law.

28(2) Professional providers shall sign a declaration or any Judicial
29Council form that they meet the training and qualifications of a
30provider.

31(e) The ratio of children to a professional provider shall be
32contingent on:

33(1) The degree of risk factors present in each case.

34(2) The nature of supervision required in each case.

35(3) The number and ages of the children to be supervised during
36a visit.

37(4) The number of people visiting the child during the visit.

38(5) The duration and location of the visit.

39(6) The experience of the provider.

40(f) Professional providers of supervised visitation shall:

P124  1(1) Advise the parties before commencement of supervised
2visitation that no confidential privilege exists.

3(2) Report suspected child abuse to the appropriate agency, as
4provided by law, and inform the parties of the provider’s obligation
5to make those reports.

6(3) Suspend or terminate visitation under subdivision (h).

7(g) Professional providers shall:

8(1) Prepare a written contract to be signed by the parties before
9commencement of the supervised visitation. The contract should
10inform each party of the terms and conditions of supervised
11visitation.

12(2) Review custody and visitation orders relevant to the
13supervised visitation.

14(3) Keep a record for each case, including, at least, all of the
15following:

16(A) A written record of each contact and visit.

17(B) Who attended the visit.

18(C) Any failure to comply with the terms and conditions of the
19visitation.

20(D) Any incidence of abuse, as required by law.

21(h) (1) Each provider shall make every reasonable effort to
22provide a safe visit for the child and the noncustodial party.

23(2) If a provider determines that the rules of the visit have been
24violated, the child has become acutely distressed, or the safety of
25the child or the provider is at risk, the visit may be temporarily
26interrupted, rescheduled at a later date, or terminated.

27(3) All interruptions or terminations of visits shall be recorded
28in the case file.

29(4) All providers shall advise both parties of the reasons for the
30interruption or termination of a visit.

31(i) A professional provider shall state the reasons for temporary
32suspension or termination of supervised visitation in writing and
33shall provide the written statement to both parties, their attorneys,
34the attorney for the child, and the court.

35

SEC. 61.  

Section 4055 of the Family Code, as amended by
36Section 1 of Chapter 646 of the Statutes of 2012, is amended to
37read:

38

4055.  

(a) The statewide uniform guideline for determining
39child support orders is as follows: CS = K[HN - (H%)(TN)].

40(b) (1) The components of the formula are as follows:

P125  1(A) CS = child support amount.

2(B) K = amount of both parents’ income to be allocated for child
3support as set forth in paragraph (3).

4(C) HN = high earner’s net monthly disposable income.

5(D) H% = approximate percentage of time that the high earner
6has or will have primary physical responsibility for the children
7compared to the other parent. In cases in which parents have
8different time-sharing arrangements for different children, H%
9equals the average of the approximate percentages of time the high
10earner parent spends with each child.

11(E) TN = total net monthly disposable income of both parties.

12(2) To compute net disposable income, see Section 4059.

13(3) K (amount of both parents’ income allocated for child
14support) equals one plus H% (if H% is less than or equal to 50
15percent) or two minus H% (if H% is greater than 50 percent) times
16the following fraction:


17

 

Total Net Disposable
Income Per Month

    K

$0-800

0.20 + TN/16,000

$801-6,666

0.25

$6,667-10,000

0.10 + 1,000/TN

Over $10,000

0.12 + 800/TN

P125 2431

 

25For example, if H% equals 20 percent and the total monthly net
26disposable income of the parents is $1,000, K = (1 + 0.20) × 0.25,
27or 0.30. If H% equals 80 percent and the total monthly net
28disposable income of the parents is $1,000, K = (2 - 0.80) × 0.25,
29or 0.30.

30(4) For more than one child, multiply CS by:

 

 2 children

1.6

 3 children

2

 4 children

2.3

 5 children

2.5

 6 children

2.625

 7 children

2.75

 8 children

2.813

 9 children

2.844

10 children

2.86

 

P126  1(5) If the amount calculated under the formula results in a
2positive number, the higher earner shall pay that amount to the
3lower earner. If the amount calculated under the formula results
4in a negative number, the lower earner shall pay the absolute value
5of that amount to the higher earner.

6(6) In any default proceeding where proof is by affidavit
7 pursuant to Section 2336, or in any proceeding for child support
8in which a party fails to appear after being duly noticed, H% shall
9be set at zero in the formula if the noncustodial parent is the higher
10earner or at 100 if the custodial parent is the higher earner, where
11there is no evidence presented demonstrating the percentage of
12time that the noncustodial parent has primary physical
13responsibility for the children. H% shall not be set as described
14above if the moving party in a default proceeding is the
15noncustodial parent or if the party who fails to appear after being
16duly noticed is the custodial parent. A statement by the party who
17is not in default as to the percentage of time that the noncustodial
18parent has primary physical responsibility for the children shall
19be deemed sufficient evidence.

20(7) In all cases in which the net disposable income per month
21of the obligor is less than one thousand five hundred dollars
22($1,500), adjusted annually for cost-of-living increases, there shall
23be a rebuttable presumption that the obligor is entitled to a
24low-income adjustment. On March 1, 2013, and annually thereafter,
25the Judicial Council shall determine the amount of the net
26disposable income adjustment based on the change in the annual
27California Consumer Price Index for All Urban Consumers,
28published by the California Department of Industrial Relations,
29Division of Labor Statistics and Research. The presumption may
30be rebutted by evidence showing that the application of the
31low-income adjustment would be unjust and inappropriate in the
32particular case. In determining whether the presumption is rebutted,
33the court shall consider the principles provided in Section 4053,
34and the impact of the contemplated adjustment on the respective
35net incomes of the obligor and the obligee. The low-income
36adjustment shall reduce the child support amount otherwise
37determined under this section by an amount that is no greater than
38the amount calculated by multiplying the child support amount
39otherwise determined under this section by a fraction, the
P127  1numerator of which is 1,500 minus the obligor’s net disposable
2income per month, and the denominator of which is 1,500.

3(8) Unless the court orders otherwise, the order for child support
4shall allocate the support amount so that the amount of support for
5the youngest child is the amount of support for one child, and the
6amount for the next youngest child is the difference between that
7amount and the amount for two children, with similar allocations
8for additional children. However, this paragraph does not apply
9to cases in which there are different time-sharing arrangements
10for different children or where the court determines that the
11allocation would be inappropriate in the particular case.

12(c) If a court uses a computer to calculate the child support
13order, the computer program shall not automatically default
14affirmatively or negatively on whether a low-income adjustment
15is to be applied. If the low-income adjustment is applied, the
16computer program shall not provide the amount of the low-income
17adjustment. Instead, the computer program shall ask the user
18whether or not to apply the low-income adjustment, and if
19answered affirmatively, the computer program shall provide the
20range of the adjustment permitted by paragraph (7) of subdivision
21(b).

22(d) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2018,
23and as of that date is repealed, unless a later enacted statute, that
24is enacted before January 1, 2018, deletes or extends that date.

25

SEC. 62.  

Section 4055 of the Family Code, as added by Section
262 of Chapter 646 of the Statutes of 2012, is amended to read:

27

4055.  

(a) The statewide uniform guideline for determining
28child support orders is as follows: CS = K[HN - (H%)(TN)].

29(b) (1) The components of the formula are as follows:

30(A) CS = child support amount.

31(B) K = amount of both parents’ income to be allocated for child
32support as set forth in paragraph (3).

33(C) HN = high earner’s net monthly disposable income.

34(D) H% = approximate percentage of time that the high earner
35has or will have primary physical responsibility for the children
36compared to the other parent. In cases in which parents have
37different time-sharing arrangements for different children, H%
38equals the average of the approximate percentages of time the high
39earner parent spends with each child.

40(E) TN = total net monthly disposable income of both parties.

P128  1(2) To compute net disposable income, see Section 4059.

2(3) K (amount of both parents’ income allocated for child
3support) equals one plus H% (if H% is less than or equal to 50
4percent) or two minus H% (if H% is greater than 50 percent) times
5the following fraction:


6

 

Total Net Disposable
Income Per Month

    K

$0-800

0.20 + TN/16,000

$801-6,666

0.25

$6,667-10,000

0.10 + 1,000/TN

Over $10,000

0.12 + 800/TN

P128 1320P128 30

 

14For example, if H% equals 20 percent and the total monthly net
15disposable income of the parents is $1,000, K = (1 + 0.20) × 0.25,
16or 0.30. If H% equals 80 percent and the total monthly net
17disposable income of the parents is $1,000, K = (2 - 0.80) × 0.25,
18or 0.30.

19(4) For more than one child, multiply CS by:

 

 2 children

1.6

 3 children

2

 4 children

2.3

 5 children

2.5

 6 children

2.625

 7 children

2.75

 8 children

2.813

 9 children

2.844

10 children

2.86

P128 30

 

31(5) If the amount calculated under the formula results in a
32positive number, the higher earner shall pay that amount to the
33lower earner. If the amount calculated under the formula results
34in a negative number, the lower earner shall pay the absolute value
35of that amount to the higher earner.

36(6) In any default proceeding where proof is by affidavit
37 pursuant to Section 2336, or in any proceeding for child support
38in which a party fails to appear after being duly noticed, H% shall
39be set at zero in the formula if the noncustodial parent is the higher
40earner or at 100 if the custodial parent is the higher earner, where
P129  1there is no evidence presented demonstrating the percentage of
2time that the noncustodial parent has primary physical
3responsibility for the children. H% shall not be set as described
4above if the moving party in a default proceeding is the
5noncustodial parent or if the party who fails to appear after being
6duly noticed is the custodial parent. A statement by the party who
7is not in default as to the percentage of time that the noncustodial
8parent has primary physical responsibility for the children shall
9be deemed sufficient evidence.

10(7) In all cases in which the net disposable income per month
11of the obligor is less than one thousand dollars ($1,000), there shall
12be a rebuttable presumption that the obligor is entitled to a
13low-income adjustment. The presumption may be rebutted by
14evidence showing that the application of the low-income
15adjustment would be unjust and inappropriate in the particular
16case. In determining whether the presumption is rebutted, the court
17shall consider the principles provided in Section 4053, and the
18impact of the contemplated adjustment on the respective net
19incomes of the obligor and the obligee. The low-income adjustment
20shall reduce the child support amount otherwise determined under
21this section by an amount that is no greater than the amount
22calculated by multiplying the child support amount otherwise
23determined under this section by a fraction, the numerator of which
24is 1,000 minus the obligor’s net disposable income per month, and
25the denominator of which is 1,000.

26(8) Unless the court orders otherwise, the order for child support
27shall allocate the support amount so that the amount of support for
28the youngest child is the amount of support for one child, and the
29amount for the next youngest child is the difference between that
30amount and the amount for two children, with similar allocations
31for additional children. However, this paragraph does not apply
32to cases in which there are different time-sharing arrangements
33for different children or where the court determines that the
34allocation would be inappropriate in the particular case.

35(c) If a court uses a computer to calculate the child support
36order, the computer program shall not automatically default
37affirmatively or negatively on whether a low-income adjustment
38is to be applied. If the low-income adjustment is applied, the
39computer program shall not provide the amount of the low-income
40adjustment. Instead, the computer program shall ask the user
P130  1whether or not to apply the low-income adjustment, and if
2answered affirmatively, the computer program shall provide the
3range of the adjustment permitted by paragraph (7) of subdivision
4(b).

5(d) This section shall become operative on January 1, 2018.

6

SEC. 63.  

Section 1587 of the Fish and Game Code is amended
7to read:

8

1587.  

(a) The Mirage Trail within the Magnesia Spring
9Ecological Reserve shall be open nine months of the year to
10recreational hiking if the commission determines that the following
11conditions are met:

12(1) Local public agencies or other entities will assume complete
13financial responsibility for the following as determined to be
14necessary by the commission:

15(A) Fencing to dissuade hikers from traversing beyond the trail
16and into sensitive Peninsular bighorn sheep habitat.

17(B) Signage and educational materials to educate hikers about
18Peninsular bighorn sheep.

19(2) A single entity has been designated to fulfill the financial
20arrangements and other terms and conditions determined by the
21commission to be necessary pursuant to paragraph (1).

22(b) The commission shall determine seasonal openings and
23closures of the trail that will not conflict with the use of the area
24by Peninsular bighorn sheep, consistent with subdivision (a).

25(c) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2018,
26and as of that date is repealed, unless a later enacted statute, that
27is enacted before January 1, 2018, deletes or extends that date.

28

SEC. 64.  

Section 15100 of the Fish and Game Code is amended
29to read:

30

15100.  

There is within the department an aquaculture
31coordinator who shall perform all of the following duties as part
32of the department’s aquaculture program:

33(a) Promote understanding of aquaculture among public agencies
34and the general public.

35(b) Propose methods of reducing the negative impact of public
36regulation at all levels of government on the aquaculture industry.

37(c) Provide information on all aspects of regulatory compliance
38to the various sectors of the aquaculture industry.

P131  1(d) Provide advice to the owner of a registered aquaculture
2facility on project siting and facility design, as necessary, to comply
3with regulatory requirements.

4(e) Coordinate with the Aquaculture Development Committee
5regarding the duties described in subdivisions (a) to (d), inclusive.

6

SEC. 65.  

Section 4101.3 of the Food and Agricultural Code,
7as amended by Section 2 of Chapter 137 of the Statutes of 2012,
8is amended to read:

9

4101.3.  

(a) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, the
10California Science Center is hereby authorized to enter into a site
11lease with the California Science Center Foundation, a California
12Nonprofit Corporation, with the approval of the Natural Resources
13Agency, the Department of Finance, and the Department of General
14Services, for the purpose of the foundation developing,
15constructing, equipping, furnishing, and funding the project known
16as Phase II of the California Science Center. The overall
17 construction cost and scope shall be consistent with the amount
18authorized in the Budget Act of 2002, provided that nothing in this
19section shall prevent the foundation from expending additional
20nonstate funds to complete Phase II provided that the additional
21expenditures do not result in additional state operation and
22maintenance costs. Any additional expenditure of nonstate funds
23by the foundation shall not increase the state’s contribution.

24(b) For the purpose of carrying out subdivision (a), all of the
25following shall apply:

26(1) In connection with the development described in subdivision
27(a), above, the foundation may, in its determination, select the
28most qualified construction manager/general contractor to oversee
29and manage the work and prepare the competitive bid packages
30for all major subcontractors to be engaged in the construction of
31Phase II Project. Any construction manager/general contractor
32selected shall be required to have a California general contractor’s
33license.

34(2) Prior to commencement of construction of the Phase II
35Project, the California Science Center shall enter into a
36lease-purchase agreement upon approval by the Department of
37Finance with the foundation on terms that are compatible with the
38Phase I Project financing. The term of the lease-purchase agreement
39shall be a term not to exceed 25 years. Lease payments on behalf
40of the state shall be commensurate with the twenty-two million
P132  1nine hundred forty-five thousand two hundred sixty-three dollars
2($22,945,263), (nineteen million one hundred thirty-seven thousand
3dollars ($19,137,000) plus 19.9 percent augmentation authority)
4construction cost allocation of the state. Lease payments may also
5include any cost of financing that the foundation may incur related
6to tax-exempt financing. The California Science Center shall be
7authorized to direct the Controller to send the rental payments
8under the lease-purchase agreement directly to the foundation’s
9bond trustee.

10(3) The foundation shall ensure that the Phase II Project is
11inspected during construction by the state in the manner consistent
12with state infrastructure projects. The foundation shall also
13indemnify and defend and save harmless the Department of General
14Services for any and all claims and losses accruing and resulting
15from or arising out of the foundation’s use of the state’s plans and
16specifications. The foundation and the California Science Center,
17upon consultation with the Director of General Services and the
18Department of Finance shall agree on a reasonable level of state
19oversight throughout the construction of the Phase II Project in
20order to assist the foundation in the completion of the project within
21the intended scope and cost.

22(4) At the end of the term of the site lease and the lease-purchase
23agreement unencumbered title to the land and improvements shall
24return to the state with jurisdiction held by the California Science
25Center.

26

SEC. 66.  

Section 4106 of the Food and Agricultural Code, as
27amended by Section 6 of Chapter 137 of the Statutes of 2012, is
28amended to read:

29

4106.  

(a) The California Science Center shall work with the
30Los Angeles Memorial Coliseum Commission, the City of Los
31Angeles, and the County of Los Angeles to develop additional
32parking facilities in Exposition Park to the extent necessary to
33allow for expansion of the park.

34(b) The California Science Center shall manage or operate its
35parking facilities in a manner that preserves and protects the
36interests of itself and the California African American Museum
37and recognizes the cultural and educational character of Exposition
38Park.

39(c) The Exposition Park Improvement Fund is hereby created
40in the State Treasury. All revenues received by the California
P133  1Science Center from its parking facilities, from rental of museum
2facilities, or from other business activities shall be deposited in
3the Exposition Park Improvement Fund.

4(d) The moneys in the Exposition Park Improvement Fund may
5only be used, upon appropriation by the Legislature, for
6improvements to Exposition Park, including, but not limited to,
7maintenance of existing parking and museum facilities, replacement
8of museum equipment, supplies and wages expended to generate
9revenues from rental of museum facilities, development of new
10parking facilities, and acquisition of land within or adjacent to
11Exposition Park.

12(e) (1) The Legislature hereby finds and declares that there is
13a need for development of additional park, recreation, museum,
14and parking facilities in Exposition Park. The Legislature
15recognizes that the provision of these needed improvements as
16identified in the California Science Center Exposition Park Master
17Plan may require the use of funds provided by other governmental
18agencies or private donors.

19(2) The California Science Center may accept funds from other
20governmental agencies or private contributions for the purpose of
21implementation of the California Science Center Exposition Park
22Master Plan. The private contributions and funds from
23governmental agencies other than state governmental agencies
24shall be deposited in the Exposition Park Improvement Fund in
25the State Treasury and shall be available for expenditure without
26regard to fiscal years by the California Science Center for
27implementation of the California Science Center Exposition Park
28Master Plan. Funds from other state governmental agencies shall
29be deposited in the Exposition Park Improvement Fund and shall
30be available for expenditure, upon appropriation, by the California
31Science Center for implementation of the California Science Center
32Exposition Park Master Plan. However, any expenditure is not
33authorized sooner than 30 days after notification in writing of the
34necessity therefor to the chairperson of the committee in each
35house of the Legislature that considers appropriations and the
36Chairperson of the Joint Legislative Budget Committee, or not
37sooner than whatever lesser time as the chairperson of the joint
38committee, or his or her designee, may in each instance determine.
39Neither the City of Los Angeles nor the County of Los Angeles
P134  1shall impose any tax upon tickets purchased authorizing the use
2of parking facilities owned by the California Science Center.

3

SEC. 67.  

Section 14611 of the Food and Agricultural Code is
4amended to read:

5

14611.  

(a) A licensee whose name appears on the label who
6sells or distributes bulk fertilizing materials, as defined in Sections
714517 and 14533, to unlicensed purchasers, shall pay to the
8secretary an assessment not to exceed two mills ($0.002) per dollar
9of sales for all fertilizing materials. A licensee whose name appears
10on the label of packaged fertilizing materials, as defined in Sections
1114533 and 14551, shall pay to the secretary an assessment not to
12exceed two mills ($0.002) per dollar of sales. The secretary may,
13based on the findings and recommendations of the board, reduce
14the assessment rate to a lower rate that provides sufficient revenue
15to carry out this chapter.

16(b) In addition to the assessment provided in subdivision (a),
17the secretary may impose an assessment in an amount not to exceed
18one mill ($0.001) per dollar of sales for all sales of fertilizing
19materials, to provide funding for research and education regarding
20the use and handling of fertilizing material, including, but not
21limited to, support for University of California Cooperative
22Extension, the California resource conservation districts, other
23California institutions of postsecondary education, or other
24qualified entities to develop programs in the following areas:

25(1) Technical education for users of fertilizer materials in the
26development and implementation of nutrient management projects
27that result in more agronomically sound uses of fertilizer materials
28and minimize the environmental impacts of fertilizer use, including,
29but not limited to, nitrates in groundwater and emissions of
30greenhouse gases resulting from fertilizer use.

31(2) Research to improve nutrient management practices resulting
32in more agronomically sound uses of fertilizer materials and to
33minimize the environmental impacts of fertilizer use, including,
34but not limited to, nitrates in groundwater and emissions of
35greenhouse gases resulting from fertilizer use.

36(3) Education to increase awareness of more agronomically
37sound use of fertilizer materials to reduce the environmental
38impacts resulting from the overuse or inefficient use of fertilizing
39materials.

P135  1

SEC. 68.  

Section 19447 of the Food and Agricultural Code is
2amended to read:

3

19447.  

(a) In lieu of any civil action pursuant to Section 19445,
4and in lieu of seeking prosecution, the secretary may levy a civil
5penalty against a person who violates Article 6 (commencing with
6Section 19300), Article 6.5 (commencing with Section 19310), or
7any regulation adopted pursuant to those articles, in an amount not
8to exceed five thousand dollars ($5,000) for each violation.

9(b) Before a civil penalty is levied, the person charged with the
10violation shall receive notice of the nature of the violation and
11shall be granted the opportunity to review the secretary’s evidence
12and, for up to 30 days following the issuance of the notice, the
13opportunity to present written argument and evidence to the
14secretary as to why the civil penalty should not be imposed or
15 should be reduced from the amount specified in the penalty notice.
16Notwithstanding Chapter 4.5 (commencing with Section 11400)
17of, and Chapter 5 (commencing with Section 11500) of, Part 1 of
18Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code or any other
19provision of law, this section does not require the department to
20conduct either a formal or informal hearing. The secretary instead
21may dispose of the matter upon review of the documentation
22presented.

23(c) Any person upon whom a civil penalty is levied may appeal
24to the secretary within 20 days of the date of receiving notification
25of the penalty, as follows:

26(1) The appeal shall be in writing and signed by the appellant
27or his or her authorized agent and shall state the grounds for the
28appeal.

29(2) Any party, at the time of filing the appeal, or within 10 days
30thereafter, may present written evidence and a written argument
31to the secretary.

32(3) The secretary may grant oral arguments upon application
33made at the time written arguments are made.

34(4) If an application to present an oral argument is granted,
35written notice of the time and place for the oral argument shall be
36given at least 10 days prior to the date set therefor. This time
37requirement may be altered by an agreement between the secretary
38and the person appealing the penalty.

39(5) The secretary shall decide the appeal on any oral or written
40arguments, briefs, and evidence that he or she has received.

P136  1(6) The secretary shall render a written decision within 45 days
2of the date of appeal, or within 15 days of the date of oral
3arguments. A copy of the secretary’s decision shall be delivered
4or mailed to the appellant.

5(7) The secretary may sustain the decision, modify the decision
6by reducing the amount of the penalty levied, or reverse the
7decision.

8(8) A review of the decision of the secretary may be sought by
9the appellant pursuant to Section 1094.5 of the Code of Civil
10Procedure.

11(d) (1) If the person upon whom a penalty is levied does not
12file a petition for a writ of administrative mandamus, the court,
13upon receiving a certified copy of the department’s final decision
14that directs payment of a civil penalty, shall enter judgment in
15favor of the department.

16(2) After completion of the appeal procedure provided for in
17this section, the secretary may file a certified copy of the
18 department’s final decision that directs payment of a civil penalty
19and, if applicable, any order denying a petition for a writ of
20administrative mandamus, with the clerk of the superior court of
21any county that has jurisdiction over the matter. No fees shall be
22charged by the clerk of the superior court for the performance of
23any official services required in connection with the entry of
24judgment pursuant to this section.

25(e) Any penalties levied by the secretary pursuant to this section
26shall be deposited in the Department of Food and Agriculture Fund,
27and, upon appropriation by the Legislature, shall be used for the
28purposes described in Section 221.

29

SEC. 69.  

Section 55527.6 of the Food and Agricultural Code
30 is amended to read:

31

55527.6.  

(a)  Licensees or applicants for a license shall be
32required to furnish and maintain an irrevocable guarantee in a form
33and amount satisfactory to the secretary if, within the preceding
34four years, the secretary determines that they have done any of the
35following:

36(1) Engaged in conduct which demonstrates a lack of financial
37responsibility, including, but not limited to, delinquent accounts
38payable, judgments of liability, insolvency, or bankruptcy.

39(2) Failed to assure future financial responsibility unless an
40irrevocable guarantee is provided.

P137  1(3) Otherwise violated this chapter which resulted in license
2revocation.

3(b) The irrevocable guarantee may include a personal or
4corporate guarantee, a certificate of deposit, a bank letter of credit,
5or a surety bond, as determined to be appropriate by the secretary.

6(c) The guarantee shall not be less than ten thousand dollars
7($10,000) or 20 percent of the annual dollar volume of business
8based on farm product value returned to the grower, whichever is
9greater, as assurance that the licensee’s or applicant’s business
10will be conducted in accordance with this chapter and that the
11licensee or applicant will pay all amounts due farm products
12creditors.

13(d) The secretary, based on changes in the nature and volume
14of business conducted by the licensee, may require an increase or
15authorize a reduction in the amount of the guarantee, but in no
16case shall the guarantee be reduced below ten thousand dollars
17($10,000). A licensee who is notified by the secretary to provide
18a guarantee in an increased amount shall do so within a reasonable
19time as specified by the secretary. If the licensee fails to do so, the
20secretary may, after a notice and opportunity for a hearing, suspend
21or revoke the license of the licensee.

22

SEC. 70.  

Section 64101 of the Food and Agricultural Code is
23amended to read:

24

64101.  

There is in the state government the Dairy Council of
25California which shall consist of not less than 24, nor more than
2625, members. All members of the council shall be appointed by
27the secretary and may hold office at the pleasure of the secretary.
28The membership of the council shall be as follows:

29(a) There shall be 12 members that are actually engaged in the
30production of milk. These 12 members are the producer members
31of the council.

32(b) There shall be 12 members that are handlers or
33producer-handlers of dairy products. These 12 members are the
34handler members of the council.

35(c) Upon the recommendation of the council, the secretary may
36appoint one person who is neither a producer, handler, or
37producer-handler, and who shall represent the public generally.

38

SEC. 71.  

Section 3513 of the Government Code is amended
39to read:

40

3513.  

As used in this chapter:

P138  1(a) “Employee organization” means any organization that
2includes employees of the state and that has as one of its primary
3purposes representing these employees in their relations with the
4state.

5(b) “Recognized employee organization” means an employee
6organization that has been recognized by the state as the exclusive
7representative of the employees in an appropriate unit.

8(c) “State employee” means any civil service employee of the
9state, and the teaching staff of schools under the jurisdiction of the
10State Department of Education or the Superintendent of Public
11Instruction, except managerial employees, confidential employees,
12 supervisory employees, employees of the Department of Human
13Resources, professional employees of the Department of Finance
14engaged in technical or analytical state budget preparation other
15than the auditing staff, professional employees in the
16Personnel/Payroll Services Division of the Controller’s office
17engaged in technical or analytical duties in support of the state’s
18personnel and payroll systems other than the training staff,
19employees of the Legislative Counsel Bureau, employees of the
20Bureau of State Audits, employees of the office of the Inspector
21General, employees of the board, conciliators employed by the
22California State Mediation and Conciliation Service, employees
23of the Office of the State Chief Information Officer except as
24otherwise provided in Section 11546.5, and intermittent athletic
25inspectors who are employees of the State Athletic Commission.

26(d) “Mediation” means effort by an impartial third party to assist
27in reconciling a dispute regarding wages, hours, and other terms
28and conditions of employment between representatives of the
29public agency and the recognized employee organization or
30recognized employee organizations through interpretation,
31suggestion, and advice.

32(e) “Managerial employee” means any employee having
33significant responsibilities for formulating or administering agency
34or departmental policies and programs or administering an agency
35or department.

36(f) “Confidential employee” means any employee who is
37required to develop or present management positions with respect
38to employer-employee relations or whose duties normally require
39access to confidential information contributing significantly to the
40development of management positions.

P139  1(g) “Supervisory employee” means any individual, regardless
2of the job description or title, having authority, in the interest of
3the employer, to hire, transfer, suspend, lay off, recall, promote,
4discharge, assign, reward, or discipline other employees, or
5responsibility to direct them, or to adjust their grievances, or
6effectively to recommend this action, if, in connection with the
7foregoing, the exercise of this authority is not of a merely routine
8or clerical nature, but requires the use of independent judgment.
9Employees whose duties are substantially similar to those of their
10subordinates shall not be considered to be supervisory employees.

11(h) “Board” means the Public Employment Relations Board.
12The Educational Employment Relations Board shall be renamed
13the Public Employment Relations Board as provided in Section
143540. The powers and duties of the board described in Section
153541.3 shall also apply, as appropriate, to this chapter.

16(i) “Maintenance of membership” means that all employees
17who voluntarily are, or who voluntarily become, members of a
18recognized employee organization shall remain members of that
19employee organization in good standing for a period as agreed to
20by the parties pursuant to a memorandum of understanding,
21commencing with the effective date of the memorandum of
22understanding. A maintenance of membership provision shall not
23apply to any employee who within 30 days prior to the expiration
24of the memorandum of understanding withdraws from the
25employee organization by sending a signed withdrawal letter to
26the employee organization and a copy to the Controller’s office.

27(j) “State employer,” or “employer,” for the purposes of
28bargaining or meeting and conferring in good faith, means the
29Governor or his or her designated representatives.

30(k) “Fair share fee” means the fee deducted by the state
31employer from the salary or wages of a state employee in an
32appropriate unit who does not become a member of and financially
33support the recognized employee organization. The fair share fee
34shall be used to defray the costs incurred by the recognized
35employee organization in fulfilling its duty to represent the
36 employees in their employment relations with the state, and shall
37not exceed the standard initiation fee, membership dues, and
38general assessments of the recognized employee organization.

39

SEC. 72.  

Section 3527 of the Government Code is amended
40to read:

P140  1

3527.  

As used in this chapter:

2(a) “Employee” means a civil service employee of the State of
3California. The “State of California” as used in this chapter
4includes those state agencies, boards, and commissions as may be
5designated by law that employ civil service employees, except the
6University of California, Hastings College of the Law, and the
7California State University.

8(b) “Excluded employee,” means all managerial employees, as
9defined in subdivision (e) of Section 3513, all confidential
10employees, as defined in subdivision (f) of Section 3513, and all
11supervisory employees, as defined in subdivision (g) of Section
123513, and all civil service employees of the Department of Human
13Resources, professional employees of the Department of Finance
14engaged in technical or analytical state budget preparation other
15than the auditing staff, professional employees in the
16Personnel/Payroll Services Division of the Controller’s office
17engaged in technical or analytical duties in support of the state’s
18personnel and payroll systems other than the training staff,
19employees of the Legislative Counsel Bureau, employees of the
20Bureau of State Audits, employees of the Public Employment
21Relations Board, conciliators employed by the California State
22Mediation and Conciliation Service, employees of the office of
23the State Chief Information Officer except as provided in Section
2411546.5, and intermittent athletic inspectors who are employees
25of the State Athletic Commission.

26(c) “Supervisory employee organization” means an organization
27that represents members who are supervisory employees under
28subdivision (g) of Section 3513.

29(d) “Excluded employee organization” means an organization
30that includes excluded employees of the state, as defined in
31subdivision (b), and that has as one of its primary purposes
32representing its members in employer-employee relations.
33Excluded employee organization includes supervisory employee
34organizations.

35(e) “State employer” or “employer,” for purposes of meeting
36and conferring on matters relating to supervisory
37employer-employee relations, means the Governor or his or her
38designated representatives.

39

SEC. 73.  

Section 7480 of the Government Code, as amended
40by Section 2 of Chapter 304 of the Statutes of 2011, is repealed.

P141  1

SEC. 74.  

Section 7522.20 of the Government Code is amended
2to read:

3

7522.20.  

(a) Each retirement system that offers a defined
4benefit plan for nonsafety members of the system shall use the
5formula prescribed by this section. The defined benefit plan shall
6provide a pension at retirement for service equal to the percentage
7of the member’s final compensation set forth opposite the
8member’s age at retirement, taken to the preceding quarter year,
9in the following table, multiplied by the number of years of service
10in the system as a nonsafety member. A member may retire for
11service under this section after five years of service and upon
12reaching 52 years of age.


13

 

Age of RetirementFraction

52   

1.000

5214   

1.025

5212   

1.050

5234   

1.075

53   ......

1.100

5314   

1.125

5312   

1.150

5334   

1.175

54   

1.200

5414   

1.225

5412   

1.250

5434   

1.275

55   

1.300

5514   

1.325

5512   

1.350

5534   

1.375

56   

1.400

5614   

1.425

5612   

1.450

5634   

1.475

57   

1.500

5714   

1.525

5712   

1.550

5734   

1.575

58   

1.600

5814   

1.625

5812   

1.650

5834   

1.675

59   

1.700

5914   

1.725

5912   

1.750

5934   

1.775

60   

1.800

6014   

1.825

6012   

1.850

6034   

1.875

61   

1.900

6114   

1.925

6112   

1.950

6134   

1.975

62   

2.000

6214   

2.025

6212   

2.050

6234   

2.075

63   

2.100

6314   

2.125

6312   

2.150

6334   

2.175

64   

2.200

6414   

2.225

6412   

2.250

6434   

2.275

65   

2.300

6514   

2.325

6512   

2.350

6534   

2.375

66   

2.400

6614   

2.425

6612   

2.450

6634   

2.475

67   

2.500

 

P142 37(b) Pensionable compensation used to calculate the defined
38benefit shall be limited as described in Section 7522.10.

P143  1(c) A new member of the State Teachers’ Retirement System
2shall be subject to the formula established pursuant to Section
324202.6 of the Education Code.

4

SEC. 75.  

Section 7522.56 of the Government Code is amended
5to read:

6

7522.56.  

(a) This section shall apply to any person who is
7receiving a pension benefit from a public retirement system and
8shall supersede any other provision in conflict with this section.

9(b) A retired person shall not serve, be employed by, or be
10employed through a contract directly by, a public employer in the
11same public retirement system from which the retiree receives the
12benefit without reinstatement from retirement, except as permitted
13by this section.

14(c) A person who retires from a public employer may serve
15without reinstatement from retirement or loss or interruption of
16benefits provided by the retirement system upon appointment by
17the appointing power of a public employer either during an
18 emergency to prevent stoppage of public business or because the
19retired person has skills needed to perform work of limited
20duration.

21(d) Appointments of the person authorized under this section
22shall not exceed a total for all employers in that public retirement
23system of 960 hours or other equivalent limit, in a calendar or
24fiscal year, depending on the administrator of the system. The rate
25of pay for the employment shall not be less than the minimum,
26nor exceed the maximum, paid by the employer to other employees
27performing comparable duties, divided by 173.333 to equal an
28hourly rate. A retired person whose employment without
29reinstatement is authorized by this section shall acquire no service
30credit or retirement rights under this section with respect to the
31employment unless he or she reinstates from retirement.

32(e) (1) Notwithstanding subdivision (c), any retired person shall
33not be eligible to serve or be employed by a public employer if,
34during the 12-month period prior to an appointment described in
35this section, the retired person received any unemployment
36insurance compensation arising out of prior employment subject
37to this section with a public employer. A retiree shall certify in
38writing to the employer upon accepting an offer of employment
39that he or she is in compliance with this requirement.

P144  1(2) A retired person who accepts an appointment after receiving
2unemployment insurance compensation as described in this
3subdivision shall terminate that employment on the last day of the
4current pay period and shall not be eligible for reappointment
5subject to this section for a period of 12 months following the last
6day of employment.

7(f) A retired person shall not be eligible to be employed pursuant
8to this section for a period of 180 days following the date of
9retirement unless he or she meets one of the following conditions:

10(1) The employer certifies the nature of the employment and
11that the appointment is necessary to fill a critically needed position
12before 180 days have passed and the appointment has been
13approved by the governing body of the employer in a public
14meeting. The appointment may not be placed on a consent calendar.

15(2) The state employer certifies the nature of the employment
16and that the appointment is necessary to fill a critically needed
17state employment position before 180 days have passed and the
18appointment has been approved by the Department of Human
19Resources. The department may establish a process to delegate
20appointing authority to individual state agencies, but shall audit
21the process to determine if abuses of the system occur. If necessary,
22the department may assume an agency’s appointing authority for
23retired workers and may charge the department an appropriate
24amount for administering that authority.

25(3) The retiree is eligible to participate in the Faculty Early
26Retirement Program pursuant to a collective bargaining agreement
27with the California State University that existed prior to January
281, 2013, or has been included in subsequent agreements.

29(4) The retiree is a public safety officer or firefighter.

30(g) A retired person who accepted a retirement incentive upon
31retirement shall not be eligible to be employed pursuant to this
32section for a period of 180 days following the date of retirement
33and subdivision (f) shall not apply.

34(h) This section shall not apply to a person who is retired from
35the State Teachers’ Retirement System, and who is subject to
36Section 24214, 24214.5, or 26812 of the Education Code.

37(i) This section shall not apply to (1) a subordinate judicial
38officer whose position, upon retirement, is converted to a judgeship
39pursuant to Section 69615, and he or she returns to work in the
40converted position, and the employer is a trial court, or (2) a retiree
P145  1who takes office as a judge of a court of record pursuant to Article
2VI of the California Constitution or a retiree of the Judges’
3Retirement System I or the Judges’ Retirement System II who is
4appointed to serve as a retired judge.

5

SEC. 76.  

Section 7522.57 of the Government Code is amended
6to read:

7

7522.57.  

(a) This section shall apply to any retired person who
8is receiving a pension benefit from a public retirement system and
9is first appointed on or after January 1, 2013, to a salaried position
10on a state board or commission. This section shall supersede any
11other provision in conflict with this section.

12(b) A person who is retired from a public retirement system
13may serve without reinstatement from retirement or loss or
14interruption of benefits provided that appointment is to a part-time
15state board or commission. A retired person whose employment
16without reinstatement is authorized by this subdivision shall acquire
17no benefits, service credit, or retirement rights with respect to the
18employment. Unless otherwise defined in statute, for the purpose
19of this section, a part-time appointment shall mean an appointment
20with a salary of no more than $60,000 annually, which shall be
21increased in any fiscal year in which a general salary increase is
22provided for state employees. The amount of the increase provided
23by this section shall be comparable to, but shall not exceed, the
24percentage of the general salary increases provided for state
25employees during that fiscal year.

26(c) A person who is retired from the Public Employees’
27Retirement System shall not serve on a full-time basis on a state
28board or commission without reinstatement unless that person
29serves as a nonsalaried member of the board or commission and
30receives only per diem authorized to all members of the board or
31commission. A person who serves as a nonsalaried member of a
32board or commission shall not earn any service credit or benefits
33in the Public Employees’ Retirement System or make contributions
34with respect to the service performed.

35(d) A person retired from a public retirement system other than
36the Public Employees’ Retirement System who is appointed on a
37full-time basis to a state board or commission shall choose one of
38the following options:

39(1) The person may serve as a nonsalaried member of the board
40or commission and continue to receive his or her retirement
P146  1allowance, in addition to any per diem authorized to all members
2of the board or commission. The person shall not earn service
3credit or benefits in the Public Employees’ Retirement System and
4shall not make contributions with respect to the service performed.

5(2)  (A) The person may suspend his or her retirement allowance
6or allowances and instate as a new member of the Public
7Employees’ Retirement System for the service performed on the
8board or commission. The pensionable compensation earned
9pursuant to this paragraph shall not be eligible for reciprocity with
10any other retirement system or plan.

11(B) Upon retiring for service after serving on the board or
12commission, the appointee shall be entitled to reinstatement of any
13suspended benefits, including employer provided retiree health
14benefits, that he or she was entitled to at the time of being
15appointed to the board or commission.

16(e) Notwithstanding subdivisions (c) and (d), a person who
17retires from a public employer may serve without reinstatement
18from retirement or loss or interruption of benefits provided by the
19retirement system upon appointment to a full-time state board
20pursuant to Section 5075 of the Penal Code.

21

SEC. 77.  

Section 7522.72 of the Government Code is amended
22to read:

23

7522.72.  

(a) This section shall apply to a public employee first
24employed by a public employer or first elected or appointed to an
25office before January 1, 2013, and, on and after that date, Section
267522.70 shall not apply.

27(b) (1) If a public employee is convicted by a state or federal
28trial court of any felony under state or federal law for conduct
29arising out of or in the performance of his or her official duties, in
30pursuit of the office or appointment, or in connection with
31obtaining salary, disability retirement, service retirement, or other
32benefits, he or she shall forfeit all accrued rights and benefits in
33any public retirement system in which he or she is a member to
34the extent provided in subdivision (c) and shall not accrue further
35 benefits in that public retirement system, effective on the date of
36the conviction.

37(2) If a public employee who has contact with children as part
38of his or her official duties is convicted of a felony that was
39committed within the scope of his or her official duties against or
40involving a child who he or she has contact with as part of his or
P147  1her official duties, he or she shall forfeit all accrued rights and
2benefits in any public retirement system in which he or she is a
3member to the extent provided in subdivision (c) and shall not
4accrue further benefits in that public retirement system, effective
5on the date of the conviction.

6(c) (1) A public employee shall forfeit all the retirement benefits
7earned or accrued from the earliest date of the commission of any
8felony described in subdivision (b) to the forfeiture date, inclusive.
9The retirement benefits shall remain forfeited notwithstanding any
10reduction in sentence or expungement of the conviction following
11the date of the public employee’s conviction. Retirement benefits
12attributable to service performed prior to the date of the first
13commission of the felony for which the public employee was
14convicted shall not be forfeited as a result of this section.

15(2) For purposes of this subdivision, “forfeiture date” means
16the date of the conviction.

17(d) (1) Any contributions to the public retirement system made
18by the public employee described in subdivision (b) on or after
19the earliest date of the commission of any felony described in
20subdivision (b) shall be returned, without interest, to the public
21employee upon the occurrence of a distribution event unless
22otherwise ordered by a court or determined by the pension
23administrator.

24(2) Any funds returned to the public employee pursuant to
25subdivision (d) shall be disbursed by electronic funds transfer to
26an account of the public employee, in a manner conforming with
27the requirements of the Internal Revenue Code, and the public
28retirement system shall notify the court and the district attorney
29at least three business days before that disbursement of funds.

30(3) For the purposes of this subdivision, a “distribution event”
31means any of the following:

32(A) Separation from employment.

33(B) Death of the member.

34(C) Retirement of the member.

35(e) (1) Upon conviction, a public employee as described in
36subdivision (b) and the prosecuting agency shall notify the public
37employer who employed the public employee at the time of the
38commission of the felony within 60 days of the felony conviction
39of all of the following information:

40(A) The date of conviction.

P148  1(B) The date of the first known commission of the felony.

2(2) The operation of this section is not dependent upon the
3performance of the notification obligations specified in this
4subdivision.

5(f) The public employer that employs or employed a public
6employee described in subdivision (b) and that public employee
7shall each notify the public retirement system in which the public
8employee is a member of that public employee’s conviction within
990 days of the conviction. The operation of this section is not
10dependent upon the performance of the notification obligations
11specified in this subdivision.

12(g) A public retirement system may assess a public employer a
13reasonable amount to reimburse the cost of audit, adjustment, or
14correction, if it determines that the public employer failed to
15comply with this section.

16(h) If a public employee’s conviction is reversed and that
17decision is final, the employee shall be entitled to do either of the
18following:

19(1) Recover the forfeited retirement benefits as adjusted for the
20contributions received pursuant to subdivision (d).

21(2) Redeposit those contributions and interest, as determined
22by the system actuary, and then recover the full amount of the
23forfeited benefits.

24(i) A public employee first employed by a public employer or
25first elected or appointed to an office on or after January 1, 2013,
26shall be subject to Section 7522.74.

27

SEC. 78.  

Section 8164.1 of the Government Code is amended
28to read:

29

8164.1.  

There is in state government a Capitol Area Committee
30consisting of nine members who shall be appointed in the following
31manner:

32(a) Four members of the committee shall be appointed by the
33Governor of which at least one member shall be appointed from
34a list of three candidates submitted by the City of Sacramento and
35at least one member shall be appointed from a list of three
36candidates submitted by the County of Sacramento. Two members
37shall be appointed for a term expiring December 31, 1979, and
38two for a term expiring December 31, 1981.

39(b) Two members shall be appointed by the Speaker of the
40Assembly, one of whom may be a Member of the Assembly, and
P149  1two members shall be appointed by the Senate Rules Committee,
2one of whom may be a Member of the Senate. Legislative members
3of the committee shall meet and, except as otherwise provided by
4the Constitution, advise the department to the extent that the
5advisory participation is not incompatible with their respective
6positions as Members of the Legislature. Of the four appointments
7by the Legislature, two shall be appointed for a term expiring
8December 31, 1979, and two for a term expiring December 31,
91981.

10(c) One shall be appointed by and serve at the pleasure of the
11director.

12Subsequent appointments pursuant to subdivisions (a) and (b)
13shall be for terms of four years, ending on December 31 of the
14fourth year after the end of the prior term, except that appointments
15to fill vacancies occurring for any reason other than the expiration
16of the term shall be for the unexpired portion of the term in which
17they occur. The members of the board shall hold office until their
18 successors are appointed and qualify.

19The members of the committee shall not receive compensation
20from the state for their services under this article but, when called
21to attend a meeting of the committee, shall be reimbursed for their
22actual and necessary expenses incurred in connection with the
23meeting in accordance with the rules of the Department of Human
24Resources.

25(d) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2018,
26and as of that date is repealed, unless a later enacted statute, that
27is enacted before January 1, 2018, deletes or extends that date.

28

SEC. 79.  

The heading of Chapter 3.1 (commencing with
29Section 8240) of Division 1 of Title 2 of the Government Code is
30amended to read:

31 

32Chapter  3.1. Commission on the Status of Women and
33Girls
34

 

35

SEC. 80.  

Section 11019 of the Government Code is amended
36to read:

37

11019.  

(a) Any department or authority specified in subdivision
38(b) may, upon determining that an advance payment is essential
39for the effective implementation of a program within the provisions
40of this section, and to the extent funds are available, advance to a
P150  1community-based private nonprofit agency with which it has
2contracted, pursuant to federal law and related state law, for the
3delivery of services, not to exceed 25 percent of the annual
4allocation to be made pursuant to the contract and those laws during
5the fiscal year to the private nonprofit agency. Advances in excess
6of 25 percent may be made on contracts financed by a federal
7program when the advances are not prohibited by federal
8guidelines. Advance payments may be provided for services to be
9performed under any contract with a total annual contract amount
10of four hundred thousand dollars ($400,000) or less. This amount
11shall be increased by 5 percent, as determined by the Department
12of Finance, for each year commencing with 1989. Advance
13payments may also be made with respect to any contract that the
14Department of Finance determines has been entered into with any
15community-based private nonprofit agency with modest reserves
16and potential cashflow problems. No advance payment shall be
17granted if the total annual contract exceeds four hundred thousand
18dollars ($400,000), without the prior approval of the Department
19of Finance.

20The specific departments and authority mentioned in subdivision
21(b) shall develop a plan to establish control procedures for advance
22payments. Each plan shall include a procedure whereby the
23department or authority determines whether or not an advance
24payment is essential for the effective implementation of a particular
25program being funded. Each plan shall be approved by the
26Department of Finance.

27(b) Subdivision (a) shall apply to the Emergency Medical
28Services Authority, the California Department of Aging, the State
29Department of Developmental Services, the State Department of
30Alcohol and Drug Programs, the Department of Corrections and
31Rehabilitation, including the Division of Juvenile Justice, the
32Department of Community Services and Development, the
33Employment Development Department, the State Department of
34Healthbegin insert Careend insert Services, the State Department of State Hospitals, the
35Department of Rehabilitation, the State Department of Social
36Services, the Department of Child Support Services, the State
37Department of Education, the area boards on developmental
38disabilities, the State Council on Developmental Disabilities, the
39Office of Statewide Health Planning and Development, and the
P151  1California Environmental Protection Agency, including all boards
2and departments contained therein.

3Subdivision (a) shall also apply to the California Health and
4Human Services Agency, which may make advance payments,
5pursuant to the requirements of that subdivision, to multipurpose
6senior services projects as established in Chapter 8 (commencing
7with Section 9560) of Division 8.5 of the Welfare and Institutions
8Code.

9Subdivision (a) shall also apply to the Natural Resources Agency,
10including all boards and departments contained in that agency,
11which may make advance payments pursuant to the requirements
12of that subdivision with respect to grants and contracts awarded
13to certified local community conservation corps.

14(c) A county may, upon determining that an advance payment
15is essential for the effective implementation of a program within
16the provisions of this section, and to the extent funds are available,
17and not more frequently than once each fiscal year, advance to a
18community-based private nonprofit agency with which it has
19contracted, pursuant to any applicable federal or state law, for the
20delivery of services, not to exceed 25 percent of the annual
21allocation to be made pursuant to the contract and those laws,
22during the fiscal year to the private nonprofit agency.

23

SEC. 81.  

Section 11020 of the Government Code is amended
24to read:

25

11020.  

(a) Unless otherwise provided by law, all offices of
26every state agency shall be kept open for the transaction of business
27from 8 a.m. until 5 p.m. of each day from Monday to Friday,
28inclusive, other than legal holidays. However, any state agency or
29division, branch, or office thereof may be kept open for the
30transaction of business on other hours and on other days than those
31specified in this subdivision.

32(b) If this section is in conflict with a memorandum of
33understanding reached pursuant to Chapter 12 (commencing with
34Section 3560) of Division 4 of Title 1, the memorandum of
35understanding shall be controlling without further legislative action,
36except that if the memorandum of understanding requires the
37expenditure of funds, the memorandum shall not become effective
38unless approved by the Legislature in the annual Budget Act.

P152  1(c) Subdivision (a) shall not apply to any fair or association
2specified under Division 3 (commencing with Section 3001) of
3the Food and Agricultural Code.

4

SEC. 82.  

Section 11435.15 of the Government Code is amended
5to read:

6

11435.15.  

(a) The following state agencies shall provide
7language assistance in adjudicative proceedings to the extent
8provided in this article:

9(1) Agricultural Labor Relations Board.

10(2) State Department of Alcohol and Drug Programs.

11(3) State Athletic Commission.

12(4) California Unemployment Insurance Appeals Board.

13(5) Board of Parole Hearings.

14(6) State Board of Barbering and Cosmetology.

15(7) State Department of Developmental Services.

16(8) Public Employment Relations Board.

17(9) Franchise Tax Board.

18(10) State Department of Health Care Services.

19(11) Department of Housing and Community Development.

20(12) Department of Industrial Relations.

21(13) State Department of State Hospitals.

22(14) Department of Motor Vehicles.

23(15) Notary Public Section, Office of the Secretary of State.

24(16) Public Utilities Commission.

25(17) Office of Statewide Health Planning and Development.

26(18) State Department of Social Services.

27(19) Workers’ Compensation Appeals Board.

28(20) Division of Juvenile Justice.

29(21) Division of Juvenile Parole Operations.

30(22) Department of Insurance.

31(23) State Personnel Board.

32(24) California Board of Podiatric Medicine.

33(25) Board of Psychology.

34(b) Nothing in this section prevents an agency other than an
35agency listed in subdivision (a) from electing to adopt any of the
36procedures in this article, provided that any selection of an
37interpreter is subject to Section 11435.30.

38(c) Nothing in this section prohibits an agency from providing
39an interpreter during a proceeding to which this chapter does not
P153  1apply, including an informal factfinding or informal investigatory
2hearing.

3(d) This article applies to an agency listed in subdivision (a)
4notwithstanding a general provision that this chapter does not apply
5to some or all of an agency’s adjudicative proceedings.

6

SEC. 83.  

Section 11552 of the Government Code is amended
7to read:

8

11552.  

(a) Effective January 1, 1988, an annual salary of
9eighty-five thousand four hundred two dollars ($85,402) shall be
10paid to each of the following:

11(1) Commissioner of Business Oversight.

12(2) Director of Transportation.

13(3) Real Estate Commissioner.

14(4) Director of Social Services.

15(5) Director of Water Resources.

16(6) Director of General Services.

17(7) Director of Motor Vehicles.

18(8) Executive Officer of the Franchise Tax Board.

19(9) Director of Employment Development.

20(10) Director of Alcoholic Beverage Control.

21(11) Director of Housing and Community Development.

22(12) Director of Alcohol and Drug Programs.

23(13) Director of Statewide Health Planning and Development.

24(14) Director of the Department of Human Resources.

25(15) Director of Health Care Services.

26(16) Director of State Hospitals.

27(17) Director of Developmental Services.

28(18) State Public Defender.

29(19) Director of the California State Lottery.

30(20) Director of Fish and Wildlife.

31(21) Director of Parks and Recreation.

32(22) Director of Rehabilitation.

33(23) Director of the Office of Administrative Law.

34(24) Director of Consumer Affairs.

35(25) Director of Forestry and Fire Protection.

36(26) The Inspector General pursuant to Section 6125 of the
37Penal Code.

38(27) Director of Child Support Services.

39(28) Director of Industrial Relations.

40(29) Director of Toxic Substances Control.

P154  1(30) Director of Pesticide Regulation.

2(31) Director of Managed Health Care.

3(32) Director of Environmental Health Hazard Assessment.

4(33) Director of Technology.

5(34) Director of California Bay-Delta Authority.

6(35) Director of California Conservation Corps.

7(b) The annual compensation provided by this section shall be
8increased in any fiscal year in which a general salary increase is
9provided for state employees. The amount of the increase provided
10by this section shall be comparable to, but shall not exceed, the
11percentage of the general salary increases provided for state
12employees during that fiscal year.

13

SEC. 84.  

Section 12460 of the Government Code is amended
14to read:

15

12460.  

The Controller shall submit an annual report to the
16Governor containing a statement of the funds of the state, its
17revenues, and the public expenditures during the preceding fiscal
18year. The annual report shall be known as the budgetary-legal basis
19annual report and prepared in a manner that will account for prior
20year adjustments, fund balances, encumbrances, deferred payroll,
21revenues, expenditures, and other components on the same basis
22as that of the applicable Governor’s Budget and the applicable
23Budget Act, as determined by the Director of Finance in
24consultation with the Controller. If the Governor’s Budget or the
25Budget Act does not provide the applicable information for this
26purpose, funds shall be accounted for in the budgetary-legal basis
27annual report in a manner prescribed by Section 13344. The
28requirements of this section shall apply beginning with the issuance
29of the budgetary-legal basis annual report for the 2013-14 fiscal
30year. The Controller shall confer with the Department of Finance
31to propose and develop methods to facilitate these changes pursuant
32to Section 13344, including methods to ensure that information
33related to encumbrances and deferred payroll continue to be listed
34in the state’s financial statements, as deemed appropriate by the
35Controller.

36The Controller shall also issue a comprehensive annual financial
37report prepared strictly in accordance with “Generally Accepted
38Accounting Principles.”

P155  1The annual reports referenced in this section shall be compiled
2and published by the Controller in the time, form, and manner
3prescribed by him or her.

4

SEC. 85.  

Section 12838.14 of the Government Code is amended
5to read:

6

12838.14.  

(a) Notwithstanding any other provision of law,
7money recovered by the Department of Corrections and
8Rehabilitation from a union paid leave settlement agreement shall
9be credited to the fiscal year in which the recovered money is
10received. An amount not to exceed the amount of the money
11received shall be available for expenditure to the Department of
12Corrections and Rehabilitation for the fiscal year in which the
13recovered money is received, upon approval of the Department of
14Finance. If this statute is enacted on or after July 1, 2012, any
15money received prior to July 1, 2012, for purposes of this section,
16shall be available for expenditure for the 2012-13 fiscal year.

17(b) The Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation shall
18identify and report the total amount collected annually to the
19Department of Finance.

20(c) This section shall become inoperative on June 30, 2021, and,
21as of January 1, 2022, is repealed, unless a later enacted statute,
22that becomes operative on or before January 1, 2022, deletes or
23extends the dates on which it becomes inoperative and is repealed.

24

SEC. 86.  

Section 12926 of the Government Code is amended
25to read:

26

12926.  

As used in this part in connection with unlawful
27practices, unless a different meaning clearly appears from the
28context:

29(a) “Affirmative relief” or “prospective relief” includes the
30authority to order reinstatement of an employee, awards of backpay,
31reimbursement of out-of-pocket expenses, hiring, transfers,
32reassignments, grants of tenure, promotions, cease and desist
33orders, posting of notices, training of personnel, testing, expunging
34of records, reporting of records, and any other similar relief that
35is intended to correct unlawful practices under this part.

36(b) “Age” refers to the chronological age of any individual who
37has reached his or her 40th birthday.

38(c) “Employee” does not include any individual employed by
39his or her parents, spouse, or child, or any individual employed
P156  1under a special license in a nonprofit sheltered workshop or
2rehabilitation facility.

3(d) “Employer” includes any person regularly employing five
4or more persons, or any person acting as an agent of an employer,
5directly or indirectly, the state or any political or civil subdivision
6of the state, and cities, except as follows:

7“Employer” does not include a religious association or
8corporation not organized for private profit.

9(e) “Employment agency” includes any person undertaking for
10compensation to procure employees or opportunities to work.

11(f) “Essential functions” means the fundamental job duties of
12the employment position the individual with a disability holds or
13desires. “Essential functions” does not include the marginal
14functions of the position.

15(1) A job function may be considered essential for any of several
16reasons, including, but not limited to, any one or more of the
17following:

18(A) The function may be essential because the reason the
19position exists is to perform that function.

20(B) The function may be essential because of the limited number
21of employees available among whom the performance of that job
22function can be distributed.

23(C) The function may be highly specialized, so that the
24incumbent in the position is hired for his or her expertise or ability
25to perform the particular function.

26(2) Evidence of whether a particular function is essential
27includes, but is not limited to, the following:

28(A) The employer’s judgment as to which functions are essential.

29(B) Written job descriptions prepared before advertising or
30interviewing applicants for the job.

31(C) The amount of time spent on the job performing the function.

32(D) The consequences of not requiring the incumbent to perform
33the function.

34(E) The terms of a collective bargaining agreement.

35(F) The work experiences of past incumbents in the job.

36(G) The current work experience of incumbents in similar jobs.

37(g) (1) “Genetic information” means, with respect to any
38individual, information about any of the following:

39(A) The individual’s genetic tests.

40(B) The genetic tests of family members of the individual.

P157  1(C) The manifestation of a disease or disorder in family members
2of the individual.

3(2) “Genetic information” includes any request for, or receipt
4of, genetic services, or participation in clinical research that
5includes genetic services, by an individual or any family member
6of the individual.

7(3) “Genetic information” does not include information about
8the sex or age of any individual.

9(h) “Labor organization” includes any organization that exists
10and is constituted for the purpose, in whole or in part, of collective
11bargaining or of dealing with employers concerning grievances,
12terms or conditions of employment, or of other mutual aid or
13protection.

14(i) “Medical condition” means either of the following:

15(1) Any health impairment related to or associated with a
16diagnosis of cancer or a record or history of cancer.

17(2) Genetic characteristics. For purposes of this section, “genetic
18characteristics” means either of the following:

19(A) Any scientifically or medically identifiable gene or
20chromosome, or combination or alteration thereof, that is known
21to be a cause of a disease or disorder in a person or his or her
22offspring, or that is determined to be associated with a statistically
23increased risk of development of a disease or disorder, and that is
24presently not associated with any symptoms of any disease or
25disorder.

26(B) Inherited characteristics that may derive from the individual
27or family member, that are known to be a cause of a disease or
28disorder in a person or his or her offspring, or that are determined
29to be associated with a statistically increased risk of development
30of a disease or disorder, and that are presently not associated with
31any symptoms of any disease or disorder.

32(j) “Mental disability” includes, but is not limited to, all of the
33following:

34(1) Having any mental or psychological disorder or condition,
35such as intellectual disability, organic brain syndrome, emotional
36or mental illness, or specific learning disabilities, that limits a
37major life activity. For purposes of this section:

38(A) “Limits” shall be determined without regard to mitigating
39measures, such as medications, assistive devices, or reasonable
P158  1accommodations, unless the mitigating measure itself limits a
2major life activity.

3(B) A mental or psychological disorder or condition limits a
4major life activity if it makes the achievement of the major life
5activity difficult.

6(C) “Major life activities” shall be broadly construed and shall
7include physical, mental, and social activities and working.

8(2) Any other mental or psychological disorder or condition not
9described in paragraph (1) that requires special education or related
10services.

11(3) Having a record or history of a mental or psychological
12disorder or condition described in paragraph (1) or (2), which is
13known to the employer or other entity covered by this part.

14(4) Being regarded or treated by the employer or other entity
15covered by this part as having, or having had, any mental condition
16that makes achievement of a major life activity difficult.

17(5) Being regarded or treated by the employer or other entity
18covered by this part as having, or having had, a mental or
19psychological disorder or condition that has no present disabling
20effect, but that may become a mental disability as described in
21paragraph (1) or (2).

22“Mental disability” does not include sexual behavior disorders,
23compulsive gambling, kleptomania, pyromania, or psychoactive
24substance use disorders resulting from the current unlawful use of
25controlled substances or other drugs.

26(k) “On the bases enumerated in this part” means or refers to
27discrimination on the basis of one or more of the following: race,
28religious creed, color, national origin, ancestry, physical disability,
29mental disability, medical condition, genetic information, marital
30status, sex, age, or sexual orientation.

31(l) “Physical disability” includes, but is not limited to, all of the
32following:

33(1) Having any physiological disease, disorder, condition,
34cosmetic disfigurement, or anatomical loss that does both of the
35following:

36(A) Affects one or more of the following body systems:
37neurological, immunological, musculoskeletal, special sense
38organs, respiratory, including speech organs, cardiovascular,
39reproductive, digestive, genitourinary, hemic and lymphatic, skin,
40and endocrine.

P159  1(B) Limits a major life activity. For purposes of this section:

2(i) “Limits” shall be determined without regard to mitigating
3measures such as medications, assistive devices, prosthetics, or
4reasonable accommodations, unless the mitigating measure itself
5limits a major life activity.

6(ii) A physiological disease, disorder, condition, cosmetic
7disfigurement, or anatomical loss limits a major life activity if it
8makes the achievement of the major life activity difficult.

9(iii) “Major life activities” shall be broadly construed and
10includes physical, mental, and social activities and working.

11(2) Any other health impairment not described in paragraph (1)
12that requires special education or related services.

13(3) Having a record or history of a disease, disorder, condition,
14cosmetic disfigurement, anatomical loss, or health impairment
15described in paragraph (1) or (2), which is known to the employer
16or other entity covered by this part.

17(4) Being regarded or treated by the employer or other entity
18covered by this part as having, or having had, any physical
19condition that makes achievement of a major life activity difficult.

20(5) Being regarded or treated by the employer or other entity
21covered by this part as having, or having had, a disease, disorder,
22condition, cosmetic disfigurement, anatomical loss, or health
23impairment that has no present disabling effect but may become
24a physical disability as described in paragraph (1) or (2).

25(6) “Physical disability” does not include sexual behavior
26disorders, compulsive gambling, kleptomania, pyromania, or
27psychoactive substance use disorders resulting from the current
28unlawful use of controlled substances or other drugs.

29(m) Notwithstanding subdivisions (j) and (l), if the definition
30of “disability” used in the federal Americans with Disabilities Act
31of 1990 (Public Law 101-336) would result in broader protection
32of the civil rights of individuals with a mental disability or physical
33disability, as defined in subdivision (j) or (l), or would include any
34medical condition not included within those definitions, then that
35broader protection or coverage shall be deemed incorporated by
36reference into, and shall prevail over conflicting provisions of, the
37definitions in subdivisions (j) and (l).

38(n) “Race, religious creed, color, national origin, ancestry,
39physical disability, mental disability, medical condition, genetic
40information, marital status, sex, age, or sexual orientation” includes
P160  1a perception that the person has any of those characteristics or that
2the person is associated with a person who has, or is perceived to
3have, any of those characteristics.

4(o) “Reasonable accommodation” may include either of the
5following:

6(1) Making existing facilities used by employees readily
7accessible to, and usable by, individuals with disabilities.

8(2) Job restructuring, part-time or modified work schedules,
9reassignment to a vacant position, acquisition or modification of
10equipment or devices, adjustment or modifications of examinations,
11training materials or policies, the provision of qualified readers or
12interpreters, and other similar accommodations for individuals
13with disabilities.

14(p) “Religious creed,” “religion,” “religious observance,”
15“religious belief,” and “creed” include all aspects of religious
16belief, observance, and practice, including religious dress and
17grooming practices. “Religious dress practice” shall be construed
18broadly to include the wearing or carrying of religious clothing,
19head or face coverings, jewelry, artifacts, and any other item that
20is part of the observance by an individual of his or her religious
21creed. “Religious grooming practice” shall be construed broadly
22to include all forms of head, facial, and body hair that are part of
23the observance by an individual of his or her religious creed.

24(q) (1) “Sex” includes, but is not limited to, the following:

25(A) Pregnancy or medical conditions related to pregnancy.

26(B) Childbirth or medical conditions related to childbirth.

27(C) Breastfeeding or medical conditions related to breastfeeding.

28(2) “Sex” also includes, but is not limited to, a person’s gender.
29“Gender” means sex, and includes a person’s gender identity and
30gender expression. “Gender expression” means a person’s
31gender-related appearance and behavior whether or not
32stereotypically associated with the person’s assigned sex at birth.

33(r) “Sexual orientation” means heterosexuality, homosexuality,
34and bisexuality.

35(s) “Supervisor” means any individual having the authority, in
36 the interest of the employer, to hire, transfer, suspend, layoff, recall,
37promote, discharge, assign, reward, or discipline other employees,
38or the responsibility to direct them, or to adjust their grievances,
39or effectively to recommend that action, if, in connection with the
P161  1foregoing, the exercise of that authority is not of a merely routine
2or clerical nature, but requires the use of independent judgment.

3(t) “Undue hardship” means an action requiring significant
4difficulty or expense, when considered in light of the following
5factors:

6(1) The nature and cost of the accommodation needed.

7(2) The overall financial resources of the facilities involved in
8the provision of the reasonable accommodations, the number of
9persons employed at the facility, and the effect on expenses and
10resources or the impact otherwise of these accommodations upon
11the operation of the facility.

12(3) The overall financial resources of the covered entity, the
13overall size of the business of a covered entity with respect to the
14number of employees, and the number, type, and location of its
15facilities.

16(4) The type of operations, including the composition, structure,
17and functions of the workforce of the entity.

18(5) The geographic separateness, administrative, or fiscal
19relationship of the facility or facilities.

20

SEC. 87.  

Section 14837 of the Government Code is amended
21to read:

22

14837.  

As used in this chapter:

23(a) “Department” means the Department of General Services.

24(b) “Director” means the Director of General Services.

25(c) “Manufacturer” means a business that meets both of the
26following requirements:

27(1) It is primarily engaged in the chemical or mechanical
28transformation of raw materials or processed substances into new
29products.

30(2) It is classified between Codes 31 to 33, inclusive, of the
31North American Industry Classification System.

32(d) (1) “Small business” means an independently owned and
33operated business that is not dominant in its field of operation, the
34principal office of which is located in California, the officers of
35which are domiciled in California, and which, together with
36affiliates, has 100 or fewer employees, and average annual gross
37receipts of ten million dollars ($10,000,000) or less over the
38previous three years, or is a manufacturer, as defined in subdivision
39(c), with 100 or fewer employees.

P162  1(2) “Microbusiness” is a small business which, together with
2affiliates, has average annual gross receipts of two million five
3hundred thousand dollars ($2,500,000) or less over the previous
4three years, or is a manufacturer, as defined in subdivision (c),
5with 25 or fewer employees.

6(3) The director shall conduct a biennial review of the average
7annual gross receipt levels specified in this subdivision and may
8adjust that level to reflect changes in the California Consumer
9Price Index for all items. To reflect unique variations or
10characteristics of different industries, the director may establish,
11to the extent necessary, either higher or lower qualifying standards
12than those specified in this subdivision, or alternative standards
13based on other applicable criteria.

14(4) Standards applied under this subdivision shall be established
15by regulation, in accordance with Chapter 3.5 (commencing with
16Section 11340) of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2, and shall preclude
17the qualification of businesses that are dominant in their industry.
18In addition, the standards shall provide that the certified small
19business or microbusiness shall provide goods or services that
20contribute to the fulfillment of the contract requirements by
21performing a commercially useful function, as defined below:

22(A) A certified small business or microbusiness is deemed to
23perform a commercially useful function if the business does all of
24the following:

25(i) Is responsible for the execution of a distinct element of the
26 work of the contract.

27(ii) Carries out its obligation by actually performing, managing,
28or supervising the work involved.

29(iii) Performs work that is normal for its business services and
30functions.

31(iv) Is responsible, with respect to products, inventories,
32materials, and supplies required for the contract, for negotiating
33price, determining quality and quantity, ordering, installing, if
34applicable, and making payment.

35(v) Is not further subcontracting a portion of the work that is
36greater than that expected to be subcontracted by normal industry
37practices.

38(B) A contractor, subcontractor, or supplier will not be
39considered to perform a commercially useful function if the
40contractor’s, subcontractor’s, or supplier’s role is limited to that
P163  1of an extra participant in a transaction, contract, or project through
2which funds are passed in order to obtain the appearance of small
3business or microbusiness participation.

4(e) “Disabled veteran business enterprise” means an enterprise
5that has been certified as meeting the qualifications established by
6paragraph (7) of subdivision (b) of Section 999 of the Military and
7Veterans Code.

8

SEC. 88.  

The heading of Chapter 3 (commencing with Section
915570) of Part 8.5 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code
10 is repealed.

11

SEC. 89.  

Section 15606.5 of the Government Code, as added
12by Chapter 1167 of the Statutes of 1967, is amended and
13renumbered to read:

14

15606.7  

Training of assessors and their staffs under Sections
1515606 and 15608 shall be provided by the board on a
16nonreimbursable basis.

17

SEC. 90.  

Section 15814.25 of the Government Code, as added
18by Section 1 of Chapter 234 of the Statutes of 1997, is amended
19and renumbered to read:

20

15814.29  

Notwithstanding subdivision (f) of Section 15814.11,
21for the purposes of this chapter “state agency” also shall include
22any local government as defined in subdivision (b) of Section
235921.

24

SEC. 91.  

Section 15819.30 of the Government Code, as added
25by Section 8 of Chapter 585 of the Statutes of 1993, is amended
26and renumbered to read:

27

15819.17  

(a) The necessary funding for the construction of
28the Secure Substance Abuse Treatment Facility authorized by
29Section 5 of Chapter 585 of the Statutes of 1993 may be obtained
30through lease-purchase financing arrangements. Sections 15819.1
31to 15819.13, inclusive, and Section 15819.15 shall apply for this
32purpose provided that the following apply:

33(1) “Prison facility” as used in Section 15819.1 includes the
34Secure Substance Abuse Treatment Facility.

35(2) Notwithstanding the limitation imposed by Section 15819.3
36regarding the amount of bonds to be issued for construction,
37acquisition, and financing of prison facilities, the State Public
38Works Board may issue additional bonds in order to pay the costs
39of acquiring and constructing or refinancing the Secure Substance
40Abuse Treatment Facility.

P164  1(b) Notwithstanding Section 13340, funds derived from the
2lease-purchase financing methods for the Secure Substance Abuse
3Treatment Facility deposited in the State Treasury, are hereby
4continuously appropriated to the State Public Works Board on
5behalf of the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation for the
6purpose of acquiring and constructing or refinancing the prison
7facility so financed.

8The sum of ninety-three million five hundred thousand dollars
9($93,500,000) shall be available for capital outlay for the Secure
10Substance Abuse Treatment Facility from funds derived from
11lease-purchase financing methods.

12Funds so appropriated shall be available as necessary for the
13purposes of site acquisition, site studies and suitability reports,
14environmental studies, master planning, architectural programming,
15schematics, preliminary plans, working drawings, construction,
16and long lead and equipment items. A maximum of two million
17dollars ($2,000,000) of the funds may be available for mitigation
18costs of local government and school districts.

19(c) The State Public Works Board may authorize the
20augmentation of the cost of construction of the project set forth in
21this section pursuant to the board’s authority under Section
2213332.11. In addition, the State Public Works Board may authorize
23any additional amounts necessary to establish a reasonable
24construction reserve and to pay the costs of financing, including
25the payment of interest during acquisition or construction of the
26project, the cost of financing a debt service reserve fund, and the
27cost of issuance of permanent financing for the project. This
28additional amount may include interest payable on any interim
29 loan for the facility from the General Fund or the Pooled Money
30Investment Account pursuant to Section 16312.

31

SEC. 92.  

Section 15820.922 of the Government Code is
32amended to read:

33

15820.922.  

(a) The board may issue up to five hundred million
34dollars ($500,000,000) in revenue bonds, notes, or bond
35anticipation notes, pursuant to Chapter 5 (commencing with Section
3615830) to finance the acquisition, design, and construction,
37including, without limitation, renovation, and a reasonable
38construction reserve, of approved adult local criminal justice
39facilities described in Section 15820.92, and any additional amount
40authorized under Section 15849.6 to pay for the cost of financing.

P165  1(b) Proceeds from the revenue bonds, notes, or bond anticipation
2notes may be used to reimburse a participating county for the costs
3of acquisition, design, and construction, including, without
4limitation, renovation, for approved adult local criminal justice
5facilities.

6(c) Notwithstanding Section 13340, funds derived pursuant to
7this section and Section 15820.921 are continuously appropriated
8for purposes of this chapter.

9

SEC. 93.  

Section 19815 of the Government Code is amended
10to read:

11

19815.  

As used in this part:

12(a) “Department” means the Department of Human Resources.

13(b) “Director” means the Director of the Department of Human
14Resources.

15(c) “Division” means the Division of Labor Relations.

16(d) “Employee” or “state employee,” except where otherwise
17indicated, means employees subject to the Ralph C. Dills Act
18(Chapter 10.3 (commencing with Section 3512), Division 4, Title
191), supervisory employees as defined in subdivision (g) of Section
203513, managerial employees as defined in subdivision (e) of
21Section 3513, confidential employees as defined in subdivision
22(f) of Section 3513, employees of the Legislative Counsel Bureau,
23employees of the Bureau of State Audits, employees of the office
24of the Inspector General, employees of the Public Employment
25Relations Board, conciliators employed by the California State
26Mediation and Conciliation Service, employees of the Department
27of Human Resources, professional employees of the Department
28of Finance engaged in technical or analytical state budget
29preparation other than audit staff, intermittent athletic inspectors
30who are employees of the State Athletic Commission, professional
31employees in the Personnel/Payroll Services Division of the
32Controller’s office and all employees of the executive branch of
33government who are not elected to office.

34

SEC. 94.  

Section 20391 of the Government Code is amended
35to read:

36

20391.  

“State peace officer/firefighter member” means:

37(a) All persons in the Board of Parole Hearings, the Department
38of Consumer Affairs, the Department of Developmental Services,
39the Department of Health Care Services, the Department of Toxic
40Substances Control, the California Horse Racing Board, the
P166  1Department of Industrial Relations, the Department of Insurance,
2the State Department of State Hospitals, the Department of Motor
3Vehicles, the Department of Social Services employed with the
4class title of Special Investigator (Class Code 8553), Senior Special
5Investigator (Class Code 8550), and Investigator Assistant (Class
6Code 8554) who have been designated as peace officers as defined
7in Sections 830.2 and 830.3 of the Penal Code.

8(b) All persons in the Department of Alcoholic Beverage Control
9employed with the class title Investigator Trainee, Alcoholic
10Beverage Control (Class Code 7553), Investigator I, Alcoholic
11Beverage Control, Range A and B (Class Code 7554), and
12Investigator II, Alcoholic Beverage Control (Class Code 7555)
13who have been designated as peace officers as defined in Sections
14830.2 and 830.3 of the Penal Code.

15(c) All persons within the Department of Justice who are state
16employees as defined in subdivision (c) of Section 3513 and who
17have been designated as peace officers and performing investigative
18duties.

19(d) All persons in the Department of Parks and Recreation
20employed with the class title of Park Ranger (Intermittent) (Class
21Code 0984) who have been designated as peace officers as defined
22in Sections 830.2 and 830.3 of the Penal Code.

23(e) All persons in the Franchise Tax Board who have been
24designated as peace officers in subdivision (s) of Section 830.3 of
25the Penal Code.

26(f) A member who is employed in a position that is reclassified
27to state peace officer/firefighter pursuant to this section may make
28an irrevocable election in writing to remain subject to the service
29retirement benefit and the normal rate of contribution applicable
30prior to reclassification by filing a notice of election with the board
31within 90 days of notification by the board. A member who so
32elects shall be subject to the reduced benefit factors specified in
33Section 21353 or 21354.1, as applicable, only for service included
34in the federal system.

35

SEC. 95.  

Section 20410 of the Government Code is amended
36to read:

37

20410.  

“State safety member” also includes all persons in the
38Department of Alcoholic Beverage Control, the Board of Parole
39Hearings, the Department of Consumer Affairs, the Department
40of Developmental Services, the Department of Health Care
P167  1Services, the Department of Toxic Substances Control, the
2California Horse Racing Board, the Department of Industrial
3Relations, the Department of Insurance, the State Department of
4State Hospitals, the Department of Motor Vehicles, and the
5Department of Social Services employed with the class title of
6Special Investigator (Class Code 8553), Senior Special Investigator
7(Class Code 8550), Investigator Trainee (Class Code 8555) and
8Investigator Assistant (Class Code 8554), Supervising Special
9Investigator I (Class Code 8548), Special Investigator II (Class
10Code 8547), and persons in the class of State Park Ranger
11 (Intermittent) (Class Code 0984) in the Department of Parks and
12Recreation, who have been designated as peace officers as defined
13in Sections 830.2 and 830.3 of the Penal Code.

14

SEC. 96.  

Section 20516 of the Government Code is amended
15to read:

16

20516.  

(a) Notwithstanding any other provision of this part,
17with or without a change in benefits, a contracting agency and its
18employees may agree, in writing, to share the costs of the employer
19contribution. The cost sharing pursuant to this section shall also
20apply for related nonrepresented employees as approved in a
21resolution passed by the contracting agency.

22(b) The collective bargaining agreement shall specify the exact
23percentage of member compensation that shall be paid toward the
24current service cost of the benefits by members. The member
25contributions shall be contributions over and above normal
26contributions otherwise required by this part and shall be treated
27as normal contributions for all purposes of this part. The
28contributions shall be uniform, except as described in subdivision
29(c), with respect to all members within each of the following
30classifications: local miscellaneous members, local police officers,
31local firefighters, county peace officers, and all local safety
32members other than local police officers, local firefighters, and
33county peace officers. The balance of any costs shall be paid by
34the contracting agency and shall be credited to the employer’s
35account. An employer shall not use impasse procedures to impose
36member cost sharing on any contribution amount above that which
37is authorized by law.

38(c) Member cost sharing may differ by classification for groups
39of employees subject to different levels of benefits pursuant to
40Sections 7522.20, 7522.25, and 20475, or by a recognized
P168  1collective bargaining unit if agreed to in a memorandum of
2understanding reached pursuant to the applicable collective
3bargaining laws.

4(d) This section shall not apply to any contracting agency nor
5to the employees of a contracting agency until the agency elects
6to be subject to this section by contract or by amendment to its
7contract made in the manner prescribed for approval of contracts.
8Contributions provided by this section shall be withheld from
9member compensation or otherwise collected when the contract
10amendment becomes effective.

11(e) For the purposes of this section, all contributions, liabilities,
12actuarial interest rates, and other valuation factors shall be
13determined on the basis of actuarial assumptions and methods that,
14in the aggregate, are reasonable and that, in combination, offer the
15actuary’s best estimate of anticipated experience under this system.

16(f) Nothing in this section shall preclude a contracting agency
17and its employees from independently agreeing in a memorandum
18of understanding to share the costs of any benefit, in a manner
19inconsistent with this section. However, any agreement in a
20memorandum of understanding that is inconsistent with this section
21shall not be part of the contract between this system and the
22contracting agency.

23(g) If, and to the extent that, the board determines that a
24cost-sharing agreement under this section would conflict with Title
2526 of the United States Code, the board may refuse to approve the
26agreement.

27(h) Nothing in this section shall require a contracting agency to
28enter into a memorandum of understanding or collective bargaining
29agreement with a bargaining representative in order to increase
30the amount of member contributions when such a member
31contribution increase is authorized by other provisions under this
32part.

33

SEC. 97.  

Section 20677.7 of the Government Code is amended
34to read:

35

20677.7.  

(a) Notwithstanding Section 20677.4, effective with
36the beginning of the September 2010 pay period, the normal rate
37of contribution for state miscellaneous or state industrial members
38who are represented by State Bargaining Unit 8, shall be:

P169  1(1) Eleven percent of the compensation in excess of three
2hundred seventeen dollars ($317) per month paid to a member
3whose service is not included in the federal system.

4(2) Ten percent of compensation in excess of five hundred
5thirteen dollars ($513) per month paid to a member whose service
6has been included in the federal system.

7(b) Notwithstanding Section 20677.4, effective with the
8beginning of the September 2010 pay period, the normal rate of
9contribution for state miscellaneous or state industrial members
10who are represented by State Bargaining Unit 5 shall be:

11(1) Eight percent of the compensation in excess of three hundred
12seventeen dollars ($317) per month paid to a member whose service
13is not included in the federal system.

14(2) Seven percent of compensation in excess of five hundred
15thirteen dollars ($513) per month paid to a member whose service
16has been included in the federal system.

17(c) If the provisions of this section are in conflict with the
18provisions of a memorandum of understanding reached pursuant
19to Section 3517.5, the memorandum of understanding shall be
20controlling without further legislative action, except that if the
21provisions of a memorandum of understanding require the
22 expenditure of funds, the provisions shall not become effective
23unless and until approved by the Legislature in the annual Budget
24Act.

25(d) Consistent with the normal rate of contribution for all
26members identified in this subdivision, the Director of the
27Department of Personnel Administration may exercise his or her
28discretion to establish the normal rate of contribution for a related
29state employee who is excepted from the definition of “state
30employee” in subdivision (c) of Section 3513, and an officer or
31employee of the executive branch of state government who is not
32a member of the civil service.

33

SEC. 98.  

Section 25060 of the Government Code is amended
34to read:

35

25060.  

Whenever a vacancy occurs in a board of supervisors,
36the Governor shall fill the vacancy. The appointee shall hold office
37until the election and qualification of his or her successor.

38

SEC. 99.  

Section 25062 of the Government Code is amended
39to read:

P170  1

25062.  

When a vacancy occurs from the failure of the person
2elected to file his or her oath or bond as provided by law, and the
3person elected is appointed to fill the vacancy, he or she shall hold
4office for the unexpired term.

5

SEC. 100.  

Section 65040.7 of the Government Code is amended
6to read:

7

65040.7.  

(a) For purposes of this section, the following terms
8have the following meanings:

9(1) “Energy security and military mission goals” means federal
10laws, regulations, or executive orders, related to alternative fuel
11and vehicle technology, clean energy, energy efficiency, water
12and waste conservation, greenhouse gas emissions reductions, and
13related infrastructure, including, but not limited to, the federal
14laws, regulations, and executive orders, and the goals set forth
15therein, of the National Energy Conservation Policy Act (42 U.S.C.
16Sec. 8201 et seq.), the Energy Independence and Security Act of
172007 (42 U.S.C. Sec. 17001 et seq.), the Energy Policy Act of
182005 (42 U.S.C. Sec. 15801 et seq.), and the Energy Policy Act
19of 1992 (42 U.S.C. Sec. 13201 et seq.), and the goals set forth in
20Executive Order No. 13514, Executive Order No. 13423, and
21Executive Order No. 13221.

22(2) “State energy and environmental policies” includes, but is
23not limited to, policies involving alternative fuels and vehicle
24technology and related fueling infrastructure, renewable electricity
25generation and related transmission infrastructure, energy efficiency
26and demand response, waste management, recycling, water
27conservation, water quality, water supply, greenhouse gas
28emissions reductions, and green chemistry.

29(b) A state agency that is identified by the Office of Planning
30and Research pursuant to paragraph (1) of subdivision (c) shall,
31when developing and implementing state energy and environmental
32policies, consider the direct impacts of those policies upon the
33United States Department of Defense’s energy security and military
34mission goals.

35(c) The Office of Planning and Research shall do both of the
36following:

37(1) Identify state agencies that develop and implement state
38energy and environmental policies that directly impact the United
39States Department of Defense’s energy security and military
40mission goals in the state.

P171  1(2) Serve as a liaison to coordinate effective inclusion of the
2United States Department of Defense in the development and
3implementation of state energy and environmental policy.

4(d) This section shall not do any of the following:

5(1) Interfere with the existing authority of, or prevent, an agency
6or department from carrying out of its programs, projects, or
7responsibilities.

8(2) Limit compliance with requirements imposed under any
9other law.

10(3) Authorize or require the United States Department of
11Defense to operate differently from any other self-generating
12ratepayer, or alter an existing rate structure.

13

SEC. 101.  

Section 65302.5 of the Government Code is amended
14to read:

15

65302.5.  

(a) At least 45 days prior to adoption or amendment
16of the safety element, each county and city shall submit to the
17California Geological Survey of the Department of Conservation
18one copy of a draft of the safety element or amendment and any
19technical studies used for developing the safety element. The
20division may review drafts submitted to it to determine whether
21they incorporate known seismic and other geologic hazard
22information, and report its findings to the planning agency within
2330 days of receipt of the draft of the safety element or amendment
24pursuant to this subdivision. The legislative body shall consider
25the division’s findings prior to final adoption of the safety element
26or amendment unless the division’s findings are not available
27within the above prescribed time limits or unless the division has
28indicated to the city or county that the division will not review the
29safety element. If the division’s findings are not available within
30those prescribed time limits, the legislative body may take the
31division’s findings into consideration at the time it considers future
32amendments to the safety element. Each county and city shall
33provide the division with a copy of its adopted safety element or
34amendments. The division may review adopted safety elements
35or amendments and report its findings. All findings made by the
36division shall be advisory to the planning agency and legislative
37body.

38(b) (1) The draft element of or draft amendment to the safety
39element of a county or a city’s general plan shall be submitted to
40the State Board of Forestry and Fire Protection and to every local
P172  1agency that provides fire protection to territory in the city or county
2at least 90 days prior to either of the following:

3(A) The adoption or amendment to the safety element of its
4general plan for each county that contains state responsibility areas.

5(B) The adoption or amendment to the safety element of its
6general plan for each city or county that contains a very high fire
7hazard severity zone as defined pursuant to subdivision (i) of
8Section 51177.

9(2) A county that contains state responsibility areas and a city
10or county that contains a very high fire hazard severity zone as
11defined pursuant to subdivision (i) of Section 51177 shall submit
12for review the safety element of its general plan to the State Board
13of Forestry and Fire Protection and every local agency that provides
14fire protection to territory in the city or county in accordance with
15the following dates, as specified, unless the local government
16submitted the element within five years prior to that date:

17(A) Local governments within the regional jurisdiction of the
18San Diego Association of Governments: December 31, 2010.

19(B) Local governments within the regional jurisdiction of the
20Southern California Association of Governments: December 31,
212011.

22(C) Local governments within the regional jurisdiction of the
23Association of Bay Area Governments: December 31, 2012.

24(D) Local governments within the regional jurisdiction of the
25Council of Fresno County Governments, the Kern County Council
26of Governments, and the Sacramento Area Council of
27Governments: June 30, 2013.

28(E) Local governments within the regional jurisdiction of the
29Association of Monterey Bay Area Governments: December 31,
302014.

31(F) All other local governments: December 31, 2015.

32(3) The State Board of Forestry and Fire Protection shall, and
33a local agency may, review the draft or an existing safety element
34and recommend changes to the planning agency within 60 days
35of its receipt regarding both of the following:

36(A) Uses of land and policies in state responsibility areas and
37very high fire hazard severity zones that will protect life, property,
38and natural resources from unreasonable risks associated with wild
39land fires.

P173  1(B) Methods and strategies for wild land fire risk reduction and
2prevention within state responsibility areas and very high fire
3hazard severity zones.

4(4) Prior to the adoption of its draft element or draft amendment,
5the board of supervisors of the county or the city council of a city
6shall consider the recommendations, if any, made by the State
7Board of Forestry and Fire Protection and any local agency that
8provides fire protection to territory in the city or county. If the
9board of supervisors or city council determines not to accept all
10or some of the recommendations, if any, made by the State Board
11of Forestry and Fire Protection or local agency, the board of
12supervisors or city council shall communicate in writing to the
13State Board of Forestry and Fire Protection or the local agency,
14its reasons for not accepting the recommendations.

15(5) If the State Board of Forestry and Fire Protection’s or local
16agency’s recommendations are not available within the time limits
17required by this section, the board of supervisors or city council
18may act without those recommendations. The board of supervisors
19or city council shall take the recommendations into consideration
20the next time it considers amendments to the safety element.

21

SEC. 102.  

Section 65915 of the Government Code, as amended
22by Section 53 of Chapter 181 of the Statutes of 2012, is amended
23to read:

24

65915.  

(a) When an applicant seeks a density bonus for a
25housing development within, or for the donation of land for housing
26within, the jurisdiction of a city, county, or city and county, that
27local government shall provide the applicant with incentives or
28concessions for the production of housing units and child care
29facilities as prescribed in this section. All cities, counties, or cities
30and counties shall adopt an ordinance that specifies how
31compliance with this section will be implemented. Failure to adopt
32an ordinance shall not relieve a city, county, or city and county
33from complying with this section.

34(b) (1) A city, county, or city and county shall grant one density
35bonus, the amount of which shall be as specified in subdivision
36(f), and incentives or concessions, as described in subdivision (d),
37when an applicant for a housing development seeks and agrees to
38construct a housing development, excluding any units permitted
39by the density bonus awarded pursuant to this section, that will
40contain at least any one of the following:

P174  1(A) Ten percent of the total units of a housing development for
2lower income households, as defined in Section 50079.5 of the
3Health and Safety Code.

4(B) Five percent of the total units of a housing development for
5very low income households, as defined in Section 50105 of the
6Health and Safety Code.

7(C) A senior citizen housing development, as defined in Sections
851.3 and 51.12 of the Civil Code, or mobilehome park that limits
9residency based on age requirements for housing for older persons
10pursuant to Section 798.76 or 799.5 of the Civil Code.

11(D) Ten percent of the total dwelling units in a common interest
12development as defined in Section 4100 of the Civil Code for
13persons and families of moderate income, as defined in Section
1450093 of the Health and Safety Code, provided that all units in the
15development are offered to the public for purchase.

16(2) For purposes of calculating the amount of the density bonus
17pursuant to subdivision (f), the applicant who requests a density
18bonus pursuant to this subdivision shall elect whether the bonus
19shall be awarded on the basis of subparagraph (A), (B), (C), or (D)
20of paragraph (1).

21(3) For the purposes of this section, “total units” or “total
22dwelling units” does not include units added by a density bonus
23awarded pursuant to this section or any local law granting a greater
24density bonus.

25(c) (1) An applicant shall agree to, and the city, county, or city
26and county shall ensure, continued affordability of all low- and
27very low income units that qualified the applicant for the award
28of the density bonus for 30 years or a longer period of time if
29required by the construction or mortgage financing assistance
30program, mortgage insurance program, or rental subsidy program.
31Rents for the lower income density bonus units shall be set at an
32affordable rent as defined in Section 50053 of the Health and Safety
33Code. Owner-occupied units shall be available at an affordable
34housing cost as defined in Section 50052.5 of the Health and Safety
35Code.

36(2) An applicant shall agree to, and the city, county, or city and
37county shall ensure that, the initial occupant of the
38moderate-income units that are directly related to the receipt of
39the density bonus in the common interest development, as defined
40in Section 4100 of the Civil Code, are persons and families of
P175  1moderate income, as defined in Section 50093 of the Health and
2Safety Code, and that the units are offered at an affordable housing
3cost, as that cost is defined in Section 50052.5 of the Health and
4Safety Code. The local government shall enforce an equity sharing
5agreement, unless it is in conflict with the requirements of another
6public funding source or law. The following apply to the equity
7sharing agreement:

8(A) Upon resale, the seller of the unit shall retain the value of
9any improvements, the downpayment, and the seller’s proportionate
10share of appreciation. The local government shall recapture any
11initial subsidy, as defined in subparagraph (B), and its proportionate
12share of appreciation, as defined in subparagraph (C), which
13amount shall be used within five years for any of the purposes
14described in subdivision (e) of Section 33334.2 of the Health and
15Safety Code that promote home ownership.

16(B) For purposes of this subdivision, the local government’s
17initial subsidy shall be equal to the fair market value of the home
18at the time of initial sale minus the initial sale price to the
19moderate-income household, plus the amount of any downpayment
20assistance or mortgage assistance. If upon resale the market value
21is lower than the initial market value, then the value at the time of
22the resale shall be used as the initial market value.

23(C) For purposes of this subdivision, the local government’s
24proportionate share of appreciation shall be equal to the ratio of
25the local government’s initial subsidy to the fair market value of
26the home at the time of initial sale.

27(d) (1) An applicant for a density bonus pursuant to subdivision
28(b) may submit to a city, county, or city and county a proposal for
29the specific incentives or concessions that the applicant requests
30pursuant to this section, and may request a meeting with the city,
31county, or city and county. The city, county, or city and county
32shall grant the concession or incentive requested by the applicant
33unless the city, county, or city and county makes a written finding,
34based upon substantial evidence, of any of the following:

35(A) The concession or incentive is not required in order to
36provide for affordable housing costs, as defined in Section 50052.5
37of the Health and Safety Code, or for rents for the targeted units
38to be set as specified in subdivision (c).

39(B) The concession or incentive would have a specific adverse
40impact, as defined in paragraph (2) of subdivision (d) of Section
P176  165589.5, upon public health and safety or the physical environment
2or on any real property that is listed in the California Register of
3Historical Resources and for which there is no feasible method to
4satisfactorily mitigate or avoid the specific adverse impact without
5rendering the development unaffordable to low- and
6moderate-income households.

7(C) The concession or incentive would be contrary to state or
8federal law.

9(2) The applicant shall receive the following number of
10incentives or concessions:

11(A) One incentive or concession for projects that include at least
1210 percent of the total units for lower income households, at least
135 percent for very low income households, or at least 10 percent
14for persons and families of moderate income in a common interest
15development.

16(B) Two incentives or concessions for projects that include at
17least 20 percent of the total units for lower income households, at
18least 10 percent for very low income households, or at least 20
19percent for persons and families of moderate income in a common
20interest development.

21(C) Three incentives or concessions for projects that include at
22least 30 percent of the total units for lower income households, at
23least 15 percent for very low income households, or at least 30
24percent for persons and families of moderate income in a common
25interest development.

26(3) The applicant may initiate judicial proceedings if the city,
27county, or city and county refuses to grant a requested density
28bonus, incentive, or concession. If a court finds that the refusal to
29grant a requested density bonus, incentive, or concession is in
30violation of this section, the court shall award the plaintiff
31reasonable attorney’s fees and costs of suit. Nothing in this
32subdivision shall be interpreted to require a local government to
33grant an incentive or concession that has a specific, adverse impact,
34as defined in paragraph (2) of subdivision (d) of Section 65589.5,
35upon health, safety, or the physical environment, and for which
36there is no feasible method to satisfactorily mitigate or avoid the
37specific adverse impact. Nothing in this subdivision shall be
38interpreted to require a local government to grant an incentive or
39concession that would have an adverse impact on any real property
40that is listed in the California Register of Historical Resources.
P177  1The city, county, or city and county shall establish procedures for
2carrying out this section, that shall include legislative body
3approval of the means of compliance with this section.

4(e) (1) In no case may a city, county, or city and county apply
5any development standard that will have the effect of physically
6 precluding the construction of a development meeting the criteria
7of subdivision (b) at the densities or with the concessions or
8incentives permitted by this section. An applicant may submit to
9a city, county, or city and county a proposal for the waiver or
10reduction of development standards that will have the effect of
11physically precluding the construction of a development meeting
12the criteria of subdivision (b) at the densities or with the
13concessions or incentives permitted under this section, and may
14request a meeting with the city, county, or city and county. If a
15court finds that the refusal to grant a waiver or reduction of
16development standards is in violation of this section, the court
17shall award the plaintiff reasonable attorney’s fees and costs of
18suit. Nothing in this subdivision shall be interpreted to require a
19local government to waive or reduce development standards if the
20waiver or reduction would have a specific, adverse impact, as
21defined in paragraph (2) of subdivision (d) of Section 65589.5,
22upon health, safety, or the physical environment, and for which
23there is no feasible method to satisfactorily mitigate or avoid the
24specific adverse impact. Nothing in this subdivision shall be
25interpreted to require a local government to waive or reduce
26development standards that would have an adverse impact on any
27real property that is listed in the California Register of Historical
28Resources, or to grant any waiver or reduction that would be
29contrary to state or federal law.

30(2) A proposal for the waiver or reduction of development
31standards pursuant to this subdivision shall neither reduce nor
32increase the number of incentives or concessions to which the
33applicant is entitled pursuant to subdivision (d).

34(f) For the purposes of this chapter, “density bonus” means a
35density increase over the otherwise maximum allowable residential
36density as of the date of application by the applicant to the city,
37county, or city and county. The applicant may elect to accept a
38lesser percentage of density bonus. The amount of density bonus
39to which the applicant is entitled shall vary according to the amount
P178  1by which the percentage of affordable housing units exceeds the
2percentage established in subdivision (b).

3(1) For housing developments meeting the criteria of
4subparagraph (A) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (b), the density
5bonus shall be calculated as follows:


6

 

Percentage Low-Income UnitsPercentage Density Bonus
1020 
1121.5
1223 
1324.5
1426 
1527.5
1730.5
1832 
1933.5
2035 
P178 1923P178 3239P178 324P178 27

 

20(2) For housing developments meeting the criteria of
21subparagraph (B) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (b), the density
22 bonus shall be calculated as follows:

 

Percentage Very Low Income UnitsPercentage Density Bonus
520 
622.5
725 
827.5
930 
1032.5
1135 
P178 3239P178 324P178 27

 

33(3) For housing developments meeting the criteria of
34subparagraph (C) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (b), the density
35bonus shall be 20 percent of the number of senior housing units.

36(4) For housing developments meeting the criteria of
37subparagraph (D) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (b), the density
38bonus shall be calculated as follows:

 

Percentage Moderate-Income UnitsPercentage Density Bonus
105
116
127
138
149
1510
1611
1712
1813
1914
2015
2116
2217
2318
2419
2520
2621
2722
2823
2924
3025
3126
3227
3328
3429
3530
3631
3732
3833
3934
4035
P178 324P178 27

 

33(5) All density calculations resulting in fractional units shall be
34rounded up to the next whole number. The granting of a density
35bonus shall not be interpreted, in and of itself, to require a general
36plan amendment, local coastal plan amendment, zoning change,
37or other discretionary approval.

38(g) (1) When an applicant for a tentative subdivision map,
39parcel map, or other residential development approval donates
40land to a city, county, or city and county in accordance with this
P180  1subdivision, the applicant shall be entitled to a 15-percent increase
2above the otherwise maximum allowable residential density for
3the entire development, as follows:

 

Percentage Very Low IncomePercentage Density Bonus
1015
1116
1217
1318
1419
1520
1621
1722
1823
1924
2025
2126
2227
2328
2429
2530
2631
2732
2833
2934
3035
P178 27

 

28(2) This increase shall be in addition to any increase in density
29mandated by subdivision (b), up to a maximum combined mandated
30density increase of 35 percent if an applicant seeks an increase
31pursuant to both this subdivision and subdivision (b). All density
32calculations resulting in fractional units shall be rounded up to the
33next whole number. Nothing in this subdivision shall be construed
34to enlarge or diminish the authority of a city, county, or city and
35county to require a developer to donate land as a condition of
36development. An applicant shall be eligible for the increased
37density bonus described in this subdivision if all of the following
38conditions are met:

P181  1(A) The applicant donates and transfers the land no later than
2the date of approval of the final subdivision map, parcel map, or
3residential development application.

4(B) The developable acreage and zoning classification of the
5land being transferred are sufficient to permit construction of units
6affordable to very low income households in an amount not less
7than 10 percent of the number of residential units of the proposed
8development.

9(C) The transferred land is at least one acre in size or of
10sufficient size to permit development of at least 40 units, has the
11appropriate general plan designation, is appropriately zoned with
12appropriate development standards for development at the density
13described in paragraph (3) of subdivision (c) of Section 65583.2,
14and is or will be served by adequate public facilities and
15infrastructure.

16(D) The transferred land shall have all of the permits and
17approvals, other than building permits, necessary for the
18development of the very low income housing units on the
19transferred land, not later than the date of approval of the final
20subdivision map, parcel map, or residential development
21application, except that the local government may subject the
22proposed development to subsequent design review to the extent
23authorized by subdivision (i) of Section 65583.2 if the design is
24not reviewed by the local government prior to the time of transfer.

25(E) The transferred land and the affordable units shall be subject
26to a deed restriction ensuring continued affordability of the units
27consistent with paragraphs (1) and (2) of subdivision (c), which
28shall be recorded on the property at the time of the transfer.

29(F) The land is transferred to the local agency or to a housing
30developer approved by the local agency. The local agency may
31require the applicant to identify and transfer the land to the
32developer.

33(G) The transferred land shall be within the boundary of the
34proposed development or, if the local agency agrees, within
35one-quarter mile of the boundary of the proposed development.

36(H) A proposed source of funding for the very low income units
37shall be identified not later than the date of approval of the final
38subdivision map, parcel map, or residential development
39application.

P182  1(h) (1) When an applicant proposes to construct a housing
2development that conforms to the requirements of subdivision (b)
3and includes a child care facility that will be located on the
4premises of, as part of, or adjacent to, the project, the city, county,
5or city and county shall grant either of the following:

6(A) An additional density bonus that is an amount of square
7feet of residential space that is equal to or greater than the amount
8of square feet in the child care facility.

9(B) An additional concession or incentive that contributes
10significantly to the economic feasibility of the construction of the
11child care facility.

12(2) The city, county, or city and county shall require, as a
13condition of approving the housing development, that the following
14occur:

15(A) The child care facility shall remain in operation for a period
16of time that is as long as or longer than the period of time during
17which the density bonus units are required to remain affordable
18pursuant to subdivision (c).

19(B) Of the children who attend the child care facility, the
20children of very low income households, lower income households,
21or families of moderate income shall equal a percentage that is
22 equal to or greater than the percentage of dwelling units that are
23required for very low income households, lower income
24households, or families of moderate income pursuant to subdivision
25(b).

26(3) Notwithstanding any requirement of this subdivision, a city,
27county, or city and county shall not be required to provide a density
28bonus or concession for a child care facility if it finds, based upon
29substantial evidence, that the community has adequate child care
30facilities.

31(4) “Child care facility,” as used in this section, means a child
32day care facility other than a family day care home, including, but
33not limited to, infant centers, preschools, extended day care
34facilities, and schoolage child care centers.

35(i) “Housing development,” as used in this section, means a
36development project for five or more residential units. For the
37purposes of this section, “housing development” also includes a
38subdivision or common interest development, as defined in Section
394100 of the Civil Code, approved by a city, county, or city and
40county and consists of residential units or unimproved residential
P183  1lots and either a project to substantially rehabilitate and convert
2an existing commercial building to residential use or the substantial
3rehabilitation of an existing multifamily dwelling, as defined in
4subdivision (d) of Section 65863.4, where the result of the
5rehabilitation would be a net increase in available residential units.
6For the purpose of calculating a density bonus, the residential units
7shall be on contiguous sites that are the subject of one development
8application, but do not have to be based upon individual
9subdivision maps or parcels. The density bonus shall be permitted
10in geographic areas of the housing development other than the
11areas where the units for the lower income households are located.

12(j) The granting of a concession or incentive shall not be
13interpreted, in and of itself, to require a general plan amendment,
14local coastal plan amendment, zoning change, or other discretionary
15approval. This provision is declaratory of existing law.

16(k) For the purposes of this chapter, concession or incentive
17means any of the following:

18(1) A reduction in site development standards or a modification
19of zoning code requirements or architectural design requirements
20that exceed the minimum building standards approved by the
21California Building Standards Commission as provided in Part 2.5
22(commencing with Section 18901) of Division 13 of the Health
23and Safety Code, including, but not limited to, a reduction in
24setback and square footage requirements and in the ratio of
25vehicular parking spaces that would otherwise be required that
26results in identifiable, financially sufficient, and actual cost
27reductions.

28(2) Approval of mixed-use zoning in conjunction with the
29housing project if commercial, office, industrial, or other land uses
30will reduce the cost of the housing development and if the
31commercial, office, industrial, or other land uses are compatible
32with the housing project and the existing or planned development
33in the area where the proposed housing project will be located.

34(3) Other regulatory incentives or concessions proposed by the
35developer or the city, county, or city and county that result in
36identifiable, financially sufficient, and actual cost reductions.

37(l) Subdivision (k) does not limit or require the provision of
38direct financial incentives for the housing development, including
39the provision of publicly owned land, by the city, county, or city
40and county, or the waiver of fees or dedication requirements.

P184  1(m)  This section shall not be construed to supersede or in any
2way alter or lessen the effect or application of the California
3Coastal Act of 1976 (Division 20 (commencing with Section
430000) of the Public Resources Code).

5(n) If permitted by local ordinance, nothing in this section shall
6be construed to prohibit a city, county, or city and county from
7granting a density bonus greater than what is described in this
8section for a development that meets the requirements of this
9section or from granting a proportionately lower density bonus
10than what is required by this section for developments that do not
11meet the requirements of this section.

12(o) For purposes of this section, the following definitions shall
13apply:

14(1) “Development standard” includes a site or construction
15condition, including, but not limited to, a height limitation, a
16setback requirement, a floor area ratio, an onsite open-space
17requirement, or a parking ratio that applies to a residential
18development pursuant to any ordinance, general plan element,
19specific plan, charter, or other local condition, law, policy,
20resolution, or regulation.

21(2) “Maximum allowable residential density” means the density
22allowed under the zoning ordinance and land use element of the
23general plan, or if a range of density is permitted, means the
24maximum allowable density for the specific zoning range and land
25use element of the general plan applicable to the project. Where
26the density allowed under the zoning ordinance is inconsistent
27with the density allowed under the land use element of the general
28plan, the general plan density shall prevail.

29(p) (1) Upon the request of the developer, no city, county, or
30city and county shall require a vehicular parking ratio, inclusive
31of handicapped and guest parking, of a development meeting the
32criteria of subdivision (b), that exceeds the following ratios:

33(A) Zero to one bedroom: one onsite parking space.

34(B) Two to three bedrooms: two onsite parking spaces.

35(C) Four and more bedrooms: two and one-half parking spaces.

36(2) If the total number of parking spaces required for a
37development is other than a whole number, the number shall be
38rounded up to the next whole number. For purposes of this
39subdivision, a development may provide “onsite parking” through
P185  1tandem parking or uncovered parking, but not through onstreet
2parking.

3(3) This subdivision shall apply to a development that meets
4the requirements of subdivision (b) but only at the request of the
5applicant. An applicant may request parking incentives or
6concessions beyond those provided in this subdivision pursuant
7to subdivision (d).

8

SEC. 103.  

The heading of Chapter 3 (commencing with Section
980) of Division 1 of the Harbors and Navigation Code, as added
10by Section 2 of Chapter 136 of the Statutes of 2012, is amended
11to read:

12 

13Chapter  3. Boating and Waterways Commission
14

 

15

SEC. 104.  

Section 80.2 of the Harbors and Navigation Code,
16as added by Section 2 of Chapter 136 of the Statutes of 2012, is
17amended to read:

18

80.2.  

The commission shall be composed of seven members
19appointed by the Governor, with the advice and consent of the
20Senate. The members shall have experience and background
21consistent with the functions of the commission. In making
22appointments to the commission, the Governor shall give primary
23consideration to geographical location of the residence of members
24as related to boating activities and harbors. In addition to the
25geographical considerations, the members of the commission shall
26be appointed with regard to their special interests in recreational
27boating. At least one of the members shall be a member of a
28recognized statewide organization representing recreational boaters.
29One member of the commission shall be a private small craft harbor
30owner and operator. One member of the commission shall be an
31officer or employee of a law enforcement agency responsible for
32enforcing boating laws.

33The Governor shall appoint the first seven members of the
34commission for the following terms to expire on January 15: one
35member for one year, two members for two years, two members
36for three years, and two members for four years. Thereafter,
37appointments shall be for a four-year term. Vacancies occurring
38prior to the expiration of the term shall be filled by appointment
39for the unexpired term.

P186  1

SEC. 105.  

Section 82 of the Harbors and Navigation Code, as
2added by Section 2 of Chapter 136 of the Statutes of 2012, is
3amended to read:

4

82.  

The division, consistent with Section 82.3, and in
5furtherance of the public interest and in accordance therewith, shall
6have only the following duties with respect to the commission:

7(a) To submit any proposed changes in regulations pertaining
8to boating functions and responsibilities of the division to the
9commission for its advice and comment prior to enactment of
10changes.

11(b) To submit proposals for transfers pursuant to Section 70,
12loans pursuant to Section 71.4 or 76.3, and grants pursuant to
13Section 72.5 to the commission for its advice and comment.

14(c) To submit any proposed project it is considering approving
15to the commission if that project could have a potentially significant
16impact on either public health or safety, public access, or the
17environment for the commission’s advice and comment prior to
18approval by the division.

19(d) To annually submit a report on its budget and expenditures
20to the commission for its advice and comment.

21(e) To cause studies and surveys to be made of the need for
22small craft harbors and connecting waterways throughout the state
23and the most suitable sites therefor, and submit those studies and
24surveys to the commission for advice and comment.

25

SEC. 106.  

Section 1339.40 of the Health and Safety Code is
26amended to read:

27

1339.40.  

For purposes of this article, the following definitions
28apply:

29(a) “Bereavement services” has the same meaning as defined
30in subdivision (a) of Section 1746.

31(b) “Hospice care” means a specialized form of interdisciplinary
32health care that is designed to provide palliative care, alleviate the
33physical, emotional, social, and spiritual discomforts of an
34individual who is experiencing the last phases of life due to the
35existence of a terminal disease, and provide supportive care to the
36primary caregiver and the family of the hospice patient, and that
37meets all of the following criteria:

38(1) Considers the patient and the patient’s family, in addition
39to the patient, as the unit of care.

P187  1(2) Utilizes an interdisciplinary team to assess the physical,
2medical, psychological, social, and spiritual needs of the patient
3and the patient’s family.

4(3) Requires the interdisciplinary team to develop an overall
5plan of care and to provide coordinated care that emphasizes
6supportive services, including, but not limited to, home care, pain
7control, and limited inpatient services. Limited inpatient services
8are intended to ensure both continuity of care and appropriateness
9of services for those patients who cannot be managed at home
10because of acute complications or the temporary absence of a
11capable primary caregiver.

12(4) Provides for the palliative medical treatment of pain and
13other symptoms associated with a terminal disease, but does not
14provide for efforts to cure the disease.

15(5) Provides for bereavement services following death to assist
16the family in coping with social and emotional needs associated
17with the death of the patient.

18(6) Actively utilizes volunteers in the delivery of hospice
19services.

20(7) To the extent appropriate, based on the medical needs of the
21patient, provides services in the patient’s home or primary place
22of residence.

23(c) “Hospice facility” means a health facility as defined in
24subdivision (n) of Section 1250.

25(d) “Inpatient hospice care” means hospice care that is provided
26to patients in a hospice facility, including routine, continuous, and
27inpatient care directly as specified in Section 418.110 of Title 42
28of the Code of Federal Regulations, and may include short-term
29inpatient respite care as specified in Section 418.108 of Title 42
30of the Code of Federal Regulations.

31(e) “Interdisciplinary team” has the same meaning as defined
32in subdivision (g) of Section 1746.

33(f) “Medical direction” has the same meaning as defined in
34subdivision (h) of Section 1746.

35(g) “Palliative care” has the same meaning as defined in
36subdivision (j) of Section 1746.

37(h) “Plan of care” has the same meaning as defined in
38subdivision (l) of Section 1746.

39(i) “Skilled nursing services” has the same meaning as defined
40in subdivision (n) of Section 1746.

P188  1(j) “Social services/counseling services” has the same meaning
2as defined in subdivision (o) of Section 1746.

3(k) “Terminal disease” or “terminal illness” has the same
4meaning as defined in subdivision (p) of Section 1746.

5(l) “Volunteer services” has the same meaning as defined in
6subdivision (q) of Section 1746.

7

SEC. 107.  

Section 1339.41 of the Health and Safety Code is
8amended to read:

9

1339.41.  

(a) A person, governmental agency, or political
10subdivision of the state shall not be licensed as a hospice facility
11under this chapter unless the person or entity is a provider of
12hospice services licensed pursuant to Section 1751 and is certified
13as a hospice facility under Part 418 of Title 42 of the Code of
14Federal Regulations.

15(b) A hospice provider that intends to provide inpatient hospice
16care in the hospice provider’s own facility shall submit an
17application and fee for licensure as a hospice facility under this
18chapter. Notwithstanding the maximum period for a provisional
19license under subdivision (b) of Section 1268.5, the department
20may issue a provisional license to a hospice facility for a period
21of up to one year.

22(c) A verified application for a new license completed on forms
23furnished by the department shall be submitted to the department
24upon the occurrence of either of the following:

25(1) Establishment of a hospice facility.

26(2) Change of ownership.

27(d) The licensee shall submit to the department a verified
28application for a corrected license completed on forms furnished
29by the department upon the occurrence of any of the following:

30(1) Construction of new or replacement hospice facility.

31(2) Increase in licensed bed capacity.

32(3) Change of name of facility.

33(4) Change of licensed category.

34(5) Change of location of facility.

35(6) Change in bed classification.

36(e) (1) A hospice facility that participates in the Medicare and
37Medicaid programs may obtain initial certification from a federal
38Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS) approved
39accreditation organization.

P189  1(2) If the CMS-approved accreditation organization conducts
2certification inspections, the hospice facility shall transmit to the
3department, within 30 days of receipt, a copy of the final
4accreditation report of the accreditation organization.

5(f) A hospice facility shall be separately licensed, irrespective
6of the location of the facility.

7(g) (1) The licensee shall notify the department in writing of
8any changes in the information provided pursuant to subdivision
9(d) within 10 days of these changes. This notice shall include
10information and documentation regarding the changes.

11(2) Each licensee shall notify the department within 10 days in
12writing of any change of the mailing address of the licensee. This
13notice shall include the new mailing address of the licensee.

14(3) When a change in the principal officer of a corporate
15licensee, including the chairman, president, or general manager
16occurs, the licensee shall notify the department of this change
17within 10 days in writing. This notice shall include the name and
18business address of the officer.

19(4) Any decrease in licensed bed capacity of the facility shall
20require notification by letter to the department and shall result in
21the issuance of a corrected license.

22

SEC. 108.  

Section 1367.65 of the Health and Safety Code is
23amended to read:

24

1367.65.  

(a) On or after January 1, 2000, each health care
25service plan contract, except a specialized health care service plan
26contract, that is issued, amended, delivered, or renewed shall be
27deemed to provide coverage for mammography for screening or
28diagnostic purposes upon referral by a participating nurse
29practitioner, participating certified nurse-midwife, participating
30physician assistant, or participating physician, providing care to
31the patient and operating within the scope of practice provided
32under existing law.

33(b) This section does not prevent application of copayment or
34deductible provisions in a plan, nor shall this section be construed
35to require that a plan be extended to cover any other procedures
36under an individual or a group health care service plan contract.
37This section does not authorize a plan enrollee to receive the
38services required to be covered by this section if those services
39are furnished by a nonparticipating provider, unless the plan
P190  1enrollee is referred to that provider by a participating physician,
2nurse practitioner, or certified nurse-midwife providing care.

3

SEC. 109.  

Section 1531.15 of the Health and Safety Code is
4amended to read:

5

1531.15.  

(a) A licensee of an adult residential facility or group
6home for no more than 15 residents, that is eligible for and serving
7clients eligible for federal Medicaid funding and utilizing delayed
8egress devices pursuant to Section 1531.1, may install and utilize
9secured perimeters in accordance with the provisions of this
10section.

11(b) As used in this section, “secured perimeters” means fences
12that meet the requirements prescribed by this section.

13(c) Only individuals meeting all of the following conditions
14may be admitted to or reside in a facility described in subdivision
15(a) utilizing secured perimeters:

16(1) The person shall have a developmental disability as defined
17in Section 4512 of the Welfare and Institutions Code.

18(2) The person shall be receiving services and case management
19from a regional center under the Lanterman Developmental
20Disabilities Services Act (Division 4.5 (commencing with Section
214500) of the Welfare and Institutions Code).

22(3) (A) The person shall be 14 years of age or older, except as
23specified in subparagraph (B).

24(B) Notwithstanding subparagraph (A), a child who is at least
2510 years of age and less than 14 years of age may be placed in a
26licensed group home described in subdivision (a) using secured
27perimeters only if both of the following occur:

28(i) A comprehensive assessment is conducted and an individual
29program plan meeting is convened to determine the services and
30supports needed for the child to receive services in a less restrictive,
31unlocked residential setting in California, and the regional center
32requests assistance from the State Department of Developmental
33Services’ statewide specialized resource service to identify options
34to serve the child in a less restrictive, unlocked residential setting
35in California.

36(ii) The regional center requests placement of the child in a
37licensed group home described in subdivision (a) using secured
38perimeters on the basis that the placement is necessary to prevent
39out-of-state placement or placement in a more restrictive, locked
P191  1residential setting and the State Department of Developmental
2Services approves the request.

3(4) The person is not a foster child under the jurisdiction of the
4juvenile court pursuant to Section 300, 450, 601, or 602 of the
5Welfare and Institutions Code.

6(5) An interdisciplinary team, through the individual program
7plan (IPP) process pursuant to Section 4646.5 of the Welfare and
8Institutions Code, shall have determined the person lacks hazard
9awareness or impulse control and, for his or her safety and security,
10requires the level of supervision afforded by a facility equipped
11with secured perimeters, and, but for this placement, the person
12would be at risk of admission to, or would have no option but to
13remain in, a more restrictive placement. The individual program
14planning team shall determine the continued appropriateness of
15the placement at least annually.

16(d) The licensee shall be subject to all applicable fire and
17building codes, regulations, and standards, and shall receive
18approval by the county or city fire department, the local fire
19prevention district, or the State Fire Marshal for the installed
20 secured perimeters.

21(e) The licensee shall provide staff training regarding the use
22and operation of the secured perimeters, protection of residents’
23personal rights, lack of hazard awareness and impulse control
24behavior, and emergency evacuation procedures.

25(f) The licensee shall revise its facility plan of operation. These
26revisions shall first be approved by the State Department of
27Developmental Services. The plan of operation shall not be
28approved by the State Department of Social Services unless the
29licensee provides certification that the plan was approved by the
30State Department of Developmental Services. The plan shall
31include, but not be limited to, all of the following:

32(1) A description of how the facility is to be equipped with
33secured perimeters that are consistent with regulations adopted by
34the State Fire Marshal pursuant to Section 13143.6.

35(2) A description of how the facility will provide training for
36staff.

37(3) A description of how the facility will ensure the protection
38of the residents’ personal rights consistent with Sections 4502,
394503, and 4504 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, and any
P192  1applicable personal rights provided in Title 22 of the California
2Code of Regulations.

3(4) A description of how the facility will manage residents’ lack
4of hazard awareness and impulse control behavior.

5(5) A description of the facility’s emergency evacuation
6procedures.

7(g) Secured perimeters shall not substitute for adequate staff.

8(h) Emergency fire and earthquake drills shall be conducted on
9each shift in accordance with existing licensing requirements, and
10shall include all facility staff providing resident care and
11supervision on each shift.

12(i) Interior and exterior space shall be available on the facility
13premises to permit clients to move freely and safely.

14(j) For the purpose of using secured perimeters, the licensee
15shall not be required to obtain a waiver or exception to a regulation
16that would otherwise prohibit the locking of a perimeter fence or
17gate.

18(k) This section shall become operative only upon the
19publication in Title 17 of the California Code of Regulations of
20emergency regulations filed by the State Department of
21Developmental Services. These regulations shall be developed
22with stakeholders, including the State Department of Social
23Services, consumer advocates, and regional centers. The regulations
24shall establish program standards for homes that include secured
25perimeters, including requirements and timelines for the completion
26and updating of a comprehensive assessment of each consumer’s
27needs, including the identification through the individual program
28plan process of the services and supports needed to transition the
29consumer to a less restrictive living arrangement, and a timeline
30for identifying or developing those services and supports. The
31regulations shall establish a statewide limit on the total number of
32beds in homes with secured perimeters. The adoption of these
33regulations shall be deemed to be an emergency and necessary for
34the immediate preservation of the public peace, health and safety,
35or general welfare.

36

SEC. 110.  

Section 11378 of the Health and Safety Code is
37amended to read:

38

11378.  

Except as otherwise provided in Article 7 (commencing
39with Section 4110) of Chapter 9 of Division 2 of the Business and
40Professions Code, a person who possesses for sale a controlled
P193  1substance that meets any of the following criteria shall be punished
2by imprisonment pursuant to subdivision (h) of Section 1170 of
3the Penal Code:

4 (1) The substance is classified in Schedule III, IV, or V and is
5not a narcotic drug, except the substance specified in subdivision
6(g) of Section 11056.

7 (2) The substance is specified in subdivision (d) of Section
811054, except paragraphs (13), (14), (15), (20), (21), (22), and
9(23) of subdivision (d).

10 (3) The substance is specified in paragraph (11) of subdivision
11(c) of Section 11056.

12 (4) The substance is specified in paragraph (2) or (3) of
13subdivision (f) of Section 11054.

14 (5) The substance is specified in subdivision (d), (e), or (f),
15except paragraph (3) of subdivision (e) and subparagraphs (A) and
16(B) of paragraph (2) of subdivision (f), of Section 11055.

17

SEC. 111.  

Section 11755 of the Health and Safety Code is
18amended to read:

19

11755.  

The department shall do all of the following:

20(a) Adopt regulations pursuant to Section 11152 of the
21Government Code.

22(b) Employ administrative, technical, and other personnel as
23may be necessary for the performance of its powers and duties.

24(c) Do or perform any of the acts that may be necessary,
25desirable, or proper to carry out the purpose of this division.

26(d) Provide funds to counties for the planning and
27implementation of local programs to alleviate problems related to
28alcohol and other drug use.

29(e) Review and execute contracts for drug and alcohol services
30submitted for funds allocated or administered by the department.

31(f) Provide for technical assistance and training to local alcohol
32and other drug programs to assist in the planning and
33implementation of quality services.

34(g) Review research in, and serve as a resource to provide
35information relating to, alcohol and other drug programs.

36(h) In cooperation with the Department of Human Resources,
37encourage training in other state agencies to assist the agencies to
38recognize employee problems relating to alcohol and other drug
39use that affects job performance and encourage the employees to
40seek appropriate services.

P194  1(i) Assist and cooperate with the Office of Statewide Health
2Planning and Development in the drafting and adoption of the state
3health plan to ensure inclusion of appropriate provisions relating
4to alcohol and other drug problems.

5(j) In the same manner and subject to the same conditions as
6other state agencies, develop and submit annually to the
7Department of Finance a program budget for the alcohol and other
8drug programs, which budget shall include expenditures proposed
9to be made under this division, and may include expenditures
10proposed to be made by any other state agency relating to alcohol
11and other drug problems, pursuant to an interagency agreement
12with the department.

13(k)  Review and certify alcohol and other drug programs meeting
14state standards pursuant to Chapter 7 (commencing with Section
1511830) and Chapter 13 (commencing with Section 11847) of Part
162.

17(l) Develop standards for ensuring minimal statewide levels of
18service quality provided by alcohol and other drug programs.

19(m) Review and license narcotic treatment programs.

20(n) Develop and implement, in partnership with the counties,
21alcohol and other drug prevention strategies especially designed
22for youth.

23(o) Develop and maintain a centralized alcohol and drug abuse
24indicator data collection system that shall gather and obtain
25information on the status of the alcohol and other drug abuse
26problems in the state. This information shall include, but not be
27limited to, all of the following:

28(1) The number and characteristics of persons receiving recovery
29or treatment services from alcohol and other drug programs
30providing publicly funded services or services licensed by the
31state.

32(2) The location and types of services offered by these programs.

33(3) The number of admissions to hospitals on both an emergency
34room and inpatient basis for treatment related to alcohol and other
35drugs.

36(4) The number of arrests for alcohol and other drug violations.

37(5) The number of Department of Corrections and
38Rehabilitation, Division of Juvenile Facilities, commitments for
39drug violations.

P195  1(6) The number of Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation
2commitments for drug violations.

3(7) The number or percentage of persons having alcohol or other
4drug problems as determined by survey information.

5(8) The amounts of illicit drugs confiscated by law enforcement
6in the state.

7(9) The statewide alcohol and other drug program distribution
8and the fiscal impact of alcohol and other drug problems upon the
9state.

10Providers of publicly funded services or services licensed by the
11department to clients-participants shall report data in a manner, in
12a format, and under a schedule prescribed by the department.

13(p) Issue an annual report that portrays the drugs abused,
14populations affected, user characteristics, crime-related costs,
15socioeconomic costs, and other related information deemed
16necessary in providing a problem profile of alcohol and other drug
17abuse in the state.

18(q) (1) Require any individual, public or private organization,
19or government agency, receiving federal grant funds, to comply
20with all federal statutes, regulations, guidelines, and terms and
21conditions of the grants. The failure of the individual, public or
22private organization, or government agency, to comply with the
23statutes, regulations, guidelines, and terms and conditions of grants
24received may result in the department’s disallowing noncompliant
25costs, or the suspension or termination of the contract or grant
26award allocating the grant funds.

27(2) Adopt regulations implementing this subdivision in
28accordance with Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 11340)
29of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code. For the
30purposes of the Administrative Procedure Act, the adoption of the
31regulations shall be deemed necessary for the preservation of the
32public peace, health and safety, or general welfare. Subsequent
33amendments to the adoption of emergency regulations shall be
34deemed an emergency only if those amendments are adopted in
35direct response to a change in federal statutes, regulations,
36guidelines, or the terms and conditions of federal grants. Nothing
37in this paragraph shall be interpreted as prohibiting the department
38from adopting subsequent amendments on a nonemergency basis
39or as emergency regulations in accordance with the standards set
40forth in Section 11346.1 of the Government Code.

P196  1

SEC. 112.  

Section 25110.11 of the Health and Safety Code is
2amended to read:

3

25110.11.  

(a) “Contained gaseous material,” for purposes of
4subdivision (a) of Section 25124 or any other provision of this
5chapter, means any gas that is contained in an enclosed cylinder
6or other enclosed container.

7(b) Notwithstanding subdivision (a), “contained gaseous
8material” does not include any exhaust or flue gas, or other vapor
9stream, or any air or exhaust gas stream that is filtered or otherwise
10processed to remove particulates, dusts, or other air pollutants,
11regardless of the source.

12

SEC. 113.  

Section 34177 of the Health and Safety Code is
13amended to read:

14

34177.  

Successor agencies are required to do all of the
15following:

16(a) Continue to make payments due for enforceable obligations.

17(1) On and after February 1, 2012, and until a Recognized
18Obligation Payment Schedule becomes operative, only payments
19required pursuant to an enforceable obligations payment schedule
20shall be made. The initial enforceable obligation payment schedule
21shall be the last schedule adopted by the redevelopment agency
22under Section 34169. However, payments associated with
23obligations excluded from the definition of enforceable obligations
24by paragraph (2) of subdivision (d) of Section 34171 shall be
25excluded from the enforceable obligations payment schedule and
26be removed from the last schedule adopted by the redevelopment
27agency under Section 34169 prior to the successor agency adopting
28it as its enforceable obligations payment schedule pursuant to this
29subdivision. The enforceable obligation payment schedule may
30be amended by the successor agency at any public meeting and
31shall be subject to the approval of the oversight board as soon as
32the board has sufficient members to form a quorum. In recognition
33of the fact that the timing of the California Supreme Court’s ruling
34in the case California Redevelopment Association v. Matosantos
35(2011) 53 Cal.4th 231 delayed the preparation by successor
36agencies and the approval by oversight boards of the January 1,
372012, through June 30, 2012, Recognized Obligation Payment
38Schedule, a successor agency may amend the Enforceable
39Obligation Payment Schedule to authorize the continued payment
40of enforceable obligations until the time that the January 1, 2012,
P197  1through June 30, 2012, Recognized Obligation Payment Schedule
2has been approved by the oversight board and by the Department
3of Finance.

4(2) The Department of Finance and the Controller shall each
5have the authority to require any documents associated with the
6enforceable obligations to be provided to them in a manner of their
7choosing. Any taxing entity, the department, and the Controller
8shall each have standing to file a judicial action to prevent a
9violation under this part and to obtain injunctive or other
10appropriate relief.

11(3) Commencing on the date the Recognized Obligation Payment
12Schedule is valid pursuant to subdivision (l), only those payments
13listed in the Recognized Obligation Payment Schedule may be
14made by the successor agency from the funds specified in the
15Recognized Obligation Payment Schedule. In addition, after it
16becomes valid, the Recognized Obligation Payment Schedule shall
17supersede the Statement of Indebtedness, which shall no longer
18be prepared nor have any effect under the Community
19Redevelopment Law (Part 1 (commencing with Section 33000)).

20(4) Nothing in the act adding this part is to be construed as
21preventing a successor agency, with the prior approval of the
22oversight board, as described in Section 34179, from making
23payments for enforceable obligations from sources other than those
24listed in the Recognized Obligation Payment Schedule.

25(5) From February 1, 2012, to July 1, 2012, a successor agency
26shall have no authority and is hereby prohibited from accelerating
27payment or making any lump-sum payments that are intended to
28prepay loans unless such accelerated repayments were required
29prior to the effective date of this part.

30(b) Maintain reserves in the amount required by indentures,
31trust indentures, or similar documents governing the issuance of
32outstanding redevelopment agency bonds.

33(c) Perform obligations required pursuant to any enforceable
34obligation.

35(d) Remit unencumbered balances of redevelopment agency
36funds to the county auditor-controller for distribution to the taxing
37entities, including, but not limited to, the unencumbered balance
38of the Low and Moderate Income Housing Fund of a former
39redevelopment agency. In making the distribution, the county
40auditor-controller shall utilize the same methodology for allocation
P198  1and distribution of property tax revenues provided in Section
234188.

3(e) Dispose of assets and properties of the former redevelopment
4agency as directed by the oversight board; provided, however, that
5the oversight board may instead direct the successor agency to
6transfer ownership of certain assets pursuant to subdivision (a) of
7Section 34181. The disposal is to be done expeditiously and in a
8manner aimed at maximizing value. Proceeds from asset sales and
9related funds that are no longer needed for approved development
10projects or to otherwise wind down the affairs of the agency, each
11as determined by the oversight board, shall be transferred to the
12county auditor-controller for distribution as property tax proceeds
13under Section 34188. The requirements of this subdivision shall
14not apply to a successor agency that has been issued a finding of
15completion by the Department of Finance pursuant to Section
1634179.7.

17(f) Enforce all former redevelopment agency rights for the
18benefit of the taxing entities, including, but not limited to,
19continuing to collect loans, rents, and other revenues that were due
20to the redevelopment agency.

21(g) Effectuate transfer of housing functions and assets to the
22appropriate entity designated pursuant to Section 34176.

23(h) Expeditiously wind down the affairs of the redevelopment
24agency pursuant to the provisions of this part and in accordance
25with the direction of the oversight board.

26(i) Continue to oversee development of properties until the
27contracted work has been completed or the contractual obligations
28of the former redevelopment agency can be transferred to other
29parties. Bond proceeds shall be used for the purposes for which
30bonds were sold unless the purposes can no longer be achieved,
31in which case, the proceeds may be used to defease the bonds.

32(j) Prepare a proposed administrative budget and submit it to
33the oversight board for its approval. The proposed administrative
34budget shall include all of the following:

35(1) Estimated amounts for successor agency administrative costs
36for the upcoming six-month fiscal period.

37(2) Proposed sources of payment for the costs identified in
38paragraph (1).

39(3) Proposals for arrangements for administrative and operations
40services provided by a city, county, city and county, or other entity.

P199  1(k) Provide administrative cost estimates, from its approved
2administrative budget that are to be paid from property tax revenues
3deposited in the Redevelopment Property Tax Trust Fund, to the
4county auditor-controller for each six-month fiscal period.

5(l) (1) Before each six-month fiscal period, prepare a
6Recognized Obligation Payment Schedule in accordance with the
7requirements of this paragraph. For each recognized obligation,
8the Recognized Obligation Payment Schedule shall identify one
9or more of the following sources of payment:

10(A) Low and Moderate Income Housing Fund.

11(B) Bond proceeds.

12(C) Reserve balances.

13(D) Administrative cost allowance.

14(E) The Redevelopment Property Tax Trust Fund, but only to
15the extent no other funding source is available or when payment
16from property tax revenues is required by an enforceable obligation
17or by this part.

18(F) Other revenue sources, including rents, concessions, asset
19sale proceeds, interest earnings, and any other revenues derived
20from the former redevelopment agency, as approved by the
21oversight board in accordance with this part.

22(2) A Recognized Obligation Payment Schedule shall not be
23deemed valid unless all of the following conditions have been met:

24(A) A Recognized Obligation Payment Schedule is prepared
25by the successor agency for the enforceable obligations of the
26former redevelopment agency. The initial schedule shall project
27the dates and amounts of scheduled payments for each enforceable
28obligation for the remainder of the time period during which the
29redevelopment agency would have been authorized to obligate
30property tax increment had the redevelopment agency not been
31dissolved.

32(B) The Recognized Obligation Payment Schedule is submitted
33to and duly approved by the oversight board. The successor agency
34shall submit a copy of the Recognized Obligation Payment
35Schedule to the county administrative officer, the county
36auditor-controller, and the Department of Finance at the same time
37that the successor agency submits the Recognized Obligation
38Payment Schedule to the oversight board for approval.

39(C) A copy of the approved Recognized Obligation Payment
40Schedule is submitted to the county auditor-controller and both
P200  1the Controller’s office and the Department of Finance and be posted
2on the successor agency’s Internet Web site.

3(3) The Recognized Obligation Payment Schedule shall be
4forward looking to the next six months. The first Recognized
5Obligation Payment Schedule shall be submitted to the Controller’s
6office and the Department of Finance by April 15, 2012, for the
7period of January 1, 2012, to June 30, 2012, inclusive. This
8Recognized Obligation Payment Schedule shall include all
9payments made by the former redevelopment agency between
10January 1, 2012, through January 31, 2012, and shall include all
11payments proposed to be made by the successor agency from
12February 1, 2012, through June 30, 2012. Former redevelopment
13agency enforceable obligation payments due, and reasonable or
14necessary administrative costs due or incurred, prior to January 1,
152012, shall be made from property tax revenues received in the
16spring of 2011 property tax distribution, and from other revenues
17and balances transferred to the successor agency.

18(m) The Recognized Obligation Payment Schedule for the period
19of January 1, 2013, to June 30, 2013, shall be submitted by the
20successor agency, after approval by the oversight board, no later
21than September 1, 2012. Commencing with the Recognized
22Obligation Payment Schedule covering the period July 1, 2013,
23through December 31, 2013, successor agencies shall submit an
24oversight board-approved Recognized Obligation Payment
25Schedule to the Department of Finance and to the county
26auditor-controller no fewer than 90 days before the date of property
27tax distribution. The Department of Finance shall make its
28determination of the enforceable obligations and the amounts and
29funding sources of the enforceable obligations no later than 45
30days after the Recognized Obligation Payment Schedule is
31submitted. Within five business days of the department’s
32determination, a successor agency may request additional review
33by the department and an opportunity to meet and confer on
34disputed items. The meet and confer period may vary; an untimely
35submittal of a Recognized Obligation Payment Schedule may result
36in a meet and confer period of less than 30 days. The department
37shall notify the successor agency and the county auditor-controllers
38as to the outcome of its review at least 15 days before the date of
39property tax distribution.

P201  1(1) The successor agency shall submit a copy of the Recognized
2Obligation Payment Schedule to the Department of Finance
3 electronically, and the successor agency shall complete the
4Recognized Obligation Payment Schedule in the manner provided
5 for by the department. A successor agency shall be in
6noncompliance with this paragraph if it only submits to the
7department an electronic message or a letter stating that the
8oversight board has approved a Recognized Obligation Payment
9Schedule.

10(2) If a successor agency does not submit a Recognized
11Obligation Payment Schedule by the deadlines provided in this
12subdivision, the city, county, or city and county that created the
13redevelopment agency shall be subject to a civil penalty equal to
14ten thousand dollars ($10,000) per day for every day the schedule
15is not submitted to the department. The civil penalty shall be paid
16to the county auditor-controller for allocation to the taxing entities
17under Section 34183. If a successor agency fails to submit a
18Recognized Obligation Payment Schedule by the deadline, any
19creditor of the successor agency or the Department of Finance or
20any affected taxing entity shall have standing to and may request
21a writ of mandate to require the successor agency to immediately
22perform this duty. Those actions may be filed only in the County
23of Sacramento and shall have priority over other civil matters.
24Additionally, if an agency does not submit a Recognized Obligation
25Payment Schedule within 10 days of the deadline, the maximum
26administrative cost allowance for that period shall be reduced by
2725 percent.

28(3) If a successor agency fails to submit to the department an
29oversight board-approved Recognized Obligation Payment
30Schedule that complies with all requirements of this subdivision
31within five business days of the date upon which the Recognized
32Obligation Payment Schedule is to be used to determine the amount
33of property tax allocations, the department may determine if any
34amount should be withheld by the county auditor-controller for
35payments for enforceable obligations from distribution to taxing
36entities, pending approval of a Recognized Obligation Payment
37Schedule. The county auditor-controller shall distribute the portion
38of any of the sums withheld pursuant to this paragraph to the
39affected taxing entities in accordance with paragraph (4) of
40subdivision (a) of Section 34183 upon notice by the department
P202  1that a portion of the withheld balances are in excess of the amount
2of enforceable obligations. The county auditor-controller shall
3distribute withheld funds to the successor agency only in
4accordance with a Recognized Obligation Payment Schedule
5approved by the department. County auditor-controllers shall lack
6the authority to withhold any other amounts from the allocations
7provided for under Section 34183 or 34188, unless required by a
8court order.

9(n) Cause a postaudit of the financial transactions and records
10of the successor agency to be made at least annually by a certified
11public accountant.

12

SEC. 114.  

Section 34183.5 of the Health and Safety Code is
13amended to read:

14

34183.5.  

(a) The Legislature hereby finds and declares that
15due to the delayed implementation of this part due to the California
16Supreme Court’s ruling in the case California Redevelopment
17Association v. Matosantos (2011) 53 Cal.4th 231, some disruption
18to the intended application of this part and other law with respect
19to passthrough payments may have occurred.

20(1) If a redevelopment agency or successor agency did not pay
21any portion of an amount owed for the 2011-12 fiscal year to an
22affected taxing entity pursuant to Section 33401, 33492.140, 33607,
2333607.5, 33607.7, or 33676, or pursuant to any passthrough
24agreement entered into before January 1, 1994, between a
25redevelopment agency and an affected taxing entity, and to the
26extent the county auditor-controller did not remit the amounts
27owed for passthrough payments during the 2011-12 fiscal year,
28the county auditor-controller shall make the required payments to
29the taxing entities owed passthrough payments and shall reduce
30the amounts to which the successor agency would otherwise be
31entitled pursuant to paragraph (2) of subdivision (a) of Section
3234183 at the next allocation of property tax under this part, subject
33to subdivision (b) of Section 34183. If the amount of available
34property tax allocation to the successor agency is not sufficient to
35make the required payment, the county auditor-controller shall
36continue to reduce allocations to the successor agency under
37paragraph (2) of subdivision (a) of Section 34183 until the time
38that the owed amount is fully paid. Alternatively, the county
39auditor-controller may accept payment from the successor agency’s
P203  1reserve funds for payments of passthrough payments owed as
2defined in this subdivision.

3(2) If a redevelopment agency did not pay any portion of the
4amount owed for the 2011-12 fiscal year to an affected taxing
5entity pursuant to Section 33401, 33492.140, 33607, 33607.5,
633607.7, or 33676, or pursuant to any passthrough agreement
7entered into before January 1, 1994, between a redevelopment
8agency and an affected taxing entity, but the county
9auditor-controller did pay the difference that was owing, the county
10auditor-controller shall deduct from the next allocation of property
11tax to the successor agency under paragraph (2) of subdivision (a)
12of Section 34183, the amount of the payment made on behalf of
13the successor agency by the county auditor-controller, not to exceed
14one-half the amount of passthrough payments owed for the
152011-12 fiscal year. If the amount of available property tax
16allocation to the successor agency is not sufficient to make the
17required deduction, the county auditor-controller shall continue to
18reduce allocations to the successor agency under paragraph (2) of
19subdivision (a) of Section 34183 until the time that the amount is
20fully deducted. Alternatively, the auditor-controller may accept
21payment from the successor agency’s reserve funds for deductions
22of passthrough payments owed as defined in this subdivision.
23Amounts reduced from successor agency payments under this
24paragraph are available for the purposes of paragraphs (2) to (4),
25inclusive, of subdivision (a) of Section 34183 for the six-month
26period for which the property tax revenues are being allocated.

27(b) In recognition of the fact that county auditor-controllers
28were unable to make the payments required by paragraph (4) of
29subdivision (a) of Section 34183 for the period January 1, 2012,
30through June 30, 2012, on January 16, 2012, due to the California
31Supreme Court’s ruling in the case of California Redevelopment
32Association v. Matosantos (2011) 53 Cal.4th 231, in addition to
33taking the actions specified in Section 34183 with respect to the
34June 1 property tax allocations, county auditor-controllers should
35have made allocations as provided in paragraph (1).

36(1) From the allocations made on June 1, 2012, for the
37Recognized Obligation Payment Schedule covering the period
38July 1, 2012, through December 31, 2012, deduct from the amount
39that otherwise would be deposited in the Redevelopment Property
40Tax Trust Fund on behalf of the successor agency an amount
P204  1equivalent to the amount that each affected taxing entity was
2entitled to pursuant to paragraph (4) of subdivision (a) of Section
334183 for the period January 1, 2012, through June 30, 2012. The
4amount to be retained by taxing entities pursuant to paragraph (4)
5of subdivision (a) of Section 34183 for the January 1, 2012, through
6June 30, 2012, period is determined based on the Recognized
7Obligation Payment Schedule approved by the Department of
8Finance pursuant to subdivision (h) of Section 34179 and any
9amount determined to be owed pursuant to this subdivision. Any
10amounts so computed shall not be offset by any shortages in
11funding for recognized obligations for the period covering July 1,
122012, through December 31, 2012.

13(2) (A) If an affected taxing entity has not received the full
14amount to which it was entitled pursuant to paragraph (4) of
15subdivision (a) of Section 34183 of the property tax distributed
16for the period January 1, 2012, through June 30, 2012, and
17paragraph (1), no later than July 9, 2012, the county
18auditor-controller shall determine the amount, if any, that is owed
19by each successor agency to taxing entities and send a demand for
20payment from the funds of the successor agency for the amount
21owed to taxing entities if it has distributed the June 1, 2012,
22allocation to the successor agencies. No later than July 12, 2012,
23successor agencies shall make payment of the amounts demanded
24to the county auditor-controller for deposit into the Redevelopment
25Property Tax Trust Fund and subsequent distribution to taxing
26entities. No later than July 16, 2012, the county auditor-controller
27shall make allocations of all money received by that date from
28successor agencies in amounts owed to taxing entities under this
29paragraph to taxing entities in accordance with Section 34183. The
30county auditor-controller shall make allocations of any money
31received after that date under this paragraph within five business
32days of receipt. These duties are not discretionary and shall be
33carried out with due diligence.

34(B) If a county auditor-controller fails to determine the amounts
35owed to taxing entities and present a demand for payment by July
369, 2012, to the successor agencies, the Department of Finance or
37any affected taxing entity may request a writ of mandate to require
38the county auditor-controller to immediately perform this duty.
39Such actions may be filed only in the County of Sacramento and
40 shall have priority over other civil matters. Any county in which
P205  1the county auditor-controller fails to perform the duties under this
2paragraph shall be subject to a civil penalty of 10 percent of the
3amount owed to taxing entities plus 1.5 percent of the amount
4owed to taxing entities for each month that the duties are not
5performed. The civil penalties shall be payable to the taxing entities
6under Section 34183. Additionally, any county in which the county
7auditor-controller fails to make the required determinations and
8demands for payment under this paragraph by July 9, 2012, or fails
9to distribute the full amount of funds received from successor
10agencies as required by this paragraph shall not receive the
11distribution of sales and use tax scheduled for July 18, 2012, or
12any subsequent payment, up to the amount owed to taxing entities,
13until the county auditor-controller performs the duties required by
14this paragraph.

15(C) If a successor agency fails to make the payment demanded
16under subparagraph (A) by July 12, 2012, the Department of
17Finance or any affected taxing entity may file for a writ of mandate
18to require the successor agency to immediately make this payment.
19Such actions may be filed only in the County of Sacramento and
20shall have priority over other civil matters. Any successor agency
21that fails to make payment by July 12, 2012, under this paragraph
22shall be subject to a civil penalty of 10 percent of the amount owed
23to taxing entities plus one and one-half percent of the amount owed
24to taxing entities for each month that the payments are not made.
25Additionally, the city or county or city and county that created the
26redevelopment agency shall also be subject to a civil penalty of
2710 percent of the amount owed to taxing entities plus 1.5 percent
28of the amount owed to taxing entities for each month the payment
29is late. The civil penalties shall be payable to the taxing entities
30under Section 34183. If the Department of Finance finds that the
31imposition of penalties will jeopardize the payment of enforceable
32obligations it may request the court to waive some or all of the
33penalties. A successor agency that does not pay the amount
34required under this subparagraph by July 12, 2012, shall not pay
35any obligations other than bond debt service until full payment is
36made to the county auditor-controller. Additionally, any city,
37county or city and county that created the redevelopment agency
38that fails to make the required payment under this paragraph by
39July 12, 2012, shall not receive the distribution of sales and use
40tax scheduled for July 18, 2012, or any subsequent payment, up
P206  1to the amount owed to taxing entities, until the payment required
2by this paragraph is made.

3(D) The Legislature hereby finds and declares that time is of
4the essence. Funds that should have been received and were
5expected and spent in anticipation of receipt by community
6colleges, schools, counties, cities, and special districts have not
7been received resulting in significant fiscal impact to the state and
8taxing entities. Continued delay and uncertainty whether funds
9will be received warrants the availability of extraordinary relief
10as authorized herein.

11(3) If an affected taxing entity has not received the full amount
12to which it was entitled pursuant to paragraph (4) of subdivision
13(a) of Section 34183 for the period January 1, 2012, through June
1430, 2012, and paragraph (1), the county auditor-controller shall
15reapply paragraph (1) to each subsequent property tax allocation
16until such time as the affected taxing entity has received the full
17amount to which it was entitled pursuant to paragraph (4) of
18subdivision (a) of Section 34183 for the period January 1, 2012,
19through June 30, 2012.

20

SEC. 115.  

Section 39053 of the Health and Safety Code is
21amended to read:

22

39053.  

“State board” means the State Air Resources Board.

23

SEC. 116.  

Section 39510 of the Health and Safety Code is
24amended to read:

25

39510.  

(a) The State Air Resources Board is continued in
26existence in the California Environmental Protection Agency. The
27state board shall consist of 12 members.

28(b) The members shall be appointed by the Governor, with the
29consent of the Senate, on the basis of their demonstrated interest
30and proven ability in the field of air pollution control and their
31understanding of the needs of the general public in connection
32with air pollution problems.

33(c) Six members shall have the following qualifications:

34(1) One member shall have training and experience in
35automotive engineering or closely related fields.

36(2) One member shall have training and experience in chemistry,
37meteorology, or related scientific fields, including agriculture or
38law.

39(3) One member shall be a physician and surgeon or an authority
40on health effects of air pollution.

P207  1(4) Two members shall be public members.

2(5) One member shall have the qualifications specified in
3paragraph (1), (2), or (3) or shall have experience in the field of
4air pollution control.

5(d) Six members shall be board members from districts who
6shall reflect the qualitative requirements of subdivision (c) to the
7extent practicable. Of these members:

8(1) One shall be a board member from the south coast district.

9(2) One shall be a board member from the bay district.

10(3) One shall be a board member from the San Joaquin Valley
11Unified Air Pollution Control District.

12(4) One shall be a board member from the San Diego County
13Air Pollution Control District.

14(5) One shall be a board member from the Sacramento district,
15the Placer County Air Pollution Control District, the Yolo-Solano
16Air Quality Management District, the Feather River Air Quality
17Management District, or the El Dorado County Air Pollution
18Control District.

19(6) One shall be a board member of any other district.

20(e) Any vacancy shall be filled by the Governor within 30 days
21of the date on which it occurs. If the Governor fails to make an
22appointment for any vacancy within the 30-day period, the Senate
23Committee on Rules may make the appointment to fill the vacancy
24in accordance with this section.

25(f) While serving on the state board, all members shall exercise
26their independent judgment as officers of the state on behalf of the
27interests of the entire state in furthering the purposes of this
28division. A member of the state board shall not be precluded from
29voting or otherwise acting upon any matter solely because that
30member has voted or acted upon the matter in his or her capacity
31as a member of a district board, except that a member of the state
32board who is also a member of a district board shall not participate
33in any action regarding his or her district taken by the state board
34pursuant to Sections 41503 to 41505, inclusive.

35

SEC. 117.  

Section 39710 of the Health and Safety Code is
36amended to read:

37

39710.  

For purposes of this chapter, “fund” means the
38Greenhouse Gas Reduction Fund, created pursuant to Section
3916428.8 of the Government Code.

P208  1

SEC. 118.  

Section 39712 of the Health and Safety Code is
2amended to read:

3

39712.  

(a) (1) It is the intent of the Legislature that moneys
4shall be appropriated from the fund only in a manner consistent
5with the requirements of this chapter and Article 9.7 (commencing
6with Section 16428.8) of Chapter 2 of Part 2 of Division 4 of Title
72 of the Government Code.

8(2) The state shall not approve allocations for a measure or
9program using moneys appropriated from the fund except after
10determining, based on the available evidence, that the use of those
11moneys furthers the regulatory purposes of Division 25.5
12(commencing with Section 38500) and is consistent with law. If
13any expenditure of moneys from the fund for any measure or
14project is determined by a court to be inconsistent with law, the
15allocations for the remaining measures or projects shall be
16severable and shall not be affected.

17(b) Moneys shall be used to facilitate the achievement of
18reductions of greenhouse gas emissions in this state consistent
19with Division 25.5 (commencing with Section 38500) and, where
20applicable and to the extent feasible:

21(1) Maximize economic, environmental, and public health
22benefits to the state.

23(2) Foster job creation by promoting in-state greenhouse gas
24emissions reduction projects carried out by California workers and
25businesses.

26(3) Complement efforts to improve air quality.

27(4) Direct investment toward the most disadvantaged
28communities and households in the state.

29(5) Provide opportunities for businesses, public agencies,
30nonprofits, and other community institutions to participate in and
31benefit from statewide efforts to reduce greenhouse gas emissions.

32(6) Lessen the impacts and effects of climate change on the
33state’s communities, economy, and environment.

34(c) Moneys appropriated from the fund may be allocated,
35consistent with subdivision (a), for the purpose of reducing
36greenhouse gas emissions in this state through investments that
37may include, but are not limited to, any of the following:

38(1) Funding to reduce greenhouse gas emissions through energy
39efficiency, clean and renewable energy generation, distributed
40renewable energy generation, transmission and storage, and other
P209  1related actions, including, but not limited to, at public universities,
2state and local public buildings, and industrial and manufacturing
3facilities.

4(2) Funding to reduce greenhouse gas emissions through the
5development of state-of-the-art systems to move goods and freight,
6advanced technology vehicles and vehicle infrastructure, advanced
7biofuels, and low-carbon and efficient public transportation.

8(3) Funding to reduce greenhouse gas emissions associated with
9water use and supply, land and natural resource conservation and
10management, forestry, and sustainable agriculture.

11(4) Funding to reduce greenhouse gas emissions through
12strategic planning and development of sustainable infrastructure
13projects, including, but not limited to, transportation and housing.

14(5) Funding to reduce greenhouse gas emissions through
15increased in-state diversion of municipal solid waste from disposal
16through waste reduction, diversion, and reuse.

17(6) Funding to reduce greenhouse gas emissions through
18investments in programs implemented by local and regional
19agencies, local and regional collaboratives, and nonprofit
20organizations coordinating with local governments.

21(7) Funding research, development, and deployment of
22innovative technologies, measures, and practices related to
23programs and projects funded pursuant to this chapter.

24

SEC. 119.  

Section 39716 of the Health and Safety Code is
25amended to read:

26

39716.  

(a) The Department of Finance, on behalf of the
27Governor, and in consultation with the state board and any other
28relevant state entity, shall develop and submit to the Legislature
29at the time of the department’s adjustments to the proposed
302013-14 fiscal year budget pursuant to subdivision (e) of Section
3113308 of the Government Code a three-year investment plan.
32Commencing with the 2016-17 fiscal year budget and every three
33years thereafter, with the release of the Governor’s budget proposal,
34the Department of Finance shall include updates to the investment
35plan following the public process described in subdivisions (b)
36and (c). The investment plan, consistent with the requirements of
37Section 39712, shall do all of the following:

38(1) Identify the state’s near-term and long-term greenhouse gas
39emissions reduction goals and targets by sector.

P210  1(2) Analyze gaps, where applicable, in current state strategies
2to meeting the state’s greenhouse gas emissions reduction goals
3and targets by sector.

4(3) Identify priority programmatic investments of moneys that
5will facilitate the achievement of feasible and cost-effective
6greenhouse gas emissions reductions toward achievement of
7greenhouse gas reduction goals and targets by sector, consistent
8with subdivision (c) of Section 39712.

9(b) (1) The state board shall hold at least two public workshops
10in different regions of the state and one public hearing prior to the
11Department of Finance submitting the investment plan.

12(2) The state board shall, prior to the submission of each
13investment plan, consult with the Public Utilities Commission to
14ensure the investment plan is coordinated with, and does not
15conflict with or unduly overlap with, activities under the oversight
16or administration of the Public Utilities Commission undertaken
17pursuant to Part 5 (commencing with Section 38570) of Division
1825.5 or other activities under the oversight or administration of
19the Public Utilities Commission that facilitate greenhouse gas
20emissions reductions consistent with this division. The investment
21plan shall include a description of the use of any moneys generated
22by the sale of allowances received at no cost by the investor-owned
23utilities pursuant to a market-based compliance mechanism.

24(c) The Climate Action Team, established under Executive
25Order S-3-05, shall provide information to the Department of
26Finance and the state board to assist in the development of each
27investment plan. The Climate Action Team shall participate in
28each public workshop held on an investment plan and provide
29testimony to the state board on each investment plan. For purposes
30of this section, the Secretary of Labor and Workforce Development
31shall assist the Climate Action Team in its efforts.

32

SEC. 120.  

Section 39718 of the Health and Safety Code is
33amended to read:

34

39718.  

(a) Moneys in the fund shall be appropriated through
35the annual Budget Act consistent with the investment plan
36developed and submitted pursuant to Section 39716.

37(b) Upon appropriation, moneys in the fund shall be available
38to the state board and to administering agencies for administrative
39purposes in carrying out this chapter.

P211  1(c) Any repayment of loans, including interest payments and
2all interest earnings on or accruing to any moneys, resulting from
3implementation of this chapter shall be deposited in the fund for
4purposes of this chapter.

5

SEC. 121.  

Section 106985 of the Health and Safety Code is
6amended to read:

7

106985.  

(a) (1) Notwithstanding Section 2052 of the Business
8and Professions Code or any other law, a radiologic technologist
9certified pursuant to the Radiologic Technology Act (Section 27)
10may, under the direct supervision of a licensed physician and
11surgeon, and in accordance with the facility’s protocol that meets,
12at a minimum, the requirements described in paragraph (2), perform
13venipuncture in an upper extremity to administer contrast materials,
14manually or by utilizing a mechanical injector, if the radiologic
15technologist has been deemed competent to perform that
16venipuncture, in accordance with paragraph (3), and issued a
17certificate, as described in subdivision (b).

18(2) (A) In administering contrast materials, a radiologic
19technologist may, to ensure the security and integrity of the
20needle’s placement or of an existing intravenous cannula, use a
21saline-based solution that conforms with the facility’s protocol
22and that has been approved by a licensed physician and surgeon.
23The protocol shall specify that only contrast materials or
24pharmaceuticals approved by the United States Food and Drug
25Administration may be used and shall also specify that the use
26shall be in accordance with the labeling.

27(B) A person who is currently certified as meeting the standards
28of competence in nuclear medicine technology pursuant to Article
296 (commencing with Section 107150) and who is authorized to
30perform a computerized tomography scanner only on a dual-mode
31machine, as described in Section 106976, may perform the conduct
32described in this subdivision.

33(3) Prior to performing venipuncture pursuant to paragraph (1),
34a radiologic technologist shall have performed at least 10
35venipunctures on live humans under the personal supervision of
36a licensed physician and surgeon, a registered nurse, or a person
37the physician or nurse has previously deemed qualified to provide
38personal supervision to the technologist for purposes of performing
39venipuncture pursuant to this paragraph. Only after completion of
40a minimum of 10 venipunctures may the supervising individual
P212  1evaluate whether the technologist is competent to perform
2venipuncture under direct supervision. The number of
3venipunctures required in this paragraph are in addition to those
4performed for meeting the requirements of paragraph (2) of
5subdivision (d). The facility shall document compliance with this
6subdivision.

7(b) The radiologic technologist shall be issued a certificate as
8specified in subdivision (e) or by an instructor indicating
9satisfactory completion of the training and education described in
10subdivision (d). This certificate documents completion of the
11required education and training and may not, by itself, be construed
12to authorize a person to perform venipuncture or to administer
13contrast materials.

14(c) (1) “Direct supervision,” for purposes of this section, means
15the direction of procedures authorized by this section by a licensed
16physician and surgeon who shall be physically present within the
17facility and available within the facility where the procedures are
18performed, in order to provide immediate medical intervention to
19prevent or mitigate injury to the patient in the event of adverse
20reaction.

21(2) “Personal supervision,” for purposes of this section, means
22the oversight of the procedures authorized by this section by a
23supervising individual identified in paragraph (3) of subdivision
24(a) who is physically present to observe, and correct, as needed,
25the performance of the individual who is performing the procedure.

26(d) The radiologic technologist shall have completed both of
27the following:

28(1) Received a total of 10 hours of instruction, including all of
29the following:

30(A) Anatomy and physiology of venipuncture sites.

31(B) Venipuncture instruments, intravenous solutions, and related
32equipment.

33(C) Puncture techniques.

34(D) Techniques of intravenous line establishment.

35(E) Hazards and complications of venipuncture.

36(F) Postpuncture care.

37(G) Composition and purpose of antianaphylaxis tray.

38(H) First aid and basic cardiopulmonary resuscitation.

39(2) Performed 10 venipunctures on a human or training
40mannequin upper extremity (for example, an infusion arm or a
P213  1mannequin arm) under personal supervision. If performance is on
2a human, only an upper extremity may be used.

3(e)  Schools for radiologic technologists shall include the
4training and education specified in subdivision (d). Upon
5satisfactory completion of the training and education, the school
6shall issue to the student a completion document. This document
7may not be construed to authorize a person to perform venipuncture
8or to administer contrast materials.

9(f)  Nothing in this section shall be construed to authorize a
10radiologic technologist to perform arterial puncture, any central
11venous access procedures including repositioning of previously
12placed central venous catheter except as specified in paragraph (1)
13of subdivision (a), or cutdowns, or establish an intravenous line.

14(g) This section shall not be construed to apply to a person who
15is currently certified as meeting the standards of competence in
16nuclear medicine technology pursuant to Article 6 (commencing
17with Section 107150), except as provided in subparagraph (B) of
18paragraph (2) of subdivision (a).

19(h) Radiologic technologists who met the training and education
20requirements of subdivision (d) prior to January 1, 2013, need not
21repeat those requirements, or perform the venipunctures specified
22in paragraph (3) of subdivision (a), provided the facility documents
23that the radiologic technologist is competent to perform the tasks
24specified in paragraph (1) of subdivision (a).

25

SEC. 122.  

Section 114365.5 of the Health and Safety Code is
26amended to read:

27

114365.5.  

(a) The department shall adopt and post on its
28Internet Web site a list of nonpotentially hazardous foods and their
29ethnic variations that are approved for sale by a cottage food
30operation. A cottage food product shall not be potentially hazardous
31food, as defined in Section 113871.

32(b) This list of nonpotentially hazardous foods shall include,
33but not be limited to, all of the following:

34(1) Baked goods without cream, custard, or meat fillings, such
35as breads, biscuits, churros, cookies, pastries, and tortillas.

36(2) Candy, such as brittle and toffee.

37(3) Chocolate-covered nonperishable foods, such as nuts and
38dried fruit.

39(4) Dried fruit.

40(5) Dried pasta.

P214  1(6) Dry baking mixes.

2(7) Fruit pies, fruit empanadas, and fruit tamales.

3(8) Granola, cereals, and trail mixes.

4(9) Herb blends and dried mole paste.

5(10) Honey and sweet sorghum syrup.

6(11) Jams, jellies, preserves, and fruit butter that comply with
7the standard described in Part 150 of Title 21 of the Code of
8Federal Regulations.

9(12) Nut mixes and nut butters.

10(13) Popcorn.

11(14) Vinegar and mustard.

12(15) Roasted coffee and dried tea.

13(16) Waffle cones and pizelles.

14(c) (1) The State Public Health Officer may add or delete food
15products to or from the list described in subdivision (b), which
16shall be known as the approved food products list. Notice of any
17change to the approved food products list shall be posted on the
18department’s cottage food program Internet Web site, to also be
19known as the program Internet Web site for purposes of this
20chapter. Any change to the approved food products list shall
21become effective 30 days after the notice is posted. The notice
22shall state the reason for the change, the authority for the change,
23and the nature of the change. The notice will provide an opportunity
24for written comment by indicating the address to which to submit
25the comment and the deadline by which the comment is required
26to be received by the department. The address to which the
27comment is to be submitted may be an electronic site. The notice
28shall allow at least 20 calendar days for comments to be submitted.
29The department shall consider all comments submitted before the
30due date. The department may withdraw the proposed change at
31any time by notification on the program Internet Web site or
32through notification by other electronic means. The approved food
33products list described in subdivision (b), and any updates to the
34list, shall not be subject to the administrative rulemaking
35requirements of Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 11340) of
36Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code.

37(2) The State Public Health Officer shall not remove any items
38from the approved food products list unless the State Public Health
39Officer also posts information on the program Internet Web site
P215  1explaining the basis upon which the removed food item has been
2determined to be potentially hazardous.

3

SEC. 123.  

Section 114380 of the Health and Safety Code is
4amended to read:

5

114380.  

(a) A person proposing to build or remodel a food
6facility shall submit complete, easily readable plans drawn to scale,
7and specifications to the enforcement agency for review, and shall
8receive plan approval before starting any new construction or
9remodeling of a facility for use as a retail food facility.

10(b) Plans and specifications may also be required by the
11enforcement agency if the agency determines that they are
12necessary to ensure compliance with the requirements of this part,
13including, but not limited to, a menu change or change in the
14facility’s method of operation.

15(c) (1) All new school food facilities or school food facilities
16that undergo modernization or remodeling shall comply with all
17structural requirements of this part. Upon submission of plans by
18a public school authority, the Division of the State Architect and
19the local enforcement agency shall review and approve all new
20and remodeled school facilities for compliance with all applicable
21requirements.

22(2) Notwithstanding subdivision (a), the Office of Statewide
23Health Planning and Development (OSHPD) shall maintain its
24primary jurisdiction over licensed skilled nursing facilities, and
25when new construction, modernization, or remodeling must be
26undertaken to repair existing systems or to keep up the course of
27normal or routine maintenance, the facility shall complete a
28building application and plan check process as required by OSHPD.
29Approval of the plans by OSHPD shall be deemed compliance
30with the plan approval process required by the local county
31enforcement agency described in this section.

32(3) Except when a determination is made by the enforcement
33agency that the nonconforming structural conditions pose a public
34health hazard, existing public and private school cafeterias and
35licensed health care facilities shall be deemed to be in compliance
36with this part pending replacement or renovation.

37(d) Except when a determination is made by the enforcement
38agency that the nonconforming structural conditions pose a public
39health hazard, existing food facilities that were in compliance with
40the law in effect on June 30, 2007, shall be deemed to be in
P216  1compliance with the law pending replacement or renovation. If a
2determination is made by the enforcement agency that a structural
3condition poses a public health hazard, the food facility shall
4remedy the deficiency to the satisfaction of the enforcement
5agency.

6(e) The plans shall be approved or rejected within 20 working
7days after receipt by the enforcement agency and the applicant
8shall be notified of the decision. Unless the plans are approved or
9rejected within 20 working days, they shall be deemed approved.
10The building department shall not issue a building permit for a
11food facility until after it has received plan approval by the
12enforcement agency. Nothing in this section shall require that plans
13or specifications be prepared by someone other than the applicant.

14

SEC. 124.  

Section 116565 of the Health and Safety Code is
15amended to read:

16

116565.  

(a) Each public water system serving 1,000 or more
17service connections, and any public water system that treats water
18on behalf of one or more public water systems for the purpose of
19rendering it safe for human consumption, shall reimburse the
20department for the actual cost incurred by the department for
21conducting those activities mandated by this chapter relating to
22the issuance of domestic water supply permits, inspections,
23monitoring, surveillance, and water quality evaluation that relate
24to that specific public water system. The amount of reimbursement
25shall be sufficient to pay, but in no event shall exceed, the
26department’s actual cost in conducting these activities.

27(b) Each public water system serving fewer than 1,000 service
28connections shall pay an annual drinking water operating fee to
29the department as set forth in this subdivision for costs incurred
30by the department for conducting those activities mandated by this
31chapter relating to inspections, monitoring, surveillance, and water
32quality evaluation relating to public water systems. The total
33amount of fees shall be sufficient to pay, but in no event shall
34exceed, the department’s actual cost in conducting these activities.
35Notwithstanding adjustment of actual fees collected pursuant to
36Section 100425 as authorized pursuant to subdivision (d) of Section
37116590, the amount that shall be paid annually by a public water
38system pursuant to this section shall be as follows:

39(1) Community water systems, six dollars ($6) per service
40connection, but not less than two hundred fifty dollars ($250) per
P217  1water system, which may be increased by the department, as
2provided for in subdivision (f), to ten dollars ($10) per service
3connection, but not less than two hundred fifty dollars ($250) per
4water system.

5(2) Nontransient noncommunity water systems pursuant to
6subdivision (k) of Section 116275, two dollars ($2) per person
7served, but not less than four hundred fifty-six dollars ($456) per
8water system, which may be increased by the department, as
9provided for in subdivision (f), to three dollars ($3) per person
10served, but not less than four hundred fifty-six dollars ($456) per
11water system.

12(3) Transient noncommunity water systems pursuant to
13subdivision (o) of Section 116275, eight hundred dollars ($800)
14per water system, which may be increased by the department, as
15provided for in subdivision (f), to one thousand three hundred
16thirty-five dollars ($1,335) per water system.

17(4) Noncommunity water systems in possession of a current
18exemption pursuant to former Section 116282 on January 1, 2012,
19one hundred two dollars ($102) per water system.

20(c) For purposes of determining the fees provided for in
21subdivision (a), the department shall maintain a record of its actual
22costs for pursuing the activities specified in subdivision (a) relative
23to each system required to pay the fees. The fee charged each
24system shall reflect the department’s actual cost, or in the case of
25a local primacy agency the local primacy agency’s actual cost, of
26conducting the specified activities.

27(d) The department shall submit an invoice for cost
28reimbursement for the activities specified in subdivision (a) to the
29public water systems no more than twice a year.

30(1) The department shall submit one estimated cost invoice to
31public water systems serving 1,000 or more service connections
32and any public water system that treats water on behalf of one or
33more public water systems for the purpose of rendering it safe for
34human consumption. This invoice shall include the actual hours
35expended during the first six months of the fiscal year. The hourly
36cost rate used to determine the amount of the estimated cost invoice
37shall be the rate for the previous fiscal year.

38(2) The department shall submit a final invoice to the public
39water system before October 1 following the fiscal year that the
40costs were incurred. The invoice shall indicate the total hours
P218  1expended during the fiscal year, the reasons for the expenditure,
2the hourly cost rate of the department for the fiscal year, the
3estimated cost invoice, and payments received. The amount of the
4final invoice shall be determined using the total hours expended
5during the fiscal year and the actual hourly cost rate of the
6department for the fiscal year. The payment of the estimated
7invoice, exclusive of late penalty, if any, shall be credited toward
8the final invoice amount.

9(3) Payment of the invoice issued pursuant to paragraphs (1)
10and (2) shall be made within 90 days of the date of the invoice.
11Failure to pay the amount of the invoice within 90 days shall result
12in a 10-percent late penalty that shall be paid in addition to the
13invoiced amount.

14(e) Any public water system under the jurisdiction of a local
15primacy agency shall pay the fees specified in this section to the
16local primacy agency in lieu of the department. This section shall
17not preclude a local health officer from imposing additional fees
18pursuant to Section 101325.

19(f) The department may increase the fees established in
20subdivision (b) as follows:

21(1) By February 1 of the fiscal year prior to the fiscal year for
22which fees are proposed to be increased, the department shall
23publish a list of fees for the following fiscal year and a report
24showing the calculation of the amount of the fees.

25(2) The department shall make the report and the list of fees
26available to the public by submitting them to the Legislature and
27posting them on the department’s Internet Web site.

28(3) The department shall establish the amount of fee increases
29subject to the approval and appropriation by the Legislature.

30

SEC. 125.  

Section 120365 of the Health and Safety Code is
31amended to read:

32

120365.  

(a) Immunization of a person shall not be required
33for admission to a school or other institution listed in Section
34120335 if the parent or guardian or adult who has assumed
35responsibility for his or her care and custody in the case of a minor,
36or the person seeking admission if an emancipated minor, files
37with the governing authority a letter or affidavit that documents
38which immunizations required by Section 120355 have been given
39and which immunizations have not been given on the basis that
40they are contrary to his or her beliefs.

P219  1(b) On and after January 1, 2014, a form prescribed by the State
2Department of Public Health shall accompany the letter or affidavit
3filed pursuant to subdivision (a). The form shall include both of
4the following:

5(1) A signed attestation from the health care practitioner that
6indicates that the health care practitioner provided the parent or
7guardian of the person who is subject to the immunization
8requirements of this chapter, the adult who has assumed
9responsibility for the care and custody of the person, or the person
10if an emancipated minor, with information regarding the benefits
11and risks of the immunization and the health risks of the
12communicable diseases listed in Section 120335 to the person and
13to the community. This attestation shall be signed not more than
14six months before the date when the person first becomes subject
15to the immunization requirement for which exemption is being
16sought.

17(2) A written statement signed by the parent or guardian of the
18person who is subject to the immunization requirements of this
19chapter, the adult who has assumed responsibility for the care and
20 custody of the person, or the person if an emancipated minor, that
21indicates that the signer has received the information provided by
22the health care practitioner pursuant to paragraph (1). This
23statement shall be signed not more than six months before the date
24when the person first becomes subject to the immunization
25requirements as a condition of admittance to a school or institution
26pursuant to Section 120335.

27(c) The following shall be accepted in lieu of the original form:

28(1) A photocopy of the signed form.

29(2) A letter signed by a health care practitioner that includes all
30information and attestations included on the form.

31(d) Issuance and revision of the form shall be exempt from the
32rulemaking provisions of the Administrative Procedure Act
33 (Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 11340) of Part 1 of
34Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code).

35(e) When there is good cause to believe that the person has been
36exposed to one of the communicable diseases listed in subdivision
37(a) of Section 120325, that person may be temporarily excluded
38from the school or institution until the local health officer is
39satisfied that the person is no longer at risk of developing the
40disease.

P220  1(f) For purposes of this section, “health care practitioner” means
2any of the following:

3(1) A physician and surgeon, licensed pursuant to Section 2050
4of the Business and Professions Code.

5(2) A nurse practitioner who is authorized to furnish drugs
6pursuant to Section 2836.1 of the Business and Professions Code.

7(3) A physician assistant who is authorized to administer or
8provide medication pursuant to Section 3502.1 of the Business
9and Professions Code.

10(4) An osteopathic physician and surgeon, as defined in the
11Osteopathic Initiative Act.

12(5) A naturopathic doctor who is authorized to furnish or order
13drugs under a physician and surgeon’s supervision pursuant to
14Section 3640.5 of the Business and Professions Code.

15(6) A credentialed school nurse, as described in Section 49426
16of the Education Code.

17

SEC. 126.  

Section 123327 of the Health and Safety Code is
18amended to read:

19

123327.  

(a) The department shall provide written notice to a
20retail food vendor if the department determines that the vendor
21has committed an initial violation for which a pattern of the
22violation must be established to impose a sanction. Notice shall
23be provided no later than 30 days after the department determines
24the first investigation that identified the violation is complete.

25(b) The written notice shall be delivered to the vendor 30 days
26before the department conducts a second investigation for purposes
27of establishing a pattern of the violation to the vendor’s most recent
28business ownership address on file with the department or to the
29vendor location upon identification of a violation during vendor
30monitoring, as defined by Section 40743 of Title 22 of the
31 California Code of Regulations.

32(c) The written notice shall include a description of the initial
33violation and may include information to assist the vendor to take
34corrective action, including, but not limited to, a 60-day window
35that includes the date of the violation.

36(d) For purposes of this section, “violation” means a violation
37set forth in Section 246.2 of Title 7 of the Code of Federal
38Regulations.

39(e) It is the intent of the Legislature in enacting this section to
40clarify existing law.

P221  1

SEC. 127.  

Section 123940 of the Health and Safety Code is
2amended to read:

3

123940.  

(a) (1) Annually, the board of supervisors shall
4appropriate a sum of money for services for handicapped children
5of the county, including diagnosis, treatment, and therapy services
6for physically handicapped children in public schools, equal to 25
7percent of the actual expenditures for the county program under
8this article for the 1990-91 fiscal year, except as specified in
9paragraph (2).

10(2) If the state certifies that a smaller amount is needed in order
11for the county to pay 25 percent of costs of the county’s program
12from this source. The smaller amount certified by the state shall
13be the amount that the county shall appropriate.

14(b) In addition to the amount required by subdivision (a), the
15county shall allocate an amount equal to the amount determined
16pursuant to subdivision (a) for purposes of this article from
17revenues allocated to the county pursuant to Chapter 6
18(commencing with Section 17600) of Division 9 of the Welfare
19and Institutions Code.

20(c) (1) The state shall match county expenditures for this article
21from funding provided pursuant to subdivisions (a) and (b).

22(2) County expenditures shall be waived for payment of services
23for children who are eligible pursuant to paragraph (2) of
24subdivision (a) of Section 123870.

25(d) The county may appropriate and expend moneys in addition
26to those set forth in subdivisions (a) and (b) and the state shall
27match the expenditures, on a dollar-for-dollar basis, to the extent
28that state funds are available for this article.

29(e) County appropriations under subdivisions (a) and (b) shall
30include county financial participation in the nonfederal share of
31expenditures for services for children who are enrolled in the
32Medi-Cal program pursuant to Section 14005.26 of the Welfare
33and Institutions Code, and who are eligible for services under this
34article pursuant to paragraph (1) of subdivision (a) of Section
35123870, to the extent that federal financial participation is available
36at the enhanced federal reimbursement rate under Title XXI of the
37federal Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. Sec. 1397aa et seq.) and
38funds are appropriated for the California Children’s Services
39Program in the State Budget.

P222  1(f) Nothing in this section shall require the county to expend
2more than the amount set forth in subdivision (a) plus the amount
3set forth in subdivision (b) nor shall it require the state to expend
4more than the amount of the match set forth in subdivision (c).

5(g) Notwithstanding Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section
611340) of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code,
7the department, without taking further regulatory action, shall
8implement this section by means of California Children’s Services
9numbered letters.

10

SEC. 128.  

Section 123955 of the Health and Safety Code is
11amended to read:

12

123955.  

(a) The state and the counties shall share in the cost
13of administration of the California Children’s Services Program
14at the local level.

15(b) (1) The director shall adopt regulations establishing
16minimum standards for the administration, staffing, and local
17implementation of this article subject to reimbursement by the
18state.

19(2) The standards shall allow necessary flexibility in the
20administration of county programs, taking into account the
21variability of county needs and resources, and shall be developed
22and revised jointly with state and county representatives.

23(c) The director shall establish minimum standards for
24administration, staffing, and local operation of the program subject
25to reimbursement by the state.

26(d) Until July 1, 1992, reimbursable administrative costs, to be
27paid by the state to counties, shall not exceed 4.1 percent of the
28gross total expenditures for diagnosis, treatment, and therapy by
29counties as specified in Section 123940.

30(e) Beginning July 1, 1992, this subdivision shall apply with
31respect to all of the following:

32(1) Counties shall be reimbursed by the state for 50 percent of
33the amount required to meet state administrative standards for that
34portion of the county caseload under this article that is ineligible
35for Medi-Cal to the extent funds are available in the State Budget
36for the California Children’s Services Program.

37(2) Counties shall be reimbursed by the state for 50 percent of
38the nonfederal share of the amount required to meet state
39administrative standards for that portion of the county caseload
40under this article that is enrolled in the Medi-Cal program pursuant
P223  1to Section 14005.26 of the Welfare and Institutions Code and who
2are eligible for services under this article pursuant to subdivision
3(a) of Section 123870, to the extent that federal financial
4participation is available at the enhanced federal reimbursement
5rate under Title XXI of the federal Social Security Act (42 U.S.C.
6Sec. 1397aa et seq.) and funds are appropriated for the California
7Children’s Services Program in the State Budget.

8(3) On or before September 15 of each year, each county
9program implementing this article shall submit an application for
10the subsequent fiscal year that provides information as required
11by the state to determine if the county administrative staff and
12budget meet state standards.

13(4) The state shall determine the maximum amount of state
14funds available for each county from state funds appropriated for
15CCS county administration. If the amount appropriated for any
16fiscal year in the Budget Act for county administration under this
17article differs from the amounts approved by the department, each
18county shall submit a revised application in a form and at the time
19specified by the department.

20(f) The department and counties shall maximize the use of
21federal funds for administration of the programs implemented
22pursuant to this article, including using state and county funds to
23match funds claimable under Title XIX or Title XXI of the federal
24Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. Sec. 1396 et seq.; 42 U.S.C. Sec.
251397aa et seq.).

26

SEC. 129.  

Section 125286.20 of the Health and Safety Code
27 is amended to read:

28

125286.20.  

Unless the context otherwise requires, the following
29definitions shall apply for purposes of this article:

30(a) “Assay” means the amount of a particular constituent of a
31mixture or of the biological or pharmacological potency of a drug.

32(b) “Ancillary infusion equipment and supplies” means the
33equipment and supplies required to infuse a blood clotting product
34into a human vein, including, but not limited to, syringes, needles,
35sterile gauze, field pads, gloves, alcohol swabs, numbing creams,
36tourniquets, medical tape, sharps or equivalent biohazard waste
37containers, and cold compression packs.

38(c) “Bleeding disorder” means a medical condition characterized
39 by a deficiency or absence of one or more essential blood clotting
40proteins in the human blood, often called “factors,” including all
P224  1forms of hemophilia and other bleeding disorders that, without
2treatment, result in uncontrollable bleeding or abnormal blood
3clotting.

4(d) “Blood clotting product” means an intravenously
5administered medicine manufactured from human plasma or
6recombinant biotechnology techniques, approved for distribution
7by the federal Food and Drug Administration, that is used for the
8treatment and prevention of symptoms associated with bleeding
9disorders. Blood clotting products include, but are not limited to,
10factor VII, factor VIIa, factor VIII, and factor IX products, von
11Willebrand factor products, bypass products for patients with
12inhibitors, and activated prothrombin complex concentrates.

13(e) “Emergency” means care as defined in Section 1317.1.

14(f) “Hemophilia” means a human bleeding disorder caused by
15a hereditary deficiency of the factor I, II, V, VIII, IX, XI, XII, or
16XIII blood clotting protein in human blood.

17(g) “Hemophilia treatment center” means a facility for the
18treatment of bleeding disorders, including, but not limited to,
19hemophilia, that receives funding specifically for the treatment of
20patients with bleeding disorders from federal government sources,
21including, but not limited to, the federal Centers for Disease
22Control and Prevention and the federal Health Resources and
23Services Administration (HRSA) of the United States Department
24of Health and Human Services.

25(h) “Home use” means infusion or other use of a blood clotting
26product in a place other than a state-recognized hemophilia
27treatment center or other clinical setting. Places where home use
28occurs include, without limitation, a home or other nonclinical
29setting.

30(i) “Patient” means a person needing a blood clotting product
31for home use.

32(j) (1) “Provider of blood clotting products for home use” means
33all the following pharmacies, except as described in Section
34125286.35, that dispense blood clotting factors for home use:

35(A) Hospital pharmacies.

36(B) Health system pharmacies.

37(C) Pharmacies affiliated with hemophilia treatment centers.

38(D) Specialty home care pharmacies.

39(E) Retail pharmacies.

P225  1(2) The providers described in this subdivision shall include a
2health care service plan and all its affiliated providers if the health
3care service plan exclusively contracts with a single medical group
4in a specified geographic area to provide professional services to
5its enrollees.

6

SEC. 130.  

Section 128570 of the Health and Safety Code is
7amended to read:

8

128570.  

(a) Persons participating in the program shall be
9persons who agree in writing prior to completing an accredited
10medical or osteopathic school based in the United States to serve
11in an eligible practice setting, pursuant to subdivision (g) of Section
12128565, for at least three years. The program shall be used only
13for the purpose of promoting the education of medical doctors and
14doctors of osteopathy and related administrative costs.

15(b) A program participant shall commit to three years of
16full-time professional practice once the participant has achieved
17full licensure pursuant to Article 4 (commencing with Section
182080) of Chapter 5 of Division 2 of, or Section 2099.5 of, the
19Business and Professions Code and after completing an accredited
20residency program. The obligated professional service shall be in
21direct patient care in an eligible practice setting pursuant to
22subdivision (g) of Section 128565.

23(1) Leaves of absence either during medical school or service
24obligation shall be permitted for serious illness, pregnancy, or
25other natural causes. The selection committee shall develop the
26process for determining the maximum permissible length of an
27absence, the maximum permissible leaves of absences, and the
28process for reinstatement. Awarding of scholarship funds shall be
29deferred until the participant is back to full-time status.

30(2) Full-time status shall be defined by the selection committee.
31The selection committee may establish exemptions from this
32requirement on a case-by-case basis.

33(c) The maximum allowable amount per total scholarship shall
34be one hundred five thousand dollars ($105,000). These moneys
35shall be distributed over the course of a standard medical school
36curriculum. The distribution of funds shall increase over the course
37of medical school, increasing to ensure that at least 45 percent of
38the total scholarship award is distributed upon matriculation in the
39final year of school.

P226  1(d) In the event the program participant does not complete
2medical school and the minimum three years of professional service
3pursuant to the contractual agreement between the foundation and
4the participant, the office shall recover the funds awarded plus the
5maximum allowable interest for failure to begin or complete the
6service obligation.

7

SEC. 131.  

Section 129725 of the Health and Safety Code is
8amended to read:

9

129725.  

(a)  (1)  “Hospital building” includes any building
10not specified in subdivision (b) that is used, or designed to be used,
11for a health facility of a type required to be licensed pursuant to
12Chapter 2 (commencing with Section 1250) of Division 2.

13(2)  Except as provided in paragraph (7) of subdivision (b),
14hospital building includes a correctional treatment center, as
15defined in subdivision (j) of Section 1250, the construction of
16which was completed on or after March 7, 1973.

17(b)  “Hospital building” does not include any of the following:

18(1)  Any building where outpatient clinical services of a health
19facility licensed pursuant to Section 1250 are provided that is
20separated from a building in which hospital services are provided.
21If any one or more outpatient clinical services in the building
22provides services to inpatients, the building shall not be included
23as a “hospital building” if those services provided to inpatients
24represent no more than 25 percent of the total outpatient services
25provided at the building. Hospitals shall maintain on an ongoing
26basis, data on the patients receiving services in these buildings,
27including the number of patients seen, categorized by their inpatient
28or outpatient status. Hospitals shall submit this data annually to
29the State Department of Public Health.

30(2)  A building used, or designed to be used, for a skilled nursing
31facility or intermediate care facility if the building is of
32single-story, wood-framebegin insert,end insert or light steel frame construction.

33(3)  A building of single-story, wood-framebegin insert,end insert or light steel frame
34construction where only skilled nursing or intermediate care
35services are provided if the building is separated from a building
36housing other patients of the health facility receiving higher levels
37of care.

38(4)  A freestanding structure of a chemical dependency recovery
39hospital exempted under subdivision (c) of Section 1275.2.

P227  1(5)  A building licensed to be used as an intermediate care
2facility/developmentally disabled habilitative with six beds or less
3and an intermediate care facility/developmentally disabled
4habilitative of 7 to 15 beds that is a single-story, wood-framebegin insert,end insert or
5light steel frame building.

6(6)  A building subject to licensure as a correctional treatment
7center, as defined in subdivision (j) of Section 1250, the
8construction of which was completed before March 7, 1973.

9(7)  (A)  A building that meets the definition of a correctional
10treatment center, pursuant to subdivision (j) of Section 1250, for
11which the final design documents were completed or the
12construction of which was initiated before January 1, 1994,
13operated by or to be operated by the Department of Corrections
14and Rehabilitation, or by a law enforcement agency of a city,
15county, or a city and county.

16(B)  In the case of reconstruction, alteration, or addition to, the
17facilities identified in this paragraph, and paragraph (6) or any
18other building subject to licensure as a general acute care hospital,
19acute psychiatric hospital, correctional treatment center, or nursing
20facility, as defined in subdivisions (a), (b), (j), and (k) of Section
211250, operated or to be operated by the Department of Corrections
22and Rehabilitation, or by a law enforcement agency of a city,
23county, or city and county, only the reconstruction, alteration, or
24addition, itself, and not the building as a whole, nor any other
25aspect thereof, shall be required to comply with this chapter or the
26regulations adopted pursuant thereto.

27(8) A freestanding building used, or designed to be used, as a
28congregate living health facility, as defined in subdivision (i) of
29Section 1250.

30(9) A freestanding building used, or designed to be used, as a
31hospice facility, as defined in subdivision (n) of Section 1250.

32

SEC. 132.  

Section 136000 of the Health and Safety Code is
33amended to read:

34

136000.  

(a) (1) Effective July 1, 2012, there is hereby
35transferred from the Department of Managed Health Care the
36Office of Patient Advocate to be established within the California
37Health and Human Services Agency, to provide assistance to, and
38advocate on behalf of, individuals served by health care service
39plans regulated by the Department of Managed Health Care,
40insureds covered by health insurers regulated by the Department
P228  1of Insurance, and individuals who receive or are eligible for other
2health care coverage in California, including coverage available
3through the Medi-Cal program, the California Health Benefit
4Exchange, the Healthy Families Program, or any other county or
5state health care program. The goal of the office shall be to help
6those individuals secure the health care services to which they are
7 entitled or for which they are eligible under the law.
8Notwithstanding any provision of this division, each regulator and
9health coverage program shall retain its respective authority,
10including its authority to resolve complaints, grievances, and
11appeals.

12(2) The office shall be headed by a patient advocate appointed
13by the Governor. The patient advocate shall serve at the pleasure
14of the Governor.

15(3) The provisions of this division affecting insureds covered
16by health insurers regulated by the Department of Insurance and
17individuals who receive or are eligible for coverage available
18through the Medi-Cal program, the California Health Benefit
19Exchange, the Healthy Families Program, or any other county or
20state health care program shall commence on January 1, 2013,
21except that for the period July 1, 2012, to January 1, 2013, the
22office shall continue with any duties, responsibilities, or activities
23of the office authorized as of July 1, 2011, which shall continue
24to be authorized.

25(b) (1) The duties of the office shall include, but not be limited
26to, all of the following:

27(A) Developing, in consultation with the Managed Risk Medical
28Insurance Board, the State Department of Health Care Services,
29the California Health Benefit Exchange, the Department of
30Managed Health Care, and the Department of Insurance,
31educational and informational guides for consumers describing
32their rights and responsibilities, and informing them on effective
33ways to exercise their rights to secure health care coverage. The
34guides shall be easy to read and understand and shall be made
35available in English and other threshold languages, using an
36appropriate literacy level, and in a culturally competent manner.
37The informational guides shall be made available to the public by
38the office, including being made accessible on the office’s Internet
39Web site and through public outreach and educational programs.

P229  1(B) Compiling an annual publication, to be made available on
2the office’s Internet Web site, of a quality of care report card,
3including, but not limited to, health care service plans.

4(C) Rendering assistance to consumers regarding procedures,
5rights, and responsibilities related to the filing of complaints,
6grievances, and appeals, including appeals of coverage denials and
7information about any external appeal process.

8(D) Making referrals to the appropriate state agency regarding
9studies, investigations, audits, or enforcement that may be
10appropriate to protect the interests of consumers.

11(E) Coordinating and working with other government and
12nongovernment patient assistance programs and health care
13ombudsperson programs.

14(2) The office shall employ necessary staff. The office may
15employ or contract with experts when necessary to carry out the
16functions of the office. The patient advocate shall make an annual
17budget request for the office which shall be identified in the annual
18Budget Act.

19(3) Until January 1, 2013, the office shall have access to records
20of the Department of Managed Health Care, including, but not
21limited to, information related to health care service plan or health
22insurer audits, surveys, and enrollee or insured grievances.

23(4) The patient advocate shall annually issue a public report on
24the activities of the office, and shall appear before the appropriate
25policy and fiscal committees of the Senate and Assembly, if
26requested, to report and make recommendations on the activities
27of the office.

28(5) The office shall adopt standards for the organizations with
29which it contracts pursuant to this section to ensure compliance
30with the privacy and confidentiality laws of this state, including,
31but not limited to, the Information Practices Act of 1977 (Chapter
321(commencing with Section 1798) of Division 3 of the Civil Code).
33The office shall conduct privacy trainings as necessary, and
34regularly verify that the organizations have measures in place to
35ensure compliance with this provision.

36(c) In enacting this act, the Legislature recognizes that, because
37of the enactment of federal health care reform on March 23, 2010,
38and the implementation of various provisions by January 1, 2014,
39it is appropriate to transfer the Office of Patient Advocate and to
40 confer new responsibilities on the Office of Patient Advocate,
P230  1including assisting consumers in obtaining health care coverage
2and obtaining health care through health coverage that is regulated
3by multiple regulators, both state and federal. The new
4responsibilities include assisting consumers in navigating both
5public and private health care coverage and assisting consumers
6in determining which regulator regulates the health care coverage
7of a particular consumer. In order to assist in implementing federal
8health care reform in California, commencing January 1, 2013,
9the office, in addition to the duties set forth in subdivision (b),
10shall also do all of the following:

11(1) Receive and respond to all inquiries, complaints, and requests
12for assistance from individuals concerning health care coverage
13available in California.

14(2) Provide, and assist in the provision of, outreach and
15 education about health care coverage options as set forth in
16subparagraph (A) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (b), including,
17but not limited to:

18(A) Information regarding applying for coverage; the cost of
19coverage; and renewal in, and transitions between, health coverage
20programs.

21(B) Information and assistance regarding public programs, such
22as Medi-Cal, the Healthy Families Program, federal veterans health
23benefits, and Medicare; and private coverage, including
24employer-sponsored coverage, Exchange coverage; and other
25sources of care if the consumer is not eligible for coverage, such
26as county services, community clinics, discounted hospital care,
27or charity care.

28(3) Coordinate with other state and federal agencies engaged in
29outreach and education regarding the implementation of federal
30health care reform.

31(4) Render assistance to, and advocate on behalf of, consumers
32with problems related to health care services, including care and
33service problems and claims or payment problems.

34(5) Refer consumers to the appropriate regulator of their health
35coverage programs for filing complaints, grievances, or claims, or
36for payment problems.

37(d) (1) Commencing January 1, 2013, the office shall track and
38analyze data on problems and complaints by, and questions from,
39consumers about health care coverage for the purpose of providing
40public information about problems faced and information needed
P231  1by consumers in obtaining coverage and care. The data collected
2shall include demographic data, source of coverage, regulator, and
3resolution of complaints, including timeliness of resolution.

4(2) The Department of Managed Health Care, the State
5Department of Health Care Services, the Department of Insurance,
6the Managed Risk Medical Insurance Board, the California Health
7Benefit Exchange, and other public coverage programs shall
8provide to the office data in the aggregate concerning consumer
9complaints and grievances. For the purpose of publicly reporting
10information about the problems faced by consumers in obtaining
11care and coverage, the office shall analyze data on consumer
12complaints and grievances resolved by these agencies, including
13demographic data, source of coverage, insurer or plan, resolution
14of complaints and other information intended to improve health
15care and coverage for consumers. The office shall develop and
16provide comprehensive and timely data and analysis based on the
17information provided by other agencies.

18(3) The office shall collect and report data to the United States
19Secretary of Health and Human Services on complaints and
20consumer assistance as required to comply with requirements of
21the federal Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act (Public
22Law 111-148).

23(e) Commencing January 1, 2013, in order to assist consumers
24in understanding the impact of federal health care reform as well
25as navigating and resolving questions and problems with health
26care coverage and programs, the office shall ensure that either the
27office or a state agency contracting with the office shall do the
28following:

29(1) Operate a toll-free telephone hotline number that can route
30callers to the proper regulating body or public program for their
31question, their health plan, or the consumer assistance program in
32their area.

33(2) Operate an Internet Web site, other social media, and
34 up-to-date communication systems to give information regarding
35the consumer assistance programs.

36(f) (1) The office may contract with community-based consumer
37assistance organizations to assist in any or all of the duties of
38subdivision (c) in accordance with Section 19130 of the
39Government Code or provide grants to community-based consumer
40assistance organizations for portions of these purposes.

P232  1(2) Commencing January 1, 2013, any local community-based
2nonprofit consumer assistance program with which the office
3contracts shall include in its mission the assistance of, and duty
4to, health care consumers. Contracting consumer assistance
5programs shall have experience in the following areas:

6(A) Assisting consumers in navigating the local health care
7system.

8(B) Advising consumers regarding their health care coverage
9options and helping consumers enroll in and retain health care
10coverage.

11(C) Assisting consumers with problems in accessing health care
12services.

13(D) Serving consumers with special needs, including, but not
14limited to, consumers with limited-English language proficiency,
15consumers requiring culturally competent services, low-income
16consumers, consumers with disabilities, consumers with low
17literacy rates, and consumers with multiple health conditions,
18including behavioral health.

19(E) Collecting and reporting data, including demographic data,
20source of coverage, regulator, and resolution of complaints,
21including timeliness of resolution.

22(3) Commencing January 1, 2013, the office shall develop
23protocols, procedures, and training modules for organizations with
24which it contracts.

25(4) Commencing January 1, 2013, the office shall adopt
26standards for organizations with which it contracts regarding
27confidentiality and conduct.

28(5) Commencing January 1, 2013, the office may contract with
29consumer assistance programs to develop a series of appropriate
30literacy level and culturally and linguistically appropriate
31educational materials in all threshold languages for consumers
32regarding health care coverage options and how to resolve
33problems.

34(g) Commencing January 1, 2013, the office shall develop
35protocols and procedures for assisting in the resolution of consumer
36complaints, including both of the following:

37(1) A procedure for referral of complaints and grievances to the
38appropriate regulator or health coverage program for resolution
39by the relevant regulator or public program.

P233  1(2) A protocol or procedure for reporting to the appropriate
2regulator and health coverage program regarding complaints and
3grievances relevant to that agency that the office received and was
4able to resolve without further action or referral.

5(h) For purposes of this section, the following definitions apply:

6(1) “Consumer” or “individual” includes the individual or his
7or her parent, guardian, conservator, or authorized representative.

8(2) “Exchange” means the California Health Benefit Exchange
9established pursuant to Title 22 (commencing with Section 100500)
10of the Government Code.

11(3) “Health care” includes behavioral health, including both
12mental health and substance abuse treatment.

13(4) “Health care service plan” has the same meaning as that set
14forth in subdivision (f) of Section 1345. Health care service plan
15includes “specialized health care service plans,” including
16behavioral health plans.

17(5) “Health coverage program” includes the Medi-Cal program,
18Healthy Families Program, tax subsidies and premium credits
19under the Exchange, the Basic Health Program, if enacted, county
20health coverage programs, and the Access for Infants and Mothers
21Program.

22(6) “Health insurance” has the same meaning as set forth in
23Section 106 of the Insurance Code.

24(7) “Health insurer” means an insurer that issues policies of
25health insurance.

26(8) “Office” means the Office of Patient Advocate.

27(9) “Threshold languages” shall have the same meaning as for
28Medi-Cal managed care.

29

SEC. 132.5.  

Section 395 of the Insurance Code is amended to
30read:

31

395.  

After a covered loss, an insurer shall provide, free of
32charge, a complete copy of the insured’s current insurance policy
33or certificate within 30 calendar days of receipt of a request from
34the insured. The time period for providing the insurance policy or
35certificate may be extended by the commissioner. An insured who
36does not experience a covered loss shall, upon request, be entitled
37to one free copy of his or her current insurance policy or certificate
38annually. The insurance policy or certificate provided to the insured
39shall include, where applicable, the policy declarations page. This
40section shall not apply to commercial policies issued pursuant to
P234  1Sections 675.5 and 676.6, and policies of workers’ compensation
2insurance, as defined in Section 109.

3

SEC. 133.  

Section 676.75 of the Insurance Code is amended
4to read:

5

676.75.  

(a) No admitted insurer, licensed to issue and issuing
6homeowner’s or tenant’s policies, as described in Section 122,
7shall (1) fail or refuse to accept an application for that insurance
8or to issue that insurance to an applicant or (2) cancel that
9insurance, solely on the basis that the applicant or policyholder is
10engaged in foster home activities in a certified family home, as
11defined in Section 1506 of the Health and Safety Code.

12(b) Coverage under policies described in subdivision (a) with
13respect to a foster child shall be the same as that provided for a
14natural child. However, unless specifically provided in the policy,
15there shall be no coverage expressly provided in the policy for any
16bodily injury arising out of the operation or use of any motor
17vehicle, aircraft, or watercraft owned or operated by, or rented or
18loaned to, any foster parent.

19(c) It is against public policy for a policy of homeowner’s or
20tenant’s insurance subject to this section to provide liability
21coverage for any of the following losses:

22(1) An insurer shall not be liable, under a policy of insurance
23subject to this section, to any governmental agency for damage
24arising from occurrences peculiar to the foster care relationship
25and the provision of foster care services.

26(2) Alienation of affection of a foster child.

27(3) Any loss arising out of licentious, immoral, or sexual
28behavior on the part of a foster parent intended to lead to, or
29culminating in, any sexual act.

30(4) Any loss arising out of a dishonest, fraudulent, criminal, or
31intentional act.

32(d) There shall be no penalty for violations of this section prior
33to January 1, 2013.

34(e) Insurers may provide a special endorsement to a
35homeowner’s or tenant’s policy covering claims related to foster
36care that are not excluded by subdivision (c).

37(f) Insurers may provide by a separate policy for some or all of
38the claims related to foster care that are excluded by subdivision
39(c).

P235  1

SEC. 134.  

Section 922.41 of the Insurance Code is amended
2to read:

3

922.41.  

(a) Credit shall be allowed a domestic insurer when
4the reinsurance is ceded to an assuming insurer that has been
5certified by the commissioner as a reinsurer in this state and secures
6its obligations in accordance with the requirements of this section.
7Credit shall be allowed at all times for which statutory financial
8statement credit for reinsurance is claimed under this section. The
9credit allowed shall be based upon the security held by or on behalf
10of the ceding insurer in accordance with a rating assigned to the
11certified reinsurer by the commissioner. The security shall be in
12a form consistent with this section, any regulations promulgated
13by the commissioner, and Section 922.5.

14(b) In order to be eligible for certification, the assuming insurer
15shall meet the following requirements:

16(1) The assuming insurer shall be domiciled and licensed to
17transact insurance or reinsurance in a qualified jurisdiction, as
18determined by the commissioner pursuant to subdivisions (f) and
19(g).

20(2) The assuming insurer shall maintain minimum capital and
21surplus, or its equivalent, in an amount to be determined by the
22commissioner, but no less than two hundred fifty million dollars
23($250,000,000) calculated in accordance with paragraph (4) of
24subdivision (f) of this section or Section 922.5. This requirement
25may also be satisfied by an association including incorporated and
26individual unincorporated underwriters having minimum capital
27and surplus equivalents (net of liabilities) of at least two hundred
28fifty million dollars ($250,000,000) and a central fund containing
29a balance of at least two hundred fifty million dollars
30($250,000,000).

31(3) The assuming insurer shall maintain financial strength ratings
32from two or more rating agencies deemed acceptable by the
33commissioner. These ratings shall be based on interactive
34communication between the rating agency and the assuming insurer
35and shall not be based solely on publicly available information.
36These financial strength ratings will be one factor used by the
37commissioner in determining the rating that is assigned to the
38assuming insurer. Acceptable rating agencies include the following:

39(A) Standard & Poor’s.

40(B) Moody’s Investors Service.

P236  1(C) Fitch Ratings.

2(D) A.M. Best Company.

3(E) Any other nationally recognized statistical rating
4organization.

5(4) The assuming insurer shall agree to submit to the jurisdiction
6of this state, appoint the commissioner or a designated attorney in
7this state as its agent for service of process in this state, and agree
8to provide security for 100 percent of the assuming insurer’s
9liabilities attributable to reinsurance ceded by United States ceding
10insurers if it resists enforcement of a final United States judgment.

11(5) The assuming insurer shall agree to meet applicable
12information filing requirements as determined by the commissioner,
13both with respect to an initial application for certification and on
14an ongoing basis.

15(6) The certified reinsurer shall comply with any other
16requirements deemed relevant by the commissioner.

17(c) (1) If an applicant for certification has been certified as a
18reinsurer in a National Association of Insurance Commissioners
19(NAIC) accredited jurisdiction, the commissioner may defer to
20that jurisdiction’s certification, and has the discretion to defer to
21the rating assigned by that jurisdiction if the assuming insurer
22submits a properly executed Form CR-1 (as published on the
23department’s Internet Web site), and such additional information
24as the commissioner requires. The commissioner, however, may
25perform an independent review and determination of any applicant.
26The assuming insurer shall then be considered to be a certified
27reinsurer in this state.

28(2) If the commissioner defers to a certification determination
29by another state, any change in the certified reinsurer’s status or
30rating in the other jurisdiction shall apply automatically in this
31state as of the date it takes effect in the other jurisdiction unless
32the commissioner otherwise determines. The certified reinsurer
33shall notify the commissioner of any change in its status or rating
34within 10 days after receiving notice of the change.

35(3) The commissioner may withdraw recognition of the other
36jurisdiction’s rating at any time and assign a new rating in
37accordance with subdivision (h).

38(4) The commissioner may withdraw recognition of the other
39jurisdiction’s certification at any time, with written notice to the
40certified reinsurer. Unless the commissioner suspends or revokes
P237  1the certified reinsurer’s certification in accordance with this section
2and Section 922.42, the certified reinsurer’s certification shall
3remain in good standing in this state for a period of three months,
4which shall be extended if additional time is necessary to consider
5the assuming insurer’s application for certification in this state.

6(d) An association, including incorporated and individual
7unincorporated underwriters, may be a certified reinsurer. In order
8to be eligible for certification, in addition to satisfying requirements
9of subdivision (b), the reinsurer shall meet all of the following
10requirements:

11(1) The association shall satisfy its minimum capital and surplus
12requirements through the capital and surplus equivalents (net of
13liabilities) of the association and its members, which shall include
14a joint central fund that may be applied to any unsatisfied
15obligation of the association or any of its members, in an amount
16determined by the commissioner to provide adequate protection.

17(2) The incorporated members of the association shall not be
18engaged in any business other than underwriting as a member of
19the association and shall be subject to the same level of regulation
20and solvency control by the association’s domiciliary regulator as
21are the unincorporated members.

22(3) Within 90 days after its financial statements are due to be
23filed with the association’s domiciliary regulator, the association
24shall provide to the commissioner an annual certification by the
25association’s domiciliary regulator of the solvency of each
26underwriter member or, if a certification is unavailable, financial
27statements, prepared by independent public accountants, of each
28underwriter member of the association.

29(e) (1) The commissioner shall post notice on the department’s
30Internet Web site promptly upon receipt of any application for
31certification, including instructions on how members of the public
32may respond to the application. The commissioner shall not take
33final action on the application until at least 90 days after posting
34the notice required by this subdivision.

35(2) The commissioner shall issue written notice to an assuming
36insurer that has made application and has been approved as a
37certified reinsurer. Included in that notice shall be the rating
38assigned the certified reinsurer in accordance with subdivision (h).
39The commissioner shall publish a list of all certified reinsurers and
40their ratings.

P238  1(f) The certified reinsurer shall agree to meet applicable
2information filing requirements as determined by the commissioner,
3both with respect to an initial application for certification and on
4an ongoing basis. All information submitted by certified reinsurers
5that is not otherwise public information subject to disclosure shall
6be exempted from disclosure under Chapter 3.5 (commencing with
7Section 6250) of Division 7 of Title 1 of the Government Code,
8and shall be withheld from public disclosure. The applicable
9information filing requirements are as follows:

10(1) Notification within 10 days of any regulatory actions taken
11against the certified reinsurer, any change in the provisions of its
12domiciliary license or any change in rating by an approved rating
13agency, including a statement describing those changes and the
14reasons for those changes.

15(2) Annually, Form CR-F or CR-S, as applicable pursuant to
16the instructions published on the department’s Internet Web site.

17(3) Annually, the report of the independent auditor on the
18financial statements of the insurance enterprise, on the basis
19described in paragraph (4).

20(4) Annually, audited financial statements, (audited United
21States Generally Accepted Accounting Principles basis, if available,
22audited International Financial Reporting Standards basis
23statements are allowed, but must include an audited footnote
24reconciling equity and net income to a United States Generally
25Accepted Accounting Principles basis, or, with the written
26permission of the commissioner, audited International Financial
27Reporting Standards statements with reconciliation to United States
28Generally Accepted Accounting Principles certified by an officer
29of the company), regulatory filings, and actuarial opinion (as filed
30with the certified reinsurer’s supervisor). Upon the initial
31certification, audited financial statements for the last three years
32filed with the certified reinsurer’s supervisor.

33(5) At least annually, an updated list of all disputed and overdue
34reinsurance claims regarding reinsurance assumed from United
35States domestic ceding insurers.

36(6) A certification from the certified reinsurer’s domestic
37regulator that the certified reinsurer is in good standing and
38maintains capital in excess of the jurisdiction’s highest regulatory
39action level.

P239  1(7) Any other information that the commissioner may reasonably
2require.

3(g) If the commissioner certifies a non-United States domiciled
4insurer, the commissioner shall create and publish a list of qualified
5jurisdictions, under which an assuming insurer licensed and
6domiciled in that jurisdiction is eligible to be considered for
7certification by the commissioner as a certified reinsurer.

8(1) In order to determine whether the domiciliary jurisdiction
9of a non-United States assuming insurer is eligible to be recognized
10as a qualified jurisdiction, the commissioner shall evaluate the
11appropriateness and effectiveness of the reinsurance supervisory
12system of the jurisdiction, both initially and on an ongoing basis,
13and consider the rights, benefits, and the extent of reciprocal
14recognition afforded by the non-United States jurisdiction to
15reinsurers licensed and domiciled in the United States. The
16commissioner shall determine the appropriate process for
17evaluating the qualifications of those jurisdictions. Prior to its
18listing, a qualified jurisdiction shall agree in writing to share
19information and cooperate with the commissioner with respect to
20all certified reinsurers domiciled within that jurisdiction. A
21jurisdiction may not be recognized as a qualified jurisdiction if the
22commissioner has determined that the jurisdiction does not
23adequately and promptly enforce final United States judgments
24and arbitration awards. Additional factors may be considered in
25the discretion of the commissioner, including, but not limited to,
26the following:

27(A) The framework under which the assuming insurer is
28regulated.

29(B) The structure and authority of the domiciliary regulator with
30regard to solvency regulation requirements and financial
31surveillance.

32(C) The substance of financial and operating standards for
33assuming insurers in the domiciliary jurisdiction.

34(D) The form and substance of financial reports required to be
35filed or made publicly available by reinsurers in the domiciliary
36jurisdiction and the accounting principles used.

37(E) The domiciliary regulator’s willingness to cooperate with
38United States regulators in general and the commissioner in
39particular.

P240  1(F) The history of performance by assuming insurers in the
2domiciliary jurisdiction.

3(G) Any documented evidence of substantial problems with the
4enforcement of final United States judgments in the domiciliary
5jurisdiction.

6(H) Any relevant international standards or guidance with
7respect to mutual recognition of reinsurance supervision adopted
8by the International Association of Insurance Supervisors or a
9successor organization.

10(I) Any other matters deemed relevant by the commissioner.

11(2) The commissioner shall consider the list of qualified
12jurisdictions published through the NAIC committee process in
13determining qualified jurisdictions. The commissioner may include
14on the list published pursuant to this section, any jurisdiction on
15the NAIC list of qualified jurisdictions, or on any equivalent list
16of the United States Treasury.

17(3) If the commissioner approves a jurisdiction as qualified that
18does not appear on either the NAIC list of qualified jurisdictions,
19or the United States Treasury list, the commissioner shall provide
20thoroughly documented justification in accordance with criteria
21to be developed under this section.

22(4) United States jurisdictions that meet the requirements for
23accreditation under the NAIC financial standards and accreditation
24program shall be recognized as qualified jurisdictions.

25(5) If a certified reinsurer’s domiciliary jurisdiction ceases to
26be a qualified jurisdiction, the commissioner has the discretion to
27suspend the reinsurer’s certification indefinitely, in lieu of
28revocation.

29(h) The commissioner shall assign a rating to each certified
30 reinsurer, giving due consideration to the financial strength ratings
31that have been assigned by rating agencies deemed acceptable to
32the commissioner pursuant to this section. The commissioner shall
33publish a list of all certified reinsurers and their ratings.

34(1) Each certified reinsurer shall be rated on a legal entity basis,
35with due consideration being given to the group rating where
36appropriate, except that an association including incorporated and
37individual unincorporated underwriters that has been approved to
38do business as a single certified reinsurer may be evaluated on the
39basis of its group rating. Factors that may be considered as part of
40the evaluation process include, but are not limited to, the following:

P241  1(A) The certified reinsurer’s financial strength rating from an
2acceptable rating agency. The maximum rating that a certified
3reinsurer may be assigned shall correspond to its financial strength
4rating as set forth in clauses (i) to (vi), inclusive. The commissioner
5shall use the lowest financial strength rating received from an
6approved rating agency in establishing the maximum rating of a
7certified reinsurer. A failure to obtain or maintain at least two
8financial strength ratings from acceptable rating agencies shall
9result in loss of eligibility for certification.

10(i) Ratings category “Secure - 1” corresponds to A.M. Best
11Company rating A++; Standard & Poor’s rating AAA; Moody’s
12Investors Service rating Aaa; and Fitch Ratings rating AAA.

13(ii) Ratings category “Secure - 2” corresponds to A.M. Best
14Company rating A+; Standard & Poor’s rating AA+, AA, or AA-;
15Moody’s Investors Service rating Aa1, Aa2, or Aa3; and Fitch
16Ratings rating AA+, AA, or AA-.

17(iii) Ratings category “Secure - 3” corresponds to A.M. Best
18Company rating A; Standard & Poor’s rating A+ or A; Moody’s
19Investors Service rating A1 or A2; and Fitch Ratings rating A+ or
20A.

21(iv) Ratings category “Secure - 4” corresponds to A.M. Best
22Company rating A-; Standard & Poor’s rating A-; Moody’s
23Investors Service rating A3; and Fitch Ratings rating A-.

24(v) Ratings category “Secure - 5” corresponds to A.M. Best
25Company rating B++ or B+; Standard & Poor’s rating BBB+,
26BBB, or BBB-; Moody’s Investors Service rating Baa1, Baa2, or
27Baa3; and Fitch Ratings rating BBB+, BBB, or BBB-.

28(vi) Ratings category “Vulnerable - 6” corresponds to A.M.
29Best Company rating B, B-, C++, C+, C, C-, D, E, or F; Standard
30& Poor’s rating BB+, BB, BB-, B+, B, B-, CCC, CC, C, D, or R;
31Moody’s Investors Service rating Ba1, Ba2, Ba3, B1, B2, B3, Caa,
32Ca, or C; and Fitch Ratings rating BB+, BB, BB-, B+, B, B-,
33CCC+, CC, CCC-, or DD.

34(B) The business practices of the certified reinsurer in dealing
35with its ceding insurers, including its record of compliance with
36reinsurance contractual terms and obligations.

37(C) For certified reinsurers domiciled in the United States, a
38review of the most recent applicable NAIC Annual Statement
39Blank, either Schedule F (for property/casualty reinsurers) or
40Schedule S (for life and health reinsurers).

P242  1(D) For certified reinsurers not domiciled in the United States,
2a review annually of Form CR-F (for property/casualty reinsurers)
3or Form CR-S (for life and health reinsurers) (as published on the
4department’s Internet Web site).

5(E) The reputation of the certified reinsurer for prompt payment
6of claims under reinsurance agreements, based on an analysis of
7ceding insurers’ Schedule F reporting of overdue reinsurance
8recoverables, including the proportion of obligations that are more
9than 90 days past due or are in dispute, with specific attention
10given to obligations payable to companies that are in administrative
11supervision or receivership.

12(F) Regulatory actions against the certified reinsurer.

13(G) The report of the independent auditor on the financial
14statements of the insurance enterprise, on the basis described in
15subparagraph (H).

16(H) For certified reinsurers not domiciled in the United States,
17audited financial statements, (audited United States Generally
18Accepted Accounting Principles basis, if available, audited
19International Financial Reporting Standards basis statements are
20allowed, but must include an audited footnote reconciling equity
21and net income to a United States Generally Accepted Accounting
22Principles basis, or, with the written permission of the
23commissioner, audited International Financial Reporting Standards
24statements with reconciliation to United States Generally Accepted
25Accounting Principles certified by an officer of the company),
26regulatory filings, and actuarial opinion (as filed with the
27non-United States jurisdiction supervisor). Upon the initial
28application for certification, the commissioner shall consider
29audited financial statements for the last three years filed with its
30non-United States jurisdiction supervisor.

31(I) The liquidation priority of obligations to a ceding insurer in
32the certified reinsurer’s domiciliary jurisdiction in the context of
33an insolvency proceeding.

34(J) A certified reinsurer’s participation in any solvent scheme
35of arrangement, or similar procedure, which involves United States
36ceding insurers. The commissioner shall receive prior notice from
37a certified reinsurer that proposes participation by the certified
38reinsurer in a solvent scheme of arrangement.

39(K) Any other information deemed relevant by the
40commissioner.

P243  1(2) Based on the analysis conducted under subparagraph (E) of
2paragraph (1) of a certified reinsurer’s reputation for prompt
3payment of claims, the commissioner may make appropriate
4adjustments in the security the certified reinsurer is required to
5post to protect its liabilities to United States ceding insurers,
6provided that the commissioner shall, at a minimum, increase the
7security the certified reinsurer is required to post by one rating
8level under regulations promulgated by the commissioner, if the
9commissioner finds either of the following:

10(A) More than 15 percent of the certified reinsurer’s ceding
11insurance clients have overdue reinsurance recoverables on paid
12losses of 90 days or more that are not in dispute and that exceed
13one hundred thousand dollars ($100,000) for each ceding insurer.

14(B) The aggregate amount of reinsurance recoverables on paid
15losses that are not in dispute and that are overdue by 90 days or
16more exceeds fifty million dollars ($50,000,000).

17(3) The assuming insurer shall submit a properly executed Form
18CR-1 (as published on the department’s Internet Web site) as
19evidence of its submission to the jurisdiction of this state,
20appointment of the commissioner as an agent for service of process
21in this state, and agreement to provide security for 100 percent of
22the assuming insurer’s liabilities attributable to reinsurance ceded
23by United States ceding insurers if it resists enforcement of a final
24United States judgment. The commissioner shall not certify any
25assuming insurer that is domiciled in a jurisdiction that the
26commissioner has determined does not adequately and promptly
27enforce final United States judgments or arbitration awards.

28(4) (A) In the case of a downgrade by a rating agency or other
29disqualifying circumstance, the commissioner shall, upon written
30notice, assign a new rating to the certified reinsurer in accordance
31with the requirements of this subdivision.

32(B) The commissioner shall have the authority to suspend,
33revoke, or otherwise modify a certified reinsurer’s certification at
34any time if the certified reinsurer fails to meet its obligations or
35security requirements under this section, or if other financial or
36operating results of the certified reinsurer, or documented
37significant delays in payment by the certified reinsurer, lead the
38commissioner to reconsider the certified reinsurer’s ability or
39willingness to meet its contractual obligations.

P244  1(C) If the rating of a certified reinsurer is upgraded by the
2commissioner, the certified reinsurer may meet the security
3requirements applicable to its new rating on a prospective basis,
4but the commissioner shall require the certified reinsurer to post
5security under the previously applicable security requirements as
6to all contracts in force on or before the effective date of the
7upgraded rating. If the rating of a certified reinsurer is downgraded
8by the commissioner, the commissioner shall require the certified
9reinsurer to meet the security requirements applicable to its new
10rating for all business it has assumed as a certified reinsurer.

11(D) Upon revocation of the certification of a certified reinsurer
12by the commissioner, the assuming insurer shall be required to
13post security in accordance with Section 922.5 in order for the
14ceding insurer to continue to take credit for reinsurance ceded to
15the assuming insurer. If funds continue to be held in trust in
16accordance with subdivision (d) of Section 922.4, the commissioner
17may allow additional credit equal to the ceding insurer’s pro rata
18share of those funds, discounted to reflect the risk of
19uncollectibility and anticipated expenses of trust administration.
20Notwithstanding the change of a certified reinsurer’s rating or
21revocation of its certification, a domestic insurer that has ceded
22reinsurance to that certified reinsurer shall not be denied credit for
23reinsurance for a period of three months for all reinsurance ceded
24to that certified reinsurer, unless the reinsurance is found by the
25commissioner to be at high risk of uncollectibility.

26(i) A certified reinsurer shall secure obligations assumed from
27United States ceding insurers under this subdivision at a level
28consistent with its rating. The amount of security required in order
29for full credit to be allowed shall correspond with the following
30requirements:

31Ratings security required

32Secure - 1: 0%

33Secure - 2: 10%

34Secure - 3: 20%

35Secure - 4: 50%

36Secure - 5: 75%

37Vulnerable - 6: 100%

38(1) In order for a domestic ceding insurer to qualify for full
39financial statement credit for reinsurance ceded to a certified
40reinsurer, the certified reinsurer shall maintain security in a form
P245  1acceptable to the commissioner and consistent with Section 922.5,
2or in a multibeneficiary trust in accordance with subdivision (d)
3of Section 922.4, except as otherwise provided in this subdivision.
4In order for a domestic insurer to qualify for full financial statement
5credit, reinsurance contracts entered into or renewed under this
6section shall include a proper funding clause that requires the
7certified reinsurer to provide and maintain security in an amount
8sufficient to avoid the imposition of any financial statement penalty
9on the ceding insurer under this section for reinsurance ceded to
10the certified reinsurer.

11(2) If a certified reinsurer maintains a trust to fully secure its
12obligations subject to subdivision (d) of Section 922.4, and chooses
13to secure its obligations incurred as a certified reinsurer in the form
14of a multibeneficiary trust, the certified reinsurer shall maintain
15separate trust accounts for its obligations incurred under
16reinsurance agreements issued or renewed as a certified reinsurer
17with reduced security as permitted by this subdivision or
18comparable laws of other United States jurisdictions and for its
19obligations subject to subdivision (d) of Section 922.4. It shall be
20a condition to the grant of certification under this section that the
21certified reinsurer shall have bound itself, by the language of the
22trust and agreement with the commissioner with principal
23regulatory oversight of each of those trust accounts, to fund, upon
24termination of any of those trust accounts, out of the remaining
25surplus of those trusts any deficiency of any other of those trust
26accounts.

27(3) The minimum trusteed surplus requirements provided in
28subdivision (d) of Section 922.4 are not applicable with respect to
29a multibeneficiary trust maintained by a certified reinsurer for the
30purpose of securing obligations incurred under this subdivision,
31except that the trust shall maintain a minimum trusteed surplus of
32ten million dollars ($10,000,000).

33(4) With respect to obligations incurred by a certified reinsurer
34under this subdivision, if the security is insufficient, the
35commissioner shall reduce the allowable credit by an amount
36proportionate to the deficiency, and have the discretion to impose
37further reductions in allowable credit upon finding that there is a
38material risk that the certified reinsurer’s obligations will not be
39paid in full when due.

P246  1(5) For purposes of this subdivision, a certified reinsurer whose
2certification has been terminated for any reason shall be treated
3as a certified reinsurer required to secure 100 percent of its
4obligations.

5(A) As used in this subdivision, the term “terminated” means
6revocation, suspension, voluntary surrender, and inactive status.

7(B) If the commissioner continues to assign a higher rating as
8permitted by other provisions of this section, this requirement shall
9not apply to a certified reinsurer in inactive status or to a reinsurer
10whose certification has been suspended.

11(6) The commissioner shall require the certified reinsurer to
12post 100-percent security in accordance with Section 922.5, for
13the benefit of the ceding insurer or its estate, upon the entry of an
14order of rehabilitation, liquidation, or conservation against the
15ceding insurer.

16(7) Affiliated reinsurance transactions shall receive the same
17opportunity for reduced security requirements as all other
18reinsurance transactions.

19(8) In order to facilitate the prompt payment of claims, a certified
20reinsurer shall not be required to post security for catastrophe
21 recoverables for a period of one year from the date of the first
22instance of a liability reserve entry by the ceding company as a
23result of a loss from a catastrophic occurrence that is likely to result
24in significant insured losses, as recognized by the commissioner.
25The one-year deferral period is contingent upon the certified
26reinsurer continuing to pay claims in a timely manner, as
27determined by the commissioner, in writing. Reinsurance
28recoverables for only the following lines of business as reported
29on the NAIC annual financial statement related specifically to the
30catastrophic occurrence shall be included in the deferral:

31(A) Line 1: Fire.

32(B) Line 2: Allied lines.

33(C) Line 3: Farmowners’ multiple peril.

34(D) Line 4: Homeowners’ multiple peril.

35(E) Line 5: Commercial multiple peril.

36(F) Line 9: Inland marine.

37(G) Line 12: Earthquake.

38(H) Line 21: Auto physical damage.

39(9) Credit for reinsurance under this section shall apply only to
40reinsurance contracts entered into or renewed on or after the
P247  1effective date of the certification of the assuming insurer. Any
2reinsurance contract entered into prior to the effective date of the
3certification of the assuming insurer that is subsequently amended
4by mutual agreement of the parties to the reinsurance contract after
5the effective date of the certification of the assuming insurer, or a
6new reinsurance contract, covering any risk for which collateral
7was provided previously, shall only be subject to this section with
8respect to losses incurred and reserves reported from and after the
9effective date of the amendment or new contract.

10(10) Nothing in this section shall be construed to prohibit the
11parties to a reinsurance agreement from agreeing to provisions
12establishing security requirements that exceed the minimum
13security requirements established for certified reinsurers under
14this section.

15(j) A certified reinsurer that ceases to assume new business in
16this state may request to maintain its certification in inactive status
17in order to continue to qualify for a reduction in security for its
18in-force business. An inactive certified reinsurer shall continue to
19comply with all applicable requirements of this section, and the
20commissioner shall assign a rating that takes into account, if
21relevant, the reasons why the reinsurer is not assuming new
22business.

23(k) Notwithstanding this section, credit for reinsurance or
24deduction from liability by a domestic ceding insurer for cessions
25to a certified reinsurer may be disallowed upon a finding by the
26commissioner that the application of the literal provisions of this
27section does not accomplish its intent, or either the financial
28condition of the reinsurer or the collateral or other security provided
29by the reinsurer does not, in substance, satisfy the credit for
30reinsurance requirements in Section 922.4.

31(l) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2016,
32and as of that date is repealed, unless a later enacted statute, that
33is enacted before January 1, 2016, deletes or extends that date.

34

SEC. 135.  

Section 1063.1 of the Insurance Code is amended
35to read:

36

1063.1.  

As used in this article:

37(a) “Member insurer” means an insurer required to be a member
38of the association in accordance with subdivision (a) of Section
391063, except and to the extent that the insurer is participating in
40an insolvency program adopted by the United States government.

P248  1(b) “Insolvent insurer” means an insurer that was a member
2insurer of the association, consistent with paragraph (11) of
3subdivision (c), either at the time the policy was issued or when
4the insured event occurred, and against which an order of
5liquidation with a finding of insolvency has been entered by a court
6of competent jurisdiction, or, in the case of the State Compensation
7Insurance Fund, if a finding of insolvency is made by a duly
8 enacted legislative measure.

9(c) (1) “Covered claims” means the obligations of an insolvent
10insurer, including the obligation for unearned premiums, that satisfy
11all of the following requirements:

12(A) Imposed by law and within the coverage of an insurance
13policy of the insolvent insurer.

14(B) Which were unpaid by the insolvent insurer.

15(C) Which are presented as a claim to the liquidator in the state
16of domicile of the insolvent insurer or to the association on or
17before the last date fixed for the filing of claims in the domiciliary
18liquidating proceedings.

19(D) Which were incurred prior to the date coverage under the
20policy terminated and prior to, on, or within 30 days after the date
21the liquidator was appointed.

22(E) For which the assets of the insolvent insurer are insufficient
23to discharge in full.

24(F) In the case of a policy of workers’ compensation insurance,
25to provide workers’ compensation benefits under the workers’
26compensation law of this state.

27(G) In the case of other classes of insurance if the claimant or
28insured is a resident of this state at the time of the insured
29occurrence, or the property from which the claim arises is
30permanently located in this state.

31(2) “Covered claims” also includes the obligations assumed by
32an assuming insurer from a ceding insurer where the assuming
33insurer subsequently becomes an insolvent insurer if, at the time
34of the insolvency of the assuming insurer, the ceding insurer is no
35longer admitted to transact business in this state. Both the assuming
36insurer and the ceding insurer shall have been member insurers at
37the time the assumption was made. “Covered claims” under this
38paragraph shall be required to satisfy the requirements of
39subparagraphs (A) to (G), inclusive, of paragraph (1), except for
40the requirement that the claims be against policies of the insolvent
P249  1insurer. The association shall have a right to recover any deposit,
2bond, or other assets that may have been required to be posted by
3the ceding company to the extent of covered claim payments and
4shall be subrogated to any rights the policyholders may have
5against the ceding insurer.

6(3) “Covered claims” does not include obligations arising from
7the following:

8(A) Life, annuity, health, or disability insurance.

9(B) Mortgage guaranty, financial guaranty, or other forms of
10insurance offering protection against investment risks.

11(C) Fidelity or surety insurance including fidelity or surety
12bonds, or any other bonding obligations.

13(D) Credit insurance.

14(E) Title insurance.

15(F) Ocean marine insurance or ocean marine coverage under
16an insurance policy including claims arising from the following:
17the Jones Act (46 U.S.C. Secs. 30104 and 30105), the Longshore
18and Harbor Workers’ Compensation Act (33 U.S.C. Sec. 901 et
19seq.), or any other similar federal statutory enactment, or an
20endorsement or policy affording protection and indemnity
21coverage.

22(G) Any claims servicing agreement or insurance policy
23providing retroactive insurance of a known loss or losses, except
24a special excess workers’ compensation policy issued pursuant to
25subdivision (c) of Section 3702.8 of the Labor Code that covers
26all or any part of workers’ compensation liabilities of an employer
27that is issued, or was previously issued, a certificate of consent to
28self-insure pursuant to subdivision (b) of Section 3700 of the Labor
29Code.

30(4) “Covered claims” does not include any obligations of the
31insolvent insurer arising out of any reinsurance contracts, nor any
32obligations incurred after the expiration date of the insurance policy
33or after the insurance policy has been replaced by the insured or
34canceled at the insured’s request, or after the insurance policy has
35been canceled by the liquidator, nor any obligations to a state or
36to the federal government.

37(5) “Covered claims” does not include any obligations to
38insurers, insurance pools, or underwriting associations, nor their
39claims for contribution, indemnity, or subrogation, equitable or
40otherwise, except as otherwise provided in this chapter.

P250  1An insurer, insurance pool, or underwriting association may not
2maintain, in its own name or in the name of its insured, a claim or
3legal action against the insured of the insolvent insurer for
4contribution, indemnity, or by way of subrogation, except insofar
5as, and to the extent only, that the claim exceeds the policy limits
6of the insolvent insurer’s policy. In those claims or legal actions,
7the insured of the insolvent insurer is entitled to a credit or setoff
8in the amount of the policy limits of the insolvent insurer’s policy,
9or in the amount of the limits remaining, where those limits have
10been diminished by the payment of other claims.

11(6) “Covered claims,” except in cases involving a claim for
12workers’ compensation benefits or for unearned premiums, does
13not include a claim in an amount of one hundred dollars ($100) or
14less, nor that portion of a claim that is in excess of any applicable
15limits provided in the insurance policy issued by the insolvent
16insurer.

17(7) “Covered claims” does not include that portion of a claim,
18other than a claim for workers’ compensation benefits, that is in
19excess of five hundred thousand dollars ($500,000).

20(8) “Covered claims” does not include any amount awarded as
21punitive or exemplary damages, nor any amount awarded by the
22Workers’ Compensation Appeals Board pursuant to Section 5814
23or 5814.5 of the Labor Code because payment of compensation
24was unreasonably delayed or refused by the insolvent insurer.

25(9) “Covered claims” does not include (A) a claim to the extent
26it is covered by any other insurance of a class covered by this
27article available to the claimant or insured or (B) a claim by a
28person other than the original claimant under the insurance policy
29in his or her own name, his or her assignee as the person entitled
30thereto under a premium finance agreement as defined in Section
31673 and entered into prior to insolvency, his or her executor,
32administrator, guardian, or other personal representative or trustee
33in bankruptcy, and does not include a claim asserted by an assignee
34or one claiming by right of subrogation, except as otherwise
35provided in this chapter.

36(10) “Covered claims” does not include any obligations arising
37out of the issuance of an insurance policy written by the separate
38division of the State Compensation Insurance Fund pursuant to
39Sections 11802 and 11803.

P251  1(11) “Covered claims” does not include any obligations of the
2insolvent insurer arising from a policy or contract of insurance
3issued or renewed prior to the insolvent insurer’s admission to
4transact insurance in the State of California.

5(12) “Covered claims” does not include surplus deposits of
6subscribers as defined in Section 1374.1.

7(13) “Covered claims” shall also include obligations arising
8under an insurance policy written to indemnify a permissibly
9self-insured employer pursuant to subdivision (b) or (c) of Section
103700 of the Labor Code for its liability to pay workers’
11compensation benefits in excess of a specific or aggregate retention.
12However, for purposes of this article, those claims shall not be
13considered workers’ compensation claims and therefore are subject
14to the per-claim limit in paragraph (7), and any payments and
15expenses related thereto shall be allocated to category (c) for claims
16other than workers’ compensation, homeowners, and automobile,
17as provided in Section 1063.5.

18These provisions shall apply to obligations arising under a policy
19as described herein issued to a permissibly self-insured employer
20or group of self-insured employers pursuant to Section 3700 of
21the Labor Code and notwithstanding any other provision of this
22code, those obligations shall be governed by this provision in the
23event that the Self-Insurers’ Security Fund is ordered to assume
24the liabilities of a permissibly self-insured employer or group of
25self-insured employers pursuant to Section 3701.5 of the Labor
26Code. The provisions of this paragraph apply only to insurance
27policies written to indemnify a permissibly self-insured employer
28or group of self-insured employers under subdivision (b) or (c) of
29Section 3700 of the Labor Code, for its liability to pay workers’
30compensation benefits in excess of a specific or aggregate retention,
31and this paragraph does not apply to special excess workers’
32compensation insurance policies unless issued pursuant to authority
33granted in subdivision (c) of Section 3702.8 of the Labor Code,
34and as provided for in subparagraph (G) of paragraph (3). In
35addition, this paragraph does not apply to any claims servicing
36agreement or insurance policy providing retroactive insurance of
37a known loss or losses as are excluded in subparagraph (G) of
38paragraph (3).

39Each permissibly self-insured employer or group of self-insured
40employers, or the Self-Insurers’ Security Fund, shall, to the extent
P252  1required by the Labor Code, be responsible for paying, adjusting,
2and defending each claim arising under policies of insurance
3covered under this section, unless the benefits paid on a claim
4exceed the specific or aggregate retention, in which case:

5(A) If the benefits paid on the claim exceed the specific or
6aggregate retention, and the policy requires the insurer to defend
7and adjust the claim, the California Insurance Guarantee
8Association (CIGA) shall be solely responsible for adjusting and
9defending the claim, and shall make all payments due under the
10claim, subject to the limitations and exclusions of this article with
11regard to covered claims. As to each claim subject to this
12paragraph, notwithstanding any other provisions of this code or
13the Labor Code, and regardless of whether the amount paid by
14CIGA is adequate to discharge a claim obligation, neither the
15self-insured employer, group of self-insured employers, nor the
16Self-Insurers’ Security Fund shall have any obligation to pay
17benefits over and above the specific or aggregate retention, except
18as provided in this subdivision.

19(B) If the benefits paid on the claim exceed the specific or
20aggregate retention, and the policy does not require the insurer to
21defend and adjust the claim, the permissibly self-insured employer
22or group of self-insured employers, or the Self-Insurers’ Security
23Fund, shall not have any further payment obligations with respect
24to the claim, but shall continue defending and adjusting the claim,
25and shall have the right, but not the obligation, in any proceeding
26to assert all applicable statutory limitations and exclusions as
27contained in this article with regard to the covered claim. CIGA
28shall have the right, but not the obligation, to intervene in any
29proceeding where the self-insured employer, group of self-insured
30employers, or the Self-Insurers’ Security Fund is defending a claim
31and shall be permitted to raise the appropriate statutory limitations
32and exclusions as contained in this article with respect to covered
33claims. Regardless of whether the self-insured employer or group
34of self-insured employers, or the Self-Insurers’ Security Fund,
35asserts the applicable statutory limitations and exclusions, or
36whether CIGA intervenes in a proceeding, CIGA shall be solely
37responsible for paying all benefits due on the claim, subject to the
38exclusions and limitations of this article with respect to covered
39claims. As to each claim subject to this paragraph, notwithstanding
40any other provision of the Insurance Code or the Labor Code and
P253  1regardless of whether the amount paid by CIGA is adequate to
2discharge a claim obligation, neither the self-insured employer,
3group of self-insured employers, nor the Self-Insurers’ Security
4Fund, shall have an obligation to pay benefits over and above the
5specific or aggregate retention, except as provided in this
6subdivision.

7(C) In the event that the benefits paid on the covered claim
8exceed the per-claim limit in paragraph (7), the responsibility for
9paying, adjusting, and defending the claim shall be returned to the
10permissibly self-insured employer or group of employers, or the
11Self-Insurers’ Security Fund.

12These provisions shall apply to all pending and future
13insolvencies. For purposes of this paragraph, a pending insolvency
14is one involving a company that is currently receiving benefits
15from the guarantee association.

16(d) “Admitted to transact insurance in this state” means an
17insurer possessing a valid certificate of authority issued by the
18department.

19(e) “Affiliate” means a person who directly or indirectly, through
20one or more intermediaries, controls, is controlled by, or is under
21common control with an insolvent insurer on December 31 of the
22year next preceding the date the insurer becomes an insolvent
23insurer.

24(f) “Control” means the possession, direct or indirect, of the
25power to direct or cause the direction of the management and
26policies of a person, whether through the ownership of voting
27securities, by contract other than a commercial contract for goods
28or nonmanagement services, or otherwise, unless the power is the
29result of an official position with or corporate office held by the
30person. Control is presumed to exist if a person, directly or
31indirectly, owns, controls, holds with the power to vote, or holds
32proxies representing, 10 percent or more of the voting securities
33of any other person. This presumption may be rebutted by showing
34that control does not in fact exist.

35(g) “Claimant” means an insured making a first party claim or
36a person instituting a liability claim. However, no person who is
37an affiliate of the insolvent insurer may be a claimant.

38(h) “Ocean marine insurance” includes marine insurance as
39defined in Section 103, except for inland marine insurance, as well
40as any other form of insurance, regardless of the name, label, or
P254  1marketing designation of the insurance policy, that insures against
2maritime perils or risks and other related perils or risks, that are
3usually insured against by traditional marine insurance such as
4hull and machinery, marine builders’ risks, and marine protection
5and indemnity. Those perils and risks insured against include,
6without limitation, loss, damage, or expense or legal liability of
7the insured arising out of or incident to ownership, operation,
8chartering, maintenance, use, repair, or construction of a vessel,
9craft, or instrumentality in use in ocean or inland waterways,
10including liability of the insured for personal injury, illness, or
11death for loss or damage to the property of the insured or another
12person.

13(i) “Unearned premium” means that portion of a premium as
14calculated by the liquidator that had not been earned because of
15the cancellation of the insolvent insurer’s policy and is that
16premium remaining for the unexpired term of the insolvent
17insurer’s policy. “Unearned premium” does not include any amount
18sought as return of a premium under a policy providing retroactive
19insurance of a known loss or return of a premium under a
20retrospectively rated policy or a policy subject to a contingent
21surcharge or a policy in which the final determination of the
22premium cost is computed after expiration of the policy and is
23calculated on the basis of actual loss experienced during the policy
24period.

25

SEC. 136.  

Section 1754 of the Insurance Code is amended to
26read:

27

1754.  

Transaction of travel insurance under the license of an
28organization holding a limited lines travel insurance agent license
29shall be subject to the following conditions:

30(a) A limited lines travel insurance agent may authorize a travel
31retailer to transact travel insurance on behalf of and under its
32authority under the following conditions:

33(1) The limited lines travel insurance agent is clearly identified
34on marketing materials and fulfillment packages distributed by the
35travel retailers to customers. The marketing materials and
36fulfillment packages shall include the agent’s name, business
37address, email address, telephone number, license number, and
38the availability of the department’s toll-free consumer hotline.

39(2) The limited lines travel insurance agent, at the time of
40licensure and thereafter, maintains a register noting each travel
P255  1retailer that transacts travel insurance on the licensee’s behalf. The
2register shall be maintained and updated annually by the licensee
3in a form prescribed by, or format acceptable to, the commissioner
4and shall include the name and contact information of the travel
5retailer and an officer or person who directs or controls the travel
6retailer’s operations, and the travel retailer’s federal employer
7identification number (FEIN). The licensee shall also certify that
8the registered travel retailer complies with Section 1033 of Title
918 of the United States Code. The licensee shall submit the register
10for review and inspection upon request by the department.

11(3) The limited lines travel insurance agent has designated one
12of its employees to be responsible for its compliance with the
13insurance laws, rules, and regulations of the state. The limited lines
14travel insurance agent and its designated responsible employees
15shall hold property, casualty, life-only, and accident and health
16agent licenses, to the extent required by this chapter, based upon
17the types of insurance transacted by the licensee.

18(4) The employee designated by the limited lines travel
19insurance agent, pursuant to paragraph (3), and any of the
20organization’s partners, members, controlling persons, officers,
21directors, and managers comply with the background check
22requirements as required by the commissioner.

23(5) The limited lines travel insurance agent has paid all
24applicable licensing fees required under California law.

25(6) The limited lines travel insurance agent uses all reasonable
26means at its disposal to ensure compliance by the travel retailer
27and the travel retailer’s employees with their obligations under
28this article. This includes requiring each employee of the travel
29retailer whose duties include transacting travel insurance to receive
30training. The training shall be provided whenever there is a material
31change that requires a modification to the training materials, but
32in no event less frequently than every three years. Training
33materials used by or on behalf of the limited lines travel insurance
34agent to train the employees of a travel retailer shall be submitted
35to the department at the time the travel insurance agent applies for
36a license under this article, and whenever modified thereafter. The
37training materials, at a minimum, should contain instruction on
38the types of insurance offered, ethical sales practices, and
39disclosures to prospective insurance customers. Any changes to
40previously submitted training materials shall be submitted to the
P256  1department with the changes highlighted 30 days prior to their use
2by the limited lines travel insurance agent. Training materials and
3changes to those materials submitted to the department pursuant
4to this subdivision shall be deemed approved for use by the limited
5lines travel insurance agent unless it is notified by the department
6to the contrary. Failure by a limited lines travel insurance agent to
7submit training materials or changes for departmental review or
8use of unapproved or disapproved training materials shall constitute
9grounds for denial of an application for a license, nonrenewal of
10a license, or suspension of a license, or other action as deemed
11appropriate by the commissioner.

12(7) The limited lines travel insurance agent or the travel retailer
13provides disclosure to the consumer, in either the marketing
14materials or fulfillment packages, that is substantively similar to
15the following:

16This plan provides insurance coverage that only applies during
17the covered trip. You may have coverage from other sources that
18provides you with similar benefits but may be subject to different
19restrictions depending upon your other coverages. You may wish
20to compare the terms of this policy with your existing life, health,
21home, and automobile insurance policies. If you have any questions
22about your current coverage, call your insurer or insurance agent
23or broker.

24(8) The limited lines travel insurance agent or the travel retailer
25makes all of the following disclosures to the prospective insured,
26which shall be acknowledged in writing by the purchaser or
27displayed by clear and conspicuous signs that are posted at every
28location where contracts are executed, including, but not limited
29to, the counter where the purchaser signs the service agreement,
30or provided in writing to the purchaser:

31(A) That purchasing travel insurance is not required in order to
32purchase any other product or service offered by the travel retailer.

33(B) If not individually licensed, that the travel retailer’s
34employee is not qualified or authorized to:

35(i) Answer technical questions about the benefits, exclusions,
36and conditions of any of the insurance offered by the travel retailer.

37(ii) Evaluate the adequacy of the prospective insured’s existing
38insurance coverage.

39(b) A travel retailer that meets the requirements set forth in this
40section and whose activities are limited to offering and selling
P257  1travel insurance on behalf of a licensed limited lines travel
2insurance agent is authorized to receive compensation.

3(c) (1) If the commissioner determines that a travel retailer, or
4a travel retailer’s employee, has violated any provision of this
5article or any other provision of this code, the commissioner may:

6(A) Direct the limited lines travel insurance agent to implement
7a corrective action plan with the travel retailer.

8(B) Direct the limited lines travel insurance agent to revoke the
9authorization of the travel retailer to transact travel insurance on
10its behalf and under its license and to remove the travel retailer’s
11name from its register.

12(2) If the commissioner determines that a travel retailer, or a
13travel retailer’s employee, has violated any provision in this article
14or any other provision of this code, the commissioner, after notice
15and hearing, may:

16(A) Suspend or revoke the license of the limited lines travel
17insurance agent as authorized under this code.

18(B) Impose a monetary fine on the limited lines travel insurance
19agent.

20(3) A limited lines travel insurance agent who aids and abets a
21travel retailer in the transaction of travel insurance, as defined in
22this code, or aids and abets a travel retailer in any activity
23concerning travel insurance after being directed to revoke the travel
24retailer’s authorization, in addition to any other action authorized
25under this code, shall be subject to a monetary penalty pursuant
26to paragraph (3) of subdivision (a) of Section 12921.8.

27(d) The conduct of employees of the travel retailer who have
28been designated to transact travel insurance on behalf of the
29licensed limited lines travel insurance agent shall be deemed the
30conduct of the licensed limited lines travel insurance agent for
31purposes of this article.

32

SEC. 137.  

Section 10113.71 of the Insurance Code is amended
33to read:

34

10113.71.  

(a) Each life insurance policy issued or delivered
35in this state shall contain a provision for a grace period of not less
36than 60 days from the premium due date. The 60-day grace period
37shall not run concurrently with the period of paid coverage. The
38provision shall provide that the policy shall remain in force during
39the grace period.

P258  1(b) (1) A notice of pending lapse and termination of a life
2insurance policy shall not be effective unless mailed by the insurer
3to the named policy owner, a designee named pursuant to Section
410113.72 for an individual life insurance policy, and a known
5assignee or other person having an interest in the individual life
6insurance policy, at least 30 days prior to the effective date of
7termination if termination is for nonpayment of premium.

8(2) This subdivision shall not apply to nonrenewal.

9(3) Notice shall be given to the policy owner and to the designee
10by first-class United States mail within 30 days after a premium
11is due and unpaid. However, notices made to assignees pursuant
12to this section may be done electronically with the consent of the
13assignee.

14(c) For purposes of this section, a life insurance policy includes,
15but is not limited to, an individual life insurance policy and a group
16life insurance policy, except where otherwise provided.

17

SEC. 138.  

Section 10124 of the Insurance Code is amended
18to read:

19

10124.  

(a) A self-insured employee welfare benefit plan
20delivered or issued for delivery in this state more than 120 days
21after the effective date of this section, which provides that coverage
22of a dependent child of an employee shall terminate upon
23attainment of the limiting age for dependent children specified in
24the policy or contract, shall also provide in substance that
25attainment of the limiting age shall not operate to terminate the
26coverage of the child while the child is and continues to be both
27(1) incapable of self-sustaining employment by reason of an
28intellectual disability or physical handicap and (2) chiefly
29dependent upon the employee for support and maintenance,
30provided proof of the incapacity and dependency is furnished to
31the employer or employee organization providing the plan or
32program of benefits by the employee within 31 days of the child’s
33attainment of the limiting age and subsequently as may be required
34by the employer or employee organization, but not more frequently
35than annually after the two-year period following the child’s
36attainment of the limiting age.

37(b) As used in this section, “self-insured employee welfare
38benefit plan” means a plan or program of benefits provided by an
39employer or an employee organization, or both, for the purpose
40of providing hospital, medical, surgical, nursing, or dental services,
P259  1or indemnification for the costs incurred for these services, to the
2employer’s employees or their dependents.

3

SEC. 139.  

Section 10271 of the Insurance Code is amended
4to read:

5

10271.  

(a) Except as set forth in this section, this chapter shall
6not apply to, or in any way affect, provisions in life insurance,
7endowment, or annuity contracts, or contracts supplemental thereto,
8that provide additional benefits in case of death or dismemberment
9or loss of sight by accident, or that operate to safeguard those
10contracts against lapse, as described in subdivision (a) of Section
1110271.1, or give a special surrender benefit, as defined in
12subdivision (b) of Section 10271.1, or a special benefit, in the
13event that the owner, insured, or annuitant, as applicable, meets
14the benefit triggers specified in the life insurance or annuity
15contract or supplemental contract.

16(b) (1) A provision or supplemental contract described in
17subdivision (a) shall contain all of the provisions set forth in
18paragraph (2). However, an insurer, at its option, may substitute
19for one or more of the provisions a corresponding provision of
20different wording approved by the commissioner that is not less
21favorable in any respect to the owner, insured, or annuitant, as
22applicable. The provisions required by paragraph (2) shall be
23preceded individually by the appropriate caption, or, at the option
24of the insurer, by the appropriate individual or group captions or
25subcaptions as the commissioner may approve.

26(2) With respect to the benefit standards described in
27subdivisions (a) and (b) of Section 10271.1, the following
28requirements apply to the supplemental contracts with these
29benefits:

30(A) Either the contract or supplemental contract shall provide
31that the contract and the supplemental contract constitute the entire
32insurance or annuity contract consistent with paragraph (7) of
33subdivision (c) of Section 2534.3 of Title 10 of the California Code
34of Regulations, and shall also provide that no agent has the
35authority to change the contract or to waive any of its provisions.
36This requirement applies without regard to whether the contract
37is a variable or nonvariable contract, or a group or individual
38contract. This provision shall be preceded individually by a caption
39stating “ENTIRE CONTRACT: CHANGES:” or other appropriate
40caption as the commissioner may approve.

P260  1(B) Either the contract or supplemental contract shall provide
2for reinstatement consistent with paragraph (3) of subdivision (c)
3of Section 2534.3 of Title 10 of the California Code of Regulations.
4This requirement applies without regard to whether the contract
5is a variable or nonvariable contract, or a group or individual
6contract. This provision shall be preceded individually by a caption
7stating “REINSTATEMENT:” or other appropriate caption as the
8commissioner may approve.

9(C) Supplemental contracts subject to underwriting shall include
10an incontestability statement that provides that the insurer shall
11not contest the supplemental contract after it has been in force
12during the lifetime of the insured for two years from its date of
13issue, and may only be contested based on a statement made in
14the application for the supplemental contract, if the statement is
15attached to the contract. The statement upon which the contest is
16made shall be material to the risk accepted or the hazard assumed
17by the insurer. This provision shall be preceded individually by a
18caption stating “INCONTESTABLE:” or other appropriate caption
19as the commissioner may approve.

20(D)  A provision or supplemental contract described in
21subdivision (a) shall also include:

22(i) NOTICE OF CLAIM: The insurer may require written notice
23of claim no less than 20 days after an occurrence covered by the
24provision or supplemental contract, or commencement of any loss
25covered by the provision or supplemental contract. Notice given
26by or on behalf of the insured or the beneficiary, as applicable to
27the insurer at the insurer’s address or telephone number, or to any
28authorized agent of the insurer, with information sufficient to
29identify the insured, shall be deemed notice to the insurer.

30(ii) CLAIM FORMS: The insurer, upon receipt of a notice of
31claim, shall furnish to the claimant such forms as are usually
32furnished by it for filing a proof of occurrence or a proof of loss.
33If the forms are not furnished within 15 days after giving notice,
34the claimant shall be deemed to have complied with the
35requirements of the provision or supplemental contract as to proof
36of occurrence or proof of loss upon submitting, within the time
37fixed in the provision or supplemental contract for filing proof of
38occurrence or proof of loss, written proof covering the character
39and the extent of the occurrence or loss.

P261  1(iii) PROOF OF LOSS: The insurer may require that the insured
2provide written proof of occurrence or proof of loss no less than
390 days after the termination of the period for which the insurer
4is liable, and, in the case of claim for any other occurrence or loss,
5within 90 days after the date of the occurrence or loss. Failure to
6furnish proof within the time required shall not invalidate or reduce
7the claim if it was not reasonably possible to give proof within the
8time, provided proof is furnished as soon as reasonably possible
9and, except in the absence of legal capacity, no later than one year
10from the time proof is otherwise required.

11(iv) PHYSICAL EXAMINATIONS: The insurer, at its own
12expense, shall have the right and opportunity to examine the person
13of the insured when and as often as the insurer may reasonably
14require during the pendency of a claim.

15(c) The commissioner shall review contracts and supplemental
16contracts to ensure that the language can be readily understood
17and interpreted, and shall not approve any contract or supplemental
18contract for insurance or delivery in this state if the commissioner
19finds that the contract or supplemental contract does any of the
20following:

21(1) Contains any provision, label, description of its contents,
22title, heading, backing, or other indication of its provisions that is
23unintelligible, uncertain, ambiguous, or abstruse, or likely to
24mislead a person to whom the contract or supplemental contract
25is offered, delivered, or issued.

26(2) Constitutes fraud, unfair trade practices, and insurance
27economically unsound to the owner, insured, or annuitant, as
28applicable.

29(d) A provision or supplemental contract described in
30subdivision (a) shall not contain any title, description, or any other
31indication that would describe or imply that the policy or
32supplemental contract provides long-term care coverage.

33(e) Commencing two years from the date of the issuance of the
34provision or supplemental contract, no claim for loss incurred or
35disability, as defined in the provision or supplemental contract,
36may be reduced or denied on the grounds that a disease or physical
37condition not excluded from coverage by name or specific
38description effective on the date of loss had existed prior to the
39effective date on the coverage of the provision or supplemental
40 contract.

P262  1(f) With regard to benefits set forth in Section 10271.1, the
2provisions and supplemental contracts shall specify any applicable
3exclusions, which shall be limited to the following:

4(1) Total disability caused or substantially contributed to by any
5attempt at suicide or intentionally self-inflicted injury, while sane
6or insane.

7(2) Total disability caused or substantially contributed to by
8war or an act of war, as defined in the exclusion provisions of the
9contract.

10(3) Total disability caused or substantially contributed to by
11active participation in a riot, insurrection, or terrorist activity.

12(4) Total disability caused or substantially contributed to by
13committing or attempting to commit a felony.

14(5) Total disability caused or substantially contributed to by
15voluntary intake of either:

16(A) Any drug, unless prescribed or administered by a physician
17and taken in accordance with the physician’s instructions.

18(B) Poison, gas, or fumes, unless they are the direct result of an
19occupational accident.

20(6) Total disability occurring after the policy anniversary or
21supplemental contract anniversary, as applicable and as defined
22in the policy or supplemental contract, on which the insured attains
23a specified age of no less than 65 years.

24(7) Total disability in consequence of the insured being
25intoxicated, as defined by the jurisdiction where the total disability
26occurred.

27(8) Total disability caused or materially contributed to by
28engaging in an illegal occupation.

29(g) If the commissioner notifies the insurer, in writing, that the
30filed form does not comply with the requirements of law and
31specifies the reasons for his or her opinion, it is unlawful for an
32insurer to issue any policy in that form.

33

SEC. 140.  

Section 11665 of the Insurance Code is amended
34to read:

35

11665.  

(a) An insurer who issues a workers’ compensation
36insurance policy to a roofing contractor holding a C-39 license
37from the Contractors’ State License Board shall perform an annual
38payroll audit for the contractor. This audit shall include an
39in-person visit to the place of business of the roofing contractor
40to verify whether the number of employees reported by the
P263  1contractor is accurate. The insurer may impose a surcharge on each
2policyholder audited under this subdivision in an amount necessary
3to recoup the reasonable costs of conducting the annual payroll
4audits.

5(b) The commissioner shall direct the rating organization
6designated as his or her statistical agent to compile pertinent
7statistical data on those holding C-39 licenses, as reported by the
8appropriate state entity, on an annual basis and provide a report to
9him or her each year. The data shall track the total annual payroll
10and loss data reported on those holding C-39 licenses in accordance
11with the standard workers’ compensation insurance classifications
12applicable to roofing operations. The data shall include the number
13of employers, total payroll, total losses, and the losses per one
14hundred dollars ($100) of payroll by the employers’ annual payroll
15intervals as follows:

16
17

 

1 to

4,999

5,000 to

9,999

10,000 to

14,999

15,000 to

19,999

20,000 to

24,999

25,000 to

29,999

30,000 to

39,999

40,000 to

49,999

50,000 to

74,999

75,000 to

99,999

100,000 to

199,999

200,000 to

299,999

300,000 to

399,999

400,000 to

499,999

500,000 to

599,999

600,000 to

699,999

700,000 to

799,999

800,000 to

899,999

900,000 to

999,999

1,000,000 to

1,099,999

1,100,000 to

1,199,999

1,200,000 to

1,299,999

1,300,000 to

1,399,999

1,400,000 to

1,499,999

1,500,000 or more

 
  
P264  4

 

5The report shall also be provided to the Legislature by the
6commissioner, in compliance with Section 9795 of the Government
7Code.

8

SEC. 141.  

Section 12694.1 of the Insurance Code is amended
9to read:

10

12694.1.  

(a) Pursuant to Sections 14005.26 and 14005.27 of
11the Welfare and Institutions Code, subscribers enrolled in the
12Healthy Families Program pursuant to this part shall, no sooner
13than January 1, 2013, transition to the Medi-Cal program pursuant
14to Sections 14005.26 and 14005.27 of the Welfare and Institutions
15Code to the extent they are otherwise eligible. AIM-linked infants,
16as defined in Section 12695.03, with incomes above 250 percent
17of the federal poverty level are exempt from this transition.

18(b) The board shall coordinate with the State Department of
19Health Care Services to implement Sections 14005.26 and
2014005.27 of the Welfare and Institutions Code.

21(c) The board’s actions to coordinate with the State Department
22of Health Care Services to implement Sections 14005.26 and
2314005.27 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, as specified in
24subdivision (b), shall include, but not be limited to, all of the
25following:

26(1) Notwithstanding Section 12693.74, disenrollment of
27subscribers in the manner, and at the times, specified in Section
2814005.27 of the Welfare and Institutions Code. The board may
29retain a subscriber in the program for longer than 12 months if
30needed to ensure a smooth transition to the Medi-Cal program.

31(2) In coordination with the State Department of Health Care
32Services, provision of reasonable notice to applicants concerning
33disenrollment of subscribers consistent with Section 14005.27 of
34the Welfare and Institutions Code.

35(3) Notwithstanding Section 12693.51, transfers of subscribers
36from one participating plan to another at the times and under the
37conditions prescribed by the board, without the obligation that the
38board provide an annual opportunity for subscribers to transfer
39from one participating plan to another.

P265  1(d) Nothing in subdivision (e) of Section 12693.43 shall be
2construed to require any refund or adjustment of family
3contributions if an applicant has paid for three months of required
4family contributions in advance and the subscriber for whom the
5applicant has paid these family contributions is disenrolled pursuant
6to this section, or for any other reason, without receiving a fourth
7consecutive month of coverage.

8(e) (1) Notwithstanding Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section
911340) of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code,
10the board shall, without taking any further regulatory action,
11implement, interpret, or make specific this section by means of
12business rules, program bulletins, program correspondence to
13subscribers and contractors, letters, or similar instructions.

14(2) The board may adopt and readopt emergency regulations
15implementing this section. The adoption and readoption, by the
16board, of regulations implementing this section shall be deemed
17an emergency and necessary to avoid serious harm to the public
18peace, health, safety, or general welfare for purposes of Sections
1911346.1 and 11349.6 of the Government Code, and the board is
20hereby exempted from the requirement that it describe facts
21showing the need for immediate action and from review by the
22Office of Administrative Law.

23(f) The Healthy Families Program, pursuant to this part, shall
24cease to enroll new subscribers no sooner than the date transition
25begins pursuant to subdivision (a), and any transition of children
26shall be in compliance with the implementation plan or plans as
27contained in Section 14005.27 of the Welfare and Institutions
28Code.

29

SEC. 142.  

Section 980 of the Labor Code is amended to read:

30

980.  

(a) As used in this chapter, “social media” means an
31electronic service or account, or electronic content, including, but
32not limited to, videos, still photographs, blogs, video blogs,
33podcasts, instant and text messages, email, online services or
34accounts, or Internet Web site profiles or locations.

35(b) An employer shall not require or request an employee or
36applicant for employment to do any of the following:

37(1) Disclose a username or password for the purpose of
38accessing personal social media.

39(2) Access personal social media in the presence of the
40employer.

P266  1(3) Divulge any personal social media, except as provided in
2subdivision (c).

3(c) Nothing in this section shall affect an employer’s existing
4rights and obligations to request an employee to divulge personal
5social media reasonably believed to be relevant to an investigation
6of allegations of employee misconduct or employee violation of
7applicable laws and regulations, provided that the social media is
8used solely for purposes of that investigation or a related
9proceeding.

10(d) Nothing in this section precludes an employer from requiring
11or requesting an employee to disclose a username, password, or
12other method for the purpose of accessing an employer-issued
13electronic device.

14(e) An employer shall not discharge, discipline, threaten to
15discharge or discipline, or otherwise retaliate against an employee
16or applicant for not complying with a request or demand by the
17employer that violates this section. However, this section does not
18prohibit an employer from terminating or otherwise taking an
19adverse action against an employee or applicant if otherwise
20permitted by law.

21

SEC. 143.  

Section 4709 of the Labor Code is amended to read:

22

4709.  

(a) Notwithstanding any other law, a dependent of a
23peace officer, as defined in Section 830.1, 830.2, 830.3, 830.31,
24830.32, 830.33, 830.34, 830.35, 830.36, 830.37, 830.38, 830.39,
25830.4, 830.5, or 830.6 of the Penal Code, or a Sheriff’s Special
26Officer of the County of Orange, who is killed in the performance
27of duty or who dies or is totally disabled as a result of an accident
28or an injury caused by external violence or physical force, incurred
29in the performance of duty, when the death, accident, or injury is
30compensable under this division or Division 4.5 (commencing
31with Section 6100) shall be entitled to a scholarship at any
32qualifying institution described in subdivision (l) of Section
3369432.7 of the Education Code. The scholarship shall be in an
34amount equal to the amount provided a student who has been
35awarded a Cal Grant scholarship as specified in Chapter 1.7
36(commencing with Section 69430) of Part 42 of Division 5 of Title
373 of the Education Code.

38(b) A dependent of an officer or employee of the Department
39of Corrections and Rehabilitation or the Department of Corrections
40and Rehabilitation, Division of Juvenile Justice, described in
P267  1Section 20403 of the Government Code, who is killed in the
2performance of duty, or who dies or is totally disabled as a result
3of an accident or an injury incurred in the performance of duty,
4when the death, accident, or injury is caused by the direct action
5of an inmate, and is compensable under this division or Division
64.5 (commencing with Section 6100), shall also be entitled to a
7scholarship specified in this section.

8(c) Notwithstanding any other law, a dependent of a firefighter
9employed by a county, city, city and county, district, or other
10political subdivision of the state, who is killed in the performance
11of duty or who dies or is totally disabled as a result of an accident
12or injury incurred in the performance of duty, when the death,
13accident, or injury is compensable under this division or Division
144.5 (commencing with Section 6100), shall also be entitled to a
15scholarship specified in this section.

16(d) Nothing in this section shall be interpreted to allow the
17admittance of the dependent into a college or university unless the
18dependent is otherwise qualified to gain admittance to the college
19or university.

20(e) The scholarship provided for by this section shall be paid
21out of funds annually appropriated in the Budget Act to the Student
22Aid Commission established by Article 2 (commencing with
23Section 69510) of Chapter 2 of Part 42 of Division 5 of Title 3 of
24the Education Code.

25(f) The receipt of a scholarship provided for by this section shall
26not preclude a dependent from receiving a Cal Grant award
27pursuant to Chapter 1.7 (commencing with Section 69430) of Part
2842 of Division 5 of Title 3 of the Education Code, any other grant,
29or any fee waivers that may be provided by an institution of higher
30education. The receipt of a Cal Grant award pursuant to Chapter
311.7 (commencing with Section 69430) of Part 42 of Division 5 of
32Title 3 of the Education Code, any other grant, or any fee waivers
33that may be provided by an institution of higher education shall
34not preclude a dependent from receiving a scholarship provided
35for by this section.

36(g) As used in this section, “dependent” means the children
37(natural or adopted) or spouse, at the time of the death or injury,
38of the peace officer, law enforcement officer, or firefighter.

39(h) Eligibility for a scholarship under this section shall be limited
40to a person who demonstrates financial need as determined by the
P268  1Student Aid Commission pursuant to Article 1.5 (commencing
2with Section 69503) of Chapter 2 of Part 42 of Division 5 of Title
33 of the Education Code. For purposes of determining financial
4need, the proceeds of death benefits received by the dependent,
5including, but not limited to, a continuation of income received
6from the Public Employees’ Retirement System, the proceeds from
7the federal Public Safety Officers’ Benefits Act, life insurance
8policies, proceeds from Sections 4702 and 4703.5, any private
9scholarship where receipt is predicated upon the recipient being
10the survivor of a deceased public safety officer, the scholarship
11awarded pursuant to Section 68120 of the Education Code, and
12any interest received from these benefits, shall not be considered.

13

SEC. 144.  

Section 5502 of the Labor Code is amended to read:

14

5502.  

(a) Except as provided in subdivisions (b) and (d), the
15hearing shall be held not less than 10 days, and not more than 60
16days, after the date a declaration of readiness to proceed, on a form
17prescribed by the appeals board, is filed. If a claim form has been
18filed for an injury occurring on or after January 1, 1990, and before
19January 1, 1994, an application for adjudication shall accompany
20the declaration of readiness to proceed.

21(b) The administrative director shall establish a priority calendar
22for issues requiring an expedited hearing and decision. A hearing
23shall be held and a determination as to the rights of the parties
24shall be made and filed within 30 days after the declaration of
25readiness to proceed is filed if the issues in dispute are any of the
26 following, provided that if an expedited hearing is requested, no
27other issue may be heard until the medical provider network dispute
28is resolved:

29(1) The employee’s entitlement to medical treatment pursuant
30to Section 4600, except for treatment issues determined pursuant
31to Sections 4610 and 4610.5.

32(2) Whether the injured employee is required to obtain treatment
33within a medical provider network.

34(3) A medical treatment appointment or medical-legal
35examination.

36(4) The employee’s entitlement to, or the amount of, temporary
37disability indemnity payments.

38(5) The employee’s entitlement to compensation from one or
39more responsible employers when two or more employers dispute
40liability as among themselves.

P269  1(6) Any other issues requiring an expedited hearing and
2determination as prescribed in rules and regulations of the
3administrative director.

4(c) The administrative director shall establish a priority
5conference calendar for cases in which the employee is represented
6by an attorney and the issues in dispute are employment or injury
7arising out of employment or in the course of employment. The
8conference shall be conducted by a workers’ compensation
9administrative law judge within 30 days after the declaration of
10readiness to proceed. If the dispute cannot be resolved at the
11conference, a trial shall be set as expeditiously as possible, unless
12good cause is shown why discovery is not complete, in which case
13status conferences shall be held at regular intervals. The case shall
14be set for trial when discovery is complete, or when the workers’
15compensation administrative law judge determines that the parties
16have had sufficient time in which to complete reasonable discovery.
17A determination as to the rights of the parties shall be made and
18filed within 30 days after the trial.

19(d) (1) In all cases, a mandatory settlement conference, except
20a lien conference or a mandatory settlement lien conference, shall
21be conducted not less than 10 days, and not more than 30 days,
22after the filing of a declaration of readiness to proceed. If the
23dispute is not resolved, the regular hearing, except a lien trial, shall
24be held within 75 days after the declaration of readiness to proceed
25is filed.

26(2) The settlement conference shall be conducted by a workers’
27compensation administrative law judge or by a referee who is
28eligible to be a workers’ compensation administrative law judge
29or eligible to be an arbitrator under Section 5270.5. At the
30mandatory settlement conference, the referee or workers’
31compensation administrative law judge shall have the authority to
32resolve the dispute, including the authority to approve a
33compromise and release or issue a stipulated finding and award,
34and if the dispute cannot be resolved, to frame the issues and
35stipulations for trial. The appeals board shall adopt any regulations
36needed to implement this subdivision. The presiding workers’
37compensation administrative law judge shall supervise settlement
38conference referees in the performance of their judicial functions
39under this subdivision.

P270  1(3) If the claim is not resolved at the mandatory settlement
2conference, the parties shall file a pretrial conference statement
3noting the specific issues in dispute, each party’s proposed
4permanent disability rating, and listing the exhibits, and disclosing
5witnesses. Discovery shall close on the date of the mandatory
6settlement conference. Evidence not disclosed or obtained
7thereafter shall not be admissible unless the proponent of the
8evidence can demonstrate that it was not available or could not
9have been discovered by the exercise of due diligence prior to the
10settlement conference.

11(e) In cases involving the Director of Industrial Relations in his
12or her capacity as administrator of the Uninsured Employers Fund,
13this section shall not apply unless proof of service, as specified in
14paragraph (1) of subdivision (d) of Section 3716, has been filed
15with the appeals board and provided to the Director of Industrial
16Relations, valid jurisdiction has been established over the employer,
17and the fund has been joined.

18(f) Except as provided in subdivision (a) and in Section 4065,
19the provisions of this section shall apply irrespective of the date
20of injury.

21

SEC. 145.  

Section 136.2 of the Penal Code is amended to read:

22

136.2.  

(a) Except as provided in subdivision (c), upon a good
23cause belief that harm to, or intimidation or dissuasion of, a victim
24or witness has occurred or is reasonably likely to occur, a court
25with jurisdiction over a criminal matter may issue orders, including,
26but not limited to, the following:

27(1) An order issued pursuant to Section 6320 of the Family
28Code.

29(2) An order that a defendant shall not violate any provision of
30Section 136.1.

31(3) An order that a person before the court other than a
32defendant, including, but not limited to, a subpoenaed witness or
33other person entering the courtroom of the court, shall not violate
34any provisions of Section 136.1.

35(4) An order that a person described in this section shall have
36no communication whatsoever with a specified witness or a victim,
37except through an attorney under reasonable restrictions that the
38court may impose.

39(5) An order calling for a hearing to determine if an order as
40described in paragraphs (1) to (4), inclusive, should be issued.

P271  1(6) (A) An order that a particular law enforcement agency
2within the jurisdiction of the court provide protection for a victim
3or a witness, or both, or for immediate family members of a victim
4or a witness who reside in the same household as the victim or
5witness or within reasonable proximity of the victim’s or witness’
6household, as determined by the court. The order shall not be made
7without the consent of the law enforcement agency except for
8limited and specified periods of time and upon an express finding
9by the court of a clear and present danger of harm to the victim or
10witness or immediate family members of the victim or witness.

11(B) For purposes of this paragraph, “immediate family
12members” include the spouse, children, or parents of the victim
13or witness.

14(7) (A) An order protecting victims of violent crime from all
15contact by the defendant, or contact, with the intent to annoy,
16harass, threaten, or commit acts of violence, by the defendant. The
17court or its designee shall transmit orders made under this
18paragraph to law enforcement personnel within one business day
19of the issuance, modification, extension, or termination of the
20order, pursuant to subdivision (a) of Section 6380 of the Family
21Code. It is the responsibility of the court to transmit the
22modification, extension, or termination orders made under this
23paragraph to the same agency that entered the original protective
24order into the Domestic Violence Restraining Order System.

25(B) (i) If a court does not issue an order pursuant to
26subparagraph (A) in a case in which the defendant is charged with
27a crime of domestic violence as defined in Section 13700, the court
28on its own motion shall consider issuing a protective order upon
29a good cause belief that harm to, or intimidation or dissuasion of,
30a victim or witness has occurred or is reasonably likely to occur,
31that provides as follows:

32(I) The defendant shall not own, possess, purchase, receive, or
33attempt to purchase or receive, a firearm while the protective order
34is in effect.

35(II) The defendant shall relinquish any firearms that he or she
36owns or possesses pursuant to Section 527.9 of the Code of Civil
37Procedure.

38(ii) Every person who owns, possesses, purchases, or receives,
39or attempts to purchase or receive, a firearm while this protective
40order is in effect is punishable pursuant to Section 29825.

P272  1(C) An order issued, modified, extended, or terminated by a
2court pursuant to this paragraph shall be issued on forms adopted
3by the Judicial Council and that have been approved by the
4Department of Justice pursuant to subdivision (i) of Section 6380
5of the Family Code. However, the fact that an order issued by a
6court pursuant to this section was not issued on forms adopted by
7the Judicial Council and approved by the Department of Justice
8shall not, in and of itself, make the order unenforceable.

9(D) A protective order under this paragraph may require the
10defendant to be placed on electronic monitoring if the local
11government, with the concurrence of the county sheriff or the chief
12probation officer with jurisdiction, adopts a policy to authorize
13electronic monitoring of defendants and specifies the agency with
14jurisdiction for this purpose. If the court determines that the
15defendant has the ability to pay for the monitoring program, the
16court shall order the defendant to pay for the monitoring. If the
17court determines that the defendant does not have the ability to
18pay for the electronic monitoring, the court may order electronic
19monitoring to be paid for by the local government that adopted
20the policy to authorize electronic monitoring. The duration of
21electronic monitoring shall not exceed one year from the date the
22order is issued. At no time shall the electronic monitoring be in
23place if the protective order is not in place.

24(b) A person violating an order made pursuant to paragraphs
25(1) to (7), inclusive, of subdivision (a) may be punished for any
26substantive offense described in Section 136.1, or for a contempt
27of the court making the order. A finding of contempt shall not be
28a bar to prosecution for a violation of Section 136.1. However, a
29person so held in contempt shall be entitled to credit for punishment
30imposed therein against a sentence imposed upon conviction of
31an offense described in Section 136.1. A conviction or acquittal
32for a substantive offense under Section 136.1 shall be a bar to a
33subsequent punishment for contempt arising out of the same act.

34(c) (1) Notwithstanding subdivisions (a) and (e), an emergency
35protective order issued pursuant to Chapter 2 (commencing with
36Section 6250) of Part 3 of Division 10 of the Family Code or
37Section 646.91 of this code shall have precedence in enforcement
38over any other restraining or protective order, provided that the
39emergency protective order meets all of the following requirements:

P273  1(A) The emergency protective order is issued to protect one or
2more individuals who are already protected persons under another
3restraining or protective order.

4(B) The emergency protective order restrains the individual who
5is the restrained person in the other restraining or protective order
6specified in subparagraph (A).

7(C) The provisions of the emergency protective order are more
8restrictive in relation to the restrained person than are the provisions
9of the other restraining or protective order specified in
10subparagraph (A).

11(2) An emergency protective order that meets the requirements
12of paragraph (1) shall have precedence in enforcement over the
13provisions of any other restraining or protective order only with
14respect to those provisions of the emergency protective order that
15are more restrictive in relation to the restrained person.

16(d) (1) A person subject to a protective order issued under this
17section shall not own, possess, purchase, receive, or attempt to
18purchase or receive a firearm while the protective order is in effect.

19(2) The court shall order a person subject to a protective order
20issued under this section to relinquish any firearms he or she owns
21or possesses pursuant to Section 527.9 of the Code of Civil
22Procedure.

23(3) A person who owns, possesses, purchases, or receives, or
24attempts to purchase or receive, a firearm while the protective
25order is in effect is punishable pursuant to Section 29825.

26(e) (1) In all cases where the defendant is charged with a crime
27of domestic violence, as defined in Section 13700, the court shall
28consider issuing the above-described orders on its own motion.
29All interested parties shall receive a copy of those orders. In order
30to facilitate this, the court’s records of all criminal cases involving
31domestic violence shall be marked to clearly alert the court to this
32issue.

33(2) In those cases in which a complaint, information, or
34indictment charging a crime of domestic violence, as defined in
35Section 13700, has been issued, a restraining order or protective
36order against the defendant issued by the criminal court in that
37case has precedence in enforcement over a civil court order against
38the defendant, unless a court issues an emergency protective order
39pursuant to Chapter 2 (commencing with Section 6250) of Part 3
40of Division 10 of the Family Code or Section 646.91 of this code,
P274  1in which case the emergency protective order shall have precedence
2in enforcement over any other restraining or protective order,
3provided that the emergency protective order meets the following
4requirements:

5(A) The emergency protective order is issued to protect one or
6more individuals who are already protected persons under another
7restraining or protective order.

8(B) The emergency protective order restrains the individual who
9is the restrained person in the other restraining or protective order
10specified in subparagraph (A).

11(C) The provisions of the emergency protective order are more
12restrictive in relation to the restrained person than are the provisions
13of the other restraining or protective order specified in
14subparagraph (A).

15(3) Custody and visitation with respect to the defendant and his
16or her minor children may be ordered by a family or juvenile court
17consistent with the protocol established pursuant to subdivision
18(f), but if ordered after a criminal protective order has been issued
19pursuant to this section, the custody and visitation order shall make
20reference to, and acknowledge the precedence of enforcement of,
21an appropriate criminal protective order. On or before July 1, 2006,
22the Judicial Council shall modify the criminal and civil court forms
23consistent with this subdivision.

24(f) On or before January 1, 2003, the Judicial Council shall
25promulgate a protocol, for adoption by each local court in
26substantially similar terms, to provide for the timely coordination
27of all orders against the same defendant and in favor of the same
28named victim or victims. The protocol shall include, but shall not
29be limited to, mechanisms for assuring appropriate communication
30and information sharing between criminal, family, and juvenile
31courts concerning orders and cases that involve the same parties,
32and shall permit a family or juvenile court order to coexist with a
33criminal court protective order subject to the following conditions:

34(1) An order that permits contact between the restrained person
35and his or her children shall provide for the safe exchange of the
36children and shall not contain language either printed or
37handwritten that violates a “no contact order” issued by a criminal
38court.

39(2) Safety of all parties shall be the courts’ paramount concern.
40The family or juvenile court shall specify the time, day, place, and
P275  1manner of transfer of the child, as provided in Section 3100 of the
2Family Code.

3(g) On or before January 1, 2003, the Judicial Council shall
4modify the criminal and civil court protective order forms
5consistent with this section.

6(h) In any case in which a complaint, information, or indictment
7charging a crime of domestic violence, as defined in Section 13700,
8has been filed, the court may consider, in determining whether
9good cause exists to issue an order under paragraph (1) of
10subdivision (a), the underlying nature of the offense charged, and
11the information provided to the court pursuant to Section 273.75.

12(i) (1) In all cases in which a criminal defendant has been
13convicted of a crime of domestic violence as defined in Section
1413700, the court, at the time of sentencing, shall consider issuing
15an order restraining the defendant from any contact with the victim.
16The order may be valid for up to 10 years, as determined by the
17court. This protective order may be issued by the court regardless
18of whether the defendant is sentenced to the state prison or a county
19jail, or whether imposition of sentence is suspended and the
20defendant is placed on probation. It is the intent of the Legislature
21in enacting this subdivision that the duration of any restraining
22order issued by the court be based upon the seriousness of the facts
23before the court, the probability of future violations, and the safety
24of the victim and his or her immediate family.

25(2) An order under this subdivision may include provisions for
26electronic monitoring if the local government, upon receiving the
27concurrence of the county sheriff or the chief probation officer
28with jurisdiction, adopts a policy authorizing electronic monitoring
29of defendants and specifies the agency with jurisdiction for this
30purpose. If the court determines that the defendant has the ability
31to pay for the monitoring program, the court shall order the
32defendant to pay for the monitoring. If the court determines that
33the defendant does not have the ability to pay for the electronic
34monitoring, the court may order the electronic monitoring to be
35paid for by the local government that adopted the policy authorizing
36electronic monitoring. The duration of the electronic monitoring
37shall not exceed one year from the date the order is issued.

38(j) For purposes of this section, “local government” means the
39county that has jurisdiction over the protective order.

40

SEC. 145.3.  

Section 166 of the Penal Code is amended to read:

P276  1

166.  

(a) Except as provided in subdivisions (b), (c), and (d),
2a person guilty of any of the following contempts of court is guilty
3of a misdemeanor:

4(1) Disorderly, contemptuous, or insolent behavior committed
5during the sitting of a court of justice, in the immediate view and
6presence of the court, and directly tending to interrupt its
7proceedings or to impair the respect due to its authority.

8(2) Behavior specified in paragraph (1) that is committed in the
9presence of a referee, while actually engaged in a trial or hearing,
10pursuant to the order of a court, or in the presence of any jury while
11actually sitting for the trial of a cause, or upon an inquest or other
12proceeding authorized by law.

13(3) A breach of the peace, noise, or other disturbance directly
14tending to interrupt the proceedings of the court.

15(4) Willful disobedience of the terms as written of any process
16or court order or out-of-state court order, lawfully issued by a
17court, including orders pending trial.

18(5) Resistance willfully offered by any person to the lawful
19order or process of a court.

20(6) Willful disobedience by a juror of a court admonishment
21related to the prohibition on any form of communication or research
22about the case, including all forms of electronic or wireless
23communication or research.

24(7) The contumacious and unlawful refusal of a person to be
25sworn as a witness or, when so sworn, the like refusal to answer
26a material question.

27(8) The publication of a false or grossly inaccurate report of the
28proceedings of a court.

29(9) Presenting to a court having power to pass sentence upon a
30prisoner under conviction, or to a member of the court, an affidavit,
31testimony, or representation of any kind, verbal or written, in
32aggravation or mitigation of the punishment to be imposed upon
33the prisoner, except as provided in this code.

34(10) Willful disobedience of the terms of an injunction that
35restrains the activities of a criminal street gang or any of its
36members, lawfully issued by a court, including an order pending
37trial.

38(b) (1) A person who is guilty of contempt of court under
39paragraph (4) of subdivision (a) by willfully contacting a victim
40by telephone or mail, or directly, and who has been previously
P277  1convicted of a violation of Section 646.9 shall be punished by
2imprisonment in a county jail for not more than one year, by a fine
3of five thousand dollars ($5,000), or by both that fine and
4imprisonment.

5(2) For the purposes of sentencing under this subdivision, each
6contact shall constitute a separate violation of this subdivision.

7(3) The present incarceration of a person who makes contact
8with a victim in violation of paragraph (1) is not a defense to a
9violation of this subdivision.

10(c) (1) Notwithstanding paragraph (4) of subdivision (a), a
11willful and knowing violation of a protective order or stay-away
12court order issued pursuant to Section 136.2, in a pending criminal
13proceeding involving domestic violence, as defined in Section
1413700, or issued as a condition of probation after a conviction in
15a criminal proceeding involving domestic violence, as defined in
16Section 13700, or elder or dependent adult abuse, as defined in
17Section 368, or that is an order described in paragraph (3), shall
18constitute contempt of court, a misdemeanor, punishable by
19imprisonment in a county jail for not more than one year, by a fine
20of not more than one thousand dollars ($1,000), or by both that
21imprisonment and fine.

22(2) If a violation of paragraph (1) results in a physical injury,
23the person shall be imprisoned in a county jail for at least 48 hours,
24whether a fine or imprisonment is imposed, or the sentence is
25suspended.

26(3) Paragraphs (1) and (2) apply to the following court orders:

27(A) An order issued pursuant to Section 6320 or 6389 of the
28Family Code.

29(B) An order excluding one party from the family dwelling or
30from the dwelling of the other.

31(C) An order enjoining a party from specified behavior that the
32court determined was necessary to effectuate the orders described
33in paragraph (1).

34(4) A second or subsequent conviction for a violation of an order
35described in paragraph (1) occurring within seven years of a prior
36conviction for a violation of any of those orders and involving an
37act of violence or “a credible threat” of violence, as provided in
38subdivisionsbegin delete (b) andend delete (c)begin insert and (d)end insert of Section 139, is punishable by
39imprisonment in a county jail not to exceed one year, or in the
40state prison for 16 months or two or three years.

P278  1(5) The prosecuting agency of each county shall have the
2primary responsibility for the enforcement of the orders described
3in paragraph (1).

4(d) (1) A person who owns, possesses, purchases, or receives
5a firearm knowing he or she is prohibited from doing so by the
6provisions of a protective order, as defined in Section 136.2 of this
7code, Section 6218 of the Family Code, or Section 527.6 or 527.8
8of the Code of Civil Procedure, shall be punished under Section
929825.

10(2) A person subject to a protective order described in paragraph
11(1) shall not be prosecuted under this section for owning,
12possessing, purchasing, or receiving a firearm to the extent that
13firearm is granted an exemption pursuant to subdivision (h) of
14 Section 6389 of the Family Code.

15(e) (1) If probation is granted upon conviction of a violation of
16subdivision (c), the court shall impose probation consistent with
17Section 1203.097.

18(2) If probation is granted upon conviction of a violation of
19subdivision (c), the conditions of probation may include, in lieu
20of a fine, one or both of the following requirements:

21(A) That the defendant make payments to a battered women’s
22shelter, up to a maximum of one thousand dollars ($1,000).

23(B) That the defendant provide restitution to reimburse the
24victim for reasonable costs of counseling and other reasonable
25expenses that the court finds are the direct result of the defendant’s
26offense.

27(3) For an order to pay a fine, make payments to a battered
28women’s shelter, or pay restitution as a condition of probation
29under this subdivision or subdivision (c), the court shall make a
30determination of the defendant’s ability to pay. In no event shall
31an order to make payments to a battered women’s shelter be made
32if it would impair the ability of the defendant to pay direct
33restitution to the victim or court-ordered child support.

34(4) If the injury to a married person is caused in whole, or in
35part, by the criminal acts of his or her spouse in violation of
36subdivision (c), the community property shall not be used to
37discharge the liability of the offending spouse for restitution to the
38injured spouse required by Section 1203.04, as operative on or
39before August 2, 1995, or Section 1202.4, or to a shelter for costs
40with regard to the injured spouse and dependents required by this
P279  1subdivision, until all separate property of the offending spouse is
2exhausted.

3(5) A person violating an order described in subdivision (c) may
4be punished for any substantive offenses described under Section
5136.1 or 646.9. A finding of contempt shall not be a bar to
6prosecution for a violation of Section 136.1 or 646.9. However, a
7person held in contempt for a violation of subdivision (c) shall be
8entitled to credit for any punishment imposed as a result of that
9violation against any sentence imposed upon conviction of an
10offense described in Section 136.1 or 646.9. A conviction or
11acquittal for a substantive offense under Section 136.1 or 646.9
12shall be a bar to a subsequent punishment for contempt arising out
13of the same act.

14

SEC. 145.5.  

Section 171c of the Penal Code is amended to
15read:

16

171c.  

(a) (1) Any person who brings a loaded firearm into,
17or possesses a loaded firearm within, the State Capitol, any
18legislative office, any office of the Governor or other constitutional
19officer, or any hearing room in which any committee of the Senate
20or Assembly is conducting a hearing, or upon the grounds of the
21State Capitol, which is bounded by 10th, L, 15th, and N Streets in
22the City of Sacramento, shall be punished by imprisonment in a
23county jail for a period of not more than one year, a fine of not
24more than one thousand dollars ($1,000), or both such
25imprisonment and fine, or by imprisonment pursuant to subdivision
26(h) of Section 1170.

27(2) Any person who brings or possesses, within the State Capitol,
28any legislative office, any hearing room in which any committee
29of the Senate or Assembly is conducting a hearing, the Legislative
30Office Building at 1020 N Street in the City of Sacramento, or
31upon the grounds of the State Capitol, which is bounded by 10th,
32L, 15th, and N Streets in the City of Sacramento, any of the
33following, is guilty of a misdemeanor punishable by imprisonment
34in a county jail for a period not to exceed one year, or by a fine
35not exceeding one thousand dollars ($1,000), or by both that fine
36and imprisonment, if the area is posted with a statement providing
37reasonable notice that prosecution may result from possession of
38any of these items:

39(A) Any firearm.

P280  1(B) Any deadly weapon described in Section 21510 or in any
2provision listed in Section 16590.

3(C) Any knife with a blade length in excess of four inches, the
4blade of which is fixed or is capable of being fixed in an unguarded
5position by the use of one or two hands.

6(D) Any unauthorized tear gas weapon.

7(E) Any stun gun, as defined in Section 244.5.

8(F) Any instrument that expels a metallic projectile, such as a
9BB or pellet, through the force of air pressure, CO2 pressure, or
10spring action, or any spot marker gun or paint gun.

11(G) Any ammunition as defined in Sections 16150 and 16650.

12(H) Any explosive as defined in Section 12000 of the Health
13and Safety Code.

14(b) Subdivision (a) shall not apply to, or affect, any of the
15following:

16(1) A duly appointed peace officer as defined in Chapter 4.5
17(commencing with Section 830) of Title 3 of Part 2, a retired peace
18officer with authorization to carry concealed weapons as described
19in Article 2 (commencing with Section 25450) of Chapter 2 of
20Division 5 of Title 4 of Part 6, a full-time paid peace officer of
21another state or the federal government who is carrying out official
22duties while in California, or any person summoned by any of
23these officers to assist in making arrests or preserving the peace
24while he or she is actually engaged in assisting the officer.

25(2) A person holding a valid license to carry the firearm pursuant
26to Chapter 4 (commencing with Section 26150) of Division 5 of
27Title 4 of Part 6, and who has permission granted by the Chief
28Sergeants at Arms of the State Assembly and the State Senate to
29possess a concealed weapon upon the premises described in
30subdivision (a).

31(3) A person who has permission granted by the Chief Sergeants
32at Arms of the State Assembly and the State Senate to possess a
33weapon upon the premises described in subdivision (a).

34(c) (1) Nothing in this section shall preclude prosecution under
35Chapter 2 (commencing with Section 29800) or Chapter 3
36(commencing with Section 29900) of Division 9 of Title 4 of Part
376 of this code, Section 8100 or 8103 of the Welfare and Institutions
38Code, or any other law with a penalty greater than is set forth in
39this section.

P281  1(2) The provisions of this section are cumulative, and shall not
2be construed as restricting the application of any other law.
3However, an act or omission punishable in different ways by
4different provisions of law shall not be punished under more than
5one provision.

6

SEC. 145.7.  

Section 273.6 of the Penal Code is amended to
7read:

8

273.6.  

(a) Any intentional and knowing violation of a
9protective order, as defined in Section 6218 of the Family Code,
10or of an order issued pursuant to Section 527.6, 527.8, or 527.85
11of the Code of Civil Procedure, or Section 15657.03 of the Welfare
12and Institutions Code, is a misdemeanor punishable by a fine of
13not more than one thousand dollars ($1,000), or by imprisonment
14in a county jail for not more than one year, or by both that fine and
15imprisonment.

16(b) In the event of a violation of subdivision (a) that results in
17physical injury, the person shall be punished by a fine of not more
18than two thousand dollars ($2,000), or by imprisonment in a county
19jail for not less than 30 days nor more than one year, or by both
20that fine and imprisonment. However, if the person is imprisoned
21in a county jail for at least 48 hours, the court may, in the interest
22of justice and for reasons stated on the record, reduce or eliminate
23the 30-day minimum imprisonment required by this subdivision.
24In determining whether to reduce or eliminate the minimum
25imprisonment pursuant to this subdivision, the court shall consider
26the seriousness of the facts before the court, whether there are
27additional allegations of a violation of the order during the
28pendency of the case before the court, the probability of future
29violations, the safety of the victim, and whether the defendant has
30successfully completed or is making progress with counseling.

31(c) Subdivisions (a) and (b) shall apply to the following court
32orders:

33(1) Any order issued pursuant to Section 6320 or 6389 of the
34Family Code.

35(2) An order excluding one party from the family dwelling or
36from the dwelling of the other.

37(3) An order enjoining a party from specified behavior that the
38court determined was necessary to effectuate the order described
39in subdivision (a).

P282  1(4) Any order issued by another state that is recognized under
2Part 5 (commencing with Section 6400) of Division 10 of the
3Family Code.

4(d) A subsequent conviction for a violation of an order described
5in subdivision (a), occurring within seven years of a prior
6conviction for a violation of an order described in subdivision (a)
7and involving an act of violence or “a credible threat” of violence,
8as defined in subdivision (c) of Section 139, is punishable by
9imprisonment in a county jail not to exceed one year, or pursuant
10to subdivision (h) of Section 1170.

11(e) In the event of a subsequent conviction for a violation of an
12order described in subdivision (a) for an act occurring within one
13year of a prior conviction for a violation of an order described in
14subdivision (a) that results in physical injury to a victim, the person
15shall be punished by a fine of not more than two thousand dollars
16($2,000), or by imprisonment in a county jail for not less than six
17months nor more than one year, by both that fine and
18imprisonment, or by imprisonment pursuant to subdivision (h) of
19Section 1170. However, if the person is imprisoned in a county
20jail for at least 30 days, the court may, in the interest of justice and
21for reasons stated in the record, reduce or eliminate the six-month
22minimum imprisonment required by this subdivision. In
23determining whether to reduce or eliminate the minimum
24imprisonment pursuant to this subdivision, the court shall consider
25the seriousness of the facts before the court, whether there are
26additional allegations of a violation of the order during the
27pendency of the case before the court, the probability of future
28violations, the safety of the victim, and whether the defendant has
29successfully completed or is making progress with counseling.

30(f) The prosecuting agency of each county shall have the primary
31responsibility for the enforcement of orders described in
32subdivisions (a), (b), (d), and (e).

33(g) (1) Every person who owns, possesses, purchases, or
34receives a firearm knowing he or she is prohibited from doing so
35by the provisions of a protective order as defined in Section 136.2
36of this code, Section 6218 of the Family Code, or Section 527.6,
37527.8, or 527.85 of the Code of Civil Procedure, or Section
3815657.03 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, shall be punished
39under Section 29825.

P283  1(2) Every person subject to a protective order described in
2paragraph (1) shall not be prosecuted under this section for owning,
3possessing, purchasing, or receiving a firearm to the extent that
4firearm is granted an exemption pursuant to subdivision (f) of
5Section 527.9 of the Code of Civil Procedure, or subdivision (h)
6of Section 6389 of the Family Code.

7(h) If probation is granted upon conviction of a violation of
8subdivision (a), (b), (c), (d), or (e), the court shall impose probation
9consistent with Section 1203.097, and the conditions of probation
10may include, in lieu of a fine, one or both of the following
11requirements:

12(1) That the defendant make payments to a battered women’s
13shelter or to a shelter for abused elder persons or dependent adults,
14up to a maximum of five thousand dollars ($5,000), pursuant to
15Section 1203.097.

16(2) That the defendant reimburse the victim for reasonable costs
17of counseling and other reasonable expenses that the court finds
18are the direct result of the defendant’s offense.

19(i) For any order to pay a fine, make payments to a battered
20women’s shelter, or pay restitution as a condition of probation
21under subdivision (e), the court shall make a determination of the
22defendant’s ability to pay. In no event shall any order to make
23payments to a battered women’s shelter be made if it would impair
24the ability of the defendant to pay direct restitution to the victim
25or court-ordered child support. Where the injury to a married person
26is caused in whole or in part by the criminal acts of his or her
27spouse in violation of this section, the community property may
28not be used to discharge the liability of the offending spouse for
29restitution to the injured spouse, required by Section 1203.04, as
30operative on or before August 2, 1995, or Section 1202.4, or to a
31shelter for costs with regard to the injured spouse and dependents,
32required by this section, until all separate property of the offending
33spouse is exhausted.

34

SEC. 146.  

Section 289.6 of the Penal Code is amended to read:

35

289.6.  

(a) (1) An employee or officer of a public entity health
36facility, or an employee, officer, or agent of a private person or
37entity that provides a health facility or staff for a health facility
38under contract with a public entity, who engages in sexual activity
39with a consenting adult who is confined in a health facility is guilty
40of a public offense. As used in this paragraph, “health facility”
P284  1means a health facility as defined in subdivisions (b), (e), (g), (h),
2and (j) of, and subparagraph (C) of paragraph (2) of subdivision
3(i) of, Section 1250 of the Health and Safety Code, in which the
4victim has been confined involuntarily.

5(2) An employee or officer of a public entity detention facility,
6or an employee, officer, or agent of a private person or entity that
7provides a detention facility or staff for a detention facility, a
8person or agent of a public or private entity under contract with a
9detention facility, a volunteer of a private or public entity detention
10facility, or a peace officer who engages in sexual activity with a
11consenting adult who is confined in a detention facility is guilty
12of a public offense.

13(3) An employee with a department, board, or authority under
14the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation or a facility
15under contract with a department, board, or authority under the
16Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation, who, during the
17course of his or her employment directly provides treatment, care,
18control, or supervision of inmates, wards, or parolees, and who
19engages in sexual activity with a consenting adult who is an inmate,
20ward, or parolee, is guilty of a public offense.

21(b) As used in this section, the term “public entity” means the
22state, the federal government, a city, a county, a city and county,
23a joint county jail district, or any entity created as a result of a joint
24powers agreement between two or more public entities.

25(c) As used in this section, the term “detention facility” means:

26(1) A prison, jail, camp, or other correctional facility used for
27the confinement of adults or both adults and minors.

28(2) A building or facility used for the confinement of adults or
29adults and minors pursuant to a contract with a public entity.

30(3) A room that is used for holding persons for interviews,
31interrogations, or investigations and that is separate from a jail or
32located in the administrative area of a law enforcement facility.

33(4) A vehicle used to transport confined persons during their
34period of confinement, including transporting a person after he or
35she has been arrested but has not been booked.

36(5) A court holding facility located within or adjacent to a court
37building that is used for the confinement of persons for the purpose
38of court appearances.

39(d) As used in this section, “sexual activity” means:

40(1) Sexual intercourse.

P285  1(2) Sodomy, as defined in subdivision (a) of Section 286.

2(3) Oral copulation, as defined in subdivision (a) of Section
3288a.

4(4) Sexual penetration, as defined in subdivision (k) of Section
5289.

6(5) The rubbing or touching of the breasts or sexual organs of
7another, or of oneself in the presence of and with knowledge of
8another, with the intent of arousing, appealing to, or gratifying the
9lust, passions, or sexual desires of oneself or another.

10(e) Consent by a confined person or parolee to sexual activity
11proscribed by this section is not a defense to a criminal prosecution
12for violation of this section.

13(f) This section does not apply to sexual activity between
14consenting adults that occurs during an overnight conjugal visit
15that takes place pursuant to a court order or with the written
16approval of an authorized representative of the public entity that
17operates or contracts for the operation of the detention facility
18where the conjugal visit takes place, to physical contact or
19penetration made pursuant to a lawful search, or bona fide medical
20examinations or treatments, including clinical treatments.

21(g) Any violation of paragraph (1) of subdivision (a), or a
22violation of paragraph (2) or (3) of subdivision (a) as described in
23paragraph (5) of subdivision (d), is a misdemeanor.

24(h) Any violation of paragraph (2) or (3) of subdivision (a), as
25described in paragraph (1), (2), (3), or (4) of subdivision (d), shall
26be punished by imprisonment in a county jail not exceeding one
27year, or in the state prison, or by a fine of not more than ten
28thousand dollars ($10,000), or by both that fine and imprisonment.

29(i) Any person previously convicted of a violation of this section
30shall, upon a subsequent violation, be guilty of a felony.

31(j) Anyone who is convicted of a felony violation of this section
32who is employed by a department, board, or authority within the
33Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation shall be terminated
34in accordance with the State Civil Service Act (Part 2 (commencing
35with Section 18500) of Division 5 of Title 2 of the Government
36Code). Anyone who has been convicted of a felony violation of
37this section shall not be eligible to be hired or reinstated by a
38department, board, or authority within the Department of
39Corrections and Rehabilitation.

40

SEC. 147.  

Section 496a of the Penal Code is amended to read:

P286  1

496a.  

(a) Every person who is a dealer in or collector of junk,
2metals, or secondhand materials, or the agent, employee, or
3representative of such dealer or collector, and who buys or receives
4any wire, cable, copper, lead, solder, mercury, iron, or brass which
5he or she knows or reasonably should know is ordinarily used by
6or ordinarily belongs to a railroad or other transportation,
7telephone, telegraph, gas, water, or electric light company, or a
8county, city, city and county, or other political subdivision of this
9state engaged in furnishing public utility service, without using
10due diligence to ascertain that the person selling or delivering the
11same has a legal right to do so, is guilty of criminally receiving
12that property, and shall be punished by imprisonment in a county
13jail for not more than one year, or by imprisonment pursuant to
14subdivision (h) of Section 1170, or by a fine of not more than one
15thousand dollars ($1,000), or by both that fine and imprisonment.

16(b) Any person who buys or receives material pursuant to
17subdivision (a) shall obtain evidence of his or her identity from
18the seller, including, but not limited to, that person’s full name,
19signature, address, driver’s license number, and vehicle license
20number, and the license number of the vehicle delivering the
21material.

22(c) The record of the transaction shall include an appropriate
23description of the material purchased and the record shall be
24maintained pursuant to Section 21607 of the Business and
25Professions Code.

26

SEC. 147.3.  

Section 626.95 of the Penal Code is amended to
27read:

28

626.95.  

(a) Any person who is in violation of paragraph (2)
29of subdivision (a), or subdivision (b), of Section 417, or Section
3025400 or 25850, upon the grounds of or within a playground, or
31a public or private youth center during hours in which the facility
32is open for business, classes, or school-related programs, or at any
33time when minors are using the facility, knowing that he or she is
34on or within those grounds, shall be punished by imprisonment
35pursuant to subdivision (h) of Section 1170 for one, two, or three
36years, or in a county jail not exceeding one year.

37(b) State and local authorities are encouraged to cause signs to
38be posted around playgrounds and youth centers giving warning
39of prohibition of the possession of firearms upon the grounds of
40or within playgrounds or youth centers.

P287  1(c) For purposes of this section, the following definitions shall
2apply:

3(1) “Playground” means any park or recreational area
4specifically designed to be used by children that has play equipment
5installed, including public grounds designed for athletic activities
6such as baseball, football, soccer, or basketball, or any similar
7facility located on public or private school grounds, or on city or
8county parks.

9(2) “Youth center” means any public or private facility that is
10used to host recreational or social activities for minors while minors
11are present.

12(d) It is the Legislature’s intent that only an actual conviction
13of a felony of one of the offenses specified in this section would
14subject the person to firearms disabilities under the federal Gun
15Control Act of 1968 (P.L. 90-618; 18 U.S.C. Sec. 921 et seq.).

16

SEC. 147.5.  

Section 626.10 of the Penal Code is amended to
17read:

18

626.10.  

(a) (1) Any person, except a duly appointed peace
19officer as defined in Chapter 4.5 (commencing with Section 830)
20of Title 3 of Part 2, a full-time paid peace officer of another state
21or the federal government who is carrying out official duties while
22in this state, a person summoned by any officer to assist in making
23arrests or preserving the peace while the person is actually engaged
24in assisting any officer, or a member of the military forces of this
25state or the United States who is engaged in the performance of
26his or her duties, who brings or possesses any dirk, dagger, ice
27pick, knife having a blade longer than 212 inches, folding knife
28with a blade that locks into place, razor with an unguarded blade,
29taser, or stun gun, as defined in subdivision (a) of Section 244.5,
30any instrument that expels a metallic projectile, such as a BB or a
31pellet, through the force of air pressure, CO2 pressure, or spring
32action, or any spot marker gun, upon the grounds of, or within,
33any public or private school providing instruction in kindergarten
34or any of grades 1 to 12, inclusive, is guilty of a public offense,
35punishable by imprisonment in a county jail not exceeding one
36year, or by imprisonment pursuant to subdivision (h) of Section
371170.

38(2) Any person, except a duly appointed peace officer as defined
39in Chapter 4.5 (commencing with Section 830) of Title 3 of Part
402, a full-time paid peace officer of another state or the federal
P288  1government who is carrying out official duties while in this state,
2a person summoned by any officer to assist in making arrests or
3preserving the peace while the person is actually engaged in
4assisting any officer, or a member of the military forces of this
5state or the United States who is engaged in the performance of
6his or her duties, who brings or possesses a razor blade or a box
7cutter upon the grounds of, or within, any public or private school
8providing instruction in kindergarten or any of grades 1 to 12,
9inclusive, is guilty of a public offense, punishable by imprisonment
10in a county jail not exceeding one year.

11(b) Any person, except a duly appointed peace officer as defined
12in Chapter 4.5 (commencing with Section 830) of Title 3 of Part
132, a full-time paid peace officer of another state or the federal
14government who is carrying out official duties while in this state,
15a person summoned by any officer to assist in making arrests or
16preserving the peace while the person is actually engaged in
17assisting any officer, or a member of the military forces of this
18state or the United States who is engaged in the performance of
19his or her duties, who brings or possesses any dirk, dagger, ice
20pick, or knife having a fixed blade longer than 212 inches upon
21the grounds of, or within, any private university, the University of
22California, the California State University, or the California
23Community Colleges is guilty of a public offense, punishable by
24imprisonment in a county jail not exceeding one year, or by
25imprisonment pursuant to subdivision (h) of Section 1170.

26(c) Subdivisions (a) and (b) do not apply to any person who
27brings or possesses a knife having a blade longer than 212 inches,
28a razor with an unguarded blade, a razor blade, or a box cutter
29upon the grounds of, or within, a public or private school providing
30instruction in kindergarten or any of grades 1 to 12, inclusive, or
31any private university, state university, or community college at
32the direction of a faculty member of the private university, state
33university, or community college, or a certificated or classified
34employee of the school for use in a private university, state
35university, community college, or school-sponsored activity or
36class.

37(d) Subdivisions (a) and (b) do not apply to any person who
38brings or possesses an ice pick, a knife having a blade longer than
39212 inches, a razor with an unguarded blade, a razor blade, or a
40box cutter upon the grounds of, or within, a public or private school
P289  1providing instruction in kindergarten or any of grades 1 to 12,
2inclusive, or any private university, state university, or community
3college for a lawful purpose within the scope of the person’s
4employment.

5(e) Subdivision (b) does not apply to any person who brings or
6possesses an ice pick or a knife having a fixed blade longer than
7212 inches upon the grounds of, or within, any private university,
8state university, or community college for lawful use in or around
9a residence or residential facility located upon those grounds or
10for lawful use in food preparation or consumption.

11(f) Subdivision (a) does not apply to any person who brings an
12instrument that expels a metallic projectile, such as a BB or a pellet,
13through the force of air pressure, CO2 pressure, or spring action,
14or any spot marker gun, or any razor blade or box cutter upon the
15grounds of, or within, a public or private school providing
16instruction in kindergarten or any of grades 1 to 12, inclusive, if
17the person has the written permission of the school principal or
18his or her designee.

19(g) Any certificated or classified employee or school peace
20officer of a public or private school providing instruction in
21kindergarten or any of grades 1 to 12, inclusive, may seize any of
22the weapons described in subdivision (a), and any certificated or
23classified employee or school peace officer of any private
24university, state university, or community college may seize any
25of the weapons described in subdivision (b), from the possession
26of any person upon the grounds of, or within, the school if he or
27she knows, or has reasonable cause to know, the person is
28prohibited from bringing or possessing the weapon upon the
29grounds of, or within, the school.

30(h) As used in this section, “dirk” or “dagger” means a knife or
31other instrument with or without a handguard that is capable of
32ready use as a stabbing weapon that may inflict great bodily injury
33 or death.

34(i) Any person who, without the written permission of the
35college or university president or chancellor or his or her designee,
36brings or possesses a less lethal weapon, as defined in Section
3716780, or a stun gun, as defined in Section 17230, upon the grounds
38of, or within, a public or private college or university campus is
39guilty of a misdemeanor.

40

SEC. 148.  

Section 781 of the Penal Code is amended to read:

P290  1

781.  

Except as provided in Section 923, when a public offense
2is committed in part in one jurisdictional territory and in part in
3another jurisdictional territory, or the acts or effects thereof
4constituting or requisite to the consummation of the offense occur
5in two or more jurisdictional territories, the jurisdiction for the
6offense is in any competent court within either jurisdictional
7territory.

8

SEC. 149.  

Section 830.41 of the Penal Code is amended to
9read:

10

830.41.  

Notwithstanding any other provision of law, the City
11of Tulelake, California, is authorized to enter into a mutual aid
12agreement with the City of Malin, Oregon, for the purpose of
13permitting their police departments to provide mutual aid to each
14other when necessary. Before the effective date of the agreement,
15the agreement shall be reviewed and approved by the
16Commissioner of the California Highway Patrol.

17

SEC. 150.  

Section 830.55 of the Penal Code is amended to
18read:

19

830.55.  

(a) (1) As used in this section, a correctional officer
20is a peace officer, employed by a city, county, or city and county
21that operates a facility described in Section 2910.5 of this code or
22Section 1753.3 of the Welfare and Institutions Code or facilities
23operated by counties pursuant to Section 6241 or 6242 of this code
24under contract with the Department of Corrections and
25Rehabilitation or the Division of Juvenile Justice within the
26department, who has the authority and responsibility for
27maintaining custody of specified state prison inmates or wards,
28and who performs tasks related to the operation of a detention
29facility used for the detention of persons who have violated parole
30or are awaiting parole back into the community or, upon court
31order, either for their own safekeeping or for the specific purpose
32of serving a sentence therein.

33(2) As used in this section, a correctional officer is also a peace
34officer, employed by a city, county, or city and county that operates
35a facility described in Section 4115.55, who has the authority and
36responsibility for maintaining custody of inmates sentenced to or
37housed in that facility, and who performs tasks related to the
38operation of that facility.

39(b) A correctional officer shall have no right to carry or possess
40firearms in the performance of his or her prescribed duties, except,
P291  1under the direction of the superintendent of the facility, while
2engaged in transporting prisoners, guarding hospitalized prisoners,
3or suppressing riots, lynchings, escapes, or rescues in or about a
4detention facility established pursuant to Section 2910.5 or 4115.55
5of this code or Section 1753.3 of the Welfare and Institutions Code.

6(c) Each person described in this section as a correctional officer,
7within 90 days following the date of the initial assignment to that
8position, shall satisfactorily complete the training course specified
9in Section 832. In addition, each person designated as a correctional
10officer, within one year following the date of the initial assignment
11as an officer, shall have satisfactorily met the minimum selection
12and training standards prescribed by the Board of State and
13Community Corrections pursuant to Section 6035. Persons
14designated as correctional officers, before the expiration of the
1590-day and one-year periods described in this subdivision, who
16have not yet completed the required training, may perform the
17duties of a correctional officer only while under the direct
18supervision of a correctional officer who has completed the training
19required in this section, and shall not carry or possess firearms in
20the performance of their prescribed duties.

21(d) This section shall not be construed to confer any authority
22upon a correctional officer except while on duty.

23(e) A correctional officer may use reasonable force in
24establishing and maintaining custody of persons delivered to him
25or her by a law enforcement officer, may make arrests for
26misdemeanors and felonies within the local detention facility
27pursuant to a duly issued warrant, and may make warrantless arrests
28pursuant to Section 836.5 only during the duration of his or her
29job.

30

SEC. 151.  

Section 1001.20 of the Penal Code is amended to
31read:

32

1001.20.  

As used in this chapter:

33(a) “Cognitive Developmental Disability” means any of the
34following:

35(1) “Intellectual disability” means a condition of significantly
36subaverage general intellectual functioning existing concurrently
37with deficits in adaptive behavior and manifested during the
38developmental period.

39(2) “Autism” means a diagnosed condition of markedly
40abnormal or impaired development in social interaction, in
P292  1communication, or in both, with a markedly restricted repertoire
2of activity and interests.

3(3) Disabling conditions found to be closely related to
4intellectual disability or autism, or that require treatment similar
5to that required for individuals with intellectual disability or autism,
6and that would qualify an individual for services provided under
7the Lanterman Developmental Disabilities Services Act.

8(b) “Diversion-related treatment and habilitation” means, but
9is not limited to, specialized services or special adaptations of
10generic services, directed toward the alleviation of cognitive
11developmental disability or toward social, personal, physical, or
12economic habilitation or rehabilitation of an individual with a
13cognitive developmental disability, and includes, but is not limited
14to, diagnosis, evaluation, treatment, personal care, day care,
15domiciliary care, special living arrangements, physical,
16occupational, and speech therapy, training, education, sheltered
17employment, mental health services, recreation, counseling of the
18individual with this disability and of his or her family, protective
19and other social and sociolegal services, information and referral
20services, follow-along services, and transportation services
21necessary to ensure delivery of services to persons with cognitive
22developmental disabilities.

23(c) “Regional center” means a regional center for the
24developmentally disabled established under the Lanterman
25Developmental Disabilities Services Act that is organized as a
26private nonprofit community agency to plan, purchase, and
27coordinate the delivery of services that cannot be provided by state
28agencies to developmentally disabled persons residing in a
29particular geographic catchment area, and that is licensed and
30funded by the State Department of Developmental Services.

31(d) “Director of a regional center” means the executive director
32of a regional center for the developmentally disabled or his or her
33designee.

34(e) “Agency” means the prosecutor, the probation department,
35and the regional center involved in a particular defendant’s case.

36(f) “Dual agency diversion” means a treatment and habilitation
37program developed with court approval by the regional center,
38administered jointly by the regional center and by the probation
39department, that is individually tailored to the needs of the
40defendant as derived from the defendant’s individual program plan
P293  1pursuant to Section 4646 of the Welfare and Institutions Code,
2and that includes, but is not limited to, treatment specifically
3addressed to the criminal offense charged, for a specified period
4of time as prescribed in Section 1001.28.

5(g) “Single agency diversion” means a treatment and habilitation
6program developed with court approval by the regional center,
7administered solely by the regional center without involvement
8by the probation department, that is individually tailored to the
9needs of the defendant as derived from the defendant’s individual
10program plan pursuant to Section 4646 of the Welfare and
11Institutions Code, and that includes, but is not limited to, treatment
12specifically addressed to the criminal offense charged, for a
13specified period of time as prescribed in Section 1001.28.

14

SEC. 152.  

Section 1170 of the Penal Code, as amended by
15Section 2 of Chapter 828 of the Statutes of 2012, is amended to
16read:

17

1170.  

(a) (1) The Legislature finds and declares that the
18purpose of imprisonment for crime is punishment. This purpose
19is best served by terms proportionate to the seriousness of the
20offense with provision for uniformity in the sentences of offenders
21committing the same offense under similar circumstances. The
22Legislature further finds and declares that the elimination of
23disparity and the provision of uniformity of sentences can best be
24achieved by determinate sentences fixed by statute in proportion
25to the seriousness of the offense as determined by the Legislature
26to be imposed by the court with specified discretion.

27(2) Notwithstanding paragraph (1), the Legislature further finds
28and declares that programs should be available for inmates,
29 including, but not limited to, educational programs, that are
30designed to prepare nonviolent felony offenders for successful
31reentry into the community. The Legislature encourages the
32development of policies and programs designed to educate and
33rehabilitate nonviolent felony offenders. In implementing this
34section, the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation is
35encouraged to give priority enrollment in programs to promote
36successful return to the community to an inmate with a short
37remaining term of commitment and a release date that would allow
38him or her adequate time to complete the program.

39(3) In any case in which the punishment prescribed by statute
40for a person convicted of a public offense is a term of imprisonment
P294  1in the state prison of any specification of three time periods, the
2court shall sentence the defendant to one of the terms of
3imprisonment specified unless the convicted person is given any
4other disposition provided by law, including a fine, jail, probation,
5or the suspension of imposition or execution of sentence or is
6sentenced pursuant to subdivision (b) of Section 1168 because he
7or she had committed his or her crime prior to July 1, 1977. In
8sentencing the convicted person, the court shall apply the
9sentencing rules of the Judicial Council. The court, unless it
10determines that there are circumstances in mitigation of the
11punishment prescribed, shall also impose any other term that it is
12required by law to impose as an additional term. Nothing in this
13article shall affect any provision of law that imposes the death
14penalty, that authorizes or restricts the granting of probation or
15suspending the execution or imposition of sentence, or expressly
16provides for imprisonment in the state prison for life, except as
17provided in paragraph (2) of subdivision (d). In any case in which
18the amount of preimprisonment credit under Section 2900.5 or any
19other provision of law is equal to or exceeds any sentence imposed
20pursuant to this chapter, the entire sentence shall be deemed to
21have been served and the defendant shall not be actually delivered
22to the custody of the secretary. The court shall advise the defendant
23that he or she shall serve a period of parole and order the defendant
24to report to the parole office closest to the defendant’s last legal
25residence, unless the in-custody credits equal the total sentence,
26including both confinement time and the period of parole. The
27sentence shall be deemed a separate prior prison term under Section
28667.5, and a copy of the judgment and other necessary
29documentation shall be forwarded to the secretary.

30(b) When a judgment of imprisonment is to be imposed and the
31statute specifies three possible terms, the court shall order
32imposition of the middle term, unless there are circumstances in
33aggravation or mitigation of the crime. At least four days prior to
34the time set for imposition of judgment, either party or the victim,
35or the family of the victim if the victim is deceased, may submit
36a statement in aggravation or mitigation to dispute facts in the
37record or the probation officer’s report, or to present additional
38facts. In determining whether there are circumstances that justify
39imposition of the upper or lower term, the court may consider the
40record in the case, the probation officer’s report, other reports,
P295  1including reports received pursuant to Section 1203.03, and
2statements in aggravation or mitigation submitted by the
3prosecution, the defendant, or the victim, or the family of the victim
4if the victim is deceased, and any further evidence introduced at
5the sentencing hearing. The court shall set forth on the record the
6facts and reasons for imposing the upper or lower term. The court
7may not impose an upper term by using the fact of any
8enhancement upon which sentence is imposed under any provision
9of law. A term of imprisonment shall not be specified if imposition
10of sentence is suspended.

11(c) The court shall state the reasons for its sentence choice on
12the record at the time of sentencing. The court shall also inform
13the defendant that as part of the sentence after expiration of the
14term he or she may be on parole for a period as provided in Section
153000.

16(d) (1) When a defendant subject to this section or subdivision
17(b) of Section 1168 has been sentenced to be imprisoned in the
18state prison and has been committed to the custody of the secretary,
19the court may, within 120 days of the date of commitment on its
20own motion, or at any time upon the recommendation of the
21secretary or the Board of Parole Hearings, recall the sentence and
22commitment previously ordered and resentence the defendant in
23the same manner as if he or she had not previously been sentenced,
24provided the new sentence, if any, is no greater than the initial
25sentence. The court resentencing under this subdivision shall apply
26the sentencing rules of the Judicial Council so as to eliminate
27disparity of sentences and to promote uniformity of sentencing.
28Credit shall be given for time served.

29(2) (A) (i) When a defendant who was under 18 years of age
30at the time of the commission of the offense for which the
31defendant was sentenced to imprisonment for life without the
32possibility of parole has served at least 15 years of that sentence,
33the defendant may submit to the sentencing court a petition for
34recall and resentencing.

35(ii) Notwithstanding clause (i), this paragraph shall not apply
36to defendants sentenced to life without parole for an offense where
37the defendant tortured, as described in Section 206, his or her
38victim or the victim was a public safety official, including any law
39enforcement personnel mentioned in Chapter 4.5 (commencing
40with Section 830) of Title 3, or any firefighter as described in
P296  1Section 245.1, as well as any other officer in any segment of law
2enforcement who is employed by the federal government, the state,
3or any of its political subdivisions.

4(B) The defendant shall file the original petition with the
5sentencing court. A copy of the petition shall be served on the
6agency that prosecuted the case. The petition shall include the
7defendant’s statement that he or she was under 18 years of age at
8the time of the crime and was sentenced to life in prison without
9the possibility of parole, the defendant’s statement describing his
10or her remorse and work towards rehabilitation, and the defendant’s
11statement that one of the following is true:

12(i) The defendant was convicted pursuant to felony murder or
13aiding and abetting murder provisions of law.

14(ii) The defendant does not have juvenile felony adjudications
15for assault or other felony crimes with a significant potential for
16personal harm to victims prior to the offense for which the sentence
17is being considered for recall.

18(iii) The defendant committed the offense with at least one adult
19codefendant.

20(iv) The defendant has performed acts that tend to indicate
21rehabilitation or the potential for rehabilitation, including, but not
22limited to, availing himself or herself of rehabilitative, educational,
23or vocational programs, if those programs have been available at
24his or her classification level and facility, using self-study for
25self-improvement, or showing evidence of remorse.

26(C) If any of the information required in subparagraph (B) is
27missing from the petition, or if proof of service on the prosecuting
28agency is not provided, the court shall return the petition to the
29defendant and advise the defendant that the matter cannot be
30considered without the missing information.

31(D) A reply to the petition, if any, shall be filed with the court
32within 60 days of the date on which the prosecuting agency was
33served with the petition, unless a continuance is granted for good
34cause.

35(E) If the court finds by a preponderance of the evidence that
36the statements in the petition are true, the court shall hold a hearing
37to consider whether to recall the sentence and commitment
38previously ordered and to resentence the defendant in the same
39manner as if the defendant had not previously been sentenced,
40provided that the new sentence, if any, is not greater than the initial
P297  1sentence. Victims, or victim family members if the victim is
2 deceased, shall retain the rights to participate in the hearing.

3(F) The factors that the court may consider when determining
4whether to recall and resentence include, but are not limited to,
5the following:

6(i) The defendant was convicted pursuant to felony murder or
7aiding and abetting murder provisions of law.

8(ii) The defendant does not have juvenile felony adjudications
9for assault or other felony crimes with a significant potential for
10personal harm to victims prior to the offense for which the sentence
11is being considered for recall.

12(iii) The defendant committed the offense with at least one adult
13codefendant.

14(iv) Prior to the offense for which the sentence is being
15considered for recall, the defendant had insufficient adult support
16or supervision and had suffered from psychological or physical
17trauma, or significant stress.

18(v) The defendant suffers from cognitive limitations due to
19mental illness, developmental disabilities, or other factors that did
20not constitute a defense, but influenced the defendant’s
21involvement in the offense.

22(vi) The defendant has performed acts that tend to indicate
23rehabilitation or the potential for rehabilitation, including, but not
24limited to, availing himself or herself of rehabilitative, educational,
25or vocational programs, if those programs have been available at
26his or her classification level and facility, using self-study for
27self-improvement, or showing evidence of remorse.

28(vii) The defendant has maintained family ties or connections
29with others through letter writing, calls, or visits, or has eliminated
30contact with individuals outside of prison who are currently
31involved with crime.

32(viii) The defendant has had no disciplinary actions for violent
33activities in the last five years in which the defendant was
34determined to be the aggressor.

35(G) The court shall have the discretion to recall the sentence
36and commitment previously ordered and to resentence the
37defendant in the same manner as if the defendant had not
38previously been sentenced, provided that the new sentence, if any,
39is not greater than the initial sentence. The discretion of the court
40shall be exercised in consideration of the criteria in subparagraph
P298  1(B). Victims, or victim family members if the victim is deceased,
2shall be notified of the resentencing hearing and shall retain their
3rights to participate in the hearing.

4(H) If the sentence is not recalled, the defendant may submit
5another petition for recall and resentencing to the sentencing court
6when the defendant has been committed to the custody of the
7department for at least 20 years. If recall and resentencing is not
8granted under that petition, the defendant may file another petition
9after having served 24 years. The final petition may be submitted,
10and the response to that petition shall be determined, during the
1125th year of the defendant’s sentence.

12(I) In addition to the criteria in subparagraph (F), the court may
13consider any other criteria that the court deems relevant to its
14decision, so long as the court identifies them on the record,
15provides a statement of reasons for adopting them, and states why
16the defendant does or does not satisfy the criteria.

17(J) This subdivision shall have retroactive application.

18(e) (1) Notwithstanding any other law and consistent with
19paragraph (1) of subdivision (a), if the secretary or the Board of
20Parole Hearings or both determine that a prisoner satisfies the
21criteria set forth in paragraph (2), the secretary or the board may
22recommend to the court that the prisoner’s sentence be recalled.

23(2) The court shall have the discretion to resentence or recall if
24the court finds that the facts described in subparagraphs (A) and
25(B) or subparagraphs (B) and (C) exist:

26(A) The prisoner is terminally ill with an incurable condition
27caused by an illness or disease that would produce death within
28six months, as determined by a physician employed by the
29department.

30(B) The conditions under which the prisoner would be released
31or receive treatment do not pose a threat to public safety.

32(C) The prisoner is permanently medically incapacitated with
33a medical condition that renders him or her permanently unable
34to perform activities of basic daily living, and results in the prisoner
35requiring 24-hour total care, including, but not limited to, coma,
36persistent vegetative state, brain death, ventilator-dependency, loss
37of control of muscular or neurological function, and that
38incapacitation did not exist at the time of the original sentencing.

39The Board of Parole Hearings shall make findings pursuant to
40this subdivision before making a recommendation for resentence
P299  1or recall to the court. This subdivision does not apply to a prisoner
2sentenced to death or a term of life without the possibility of parole.

3(3) Within 10 days of receipt of a positive recommendation by
4the secretary or the board, the court shall hold a hearing to consider
5whether the prisoner’s sentence should be recalled.

6(4) Any physician employed by the department who determines
7that a prisoner has six months or less to live shall notify the chief
8medical officer of the prognosis. If the chief medical officer
9concurs with the prognosis, he or she shall notify the warden.
10Within 48 hours of receiving notification, the warden or the
11warden’s representative shall notify the prisoner of the recall and
12resentencing procedures, and shall arrange for the prisoner to
13designate a family member or other outside agent to be notified
14as to the prisoner’s medical condition and prognosis, and as to the
15recall and resentencing procedures. If the inmate is deemed
16mentally unfit, the warden or the warden’s representative shall
17contact the inmate’s emergency contact and provide the information
18described in paragraph (2).

19(5) The warden or the warden’s representative shall provide the
20prisoner and his or her family member, agent, or emergency
21contact, as described in paragraph (4), updated information
22throughout the recall and resentencing process with regard to the
23prisoner’s medical condition and the status of the prisoner’s recall
24and resentencing proceedings.

25(6) Notwithstanding any other provisions of this section, the
26prisoner or his or her family member or designee may
27independently request consideration for recall and resentencing
28by contacting the chief medical officer at the prison or the
29secretary. Upon receipt of the request, the chief medical officer
30and the warden or the warden’s representative shall follow the
31procedures described in paragraph (4). If the secretary determines
32that the prisoner satisfies the criteria set forth in paragraph (2), the
33secretary or board may recommend to the court that the prisoner’s
34sentence be recalled. The secretary shall submit a recommendation
35for release within 30 days in the case of inmates sentenced to
36determinate terms and, in the case of inmates sentenced to
37indeterminate terms, the secretary shall make a recommendation
38to the Board of Parole Hearings with respect to the inmates who
39have applied under this section. The board shall consider this
40information and make an independent judgment pursuant to
P300  1paragraph (2) and make findings related thereto before rejecting
2the request or making a recommendation to the court. This action
3shall be taken at the next lawfully noticed board meeting.

4(7) Any recommendation for recall submitted to the court by
5the secretary or the Board of Parole Hearings shall include one or
6more medical evaluations, a postrelease plan, and findings pursuant
7to paragraph (2).

8(8) If possible, the matter shall be heard before the same judge
9of the court who sentenced the prisoner.

10(9) If the court grants the recall and resentencing application,
11the prisoner shall be released by the department within 48 hours
12of receipt of the court’s order, unless a longer time period is agreed
13to by the inmate. At the time of release, the warden or the warden’s
14representative shall ensure that the prisoner has each of the
15following in his or her possession: a discharge medical summary,
16full medical records, state identification, parole medications, and
17all property belonging to the prisoner. After discharge, any
18additional records shall be sent to the prisoner’s forwarding
19address.

20(10) The secretary shall issue a directive to medical and
21correctional staff employed by the department that details the
22guidelines and procedures for initiating a recall and resentencing
23procedure. The directive shall clearly state that any prisoner who
24is given a prognosis of six months or less to live is eligible for
25recall and resentencing consideration, and that recall and
26resentencing procedures shall be initiated upon that prognosis.

27(f) Notwithstanding any other provision of this section, for
28purposes of paragraph (3) of subdivision (h), any allegation that
29a defendant is eligible for state prison due to a prior or current
30conviction, sentence enhancement, or because he or she is required
31to register as a sex offender shall not be subject to dismissal
32pursuant to Section 1385.

33(g) A sentence to state prison for a determinate term for which
34only one term is specified, is a sentence to state prison under this
35section.

36(h) (1) Except as provided in paragraph (3), a felony punishable
37pursuant to this subdivision where the term is not specified in the
38underlying offense shall be punishable by a term of imprisonment
39in a county jail for 16 months, or two or three years.

P301  1(2) Except as provided in paragraph (3), a felony punishable
2pursuant to this subdivision shall be punishable by imprisonment
3in a county jail for the term described in the underlying offense.

4(3) Notwithstanding paragraphs (1) and (2), where the defendant
5(A) has a prior or current felony conviction for a serious felony
6described in subdivision (c) of Section 1192.7 or a prior or current
7conviction for a violent felony described in subdivision (c) of
8Section 667.5, (B) has a prior felony conviction in another
9jurisdiction for an offense that has all the elements of a serious
10felony described in subdivision (c) of Section 1192.7 or a violent
11felony described in subdivision (c) of Section 667.5, (C) is required
12to register as a sex offender pursuant to Chapter 5.5 (commencing
13with Section 290) of Title 9 of Part 1, or (D) is convicted of a crime
14and as part of the sentence an enhancement pursuant to Section
15186.11 is imposed, an executed sentence for a felony punishable
16pursuant to this subdivision shall be served in state prison.

17(4) This subdivision does not prevent other dispositions
18authorized by law, including pretrial diversion, deferred entry of
19judgment, or an order granting probation pursuant to Section
201203.1.

21(5) The court, when imposing a sentence pursuant to paragraph
22(1) or (2) of this subdivision, may commit the defendant to county
23jail as follows:

24(A) For a full term in custody as determined in accordance with
25the applicable sentencing law.

26(B) (i) For a term as determined in accordance with the
27applicable sentencing law, but suspend execution of a concluding
28portion of the term selected in the court’s discretion, during which
29time the defendant shall be supervised by the county probation
30officer in accordance with the terms, conditions, and procedures
31generally applicable to persons placed on probation, for the
32remaining unserved portion of the sentence imposed by the court.
33The period of supervision shall be mandatory, and may not be
34earlier terminated except by court order. Any proceeding to revoke
35or modify mandatory supervision under this subparagraph shall
36be conducted pursuant to either subdivisions (a) and (b) of Section
371203.2 or Section 1203.3. During the period when the defendant
38is under such supervision, unless in actual custody related to the
39sentence imposed by the court, the defendant shall be entitled to
40only actual time credit against the term of imprisonment imposed
P302  1by the court. Any time period that is suspended because a person
2has absconded shall not be credited toward the period of
3supervision.

4(ii) The portion of a defendant’s sentenced term during which
5time he or she is supervised by the county probation officer
6pursuant to this subparagraph shall be known as mandatory
7supervision.

8(6) The sentencing changes made by the act that added this
9subdivision shall be applied prospectively to any person sentenced
10on or after October 1, 2011.

11(i) This section shall become operative on January 1, 2014.

12

SEC. 153.  

Section 1203.097 of the Penal Code is amended to
13read:

14

1203.097.  

(a) If a person is granted probation for a crime in
15which the victim is a person defined in Section 6211 of the Family
16Code, the terms of probation shall include all of the following:

17(1) A minimum period of probation of 36 months, which may
18include a period of summary probation as appropriate.

19(2) A criminal court protective order protecting the victim from
20further acts of violence, threats, stalking, sexual abuse, and
21harassment, and, if appropriate, containing residence exclusion or
22stay-away conditions.

23(3) Notice to the victim of the disposition of the case.

24(4) Booking the defendant within one week of sentencing if the
25defendant has not already been booked.

26(5) (A) A minimum payment by the defendant of five hundred
27dollars ($500) to be disbursed as specified in this paragraph. If,
28after a hearing in open court, the court finds that the defendant
29does not have the ability to pay, the court may reduce or waive
30this fee. If the court exercises its discretion to reduce or waive the
31fee, it shall state the reason on the record.

32(B) Two-thirds of the moneys deposited with the county
33treasurer pursuant to this section shall be retained by counties and
34deposited in the domestic violence programs special fund created
35pursuant to Section 18305 of the Welfare and Institutions Code,
36to be expended for the purposes of Chapter 5 (commencing with
37Section 18290) of Part 6 of Division 9 of the Welfare and
38 Institutions Code. The remainder shall be transferred, once a month,
39to the Controller for deposit in equal amounts in the Domestic
40Violence Restraining Order Reimbursement Fund and in the
P303  1Domestic Violence Training and Education Fund, which are hereby
2created, in an amount equal to one-third of funds collected during
3the preceding month. Moneys deposited into these funds pursuant
4to this section shall be available upon appropriation by the
5Legislature and shall be distributed each fiscal year as follows:

6(i) Funds from the Domestic Violence Restraining Order
7Reimbursement Fund shall be distributed to local law enforcement
8or other criminal justice agencies for state-mandated local costs
9resulting from the notification requirements set forth in subdivision
10(b) of Section 6380 of the Family Code, based on the annual
11notification from the Department of Justice of the number of
12restraining orders issued and registered in the state domestic
13 violence restraining order registry maintained by the Department
14of Justice, for the development and maintenance of the domestic
15violence restraining order databank system.

16(ii) Funds from the Domestic Violence Training and Education
17Fund shall support a statewide training and education program to
18increase public awareness of domestic violence and to improve
19the scope and quality of services provided to the victims of
20domestic violence. Grants to support this program shall be awarded
21on a competitive basis and be administered by the State Department
22of Public Health, in consultation with the statewide domestic
23violence coalition, which is eligible to receive funding under this
24section.

25(6) Successful completion of a batterer’s program, as defined
26in subdivision (c), or if none is available, another appropriate
27counseling program designated by the court, for a period not less
28than one year with periodic progress reports by the program to the
29court every three months or less and weekly sessions of a minimum
30of two hours class time duration. The defendant shall attend
31consecutive weekly sessions, unless granted an excused absence
32for good cause by the program for no more than three individual
33sessions during the entire program, and shall complete the program
34within 18 months, unless, after a hearing, the court finds good
35cause to modify the requirements of consecutive attendance or
36completion within 18 months.

37(7) (A) (i) The court shall order the defendant to comply with
38all probation requirements, including the requirements to attend
39counseling, keep all program appointments, and pay program fees
40based upon the ability to pay.

P304  1(ii) The terms of probation for offenders shall not be lifted until
2all reasonable fees due to the counseling program have been paid
3in full, but in no case shall probation be extended beyond the term
4provided in subdivision (a) of Section 1203.1. If the court finds
5that the defendant does not have the ability to pay the fees based
6on the defendant’s changed circumstances, the court may reduce
7or waive the fees.

8(B) Upon request by the batterer’s program, the court shall
9provide the defendant’s arrest report, prior incidents of violence,
10and treatment history to the program.

11(8) The court also shall order the defendant to perform a
12specified amount of appropriate community service, as designated
13by the court. The defendant shall present the court with proof of
14completion of community service and the court shall determine if
15the community service has been satisfactorily completed. If
16sufficient staff and resources are available, the community service
17shall be performed under the jurisdiction of the local agency
18overseeing a community service program.

19(9) If the program finds that the defendant is unsuitable, the
20program shall immediately contact the probation department or
21the court. The probation department or court shall either recalendar
22the case for hearing or refer the defendant to an appropriate
23alternative batterer’s program.

24(10) (A) Upon recommendation of the program, a court shall
25require a defendant to participate in additional sessions throughout
26the probationary period, unless it finds that it is not in the interests
27of justice to do so, states its reasons on the record, and enters them
28into the minutes. In deciding whether the defendant would benefit
29from more sessions, the court shall consider whether any of the
30following conditions exists:

31(i) The defendant has been violence free for a minimum of six
32months.

33(ii) The defendant has cooperated and participated in the
34batterer’s program.

35(iii) The defendant demonstrates an understanding of and
36practices positive conflict resolution skills.

37(iv) The defendant blames, degrades, or has committed acts that
38dehumanize the victim or puts at risk the victim’s safety, including,
39but not limited to, molesting, stalking, striking, attacking,
40threatening, sexually assaulting, or battering the victim.

P305  1(v) The defendant demonstrates an understanding that the use
2of coercion or violent behavior to maintain dominance is
3unacceptable in an intimate relationship.

4(vi) The defendant has made threats to harm anyone in any
5manner.

6(vii) The defendant has complied with applicable requirements
7under paragraph (6) of subdivision (c) or subparagraph (C) to
8receive alcohol counseling, drug counseling, or both.

9(viii) The defendant demonstrates acceptance of responsibility
10for the abusive behavior perpetrated against the victim.

11(B) The program shall immediately report any violation of the
12terms of the protective order, including any new acts of violence
13or failure to comply with the program requirements, to the court,
14the prosecutor, and, if formal probation has been ordered, to the
15probation department. The probationer shall file proof of
16enrollment in a batterer’s program with the court within 30 days
17of conviction.

18(C) Concurrent with other requirements under this section, in
19addition to, and not in lieu of, the batterer’s program, and unless
20prohibited by the referring court, the probation department or the
21court may make provisions for a defendant to use his or her
22resources to enroll in a chemical dependency program or to enter
23voluntarily a licensed chemical dependency recovery hospital or
24residential treatment program that has a valid license issued by the
25state to provide alcohol or drug services to receive program
26participation credit, as determined by the court. The probation
27department shall document evidence of this hospital or residential
28treatment participation in the defendant’s program file.

29(11) The conditions of probation may include, in lieu of a fine,
30but not in lieu of the fund payment required under paragraph (5),
31one or more of the following requirements:

32(A) That the defendant make payments to a battered women’s
33shelter, up to a maximum of five thousand dollars ($5,000).

34(B) That the defendant reimburse the victim for reasonable
35expenses that the court finds are the direct result of the defendant’s
36offense.

37For any order to pay a fine, to make payments to a battered
38women’s shelter, or to pay restitution as a condition of probation
39under this subdivision, the court shall make a determination of the
40defendant’s ability to pay. Determination of a defendant’s ability
P306  1to pay may include his or her future earning capacity. A defendant
2shall bear the burden of demonstrating lack of his or her ability to
3pay. Express findings by the court as to the factors bearing on the
4amount of the fine shall not be required. In no event shall any order
5to make payments to a battered women’s shelter be made if it
6would impair the ability of the defendant to pay direct restitution
7to the victim or court-ordered child support. When the injury to a
8married person is caused, in whole or in part, by the criminal acts
9of his or her spouse in violation of this section, the community
10property shall not be used to discharge the liability of the offending
11spouse for restitution to the injured spouse, as required by Section
121203.04, as operative on or before August 2, 1995, or Section
131202.4, or to a shelter for costs with regard to the injured spouse,
14until all separate property of the offending spouse is exhausted.

15(12) If it appears to the prosecuting attorney, the court, or the
16probation department that the defendant is performing
17unsatisfactorily in the assigned program, is not benefiting from
18counseling, or has engaged in criminal conduct, upon request of
19the probation officer, the prosecuting attorney, or on its own
20motion, the court, as a priority calendar item, shall hold a hearing
21to determine whether further sentencing should proceed. The court
22may consider factors, including, but not limited to, any violence
23by the defendant against the former or a new victim while on
24probation and noncompliance with any other specific condition of
25probation. If the court finds that the defendant is not performing
26satisfactorily in the assigned program, is not benefiting from the
27program, has not complied with a condition of probation, or has
28engaged in criminal conduct, the court shall terminate the
29defendant’s participation in the program and shall proceed with
30further sentencing.

31(b) If a person is granted formal probation for a crime in which
32the victim is a person defined in Section 6211 of the Family Code,
33in addition to the terms specified in subdivision (a), all of the
34following shall apply:

35(1) The probation department shall make an investigation and
36take into consideration the defendant’s age, medical history,
37 employment and service records, educational background,
38community and family ties, prior incidents of violence, police
39report, treatment history, if any, demonstrable motivation, and
40other mitigating factors in determining which batterer’s program
P307  1would be appropriate for the defendant. This information shall be
2provided to the batterer’s program if it is requested. The probation
3department shall also determine which community programs the
4defendant would benefit from and which of those programs would
5accept the defendant. The probation department shall report its
6findings and recommendations to the court.

7(2) The court shall advise the defendant that the failure to report
8to the probation department for the initial investigation, as directed
9by the court, or the failure to enroll in a specified program, as
10directed by the court or the probation department, shall result in
11possible further incarceration. The court, in the interests of justice,
12 may relieve the defendant from the prohibition set forth in this
13subdivision based upon the defendant’s mistake or excusable
14neglect. Application for this relief shall be filed within 20 court
15days of the missed deadline. This time limitation may not be
16extended. A copy of any application for relief shall be served on
17the office of the prosecuting attorney.

18(3) After the court orders the defendant to a batterer’s program,
19the probation department shall conduct an initial assessment of
20the defendant, including, but not limited to, all of the following:

21(A) Social, economic, and family background.

22(B) Education.

23(C) Vocational achievements.

24(D) Criminal history.

25(E) Medical history.

26(F) Substance abuse history.

27(G) Consultation with the probation officer.

28(H) Verbal consultation with the victim, only if the victim
29desires to participate.

30(I) Assessment of the future probability of the defendant
31committing murder.

32(4) The probation department shall attempt to notify the victim
33regarding the requirements for the defendant’s participation in the
34batterer’s program, as well as regarding available victim resources.
35The victim also shall be informed that attendance in any program
36does not guarantee that an abuser will not be violent.

37(c) The court or the probation department shall refer defendants
38only to batterer’s programs that follow standards outlined in
39paragraph (1), which may include, but are not limited to, lectures,
40classes, group discussions, and counseling. The probation
P308  1department shall design and implement an approval and renewal
2process for batterer’s programs and shall solicit input from criminal
3justice agencies and domestic violence victim advocacy programs.

4(1) The goal of a batterer’s program under this section shall be
5to stop domestic violence. A batterer’s program shall consist of
6the following components:

7(A) Strategies to hold the defendant accountable for the violence
8in a relationship, including, but not limited to, providing the
9defendant with a written statement that the defendant shall be held
10accountable for acts or threats of domestic violence.

11(B) A requirement that the defendant participate in ongoing
12same-gender group sessions.

13(C) An initial intake that provides written definitions to the
14defendant of physical, emotional, sexual, economic, and verbal
15abuse, and the techniques for stopping these types of abuse.

16(D) Procedures to inform the victim regarding the requirements
17for the defendant’s participation in the intervention program as
18well as regarding available victim resources. The victim also shall
19be informed that attendance in any program does not guarantee
20that an abuser will not be violent.

21(E) A requirement that the defendant attend group sessions free
22of chemical influence.

23(F) Educational programming that examines, at a minimum,
24gender roles, socialization, the nature of violence, the dynamics
25of power and control, and the effects of abuse on children and
26others.

27(G) A requirement that excludes any couple counseling or family
28counseling, or both.

29(H) Procedures that give the program the right to assess whether
30or not the defendant would benefit from the program and to refuse
31to enroll the defendant if it is determined that the defendant would
32not benefit from the program, so long as the refusal is not because
33of the defendant’s inability to pay. If possible, the program shall
34suggest an appropriate alternative program.

35(I) Program staff who, to the extent possible, have specific
36knowledge regarding, but not limited to, spousal abuse, child abuse,
37sexual abuse, substance abuse, the dynamics of violence and abuse,
38the law, and procedures of the legal system.

39(J) Program staff who are encouraged to utilize the expertise,
40training, and assistance of local domestic violence centers.

P309  1(K) A requirement that the defendant enter into a written
2agreement with the program, which shall include an outline of the
3contents of the program, the attendance requirements, the
4requirement to attend group sessions free of chemical influence,
5and a statement that the defendant may be removed from the
6program if it is determined that the defendant is not benefiting
7from the program or is disruptive to the program.

8(L) A requirement that the defendant sign a confidentiality
9statement prohibiting disclosure of any information obtained
10through participating in the program or during group sessions
11regarding other participants in the program.

12(M) Program content that provides cultural and ethnic
13sensitivity.

14(N) A requirement of a written referral from the court or
15probation department prior to permitting the defendant to enroll
16in the program. The written referral shall state the number of
17minimum sessions required by the court.

18(O) Procedures for submitting to the probation department all
19of the following uniform written responses:

20(i) Proof of enrollment, to be submitted to the court and the
21probation department and to include the fee determined to be
22charged to the defendant, based upon the ability to pay, for each
23session.

24(ii) Periodic progress reports that include attendance, fee
25payment history, and program compliance.

26(iii) Final evaluation that includes the program’s evaluation of
27the defendant’s progress, using the criteria set forth in subparagraph
28(A) of paragraph (10) of subdivision (a) and recommendation for
29either successful or unsuccessful termination or continuation in
30the program.

31(P) A sliding fee schedule based on the defendant’s ability to
32pay. The batterer’s program shall develop and utilize a sliding fee
33scale that recognizes both the defendant’s ability to pay and the
34necessity of programs to meet overhead expenses. An indigent
35defendant may negotiate a deferred payment schedule, but shall
36pay a nominal fee, if the defendant has the ability to pay the
37nominal fee. Upon a hearing and a finding by the court that the
38defendant does not have the financial ability to pay the nominal
39fee, the court shall waive this fee. The payment of the fee shall be
40made a condition of probation if the court determines the defendant
P310  1has the present ability to pay the fee. The fee shall be paid during
2the term of probation unless the program sets other conditions.
3The acceptance policies shall be in accordance with the scaled fee
4system.

5(2) The court shall refer persons only to batterer’s programs
6that have been approved by the probation department pursuant to
7paragraph (5). The probation department shall do both of the
8following:

9(A) Provide for the issuance of a provisional approval, provided
10that the applicant is in substantial compliance with applicable laws
11and regulations and an urgent need for approval exists. A
12provisional approval shall be considered an authorization to provide
13services and shall not be considered a vested right.

14(B) If the probation department determines that a program is
15not in compliance with standards set by the department, the
16department shall provide written notice of the noncompliant areas
17to the program. The program shall submit a written plan of
18corrections within 14 days from the date of the written notice on
19noncompliance. A plan of correction shall include, but not be
20limited to, a description of each corrective action and timeframe
21for implementation. The department shall review and approve all
22or any part of the plan of correction and notify the program of
23approval or disapproval in writing. If the program fails to submit
24a plan of correction or fails to implement the approved plan of
25correction, the department shall consider whether to revoke or
26suspend approval and, upon revoking or suspending approval, shall
27have the option to cease referrals of defendants under this section.

28(3) No program, regardless of its source of funding, shall be
29approved unless it meets all of the following standards:

30(A) The establishment of guidelines and criteria for education
31services, including standards of services that may include lectures,
32classes, and group discussions.

33(B) Supervision of the defendant for the purpose of evaluating
34the person’s progress in the program.

35(C) Adequate reporting requirements to ensure that all persons
36who, after being ordered to attend and complete a program, may
37be identified for either failure to enroll in, or failure to successfully
38complete, the program or for the successful completion of the
39program as ordered. The program shall notify the court and the
40probation department, in writing, within the period of time and in
P311  1the manner specified by the court of any person who fails to
2complete the program. Notification shall be given if the program
3determines that the defendant is performing unsatisfactorily or if
4the defendant is not benefiting from the education, treatment, or
5counseling.

6(D) No victim shall be compelled to participate in a program
7or counseling, and no program may condition a defendant’s
8enrollment on participation by the victim.

9(4) In making referrals of indigent defendants to approved
10batterer’s programs, the probation department shall apportion these
11referrals evenly among the approved programs.

12(5) The probation department shall have the sole authority to
13approve a batterer’s program for probation. The program shall be
14required to obtain only one approval but shall renew that approval
15annually.

16(A) The procedure for the approval of a new or existing program
17shall include all of the following:

18(i) The completion of a written application containing necessary
19and pertinent information describing the applicant program.

20(ii) The demonstration by the program that it possesses adequate
21administrative and operational capability to operate a batterer’s
22treatment program. The program shall provide documentation to
23prove that the program has conducted batterer’s programs for at
24least one year prior to application. This requirement may be waived
25under subparagraph (A) of paragraph (2) if there is no existing
26batterer’s program in the city, county, or city and county.

27(iii) The onsite review of the program, including monitoring of
28a session to determine that the program adheres to applicable
29statutes and regulations.

30(iv) The payment of the approval fee.

31(B) The probation department shall fix a fee for approval not
32to exceed two hundred fifty dollars ($250) and for approval renewal
33not to exceed two hundred fifty dollars ($250) every year in an
34amount sufficient to cover its costs in administering the approval
35process under this section. No fee shall be charged for the approval
36of local governmental entities.

37(C) The probation department has the sole authority to approve
38the issuance, denial, suspension, or revocation of approval and to
39cease new enrollments or referrals to a batterer’s program under
40this section. The probation department shall review information
P312  1relative to a program’s performance or failure to adhere to
2standards, or both. The probation department may suspend or
3revoke an approval issued under this subdivision or deny an
4application to renew an approval or to modify the terms and
5conditions of approval, based on grounds established by probation,
6including, but not limited to, either of the following:

7(i) Violation of this section by any person holding approval or
8by a program employee in a program under this section.

9(ii) Misrepresentation of any material fact in obtaining the
10approval.

11(6) For defendants who are chronic users or serious abusers of
12drugs or alcohol, standard components in the program shall include
13concurrent counseling for substance abuse and violent behavior,
14and in appropriate cases, detoxification and abstinence from the
15abused substance.

16(7) The program shall conduct an exit conference that assesses
17the defendant’s progress during his or her participation in the
18batterer’s program.

19(d) An act or omission relating to the approval of a batterer’s
20treatment program under paragraph (5) of subdivision (c) is a
21discretionary act pursuant to Section 820.2 of the Government
22Code.

23

SEC. 153.5.  

Section 1203.4a of the Penal Code is amended to
24read:

25

1203.4a.  

(a) Every defendant convicted of a misdemeanor and
26not granted probation, and every defendant convicted of an
27infraction shall, at any time after the lapse of one year from the
28date of pronouncement of judgment, if he or she has fully complied
29with and performed the sentence of the court, is not then serving
30a sentence for any offense and is not under charge of commission
31of any crime, and has, since the pronouncement of judgment, lived
32an honest and upright life and has conformed to and obeyed the
33laws of the land, be permitted by the court to withdraw his or her
34plea of guilty or nolo contendere and enter a plea of not guilty; or
35if he or she has been convicted after a plea of not guilty, the court
36shall set aside the verdict of guilty; and in either case the court
37shall thereupon dismiss the accusatory pleading against the
38 defendant, who shall thereafter be released from all penalties and
39disabilities resulting from the offense of which he or she has been
40convicted, except as provided in Chapter 3 (commencing with
P313  1Section 29900) of Division 9 of Title 4 of Part 6 of this code or
2Section 13555 of the Vehicle Code.

3(b) If a defendant does not satisfy all the requirements of
4subdivision (a), after a lapse of one year from the date of
5pronouncement of judgment, a court, in its discretion and in the
6interests of justice, may grant the relief available pursuant to
7subdivision (a) to a defendant convicted of an infraction, or of a
8misdemeanor and not granted probation, or both, if he or she has
9fully complied with and performed the sentence of the court, is
10not then serving a sentence for any offense, and is not under charge
11of commission of any crime.

12(c) (1) The defendant shall be informed of the provisions of
13this section, either orally or in writing, at the time he or she is
14sentenced. The defendant may make an application and change of
15plea in person or by attorney, or by the probation officer authorized
16in writing, provided that, in any subsequent prosecution of the
17defendant for any other offense, the prior conviction may be
18pleaded and proved and shall have the same effect as if relief had
19not been granted pursuant to this section.

20(2) Dismissal of an accusatory pleading pursuant to this section
21does not permit a person to own, possess, or have in his or her
22custody or control any firearm or prevent his or her conviction
23under Chapter 2 (commencing with Section 29800) of Division 9
24of Title 4 of Part 6.

25(3) Dismissal of an accusatory pleading underlying a conviction
26pursuant to this section does not permit a person prohibited from
27holding public office as a result of that conviction to hold public
28office.

29(d)  This section applies to any conviction specified in
30subdivision (a) or (b) that occurred before, as well as those
31occurring after, the effective date of this section, except that this
32section does not apply to the following:

33(1) A misdemeanor violation of subdivision (c) of Section 288.

34(2) Any misdemeanor falling within the provisions of Section
3542002.1 of the Vehicle Code.

36(3) Any infraction falling within the provisions of Section 42001
37of the Vehicle Code.

38(e) A person who petitions for a dismissal of a charge under
39this section may be required to reimburse the county and the court
40for the cost of services rendered at a rate to be determined by the
P314  1county board of supervisors for the county and by the court for the
2court, not to exceed sixty dollars ($60), and to reimburse any city
3for the cost of services rendered at a rate to be determined by the
4city council not to exceed sixty dollars ($60). Ability to make this
5reimbursement shall be determined by the court using the standards
6set forth in paragraph (2) of subdivision (g) of Section 987.8 and
7shall not be a prerequisite to a person’s eligibility under this
8section. The court may order reimbursement in any case in which
9the petitioner appears to have the ability to pay, without undue
10hardship, all or any portion of the cost for services established
11pursuant to this subdivision.

12(f) A petition for dismissal of an infraction pursuant to this
13section shall be by written declaration, except upon a showing of
14compelling need. Dismissal of an infraction shall not be granted
15under this section unless the prosecuting attorney has been given
16at least 15 days’ notice of the petition for dismissal. It shall be
17presumed that the prosecuting attorney has received notice if proof
18of service is filed with the court.

19(g) Any determination of amount made by a court under this
20section shall be valid only if either (1) made under procedures
21adopted by the Judicial Council or (2) approved by the Judicial
22Council.

23

SEC. 154.  

Section 1230 of the Penal Code is amended to read:

24

1230.  

(a) Each county is hereby authorized to establish in each
25county treasury a Community Corrections Performance Incentives
26Fund (CCPIF), to receive all amounts allocated to that county for
27purposes of implementing this chapter.

28(b) In any fiscal year for which a county receives moneys to be
29expended for the implementation of this chapter, the moneys,
30including any interest, shall be made available to the CPO of that
31county, within 30 days of the deposit of those moneys into the
32fund, for the implementation of the community corrections program
33authorized by this chapter.

34(1) The community corrections program shall be developed and
35implemented by probation and advised by a local Community
36Corrections Partnership.

37(2) The local Community Corrections Partnership shall be
38chaired by the CPO and comprised of the following membership:

39(A) The presiding judge of the superior court, or his or her
40designee.

P315  1(B) A county supervisor or the chief administrative officer for
2the county or a designee of the board of supervisors.

3(C) The district attorney.

4(D) The public defender.

5(E) The sheriff.

6(F) A chief of police.

7(G) The head of the county department of social services.

8(H) The head of the county department of mental health.

9(I) The head of the county department of employment.

10(J) The head of the county alcohol and substance abuse program.

11(K) The head of the county office of education.

12(L) A representative from a community-based organization with
13experience in successfully providing rehabilitative services to
14persons who have been convicted of a criminal offense.

15(M) An individual who represents the interests of victims.

16(3) Funds allocated to probation pursuant to this act shall be
17used to provide supervision and rehabilitative services for adult
18felony offenders subject to probation, and shall be spent on
19evidence-based community corrections practices and programs,
20as defined in subdivision (d) of Section 1229, which may include,
21but are not limited to, the following:

22(A) Implementing and expanding evidence-based risk and needs
23assessments.

24(B) Implementing and expanding intermediate sanctions that
25include, but are not limited to, electronic monitoring, mandatory
26community service, home detention, day reporting, restorative
27justice programs, work furlough programs, and incarceration in a
28county jail for up to 90 days.

29(C) Providing more intensive probation supervision.

30(D) Expanding the availability of evidence-based rehabilitation
31programs, including, but not limited to, drug and alcohol treatment,
32mental health treatment, anger management, cognitive behavior
33programs, and job training and employment services.

34(E) Evaluating the effectiveness of rehabilitation and supervision
35programs and ensuring program fidelity.

36(4) The CPO shall have discretion to spend funds on any of the
37above practices and programs consistent with this act but, at a
38minimum, shall devote at least 5 percent of all funding received
39to evaluate the effectiveness of those programs and practices
40implemented with the funds provided pursuant to this chapter. A
P316  1CPO may petition the Administrative Office of the Courts to have
2this restriction waived, and the Administrative Office of the Courts
3shall have the authority to grant such a petition, if the CPO can
4demonstrate that the department is already devoting sufficient
5funds to the evaluation of these programs and practices.

6(5) Each probation department receiving funds under this chapter
7shall maintain a complete and accurate accounting of all funds
8received pursuant to this chapter.

9

SEC. 155.  

The heading of Title 4.5 (commencing with Section
1013600) of Part 4 of the Penal Code, as amended by Section 7 of
11Chapter 136 of the Statutes of 2011, is repealed.

12

SEC. 156.  

Section 1370.1 of the Penal Code is amended to
13read:

14

1370.1.  

(a) (1) (A) If the defendant is found mentally
15competent, the criminal process shall resume, the trial on the
16offense charged shall proceed, and judgment may be pronounced.

17(B) If the defendant is found mentally incompetent and is
18developmentally disabled, the trial or judgment shall be suspended
19until the defendant becomes mentally competent.

20(i) Except as provided in clause (ii) or (iii), the court shall
21consider a recommendation for placement, which recommendation
22shall be made to the court by the director of a regional center or
23 designee. In the meantime, the court shall order that the mentally
24incompetent defendant be delivered by the sheriff or other person
25designated by the court to a state hospital or developmental center
26for the care and treatment of the developmentally disabled or any
27other available residential facility approved by the director of a
28regional center for the developmentally disabled established under
29Division 4.5 (commencing with Section 4500) of the Welfare and
30Institutions Code as will promote the defendant’s speedy attainment
31of mental competence, or be placed on outpatient status pursuant
32to the provisions of Section 1370.4 and Title 15 (commencing with
33Section 1600).

34(ii) However, if the action against the defendant who has been
35found mentally incompetent is on a complaint charging a felony
36offense specified in Section 290, the prosecutor shall determine
37whether the defendant previously has been found mentally
38incompetent to stand trial pursuant to this chapter on a charge of
39a Section 290 offense, or whether the defendant is currently the
40subject of a pending Section 1368 proceeding arising out of a
P317  1charge of a Section 290 offense. If either determination is made,
2the prosecutor shall so notify the court and defendant in writing.
3After this notification, and opportunity for hearing, the court shall
4order that the defendant be delivered by the sheriff to a state
5hospital or other secure treatment facility for the care and treatment
6of the developmentally disabled unless the court makes specific
7findings on the record that an alternative placement would provide
8more appropriate treatment for the defendant and would not pose
9a danger to the health and safety of others.

10(iii) If the action against the defendant who has been found
11mentally incompetent is on a complaint charging a felony offense
12specified in Section 290 and the defendant has been denied bail
13pursuant to subdivision (b) of Section 12 of Article I of the
14California Constitution because the court has found, based upon
15clear and convincing evidence, a substantial likelihood that the
16person’s release would result in great bodily harm to others, the
17court shall order that the defendant be delivered by the sheriff to
18a state hospital for the care and treatment of the developmentally
19disabled unless the court makes specific findings on the record
20that an alternative placement would provide more appropriate
21treatment for the defendant and would not pose a danger to the
22health and safety of others.

23(iv) The clerk of the court shall notify the Department of Justice
24in writing of any finding of mental incompetence with respect to
25a defendant who is subject to clause (ii) or (iii) for inclusion in his
26or her state summary criminal history information.

27(C) Upon becoming competent, the court shall order that the
28defendant be returned to the committing court pursuant to the
29procedures set forth in paragraph (2) of subdivision (a) of Section
301372 or by another person designated by the court. The court shall
31further determine conditions under which the person may be absent
32from the placement for medical treatment, social visits, and other
33similar activities. Required levels of supervision and security for
34these activities shall be specified.

35(D) The court shall transmit a copy of its order to the regional
36center director or designee and to the Director of Developmental
37Services.

38(E) A defendant charged with a violent felony may not be placed
39in a facility or delivered to a state hospital, developmental center,
40or residential facility pursuant to this subdivision unless the facility,
P318  1state hospital, developmental center, or residential facility has a
2secured perimeter or a locked and controlled treatment facility,
3and the judge determines that the public safety will be protected.

4(F) For purposes of this paragraph, “violent felony” means an
5offense specified in subdivision (c) of Section 667.5.

6(G) A defendant charged with a violent felony may be placed
7on outpatient status, as specified in Section 1370.4 or 1600, only
8if the court finds that the placement will not pose a danger to the
9health or safety of others.

10(H) As used in this section, “developmental disability” means
11a disability that originates before an individual attains 18 years of
12age, continues, or can be expected to continue, indefinitely and
13constitutes a substantial handicap for the individual, and shall not
14include other handicapping conditions that are solely physical in
15nature. As defined by the Director of Developmental Services, in
16consultation with the Superintendent of Public Instruction, this
17term shall include intellectual disability, cerebral palsy, epilepsy,
18and autism. This term shall also include handicapping conditions
19found to be closely related to intellectual disability or to require
20treatment similar to that required for individuals with an intellectual
21disability, but shall not include other handicapping conditions that
22are solely physical in nature.

23(2) Prior to making the order directing that the defendant be
24confined in a state hospital, developmental center, or other
25residential facility, or be placed on outpatient status, the court shall
26order the regional center director or designee to evaluate the
27defendant and to submit to the court within 15 judicial days of the
28order a written recommendation as to whether the defendant should
29be committed to a state hospital or developmental center or to any
30other available residential facility approved by the regional center
31director. A person shall not be admitted to a state hospital,
32 developmental center, or other residential facility or accepted for
33outpatient status under Section 1370.4 without having been
34evaluated by the regional center director or designee.

35(3) When the court orders that the defendant be confined in a
36state hospital or other secure treatment facility pursuant to clause
37(ii) or (iii) of subparagraph (B) of paragraph (1), the court shall
38provide copies of the following documents which shall be taken
39with the defendant to the state hospital or other secure treatment
40facility where the defendant is to be confined:

P319  1(A) State summary criminal history information.

2(B) Any arrest reports prepared by the police department or
3other law enforcement agency.

4(C) Records of a finding of mental incompetence pursuant to
5this chapter arising out of a complaint charging a felony offense
6specified in Section 290 or a pending Section 1368 proceeding
7arising out of a charge of a Section 290 offense.

8(4) When the defendant is committed to a residential facility
9pursuant to clause (i) of subparagraph (B) of paragraph (1) or the
10court makes the findings specified in clause (ii) or (iii) of
11subparagraph (B) of paragraph (1) to assign the defendant to a
12facility other than a state hospital or other secure treatment facility,
13the court shall order that notice be given to the appropriate law
14enforcement agency or agencies having local jurisdiction at the
15site of the placement facility of a finding of mental incompetence
16pursuant to this chapter arising out of a charge of a Section 290
17offense.

18(5) (A) If the defendant is committed or transferred to a state
19hospital or developmental center pursuant to this section, the court
20may, upon receiving the written recommendation of the executive
21director of the state hospital or developmental center and the
22regional center director that the defendant be transferred to a
23residential facility approved by the regional center director, order
24the defendant transferred to that facility. If the defendant is
25committed or transferred to a residential facility approved by the
26regional center director, the court may, upon receiving the written
27recommendation of the regional center director, transfer the
28defendant to a state hospital or developmental center or to another
29residential facility approved by the regional center director.

30In the event of dismissal of the criminal charges before the
31defendant recovers competence, the person shall be subject to the
32applicable provisions of the Lanterman-Petris-Short Act (Part 1
33(commencing with Section 5000) of Division 5 of the Welfare and
34Institutions Code) or to commitment or detention pursuant to a
35petition filed pursuant to Section 6502 of the Welfare and
36Institutions Code.

37The defendant or prosecuting attorney may contest either kind
38of order of transfer by filing a petition with the court for a hearing,
39which shall be held if the court determines that sufficient grounds
40exist. At the hearing, the prosecuting attorney or the defendant
P320  1may present evidence bearing on the order of transfer. The court
2shall use the same standards as used in conducting probation
3revocation hearings pursuant to Section 1203.2.

4Prior to making an order for transfer under this section, the court
5shall notify the defendant, the attorney of record for the defendant,
6the prosecuting attorney, and the regional center director or
7designee.

8(B) If the defendant is committed to a state hospital or secure
9treatment facility pursuant to clause (ii) or (iii) of subparagraph
10(B) of paragraph (1) and is subsequently transferred to another
11facility, copies of the documents specified in paragraph (3) shall
12be taken with the defendant to the new facility. The transferring
13facility shall also notify the appropriate law enforcement agency
14or agencies having local jurisdiction at the site of the new facility
15that the defendant is a person subject to clause (ii) or (iii) of
16subparagraph (B) of paragraph (1).

17(b) (1) Within 90 days of admission of a person committed
18pursuant to subdivision (a), the executive director or designee of
19the state hospital, developmental center, or other facility to which
20the defendant is committed, or the outpatient supervisor where the
21defendant is placed on outpatient status, shall make a written report
22to the committing court and the regional center director or a
23designee concerning the defendant’s progress toward becoming
24mentally competent. If the defendant has not become mentally
25competent, but the report discloses a substantial likelihood the
26defendant will become mentally competent within the next 90
27days, the court may order that the defendant shall remain in the
28state hospital, developmental center, or other facility or on
29outpatient status for that period of time. Within 150 days of an
30admission made pursuant to subdivision (a) or if the defendant
31becomes mentally competent, the executive director or designee
32of the hospital or developmental center or person in charge of the
33facility or the outpatient supervisor shall report to the court and
34the regional center director or his or her designee regarding the
35defendant’s progress toward becoming mentally competent. The
36court shall provide to the prosecutor and defense counsel copies
37of all reports under this section. If the report indicates that there
38is no substantial likelihood that the defendant has become mentally
39competent, the committing court shall order the defendant to be
40returned to the court for proceedings pursuant to paragraph (2) of
P321  1subdivision (c). The court shall transmit a copy of its order to the
2regional center director or designee and to the executive director
3of the developmental center.

4(2) A defendant who has been committed or has been on
5outpatient status for 18 months, and is still hospitalized or on
6outpatient status, shall be returned to the committing court where
7a hearing shall be held pursuant to the procedures set forth in
8Section 1369. The court shall transmit a copy of its order to the
9regional center director or designee and the executive director of
10the developmental center.

11(3) If it is determined by the court that no treatment for the
12defendant’s mental impairment is being conducted, the defendant
13shall be returned to the committing court. A copy of this order
14shall be sent to the regional center director or designee and to the
15 executive director of the developmental center.

16(4) At each review by the court specified in this subdivision,
17the court shall determine if the security level of housing and
18treatment is appropriate and may make an order in accordance
19with its determination.

20(c) (1) (A) At the end of three years from the date of
21commitment or a period of commitment equal to the maximum
22term of imprisonment provided by law for the most serious offense
23charged in the information, indictment, or misdemeanor complaint,
24whichever is shorter, a defendant who has not become mentally
25competent shall be returned to the committing court.

26(B) The court shall notify the regional center director or designee
27and the executive director of the developmental center of that
28return and of any resulting court orders.

29(2) In the event of dismissal of the criminal charges before the
30defendant becomes mentally competent, the defendant shall be
31subject to the applicable provisions of the Lanterman-Petris-Short
32Act (Part 1 (commencing with Section 5000) of Division 5 of the
33Welfare and Institutions Code), or to commitment and detention
34pursuant to a petition filed pursuant to Section 6502 of the Welfare
35and Institutions Code. If it is found that the person is not subject
36to commitment or detention pursuant to the applicable provision
37of the Lanterman-Petris-Short Act (Part 1 (commencing with
38Section 5000) of Division 5 of the Welfare and Institutions Code)
39or to commitment or detention pursuant to a petition filed pursuant
40to Section 6502 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, the individual
P322  1shall not be subject to further confinement pursuant to this article
2and the criminal action remains subject to dismissal pursuant to
3Section 1385. The court shall notify the regional center director
4and the executive director of the developmental center of any
5dismissal.

6(d) Notwithstanding any other provision of this section, the
7criminal action remains subject to dismissal pursuant to Section
81385. If at any time prior to the maximum period of time allowed
9for proceedings under this article, the regional center director
10concludes that the behavior of the defendant related to the
11defendant’s criminal offense has been eliminated during time spent
12in court-ordered programs, the court may, upon recommendation
13of the regional center director, dismiss the criminal charges. The
14court shall transmit a copy of any order of dismissal to the regional
15center director and to the executive director of the developmental
16center.

17(e) For the purpose of this section, “secure treatment facility”
18shall not include, except for state mental hospitals, state
19 developmental centers, and correctional treatment facilities, a
20facility licensed pursuant to Chapter 2 (commencing with Section
211250) of, Chapter 3 (commencing with Section 1500) of, or Chapter
223.2 (commencing with Section 1569) of, Division 2 of the Health
23and Safety Code, or a community board and care facility.

24

SEC. 157.  

Section 2602 of the Penal Code is amended to read:

25

2602.  

(a) Except as provided in subdivision (b), no person
26sentenced to imprisonment or housed in a state prison shall be
27administered any psychiatric medication without his or her prior
28informed consent.

29(b) If a psychiatrist determines that an inmate should be treated
30with psychiatric medication, but the inmate does not consent, the
31inmate may be involuntarily treated with the medication. Treatment
32may be given on either a nonemergency basis as provided in
33subdivision (c), or on an emergency or interim basis as provided
34in subdivision (d).

35(c) The Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation may seek
36to initiate involuntary medication on a nonemergency basis only
37if all of the following conditions have been met:

38(1) A psychiatrist has determined that the inmate has a serious
39mental disorder.

P323  1(2) A psychiatrist has determined that, as a result of that mental
2disorder, the inmate is gravely disabled and does not have the
3capacity to refuse treatment with psychiatric medications or is a
4danger to self or others.

5(3) A psychiatrist has prescribed one or more psychiatric
6medications for the treatment of the inmate’s disorder, has
7considered the risks, benefits, and treatment alternatives to
8involuntary medication, and has determined that the treatment
9alternatives to involuntary medication are unlikely to meet the
10needs of the patient.

11(4) The inmate has been advised of the risks and benefits of,
12and treatment alternatives to, the psychiatric medication and refuses
13or is unable to consent to the administration of the medication.

14(5) The inmate is provided a hearing before an administrative
15law judge.

16(6) The inmate is provided counsel at least 21 days prior to the
17hearing, unless emergency or interim medication is being
18administered pursuant to subdivision (d), in which case the inmate
19would receive expedited access to counsel. The hearing shall be
20held not more than 30 days after the filing of the notice with the
21Office of Administrative Hearings, unless counsel for the inmate
22agrees to extend the date of the hearing.

23(7) The inmate and counsel are provided with written notice of
24the hearing at least 21 days prior to the hearing, unless emergency
25or interim medication is being administered pursuant to subdivision
26(d), in which case the inmate would receive an expedited hearing.
27The written notice shall do all of the following:

28(A) Set forth the diagnosis, the factual basis for the diagnosis,
29the basis upon which psychiatric medication is recommended, the
30expected benefits of the medication, any potential side effects and
31risks to the inmate from the medication, and any alternatives to
32treatment with the medication.

33(B) Advise the inmate of the right to be present at the hearing,
34the right to be represented by counsel at all stages of the
35proceedings, the right to present evidence, and the right to
36cross-examine witnesses. Counsel for the inmate shall have access
37to all medical records and files of the inmate, but shall not have
38access to the confidential section of the inmate’s central file which
39contains materials unrelated to medical treatment.

P324  1(C) Inform the inmate of his or her right to contest the finding
2of an administrative law judge authorizing treatment with
3involuntary medication by filing a petition for writ of
4administrative mandamus pursuant to Section 1094.5 of the Code
5of Civil Procedure, and his or her right to file a petition for writ
6of habeas corpus with respect to any decision of the Department
7of Corrections and Rehabilitation to continue treatment with
8involuntary medication after the administrative law judge has
9authorized treatment with involuntary medication.

10(8) An administrative law judge determines by clear and
11convincing evidence that the inmate has a mental illness or
12disorder, that as a result of that illness the inmate is gravely
13disabled and lacks the capacity to consent to or refuse treatment
14with psychiatric medications or is a danger to self or others if not
15medicated, that there is no less intrusive alternative to involuntary
16medication, and that the medication is in the inmate’s best medical
17interest. Failure of the department to provide timely or adequate
18notice pursuant to this section shall be excused only upon a
19showing of good cause and the absence of prejudice to the inmate.
20In making this determination, the administrative law judge may
21consider factors, including, but not limited to, the ability of the
22inmate’s counsel to adequately prepare the case and to confer with
23the inmate, the continuity of care, and, if applicable, the need for
24protection of the inmate or institutional staff that would be
25compromised by a procedural default.

26(9) The historical course of the inmate’s mental disorder, as
27determined by available relevant information about the course of
28the inmate’s mental disorder, shall be considered when it has direct
29bearing on the determination of whether the inmate is a danger to
30self or others, or is gravely disabled and incompetent to refuse
31medication as the result of a mental disorder.

32(10) An inmate is entitled to file one motion for reconsideration
33following a determination that he or she may receive involuntary
34medication, and may seek a hearing to present new evidence, upon
35good cause shown.

36(d) This section does not prohibit a physician from taking
37appropriate action in an emergency. An emergency exists when
38there is a sudden and marked change in an inmate’s mental
39condition so that action is immediately necessary for the
40preservation of life or the prevention of serious bodily harm to the
P325  1inmate or others, and it is impractical, due to the seriousness of
2the emergency, to first obtain informed consent. If psychiatric
3medication is administered during an emergency, the medication
4shall only be that which is required to treat the emergency condition
5and shall be administered for only so long as the emergency
6continues to exist. If the Department of Corrections and
7Rehabilitation’s clinicians identify a situation that jeopardizes the
8inmate’s health or well-being as the result of a serious mental
9illness, and necessitates the continuation of medication beyond
10the initial 72 hours pending the full mental health hearing, the
11department shall give notice to the inmate and his or her counsel
12of the department’s intention to seek an ex parte order to allow the
13continuance of medication pending the full hearing. The notice
14shall be served upon the inmate and counsel at the same time the
15inmate is given the written notice that the involuntary medication
16proceedings are being initiated and is appointed counsel as
17provided in subdivision (c). The order may be issued ex parte upon
18a showing that in the absence of the medication the emergency
19conditions are likely to recur. The request for an ex parte order
20shall be supported by an affidavit from the psychiatrist showing
21specific facts. The inmate and the inmate’s appointed counsel shall
22have two business days to respond to the department’s ex parte
23request to continue interim medication, and may present facts
24supported by an affidavit in opposition to the department’s request.
25An administrative law judge shall review the ex parte request and
26shall have three business days to determine the merits of the
27department’s request for an ex parte order. If an order is issued,
28the psychiatrist may continue the administration of the medication
29until the hearing described in paragraph (5) of subdivision (c) is
30held.

31(1) The Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation shall file
32with the Office of Administrative Hearings, and serve on the inmate
33and his or her counsel, the written notice described in paragraph
34(7) of subdivision (c) within 72 hours of commencing medication
35pursuant to this subdivision, unless either of the following occurs:

36(A) The inmate gives informed consent to continue the
37medication.

38(B) A psychiatrist determines that the psychiatric medication
39is not necessary and administration of the medication is
40discontinued.

P326  1(2) If medication is being administered pursuant to this
2subdivision, the hearing described in paragraph (5) of subdivision
3(c) shall commence within 21 days of the filing and service of the
4notice, unless counsel for an inmate agrees to a different period
5of time.

6(3) With the exception of the timeline provisions specified in
7paragraphs (1) and (2) for providing notice and commencement
8of the hearing pursuant to the conditions specified in this
9subdivision, the inmate shall be entitled to and be given the same
10due process protections as specified in subdivision (c). The
11department shall prove the same elements supporting the
12involuntary administration of psychiatric medication and the
13 administrative law judge shall be required to make the same
14findings described in subdivision (c).

15(e) The determination that an inmate may receive involuntary
16medication shall be valid for one year from the date of the
17determination, regardless of whether the inmate subsequently gives
18his or her informed consent.

19(f) If a determination has been made to involuntarily medicate
20an inmate pursuant to subdivision (c) or (d), the medication shall
21be discontinued one year after the date of that determination, unless
22the inmate gives his or her informed consent to the administration
23of the medication, or unless a new determination is made pursuant
24to the procedures set forth in subdivision (g).

25(g) To renew an existing order allowing involuntary medication,
26the department shall file with the Office of Administrative
27 Hearings, and shall serve on the inmate and his or her counsel, a
28written notice indicating the department’s intent to renew the
29existing involuntary medication order.

30(1) The request to renew the order shall be filed and served no
31later than 21 days prior to the expiration of the current order
32authorizing involuntary medication.

33(2) The inmate shall be entitled to, and shall be given, the same
34due process protections as specified in subdivision (c).

35(3) Renewal orders shall be valid for one year from the date of
36the hearing.

37(4) An order renewing an existing order shall be granted based
38on clear and convincing evidence that the inmate has a serious
39mental disorder that requires treatment with psychiatric medication,
40and that, but for the medication, the inmate would revert to the
P327  1behavior that was the basis for the prior order authorizing
2involuntary medication, coupled with evidence that the inmate
3lacks insight regarding his or her need for the medication, such
4that it is unlikely that the inmate would be able to manage his or
5her own medication and treatment regimen. No new acts need be
6alleged or proven.

7(5) If the department wishes to add a basis to an existing order,
8the department shall give the inmate and the inmate’s counsel
9notice in advance of the hearing via a renewal notice or
10supplemental petition. Within the renewal notice or supplemental
11petition, the department shall specify what additional basis is being
12alleged and what qualifying conduct within the past year supports
13that additional basis. The department shall prove the additional
14basis and conduct by clear and convincing evidence at a hearing
15as specified in subdivision (c).

16(6) The hearing on any petition to renew an order for involuntary
17medication shall be conducted prior to the expiration of the current
18order.

19(h) Pursuant to Section 5058, the Department of Corrections
20and Rehabilitation shall adopt regulations to fully implement this
21section.

22(i) In the event of a conflict between the provisions of this
23section and the Administrative Procedure Act (Chapter 4.5
24(commencing with Section 11400) of Part 1 of Division 3 of the
25Government Code), this section shall control.

26

SEC. 158.  

Section 3000.08 of the Penal Code, as amended by
27Section 35 of Chapter 43 of the Statutes of 2012, is amended to
28read:

29

3000.08.  

(a) Persons released from state prison prior to or on
30or after July 1, 2013, after serving a prison term or, whose sentence
31has been deemed served pursuant to Section 2900.5, for any of the
32following crimes shall be subject to parole supervision by the
33Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation and the jurisdiction
34of the court in the county where the parolee is released or resides
35for the purpose of hearing petitions to revoke parole and impose
36a term of custody:

37(1) A serious felony as described in subdivision (c) of Section
381192.7.

39(2) A violent felony as described in subdivision (c) of Section
40667.5.

P328  1(3) A crime for which the person was sentenced pursuant to
2paragraph (2) of subdivision (e) of Section 667 or paragraph (2)
3of subdivision (c) of Section 1170.12.

4(4) Any crime where the person eligible for release from prison
5is classified as a High Risk Sex Offender.

6(5) Any crime where the person is required, as a condition of
7parole, to undergo treatment by the State Department of State
8Hospitals pursuant to Section 2962.

9(b) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, all other
10offenders released from prison shall be placed on postrelease
11supervision pursuant to Title 2.05 (commencing with Section
123450).

13(c) At any time during the period of parole of a person subject
14to this section, if any parole agent or peace officer has probable
15cause to believe that the parolee is violating any term or condition
16of his or her parole, the agent or officer may, without warrant or
17other process and at any time until the final disposition of the case,
18arrest the person and bring him or her before the court, or the court
19may, in its discretion, issue a warrant for that person’s arrest
20pursuant to Section 1203.2.

21(d) Upon review of the alleged violation and a finding of good
22cause that the parolee has committed a violation of law or violated
23his or her conditions of parole, the supervising parole agency may
24impose additional and appropriate conditions of supervision,
25including rehabilitation and treatment services and appropriate
26incentives for compliance, and impose immediate, structured, and
27intermediate sanctions for parole violations, including flash
28incarceration in a county jail. Periods of “flash incarceration,” as
29defined in subdivision (e), are encouraged as one method of
30punishment for violations of a parolee’s conditions of parole.
31Nothing in this section is intended to preclude referrals to a reentry
32court pursuant to Section 3015.

33(e) “Flash incarceration” is a period of detention in a county
34jail due to a violation of a parolee’s conditions of parole. The length
35of the detention period can range between one and 10 consecutive
36days. Shorter, but if necessary more frequent, periods of detention
37for violations of a parolee’s conditions of parole shall appropriately
38punish a parolee while preventing the disruption in a work or home
39establishment that typically arises from longer periods of detention.

P329  1(f) If the supervising parole agency has determined, following
2application of its assessment processes, that intermediate sanctions
3up to and including flash incarceration are not appropriate, the
4supervising parole agency shall, pursuant to Section 1203.2,
5petition the court in the county in which the parolee is being
6supervised to revoke parole. At any point during the process
7initiated pursuant to this section, a parolee may waive, in writing,
8his or her right to counsel, admit the parole violation, waive a court
9hearing, and accept the proposed parole modification or revocation.
10The petition shall include a written report that contains additional
11information regarding the petition, including the relevant terms
12and conditions of parole, the circumstances of the alleged
13underlying violation, the history and background of the parolee,
14and any recommendations. The Judicial Council shall adopt forms
15and rules of court to establish uniform statewide procedures to
16implement this subdivision, including the minimum contents of
17supervision agency reports. Upon a finding that the person has
18violated the conditions of parole, the court shall have authority to
19do any of the following:

20(1) Return the person to parole supervision with modifications
21of conditions, if appropriate, including a period of incarceration
22in a county jail.

23(2) Revoke parole and order the person to confinement in a
24county jail.

25(3) Refer the person to a reentry court pursuant to Section 3015
26or other evidence-based program in the court’s discretion.

27(g) Confinement pursuant to paragraphs (1) and (2) of
28subdivision (f) shall not exceed a period of 180 days in a county
29jail.

30(h) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, in any case
31where Section 3000.1 or paragraph (4) of subdivision (b) of Section
323000 applies to a person who is on parole and the court determines
33that the person has committed a violation of law or violated his or
34her conditions of parole, the person on parole shall be remanded
35to the custody of the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation
36and the jurisdiction of the Board of Parole Hearings for the purpose
37of future parole consideration.

38(i) Notwithstanding subdivision (a), any of the following persons
39released from state prison shall be subject to the jurisdiction of,
40and parole supervision by, the Department of Corrections and
P330  1Rehabilitation for a period of parole up to three years or the parole
2term the person was subject to at the time of the commission of
3the offense, whichever is greater:

4(1) The person is required to register as a sex offender pursuant
5to Chapter 5.5 (commencing with Section 290) of Title 9 of Part
61, and was subject to a period of parole exceeding three years at
7the time he or she committed a felony for which he or she was
8convicted and subsequently sentenced to state prison.

9(2) The person was subject to parole for life pursuant to Section
103000.1 at the time of the commission of the offense that resulted
11in a conviction and state prison sentence.

12(j) Parolees subject to this section who have a pending
13adjudication for a parole violation on July 1, 2013, shall be subject
14to the jurisdiction of the Board of Parole Hearings. Parole
15revocation proceedings conducted by the Board of Parole Hearings
16prior to July 1, 2013, if reopened on or after July 1, 2013, shall be
17subject to the jurisdiction of the Board of Parole Hearings.

18(k) Except as described in subdivision (c), any person who is
19convicted of a felony that requires community supervision and
20who still has a period of state parole to serve shall discharge from
21state parole at the time of release to community supervision.

22(l) This section shall become operative on July 1, 2013.

23

SEC. 159.  

Section 3060.7 of the Penal Code, as added by
24Section 48 of Chapter 43 of the Statutes of 2012, is amended to
25read:

26

3060.7.  

(a) (1) Notwithstanding any other law, the supervising
27parole agency shall notify any person released on parole or
28postrelease community supervision pursuant to Title 2.05
29(commencing with Section 3450) of Part 3 who has been classified
30by the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation as included
31within the highest control or risk classification that he or she shall
32be required to report to his or her assigned parole officer or
33designated local supervising agency within two days of release
34from the state prison.

35(2) This section shall not prohibit the supervising parole agency
36or local supervising agency from requiring any person released on
37parole or postrelease community supervision to report to his or
38her assigned parole officer within a time period that is less than
39two days from the time of release.

P331  1(b) The supervising parole agency, within 24 hours of a parolee’s
2failure to report as required by this section, shall issue a written
3order suspending the parole of that parolee, pending a hearing
4before the Board of Parole Hearings or the court, as applicable,
5and shall request that a warrant be issued for the parolee’s arrest
6pursuant to subdivision (c) of Section 3000.08.

7(c) Upon the issuance of an arrest warrant for a parolee who
8has been classified within the highest control or risk classification,
9the assigned parole officer shall continue to carry the parolee on
10his or her regular caseload and shall continue to search for the
11parolee’s whereabouts.

12(d) With regard to any inmate subject to this section, the
13Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation shall release an
14inmate sentenced prior to June 27, 2012, one or two days before
15his or her scheduled release date if the inmate’s release date falls
16on the day before a holiday or weekend.

17(e) With regard to any inmate subject to this section, the
18Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation shall release an
19inmate one or two days after his or her scheduled release date if
20the release date falls on the day before a holiday or weekend.

21(f) This section shall become operative on July 1, 2013.

22

SEC. 160.  

Section 4024.2 of the Penal Code is amended to
23read:

24

4024.2.  

(a) Notwithstanding any other law, the board of
25supervisors of any county may authorize the sheriff or other official
26in charge of county correctional facilities to offer a voluntary
27program under which any person committed to the facility may
28participate in a work release program pursuant to criteria described
29in subdivision (b), in which one day of participation will be in lieu
30of one day of confinement.

31(b) The criteria for a work release program are the following:

32(1) The work release program shall consist of any of the
33following:

34(A) Manual labor to improve or maintain levees or public
35facilities, including, but not limited to, streets, parks, and schools.

36(B) Manual labor in support of nonprofit organizations, as
37approved by the sheriff or other official in charge of the
38correctional facilities. As a condition of assigning participants of
39a work release program to perform manual labor in support of
40nonprofit organizations pursuant to this section, the board of
P332  1supervisors shall obtain workers’ compensation insurance which
2shall be adequate to cover work-related injuries incurred by those
3participants, in accordance with Section 3363.5 of the Labor Code.

4(C) Performance of graffiti cleanup for local governmental
5entities, including participation in a graffiti abatement program as
6defined in subdivision (f) of Section 594, as approved by the sheriff
7or other official in charge of the correctional facilities.

8(D) Performance of weed and rubbish abatement on public and
9private property pursuant to Chapter 13 (commencing with Section
1039501) of Part 2 of Division 3 of Title 4 of the Government Code,
11or Part 5 (commencing with Section 14875) or Part 6 (commencing
12with Section 14930) of Division 12 of the Health and Safety Code,
13as approved by the sheriff or other official in charge of the
14correctional facilities.

15(E) Performance of house repairs or yard services for senior
16citizens and the performance of repairs to senior centers through
17contact with local senior service organizations, as approved by the
18sheriff or other official in charge of the correctional facilities.
19Where a work release participant has been assigned to this task,
20the sheriff or other official shall agree upon in advance with the
21senior service organization about the type of services to be rendered
22by the participant and the extent of contact permitted between the
23recipients of these services and the participant.

24(F) Any person who is not able to perform manual labor as
25specified in this paragraph because of a medical condition, physical
26disability, or age, may participate in a work release program
27involving any other type of public sector work that is designated
28and approved by the sheriff or other official in charge of county
29correctional facilities.

30(2) The sheriff or other official may permit a participant in a
31work release program to receive work release credit for documented
32participation in educational programs, vocational programs,
33substance abuse programs, life skills programs, or parenting
34programs. Participation in these programs shall be considered in
35lieu of performing labor in a work release program, with eight
36work-related hours to equal one day of custody credit.

37(3) The work release program shall be under the direction of a
38responsible person appointed by the sheriff or other official in
39charge.

P333  1(4) The hours of labor to be performed pursuant to this section
2shall be uniform for all persons committed to a facility in a county
3and may be determined by the sheriff or other official in charge
4of county correctional facilities, and each day shall be a minimum
5of 8 and a maximum of 10 hours, in accordance with the normal
6working hours of county employees assigned to supervise the
7programs. However, reasonable accommodation may be made for
8participation in a program under paragraph (2).

9As used in this section, “nonprofit organizations” means
10organizations established or operated for the benefit of the public
11or in support of a significant public interest, as set forth in Section
12501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code. Organizations established
13or operated for the primary purpose of benefiting their own
14memberships are excluded.

15(c) The board of supervisors may prescribe reasonable rules and
16regulations under which a work release program is operated and
17may provide that participants wear clothing of a distinctive
18character while performing the work. As a condition of
19participating in a work release program, a person shall give his or
20her promise to appear for work or assigned activity by signing a
21notice to appear before the sheriff or at the education, vocational,
22or substance abuse program at a time and place specified in the
23notice and shall sign an agreement that the sheriff may immediately
24retake the person into custody to serve the balance of his or her
25sentence if the person fails to appear for the program at the time
26and place agreed to, does not perform the work or activity assigned,
27or for any other reason is no longer a fit subject for release under
28this section. A copy of the notice shall be delivered to the person
29and a copy shall be retained by the sheriff. Any person who
30willfully violates his or her written promise to appear at the time
31and place specified in the notice is guilty of a misdemeanor.

32Whenever a peace officer has reasonable cause to believe the
33person has failed to appear at the time and place specified in the
34notice or fails to appear or work at the time and place agreed to or
35has failed to perform the work assigned, the peace officer may,
36without a warrant, retake the person into custody, or the court may
37issue an arrest warrant for the retaking of the person into custody,
38to complete the remainder of the original sentence. A peace officer
39may not retake a person into custody under this subdivision,
40without a warrant for arrest, unless the officer has a written order
P334  1to do so, signed by the sheriff or other person in charge of the
2program, that describes with particularity the person to be retaken.

3(d) This section does not require the sheriff or other official in
4charge to assign a person to a program pursuant to this section if
5it appears from the record that the person has refused to
6satisfactorily perform as assigned or has not satisfactorily complied
7with the reasonable rules and regulations governing the assignment
8or any other order of the court.

9A person shall be eligible for work release under this section
10only if the sheriff or other official in charge concludes that the
11person is a fit subject therefor.

12(e) The board of supervisors may prescribe a program
13administrative fee, not to exceed the pro rata cost of administration,
14to be paid by each person according to his or her ability to pay.

15

SEC. 161.  

Section 4115.55 of the Penal Code is amended to
16read:

17

4115.55.  

(a) Upon agreement with the sheriff or director of
18the county department of corrections, a board of supervisors may
19enter into a contract with other public agencies to provide housing
20for inmates sentenced to a county jail in community correctional
21facilities created pursuant to Article 1.5 (commencing with Section
222910) of Chapter 7 of Title 1 or Chapter 9.5 (commencing with
23Section 6250) of Title 7.

24(b) Facilities operated pursuant to agreements entered into under
25subdivision (a) shall comply with the minimum standards for local
26detention facilities as provided by Chapter 1 (commencing with
27Section 3000) of Division 3 of Title 15 of the California Code of
28Regulations.

29

SEC. 162.  

Section 5072 of the Penal Code is amended to read:

30

5072.  

(a) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, the
31Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation and the State
32Department of Health Care Services may develop a process to
33maximize federal financial participation for the provision of acute
34inpatient hospital services rendered to individuals who, but for
35their institutional status as inmates, are otherwise eligible for
36Medi-Cal pursuant to Chapter 7 (commencing with Section 14000)
37of Part 3 of Division 9 of the Welfare and Institutions Code or a
38Low Income Health Program (LIHP) pursuant to Part 3.6
39(commencing with Section 15909) of Division 9 of the Welfare
40and Institutions Code.

P335  1(b) Federal reimbursement for acute inpatient hospital services
2for inmates enrolled in Medi-Cal shall occur through the State
3Department of Health Care Services and federal reimbursement
4for acute inpatient hospital services for inmates not enrolled in
5Medi-Cal but who are eligible for a LIHP shall occur through a
6county LIHP.

7(c) (1) The Secretary of the Department of Corrections and
8Rehabilitation, in conjunction with the State Department of Health
9Care Services, shall develop a process to claim federal financial
10participation and to reimburse the Department of Corrections and
11Rehabilitation for the federal share of the allowable Medicaid cost
12provision of acute inpatient hospital services rendered to inmates
13according to this section and for any administrative costs incurred
14in support of those services.

15(2) Public or community hospitals shall invoice the Department
16of Corrections and Rehabilitation to obtain reimbursement for
17acute inpatient hospital services in accordance with contracted
18 rates of reimbursement, or if no contract is in place, the rates
19pursuant to Section 5023.5. The Department of Corrections and
20Rehabilitation shall reimburse a public or community hospital for
21the delivery of acute inpatient hospital services rendered to an
22inmate pursuant to this section. For individuals eligible for
23Medi-Cal pursuant to this section, the Department of Corrections
24and Rehabilitation shall submit a quarterly invoice to the State
25Department of Health Care Services for claiming federal
26participation at the Medi-Cal rate for acute inpatient hospital
27services. For enrollees in the LIHP, the Department of Corrections
28and Rehabilitation shall submit a quarterly invoice to the county
29of last legal residence pursuant to Section 14053.7 of the Welfare
30and Institutions Code. The county shall submit the invoice to the
31State Department of Health Care Services for claiming federal
32financial participation for acute inpatient hospital services for
33individuals made eligible pursuant to this section, pursuant to
34Section 14053.7 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, and pursuant
35to the process developed in subdivision (b). The State Department
36of Health Care Services shall claim federal participation for eligible
37services for LIHP enrolled inmates at the rate paid by the
38Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation. The State
39Department of Health Care Services and counties shall remit funds
40received for federal participation to the Department of Corrections
P336  1and Rehabilitation for allowable costs incurred as a result of
2delivering acute inpatient hospital services allowable under this
3section.

4(3) The county LIHPs shall not experience any additional net
5expenditures of county funds due to the provision of services under
6this section.

7(4) The Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation shall
8reimburse the State Department of Health Care Services and
9counties for administrative costs that are not reimbursed by the
10federal government.

11(5) The Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation shall
12reimburse the State Department of Health Care Services for any
13disallowance that is required to be returned to the Centers for
14Medicare and Medicaid Services for any litigation costs incurred
15due to the implementation of this section.

16(d) (1) The state shall indemnify and hold harmless participating
17entities that operate a LIHP, including all counties, and all counties
18that operate in a consortium that participates as a LIHP, against
19any and all losses, including, but not limited to, claims, demands,
20liabilities, court costs, judgments, or obligations, due to the
21implementation of this section as directed by the secretary and the
22State Department of Health Care Services.

23(2) The State Department of Health Care Services may at its
24discretion require a county, as a condition of participation as a
25LIHP, to enroll an eligible inmate into its LIHP if the county is
26the inmate’s county of last legal residence.

27(3) The county LIHPs shall be held harmless by the state for
28any disallowance or deferral if federal action is taken due to the
29implementation of this section in accord with the state’s policies,
30directions, and requirements.

31(e) (1) The Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation, in
32conjunction with the State Department of Health Care Services,
33shall develop a process to facilitate eligibility determinations for
34individuals who may be eligible for Medi-Cal or a LIHP pursuant
35to this section and Section 14053.7 of the Welfare and Institutions
36Code.

37(2) The Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation shall
38assist inmates in completing either the Medi-Cal or LIHP
39application as appropriate and shall forward that application to the
40State Department of Health Care Services for processing.

P337  1(3) Notwithstanding any other state law, and only to the extent
2that federal law allows and federal financial participation is
3available, for the limited purpose of implementing this section,
4the department or its designee is authorized to act on behalf of an
5inmate for purposes of applying for or determinations of Medi-Cal
6or LIHP eligibility.

7(f) (1) This section does not restrict or limit the eligibility or
8alter county responsibility for payment of any service delivered
9to a parolee who has been released from detention or incarceration
10and now resides in a county that participates in the LIHP. If
11otherwise eligible for the county’s LIHP, the LIHP shall enroll the
12parolee.

13(2) Notwithstanding paragraph (1), at the option of the state,
14for enrolled parolees who have been released from detention or
15incarceration and now reside in a county that participates in a
16LIHP, the LIHP shall reimburse providers for the delivery of
17services which are otherwise the responsibility of the state to
18provide. Payment for these medical services, including both the
19state and federal shares of reimbursement, shall be included as
20part of the reimbursement process described in paragraph (1) of
21subdivision (c).

22(3) Enrollment of individuals in a LIHP under this subdivision
23shall be subject to any enrollment limitations described in
24subdivision (h) of Section 15910 of the Welfare and Institutions
25Code.

26(g) The department shall be responsible to the LIHP for the
27 nonfederal share of any reimbursement made for the provision of
28acute inpatient hospital services rendered to inmates pursuant to
29this section.

30(h) Reimbursement pursuant to this section shall be limited to
31those acute inpatient hospital services for which federal financial
32participation pursuant to Title XIX of the federal Social Security
33Act is allowed.

34(i) This section shall have no force or effect if there is a final
35judicial determination made by any state or federal court that is
36not appealed, or by a court of appellate jurisdiction that is not
37further appealed, in any action by any party, or a final
38determination by the administrator of the federal Centers for
39Medicare and Medicaid Services, that limits or affects the
P338  1department’s authority to select the hospitals used to provide
2inpatient hospital services to inmates.

3(j) It is the intent of the Legislature that the implementation of
4this section will result in state General Fund savings for the funding
5of acute inpatient hospital services provided to inmates along with
6any related administrative costs.

7(k) Any agreements entered into under this section for Medi-Cal
8or a LIHP to provide for reimbursement of acute inpatient hospital
9services and administrative expenditures as described in
10subdivision (c) shall not be subject to Part 2 (commencing with
11Section 10100) of Division 2 of the Public Contract Code.

12(l) This section shall be implemented in a manner that is
13consistent with federal Medicaid law and regulations. The Director
14of the State Department of Health Care Services shall seek any
15federal approvals necessary for the implementation of this section.
16This section shall be implemented only when and to the extent that
17any necessary federal approval is obtained, and only to the extent
18that existing levels of federal financial participation are not
19otherwise jeopardized.

20(m) To the extent that the Director of the State Department of
21Health Care Services determines that existing levels of federal
22financial participation are jeopardized, this section shall no longer
23be implemented.

24(n) Notwithstanding Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section
2511340) of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code,
26the State Department of Health Care Services may, without taking
27any further regulatory action, implement this section by means of
28all-county letters, provider bulletins, facility letters, or similar
29instructions.

30(o) For purposes of this section, the following terms have the
31following meanings:

32(1) The term “county of last legal residence” means the county
33in which the inmate resided at the time of arrest that resulted in
34conviction and incarceration in a state prison facility.

35(2) The term “inmate” means an adult who is involuntarily
36residing in a state prison facility operated, administered, or
37regulated, directly or indirectly, by the department.

38(3) During the existence of the receivership established in United
39States District Court for the Northern District of California, Case
40No. C01-1351 TEH, Plata v. Schwarzenegger, references in this
P339  1section to the “secretary” shall mean the receiver appointed in that
2action, who shall implement portions of this section that would
3otherwise be within the secretary’s responsibility.

4

SEC. 163.  

Section 6030 of the Penal Code is amended to read:

5

6030.  

(a) The Board of State and Community Corrections shall
6establish minimum standards for local correctional facilities. The
7board shall review those standards biennially and make any
8appropriate revisions.

9(b) The standards shall include, but not be limited to, the
10following areas: health and sanitary conditions, fire and life safety,
11security, rehabilitation programs, recreation, treatment of persons
12confined in local correctional facilities, and personnel training.

13(c) The standards shall require that at least one person on duty
14at the facility is knowledgeable in the area of fire and life safety
15procedures.

16(d) The standards shall also include requirements relating to the
17acquisition, storage, labeling, packaging, and dispensing of drugs.

18(e) The standards shall require that inmates who are received
19by the facility while they are pregnant be notified, orally or in
20writing, of and provided all of the following:

21(1) A balanced, nutritious diet approved by a doctor.

22(2) Prenatal and post partum information and health care,
23including, but not limited to, access to necessary vitamins as
24recommended by a doctor.

25(3) Information pertaining to childbirth education and infant
26care.

27(4) A dental cleaning while in a state facility.

28(f) The standards shall provide that a woman known to be
29pregnant or in recovery after delivery shall not be restrained, except
30as provided in Section 3407. The board shall develop standards
31regarding the restraint of pregnant women at the next biennial
32review of the standards after the enactment of the act amending
33this subdivision and shall review the individual facility’s
34compliance with the standards.

35(g) In establishing minimum standards, the board shall seek the
36advice of the following:

37(1) For health and sanitary conditions:

38The State Department of Public Health, physicians, psychiatrists,
39local public health officials, and other interested persons.

40(2) For fire and life safety:

P340  1The State Fire Marshal, local fire officials, and other interested
2persons.

3(3) For security, rehabilitation programs, recreation, and
4treatment of persons confined in correctional facilities:

5The Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation, state and
6local juvenile justice commissions, state and local correctional
7officials, experts in criminology and penology, and other interested
8persons.

9(4) For personnel training:

10The Commission on Peace Officer Standards and Training,
11psychiatrists, experts in criminology and penology, the Department
12of Corrections and Rehabilitation, state and local correctional
13officials, and other interested persons.

14(5) For female inmates and pregnant inmates in local adult and
15juvenile facilities:

16The California State Sheriffs’ Association and Chief Probation
17Officers’ Association of California, and other interested persons.

18

SEC. 164.  

Section 11165.7 of the Penal Code is amended to
19read:

20

11165.7.  

(a) As used in this article, “mandated reporter” is
21defined as any of the following:

22(1) A teacher.

23(2) An instructional aide.

24(3) A teacher’s aide or teacher’s assistant employed by a public
25or private school.

26(4) A classified employee of a public school.

27(5) An administrative officer or supervisor of child welfare and
28attendance, or a certificated pupil personnel employee of a public
29or private school.

30(6) An administrator of a public or private day camp.

31(7) An administrator or employee of a public or private youth
32center, youth recreation program, or youth organization.

33(8) An administrator or employee of a public or private
34organization whose duties require direct contact and supervision
35of children.

36(9) An employee of a county office of education or the State
37Department of Education whose duties bring the employee into
38contact with children on a regular basis.

39(10) A licensee, an administrator, or an employee of a licensed
40community care or child day care facility.

P341  1(11) A Head Start program teacher.

2(12) A licensing worker or licensing evaluator employed by a
3licensing agency, as defined in Section 11165.11.

4(13) A public assistance worker.

5(14) An employee of a child care institution, including, but not
6limited to, foster parents, group home personnel, and personnel of
7residential care facilities.

8(15) A social worker, probation officer, or parole officer.

9(16) An employee of a school district police or security
10department.

11(17) A person who is an administrator or presenter of, or a
12counselor in, a child abuse prevention program in a public or
13private school.

14(18) A district attorney investigator, inspector, or local child
15support agency caseworker, unless the investigator, inspector, or
16caseworker is working with an attorney appointed pursuant to
17Section 317 of the Welfare and Institutions Code to represent a
18minor.

19(19) A peace officer, as defined in Chapter 4.5 (commencing
20with Section 830) of Title 3 of Part 2, who is not otherwise
21described in this section.

22(20) A firefighter, except for volunteer firefighters.

23(21) A physician and surgeon, psychiatrist, psychologist, dentist,
24resident, intern, podiatrist, chiropractor, licensed nurse, dental
25hygienist, optometrist, marriage and family therapist, clinical social
26worker, professional clinical counselor, or any other person who
27is currently licensed under Division 2 (commencing with Section
28500) of the Business and Professions Code.

29(22) An emergency medical technician I or II, paramedic, or
30other person certified pursuant to Division 2.5 (commencing with
31Section 1797) of the Health and Safety Code.

32(23) A psychological assistant registered pursuant to Section
332913 of the Business and Professions Code.

34(24) A marriage and family therapist trainee, as defined in
35subdivision (c) of Section 4980.03 of the Business and Professions
36Code.

37(25) An unlicensed marriage and family therapist intern
38registered under Section 4980.44 of the Business and Professions
39Code.

P342  1(26) A state or county public health employee who treats a minor
2for venereal disease or any other condition.

3(27) A coroner.

4(28) A medical examiner or other person who performs
5autopsies.

6(29) A commercial film and photographic print or image
7processor as specified in subdivision (e) of Section 11166. As used
8in this article, “commercial film and photographic print or image
9processor” means a person who develops exposed photographic
10film into negatives, slides, or prints, or who makes prints from
11negatives or slides, or who prepares, publishes, produces, develops,
12duplicates, or prints any representation of information, data, or an
13image, including, but not limited to, any film, filmstrip, photograph,
14negative, slide, photocopy, videotape, video laser disc, computer
15hardware, computer software, computer floppy disk, data storage
16medium, CD-ROM, computer-generated equipment, or
17computer-generated image, for compensation. The term includes
18any employee of that person; it does not include a person who
19develops film or makes prints or images for a public agency.

20(30) A child visitation monitor. As used in this article, “child
21visitation monitor” means a person who, for financial
22compensation, acts as a monitor of a visit between a child and
23another person when the monitoring of that visit has been ordered
24by a court of law.

25(31) An animal control officer or humane society officer. For
26the purposes of this article, the following terms have the following
27meanings:

28(A) “Animal control officer” means a person employed by a
29city, county, or city and county for the purpose of enforcing animal
30control laws or regulations.

31(B) “Humane society officer” means a person appointed or
32employed by a public or private entity as a humane officer who is
33qualified pursuant to Section 14502 or 14503 of the Corporations
34Code.

35(32) A clergy member, as specified in subdivision (d) of Section
3611166. As used in this article, “clergy member” means a priest,
37minister, rabbi, religious practitioner, or similar functionary of a
38church, temple, or recognized denomination or organization.

39(33) Any custodian of records of a clergy member, as specified
40in this section and subdivision (d) of Section 11166.

P343  1(34) An employee of any police department, county sheriff’s
2department, county probation department, or county welfare
3department.

4(35) An employee or volunteer of a Court Appointed Special
5Advocate program, as defined in Rule 5.655 of the California Rules
6of Court.

7(36) A custodial officer, as defined in Section 831.5.

8(37) A person providing services to a minor child under Section
912300 or 12300.1 of the Welfare and Institutions Code.

10(38) An alcohol and drug counselor. As used in this article, an
11“alcohol and drug counselor” is a person providing counseling,
12therapy, or other clinical services for a state licensed or certified
13drug, alcohol, or drug and alcohol treatment program. However,
14alcohol or drug abuse, or both alcohol and drug abuse, is not, in
15and of itself, a sufficient basis for reporting child abuse or neglect.

16(39) A clinical counselor trainee, as defined in subdivision (g)
17of Section 4999.12 of the Business and Professions Code.

18(40) A clinical counselor intern registered under Section 4999.42
19of the Business and Professions Code.

20(41) An employee or administrator of a public or private
21postsecondary institution, whose duties bring the administrator or
22employee into contact with children on a regular basis, or who
23supervises those whose duties bring the administrator or employee
24into contact with children on a regular basis, as to child abuse or
25neglect occurring on that institution’s premises or at an official
26activity of, or program conducted by, the institution. Nothing in
27this paragraph shall be construed as altering the lawyer-client
28privilege as set forth in Article 3 (commencing with Section 950)
29of Chapter 4 of Division 8 of the Evidence Code.

30(42) An athletic coach, athletic administrator, or athletic director
31employed by any public or private school that provides any
32combination of instruction for kindergarten, or grades 1 to 12,
33inclusive.

34(43) (A) A commercial computer technician as specified in
35subdivision (e) of Section 11166. As used in this article,
36“commercial computer technician” means a person who works for
37a company that is in the business of repairing, installing, or
38otherwise servicing a computer or computer component, including,
39but not limited to, a computer part, device, memory storage or
40recording mechanism, auxiliary storage recording or memory
P344  1capacity, or any other material relating to the operation and
2maintenance of a computer or computer network system, for a fee.
3An employer who provides an electronic communications service
4or a remote computing service to the public shall be deemed to
5comply with this article if that employer complies with Section
62258A of Title 18 of the United States Code.

7(B) An employer of a commercial computer technician may
8implement internal procedures for facilitating reporting consistent
9with this article. These procedures may direct employees who are
10mandated reporters under this paragraph to report materials
11described in subdivision (e) of Section 11166 to an employee who
12is designated by the employer to receive the reports. An employee
13who is designated to receive reports under this subparagraph shall
14be a commercial computer technician for purposes of this article.
15A commercial computer technician who makes a report to the
16designated employee pursuant to this subparagraph shall be deemed
17to have complied with the requirements of this article and shall be
18subject to the protections afforded to mandated reporters, including,
19but not limited to, those protections afforded by Section 11172.

20(44) Any athletic coach, including, but not limited to, an
21assistant coach or a graduate assistant involved in coaching, at
22public or private postsecondary institutions.

23(b) Except as provided in paragraph (35) of subdivision (a),
24volunteers of public or private organizations whose duties require
25direct contact with and supervision of children are not mandated
26reporters but are encouraged to obtain training in the identification
27and reporting of child abuse and neglect and are further encouraged
28to report known or suspected instances of child abuse or neglect
29to an agency specified in Section 11165.9.

30(c) Employers are strongly encouraged to provide their
31employees who are mandated reporters with training in the duties
32imposed by this article. This training shall include training in child
33abuse and neglect identification and training in child abuse and
34neglect reporting. Whether or not employers provide their
35employees with training in child abuse and neglect identification
36and reporting, the employers shall provide their employees who
37are mandated reporters with the statement required pursuant to
38subdivision (a) of Section 11166.5.

39(d) School districts that do not train their employees specified
40in subdivision (a) in the duties of mandated reporters under the
P345  1child abuse reporting laws shall report to the State Department of
2Education the reasons why this training is not provided.

3(e) Unless otherwise specifically provided, the absence of
4training shall not excuse a mandated reporter from the duties
5imposed by this article.

6(f) Public and private organizations are encouraged to provide
7their volunteers whose duties require direct contact with and
8supervision of children with training in the identification and
9reporting of child abuse and neglect.

10

SEC. 165.  

Section 11166 of the Penal Code is amended to read:

11

11166.  

(a) Except as provided in subdivision (d), and in
12Section 11166.05, a mandated reporter shall make a report to an
13agency specified in Section 11165.9 whenever the mandated
14reporter, in his or her professional capacity or within the scope of
15his or her employment, has knowledge of or observes a child whom
16the mandated reporter knows or reasonably suspects has been the
17victim of child abuse or neglect. The mandated reporter shall make
18an initial report by telephone to the agency immediately or as soon
19as is practicably possible, and shall prepare and send, fax, or
20electronically transmit a written followup report within 36 hours
21of receiving the information concerning the incident. The mandated
22reporter may include with the report any nonprivileged
23documentary evidence the mandated reporter possesses relating
24to the incident.

25(1) For purposes of this article, “reasonable suspicion” means
26that it is objectively reasonable for a person to entertain a suspicion,
27based upon facts that could cause a reasonable person in a like
28position, drawing, when appropriate, on his or her training and
29experience, to suspect child abuse or neglect. “Reasonable
30suspicion” does not require certainty that child abuse or neglect
31has occurred nor does it require a specific medical indication of
32child abuse or neglect; any “reasonable suspicion” is sufficient.
33For purposes of this article, the pregnancy of a minor does not, in
34and of itself, constitute a basis for a reasonable suspicion of sexual
35abuse.

36(2) The agency shall be notified and a report shall be prepared
37and sent, faxed, or electronically transmitted even if the child has
38expired, regardless of whether or not the possible abuse was a
39factor contributing to the death, and even if suspected child abuse
40was discovered during an autopsy.

P346  1(3) A report made by a mandated reporter pursuant to this
2section shall be known as a mandated report.

3(b) If, after reasonable efforts, a mandated reporter is unable to
4submit an initial report by telephone, he or she shall immediately
5or as soon as is practicably possible, by fax or electronic
6transmission, make a one-time automated written report on the
7form prescribed by the Department of Justice, and shall also be
8available to respond to a telephone followup call by the agency
9with which he or she filed the report. A mandated reporter who
10files a one-time automated written report because he or she was
11unable to submit an initial report by telephone is not required to
12submit a written followup report.

13(1) The one-time automated written report form prescribed by
14the Department of Justice shall be clearly identifiable so that it is
15not mistaken for a standard written followup report. In addition,
16the automated one-time report shall contain a section that allows
17the mandated reporter to state the reason the initial telephone call
18was not able to be completed. The reason for the submission of
19the one-time automated written report in lieu of the procedure
20prescribed in subdivision (a) shall be captured in the Child Welfare
21Services/Case Management System (CWS/CMS). The department
22shall work with stakeholders to modify reporting forms and the
23CWS/CMS as is necessary to accommodate the changes enacted
24by these provisions.

25(2) This subdivision shall not become operative until the
26CWS/CMS is updated to capture the information prescribed in this
27subdivision.

28(3) This subdivision shall become inoperative three years after
29this subdivision becomes operative or on January 1, 2009,
30whichever occurs first.

31(4) On the inoperative date of these provisions, a report shall
32be submitted to the counties and the Legislature by the State
33Department of Social Services that reflects the data collected from
34automated one-time reports indicating the reasons stated as to why
35the automated one-time report was filed in lieu of the initial
36telephone report.

37(5) Nothing in this section shall supersede the requirement that
38a mandated reporter first attempt to make a report via telephone,
39or that agencies specified in Section 11165.9 accept reports from
40mandated reporters and other persons as required.

P347  1(c) A mandated reporter who fails to report an incident of known
2or reasonably suspected child abuse or neglect as required by this
3section is guilty of a misdemeanor punishable by up to six months
4confinement in a county jail or by a fine of one thousand dollars
5($1,000) or by both that imprisonment and fine. If a mandated
6reporter intentionally conceals his or her failure to report an
7incident known by the mandated reporter to be abuse or severe
8neglect under this section, the failure to report is a continuing
9offense until an agency specified in Section 11165.9 discovers the
10offense.

11(d) (1) A clergy member who acquires knowledge or a
12reasonable suspicion of child abuse or neglect during a penitential
13communication is not subject to subdivision (a). For the purposes
14of this subdivision, “penitential communication” means a
15communication, intended to be in confidence, including, but not
16limited to, a sacramental confession, made to a clergy member
17who, in the course of the discipline or practice of his or her church,
18denomination, or organization, is authorized or accustomed to hear
19those communications, and under the discipline, tenets, customs,
20or practices of his or her church, denomination, or organization,
21has a duty to keep those communications secret.

22(2) Nothing in this subdivision shall be construed to modify or
23limit a clergy member’s duty to report known or suspected child
24abuse or neglect when the clergy member is acting in some other
25capacity that would otherwise make the clergy member a mandated
26reporter.

27(3) (A) On or before January 1, 2004, a clergy member or any
28custodian of records for the clergy member may report to an agency
29specified in Section 11165.9 that the clergy member or any
30custodian of records for the clergy member, prior to January 1,
311997, in his or her professional capacity or within the scope of his
32or her employment, other than during a penitential communication,
33acquired knowledge or had a reasonable suspicion that a child had
34been the victim of sexual abuse and that the clergy member or any
35custodian of records for the clergy member did not previously
36report the abuse to an agency specified in Section 11165.9. The
37provisions of Section 11172 shall apply to all reports made pursuant
38to this paragraph.

P348  1(B) This paragraph shall apply even if the victim of the known
2or suspected abuse has reached the age of majority by the time the
3required report is made.

4(C) The local law enforcement agency shall have jurisdiction
5to investigate any report of child abuse made pursuant to this
6paragraph even if the report is made after the victim has reached
7the age of majority.

8(e) (1) A commercial film, photographic print, or image
9processor who has knowledge of or observes, within the scope of
10his or her professional capacity or employment, any film,
11photograph, videotape, negative, slide, or any representation of
12information, data, or an image, including, but not limited to, any
13film, filmstrip, photograph, negative, slide, photocopy, videotape,
14video laser disc, computer hardware, computer software, computer
15floppy disk, data storage medium, CD-ROM, computer-generated
16equipment, or computer-generated image depicting a child under
1716 years of age engaged in an act of sexual conduct, shall,
18immediately or as soon as practicably possible, telephonically
19report the instance of suspected abuse to the law enforcement
20agency located in the county in which the images are seen. Within
2136 hours of receiving the information concerning the incident, the
22reporter shall prepare and send, fax, or electronically transmit a
23written followup report of the incident with a copy of the image
24or material attached.

25(2) A commercial computer technician who has knowledge of
26or observes, within the scope of his or her professional capacity
27or employment, any representation of information, data, or an
28image, including, but not limited to, any computer hardware,
29computer software, computer file, computer floppy disk, data
30storage medium, CD-ROM, computer-generated equipment, or
31computer-generated image that is retrievable in perceivable form
32and that is intentionally saved, transmitted, or organized on an
33electronic medium, depicting a child under 16 years of age engaged
34in an act of sexual conduct, shall immediately, or as soon as
35practicably possible, telephonically report the instance of suspected
36abuse to the law enforcement agency located in the county in which
37the images or material are seen. As soon as practicably possible
38after receiving the information concerning the incident, the reporter
39shall prepare and send, fax, or electronically transmit a written
P349  1followup report of the incident with a brief description of the
2images or materials.

3(3) For purposes of this article, “commercial computer
4technician” includes an employee designated by an employer to
5receive reports pursuant to an established reporting process
6authorized by subparagraph (B) of paragraph (43) of subdivision
7(a) of Section 11165.7.

8(4) As used in this subdivision, “electronic medium” includes,
9but is not limited to, a recording, CD-ROM, magnetic disk memory,
10magnetic tape memory, CD, DVD, thumbdrive, or any other
11computer hardware or media.

12(5) As used in this subdivision, “sexual conduct” means any of
13the following:

14(A) Sexual intercourse, including genital-genital, oral-genital,
15anal-genital, or oral-anal, whether between persons of the same or
16opposite sex or between humans and animals.

17(B) Penetration of the vagina or rectum by any object.

18(C) Masturbation for the purpose of sexual stimulation of the
19viewer.

20(D) Sadomasochistic abuse for the purpose of sexual stimulation
21of the viewer.

22(E) Exhibition of the genitals, pubic, or rectal areas of a person
23for the purpose of sexual stimulation of the viewer.

24(f) Any mandated reporter who knows or reasonably suspects
25that the home or institution in which a child resides is unsuitable
26for the child because of abuse or neglect of the child shall bring
27the condition to the attention of the agency to which, and at the
28same time as, he or she makes a report of the abuse or neglect
29pursuant to subdivision (a).

30(g) begin deleteA end deletebegin insertAny end insertother person who has knowledge of or observes a
31child whom he or she knows or reasonably suspects has been a
32victim of child abuse or neglect may report the known or suspected
33instance of child abuse or neglect to an agency specified in Section
3411165.9. For purposes of this section, “any other person” includes
35a mandated reporter who acts in his or her private capacity and
36not in his or her professional capacity or within the scope of his
37or her employment.

38(h) When two or more persons, who are required to report,
39jointly have knowledge of a known or suspected instance of child
40abuse or neglect, and when there is agreement among them, the
P350  1telephone report may be made by a member of the team selected
2by mutual agreement and a single report may be made and signed
3by the selected member of the reporting team. Any member who
4has knowledge that the member designated to report has failed to
5do so shall thereafter make the report.

6(i) (1) The reporting duties under this section are individual,
7and no supervisor or administrator may impede or inhibit the
8reporting duties, and no person making a report shall be subject
9to any sanction for making the report. However, internal procedures
10to facilitate reporting and apprise supervisors and administrators
11of reports may be established provided that they are not inconsistent
12with this article.

13(2) The internal procedures shall not require any employee
14required to make reports pursuant to this article to disclose his or
15her identity to the employer.

16(3) Reporting the information regarding a case of possible child
17abuse or neglect to an employer, supervisor, school principal,
18school counselor, coworker, or other person shall not be a substitute
19for making a mandated report to an agency specified in Section
2011165.9.

21(j) A county probation or welfare department shall immediately,
22or as soon as practicably possible, report by telephone, fax, or
23electronic transmission to the law enforcement agency having
24jurisdiction over the case, to the agency given the responsibility
25for investigation of cases under Section 300 of the Welfare and
26Institutions Code, and to the district attorney’s office every known
27or suspected instance of child abuse or neglect, as defined in
28Section 11165.6, except acts or omissions coming within
29subdivision (b) of Section 11165.2, or reports made pursuant to
30Section 11165.13 based on risk to a child which relates solely to
31the inability of the parent to provide the child with regular care
32due to the parent’s substance abuse, which shall be reported only
33to the county welfare or probation department. A county probation
34or welfare department also shall send, fax, or electronically transmit
35a written report thereof within 36 hours of receiving the information
36concerning the incident to any agency to which it makes a
37telephone report under this subdivision.

38(k) A law enforcement agency shall immediately, or as soon as
39practicably possible, report by telephone, fax, or electronic
40transmission to the agency given responsibility for investigation
P351  1of cases under Section 300 of the Welfare and Institutions Code
2and to the district attorney’s office every known or suspected
3instance of child abuse or neglect reported to it, except acts or
4omissions coming within subdivision (b) of Section 11165.2, which
5shall be reported only to the county welfare or probation
6department. A law enforcement agency shall report to the county
7welfare or probation department every known or suspected instance
8of child abuse or neglect reported to it which is alleged to have
9occurred as a result of the action of a person responsible for the
10child’s welfare, or as the result of the failure of a person responsible
11for the child’s welfare to adequately protect the minor from abuse
12when the person responsible for the child’s welfare knew or
13reasonably should have known that the minor was in danger of
14abuse. A law enforcement agency also shall send, fax, or
15electronically transmit a written report thereof within 36 hours of
16receiving the information concerning the incident to any agency
17to which it makes a telephone report under this subdivision.

18

SEC. 166.  

Section 12022 of the Penal Code is amended to read:

19

12022.  

(a) (1) Except as provided in subdivisions (c) and (d),
20a person who is armed with a firearm in the commission of a felony
21or attempted felony shall be punished by an additional and
22consecutive term of imprisonment pursuant to subdivision (h) of
23Section 1170 for one year, unless the arming is an element of that
24offense. This additional term shall apply to a person who is a
25principal in the commission of a felony or attempted felony if one
26or more of the principals is armed with a firearm, whether or not
27the person is personally armed with a firearm.

28(2) Except as provided in subdivision (c), and notwithstanding
29subdivision (d), if the firearm is an assault weapon, as defined in
30Section 30510 or 30515, or a machinegun, as defined in Section
31 16880, or a .50 BMG rifle, as defined in Section 30530, the
32additional and consecutive term described in this subdivision shall
33be three years imprisonment pursuant to subdivision (h) of Section
341170 whether or not the arming is an element of the offense of
35which the person was convicted. The additional term provided in
36this paragraph shall apply to any person who is a principal in the
37commission of a felony or attempted felony if one or more of the
38principals is armed with an assault weapon, machinegun, or a .50
39BMG rifle, whether or not the person is personally armed with an
40assault weapon, machinegun, or a .50 BMG rifle.

P352  1(b) (1) A person who personally uses a deadly or dangerous
2weapon in the commission of a felony or attempted felony shall
3be punished by an additional and consecutive term of imprisonment
4in the state prison for one year, unless use of a deadly or dangerous
5weapon is an element of that offense.

6(2) If the person described in paragraph (1) has been convicted
7of carjacking or attempted carjacking, the additional term shall be
8in the state prison for one, two, or three years.

9(3) When a person is found to have personally used a deadly or
10dangerous weapon in the commission of a felony or attempted
11felony as provided in this subdivision and the weapon is owned
12by that person, the court shall order that the weapon be deemed a
13nuisance and disposed of in the manner provided in Sections 18000
14and 18005.

15(c) Notwithstanding the enhancement set forth in subdivision
16(a), a person who is personally armed with a firearm in the
17commission of a violation or attempted violation of Section 11351,
1811351.5, 11352, 11366.5, 11366.6, 11378, 11378.5, 11379,
1911379.5, or 11379.6 of the Health and Safety Code shall be
20punished by an additional and consecutive term of imprisonment
21pursuant to subdivision (h) of Section 1170 for three, four, or five
22years.

23(d) Notwithstanding the enhancement set forth in subdivision
24(a), a person who is not personally armed with a firearm who,
25knowing that another principal is personally armed with a firearm,
26is a principal in the commission of an offense or attempted offense
27specified in subdivision (c), shall be punished by an additional and
28consecutive term of imprisonment pursuant to subdivision (h) of
29Section 1170 for one, two, or three years.

30(e) For purposes of imposing an enhancement under Section
311170.1, the enhancements under this section shall count as a single
32enhancement.

33(f) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, the court may
34strike the additional punishment for the enhancements provided
35in subdivision (c) or (d) in an unusual case where the interests of
36justice would best be served, if the court specifies on the record
37and enters into the minutes the circumstances indicating that the
38interests of justice would best be served by that disposition.

39

SEC. 167.  

Section 12022.1 of the Penal Code is amended to
40read:

P353  1

12022.1.  

(a) For the purposes of this section only:

2(1) “Primary offense” means a felony offense for which a person
3has been released from custody on bail or on his or her own
4recognizance prior to the judgment becoming final, including the
5disposition of any appeal, or for which release on bail or his or her
6own recognizance has been revoked. In cases where the court has
7granted a stay of execution of a county jail commitment or state
8prison commitment, “primary offense” also means a felony offense
9for which a person is out of custody during the period of time
10between the pronouncement of judgment and the time the person
11actually surrenders into custody or is otherwise returned to custody.

12(2) “Secondary offense” means a felony offense alleged to have
13been committed while the person is released from custody for a
14primary offense.

15(b) Any person arrested for a secondary offense that was alleged
16to have been committed while that person was released from
17custody on a primary offense shall be subject to a penalty
18enhancement of an additional two years, which shall be served
19consecutive to any other term imposed by the court.

20(c) The enhancement allegation provided in subdivision (b)
21shall be pleaded in the information or indictment which alleges
22the secondary offense, or in the information or indictment of the
23primary offense if a conviction has already occurred in the
24secondary offense, and shall be proved as provided by law. The
25enhancement allegation may be pleaded in a complaint but need
26not be proved at the preliminary hearing or grand jury hearing.

27(d) Whenever there is a conviction for the secondary offense
28and the enhancement is proved, and the person is sentenced on the
29secondary offense prior to the conviction of the primary offense,
30the imposition of the enhancement shall be stayed pending
31imposition of the sentence for the primary offense. The stay shall
32be lifted by the court hearing the primary offense at the time of
33sentencing for that offense and shall be recorded in the abstract of
34judgment. If the person is acquitted of the primary offense the stay
35shall be permanent.

36(e) If the person is convicted of a felony for the primary offense,
37is sentenced to state prison for the primary offense, and is convicted
38of a felony for the secondary offense, any sentence for the
39secondary offense shall be consecutive to the primary sentence
40and the aggregate term shall be served in the state prison, even if
P354  1the term for the secondary offense specifies imprisonment in county
2jail pursuant to subdivision (h) of Section 1170.

3(f) If the person is convicted of a felony for the primary offense,
4is granted probation for the primary offense, and is convicted of
5a felony for the secondary offense, any sentence for the secondary
6offense shall be enhanced as provided in subdivision (b).

7(g) If the primary offense conviction is reversed on appeal, the
8enhancement shall be suspended pending retrial of that felony.
9Upon retrial and reconviction, the enhancement shall be reimposed.
10If the person is no longer in custody for the secondary offense
11upon reconviction of the primary offense, the court may, at its
12discretion, reimpose the enhancement and order him or her
13recommitted to custody.

14

SEC. 168.  

Section 10295.6 of the Public Contract Code is
15amended to read:

16

10295.6.  

Sections 10295 and 10297 do not apply to any contract
17entered into by the Department of Water Resources under Part 3
18(commencing with Section 11100) of Division 6 or Chapter 8
19(commencing with Section 12930) of Part 6 of Division 6 of the
20Water Code for the acquisition, sale, or transmission of power, or
21for services to facilitate those activities.

22

SEC. 169.  

Section 20651.7 of the Public Contract Code is
23amended to read:

24

20651.7.  

(a) For the purposes of bid evaluation and selection
25pursuant to subdivision (a) of Section 20651, when a community
26college district determines that it can expect long-term savings
27through the use of life-cycle cost methodology, the use of more
28sustainable goods and materials, and reduced administrative costs,
29the community college district may provide for the selection of
30the lowest responsible bidder on the basis of best value pursuant
31to policies and procedures adopted by the governing board in
32accordance with this section.

33(b) For purposes of this section, “best value” means the most
34advantageous balance of price, quality, service, performance, and
35other elements, as defined by the governing board, achieved
36through methods in accordance with this section and determined
37by objective performance criteria that may include price, features,
38long-term functionality, life-cycle costs, overall sustainability, and
39required services.

P355  1(c) A community college district shall consider all of the
2following when adopting best value policies pursuant to subdivision
3(a):

4(1) Price and service level proposals that reduce the district’s
5overall operating costs, including end-of-life expenditures and
6impact.

7(2) Equipment, services, supplies, and materials standards that
8support the community college district’s strategic acquisition and
9management program direction.

10(3) A procedure for protest and resolution.

11(d) A community college district may consider any of the
12following factors if adopting policies and procedures pursuant to
13subdivision (c):

14(1) The total cost to the community college district of its
15purchase, use, and consumption of equipment, supplies, and
16materials.

17(2) The operational cost or benefit incurred by the community
18college district as a result of a contract award.

19(3) The added value to the community college district, as defined
20in the request for proposal, of vendor-added services.

21(4) The quality and effectiveness of equipment, supplies,
22materials, and services.

23(5) The reliability of delivery and installation schedules.

24(6) The terms and conditions of product warranties and vendor
25guarantees.

26(7) The financial stability of the vendor.

27(8) The vendor’s quality assurance program.

28(9) The vendor’s experience with the provisions of equipment,
29supplies, materials, and services within the institutional
30marketplace.

31(10) The consistency of the vendor’s proposed equipment,
32supplies, materials, and services with the district’s overall supplies
33and materials procurement program.

34(11) The economic benefits to the local community, including,
35but not limited to, job creation and retention.

36(12) The environmental benefits to the local community.

37(e) A community college district awarding a contract under this
38section shall award a contract to the lowest responsible bidder
39whose proposal is determined, in writing by the community college
P356  1district, to be the best value to the community college district based
2solely on the criteria set forth in the request for proposal.

3(f) The governing board of a community college district shall
4issue a written notice of intent to award supporting its contract
5award and stating in detail the basis of the award. The notice of
6the intent to award and the contract file must be sufficient to satisfy
7an external audit.

8(g) The governing board of a community college district shall
9publicly announce its award, identifying the bidder to which the
10award is made, the price proposal of the contractor awarded the
11contract, and the overall combined rating on the request for
12proposal evaluation factors. The announcement shall also include
13the ranking of the contractor awarded the contract in relation to
14all other responsive bidders and their respective price proposals
15and summary of the rationale for the contract award.

16(h) The community college district shall ensure that all
17businesses have a fair and equitable opportunity to compete for,
18and participate in, district contracts and shall also ensure that
19discrimination, as described in subdivision (e) of Section 12751.3
20of the Public Utilities Code, in the award and performance of
21contracts does not occur.

22(i) (1) If a community college district elects to purchase
23equipment, materials, supplies, and services by contract, let in
24accordance with this section, the community college district shall
25submit the following information to the Chancellor of the
26California Community Colleges on or before January 1, 2016:

27(A) The community college district’s policies adopted pursuant
28to subdivision (a).

29(B) An annual list of district procurements for contracts with a
30brief description of the contract, the winning bid, the cost, and if
31the contract was done under best value acquisition policies.

32(C) For a contract awarded under the best value acquisition
33policies, the bid announcement announcing the bidder to which
34the award was made, including that bidder’s scoring rating
35compared to other bidders, the winning contractor’s price proposal,
36the overall combined rating on the request for proposal evaluation
37factors, a description of the products, commodities, or services
38sought, and a summary of the rationale for the contract award.

39(D) For each contract awarded using the best value acquisition
40policies at least one bid award announcement for a comparably
P357  1priced contract using the traditional lowest responsible bidder
2process that specifies the bidder to which the contract was awarded,
3the amount of the award, and the request for bid for that contract
4that includes a description of the products, commodities, or services
5sought for at least one comparably sized contract, to the best value
6contract being let, awarded pursuant to the traditional lowest
7responsible bidder process including contracts awarded by the
8district in the three years prior to the adoption of best value
9acquisition policies by the district.

10(E) For contracts awarded using best value, a summary of any
11additional economic benefit other than the price of the contract
12obtained, including an explanation of whether these benefits were
13realized as expected.

14(F) The total number of bid protests or protests concerning an
15aspect of the solicitation, bid, or award of the agreement since the
16district adopted policies pursuant to subdivision (a) and the number
17of those protests that occurred under best value.

18(G) A description of any written bid protest or protests
19concerning an aspect of the solicitation, bid, or award of the
20agreement including the resolution of the protest for any contract
21submitted pursuant to this section.

22(2) The Legislative Analyst shall request the chancellor to
23provide the information specified in paragraph (1) to the Legislative
24Analyst on or before July 1, 2016. On or before February 1, 2017,
25the Legislative Analyst shall report to the Legislature on the use
26of competitive means for obtaining best value procurement by
27community college districts. The Legislative Analyst shall use the
28information provided by the chancellor to report all of the
29following:

30(A) A summary of the overall benefits of best value acquisition.

31(B) A comparison of the overall cost of contracts let under best
32value acquisition pursuant to this section to similar contracts let
33under traditional low bid procurement practices.

34(C) An assessment of any benefits or disadvantages of best value
35procurement practices as compared to bids awarded to the lowest
36responsible bidder.

37(D) An assessment of whether the use of best value procurement
38has led to a difference in the number of disputes as compared to
39contracts awarded using the traditional lowest responsible bidder
40method.

P358  1(E) An assessment of the policies adopted by the community
2college districts pursuant to subdivision (a) as well as an assessment
3of the overall performance criteria used to evaluate the bids and
4the effectiveness of the methodology.

5(F) Recommendations as to whether the best value at lowest
6cost acquisition procurement authority should be continued.

7(j) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2018,
8and as of that date is repealed.

9

SEC. 170.  

Section 4629.5 of the Public Resources Code is
10amended to read:

11

4629.5.  

(a) (1) On and after January 1, 2013, there is hereby
12imposed an assessment on a person who purchases a lumber
13product or an engineered wood product for the storage, use, or
14other consumption in this state, at the rate of 1 percent of the sales
15price.

16(2) A retailer shall charge the person the amount of the
17assessment as a charge that is separate from, and not included in,
18any other fee, charge, or other amount paid by the purchaser.

19(3) The retailer shall collect the assessment from the person at
20the time of sale, and may retain an amount equal to the amount of
21reimbursement, as determined by the State Board of Equalization
22pursuant to regulations, for any costs associated with the collection
23of the assessment, to be taken on the first return or next consecutive
24returns until the entire reimbursement amount is retained. For
25purposes of this paragraph, the State Board of Equalization may
26adopt emergency regulations pursuant to Section 11346.1 of the
27Government Code. The adoption of any regulation pursuant to this
28paragraph shall be deemed to be an emergency and necessary for
29the immediate preservation of the public peace, health, and safety,
30and general welfare.

31(b) The retailer shall separately state the amount of the
32assessment imposed under this section on the sales receipt given
33by the retailer to the person at the time of sale.

34(c) The State Board of Equalization shall administer and collect
35the assessment imposed by this section pursuant to the Fee
36Collection Procedures Law (Part 30 (commencing with Section
3755001) of Division 2 of the Revenue and Taxation Code) with
38those changes as may be necessary to conform to the provisions
39of this article. For purposes of this section, the references in the
P359  1Fee Collection Procedures Law to “fee” shall include the
2assessment imposed by this section.

3(d) (1) The assessment is required to be collected by a retailer
4and any amount unreturned to the person who paid an amount in
5excess of the assessment, but was collected from the person under
6the representation by the retailer that it was owed as an assessment,
7constitutes debts owed by the retailer to this state.

8(2) Every person who purchases a lumber product or an
9engineered wood product for storage, use, or other consumption
10in this state is liable for the assessment until it has been paid to
11this state, except that payment to a retailer relieves the person from
12further liability for the assessment. Any assessment collected from
13a person that has not been remitted to the State Board of
14Equalization shall be a debt owed to the state by the retailer
15required to collect and remit the assessment. Nothing in this part
16shall impose any obligation upon a retailer to take any legal action
17to enforce the collection of the assessment imposed by this section.

18(e) Except as provided in paragraph (3) of subdivision (a), the
19State Board of Equalization may prescribe, adopt, and enforce
20regulations relating to the administration and enforcement of this
21section, including, but not limited to, collections, reporting, refunds,
22and appeals.

23(f) (1) The assessment imposed by this section is due and
24payable to the State Board of Equalization quarterly on or before
25the last day of the month next succeeding each quarterly period.

26(2) On or before the last day of the month following each
27quarterly period, a return for the preceding quarterly period shall
28be filed with the State Board of Equalization using electronic
29media, in the form prescribed by the State Board of Equalization.
30Returns shall be authenticated in a form or pursuant to methods,
31as prescribed by the State Board of Equalization.

32(g) For purposes of this section, all of the following shall apply:

33(1) “Purchase” has the same meaning as that term is defined in
34Section 6010 of the Revenue and Taxation Code.

35(2) “Retailer” has the same meaning as that term is defined in
36Section 6015 of the Revenue and Taxation Code.

37(3) “Sales price” has the same meaning as that term is defined
38in Section 6011 of the Revenue and Taxation Code.

39(4) “Storage” has the same meaning as that term is defined in
40Section 6008 of the Revenue and Taxation Code.

P360  1(5) “Use” has the same meaning as that term is defined in
2Section 6009 of the Revenue and Taxation Code.

3(h) (1) Every person required to pay the assessment imposed
4under this article shall register with the State Board of Equalization.
5Every application for registration shall be made in a form
6prescribed by the State Board of Equalization and shall set forth
7the name under which the applicant transacts or intends to transact
8business, the location of his or her place or places of business, and
9such other information as the State Board of Equalization may
10require. An application for registration shall be authenticated in a
11form or pursuant to methods as may be prescribed by the State
12Board of Equalization.

13(2) An application for registration filed pursuant to this section
14may be filed using electronic media as prescribed by the State
15Board of Equalization.

16(3) Electronic media includes, but is not limited to, computer
17modem, magnetic media, optical disc, facsimile machine, or
18telephone.

19

SEC. 171.  

Section 4629.9 of the Public Resources Code is
20amended to read:

21

4629.9.  

(a) On or before January 10, 2013, and on each January
2210 thereafter in conjunction with the 2014-15 Governor’s Budget
23and each Governor’s Budget thereafter, the Secretary of the Natural
24Resources Agency, in consultation with the Secretary for
25Environmental Protection, shall submit to the Joint Legislative
26Budget Committee a report on the activities of all state
27departments, agencies, and boards relating to forest and timberland
28regulation. This report shall include, at a minimum, all of the
29following:

30(1) A listing, by organization, of the proposed total costs
31associated with the review, approval, and inspection of timber
32harvest plans and associated permits.

33(2) The number of timber harvest plans, and acreage covered
34by the plans, reviewed in the 2011-12 fiscal year, or the most
35recent fiscal year.

36(3) To the extent feasible, a listing of activities, personnel, and
37funding, by department, for the forest practice program for
382012-13, or the most recent fiscal year, and the preceding 10 fiscal
39years.

P361  1(4) The number of staff in each organization dedicated fully or
2partially to (A) review of timber harvest plans, and (B) other
3forestry-related activities, by geographical location in the state.

4(5) The costs of other forestry-related activities undertaken.

5(6) A summary of any process improvements identified by the
6administration as part of ongoing review of the timber harvest
7process, including data and technology improvement needs.

8(7) Workload analysis for the forest practice program in each
9organization.

10(8) In order to assess efficiencies in the program and the
11effectiveness of spending, a set of measures for, and a plan for
12collection of data on, the program, including, but not limited to:

13(A) The number of timber harvest plans reviewed.

14(B) Average time for plan review.

15(C) Number of field inspections per inspector.

16(D) Number of acres under active plans.

17(E) Number of violations.

18(F) Evaluating ecological performance.

19(b) A report required to be submitted pursuant to subdivision
20(a) shall be submitted in compliance with Section 9795 of the
21Government Code.

22

SEC. 172.  

Section 6224.5 of the Public Resources Code is
23amended to read:

24

6224.5.  

(a) If, as of January 1, 2013, a person is in violation
25of subdivision (a) of Section 6224.3, that person shall not be subject
26to a penalty pursuant to that section, if the person, on or before
27July 1, 2013, remedies the violation or submits to the commission
28a completed lease application, including the payment of all fees
29and costs. The remedy may include, but is not limited to, entering
30into an appropriate lease with the commission or adequately
31removing the structure or facility.

32(b) A person shall not be subject to a penalty or order pursuant
33to Section 6224.3, if the person submits a notice to the commission
34that a structure or facility owned by that person is potentially in
35violation of subdivision (a) of Section 6224.3 and the person,
36within six months from the date the notice is received by the
37commission, remedies the violation or submits to the commission
38a completed lease application, including the payment of all fees
39and costs. This subdivision shall apply only if the potential violator
40submits a notice to the commission before the commission
P362  1otherwise receives notice or information regarding the potential
2violation, or takes action against the violator.

3(c) If any pole, conduit, cable, wire, pipeline, or associated
4appurtenance that is owned by an electrical corporation, as defined
5in Section 218 of the Public Utilities Code, or a gas corporation,
6as defined in Section 222 of the Public Utilities Code, violates
7subdivision (a) of Section 6224.3, and the electrical or gas
8corporation can demonstrate that it has not received actual notice
9that it does not have adequate existing land rights for its structure
10or facility located on land under the commission’s jurisdiction, the
11electrical or gas corporation shall not be subject to a penalty or
12order pursuant to Section 6224.3 if the electrical or gas corporation
13remedies the violation or submits to the commission a completed
14lease application, including the payment of all fees and costs, or
15files with a court of competent jurisdiction a motion to perfect a
16prescriptive easement within six months from the date the violation
17is reported or the mistake is discovered.

18(d) The commission may adopt regulations necessary or useful
19to carry out this section and Sections 6224.3 and 6224.4.

20

SEC. 173.  

Section 21080.37 of the Public Resources Code is
21amended to read:

22

21080.37.  

(a) This division does not apply to a project or an
23activity to repair, maintain, or make minor alterations to an existing
24roadway if all of the following conditions are met:

25(1) The project is carried out by a city or county with a
26population of less than 100,000 persons to improve public safety.

27(2) (A) The project does not cross a waterway.

28(B) For purposes of this paragraph, “waterway” means a bay,
29estuary, lake, pond, river, slough, or a perennial, intermittent, or
30ephemeral stream, lake, or estuarine-marine shoreline.

31(3) The project involves negligible or no expansion of an
32existing use beyond that existing at the time of the lead agency’s
33determination.

34(4) The roadway is not a state roadway.

35(5) (A) The site of the project does not contain wetlands or
36riparian areas and does not have significant value as a wildlife
37habitat, and the project does not harm any species protected by the
38federal Endangered Species Act of 1973 (16 U.S.C. Sec. 1531 et
39seq.), the Native Plant Protection Act (Chapter 10 (commencing
40with Section 1900) of Division 2 of the Fish and Game Code), or
P363  1the California Endangered Species Act (Chapter 1.5 (commencing
2with Section 2050) of Division 3 of the Fish and Game Code), and
3the project does not cause the destruction or removal of any species
4protected by a local ordinance.

5(B) For the purposes of this paragraph:

6(i) “Riparian areas” mean those areas transitional between
7terrestrial and aquatic ecosystems and that are distinguished by
8gradients in biophysical conditions, ecological processes, and biota.
9A riparian area is an area through which surface and subsurface
10hydrology connect waterbodies with their adjacent uplands. A
11riparian area includes those portions of terrestrial ecosystems that
12significantly influence exchanges of energy and matter with aquatic
13ecosystems. A riparian area is adjacent to perennial, intermittent,
14and ephemeral streams, lakes, and estuarine-marine shorelines.

15(ii) “Significant value as a wildlife habitat” includes wildlife
16habitat of national, statewide, regional, or local importance; habitat
17for species protected by the federal Endangered Species Act of
181973 (16 U.S.C. Sec. 1531, et seq.), the California Endangered
19Species Act (Chapter 1.5 (commencing with Section 2050) of
20Division 3 of the Fish and Game Code), or the Native Plant
21Protection Act (Chapter 10 (commencing with Section 1900) of
22Division 2 of the Fish and Game Code); habitat identified as
23candidate, fully protected, sensitive, or species of special status
24by local, state, or federal agencies; or habitat essential to the
25movement of resident or migratory wildlife.

26(iii) “Wetlands” has the same meaning as in the United States
27Fish and Wildlife Service Manual, Part 660 FW 2 (June 21, 1993).

28(iv) “Wildlife habitat” means the ecological communities upon
29which wild animals, birds, plants, fish, amphibians, and
30invertebrates depend for their conservation and protection.

31(6) The project does not impact cultural resources.

32(7) The roadway does not affect scenic resources, as provided
33pursuant to subdivision (c) of Section 21084.

34(b) Prior to determining that a project is exempt pursuant to this
35section, the lead agency shall do both of the following:

36(1) Include measures in the project to mitigate potential
37vehicular traffic and safety impacts and bicycle and pedestrian
38safety impacts.

39(2) Hold a noticed public hearing on the project to hear and
40respond to public comments. The hearing on the project may be
P364  1conducted with another noticed lead agency public hearing.
2Publication of the notice shall be no fewer times than required by
3Section 6061 of the Government Code, by the public agency in a
4newspaper of general circulation in the area.

5(c) For purposes of this section, “roadway” means a roadway
6as defined pursuant to Section 530 of the Vehicle Code and the
7previously graded and maintained shoulder that is within a roadway
8right-of-way of no more than five feet from the edge of the
9roadway.

10(d) Whenever a local agency determines that a project is not
11subject to this division pursuant to this section, and it approves or
12determines to carry out that project, the local agency shall file a
13notice with the Office of Planning and Research, and with the
14county clerk in the county in which the project will be located in
15the manner specified in subdivisions (b) and (c) of Section 21152.

16(e) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2016,
17and as of that date is repealed, unless a later enacted statute, that
18is enacted before January 1, 2016, deletes or extends that date.

19

SEC. 174.  

Section 21080.5 of the Public Resources Code is
20amended to read:

21

21080.5.  

(a) Except as provided in Section 21158.1, when the
22regulatory program of a state agency requires a plan or other written
23documentation containing environmental information and
24complying with paragraph (3) of subdivision (d) to be submitted
25in support of an activity listed in subdivision (b), the plan or other
26written documentation may be submitted in lieu of the
27environmental impact report required by this division if the
28Secretary of the Resources Agency has certified the regulatory
29program pursuant to this section.

30(b) This section applies only to regulatory programs or portions
31thereof that involve either of the following:

32(1) The issuance to a person of a lease, permit, license,
33certificate, or other entitlement for use.

34(2) The adoption or approval of standards, rules, regulations,
35or plans for use in the regulatory program.

36(c) A regulatory program certified pursuant to this section is
37exempt from Chapter 3 (commencing with Section 21100), Chapter
384 (commencing with Section 21150), and Section 21167, except
39as provided in Article 2 (commencing with Section 21157) of
40Chapter 4.5.

P365  1(d) To qualify for certification pursuant to this section, a
2regulatory program shall require the utilization of an
3interdisciplinary approach that will ensure the integrated use of
4the natural and social sciences in decisionmaking and that shall
5meet all of the following criteria:

6(1) The enabling legislation of the regulatory program does both
7of the following:

8(A) Includes protection of the environment among its principal
9purposes.

10(B) Contains authority for the administering agency to adopt
11rules and regulations for the protection of the environment, guided
12by standards set forth in the enabling legislation.

13(2) The rules and regulations adopted by the administering
14agency for the regulatory program do all of the following:

15(A) Require that an activity will not be approved or adopted as
16proposed if there are feasible alternatives or feasible mitigation
17measures available that would substantially lessen a significant
18adverse effect that the activity may have on the environment.

19(B) Include guidelines for the orderly evaluation of proposed
20 activities and the preparation of the plan or other written
21documentation in a manner consistent with the environmental
22protection purposes of the regulatory program.

23(C) Require the administering agency to consult with all public
24agencies that have jurisdiction, by law, with respect to the proposed
25activity.

26(D) Require that final action on the proposed activity include
27the written responses of the issuing authority to significant
28environmental points raised during the evaluation process.

29(E) Require the filing of a notice of the decision by the
30administering agency on the proposed activity with the Secretary
31of the Resources Agency. Those notices shall be available for
32public inspection, and a list of the notices shall be posted on a
33weekly basis in the Office of the Resources Agency. Each list shall
34remain posted for a period of 30 days.

35(F) Require notice of the filing of the plan or other written
36documentation to be made to the public and to a person who
37requests, in writing, notification. The notification shall be made
38in a manner that will provide the public or a person requesting
39notification with sufficient time to review and comment on the
40filing.

P366  1(3) The plan or other written documentation required by the
2regulatory program does both of the following:

3(A) Includes a description of the proposed activity with
4alternatives to the activity, and mitigation measures to minimize
5any significant adverse effect on the environment of the activity.

6(B) Is available for a reasonable time for review and comment
7by other public agencies and the general public.

8(e) (1) The Secretary of the Resources Agency shall certify a
9regulatory program that the secretary determines meets all the
10qualifications for certification set forth in this section, and withdraw
11certification on determination that the regulatory program has been
12altered so that it no longer meets those qualifications. Certification
13and withdrawal of certification shall occur only after compliance
14with Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 11340) of Part 1 of
15Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code.

16(2) In determining whether or not a regulatory program meets
17the qualifications for certification set forth in this section, the
18inquiry of the secretary shall extend only to the question of whether
19the regulatory program meets the generic requirements of
20subdivision (d). The inquiry may not extend to individual decisions
21to be reached under the regulatory program, including the nature
22of specific alternatives or mitigation measures that might be
23proposed to lessen any significant adverse effect on the
24environment of the activity.

25(3) If the secretary determines that the regulatory program
26submitted for certification does not meet the qualifications for
27certification set forth in this section, the secretary shall adopt
28findings setting forth the reasons for the determination.

29(f) After a regulatory program has been certified pursuant to
30this section, a proposed change in the program that could affect
31compliance with the qualifications for certification specified in
32subdivision (d) may be submitted to the Secretary of the Resources
33Agency for review and comment. The scope of the secretary’s
34review shall extend only to the question of whether the regulatory
35program meets the generic requirements of subdivision (d). The
36review may not extend to individual decisions to be reached under
37the regulatory program, including specific alternatives or mitigation
38measures that might be proposed to lessen any significant adverse
39effect on the environment of the activity. The secretary shall have
4030 days from the date of receipt of the proposed change to notify
P367  1the state agency whether the proposed change will alter the
2regulatory program so that it no longer meets the qualification for
3certification established in this section and will result in a
4withdrawal of certification as provided in this section.

5(g) An action or proceeding to attack, review, set aside, void,
6or annul a determination or decision of a state agency approving
7or adopting a proposed activity under a regulatory program that
8has been certified pursuant to this section on the basis that the plan
9or other written documentation prepared pursuant to paragraph (3)
10of subdivision (d) does not comply with this section shall be
11commenced not later than 30 days from the date of the filing of
12notice of the approval or adoption of the activity.

13(h) (1) An action or proceeding to attack, review, set aside,
14void, or annul a determination of the Secretary of the Resources
15Agency to certify a regulatory program pursuant to this section on
16the basis that the regulatory program does not comply with this
17section shall be commenced within 30 days from the date of
18certification by the secretary.

19(2) In an action brought pursuant to paragraph (1), the inquiry
20shall extend only to whether there was a prejudicial abuse of
21discretion by the secretary. Abuse of discretion is established if
22the secretary has not proceeded in a manner required by law or if
23the determination is not supported by substantial evidence.

24(i) For purposes of this section, a county agricultural
25commissioner is a state agency.

26(j) For purposes of this section, an air quality management
27district or air pollution control district is a state agency, except
28that the approval, if any, by a district of a nonattainment area plan
29is subject to this section only if, and to the extent that, the approval
30adopts or amends rules or regulations.

31(k) (1) The secretary, by July 1, 2004, shall develop a protocol
32for reviewing the prospective application of certified regulatory
33programs to evaluate the consistency of those programs with the
34requirements of this division. Following the completion of the
35development of the protocol, the secretary shall provide a report
36to the Senate Committee on Environmental Quality and the
37Assembly Committee on Natural Resources regarding the need
38for a grant of additional statutory authority authorizing the secretary
39to undertake a review of the certified regulatory programs.

P368  1(2) The secretary may update the protocol, and may update the
2report provided to the legislative committees pursuant to paragraph
3(1) and provide, in compliance with Section 9795 of the
4Government Code, the updated report to those committees if
5additional statutory authority is needed.

6(3) The secretary shall provide a significant opportunity for
7public participation in developing or updating the protocol
8described in paragraph (1) or (2), including, but not limited to, at
9least two public meetings with interested parties. A notice of each
10meeting shall be provided at least 10 days prior to the meeting to
11a person who files a written request for a notice with the agency
12and to the Senate Committee on Environmental Quality and the
13Assembly Committee on Natural Resources.

14

SEC. 175.  

Section 21084 of the Public Resources Code is
15amended to read:

16

21084.  

(a) The guidelines prepared and adopted pursuant to
17Section 21083 shall include a list of classes of projects that have
18been determined not to have a significant effect on the environment
19and that shall be exempt from this division. In adopting the
20guidelines, the Secretary of the Natural Resources Agency shall
21make a finding that the listed classes of projects referred to in this
22section do not have a significant effect on the environment.

23(b) A project’s greenhouse gas emissions shall not, in and of
24themselves, be deemed to cause an exemption adopted pursuant
25to subdivision (a) to be inapplicable if the project complies with
26all applicable regulations or requirements adopted to implement
27statewide, regional, or local plans consistent with Section 15183.5
28of Title 14 of the California Code of Regulations.

29(c) A project that may result in damage to scenic resources,
30including, but not limited to, trees, historic buildings, rock
31outcroppings, or similar resources, within a highway designated
32as an official state scenic highway, pursuant to Article 2.5
33(commencing with Section 260) of Chapter 2 of Division 1 of the
34Streets and Highways Code, shall not be exempted from this
35division pursuant to subdivision (a). This subdivision does not
36apply to improvements as mitigation for a project for which a
37negative declaration has been approved or an environmental impact
38report has been certified.

39(d) A project located on a site that is included on any list
40compiled pursuant to Section 65962.5 of the Government Code
P369  1shall not be exempted from this division pursuant to subdivision
2(a).

3(e) A project that may cause a substantial adverse change in the
4significance of a historical resource, as specified in Section
521084.1, shall not be exempted from this division pursuant to
6subdivision (a).

7

SEC. 176.  

Section 72410 of the Public Resources Code is
8amended to read:

9

72410.  

(a) Unless the context otherwise requires, the
10definitions set forth in this section govern this division.

11(b) “Board” means the State Water Resources Control Board.

12(c) “Commission” means the State Lands Commission.

13(d) “Graywater” means drainage from dishwasher, shower,
14laundry, bath, and washbasin drains, but does not include drainage
15from toilets, urinals, hospitals, or cargo spaces.

16(e) “Hazardous waste” has the meaning set forth in Section
1725117 of the Health and Safety Code, but does not include sewage.

18(f) “Large passenger vessel” or “vessel” means a vessel of 300
19gross registered tons or greater that is engaged in the carrying of
20passengers for hire, excluding all of the following vessels:

21(1) Vessels without berths or overnight accommodations for
22passengers.

23(2) Noncommercial vessels, warships, vessels operated by
24nonprofit entities as determined by the Internal Revenue Service,
25and vessels operated by the state, the United States, or a foreign
26government.

27(3) Oceangoing ships, as defined in subdivision (j).

28(g) “Marine waters of the state” means waters within the area
29bounded by the mean high tide line to the three-mile state waters
30limit, from the Oregon border to the Mexican border.

31(h) “Marine sanctuary” means marine waters of the state in the
32Channel Islands National Marine Sanctuary, Cordell Bank National
33Marine Sanctuary, Gulf of the Farallones National Marine
34Sanctuary, or Monterey Bay National Marine Sanctuary.

35(i) “Medical waste” means medical waste subject to regulation
36pursuant to Part 14 (commencing with Section 117600) of Division
37104 of the Health and Safety Code.

38(j) “Oceangoing ship” means a private, commercial, government,
39or military vessel of 300 gross registered tons or more calling on
40California ports or places.

P370  1(k) “Oil” has the meaning set forth in Section 8750.

2(l) “Oily bilgewater” includes bilgewater that contains used
3lubrication oils, oil sludge and slops, fuel and oil sludge, used oil,
4used fuel and fuel filters, and oily waste.

5(m) “Operator” has the meaning set forth in Section 651 of the
6Harbors and Navigation Code.

7(n) “Other waste” means photography laboratory chemicals,
8dry cleaning chemicals, or medical waste.

9(o) “Owner” has the meaning set forth in Section 651 of the
10Harbors and Navigation Code.

11(p) “Release” means discharging or disposing of wastes into
12the environment.

13(q) “Sewage” has the meaning set forth in Section 775.5 of the
14Harbors and Navigation Code, including material that has been
15collected or treated through a marine sanitation device as that term
16is used in Section 312 of the federal Clean Water Act (33 U.S.C.
17Sec. 1322) or material that is a byproduct of sewage treatment.

18(r) “Sewage sludge” has the meaning set forth in Section 122.2
19of Title 40 of the Code of Federal Regulations.

20(s) “Sufficient holding tank capacity” means a holding tank of
21sufficient capacity to contain sewage and graywater while the
22oceangoing ship is within the marine waters of the state.

23(t) “Waste” means hazardous waste and other waste.

24

SEC. 177.  

Section 2827.10 of the Public Utilities Code is
25amended to read:

26

2827.10.  

(a) As used in this section, the following terms have
27the following meanings:

28(1) “Electrical corporation” means an electrical corporation, as
29defined in Section 218.

30(2) “Eligible fuel cell electrical generating facility” means a
31facility that includes the following:

32(A) Integrated powerplant systems containing a stack, tubular
33array, or other functionally similar configuration used to
34electrochemically convert fuel to electric energy.

35(B) An inverter and fuel processing system where necessary.

36(C) Other plant equipment, including heat recovery equipment,
37necessary to support the plant’s operation or its energy conversion.

38(3) (A) “Eligible fuel cell customer-generator” means a
39customer of an electrical corporation that meets all the following
40criteria:

P371  1(i) Uses a fuel cell electrical generating facility with a capacity
2of not more than one megawatt that is located on or adjacent to
3the customer’s owned, leased, or rented premises, is interconnected
4and operates in parallel with the electrical grid while the grid is
5operational or in a grid independent mode when the grid is
6nonoperational, and is sized to offset part or all of the eligible fuel
7cell customer-generator’s own electrical requirements.

8(ii) Is the recipient of local, state, or federal funds, or who
9self-finances projects designed to encourage the development of
10eligible fuel cell electrical generating facilities.

11(iii) Uses technology the commission has determined will
12achieve reductions in emissions of greenhouse gases pursuant to
13subdivision (b), and meets the emission requirements for eligibility
14for funding set forth in subdivision (c), of Section 379.6.

15(B) For purposes of this paragraph, a person or entity is a
16customer of the electrical corporation if the customer is physically
17located within the service territory of the electrical corporation
18and receives bundled service, distribution service, or transmission
19service from the electrical corporation.

20(4) “Net energy metering” means measuring the difference
21between the electricity supplied through the electrical grid and the
22difference between the electricity generated by an eligible fuel cell
23electrical generating facility and fed back to the electrical grid over
24a 12-month period as described in subdivision (e). Net energy
25metering shall be accomplished using a time-of-use meter capable
26of registering the flow of electricity in two directions. If the existing
27electrical meter of an eligible fuel cell customer-generator is not
28capable of measuring the flow of electricity in two directions, the
29eligible fuel cell customer-generator shall be responsible for all
30expenses involved in purchasing and installing a meter that is able
31to measure electricity flow in two directions. If an additional meter
32or meters are installed, the net energy metering calculation shall
33yield a result identical to that of a time-of-use meter.

34(b) (1) Every electrical corporation, not later than March 1,
352004, shall file with the commission a standard tariff providing
36for net energy metering for eligible fuel cell customer-generators,
37consistent with this section. Subject to the limitation in subdivision
38(f), every electrical corporation shall make this tariff available to
39eligible fuel cell customer-generators upon request, on a
40first-come-first-served basis, until the total cumulative rated
P372  1generating capacity of the eligible fuel cell electrical generating
2facilities receiving service pursuant to the tariff reaches a level
3equal to its proportionate share of a statewide limitation of 500
4megawatts cumulative rated generation capacity served under this
5section. The proportionate share shall be calculated based on the
6ratio of the electrical corporation’s peak demand compared to the
7total statewide peak demand.

8(2) To continue the growth of the market for onsite electrical
9generation using fuel cells, the commission may review and
10incrementally raise the limitation established in paragraph (1) on
11the total cumulative rated generating capacity of the eligible fuel
12cell electrical generating facilities receiving service pursuant to
13the tariff in paragraph (1).

14(c) In determining the eligibility for the cumulative rated
15generating capacity within an electrical corporation’s service
16territory, preference shall be given to facilities that, at the time of
17installation, are located in a community with significant exposure
18to air contaminants or localized air contaminants, or both,
19including, but not limited to, communities of minority populations
20or low-income populations, or both, based on the ambient air
21quality standards established pursuant to Section 39607 of the
22Health and Safety Code.

23(d) (1) Each net energy metering contract or tariff shall be
24identical, with respect to rate structure, all retail rate components,
25and any monthly charges, to the contract or tariff to which the
26customer would be assigned if the customer was not an eligible
27fuel cell customer-generator. Any new or additional demand
28charge, standby charge, customer charge, minimum monthly
29charge, interconnection charge, or other charge that would increase
30an eligible fuel cell customer-generator’s costs beyond those of
31other customers in the rate class to which the eligible fuel cell
32customer-generator would otherwise be assigned are contrary to
33the intent of the Legislature in enacting this section, and may not
34form a part of net energy metering tariffs.

35(2) The commission shall authorize an electrical corporation to
36charge a fuel cell customer-generator a fee based on the cost to
37the utility associated with providing interconnection inspection
38services for that fuel cell customer-generator.

39(e) The net metering calculation shall be made by measuring
40the difference between the electricity supplied to the eligible fuel
P373  1cell customer-generator and the electricity generated by the eligible
2fuel cell customer-generator and fed back to the electrical grid
3over a 12-month period. The following rules shall apply to the
4annualized metering calculation:

5(1) The eligible fuel cell customer-generator shall, at the end
6of each 12-month period following the date of final interconnection
7of the eligible fuel cell electrical generating facility with an
8electrical corporation, and at each anniversary date thereafter, be
9billed for electricity used during that period. The electrical
10corporation shall determine if the eligible fuel cell
11customer-generator was a net consumer or a net producer of
12electricity during that period. For purposes of determining if the
13eligible fuel cell customer-generator was a net consumer or a net
14producer of electricity during that period, the electrical corporation
15shall aggregate the electrical load of the meters located on the
16property where the eligible fuel cell electrical generating facility
17is located and on all property adjacent or contiguous to the property
18on which the facility is located, if those properties are solely
19owned, leased, or rented by the eligible fuel cell
20customer-generator. Each aggregated account shall be billed and
21measured according to a time-of-use rate schedule.

22(2) At the end of each 12-month period, where the electricity
23supplied during the period by the electrical corporation exceeds
24the electricity generated by the eligible fuel cell customer-generator
25during that same period, the eligible fuel cell customer-generator
26is a net electricity consumer and the electrical corporation shall
27be owed compensation for the eligible fuel cell
28customer-generator’s net kilowatthour consumption over that same
29period. The compensation owed for the eligible fuel cell
30customer-generator’s consumption shall be calculated as follows:

31(A) The generation charges for any net monthly consumption
32of electricity shall be calculated according to the terms of the tariff
33to which the same customer would be assigned to or be eligible
34for if the customer was not an eligible fuel cell customer-generator.
35When the eligible fuel cell customer-generator is a net generator
36during any discrete time-of-use period, the net kilowatthours
37produced shall be valued at the same price per kilowatthour as the
38electrical corporation would charge for retail kilowatthour sales
39for generation, exclusive of any surcharges, during that same
40time-of-use period. If the eligible fuel cell customer-generator’s
P374  1time-of-use electrical meter is unable to measure the flow of
2electricity in two directions, paragraph (4) of subdivision (a) shall
3apply. All other charges, other than generation charges, shall be
4calculated in accordance with the eligible fuel cell
5customer-generator’s applicable tariff and based on the total
6kilowatthours delivered by the electrical corporation to the eligible
7fuel cell customer-generator. To the extent that charges for
8transmission and distribution services are recovered through
9demand charges in any particular month, no standby reservation
10charges shall apply in that monthly billing cycle.

11(B) The net balance of moneys owed shall be paid in accordance
12with the electrical corporation’s normal billing cycle.

13(3) At the end of each 12-month period, where the electricity
14generated by the eligible fuel cell customer-generator during the
1512-month period exceeds the electricity supplied by the electrical
16corporation during that same period, the eligible fuel cell
17customer-generator is a net electricity producer and the electrical
18corporation shall retain any excess kilowatthours generated during
19the prior 12-month period. The eligible fuel cell customer-generator
20 shall not be owed any compensation for those excess kilowatthours.

21(4) If an eligible fuel cell customer-generator terminates service
22with the electrical corporation, the electrical corporation shall
23reconcile the eligible fuel cell customer-generator’s consumption
24and production of electricity during any 12-month period.

25(f) No fuel cell electrical generating facility shall be eligible for
26the tariff unless it commences operation prior to January 1, 2015,
27unless a later enacted statute, that is chaptered before January 1,
282015, extends this eligibility commencement date. The tariff shall
29remain in effect for an eligible fuel cell electrical generating facility
30that commences operation pursuant to the tariff prior to January
311, 2015. A fuel cell customer-generator shall be eligible for the
32tariff established pursuant to this section only for the operating
33life of the eligible fuel cell electrical generating facility.

34

SEC. 178.  

Section 2862 of the Public Utilities Code is amended
35to read:

36

2862.  

The Legislature finds and declares all of the following:

37(a) California is heavily dependent on natural gas, importing
38more than 80 percent of the natural gas it consumes.

P375  1(b) Rising worldwide demand for natural gas and a shrinking
2supply create rising and unstable prices that can harm California
3consumers and the economy.

4(c) Natural gas is a fossil fuel and a major source of global
5warming pollution and the pollutants that cause air pollution,
6including smog.

7(d) California’s growing population and economy will put a
8strain on energy supplies and threaten the ability of the state to
9meet its global warming goals unless specific steps are taken to
10reduce demand and generate energy cleanly and efficiently.

11(e) Water heating for domestic and industrial use relies almost
12entirely on natural gas and accounts for a significant percentage
13of the state’s natural gas consumption.

14(f) Solar water heating systems represent the largest untapped
15natural gas saving potential remaining in California.

16(g) In addition to financial and energy savings, solar water
17heating systems can help protect against future gas and electricity
18shortages and reduce our dependence on foreign sources of energy.

19(h) Solar water heating systems can also help preserve the
20environment and protect public health by reducing air pollution,
21including carbon dioxide, a leading global warming gas, and
22nitrogen oxide, a precursor to smog.

23(i) Growing demand for these technologies will create jobs in
24California as well as promote greater energy independence, protect
25consumers from rising energy costs, and result in cleaner air.

26(j) It is in the interest of the State of California to promote solar
27water heating systems and other technologies that directly reduce
28demand for natural gas in homes and businesses.

29(k) It is the intent of the Legislature to build a mainstream
30market for solar water heating systems that directly reduces demand
31for natural gas in homes, businesses, schools, nonprofit, and
32government buildings. Toward that end, it is the goal of this article
33to install at least 200,000 solar water heating systems on homes,
34businesses, and other buildings or facilities of eligible customer
35 classes throughout the state by 2017, thereby lowering prices and
36creating a self-sufficient market that will sustain itself beyond the
37life of this program.

38(l) It is the intent of the Legislature that the solar water heating
39system incentives created by this article should be a cost-effective
40investment by gas customers. Gas customers will recoup the cost
P376  1of their investment through lower prices as a result of avoiding
2purchases of natural gas.

3(m) It is the intent of the Legislature that this article will
4encourage the cost-effective deployment of solar heating systems
5in both residential and commercial markets and in each end-use
6application sector in a balanced manner. It is the intent of the
7Legislature that the commission monitor and adjust incentives
8created by this article so that they are cost-effective investments
9sufficient to significantly increase markets and promote market
10transformation. It is the intent of the Legislature that the
11commission ensure that increased, uniform growth in each market
12sector is achieved through program incentives or structure
13adjustments that prevent overutilization of program resources by
14any single sector.

15

SEC. 179.  

Section 5142 of the Public Utilities Code is amended
16to read:

17

5142.  

(a) Except as provided in Section 5133, a household
18goods carrier in compliance with this chapter has a lien on used
19household goods and personal effects to secure payment of the
20amount specified in subdivision (b) for transportation and
21additional services ordered by the consignor. A lien does not attach
22to food, medicine, or medical devices, items used to treat or assist
23an individual with a disability, or items used for the care of a minor
24child.

25(b) (1) The amount secured by the lien is the maximum total
26dollar amount for the transportation of the household goods and
27personal effects and any additional services (including any bona
28fide change order permitted under the commission’s tariffs) that
29is set forth clearly and conspicuously in writing adjacent to the
30space reserved for the signature of the consignor and that is agreed
31to by the consignor before any goods or personal effects are moved
32from their location or any additional services are performed.

33(2) The dollar amount for the transportation of household goods
34and personal effects and additional services may not be preprinted
35on any form, shall be just and reasonable, and shall be established
36in good faith by the household goods carrier based on the specific
37circumstances of the services to be performed.

38(c) Upon tender to the household goods carrier of the amount
39specified in subdivision (b), the lien is extinguished, and the
P377  1household goods carrier shall release all household goods and
2personal effects to the consignee.

3(d) A household goods carrier may enforce the lien on household
4goods and personal effects provided in this section except as to
5any goods that the carrier voluntarily delivers or unjustifiably
6refuses to deliver. The lien shall be enforced in the manner
7provided in this section and Chapter 6 (commencing with Section
89601) of Division 9 of the Commercial Code for the enforcement
9of a security interest in consumer goods in a consumer transaction.
10To the extent of any conflict between this section and that Chapter
116, this section shall prevail. Every act required in connection with
12enforcing the lien shall be performed in good faith and in a
13commercially reasonable manner.

14(e) The household goods carrier shall provide a notification of
15disposition at least 30 days prior to any disposition to each
16consignor and consignee by personal delivery, or in the alternative,
17by first-class and certified mail, postage prepaid and return receipt
18requested, at the address last known by the carrier and at the
19destination address, and by electronic mail if an electronic mail
20address is known to the carrier. If any of the required recipients
21of notice are married to each other, and according to the carrier’s
22records, reside at the same address, one notice addressed to both
23shall be sufficient. Within 14 days after a disposition, the carrier
24shall provide to the consignors any surplus funds from the
25disposition and an accounting, without charge, of the proceeds of
26the disposition.

27(f) Any person having possession or control of household goods
28or personal effects, who knows, or through the exercise of
29reasonable care should know, that the household goods carrier has
30been tendered the amount specified in subdivision (b), shall release
31the household goods and personal effects to the consignor or
32consignee, upon the request of the consignor or consignee. If the
33person fails to release the household goods and personal effects
34to the consignor or consignee, any peace officer, as defined in
35subdivision (c) of Section 5133, may take custody of the household
36goods and personal effects and release them to the consignor or
37consignee.

38(g) This section shall not affect any rights, if any, of a household
39goods carrier to claim additional amounts, on an unsecured basis,
40or of a consignor or consignee to make or contest any claim, and
P378  1tender of payment of the amount specified in subdivision (b) is
2not a waiver of claims by the consignor or consignee.

3(h) Any person injured by a violation of this section may bring
4an action for the recovery of the greater of one thousand dollars
5($1,000) or actual damages, injunctive or other equitable relief,
6reasonable attorney’s fees and costs, and exemplary damages of
7not less than three times the amount of actual damages for a willful
8violation.

9(i) Any waiver of this section shall be void and unenforceable.

10(j) Notwithstanding any other law, this section exclusively
11establishes and provides for a household goods carrier’s lien on
12used household goods and personal effects to secure payment for
13transportation and additional services ordered by the consignor.

14(k) For purposes of this section, the following terms have the
15following meanings:

16(1) “Consignor” means the person named in the bill of lading
17as the person from whom the household goods and personal effects
18have been received for shipment and that person’s agent.

19(2) “Consignee” means the person named in the bill of lading
20to whom or to whose order the household goods carrier is required
21to make delivery as provided in the bill of lading and that person’s
22 agent.

23(l) Any document required by this section may be in an
24electronic form, if agreed upon by the carrier and the customer.

25

SEC. 180.  

Section 5143 of the Public Utilities Code is amended
26to read:

27

5143.  

(a) For purposes of this section, the following terms
28have the following meanings:

29(1) “Consignor” means the person named in the bill of lading
30as the person from whom the household goods and personal effects
31have been received for shipment and that person’s agent.

32(2) “Consignee” means the person named in the bill of lading
33to whom or to whose order the household goods carrier is required
34to make delivery as provided in the bill of lading and that person’s
35agent.

36(b) Any household goods carrier engaged in the business of
37transportation of used household goods and personal effects by
38motor vehicle over any public highway in this state shall provide
39each consignor with a completed copy of the notice set forth in
40this section. The notice shall be printed in at least 12-point type,
P379  1except the title and first two paragraphs which shall be printed in
2boldface type, and provided to each consignor at least three days
3prior to the date scheduled for the transportation of household
4goods or personal effects. If the consignor requests services on a
5date that is less than three days before the scheduled date for
6transportation of the household goods or personal effects, the
7carrier shall provide the notice as soon as practicable, but in no
8event may the carrier commence any services until the consignor
9has signed and received a signed copy of the notice. The carrier
10shall obtain sufficient information from the consignor to fill out
11the form and shall include the correct maximum amount and a
12sufficient description of services that will be performed. The carrier
13shall retain a copy of the notice, signed by the consignor, for at
14least three years from the date the notice was signed by the
15consignor.

16(c) Any waiver of the requirements of this section is void and
17unenforceable.

18(d) The “Not To Exceed” amount set forth in the notice and the
19agreement between the household goods carrier and the consignor
20shall be the maximum total dollar amount for which the consignor
21may be liable for the transportation of household goods and
22personal effects and any additional services ordered by the
23consignor (including any bona fide change order permitted under
24the commission’s rules and tariffs) and agreed to by the consignor
25before any goods or personal effects are moved from their location
26or any other services are performed.

27(e) A household goods carrier may provide the notice set forth
28in this section either as a separate document or by including it as
29the centerfold of the informational booklet that the household
30goods carrier is required to provide the consignor under the
31commission’s tariffs. If the household goods carrier provides the
32notice as part of the informational booklet, the booklet shall contain
33a tab that extends beyond the edge of the booklet at the place where
34the notice is included. The statement “Important Notice” shall be
35printed on the tab in at least 12-point boldface type. In addition,
36the statement “Customer Must Read And Sign The Important
37Notice In The Middle Of This Booklet Before A Move Can Begin”
38shall be set forth in 14-point boldface type on the front cover of
39the booklet.

P380  1(f) The notice provided the consignor shall be in the following
2form:

34“IMPORTANT NOTICE ABOUT YOUR MOVE
5

6“IT IS VERY IMPORTANT THAT YOU ONLY AGREE TO A
7“NOT TO EXCEED” AMOUNT THAT YOU THINK IS A
8PROPER AND REASONABLE FEE FOR THE SERVICES YOU
9ARE REQUESTING. THE “NOT TO EXCEED” AMOUNT THIS
10MOVER IS REQUESTING IS $______________________ to
11perform the following services:
12_____________________________________________________________________
13______________________________________________________________________
14______________________________________________________________________.

15

16“IF YOU DO NOT AGREE TO THE “NOT TO EXCEED”
17AMOUNT LISTED OR THE DESCRIPTION OF SERVICES,
18YOU HAVE THE RIGHT TO REFUSE THE MOVER’S
19SERVICE AT NO CHARGE TO YOU.
20“If you request additional or different services at the time of the
21move, you may be asked to complete a Change Order which will
22set forth your agreement to pay for additional fees for those newly
23requested services. If you agree to the additional charges on that
24Change Order, those charges may be added to the “NOT TO
25EXCEED” amount set forth above. If you do not agree to the
26amounts listed in the Change Order, you should not sign it and
27may refuse the mover’s services.

28“A mover cannot refuse to release your goods once you have paid
29the “NOT TO EXCEED” amount for the transportation of your
30goods and personal effects and any additional services that you
31have agreed to in writing. The “NOT TO EXCEED” amount must
32be reasonable.

33“A mover cannot, under any circumstances, withhold food,
34medicine, medical devices, items to treat or assist a disabled person,
35or items used for care of a minor child. An unlicensed mover has
36no right to withhold your goods for any reason including claims
37that you have not adequately paid for services rendered.

38“For additional information or to confirm whether a mover is
39
licensed by the California Public Utilities Commission, please call
40
the Public Utilities Commission toll free at:
P381 11

 

 
 

   .

insert toll-free number

“I have completed this form and provided the consumer (shipper) with a copy of this notice.
“Signed ___________________________Dated____________________

“I have been provided with a copy of this form.
“Signed ___________________________Dated___________________”

 

12(g) Any document required by this section may be in an
13electronic form, if agreed upon by the carrier and the customer.

14

SEC. 181.  

Section 9506 of the Public Utilities Code is amended
15to read:

16

9506.  

(a) A local publicly owned electric utility shall report
17to the Energy Commission regarding the energy storage system
18procurement targets and policies adopted by the governing board
19pursuant to paragraph (2) of, and report any modifications made
20to those targets as a result of a reevaluation undertaken pursuant
21to paragraph (3) of subdivision (b) of Section 2836.

22(b) By January 1, 2017, a local publicly owned electric utility
23shall submit a report to the Energy Commission demonstrating
24that it has complied with the energy storage system procurement
25targets and policies adopted by the governing board pursuant to
26subdivision (b) of Section 2836.

27(c) By January 1, 2021, a local publicly owned electric utility
28shall submit a report to the Energy Commission demonstrating
29that it has complied with the energy storage system procurement
30targets and policies adopted by the governing board pursuant to
31subdivision (b) of Section 2836.

32(d) The Energy Commission shall ensure that a copy of each
33report or plan required by subdivisions (b) and (c), with any
34confidential information redacted, is available on the Energy
35Commission’s Internet Web site, or on an Internet Web site
36maintained by the local publicly owned electric utility that can be
37accessed from the Energy Commission’s Internet Web site.

38(e) A summary of the reports required by this section shall be
39included as part of each integrated energy policy report required
40pursuant to Section 25302 of the Public Resources Code.

P382  1

SEC. 182.  

Section 185035 of the Public Utilities Code is
2amended to read:

3

185035.  

(a) The authority shall establish an independent peer
4review group for the purpose of reviewing the planning,
5engineering, financing, and other elements of the authority’s plans
6and issuing an analysis of the appropriateness and accuracy of the
7authority’s assumptions and an analysis of the viability of the
8authority’s financing plan, including the funding plan for each
9corridor required pursuant to subdivision (c) of Section 2704.08
10of the Streets and Highways Code.

11(b) The peer review group shall include all of the following:

12(1) Two individuals with experience in the construction or
13operation of high-speed trains in Europe, Asia, or both, designated
14by the Treasurer.

15(2) Two individuals, one with experience in engineering and
16construction of high-speed trains and one with experience in project
17finance, designated by the Controller.

18(3) One representative from a financial services or financial
19consulting firm who shall not have been a contractor or
20subcontractor of the authority for the previous three years,
21designated by the Director of Finance.

22(4) One representative with experience in environmental
23planning, designated by the Secretary of Business, Transportation
24and Housing.

25(5) Two expert representatives from agencies providing intercity
26or commuter passenger train services in California, designated by
27the Secretary of Business, Transportation and Housing.

28(c) The peer review group shall evaluate the authority’s funding
29plans and prepare its independent judgment as to the feasibility
30and reasonableness of the plans, appropriateness of assumptions,
31analyses, and estimates, and any other observations or evaluations
32it deems necessary.

33(d) The authority shall provide the peer review group any and
34all information that the peer review group may request to carry
35out its responsibilities.

36(e) The peer review group shall report its findings and
37conclusions to the Legislature no later than 60 days after receiving
38the plans.

P383  1

SEC. 183.  

Section 2188.6 of the Revenue and Taxation Code,
2as amended by Section 79 of Chapter 181 of the Statutes of 2012,
3is amended to read:

4

2188.6.  

(a) Unless a request for exemption has been recorded
5pursuant to subdivision (d), prior to the creation of a condominium
6as defined in Section 783 of the Civil Code, the county assessor
7may separately assess each individual unit which is shown on the
8condominium plan of a proposed condominium project when all
9of the following documents have been recorded as required by
10law:

11(1) A subdivision final map or parcel map, as described in
12Sections 66434 and 66445, respectively, of the Government Code.

13(2) A condominium plan, as defined in Section 4120 of the Civil
14Code.

15(3) A declaration, as defined in Section 4135 of the Civil Code.

16(b) The tax due on each individual unit shall constitute a lien
17solely on that unit.

18(c) The lien created pursuant to this section shall be a lien on
19an undivided interest in a portion of real property coupled with a
20separate interest in space called a unit as described in Section 4125
21of the Civil Code.

22(d) The record owner of the real property may record with the
23condominium plan a request that the real property be exempt from
24separate assessment pursuant to this section. If a request for
25exemption is recorded, separate assessment of a condominium unit
26shall be made only in accordance with Section 2188.3.

27(e) This section shall become operative on January 1, 1990, and
28shall apply to condominium projects for which a condominium
29plan is recorded after that date.

30

SEC. 184.  

Section 7285.3 of the Revenue and Taxation Code
31 is amended to read:

32

7285.3.  

The combined rate of all taxes imposed in any county
33pursuant to this chapter and pursuant to Part 1.6 (commencing
34with Section 7251) shall not exceed the rate specified in Section
357251.1.

36

SEC. 185.  

Section 17276.20 of the Revenue and Taxation Code
37 is amended to read:

38

17276.20.  

Except as provided in Sections 17276.1, 17276.2,
3917276.4, 17276.5, 17276.6, and 17276.7, the deduction provided
P384  1by Section 172 of the Internal Revenue Code, relating to net
2operating loss deduction, shall be modified as follows:

3(a) (1) Net operating losses attributable to taxable years
4beginning before January 1, 1987, shall not be allowed.

5(2) A net operating loss shall not be carried forward to any
6taxable year beginning before January 1, 1987.

7(b) (1) Except as provided in paragraphs (2) and (3), the
8provisions of Section 172(b)(2) of the Internal Revenue Code,
9relating to amount of carrybacks and carryovers, shall be modified
10so that the applicable percentage of the entire amount of the net
11operating loss for any taxable year shall be eligible for carryover
12to any subsequent taxable year. For purposes of this subdivision,
13the applicable percentage shall be:

14(A) Fifty percent for any taxable year beginning before January
151, 2000.

16(B) Fifty-five percent for any taxable year beginning on or after
17January 1, 2000, and before January 1, 2002.

18(C) Sixty percent for any taxable year beginning on or after
19January 1, 2002, and before January 1, 2004.

20(D) One hundred percent for any taxable year beginning on or
21after January 1, 2004.

22(2) In the case of a taxpayer who has a net operating loss in any
23 taxable year beginning on or after January 1, 1994, and who
24operates a new business during that taxable year, each of the
25following shall apply to each loss incurred during the first three
26taxable years of operating the new business:

27(A) If the net operating loss is equal to or less than the net loss
28from the new business, 100 percent of the net operating loss shall
29be carried forward as provided in subdivision (d).

30(B) If the net operating loss is greater than the net loss from the
31new business, the net operating loss shall be carried over as
32follows:

33(i) With respect to an amount equal to the net loss from the new
34business, 100 percent of that amount shall be carried forward as
35provided in subdivision (d).

36(ii) With respect to the portion of the net operating loss that
37exceeds the net loss from the new business, the applicable
38percentage of that amount shall be carried forward as provided in
39subdivision (d).

P385  1(C) For purposes of Section 172(b)(2) of the Internal Revenue
2Code, the amount described in clause (ii) of subparagraph (B) shall
3be absorbed before the amount described in clause (i) of
4subparagraph (B).

5(3) In the case of a taxpayer who has a net operating loss in any
6taxable year beginning on or after January 1, 1994, and who
7operates an eligible small business during that taxable year, each
8of the following shall apply:

9(A) If the net operating loss is equal to or less than the net loss
10from the eligible small business, 100 percent of the net operating
11loss shall be carried forward to the taxable years specified in
12subdivision (d).

13(B) If the net operating loss is greater than the net loss from the
14eligible small business, the net operating loss shall be carried over
15as follows:

16(i) With respect to an amount equal to the net loss from the
17eligible small business, 100 percent of that amount shall be carried
18forward as provided in subdivision (d).

19(ii) With respect to that portion of the net operating loss that
20exceeds the net loss from the eligible small business, the applicable
21percentage of that amount shall be carried forward as provided in
22subdivision (d).

23(C) For purposes of Section 172(b)(2) of the Internal Revenue
24Code, the amount described in clause (ii) of subparagraph (B) shall
25be absorbed before the amount described in clause (i) of
26subparagraph (B).

27(4) In the case of a taxpayer who has a net operating loss in a
28taxable year beginning on or after January 1, 1994, and who
29operates a business that qualifies as both a new business and an
30eligible small business under this section, that business shall be
31treated as a new business for the first three taxable years of the
32new business.

33(5) In the case of a taxpayer who has a net operating loss in a
34taxable year beginning on or after January 1, 1994, and who
35operates more than one business, and more than one of those
36businesses qualifies as either a new business or an eligible small
37business under this section, paragraph (2) shall be applied first,
38except that if there is any remaining portion of the net operating
39loss after application of clause (i) of subparagraph (B) of that
40paragraph, paragraph (3) shall be applied to the remaining portion
P386  1of the net operating loss as though that remaining portion of the
2net operating loss constituted the entire net operating loss.

3(6) For purposes of this section, the term “net loss” means the
4amount of net loss after application of Sections 465 and 469 of the
5Internal Revenue Code.

6(c) Section 172(b)(1) of the Internal Revenue Code, relating to
7years to which the loss may be carried, is modified as follows:

8(1) Net operating loss carrybacks shall not be allowed for any
9net operating losses attributable to taxable years beginning before
10January 1, 2013.

11(2) A net operating loss attributable to taxable years beginning
12on or after January 1, 2013, shall be a net operating loss carryback
13to each of the two taxable years preceding the taxable year of the
14loss in lieu of the number of years provided therein.

15(A) For a net operating loss attributable to a taxable year
16beginning on or after January 1, 2013, and before January 1, 2014,
17the amount of carryback to any taxable year shall not exceed 50
18percent of the net operating loss.

19(B) For a net operating loss attributable to a taxable year
20beginning on or after January 1, 2014, and before January 1, 2015,
21the amount of carryback to any taxable year shall not exceed 75
22percent of the net operating loss.

23(C) For a net operating loss attributable to a taxable year
24beginning on or after January 1, 2015, the amount of carryback to
25any taxable year shall not exceed 100 percent of the net operating
26loss.

27(3) Notwithstanding paragraph (2), Section 172(b)(1)(B) of the
28Internal Revenue Code, relating to special rules for REITs, and
29Section 172(b)(1)(E) of the Internal Revenue Code, relating to
30excess interest loss, and Section 172(h) of the Internal Revenue
31Code, relating to corporate equity reduction interest losses, shall
32apply as provided.

33(4) A net operating loss carryback shall not be carried back to
34any taxable year beginning before January 1, 2011.

35(d) (1) (A) For a net operating loss for any taxable year
36beginning on or after January 1, 1987, and before January 1, 2000,
37Section 172(b)(1)(A)(ii) of the Internal Revenue Code is modified
38to substitute “five taxable years” in lieu of “20 taxable years”
39except as otherwise provided in paragraphs (2) and (3).

P387  1(B) For a net operating loss for any taxable year beginning on
2or after January 1, 2000, and before January 1, 2008, Section
3172(b)(1)(A)(ii) of the Internal Revenue Code is modified to
4substitute “10 taxable years” in lieu of “20 taxable years.”

5(2) For any taxable year beginning before January 1, 2000, in
6the case of a “new business,” the “five taxable years” in paragraph
7(1) shall be modified to read as follows:

8(A) “Eight taxable years” for a net operating loss attributable
9to the first taxable year of that new business.

10(B) “Seven taxable years” for a net operating loss attributable
11to the second taxable year of that new business.

12(C) “Six taxable years” for a net operating loss attributable to
13the third taxable year of that new business.

14(3) For any carryover of a net operating loss for which a
15deduction is denied by Section 17276.3, the carryover period
16specified in this subdivision shall be extended as follows:

17(A) By one year for a net operating loss attributable to taxable
18years beginning in 1991.

19(B) By two years for a net operating loss attributable to taxable
20years beginning prior to January 1, 1991.

21(4) The net operating loss attributable to taxable years beginning
22on or after January 1, 1987, and before January 1, 1994, shall be
23a net operating loss carryover to each of the 10 taxable years
24following the year of the loss if it is incurred by a taxpayer that is
25under the jurisdiction of the court in a Title 11 or similar case at
26any time during the income year. The loss carryover provided in
27the preceding sentence shall not apply to any loss incurred after
28the date the taxpayer is no longer under the jurisdiction of the court
29in a Title 11 or similar case.

30(e) For purposes of this section:

31(1) “Eligible small business” means any trade or business that
32has gross receipts, less returns and allowances, of less than one
33million dollars ($1,000,000) during the taxable year.

34(2) Except as provided in subdivision (f), “new business” means
35any trade or business activity that is first commenced in this state
36on or after January 1, 1994.

37(3) “Title 11 or similar case” shall have the same meaning as
38in Section 368(a)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code.

P388  1(4) In the case of any trade or business activity conducted by a
2partnership or “S” corporation paragraphs (1) and (2) shall be
3applied to the partnership or “S” corporation.

4(f) For purposes of this section, in determining whether a trade
5or business activity qualifies as a new business under paragraph
6(2) of subdivision (e), the following rules shall apply:

7(1) In any case where a taxpayer purchases or otherwise acquires
8all or any portion of the assets of an existing trade or business
9(irrespective of the form of entity) that is doing business in this
10state (within the meaning of Section 23101), the trade or business
11thereafter conducted by the taxpayer (or any related person) shall
12not be treated as a new business if the aggregate fair market value
13of the acquired assets (including real, personal, tangible, and
14intangible property) used by the taxpayer (or any related person)
15in the conduct of its trade or business exceeds 20 percent of the
16aggregate fair market value of the total assets of the trade or
17business being conducted by the taxpayer (or any related person).
18For purposes of this paragraph only, the following rules shall apply:

19(A) The determination of the relative fair market values of the
20acquired assets and the total assets shall be made as of the last day
21of the first taxable year in which the taxpayer (or any related
22person) first uses any of the acquired trade or business assets in
23its business activity.

24(B) Any acquired assets that constituted property described in
25Section 1221(1) of the Internal Revenue Code in the hands of the
26transferor shall not be treated as assets acquired from an existing
27trade or business, unless those assets also constitute property
28described in Section 1221(1) of the Internal Revenue Code in the
29hands of the acquiring taxpayer (or related person).

30(2) In any case where a taxpayer (or any related person) is
31engaged in one or more trade or business activities in this state, or
32has been engaged in one or more trade or business activities in this
33state within the preceding 36 months (“prior trade or business
34activity”), and thereafter commences an additional trade or business
35activity in this state, the additional trade or business activity shall
36only be treated as a new business if the additional trade or business
37activity is classified under a different division of the Standard
38Industrial Classification (SIC) Manual published by the United
39States Office of Management and Budget, 1987 edition, than are
P389  1any of the taxpayer’s (or any related person’s) current or prior
2trade or business activities.

3(3) In any case where a taxpayer, including all related persons,
4is engaged in trade or business activities wholly outside of this
5state and the taxpayer first commences doing business in this state
6(within the meaning of Section 23101) after December 31, 1993
7(other than by purchase or other acquisition described in paragraph
8(1)), the trade or business activity shall be treated as a new business
9under paragraph (2) of subdivision (e).

10(4) In any case where the legal form under which a trade or
11business activity is being conducted is changed, the change in form
12shall be disregarded and the determination of whether the trade or
13business activity is a new business shall be made by treating the
14taxpayer as having purchased or otherwise acquired all or any
15portion of the assets of an existing trade or business under the rules
16of paragraph (1).

17(5) “Related person” shall mean any person that is related to
18the taxpayer under either Section 267 or 318 of the Internal
19Revenue Code.

20(6) “Acquire” shall include any gift, inheritance, transfer incident
21 to divorce, or any other transfer, whether or not for consideration.

22(7) (A) For taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 1997,
23the term “new business” shall include any taxpayer that is engaged
24in biopharmaceutical activities or other biotechnology activities
25that are described in Codes 2833 to 2836, inclusive, of the Standard
26Industrial Classification (SIC) Manual published by the United
27States Office of Management and Budget, 1987 edition, and as
28further amended, and that has not received regulatory approval for
29any product from the Food and Drug Administration.

30(B) For purposes of this paragraph:

31(i) “Biopharmaceutical activities” means those activities that
32use organisms or materials derived from organisms, and their
33cellular, subcellular, or molecular components, in order to provide
34 pharmaceutical products for human or animal therapeutics and
35diagnostics. Biopharmaceutical activities make use of living
36organisms to make commercial products, as opposed to
37pharmaceutical activities that make use of chemical compounds
38to produce commercial products.

39(ii) “Other biotechnology activities” means activities consisting
40of the application of recombinant DNA technology to produce
P390  1commercial products, as well as activities regarding pharmaceutical
2delivery systems designed to provide a measure of control over
3the rate, duration, and site of pharmaceutical delivery.

4(g) In computing the modifications under Section 172(d)(2) of
5the Internal Revenue Code, relating to capital gains and losses of
6taxpayers other than corporations, the exclusion provided by
7Section 18152.5 shall not be allowed.

8(h) Notwithstanding any provisions of this section to the
9contrary, a deduction shall be allowed to a “qualified taxpayer” as
10provided in Sections 17276.1, 17276.2, 17276.4, 17276.5, 17276.6,
11and 17276.7.

12(i) The Franchise Tax Board may prescribe appropriate
13regulations to carry out the purposes of this section, including any
14regulations necessary to prevent the avoidance of the purposes of
15this section through splitups, shell corporations, partnerships, tiered
16ownership structures, or otherwise.

17(j) The Franchise Tax Board may reclassify any net operating
18loss carryover determined under either paragraph (2) or (3) of
19subdivision (b) as a net operating loss carryover under paragraph
20(1) of subdivision (b) upon a showing that the reclassification is
21necessary to prevent evasion of the purposes of this section.

22(k) Except as otherwise provided, the amendments made by
23Chapter 107 of the Statutes of 2000 shall apply to net operating
24losses for taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 2000.

25

SEC. 186.  

Section 18152.5 of the Revenue and Taxation Code
26 is amended to read:

27

18152.5.  

(a) For purposes of this part, gross income shall not
28include 50 percent of any gain from the sale or exchange of
29qualified small business stock held for more than five years.

30(b) (1) If the taxpayer has eligible gain for the taxable year
31from one or more dispositions of stock issued by any corporation,
32the aggregate amount of the gain from dispositions of stock issued
33by the corporation which may be taken into account under
34subdivision (a) for the taxable year shall not exceed the greater of
35either of the following:

36(A) Ten million dollars ($10,000,000) reduced by the aggregate
37amount of eligible gain taken into account by the taxpayer under
38subdivision (a) for prior taxable years and attributable to
39dispositions of stock issued by the corporation.

P391  1(B) Ten times the aggregate adjusted bases of qualified small
2business stock issued by the corporation and disposed of by the
3taxpayer during the taxable year. For purposes of this subparagraph,
4the adjusted basis of any stock shall be determined without regard
5to any addition to the basis after the date on which the stock was
6originally issued.

7(2) For purposes of this subdivision, the term “eligible gain”
8means any gain from the sale or exchange of qualified small
9business stock held for more than five years.

10(3) (A) In the case of a married individual filing a separate
11return, subparagraph (A) of paragraph (1) shall be applied by
12substituting five million dollars ($5,000,000) for ten million dollars
13($10,000,000).

14(B) In the case of a married taxpayer filing a joint return, the
15amount of gain taken into account under subdivision (a) shall be
16allocated equally between the spouses for purposes of applying
17this subdivision to subsequent taxable years.

18(C) For purposes of this subdivision, marital status shall be
19determined under Section 7703 of the Internal Revenue Code.

20(c) For purposes of this section:

21(1) Except as otherwise provided in this section, the term
22“qualified small business stock” means any stock in a C corporation
23which is originally issued after August 10, 1993, if both of the
24following apply:

25(A) As of the date of issuance, the corporation is a qualified
26small business.

27(B) Except as provided in subdivisions (f) and (h), the stock is
28acquired by the taxpayer at its original issue (directly or through
29an underwriter) in either of the following manners:

30(i) In exchange for money or other property (not including
31stock).

32(ii) As compensation for services provided to the corporation
33(other than services performed as an underwriter of the stock).

34(2) (A) Stock in a corporation shall not be treated as qualified
35small business stock unless, during substantially all of the
36taxpayer’s holding period for the stock, the corporation meets the
37active business requirements of subdivision (e) and the corporation
38is a C corporation.

39(B) (i) Notwithstanding subdivision (e), a corporation shall be
40treated as meeting the active business requirements of subdivision
P392  1(e) for any period during which the corporation qualifies as a
2specialized small business investment company.

3(ii) For purposes of clause (i), the term “specialized small
4business investment company” means any eligible corporation (as
5defined in paragraph (4) of subdivision (e)) that is licensed to
6operate under former Section 301(d) of the federal Small Business
7Investment Act of 1958 (as in effect on May 13, 1993).

8(3) (A) Stock acquired by the taxpayer shall not be treated as
9qualified small business stock if, at any time during the four-year
10period beginning on the date two years before the issuance of the
11stock, the corporation issuing the stock purchased (directly or
12indirectly) any of its stock from the taxpayer or from a related
13person (within the meaning of Section 267(b) or 707(b)) to the
14taxpayer.

15(B) Stock issued by a corporation shall not be treated as qualified
16small business stock if, during the two-year period beginning on
17the date one year before the issuance of the stock, the corporation
18made one or more purchases of its stock with an aggregate value
19(as of the time of the respective purchases) exceeding 5 percent
20of the aggregate value of all of its stock as of the beginning of the
21two-year period.

22(C) If any transaction is treated under Section 304(a) of the
23Internal Revenue Code as a distribution in redemption of the stock
24of any corporation, for purposes of subparagraphs (A) and (B), the
25corporation shall be treated as purchasing an amount of its stock
26equal to the amount treated as a distribution in redemption of the
27stock of the corporation under Section 304(a) of the Internal
28Revenue Code.

29(d) For purposes of this section:

30(1) The term “qualified small business” means any domestic
31corporation (as defined in Section 7701(a)(4) of the Internal
32Revenue Code) which is a C corporation if all of the following
33apply:

34(A) The aggregate gross assets of the corporation (or any
35predecessor thereof) at all times on or after July 1, 1993, and before
36the issuance did not exceed fifty million dollars ($50,000,000).

37(B) The aggregate gross assets of the corporation immediately
38after the issuance (determined by taking into account amounts
39received in the issuance) do not exceed fifty million dollars
40($50,000,000).

P393  1(C) At least 80 percent of the corporation’s payroll, as measured
2by total dollar value, is attributable to employment located within
3California.

4(D) The corporation agrees to submit those reports to the
5Franchise Tax Board and to shareholders as the Franchise Tax
6Board may require to carry out the purposes of this section.

7(2) (A) For purposes of paragraph (1), the term “aggregate
8gross assets” means the amount of cash and the aggregate adjusted
9basis of other property held by the corporation.

10(B) For purposes of subparagraph (A), the adjusted basis of any
11property contributed to the corporation (or other property with a
12basis determined in whole or in part by reference to the adjusted
13basis of property so contributed) shall be determined as if the basis
14of the property contributed to the corporation immediately after
15the contribution was equal to its fair market value as of the time
16of the contribution.

17(3) (A) All corporations which are members of the same
18parent-subsidiary controlled group shall be treated as one
19corporation for purposes of this subdivision.

20(B) For purposes of subparagraph (A), the term
21“parent-subsidiary controlled group” means any controlled group
22of corporations as defined in Section 1563(a)(1) of the Internal
23Revenue Code, except that both of the following shall apply:

24(i) “More than 50 percent” shall be substituted for “at least 80
25percent” each place it appears in Section 1563(a)(1) of the Internal
26Revenue Code.

27(ii) Section 1563(a)(4) of the Internal Revenue Code shall not
28apply.

29(e) (1) For purposes of paragraph (2) of subdivision (c), the
30requirements of this subdivision are met by a corporation for any
31period if during that period both of the following apply:

32(A) At least 80 percent (by value) of the assets of the corporation
33are used by the corporation in the active conduct of one or more
34qualified trades or businesses in California.

35(B) The corporation is an eligible corporation.

36(2) For purposes of paragraph (1), if, in connection with any
37future qualified trade or business, a corporation is engaged in:

38(A) Startup activities described in Section 195(c)(1)(A) of the
39Internal Revenue Code,

P394  1(B) Activities resulting in the payment or incurring of
2expenditures which may be treated as research and experimental
3expenditures under Section 174 of the Internal Revenue Code, or

4(C) Activities with respect to in-house research expenses
5described in Sectionbegin delete 41(b)(2)end deletebegin insert 41(b)(4)end insert of the Internal Revenue
6Code, then assets used in those activities shall be treated as used
7in the active conduct of a qualified trade or business. Any
8determination under this paragraph shall be made without regard
9to whether a corporation has any gross income from those activities
10at the time of the determination.

11(3) For purposes of this subdivision, the term “qualified trade
12or business” means any trade or business other than any of the
13following:

14(A) Any trade or business involving the performance of services
15in the fields of health, law, engineering, architecture, accounting,
16actuarial science, performing arts, consulting, athletics, financial
17services, brokerage services, or any trade or business where the
18principal asset of the trade or business is the reputation or skill of
19one or more of its employees.

20(B) Any banking, insurance, financing, leasing, investing, or
21similar business.

22(C) Any farming business (including the business of raising or
23harvesting trees).

24(D) Any business involving the production or extraction of
25products of a character with respect to which a deduction is
26allowable under Section 613 or 613A of the Internal Revenue
27 Code.

28(E) Any business of operating a hotel, motel, restaurant, or
29similar business.

30(4) For purposes of this subdivision, the term “eligible
31corporation” means any domestic corporation, except that the term
32shall not include any of the following:

33(A) A DISC or former DISC.

34(B) A corporation with respect to which an election under
35Section 936 of the Internal Revenue Code is in effect or which has
36a direct or indirect subsidiary with respect to which the election
37is in effect.

38(C) A regulated investment company, real estate investment
39trust (REIT), or real estate mortgage investment conduit (REMIC).

40(D) A cooperative.

P395  1(5) (A) For purposes of this subdivision, stock and debt in any
2subsidiary corporation shall be disregarded and the parent
3corporation shall be deemed to own its ratable share of the
4subsidiary’s assets, and to conduct its ratable share of the
5subsidiary’s activities.

6(B) A corporation shall be treated as failing to meet the
7requirements of paragraph (1) for any period during which more
8than 10 percent of the value of its assets (in excess of liabilities)
9consists of stock or securities in other corporations which are not
10subsidiaries of the corporation (other than assets described in
11paragraph (6)).

12(C) For purposes of this paragraph, a corporation shall be
13considered a subsidiary if the parent owns more than 50 percent
14of the combined voting power of all classes of stock entitled to
15vote, or more than 50 percent in value of all outstanding stock, of
16the corporation.

17(6) For purposes of subparagraph (A) of paragraph (1), the
18following assets shall be treated as used in the active conduct of
19a qualified trade or business:

20(A) Assets that are held as a part of the reasonably required
21working capital needs of a qualified trade or business of the
22corporation.

23(B) Assets that are held for investment and are reasonably
24expected to be used within two years to finance research and
25experimentation in a qualified trade or business or increases in
26working capital needs of a qualified trade or business. For periods
27after the corporation has been in existence for at least two years,
28in no event may more than 50 percent of the assets of the
29corporation qualify as used in the active conduct of a qualified
30trade or business by reason of this paragraph.

31(7) A corporation shall not be treated as meeting the
32requirements of paragraph (1) for any period during which more
33than 10 percent of the total value of its assets consists of real
34property that is not used in the active conduct of a qualified trade
35or business. For purposes of the preceding sentence, the ownership
36of, dealing in, or renting of, real property shall not be treated as
37the active conduct of a qualified trade or business.

38(8) For purposes of paragraph (1), rights to computer software
39that produces active business computer software royalties (within
40the meaning of Section 543(d)(1) of the Internal Revenue Code)
P396  1shall be treated as an asset used in the active conduct of a trade or
2business.

3(9) A corporation shall not be treated as meeting the
4requirements of paragraph (1) for any period during which more
5than 20 percent of the corporation’s total payroll expense is
6attributable to employment located outside of California.

7(f) If any stock in a corporation is acquired solely through the
8conversion of other stock in the corporation that is qualified small
9business stock in the hands of the taxpayer, both of the following
10shall apply:

11(1) The stock so acquired shall be treated as qualified small
12business stock in the hands of the taxpayer.

13(2) The stock so acquired shall be treated as having been held
14during the period during which the converted stock was held.

15(g) (1) If any amount included in gross income by reason of
16holding an interest in a pass-thru entity meets the requirements of
17paragraph (2), then both of the following shall apply:

18(A) The amount shall be treated as gain described in subdivision
19(a).

20(B) For purposes of applying subdivision (b), the amount shall
21be treated as gain from a disposition of stock in the corporation
22issuing the stock disposed of by the pass-thru entity and the
23taxpayer’s proportionate share of the adjusted basis of the pass-thru
24entity in the stock shall be taken into account.

25(2) An amount meets the requirements of this paragraph if both
26of the following apply:

27(A) The amount is attributable to gain on the sale or exchange
28by the pass-thru entity of stock that is qualified small business
29stock in the hands of the entity (determined by treating the entity
30as an individual) and that was held by that entity for more than
31five years.

32(B) The amount is includable in the gross income of the taxpayer
33by reason of the holding of an interest in the entity that was held
34by the taxpayer on the date on which the pass-thru entity acquired
35the stock and at all times thereafter before the disposition of the
36stock by the pass-thru entity.

37(3) Paragraph (1) shall not apply to any amount to the extent
38the amount exceeds the amount to which paragraph (1) would have
39applied if the amount was determined by reference to the interest
P397  1the taxpayer held in the pass-thru entity on the date the qualified
2small business stock was acquired.

3(4) For purposes of this subdivision, the termbegin delete “pass-throughend delete
4begin insert “pass-thruend insert entity” means any of the following:

5(A) Any partnership.

6(B) Any S corporation.

7(C) Any regulated investment company.

8(D) Any common trust fund.

9(h) For purposes of this section:

10(1) In the case of a transfer described in paragraph (2), the
11transferee shall be treated as meeting both of the following:

12(A) Having acquired the stock in the same manner as the
13transferor.

14(B) Having held the stock during any continuous period
15immediately preceding the transfer during which it was held (or
16treated as held under this subdivision) by the transferor.

17(2) A transfer is described in this subdivision if the transfer is
18any of the following:

19(A) By gift.

20(B) At death.

21(C) From a partnership to a partner of stock with respect to
22which requirements similar to the requirements of subdivision (g)
23are met at the time of the transfer (without regard to the five-year
24holding period requirement).

25(3) Rules similar to the rules of Section 1244(d)(2) of the
26Internal Revenue Code shall apply for purposes of this section.

27(4) (A) In the case of a transaction described in Section 351 of
28the Internal Revenue Code or a reorganization described in Section
29368 of the Internal Revenue Code, if qualified small business stock
30is exchanged for other stock that would not qualify as qualified
31small business stock but for this subparagraph, the other stock
32shall be treated as qualified small business stock acquired on the
33date on which the exchanged stock was acquired.

34(B) This section shall apply to gain from the sale or exchange
35of stock treated as qualified small business stock by reason of
36subparagraph (A) only to the extent of the gain that would have
37been recognized at the time of the transfer described in
38subparagraph (A) if Section 351 or 368 of the Internal Revenue
39Code had not applied at that time. The preceding sentence shall
40not apply if the stock that is treated as qualified small business
P398  1stock by reason of subparagraph (A) is issued by a corporation
2that (as of the time of the transfer described in subparagraph (A))
3is a qualified small business.

4(C) For purposes of this paragraph, stock treated as qualified
5small business stock under subparagraph (A) shall be so treated
6for subsequent transactions or reorganizations, except that the
7limitation of subparagraph (B) shall be applied as of the time of
8the first transfer to which the limitation applied (determined after
9the application of the second sentence of subparagraph (B)).

10(D) In the case of a transaction described in Section 351 of the
11Internal Revenue Code, this paragraph shall apply only if
12immediately after the transaction the corporation issuing the stock
13owns directly or indirectly stock representing control (within the
14meaning of Section 368(c) of the Internal Revenue Code) of the
15corporation whose stock was exchanged.

16(i) For purposes of this section:

17(1) In the case where the taxpayer transfers property (other than
18money or stock) to a corporation in exchange for stock in the
19corporation, both of the following shall apply:

20(A) The stock shall be treated as having been acquired by the
21taxpayer on the date of the exchange.

22(B) The basis of the stock in the hands of the taxpayer shall in
23no event be less than the fair market value of the property
24exchanged.

25(2) If the adjusted basis of any qualified small business stock
26is adjusted by reason of any contribution to capital after the date
27on which the stock was originally issued, in determining the
28amount of the adjustment by reason of the contribution, the basis
29of the contributed property shall in no event be treated as less than
30its fair market value on the date of the contribution.

31(j) (1) If the taxpayer has an offsetting short position with
32respect to any qualified small business stock, subdivision (a) shall
33not apply to any gain from the sale or exchange of the stock unless
34both of the following apply:

35(A) The stock was held by the taxpayer for more than five years
36as of the first day on which there was such a short position.

37(B) The taxpayer elects to recognize gain as if the stock was
38sold on that first day for its fair market value.

P399  1(2) For purposes of paragraph (1), the taxpayer shall be treated
2as having an offsetting short position with respect to any qualified
3small business stock if any of the following apply:

4(A) The taxpayer has made a short sale of substantially identical
5property.

6(B) The taxpayer has acquired an option to sell substantially
7identical property at a fixed price.

8(C) To the extent provided in regulations, the taxpayer has
9entered into any other transaction that substantially reduces the
10risk of loss from holding the qualified small business stock. For
11purposes of the preceding sentence, any reference to the taxpayer
12shall be treated as including a reference to any person who is
13related (within the meaning of Section 267(b) or 707(b) of the
14Internal Revenue Code) to the taxpayer.

15(k) The Franchise Tax Board may prescribe those regulations
16as may be appropriate to carry out the purposes of this section,
17including regulations to prevent the avoidance of the purposes of
18this section through splitups, shell corporations, partnerships, or
19otherwise.

20(l) It is the intent of the Legislature that, in construing this
21section, any regulations that may be promulgated by the Secretary
22of the Treasury under Section 1202(k) of the Internal Revenue
23Code shall apply to the extent that those regulations do not conflict
24with this section or with any regulations that may be promulgated
25by the Franchise Tax Board.

26

SEC. 187.  

Section 18738 of the Revenue and Taxation Code,
27as added by Section 1 of Chapter 228 of the Statutes of 2012, is
28amended to read:

29

18738.  

(a) All moneys transferred to the California YMCA
30Youth and Government Fund pursuant to Section 18736, upon
31appropriation by the Legislature, shall be allocated as follows:

32(1) To the Franchise Tax Board, the Controller, and the State
33Department of Education for reimbursement of all costs incurred
34by the Franchise Tax Board, the Controller, and the State
35Department of Education in connection with their duties under
36this article.

37(2) The balance to the State Department of Education for
38distribution as follows:

39(A) If the California YMCA Youth and Government Fund
40collects contributions of less than three hundred thousand dollars
P400  1($300,000), all funds shall be distributed to the California YMCA
2Youth and Government Program.

3(B) If the California YMCA Youth and Government Fund
4collects contributions in excess of three hundred thousand dollars
5($300,000), the balance of the fund shall be distributed as follows:

6(i) To provide an annual grant of ten thousand dollars ($10,000)
7to each of the following nonprofit civic youth organizations in
8order to operate civic education and mock legislative programs:

9(I) African American Leaders for Tomorrow Program.

10(II) Asian Pacific Youth Leadership Project.

11(III) Chicano Latino Youth Leadership Project.

12(ii) (I) All remaining funds shall be distributed to the California
13YMCA Youth and Government Program.

14(II) The California YMCA Youth and Government Board of
15Directors may award additional nonprofit civic youth organizations
16a grant of up to ten thousand dollars ($10,000) each in order to
17operate civic education and mock legislative programs. Grants
18shall be administered by the California YMCA Youth and
19Government Board of Directors, who shall be responsible for
20developing criteria, evaluating applications, and awarding grants
21to eligible organizations.

22(b) All moneys allocated pursuant to subdivision (a) may be
23carried over from the year in which they were received.

24(c) Funds distributed to the California YMCA Youth and
25Government Program, the African American Leaders for Tomorrow
26Program, the Asian Pacific Youth Leadership Project, the Chicano
27Latino Youth Leadership Project, and any other nonprofit civic
28youth organizations awarded a grant pursuant to clause (i) of
29subparagraph (B) of paragraph (2) of subdivision (a) shall be used
30to support program participation by underserved students and for
31direct program-related expenses.

32(d) The funds distributed to the California YMCA Youth and
33Government Program by the State Department of Education shall
34be used exclusively for program-related expenses.

35

SEC. 188.  

Section 23685 of the Revenue and Taxation Code
36 is amended to read:

37

23685.  

(a) (1) For taxable years beginning on or after January
381, 2011, there shall be allowed to a qualified taxpayer a credit
39against the “tax,” as defined in Section 23036, in an amount equal
40to the applicable percentage, as specified in paragraph (4), of the
P401  1qualified expenditures for the production of a qualified motion
2picture in California.

3(2) The credit shall be allowed for the taxable year in which the
4California Film Commission issues the credit certificate pursuant
5to subdivision (g) for the qualified motion picture, and shall be for
6the applicable percentage of all qualified expenditures paid or
7incurred by the qualified taxpayer in all taxable years for that
8qualified motion picture.

9(3) The amount of the credit allowed to a qualified taxpayer
10shall be limited to the amount specified in the credit certificate
11issued to the qualified taxpayer by the California Film Commission
12pursuant to subdivision (g).

13(4) For purposes of paragraphs (1) and (2), the applicable
14percentage shall be:

15(A) Twenty percent of the qualified expenditures attributable
16to the production of a qualified motion picture in California.

17(B) Twenty-five percent of the qualified expenditures
18attributable to the production of a qualified motion picture in
19California where the qualified motion picture is a television series
20that relocated to California or an independent film.

21(b) For purposes of this section:

22(1) “Ancillary product” means any article for sale to the public
23that contains a portion of, or any element of, the qualified motion
24picture.

25(2) “Budget” means an estimate of all expenses paid or incurred
26during the production period of a qualified motion picture. It shall
27be the same budget used by the qualified taxpayer and production
28company for all qualified motion picture purposes.

29(3) “Clip use” means a use of any portion of a motion picture,
30other than the qualified motion picture, used in the qualified motion
31picture.

32(4) “Credit certificate” means the certificate issued by the
33California Film Commission pursuant to subparagraph (C) of
34paragraph (2) of subdivision (g).

35(5) (A) “Employee fringe benefits” means the amount allowable
36as a deduction under this part to the qualified taxpayer involved
37in the production of the qualified motion picture, exclusive of any
38amounts contributed by employees, for any year during the
39production period with respect to any of the following:

P402  1(i) Employer contributions under any pension, profit-sharing,
2annuity, or similar plan.

3(ii) Employer-provided coverage under any accident or health
4plan for employees.

5(iii) The employer’s cost of life or disability insurance provided
6to employees.

7(B) Any amount treated as wages under clause (i) of
8subparagraph (A) of paragraph (18) shall not be taken into account
9under this paragraph.

10(6) “Independent film” means a motion picture with a minimum
11budget of one million dollars ($1,000,000) and a maximum budget
12of ten million dollars ($10,000,000) that is produced by a company
13that is not publicly traded and publicly traded companies do not
14own, directly or indirectly, more than 25 percent of the producing
15company.

16(7) “Licensing” means any grant of rights to distribute the
17qualified motion picture, in whole or in part.

18(8) “New use” means any use of a motion picture in a medium
19other than the medium for which it was initially created.

20(9) (A) “Postproduction” means the final activities in a qualified
21motion picture’s production, including editing, foley recording,
22automatic dialogue replacement, sound editing, scoring and music
23editing, beginning and end credits, negative cutting, negative
24processing and duplication, the addition of sound and visual effects,
25soundmixing, film-to-tape transfers, encoding, and color correction.

26(B) “Postproduction” does not include the manufacture or
27shipping of release prints.

28(10) “Preproduction” means the process of preparation for actual
29physical production which begins after a qualified motion picture
30has received a firm agreement of financial commitment, or is
31greenlit, with, for example, the establishment of a dedicated
32production office, the hiring of key crew members, and includes,
33but is not limited to, activities that include location scouting and
34execution of contracts with vendors of equipment and stage space.

35(11) “Principal photography” means the phase of production
36during which the motion picture is actually shot, as distinguished
37from preproduction and postproduction.

38(12) “Production period” means the period beginning with
39preproduction and ending upon completion of postproduction.

P403  1(13) “Qualified entity” means a personal service corporation as
2defined in Section 269A(b)(1) of the Internal Revenue Code, a
3payroll services corporation, or any entity receiving qualified wages
4with respect to services performed by a qualified individual.

5(14) (A) “Qualified individual” means any individual who
6performs services during the production period in an activity related
7to the production of a qualified motion picture.

8(B) “Qualified individual” shall not include either of the
9following:

10(i) Any individual related to the qualified taxpayer as described
11in subparagraph (A), (B), or (C) of Section 51(i)(1) of the Internal
12Revenue Code.

13(ii) Any 5-percent owner, as defined in Section 416(i)(1)(B) of
14the Internal Revenue Code, of the qualified taxpayer.

15(15) (A) “Qualified motion picture” means a motion picture
16that is produced for distribution to the general public, regardless
17of medium, that is one of the following:

18(i) A feature with a minimum production budget of one million
19dollars ($1,000,000) and a maximum production budget of
20seventy-five million dollars ($75,000,000).

21(ii) A movie of the week or miniseries with a minimum
22production budget of five hundred thousand dollars ($500,000).

23(iii) A new television series produced in California with a
24minimum production budget of one million dollars ($1,000,000)
25licensed for original distribution on basic cable.

26(iv) An independent film.

27(v) A television series that relocated to California.

28(B) To qualify as a “qualified motion picture,” all of the
29following conditions shall be satisfied:

30(i) At least 75 percent of the production days occur wholly in
31California or 75 percent of the production budget is incurred for
32payment for services performed within the state and the purchase
33or rental of property used within the state.

34(ii) Production of the qualified motion picture is completed
35within 30 months from the date on which the qualified taxpayer’s
36application is approved by the California Film Commission. For
37purposes of this section, a qualified motion picture is “completed”
38when the process of postproduction has been finished.

P404  1(iii) The copyright for the motion picture is registered with the
2United States Copyright Office pursuant to Title 17 of the United
3States Code.

4(iv) Principal photography of the qualified motion picture
5commences after the date on which the application is approved by
6the California Film Commission, but no later than 180 days after
7the date of that approval.

8(C) For the purposes of subparagraph (A), in computing the
9total wages paid or incurred for the production of a qualified
10motion picture, all amounts paid or incurred by all persons or
11entities that share in the costs of the qualified motion picture shall
12be aggregated.

13(D) “Qualified motion picture” shall not include commercial
14advertising, music videos, a motion picture produced for private
15noncommercial use, such as weddings, graduations, or as part of
16an educational course and made by students, a news program,
17current events or public events program, talk show, game show,
18sporting event or activity, awards show, telethon or other
19production that solicits funds, reality television program, clip-based
20programming if more than 50 percent of the content is comprised
21of licensed footage, documentaries, variety programs, daytime
22dramas, strip shows, one-half hour (air time) episodic television
23shows, or any production that falls within the recordkeeping
24requirements of Section 2257 of Title 18 of the United States Code.

25(16) “Qualified expenditures” means amounts paid or incurred
26to purchase or lease tangible personal property used within this
27state in the production of a qualified motion picture and payments,
28including qualified wages, for services performed within this state
29in the production of a qualified motion picture.

30(17) (A) “Qualified taxpayer” means a taxpayer who has paid
31or incurred qualified expenditures and has been issued a credit
32certificate by the California Film Commission pursuant to
33subdivision (g).

34(B) (i) In the case of any pass-thru entity, the determination of
35whether a taxpayer is a qualified taxpayer under this section shall
36be made at the entity level and any credit under this section is not
37allowed to the pass-thru entity, but shall be passed through to the
38partners or shareholders in accordance with applicable provisions
39of Part 10 (commencing with Section 17001) or Part 11
40 (commencing with Section 23001). For purposes of this paragraph,
P405  1“pass-thru entity” means any entity taxed as a partnership or “S”
2corporation.

3(ii) In the case of an “S” corporation, the credit allowed under
4this section shall not be used by an “S” corporation as a credit
5against a tax imposed under Chapter 4.5 (commencing with Section
623800) of Part 11 of Division 2.

7(18) (A) “Qualified wages” means all of the following:

8(i) Any wages subject to withholding under Division 6
9(commencing with Section 13000) of the Unemployment Insurance
10Code that were paid or incurred by any taxpayer involved in the
11production of a qualified motion picture with respect to a qualified
12individual for services performed on the qualified motion picture
13production within this state.

14(ii) The portion of any employee fringe benefits paid or incurred
15by any taxpayer involved in the production of the qualified motion
16picture that are properly allocable to qualified wage amounts
17described in clause (i).

18(iii) Any payments made to a qualified entity for services
19performed in this state by qualified individuals within the meaning
20of paragraph (14).

21(iv) Remuneration paid to an independent contractor who is a
22qualified individual for services performed within this state by that
23qualified individual.

24(B) “Qualified wages” shall not include any of the following:

25(i) Expenses, including wages, related to new use, reuse, clip
26use, licensing, secondary markets, or residual compensation, or
27the creation of any ancillary product, including, but not limited to,
28a soundtrack album, toy, game, trailer, or teaser.

29(ii) Expenses, including wages, paid or incurred with respect to
30acquisition, development, turnaround, or any rights thereto.

31(iii) Expenses, including wages, related to financing, overhead,
32marketing, promotion, or distribution of a qualified motion picture.

33(iv) Expenses, including wages, paid per person per qualified
34motion picture for writers, directors, music directors, music
35composers, music supervisors, producers, and performers, other
36than background actors with no scripted lines.

37(19) “Residual compensation” means supplemental
38compensation paid at the time that a motion picture is exhibited
39through new use, reuse, clip use, or in secondary markets, as
40distinguished from payments made during production.

P406  1(20) “Reuse” means any use of a qualified motion picture in the
2same medium for which it was created, following the initial use
3in that medium.

4(21) “Secondary markets” means media in which a qualified
5motion picture is exhibited following the initial media in which it
6is exhibited.

7(22) “Television series that relocated to California” means a
8television series, without regard to episode length or initial media
9exhibition, that filmed all of its prior season or seasons outside of
10California and for which the taxpayer certifies that the credit
11provided pursuant to this section is the primary reason for
12relocating to California.

13(c) (1) Notwithstanding subdivision (i) of Section 23036, in
14the case where the credit allowed by this section exceeds the
15taxpayer’s tax liability computed under this part, a qualified
16taxpayer may elect to assign any portion of the credit allowed
17under this section to one or more affiliated corporations for each
18taxable year in which the credit is allowed. For purposes of this
19subdivision, “affiliated corporation” has the meaning provided in
20subdivision (b) of Section 25110, as that section was amended by
21Chapter 881 of the Statutes of 1993, as of the last day of the taxable
22year in which the credit is allowed, except that “100 percent” is
23substituted for “more than 50 percent” wherever it appears in the
24section, and “voting common stock” is substituted for “voting
25stock” wherever it appears in the section.

26(2) The election provided in paragraph (1):

27(A) May be based on any method selected by the qualified
28taxpayer that originally receives the credit.

29(B) Shall be irrevocable for the taxable year the credit is allowed,
30once made.

31(C) May be changed for any subsequent taxable year if the
32election to make the assignment is expressly shown on each of the
33returns of the qualified taxpayer and the qualified taxpayer’s
34affiliated corporations that assign and receive the credits.

35(D) Shall be reported to the Franchise Tax Board, in the form
36and manner specified by the Franchise Tax Board, along with all
37required information regarding the assignment of the credit,
38including the corporation number, the federal employer
39identification number, or other taxpayer identification number of
40the assignee, and the amount of the credit assigned.

P407  1(3) (A) Notwithstanding any other law, a qualified taxpayer
2may sell any credit allowed under this section that is attributable
3to an independent film, as defined in paragraph (6) of subdivision
4(b), to an unrelated party.

5(B) The qualified taxpayer shall report to the Franchise Tax
6Board prior to the sale of the credit, in the form and manner
7specified by the Franchise Tax Board, all required information
8regarding the purchase and sale of the credit, including the social
9security or other taxpayer identification number of the unrelated
10party to whom the credit has been sold, the face amount of the
11credit sold, and the amount of consideration received by the
12qualified taxpayer for the sale of the credit.

13(4) In the case where the credit allowed under this section
14exceeds the “tax,” the excess credit may be carried over to reduce
15the “tax” in the following taxable year, and succeeding five taxable
16years, if necessary, until the credit has been exhausted.

17(5) A credit shall not be sold pursuant to this subdivision to
18more than one taxpayer, nor may the credit be resold by the
19unrelated party to another taxpayer or other party.

20(6) A party that has been assigned or acquired tax credits under
21this paragraph shall be subject to the requirements of this section.

22(7) In no event may a qualified taxpayer assign or sell any tax
23credit to the extent the tax credit allowed by this section is claimed
24on any tax return of the qualified taxpayer.

25(8) In the event that both the taxpayer originally allocated a
26credit under this section by the California Film Commission and
27a taxpayer to whom the credit has been sold both claim the same
28amount of credit on their tax returns, the Franchise Tax Board may
29disallow the credit of either taxpayer, so long as the statute of
30limitations upon assessment remains open.

31(9) Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 11340) of Part 1 of
32Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code does not apply to
33any standard, criterion, procedure, determination, rule, notice, or
34guideline established or issued by the Franchise Tax Board
35pursuant to this subdivision.

36(10) Subdivision (i) of Section 23036 shall not apply to any
37credit sold pursuant to this subdivision.

38(11) For purposes of this subdivision:

P408  1(A) An affiliated corporation or corporations that are assigned
2a credit pursuant to paragraph (1) shall be treated as a qualified
3 taxpayer pursuant to paragraph (1) of subdivision (a).

4(B) The unrelated party or parties that purchase a credit pursuant
5to paragraph (3) shall be treated as a qualified taxpayer pursuant
6to paragraph (1) of subdivision (a).

7(d) No credit shall be allowed pursuant to this section unless
8the qualified taxpayer provides the following to the California
9Film Commission:

10(1) Identification of each qualified individual.

11(2) The specific start and end dates of production.

12(3) The total wages paid.

13(4) The amount of qualified wages paid to each qualified
14individual.

15(5) The copyright registration number, as reflected on the
16certificate of registration issued under the authority of Section 410
17of Title 17 of the United States Code, relating to registration of
18claim and issuance of certificate. The registration number shall be
19provided on the return claiming the credit.

20(6) The total amounts paid or incurred to purchase or lease
21tangible personal property used in the production of a qualified
22motion picture.

23(7) Information to substantiate its qualified expenditures.

24(8) Information required by the California Film Commission
25under regulations promulgated pursuant to subdivision (g)
26necessary to verify the amount of credit claimed.

27(e) The California Film Commission may prescribe rules and
28regulations to carry out the purposes of this section including any
29rules and regulations necessary to establish procedures, processes,
30requirements, and rules identified in or required to implement this
31section. The regulations shall include provisions to set aside a
32percentage of annual credit allocations for independent films.

33(f) If the qualified taxpayer fails to provide the copyright
34registration number as required in paragraph (5) of subdivision
35(d), the credit shall be disallowed and assessed and collected under
36Section 19051 until the procedures are satisfied.

37(g) For purposes of this section, the California Film Commission
38shall do the following:

39(1) On or after July 1, 2009, and before July 1, 2017, allocate
40tax credits to applicants.

P409  1(A) Establish a procedure for applicants to file with the
2California Film Commission a written application, on a form jointly
3prescribed by the California Film Commission and the Franchise
4Tax Board for the allocation of the tax credit. The application shall
5include, but not be limited to, the following information:

6(i) The budget for the motion picture production.

7(ii) The number of production days.

8(iii) A financing plan for the production.

9(iv) The diversity of the workforce employed by the applicant,
10including, but not limited to, the ethnic and racial makeup of the
11individuals employed by the applicant during the production of
12the qualified motion picture, to the extent possible.

13(v) All members of a combined reporting group, if known at
14the time of the application.

15(vi) Financial information, if available, including, but not limited
16to, the most recently produced balance sheets, annual statements
17of profits and losses, audited or unaudited financial statements,
18summary budget projections or results, or the functional equivalent
19of these documents of a partnership or owner of a single member
20limited liability company that is disregarded pursuant to Section
2123038. The information provided pursuant to this clause shall be
22confidential and shall not be subject to public disclosure.

23(vii) The names of all partners in a partnership not publicly
24traded or the names of all members of a limited liability company
25classified as a partnership not publicly traded for California income
26tax purposes that have a financial interest in the applicant’s
27qualified motion picture. The information provided pursuant to
28this clause shall be confidential and shall not be subject to public
29disclosure.

30(viii) Detailed narratives, for use only by the Legislative
31Analyst’s Office in conducting a study of the effectiveness of this
32credit, that describe the extent to which the credit is expected to
33influence or affect filming and other business location decisions,
34hiring decisions, salary decisions, and any other financial matters
35of the applicant.

36(ix) Any other information deemed relevant by the California
37Film Commission or the Franchise Tax Board.

38(B) Establish criteria, consistent with the requirements of this
39section, for allocating tax credits.

P410  1(C) Determine and designate applicants who meet the
2requirements of this section.

3(D) Process and approve, or reject, all applications on a
4first-come-first-served basis.

5(E) Subject to the annual cap established as provided in
6subdivision (i), allocate an aggregate amount of credits under this
7section and Section 17053.85, and allocate any carryover of
8unallocated credits from prior years.

9(2) Certify tax credits allocated to qualified taxpayers.

10(A) Establish a verification procedure for the amount of qualified
11expenditures paid or incurred by the applicant, including, but not
12limited to, updates to the information in subparagraph (A) of
13paragraph (1) of subdivision (g).

14(B) Establish audit requirements that must be satisfied before
15a credit certificate may be issued by the California Film
16Commission.

17(C) (i) Establish a procedure for a qualified taxpayer to report
18to the California Film Commission, prior to the issuance of a credit
19certificate, the following information:

20(I) If readily available, a list of the states, provinces, or other
21jurisdictions in which any member of the applicant’s combined
22reporting group in the same business unit as the qualified taxpayer
23that, in the preceding calendar year, has produced a qualified
24motion picture intended for release in the United States market.
25For purposes of this clause, “qualified motion picture” shall not
26include any episodes of a television series that were complete or
27in production prior to July 1, 2009.

28(II) Whether a qualified motion picture described in subclause
29(I) was awarded any financial incentive by the state, province, or
30other jurisdiction that was predicated on the performance of
31primary principal photography or postproduction in that location.

32(ii) The California Film Commission may provide that the report
33required by this subparagraph be filed in a single report provided
34on a calendar year basis for those qualified taxpayers that receive
35multiple credit certificates in a calendar year.

36(D) Issue a credit certificate to a qualified taxpayer upon
37completion of the qualified motion picture reflecting the credit
38amount allocated after qualified expenditures have been verified
39under this section. The amount of credit shown in the credit
P411  1certificate shall not exceed the amount of credit allocated to that
2qualified taxpayer pursuant to this section.

3(3) Obtain, when possible, the following information from
4 applicants that do not receive an allocation of credit:

5(A) Whether the qualified motion picture that was the subject
6of the application was completed.

7(B) If completed, in which state or foreign jurisdiction was the
8primary principal photography completed.

9(C) Whether the applicant received any financial incentives
10from the state or foreign jurisdiction to make the qualified motion
11picture in that location.

12(4) Provide the Legislative Analyst’s Office, upon request, any
13or all application materials or any other materials received from,
14or submitted by, the applicants, in electronic format when available,
15including, but not limited to, information provided pursuant to
16clauses (i) to (ix), inclusive, of subparagraph (A) of paragraph (1).

17(5) The information provided to the California Film Commission
18pursuant to this section shall constitute confidential tax information
19for purposes of Article 2 (commencing with Section 19542) of
20Chapter 7 of Part 10.2.

21(h) (1) The California Film Commission shall annually provide
22the Legislative Analyst’s Office, the Franchise Tax Board, and the
23board with a list of qualified taxpayers and the tax credit amounts
24allocated to each qualified taxpayer by the California Film
25Commission. The list shall include the names and taxpayer
26identification numbers, including taxpayer identification numbers
27of each partner or shareholder, as applicable, of the qualified
28taxpayer.

29(2) (A) Notwithstanding paragraph (5) of subdivision (g), the
30California Film Commission shall annually post on its Internet
31Web site and make available for public release the following:

32(i) A table which includes all of the following information: a
33list of qualified taxpayers and the tax credit amounts allocated to
34each qualified taxpayer by the California Film Commission, the
35number of production days in California the qualified taxpayer
36represented in its application would occur, the number of California
37jobs that the qualified taxpayer represented in its application would
38be directly created by the production, and the total amount of
39qualified expenditures expected to be spent by the production.

P412  1(ii) A narrative staff summary describing the production of the
2qualified taxpayer as well as background information regarding
3the qualified taxpayer contained in the qualified taxpayer’s
4application for the credit.

5(B) Nothing in this subdivision shall be construed to make the
6information submitted by an applicant for a tax credit under this
7section a public record.

8(i) (1) The aggregate amount of credits that may be allocated
9in any fiscal year pursuant to this section and Section 17053.85
10shall be an amount equal to the sum of all of the following:

11(A) One hundred million dollars ($100,000,000) in credits for
12the 2009-10 fiscal year and each fiscal year thereafter, through
13and including the 2016-17 fiscal year.

14(B) The unused allocation credit amount, if any, for the
15preceding fiscal year.

16(C) The amount of previously allocated credits not certified.

17(2) If the amount of credits applied for in any particular fiscal
18year exceeds the aggregate amount of tax credits authorized to be
19allocated under this section, such excess shall be treated as having
20been applied for on the first day of the subsequent fiscal year.
21However, credits may not be allocated from a fiscal year other
22than the fiscal year in which the credit was originally applied for
23or the immediately succeeding fiscal year.

24(3) Notwithstanding the foregoing, the California Film
25Commission shall set aside up to ten million dollars ($10,000,000)
26of tax credits each fiscal year for independent films allocated in
27accordance with rules and regulations developed pursuant to
28subdivision (e).

29(4) Any act that reduces the amount that may be allocated
30pursuant to paragraph (1) constitutes a change in state taxes for
31the purpose of increasing revenues within the meaning of Section
323 of Article XIII A of the California Constitution and may be passed
33by not less than two-thirds of all Members elected to each of the
34two houses of the Legislature.

35(j) The California Film Commission shall have the authority to
36allocate tax credits in accordance with this section and in
37accordance with any regulations prescribed pursuant to subdivision
38(e) upon adoption.

39

SEC. 189.  

Section 24416.20 of the Revenue and Taxation Code
40 is amended to read:

P413  1

24416.20.  

Except as provided in Sections 24416.1, 24416.2,
224416.4, 24416.5, 24416.6, and 24416.7, a net operating loss
3deduction shall be allowed in computing net income under Section
424341 and shall be determined in accordance with Section 172 of
5the Internal Revenue Code, except as otherwise provided.

6(a) (1) Net operating losses attributable to taxable years
7beginning before January 1, 1987, shall not be allowed.

8(2) A net operating loss shall not be carried forward to any
9taxable year beginning before January 1, 1987.

10(b) (1) Except as provided in paragraphs (2) and (3), the
11provisions of Section 172(b)(2) of the Internal Revenue Code,
12relating to amount of carrybacks and carryovers, shall be modified
13so that the applicable percentage of the entire amount of the net
14operating loss for any taxable year shall be eligible for carryover
15to any subsequent taxable year. For purposes of this subdivision,
16the applicable percentage shall be:

17(A) Fifty percent for any taxable year beginning before January
181, 2000.

19(B) Fifty-five percent for any taxable year beginning on or after
20January 1, 2000, and before January 1, 2002.

21(C) Sixty percent for any taxable year beginning on or after
22January 1, 2002, and before January 1, 2004.

23(D) One hundred percent for any taxable year beginning on or
24after January 1, 2004.

25(2) In the case of a taxpayer who has a net operating loss in any
26taxable year beginning on or after January 1, 1994, and who
27operates a new business during that taxable year, each of the
28following shall apply to each loss incurred during the first three
29taxable years of operating the new business:

30(A) If the net operating loss is equal to or less than the net loss
31from the new business, 100 percent of the net operating loss shall
32be carried forward as provided in subdivision (e).

33(B) If the net operating loss is greater than the net loss from the
34new business, the net operating loss shall be carried over as
35follows:

36(i) With respect to an amount equal to the net loss from the new
37business, 100 percent of that amount shall be carried forward as
38provided in subdivision (e).

39(ii) With respect to the portion of the net operating loss that
40exceeds the net loss from the new business, the applicable
P414  1percentage of that amount shall be carried forward as provided in
2subdivision (d).

3(C) For purposes of Section 172(b)(2) of the Internal Revenue
4Code, the amount described in clause (ii) of subparagraph (B) shall
5be absorbed before the amount described in clause (i) of
6subparagraph (B).

7(3) In the case of a taxpayer who has a net operating loss in any
8taxable year beginning on or after January 1, 1994, and who
9operates an eligible small business during that taxable year, each
10of the following shall apply:

11(A) If the net operating loss is equal to or less than the net loss
12from the eligible small business, 100 percent of the net operating
13loss shall be carried forward to the taxable years specified in
14paragraph (1) of subdivision (e).

15(B) If the net operating loss is greater than the net loss from the
16eligible small business, the net operating loss shall be carried over
17as follows:

18(i) With respect to an amount equal to the net loss from the
19eligible small business, 100 percent of that amount shall be carried
20forward as provided in subdivision (e).

21(ii) With respect to that portion of the net operating loss that
22exceeds the net loss from the eligible small business, the applicable
23percentage of that amount shall be carried forward as provided in
24subdivision (e).

25(C) For purposes of Section 172(b)(2) of the Internal Revenue
26Code, the amount described in clause (ii) of subparagraph (B) shall
27be absorbed before the amount described in clause (i) of
28subparagraph (B).

29(4) In the case of a taxpayer who has a net operating loss in a
30taxable year beginning on or after January 1, 1994, and who
31operates a business that qualifies as both a new business and an
32eligible small business under this section, that business shall be
33treated as a new business for the first three taxable years of the
34new business.

35(5) In the case of a taxpayer who has a net operating loss in a
36taxable year beginning on or after January 1, 1994, and who
37operates more than one business, and more than one of those
38businesses qualifies as either a new business or an eligible small
39business under this section, paragraph (2) shall be applied first,
40except that if there is any remaining portion of the net operating
P415  1loss after application of clause (i) of subparagraph (B) of paragraph
2 (2), paragraph (3) shall be applied to the remaining portion of the
3net operating loss as though that remaining portion of the net
4operating loss constituted the entire net operating loss.

5(6) For purposes of this section, “net loss” means the amount
6of net loss after application of Sections 465 and 469 of the Internal
7Revenue Code.

8(c) For any taxable year in which the taxpayer has in effect a
9water’s-edge election under Section 25110, the deduction of a net
10operating loss carryover shall be denied to the extent that the net
11operating loss carryover was determined by taking into account
12the income and factors of an affiliated corporation in a combined
13report whose income and apportionment factors would not have
14been taken into account if a water’s-edge election under Section
1525110 had been in effect for the taxable year in which the loss was
16incurred.

17(d) Section 172(b)(1) of the Internal Revenue Code, relating to
18years to which the loss may be carried, is modified as follows:

19(1) Net operating loss carrybacks shall not be allowed for any
20net operating losses attributable to taxable years beginning before
21January 1, 2013.

22(2) A net operating loss attributable to taxable years beginning
23on or after January 1, 2013, shall be a net operating loss carryback
24to each of the two taxable years preceding the taxable year of the
25loss in lieu of the number of years provided therein.

26(A) For a net operating loss attributable to a taxable year
27beginning on or after January 1, 2013, and before January 1, 2014,
28the amount of carryback to any taxable year shall not exceed 50
29percent of the net operating loss.

30(B) For a net operating loss attributable to a taxable year
31beginning on or after January 1, 2014, and before January 1, 2015,
32the amount of carryback to any taxable year shall not exceed 75
33percent of the net operating loss.

34(C) For a net operating loss attributable to a taxable year
35beginning on or after January 1, 2015, the amount of carryback to
36any taxable year shall not exceed 100 percent of the net operating
37loss.

38(3) Notwithstanding paragraph (2), Section 172(b)(1)(B) of the
39Internal Revenue Code, relating to special rules for REITs, and
40Section 172(b)(1)(E) of the Internal Revenue Code, relating to
P416  1excess interest loss, and Section 172(h) of the Internal Revenue
2Code, relating to corporate equity reduction interest losses, shall
3apply as provided.

4(4) A net operating loss carryback shall not be carried back to
5any taxable year beginning before January 1, 2011.

6(e) (1) (A) For a net operating loss for any taxable year
7beginning on or after January 1, 1987, and before January 1, 2000,
8Section 172(b)(1)(A)(ii) of the Internal Revenue Code is modified
9to substitute “five taxable years” in lieu of “20 years” except as
10otherwise provided in paragraphs (2), (3), and (4).

11(B) For a net operating loss for any income year beginning on
12or after January 1, 2000, and before January 1, 2008, Section
13172(b)(1)(A)(ii) of the Internal Revenue Code is modified to
14substitute “10 taxable years” in lieu of “20 taxable years.”

15(2) For any income year beginning before January 1, 2000, in
16the case of a “new business,” the “five taxable years” referred to
17in paragraph (1) shall be modified to read as follows:

18(A) “Eight taxable years” for a net operating loss attributable
19to the first taxable year of that new business.

20(B) “Seven taxable years” for a net operating loss attributable
21to the second taxable year of that new business.

22(C) “Six taxable years” for a net operating loss attributable to
23the third taxable year of that new business.

24(3) For any carryover of a net operating loss for which a
25deduction is denied by Section 24416.3, the carryover period
26specified in this subdivision shall be extended as follows:

27(A) By one year for a net operating loss attributable to taxable
28years beginning in 1991.

29(B) By two years for a net operating loss attributable to taxable
30years beginning prior to January 1, 1991.

31(4) The net operating loss attributable to taxable years beginning
32on or after January 1, 1987, and before January 1, 1994, shall be
33a net operating loss carryover to each of the 10 taxable years
34following the year of the loss if it is incurred by a corporation that
35was either of the following:

36(A) Under the jurisdiction of the court in a Title 11 or similar
37case at any time prior to January 1, 1994. The loss carryover
38provided in the preceding sentence shall not apply to any loss
39incurred in an income year after the taxable year during which the
P417  1corporation is no longer under the jurisdiction of the court in a
2Title 11 or similar case.

3(B) In receipt of assets acquired in a transaction that qualifies
4as a tax-free reorganization under Section 368(a)(1)(G) of the
5Internal Revenue Code.

6(f) For purposes of this section:

7(1) “Eligible small business” means any trade or business that
8has gross receipts, less returns and allowances, of less than one
9million dollars ($1,000,000) during the income year.

10(2) Except as provided in subdivision (g), “new business” means
11any trade or business activity that is first commenced in this state
12on or after January 1, 1994.

13(3) “Title 11 or similar case” shall have the same meaning as
14in Section 368(a)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code.

15(4) In the case of any trade or business activity conducted by a
16partnership or an “S” corporation, paragraphs (1) and (2) shall be
17applied to the partnership or “S” corporation.

18(g) For purposes of this section, in determining whether a trade
19or business activity qualifies as a new business under paragraph
20(2) of subdivision (e), the following rules shall apply:

21(1) In any case where a taxpayer purchases or otherwise acquires
22all or any portion of the assets of an existing trade or business
23(irrespective of the form of entity) that is doing business in this
24state (within the meaning of Section 23101), the trade or business
25thereafter conducted by the taxpayer (or any related person) shall
26not be treated as a new business if the aggregate fair market value
27of the acquired assets (including real, personal, tangible, and
28intangible property) used by the taxpayer (or any related person)
29in the conduct of its trade or business exceeds 20 percent of the
30aggregate fair market value of the total assets of the trade or
31business being conducted by the taxpayer (or any related person).
32For purposes of this paragraph only, the following rules shall apply:

33(A) The determination of the relative fair market values of the
34acquired assets and the total assets shall be made as of the last day
35of the first taxable year in which the taxpayer (or any related
36person) first uses any of the acquired trade or business assets in
37its business activity.

38(B) Any acquired assets that constituted property described in
39Section 1221(1) of the Internal Revenue Code in the hands of the
40transferor shall not be treated as assets acquired from an existing
P418  1trade or business, unless those assets also constitute property
2described in Section 1221(1) of the Internal Revenue Code in the
3hands of the acquiring taxpayer (or related person).

4(2) In any case where a taxpayer (or any related person) is
5engaged in one or more trade or business activities in this state, or
6has been engaged in one or more trade or business activities in this
7state within the preceding 36 months (“prior trade or business
8activity”), and thereafter commences an additional trade or business
9activity in this state, the additional trade or business activity shall
10only be treated as a new business if the additional trade or business
11activity is classified under a different division of the Standard
12Industrial Classification (SIC) Manual published by the United
13States Office of Management and Budget, 1987 edition, than are
14any of the taxpayer’s (or any related person’s) current or prior
15trade or business activities.

16(3) In any case where a taxpayer, including all related persons,
17is engaged in trade or business activities wholly outside of this
18state and the taxpayer first commences doing business in this state
19(within the meaning of Section 23101) after December 31, 1993
20(other than by purchase or other acquisition described in paragraph
21(1)), the trade or business activity shall be treated as a new business
22under paragraph (2) of subdivision (e).

23(4) In any case where the legal form under which a trade or
24business activity is being conducted is changed, the change in form
25shall be disregarded and the determination of whether the trade or
26business activity is a new business shall be made by treating the
27taxpayer as having purchased or otherwise acquired all or any
28portion of the assets of an existing trade or business under the rules
29of paragraph (1).

30(5) “Related person” shall mean any person that is related to
31the taxpayer under either Section 267 or 318 of the Internal
32Revenue Code.

33(6) “Acquire” shall include any transfer, whether or not for
34consideration.

35(7) (A) For taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 1997,
36the term “new business” shall include any taxpayer that is engaged
37in biopharmaceutical activities or other biotechnology activities
38that are described in Codes 2833 to 2836, inclusive, of the Standard
39Industrial Classification (SIC) Manual published by the United
40States Office of Management and Budget, 1987 edition, and as
P419  1further amended, and that has not received regulatory approval for
2any product from the Food and Drug Administration.

3(B) For purposes of this paragraph:

4(i) “Biopharmaceutical activities” means those activities that
5use organisms or materials derived from organisms, and their
6 cellular, subcellular, or molecular components, in order to provide
7pharmaceutical products for human or animal therapeutics and
8diagnostics. Biopharmaceutical activities make use of living
9organisms to make commercial products, as opposed to
10pharmaceutical activities that make use of chemical compounds
11to produce commercial products.

12(ii) “Other biotechnology activities” means activities consisting
13of the application of recombinant DNA technology to produce
14commercial products, as well as activities regarding pharmaceutical
15delivery systems designed to provide a measure of control over
16the rate, duration, and site of pharmaceutical delivery.

17(h) For purposes of corporations whose net income is determined
18under Chapter 17 (commencing with Section 25101), Section
1925108 shall apply to each of the following:

20(1) The amount of net operating loss incurred in any taxable
21year that may be carried forward to another taxable year.

22(2) The amount of any loss carry forward that may be deducted
23in any taxable year.

24(i) The provisions of Section 172(b)(1)(D) of the Internal
25Revenue Code, relating to bad debt losses of commercial banks,
26shall not be applicable.

27(j) The Franchise Tax Board may prescribe appropriate
28regulations to carry out the purposes of this section, including any
29regulations necessary to prevent the avoidance of the purposes of
30this section through splitups, shell corporations, partnerships, tiered
31ownership structures, or otherwise.

32(k) The Franchise Tax Board may reclassify any net operating
33loss carryover determined under either paragraph (2) or (3) of
34 subdivision (b) as a net operating loss carryover under paragraph
35(1) of subdivision (b) upon a showing that the reclassification is
36necessary to prevent evasion of the purposes of this section.

37(l) Except as otherwise provided, the amendments made by
38Chapter 107 of the Statutes of 2000 shall apply to net operating
39losses for taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 2000.

P420  1

SEC. 190.  

Section 24900 of the Revenue and Taxation Code
2 is amended and renumbered to read:

3

begin delete24452.end delete
4begin insert24455.end insert  

(a) The Franchise Tax Board may include in the gross
5income of the taxpayer (or a member of the taxpayer’s combined
6reporting group) in that taxable year the taxpayer’s pro rata share
7(or the pro rata share of a member of the taxpayer’s combined
8reporting group) of any of those insurers’ current earnings and
9profits in that taxable year, but not to exceed an amount equal to
10the specific insurer’s net income attributable to investment income
11for that year minus that insurer’s net written premiums received
12in that same taxable year, if all of the following apply:

13(1) For any taxable year an insurer is a member of a taxpayer’s
14commonly controlled group.

15(2) The ratio of the five-year average net written premiums to
16the five-year average total income of all insurers in the commonly
17controlled group is equal to or less than 0.10 (or, for taxable years
18beginning on or after January 1, 2008, 0.15).

19(3) The accumulation of earnings and profits of the insurers in
20the commonly controlled group had a substantial purpose of
21avoidance of taxes on, according to, or measured by income, of
22this state or any other state.

23The amount so included shall be treated as a dividend received
24from an insurance company during the taxable year, and to the
25extent applicable, Section 24410 shall apply to that amount.

26(b) If the insurer members of the commonly controlled group
27constitute a predominantly captive insurance group (as defined in
28paragraph (6) of subdivision (e)), then the ratio described in
29subdivision (a) shall be 0.40.

30(c) To the extent that amounts are included in the gross income
31of a taxpayer (or a member of the taxpayer’s combined reporting
32group) pursuant to subdivision (a), those amounts shall not again
33be considered as investment income in the application of the ratio
34described in paragraph (2) of subdivision (a).

35(d) The amounts included in gross income under subdivision
36(a) shall not again be included in gross income when subsequent
37distributions are made to the taxpayer (or a member of the
38taxpayer’s combined reporting group), or another taxpayer that
39acquires an interest in the stock of the taxpayer (or a member of
40the taxpayer’s combined reporting group with respect to which
P421  1subdivision (a) was applied), or any successor or assign of the
2respective taxpayers (or a member of the taxpayer’s combined
3reporting group) described in this subdivision. For purposes of
4applying this subdivision, distributions from an insurer shall be
5considered first made from amounts included under subdivision
6(a).

7(e) For purposes of this section, the following definitions shall
8apply:

9(1) Except as otherwise provided, the phrases “net written
10premiums,” “five-year average net written premiums” and the
11“five-year average total income” shall each have the same meaning,
12respectively, as applicable for purposes of subdivision (c) of
13Section 24410, whether or not a dividend is actually received from
14any insurer member of the taxpayer’s commonly controlled group
15in that taxable year.

16(2) “Net income attributable to investment income” means net
17income of the insurer multiplied by a ratio, the numerator of which
18is the insurer’s gross investment income from interest, dividends
19(other than dividends from members of the taxpayer’s commonly
20controlled group), rent, and realized gains or losses, and the
21denominator of which is the insurer’s gross income (other than
22dividends from members of the taxpayer’s commonly controlled
23group) from all sources. In the application of the preceding
24sentence, if an insurer is required to file a Statutory Annual
25Statement pursuant to the Annual Statement Instructions and
26Accounting Practices and Procedures Manual promulgated by the
27National Association of Insurance Commissioners, “net income”
28means net income required to be reported in the insurer’s Statutory
29Annual Statement.

30(3) An insurer is any insurer within the meaning of Section 28
31of Article XIII of the California Constitution, whether or not the
32insurer is engaged in business in California.

33(4) The phrase “commonly controlled group” shall have the
34same meaning as that phrase has under Section 25105.

35(5) The phrase “combined reporting group” means those
36corporations whose income is required to be included in the same
37combined report pursuant to Section 25101 or 25110.

38(6) A “predominantly captive insurance group” means the
39insurer members of a commonly controlled group where the
40insurers receive more than 50 percent of their net written premiums
P422  1(without regard to the weighting factors in paragraph (1) of
2subdivision (e) of Section 24410) from members of the commonly
3controlled group or the ratios in clause (i) or clause (ii) of
4subparagraph (B) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (d) of Section
524410 is greater than 50 percent. The provisions of paragraph (4)
6of subdivision (d) of Section 24410 shall apply for purposes of
7this paragraph.

8(7) (A) The taxpayer’s “pro rata share” of the current earnings
9and profits of an insurer member of a commonly controlled group
10is the amount that would have been received as a dividend by the
11taxpayer (or a member of the taxpayer’s combined reporting group)
12if both of the following apply:

13(i) The insurer had directly distributed its current earnings and
14profits with respect to its stock held by the taxpayer (or member
15of the taxpayer’s combined reporting group).

16(ii) In the case of an insurer holding the stock of another insurer,
17all other insurer members of the taxpayer’s commonly controlled
18group had distributed the same current earnings and profits with
19respect to their stock, in the same taxable year, until amounts were
20received as a dividend by the taxpayer (or a member of the
21taxpayer’s combined reporting group) from an insurer member of
22the commonly controlled group.

23(B) In the application of this section, amounts treated as a
24dividend received by a partnership shall be considered a dividend
25received by each partner that is a member of the commonly
26controlled group, either directly or through a series of tiered
27partnerships.

28(f) The Franchise Tax Board may prescribe those regulations
29that are appropriate to describe conditions under which the
30accumulation of earnings and profits of those insurers described
31in paragraph (2) of subdivision (a) do not have the substantial
32purpose of avoidance of taxes on, according to, or measured by
33income, of this state or any other state.

34(g) If this section or any portion of this section is held invalid,
35or the application of this section to any person or circumstance is
36held invalid, that invalidity shall not affect other provisions of the
37act adding this section, or the provisions of this section that are
38severable.

39

SEC. 191.  

Section 1755 of the Unemployment Insurance Code
40 is amended to read:

P423  1

1755.  

(a) If any person or employing unit is delinquent in the
2payment of any contributions, penalties, or interest provided for
3in this division, the director may, not later than three years after
4the payment became delinquent or within 10 years after the last
5entry of a judgment under Article 5 (commencing with Section
61815) or within 10 years after the last recording or filing of a notice
7of state tax lien under Section 7171 of the Government Code,
8collect the delinquency or enforce any liens by levy served either
9personally or by first-class mail, to all persons having in their
10possession or under their control any credits or personal property
11belonging to the delinquent person or employing unit, or owing
12any debts to the person or employing unit at the time of the receipt
13of the notice of levy or coming into their possession or under their
14control for the period of one year from the time of receipt of the
15notice of levy. Any person upon whom a levy has been served
16having in his or her possession or under his or her control any
17credits or personal property belonging to the delinquent person or
18employing unit or owing any debts to the person or employing
19unit at the time of the receipt of the levy or coming into his or her
20possession or under his or her control for the period of one year
21from the time of receipt of the notice of levy, shall surrender the
22credits or personal property to the director or pay to the director
23the amount of any debt owing the delinquent employer within five
24days of service of the levy, and shall surrender the credits or
25personal property, or the amount of any debt owing to the
26delinquent employer coming into his or her possession or under
27his or her control within one year of receipt of the notice of levy
28within five days of the date of coming into possession or control
29of the credits or personal property, or the amount of any debt owing
30to the delinquent employer is incurred. Any person in possession
31of any credits or personal property or owing any debts to the
32delinquent person or employing unit who surrenders the credits or
33personal property or pays the debts owing the delinquent person
34or employing unit shall be discharged from any obligation or
35liability to the delinquent person or employing unit with respect
36to the credits or personal property surrendered or debts paid to the
37director.

38(b) (1) If the levy is made on a deposit or credits or personal
39property in the possession or under the control of a financial
40institution, the notice of levy shall be served on that financial
P424  1institution at the same location as legal process is required to be
2served pursuant to Section 684.115 of the Code of Civil Procedure,
3and the levy will apply to all credits or personal property in the
4deposit account only at the time that notice of levy is received by
5the financial institution.

6(2) For purposes of this section:

7(A) “Deposit account” has the same meaning as in paragraph
8(29) of subdivision (a) of Section 9102 of the Commercial Code.

9(B) “Financial institution” has the same meaning as in Section
10481.113 of the Code of Civil Procedure.

11(C) “Legal process” has the same meaning as in Section 482.070
12of the Code of Civil Procedure.

13

SEC. 192.  

Section 14211 of the Unemployment Insurance
14Code
is amended to read:

15

14211.  

(a) (1) Beginning program year 2012, an amount equal
16to at least 25 percent of funds available under Title I of the federal
17Workforce Investment Act of 1998 (Public Law 105-220) provided
18to local workforce investment boards for adults and dislocated
19workers shall be spent on workforce training programs. This
20minimum may be met either by spending 25 percent of those base
21formula funds on training or by combining a portion of those base
22formula funds with leveraged funds as specified in subdivision
23(b).

24(2) Beginning program year 2016, an amount equal to at least
2530 percent of funds available under Title I of the federal Workforce
26Investment Act of 1998 (Public Law 105-220) provided to local
27workforce investment boards for adults and dislocated workers
28shall be spent on workforce training programs. This minimum may
29be met either by spending 30 percent of those base formula funds
30on training or by combining a portion of those base formula funds
31with leveraged funds as specified in subdivision (b).

32(3) Expenditures that shall count toward the minimum
33percentage of funds shall include only training services as defined
34in Section 2864(d)(4)(D) of Title 29 of the United States Code and
35Sections 663.300 and 663.508 of Title 20 of the Code of Federal
36Regulations, including all of the following:

37(A) Occupational skills training, including training for
38nontraditional employment.

39(B) On-the-job training.

P425  1(C) Programs that combine workplace training with related
2instruction, which may include cooperative education programs.

3(D) Training programs operated by the private sector.

4(E) Skill upgrading and retraining.

5(F) Entrepreneurial training.

6(G) Job readiness training.

7(H) Adult education and literacy activities provided in
8combination with services described in any of subparagraphs (A)
9to (G), inclusive.

10(I) Customized training conducted with a commitment by an
11employer or group of employers to employ an individual upon
12successful completion of the training.

13(b) (1) Local workforce investment boards may receive a credit
14of up to 10 percent of their adult and dislocated worker formula
15fund base allocations for public education and training funds and
16private resources from industry and from joint labor-management
17trusts that are leveraged by a local workforce investment board
18for training services described in paragraph (3) of subdivision (a).
19This credit may be applied toward the minimum training
20requirements in paragraphs (1) and (2) of subdivision (a).

21(A) Leveraged funds that may be applied toward the credit
22allowed by this subdivision shall only include the following:

23(i) Federal Pell Grants established under Title IV of the federal
24Higher Education Act of 1965 (20 U.S.C. Sec. 1070 et seq.).

25(ii) Programs authorized by the federal Workforce Investment
26Act of 1998 (Public Law 105-220).

27(iii) Trade adjustment assistance.

28(iv) Department of Labor National Emergency Grants.

29(v) Match funds from employers, industry, and industry
30associations.

31(vi) Match funds from joint labor-management trusts.

32(vii) Employment training panel grants.

33(B) Credit for leveraged funds shall only be given if the local
34workforce investment board keeps records of all training
35expenditures it chooses to apply to the credit. Training expenditures
36may only be applied to the credit if the relevant training costs can
37be independently verified by the Employment Development
38Department and training participants must be coenrolled in the
39federal Workforce Investment Act of 1998 performance monitoring
40system.

P426  1(2) The use of leveraged funds to partially meet the training
2requirements specified in paragraphs (1) and (2) of subdivision
3(a) is the prerogative of a local workforce investment board. Costs
4arising from the recordkeeping required to demonstrate compliance
5with the leveraging requirements of this subdivision are the
6responsibility of the board.

7(c) Beginning program year 2012, the Employment Development
8Department shall calculate for each local workforce investment
9board, within six months after the end of the second program year
10of the two-year period of availability for expenditure of federal
11Workforce Investment Act of 1998 funds, whether the local
12workforce investment board met the requirements of subdivision
13(a). The Employment Development Department shall provide to
14each local workforce investment board its individual calculations
15with respect to the expenditure requirements of subdivision (a).

16(d) A local workforce investment area that does not meet the
17requirements of subdivision (a) shall submit a corrective action
18plan to the Employment Development Department that provides
19reasons for not meeting the requirements and describes actions
20taken to address the identified expenditure deficiencies. A local
21workforce investment area shall provide a corrective action plan
22to the Employment Development Department pursuant to this
23section within 90 days of receiving the calculations described in
24subdivision (c).

25(e) For the purpose of this section, “program year” has the same
26meaning as provided in Section 667.100 of Title 20 of the Code
27of Federal Regulations.

28

SEC. 193.  

Section 11205 of the Vehicle Code, as amended by
29Section 456 of Chapter 931 of the Statutes of 1998, is amended to
30read:

31

11205.  

(a) The department shall publish semiannually, or more
32often as necessary to serve the purposes of this act, a list of all
33traffic violator schools which are licensed pursuant to this section.
34The list shall identify classroom facilities within a judicial district
35that are at a different location from a licensed school’s principal
36facility. The department shall transmit the list to each municipal
37court and to each superior court in a county in which there is no
38municipal court, with a sufficient number of copies to allow the
39courts to provide one copy to each person referred to a licensed
40traffic violator school. The department shall, at least semiannually,
P427  1revise the list to ensure that each court has a current list of all
2licensed traffic violator schools.

3(b) Each licensed traffic violator school owner shall be permitted
4one school name per judicial district.

5(c) The referral list shall be organized alphabetically, in sections
6for each county, and contain subsections for each judicial district
7within the county. The order of the names within each judicial
8district shall be random pursuant to a drawing or lottery conducted
9by the department.

10(d) Except as otherwise provided in subdivision (d) of Section
1142005, the court shall use either the current referral list of traffic
12violator schools published by the department when it orders a
13person to complete a traffic violator school pursuant to subdivision
14(a) or (b) of Section 42005 or, when a court utilizing a nonprofit
15agency for traffic violator school administration and monitoring
16services in which all traffic violator schools licensed by the
17department are allowed the opportunity to participate, a statewide
18referral list may be published by the nonprofit agency and
19distributed by the court. The agency shall monitor each classroom
20location situated within the judicial districts in which that agency
21provides services to the courts and is represented on its referral
22list. The monitoring shall occur at least once every 90 days with
23reports forwarded to the department and the respective courts on
24a monthly basis.

25(e) The court may charge a traffic violator a fee to defray the
26costs incurred by the agency for the monitoring reports and services
27provided to the court. The court may delegate collection of the fee
28to the agency. Fees shall be approved and regulated by the court.
29Until December 31, 1996, the fee shall not exceed the actual cost
30incurred by the agency or five dollars ($5), whichever is less.

31

SEC. 194.  

Section 12804.11 of the Vehicle Code is amended
32to read:

33

12804.11.  

(a) To operate firefighting equipment, a driver,
34including a tiller operator, is required to do either of the following:

35(1) Obtain and maintain a firefighter endorsement issued by the
36department and obtain and maintain a class C license as described
37in Section 12804.9, a restricted class A license as described in
38Section 12804.12, or a noncommercial class B license as described
39in Section 12804.10.

P428  1(2) Obtain and maintain a class A or B license as described in
2Section 12804.9 and, as appropriate, for the size and configuration
3of the firefighting equipment operated.

4(b) To qualify for a firefighter endorsement the driver shall do
5all of the following:

6(1) (A) Provide to the department proof of current employment
7as a firefighter or registration as a volunteer firefighter with a fire
8department and evidence of fire equipment operation training by
9providing a letter or other indication from the chief of the fire
10department or his or her designee.

11(B) For purposes of this section, evidence of fire equipment
12operation training means the applicant has successfully completed
13Fire Apparatus Driver/Operator 1A taught by an instructor
14registered with the Office of the State Fire Marshal or fire
15department driver training that meets all of the following
16requirements:

17(i) Meets or exceeds the standards outlined in NFPA 1002,
18Chapter 4 (2008 version) or the Fire Apparatus Driver/Operator
191A course adopted by the Office of the State Fire Marshal.

20(ii) Prepares the applicant to safely operate the department’s
21fire equipment that the applicant will be authorized to operate.

22(iii) Includes a classroom (cognitive) portion of at least 16 hours.

23(iv) Includes a manipulative portion of at least 14 hours, which
24includes directly supervised behind-the-wheel driver training.

25(C) Driver training shall be conducted by a person who is
26registered with the Office of the State Fire Marshal to instruct a
27Fire Apparatus Driver/Operator 1A course or a person who meets
28all of the following criteria:

29(i) Possesses a minimum of five years of fire service experience
30as an emergency vehicle operator, three of which must be at the
31rank of engineer or higher.

32(ii) Possesses a valid California class A or B license or a class
33A or B license restricted to the operation of firefighting equipment.

34(iii) Is certified as a qualified training instructor or training
35officer by the State of California, the federal government, or a
36county training officers’ association.

37(2) Pass the written firefighter examination developed by the
38department with the cooperation of the Office of the State Fire
39Marshal.

P429  1(3) Upon application and every two years thereafter, submit
2medical information on a form approved by the department.

3(c) There shall be no additional charge for adding a firefighter
4endorsement to an original license or when renewing a license. To
5add a firefighter endorsement to an existing license when not
6renewing the license, the applicant shall pay the fee for a duplicate
7license pursuant to Section 14901.

8(d) (1) A driver of firefighting equipment is subject to the
9requirements of subdivision (a) if both of the following conditions
10exist:

11(A) The equipment is operated by a person employed as a
12firefighter by a federal or state agency, by a regularly organized
13fire department of a city, county, city and county, or district, or by
14a tribal fire department or registered as a volunteer member of a
15regularly organized fire department having official recognition of
16the city, county, city and county, or district in which the department
17is located, or of a tribal fire department.

18(B) The motor vehicle is used to travel to and from the scene
19of an emergency situation, or to transport equipment used in the
20control of an emergency situation, and which is owned, leased, or
21rented by, or under the exclusive control of, a federal or state
22agency, a regularly organized fire department of a city, county,
23city and county, or district, a volunteer fire department having
24official recognition of the city, county, city and county, or district
25in which the department is located, or a tribal fire department.

26(2) A driver of firefighting equipment is not required to obtain
27and maintain a firefighter endorsement pursuant to paragraph (1)
28of subdivision (a) if the driver is operating the firefighting
29equipment for training purposes, during a nonemergency, while
30under the direct supervision of a fire department employee who is
31properly licensed to operate the equipment and is authorized by
32the fire department to provide training.

33(e) For purposes of this section, a tiller operator is the driver of
34the rear free-axle portion of a ladder truck.

35(f) For purposes of this section, “firefighting equipment” means
36a motor vehicle, that meets the definition of a class A or class B
37vehicle described in subdivision (b) of Section 12804.9, that is
38used to travel to and from the scene of an emergency situation, or
39to transport equipment used in the control of an emergency
40situation, and that is owned, leased, or rented by, or under the
P430  1exclusive control of, a federal or state agency, a regularly organized
2fire department of a city, county, city and county, or district, or a
3volunteer fire department having official recognition of the city,
4county, city and county, or district in which the department is
5located.

6(g) Notwithstanding paragraph (1) of subdivision (a), a regularly
7organized fire department, having official recognition of the city,
8county, city and county, or district in which the department is
9located, may require an employee or a volunteer of the fire
10department who is a driver or operator of firefighting equipment
11to hold a class A or B license.

12(h) This section applies to a person hired by a fire department,
13or to a person renewing a driver’s license, on or after January 1,
142011.

15

SEC. 195.  

Section 16028 of the Vehicle Code is amended to
16read:

17

16028.  

(a) Upon the demand of a peace officer pursuant to
18subdivision (b) or upon the demand of a peace officer or traffic
19collision investigator pursuant to subdivision (c), every person
20who drives a motor vehicle upon a highway shall provide evidence
21of financial responsibility for the vehicle that is in effect at the
22time the demand is made. The evidence of financial responsibility
23may be provided using a mobile electronic device. However, a
24peace officer shall not stop a vehicle for the sole purpose of
25determining whether the vehicle is being driven in violation of this
26subdivision.

27(b) If a notice to appear is issued for any alleged violation of
28this code, except a violation specified in Chapter 9 (commencing
29with Section 22500) of Division 11 or any local ordinance adopted
30pursuant to that chapter, the cited driver shall furnish written
31evidence of financial responsibility or may provide electronic
32verification of evidence of financial responsibility using a mobile
33electronic device upon request of the peace officer issuing the
34citation. The peace officer shall request and write the driver’s
35evidence of financial responsibility on the notice to appear, except
36when the peace officer is unable to write the driver’s evidence of
37financial responsibility on the notice to appear due to an emergency
38that requires his or her presence elsewhere. If the cited driver fails
39to provide evidence of financial responsibility at the time the notice
40to appear is issued, the peace officer may issue the driver a notice
P431  1to appear for violation of subdivision (a). The notice to appear for
2violation of subdivision (a) shall be written on the same citation
3form as the original violation.

4(c) If a peace officer, or a regularly employed and salaried
5employee of a city or county who has been trained as a traffic
6collision investigator, is summoned to the scene of an accident
7described in Section 16000, the driver of a motor vehicle that is
8in any manner involved in the accident shall furnish written
9evidence of financial responsibility or may provide electronic
10verification of evidence of financial responsibility using a mobile
11electronic device upon the request of the peace officer or traffic
12collision investigator. If the driver fails to provide evidence of
13financial responsibility when requested, the peace officer may
14issue the driver a notice to appear for violation of this subdivision.
15A traffic collision investigator may cause a notice to appear to be
16issued for a violation of this subdivision, upon review of that
17citation by a peace officer.

18(d) (1) If, at the time a notice to appear for a violation of
19subdivision (a) is issued, the person is driving a motor vehicle
20owned or leased by the driver’s employer, and the vehicle is being
21driven with the permission of the employer, this section shall apply
22to the employer rather than the driver. In that case, a notice to
23appear shall be issued to the employer rather than the driver, and
24the driver may sign the notice on behalf of the employer.

25(2) The driver shall notify the employer of the receipt of the
26notice issued pursuant to paragraph (1) not later than five days
27after receipt.

28(e) A person issued a notice to appear for a violation of
29subdivision (a) may personally appear before the clerk of the court,
30as designated in the notice to appear, and provide written evidence
31of financial responsibility in a form consistent with Section 16020,
32showing that the driver was in compliance with that section at the
33time the notice to appear for violating subdivision (a) was issued.
34In lieu of the personal appearance, the person may submit by mail
35to the court written evidence of having had financial responsibility
36at the time the notice to appear was issued. Upon receipt by the
37clerk of that written evidence of financial responsibility in a form
38consistent with Section 16020, further proceedings on the notice
39to appear for the violation of subdivision (a) shall be dismissed.

P432  1(f) For the purposes of this section, “mobile electronic device”
2means a portable computing and communication device that has
3a display screen with touch input or a miniature keyboard.

4(g) For the purposes of this section, when a person provides
5evidence of financial responsibility using a mobile electronic device
6to a peace officer, the peace officer shall only view the evidence
7of financial responsibility and is prohibited from viewing any other
8content on the mobile electronic device.

9(h) If a person presents a mobile electronic device pursuant to
10this section, that person assumes all liability for any damage to the
11mobile electronic device.

12

SEC. 196.  

Section 23612 of the Vehicle Code is amended to
13read:

14

23612.  

(a) (1) (A) A person who drives a motor vehicle is
15deemed to have given his or her consent to chemical testing of his
16or her blood or breath for the purpose of determining the alcoholic
17content of his or her blood, if lawfully arrested for an offense
18allegedly committed in violation of Section 23140, 23152, or
1923153. If a blood or breath test, or both, are unavailable, then
20paragraph (2) of subdivision (d) applies.

21(B) A person who drives a motor vehicle is deemed to have
22given his or her consent to chemical testing of his or her blood for
23the purpose of determining the drug content of his or her blood, if
24lawfully arrested for an offense allegedly committed in violation
25of Section 23140, 23152, or 23153. If a blood test is unavailable,
26the person shall be deemed to have given his or her consent to
27chemical testing of his or her urine and shall submit to a urine test.

28(C) The testing shall be incidental to a lawful arrest and
29administered at the direction of a peace officer having reasonable
30cause to believe the person was driving a motor vehicle in violation
31of Section 23140, 23152, or 23153.

32(D) The person shall be told that his or her failure to submit to,
33or the failure to complete, the required chemical testing will result
34in a fine, mandatory imprisonment if the person is convicted of a
35violation of Section 23152 or 23153, and (i) the suspension of the
36person’s privilege to operate a motor vehicle for a period of one
37year, (ii) the revocation of the person’s privilege to operate a motor
38vehicle for a period of two years if the refusal occurs within 10
39years of a separate violation of Section 23103 as specified in
40Section 23103.5, or of Section 23140, 23152, or 23153 of this
P433  1code, or of Section 191.5 or subdivision (a) of Section 192.5 of
2the Penal Code that resulted in a conviction, or if the person’s
3privilege to operate a motor vehicle has been suspended or revoked
4pursuant to Section 13353, 13353.1, or 13353.2 for an offense that
5occurred on a separate occasion, or (iii) the revocation of the
6person’s privilege to operate a motor vehicle for a period of three
7years if the refusal occurs within 10 years of two or more separate
8violations of Section 23103 as specified in Section 23103.5, or of
9Section 23140, 23152, or 23153 of this code, or of Section 191.5
10or subdivision (a) of Section 192.5 of the Penal Code, or any
11combination thereof, that resulted in convictions, or if the person’s
12privilege to operate a motor vehicle has been suspended or revoked
13two or more times pursuant to Section 13353, 13353.1, or 13353.2
14for offenses that occurred on separate occasions, or if there is any
15 combination of those convictions, administrative suspensions, or
16revocations.

17(2) (A) If the person is lawfully arrested for driving under the
18influence of an alcoholic beverage, the person has the choice of
19whether the test shall be of his or her blood or breath and the officer
20shall advise the person that he or she has that choice. If the person
21arrested either is incapable, or states that he or she is incapable,
22of completing the chosen test, the person shall submit to the
23remaining test. If a blood or breath test, or both, are unavailable,
24then paragraph (2) of subdivision (d) applies.

25(B) If the person is lawfully arrested for driving under the
26influence of any drug or the combined influence of an alcoholic
27beverage and any drug, the person has the choice of whether the
28test shall be of his or her blood or breath, and the officer shall
29advise the person that he or she has that choice.

30(C) A person who chooses to submit to a breath test may also
31be requested to submit to a blood test if the officer has reasonable
32cause to believe that the person was driving under the influence
33of a drug or the combined influence of an alcoholic beverage and
34a drug and if the officer has a clear indication that a blood test will
35reveal evidence of the person being under the influence. The officer
36shall state in his or her report the facts upon which that belief and
37that clear indication are based. The officer shall advise the person
38that he or she is required to submit to an additional test. The person
39shall submit to and complete a blood test. If the person arrested is
P434  1incapable of completing the blood test, the person shall submit to
2and complete a urine test.

3(3) If the person is lawfully arrested for an offense allegedly
4committed in violation of Section 23140, 23152, or 23153, and,
5because of the need for medical treatment, the person is first
6transported to a medical facility where it is not feasible to
7administer a particular test of, or to obtain a particular sample of,
8the person’s blood or breath, the person has the choice of those
9tests, including a urine test, that are available at the facility to
10which that person has been transported. In that case, the officer
11shall advise the person of those tests that are available at the
12medical facility and that the person’s choice is limited to those
13tests that are available.

14(4) The officer shall also advise the person that he or she does
15not have the right to have an attorney present before stating whether
16he or she will submit to a test or tests, before deciding which test
17or tests to take, or during administration of the test or tests chosen,
18and that, in the event of refusal to submit to a test or tests, the
19refusal may be used against him or her in a court of law.

20(5) A person who is unconscious or otherwise in a condition
21rendering him or her incapable of refusal is deemed not to have
22withdrawn his or her consent and a test or tests may be
23administered whether or not the person is told that his or her failure
24to submit to, or the noncompletion of, the test or tests will result
25in the suspension or revocation of his or her privilege to operate
26a motor vehicle. A person who is dead is deemed not to have
27withdrawn his or her consent and a test or tests may be
28administered at the direction of a peace officer.

29(b) A person who is afflicted with hemophilia is exempt from
30the blood test required by this section, but shall submit to, and
31complete, a urine test.

32(c) A person who is afflicted with a heart condition and is using
33an anticoagulant under the direction of a licensed physician and
34surgeon is exempt from the blood test required by this section, but
35shall submit to, and complete, a urine test.

36(d) (1) A person lawfully arrested for an offense allegedly
37committed while the person was driving a motor vehicle in
38violation of Section 23140, 23152, or 23153 may request the
39arresting officer to have a chemical test made of the arrested
40person’s blood or breath for the purpose of determining the
P435  1alcoholic content of that person’s blood, and, if so requested, the
2arresting officer shall have the test performed.

3(2) If a blood or breath test is not available under subparagraph
4(A) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (a), or under subparagraph (A)
5of paragraph (2) of subdivision (a), or under paragraph (1) of this
6subdivision, the person shall submit to the remaining test in order
7to determine the percent, by weight, of alcohol in the person’s
8blood. If both the blood and breath tests are unavailable, the person
9shall be deemed to have given his or her consent to chemical testing
10of his or her urine and shall submit to a urine test.

11(e) If the person, who has been arrested for a violation of Section
1223140, 23152, or 23153, refuses or fails to complete a chemical
13test or tests, or requests that a blood or urine test be taken, the
14peace officer, acting on behalf of the department, shall serve the
15notice of the order of suspension or revocation of the person’s
16privilege to operate a motor vehicle personally on the arrested
17person. The notice shall be on a form provided by the department.

18(f) If the peace officer serves the notice of the order of
19suspension or revocation of the person’s privilege to operate a
20motor vehicle, the peace officer shall take possession of all driver’s
21licenses issued by this state that are held by the person. The
22temporary driver’s license shall be an endorsement on the notice
23of the order of suspension and shall be valid for 30 days from the
24date of arrest.

25(g) (1) The peace officer shall immediately forward a copy of
26the completed notice of suspension or revocation form and any
27driver’s license taken into possession under subdivision (f), with
28the report required by Section 13380, to the department. If the
29person submitted to a blood or urine test, the peace officer shall
30forward the results immediately to the appropriate forensic
31laboratory. The forensic laboratory shall forward the results of the
32chemical tests to the department within 15 calendar days of the
33date of the arrest.

34(2) (A) Notwithstanding any other law, a document containing
35data prepared and maintained in the governmental forensic
36laboratory computerized database system that is electronically
37transmitted or retrieved through public or private computer
38networks to or by the department is the best available evidence of
39the chemical test results in all administrative proceedings conducted
40by the department. In addition, any other official record that is
P436  1maintained in the governmental forensic laboratory, relates to a
2chemical test analysis prepared and maintained in the governmental
3forensic laboratory computerized database system, and is
4electronically transmitted and retrieved through a public or private
5computer network to or by the department is admissible as evidence
6in the department’s administrative proceedings. In order to be
7admissible as evidence in administrative proceedings, a document
8described in this subparagraph shall bear a certification by the
9employee of the department who retrieved the document certifying
10that the information was received or retrieved directly from the
11computerized database system of a governmental forensic
12laboratory and that the document accurately reflects the data
13received or retrieved.

14(B) Notwithstanding any other law, the failure of an employee
15of the department to certify under subparagraph (A) is not a public
16offense.

17(h) A preliminary alcohol screening test that indicates the
18presence or concentration of alcohol based on a breath sample in
19order to establish reasonable cause to believe the person was
20driving a vehicle in violation of Section 23140, 23152, or 23153
21is a field sobriety test and may be used by an officer as a further
22investigative tool.

23(i) If the officer decides to use a preliminary alcohol screening
24test, the officer shall advise the person that he or she is requesting
25that person to take a preliminary alcohol screening test to assist
26the officer in determining if that person is under the influence of
27alcohol or drugs, or a combination of alcohol and drugs. The
28person’s obligation to submit to a blood, breath, or urine test, as
29required by this section, for the purpose of determining the alcohol
30or drug content of that person’s blood, is not satisfied by the person
31submitting to a preliminary alcohol screening test. The officer shall
32advise the person of that fact and of the person’s right to refuse to
33take the preliminary alcohol screening test.

34

SEC. 197.  

Section 34510.5 of the Vehicle Code is amended to
35read:

36

34510.5.  

(a) (1) A broker of construction trucking services,
37as defined in Section 3322 of the Civil Code, shall not furnish
38construction transportation services to any construction project
39unless it has secured a surety bond of not less than fifteen thousand
40dollars ($15,000) executed by an admitted surety insurer. The
P437  1surety bond shall ensure the payment of the claims of a contracted
2motor carrier of property in dump truck equipment if the broker
3fails to pay the contracted motor carrier within the time period
4specified in paragraph (1) of subdivision (a) of Section 3322 of
5the Civil Code.

6(2) (A) A broker of construction trucking services annually
7shall provide written evidence of the broker’s valid surety bond
8to a third-party nonprofit organization that is related to the industry
9and regularly maintains a published database of bonded brokers
10or post a current copy of the surety bond on the broker’s Internet
11Web site.

12(B) When a copy of a surety bond is provided to a third-party
13nonprofit organization, the broker shall notify the third-party
14nonprofit organization if at any time the surety bond is cancelled
15or expired. When a copy of the surety bond is posted on the
16broker’s Internet Web site, the broker shall remove the copy of
17the surety bond from his or her Internet Web site if at any time the
18surety bond is cancelled or expired.

19(C) A third-party nonprofit organization shall not charge a
20broker for posting evidence of a valid surety bond or limit the
21posting of the bond only to the organization’s members.

22(D) A third-party nonprofit organization shall not be liable for
23any damages caused by the publication of any information provided
24pursuant to this paragraph that is erroneous or outdated.

25(b)  A broker of construction trucking services shall not hire,
26or otherwise engage the services of, a motor carrier of property to
27furnish construction transportation services unless the broker
28provides, prior to the commencement of work each calendar year,
29written evidence of the broker’s valid surety bond to any person
30that hires, or otherwise engages the services of, the broker to
31furnish construction transportation services and also to the hired
32motor carrier of property.

33(c) A broker of construction trucking services who furnishes
34construction transportation services in violation of this section is
35guilty of a misdemeanor and subject to a fine of up to five thousand
36dollars ($5,000).

37(d) In any civil action brought against a broker of construction
38trucking services by a motor carrier of property in dump truck
39equipment with whom the broker contracted during any period of
40time in which the broker did not have a surety bond in violation
P438  1of this section, the failure to have the bond shall create a rebuttable
2presumption that the broker failed to pay to the motor carrier the
3amount due and owing.

4(e) For purposes of this section, “a broker of construction
5trucking services” does not include a facility that meets all the
6following requirements:

7(1) Arranges for transportation services of its product.

8(2) Primarily handles raw materials to produce a new product.

9(3) Is a rock product operation (such as an “aggregate”
10operation), a hot mixing asphalt plant, or a concrete, concrete
11product, or Portland cement product manufacturing facility.

12(4) Does not accept a fee for the arrangement.

13(f) For the purposes of this section, “written evidence of the
14broker’s valid surety bond” includes a copy of the surety bond, a
15certificate of insurance, a continuation certificate, or other similar
16documentation originally issued from the surety that includes the
17surety’s and broker’s name, the bond number, and the effective
18and expiration dates of the bond.

19

SEC. 198.  

Section 40000.20 of the Vehicle Code is amended
20to read:

21

40000.20.  

A third or subsequent violation of Section 23225,
22relating to the storage of an opened container of an alcoholic
23beverage, or Section 23223, relating to the possession of an open
24container of an alcoholic beverage, by a driver of a vehicle used
25to provide transportation services on a prearranged basis, operating
26under a valid certificate or permit pursuant to the Passenger
27Charter-party Carriers’ Act (Chapter 8 (commencing with Section
285351) of Division 2 of the Public Utilities Code), is a misdemeanor.

29

SEC. 199.  

Section 85057.5 of the Water Code is amended to
30read:

31

85057.5.  

(a) “Covered action” means a plan, program, or
32project as defined pursuant to Section 21065 of the Public
33Resources Code that meets all of the following conditions:

34(1) Will occur, in whole or in part, within the boundaries of the
35Delta or Suisun Marsh.

36(2) Will be carried out, approved, or funded by the state or a
37local public agency.

38(3) Is covered by one or more provisions of the Delta Plan.

39(4) Will have a significant impact on achievement of one or
40both of the coequal goals or the implementation of
P439  1government-sponsored flood control programs to reduce risks to
2people, property, and state interests in the Delta.

3(b) “Covered action” does not include any of the following:

4(1) A regulatory action of a state agency.

5(2) Routine maintenance and operation of the State Water
6Project or the federal Central Valley Project.

7(3) Regional transportation plans prepared pursuant to Section
865080 of the Government Code.

9(4) A plan, program, project, or activity within the secondary
10zone of the Delta that the applicable metropolitan planning
11organization pursuant to Section 65080 of the Government Code
12has determined is consistent with either a sustainable communities
13strategy or an alternative planning strategy that the State Air
14Resources Board has determined would, if implemented, achieve
15the greenhouse gas emission reduction targets established by that
16board pursuant to subparagraph (A) of paragraph (2) of subdivision
17(b) of Section 65080 of the Government Code. For purposes of
18this paragraph, “consistent with” means consistent with the use
19designation, density, building intensity, transportation plan, and
20applicable policies specified for the area in the sustainable
21communities strategy or the alternative planning strategy, as
22applicable, and any infrastructure necessary to support the plan,
23program, project, or activity.

24(5) Routine maintenance and operation of a facility located, in
25whole or in part, in the Delta, that is owned or operated by a local
26public agency.

27(6) A plan, program, project, or activity that occurs, in whole
28or in part, in the Delta, if both of the following conditions are met:

29(A) The plan, program, project, or activity is undertaken by a
30local public agency that is located, in whole or in part, in the Delta.

31(B) Either a notice of determination is filed, pursuant to Section
3221152 of the Public Resources Code, for the plan, program, project,
33or activity by, or the plan, program, project, or activity is fully
34permitted by, September 30, 2009.

35(7) (A) A project within the secondary zone, as defined pursuant
36to Section 29731 of the Public Resources Code as of January 1,
372009, for which a notice of approval or determination pursuant to
38Section 21152 of the Public Resources Code has been filed before
39the date on which the Delta Plan becomes effective.

P440  1(B) A project for which a notice of approval or determination
2 is filed on or after the date on which the final Bay Delta
3Conservation Plan becomes effective, and before the date on which
4the Delta Plan becomes effective, is not a covered action but shall
5be consistent with the Bay Delta Conservation Plan.

6(C) Subparagraphs (A) and (B) do not apply to either of the
7following:

8(i) A project that is within a Restoration Opportunity Area as
9shown in Figure 3.1 of Chapter 3: Draft Conservation Strategy of
10the Bay Delta Conservation Plan, August 3, 2009, or as shown in
11a final Bay Delta Conservation Plan.

12(ii) A project that is within the alignment of a conveyance
13facility as shown in Figures 1 to 5, inclusive, of the Final Draft
14Initial Assessment of Dual Delta Water Conveyance Report, April
1523, 2008, and in future revisions of this document by the
16department.

17(8) Leases approved by a special district if all of the following
18apply:

19(A) The uses proposed by the lease are authorized by the
20applicable general plan and zoning ordinances of the city where
21the special district is located.

22(B) The uses proposed by the lease are approved by the city
23where the special district is located and the city complies with
24Chapter 3 (commencing with Section 85225) of Part 3, if
25applicable, prior to approval of the lease by the special district.

26(C) The special district complies with the California
27Environmental Quality Act (Division 13 (commencing with Section
2821000) of the Public Resources Code) prior to approving the lease.

29(9) (A) Routine dredging activities that are necessary for
30maintenance of facilities operated by a special district.

31(B) For purposes of this paragraph, “routine dredging activities”
32are limited to the following:

33(i) Dredging to maintain the Stockton Deep Water Ship Channel
34at a depth of 40 feet in the sediment trap at the confluence of the
35San Joaquin River, between river mile 39.3 to river mile 40.2, and
36to maintain the remaining Stockton Deep Water Ship Channel at
37a depth of 35 feet plus two feet of overdredge from river mile 35
38to river mile 43.

39(ii) Dredging designed to maintain the Sacramento Deep Water
40Ship Channel at a depth of 30 feet plus two feet of overdredge
P441  1from river mile 0.0 to river mile 30, and at a depth of 35 feet from
2river mile 35 to river mile 43.

3(C) Except as provided by this subdivision, it is the intent of
4the Legislature that this exemption shall not be interpreted or
5treated as changing or modifying current substantive and procedural
6regulations applicable to the decision to approve dredging
7operations.

8(c) For purposes of this section, “special district” means the
9Port of Stockton or the Port of West Sacramento.

10(d) This section shall not be interpreted to authorize the
11abrogation of a vested right whether created by statute or by
12common law.

13

SEC. 200.  

Section 366.21 of the Welfare and Institutions Code
14 is amended to read:

15

366.21.  

(a) Every hearing conducted by the juvenile court
16reviewing the status of a dependent child shall be placed on the
17appearance calendar. The court shall advise all persons present at
18the hearing of the date of the future hearing and of their right to
19be present and represented by counsel.

20(b) Except as provided in Sections 294 and 295, notice of the
21hearing shall be provided pursuant to Section 293.

22(c) At least 10 calendar days prior to the hearing, the social
23worker shall file a supplemental report with the court regarding
24the services provided or offered to the parent or legal guardian to
25enable him or her to assume custody and the efforts made to
26achieve legal permanence for the child if efforts to reunify fail,
27including, but not limited to, efforts to maintain relationships
28between a child who is 10 years of age or older and has been in
29out-of-home placement for six months or longer and individuals
30who are important to the child, consistent with the child’s best
31interests; the progress made; and, where relevant, the prognosis
32for return of the child to the physical custody of his or her parent
33or legal guardian; and shall make his or her recommendation for
34disposition. If the child is a member of a sibling group described
35in subparagraph (C) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (a) of Section
36361.5, the report and recommendation may also take into account
37those factors described in subdivision (e) relating to the child’s
38sibling group. If the recommendation is not to return the child to
39a parent or legal guardian, the report shall specify why the return
40of the child would be detrimental to the child. The social worker
P442  1shall provide the parent or legal guardian, counsel for the child,
2and any court-appointed child advocate with a copy of the report,
3including his or her recommendation for disposition, at least 10
4calendar days prior to the hearing. In the case of a child removed
5from the physical custody of his or her parent or legal guardian,
6the social worker shall, at least 10 calendar days prior to the
7hearing, provide a summary of his or her recommendation for
8disposition to any foster parents, relative caregivers, and certified
9foster parents who have been approved for adoption by the State
10Department of Social Services when it is acting as an adoption
11agency or by a county adoption agency, community care facility,
12or foster family agency having the physical custody of the child.
13The social worker shall include a copy of the Judicial Council
14Caregiver Information Form (JV-290) with the summary of
15recommendations to the child’s foster parents, relative caregivers,
16or foster parents approved for adoption, in the caregiver’s primary
17language when available, along with information on how to file
18the form with the court.

19(d) Prior to any hearing involving a child in the physical custody
20of a community care facility or a foster family agency that may
21result in the return of the child to the physical custody of his or
22her parent or legal guardian, or in adoption or the creation of a
23legal guardianship, or in the case of an Indian child, in consultation
24with the child’s tribe, tribal customary adoption, the facility or
25agency shall file with the court a report, or a Judicial Council
26Caregiver Information Form (JV-290), containing its
27recommendation for disposition. Prior to the hearing involving a
28child in the physical custody of a foster parent, a relative caregiver,
29or a certified foster parent who has been approved for adoption by
30the State Department of Social Services when it is acting as an
31adoption agency or by a county adoption agency, the foster parent,
32relative caregiver, or the certified foster parent who has been
33approved for adoption by the State Department of Social Services
34when it is acting as an adoption agency or by a county adoption
35agency, may file with the court a report containing his or her
36recommendation for disposition. The court shall consider the report
37and recommendation filed pursuant to this subdivision prior to
38determining any disposition.

39(e) At the review hearing held six months after the initial
40dispositional hearing, but no later than 12 months after the date
P443  1the child entered foster care as determined in Section 361.49,
2whichever occurs earlier, after considering the admissible and
3relevant evidence, the court shall order the return of the child to
4the physical custody of his or her parent or legal guardian unless
5the court finds, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the return
6of the child to his or her parent or legal guardian would create a
7substantial risk of detriment to the safety, protection, or physical
8or emotional well-being of the child. The social worker shall have
9the burden of establishing that detriment. At the hearing, the court
10shall consider the criminal history, obtained pursuant to paragraph
11(1) of subdivision (f) of Section 16504.5, of the parent or legal
12guardian subsequent to the child’s removal to the extent that the
13criminal record is substantially related to the welfare of the child
14or the parent’s or guardian’s ability to exercise custody and control
15regarding his or her child, provided the parent or legal guardian
16agreed to submit fingerprint images to obtain criminal history
17information as part of the case plan. The failure of the parent or
18legal guardian to participate regularly and make substantive
19progress in court-ordered treatment programs shall be prima facie
20evidence that return would be detrimental. In making its
21determination, the court shall review and consider the social
22worker’s report and recommendations and the report and
23recommendations of any child advocate appointed pursuant to
24Section 356.5; and shall consider the efforts or progress, or both,
25demonstrated by the parent or legal guardian and the extent to
26which he or she availed himself or herself to services provided,
27taking into account the particular barriers to an incarcerated,
28institutionalized, detained, or deported parent’s or legal guardian’s
29access to those court-mandated services and ability to maintain
30contact with his or her child.

31Regardless of whether the child is returned to a parent or legal
32guardian, the court shall specify the factual basis for its conclusion
33that the return would be detrimental or would not be detrimental.
34The court also shall make appropriate findings pursuant to
35subdivision (a) of Section 366; and, where relevant, shall order
36any additional services reasonably believed to facilitate the return
37of the child to the custody of his or her parent or legal guardian.
38The court shall also inform the parent or legal guardian that if the
39child cannot be returned home by the 12-month permanency
40hearing, a proceeding pursuant to Section 366.26 may be instituted.
P444  1This section does not apply in a case where, pursuant to Section
2361.5, the court has ordered that reunification services shall not
3be provided.

4If the child was under three years of age on the date of the initial
5removal, or is a member of a sibling group described in
6subparagraph (C) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (a) of Section
7361.5, and the court finds by clear and convincing evidence that
8the parent failed to participate regularly and make substantive
9progress in a court-ordered treatment plan, the court may schedule
10a hearing pursuant to Section 366.26 within 120 days. If, however,
11the court finds there is a substantial probability that the child, who
12was under three years of age on the date of initial removal or is a
13member of a sibling group described in subparagraph (C) of
14paragraph (1) of subdivision (a) of Section 361.5, may be returned
15to his or her parent or legal guardian within six months or that
16reasonable services have not been provided, the court shall continue
17the case to the 12-month permanency hearing.

18For the purpose of placing and maintaining a sibling group
19together in a permanent home, the court, in making its
20determination to schedule a hearing pursuant to Section 366.26
21for some or all members of a sibling group, as described in
22subparagraph (C) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (a) of Section
23361.5, shall review and consider the social worker’s report and
24recommendations. Factors the report shall address, and the court
25shall consider, may include, but need not be limited to, whether
26the sibling group was removed from parental care as a group, the
27closeness and strength of the sibling bond, the ages of the siblings,
28the appropriateness of maintaining the sibling group together, the
29detriment to the child if sibling ties are not maintained, the
30likelihood of finding a permanent home for the sibling group,
31whether the sibling group is currently placed together in a
32preadoptive home or has a concurrent plan goal of legal
33permanency in the same home, the wishes of each child whose
34age and physical and emotional condition permits a meaningful
35response, and the best interests of each child in the sibling group.
36The court shall specify the factual basis for its finding that it is in
37the best interests of each child to schedule a hearing pursuant to
38Section 366.26 within 120 days for some or all of the members of
39the sibling group.

P445  1If the child was removed initially under subdivision (g) of
2Section 300 and the court finds by clear and convincing evidence
3that the whereabouts of the parent are still unknown, or the parent
4has failed to contact and visit the child, the court may schedule a
5hearing pursuant to Section 366.26 within 120 days. The court
6shall take into account any particular barriers to a parent’s ability
7to maintain contact with his or her child due to the parent’s
8 incarceration, institutionalization, detention by the United States
9Department of Homeland Security, or deportation. If the court
10finds by clear and convincing evidence that the parent has been
11convicted of a felony indicating parental unfitness, the court may
12schedule a hearing pursuant to Section 366.26 within 120 days.

13If the child had been placed under court supervision with a
14previously noncustodial parent pursuant to Section 361.2, the court
15shall determine whether supervision is still necessary. The court
16may terminate supervision and transfer permanent custody to that
17parent, as provided for by paragraph (1) of subdivision (b) of
18Section 361.2.

19In all other cases, the court shall direct that any reunification
20services previously ordered shall continue to be offered to the
21parent or legal guardian pursuant to the time periods set forth in
22subdivision (a) of Section 361.5, provided that the court may
23modify the terms and conditions of those services.

24If the child is not returned to his or her parent or legal guardian,
25the court shall determine whether reasonable services that were
26designed to aid the parent or legal guardian in overcoming the
27problems that led to the initial removal and the continued custody
28of the child have been provided or offered to the parent or legal
29guardian. The court shall order that those services be initiated,
30continued, or terminated.

31(f) The permanency hearing shall be held no later than 12
32months after the date the child entered foster care, as that date is
33determined pursuant to Section 361.49. At the permanency hearing,
34the court shall determine the permanent plan for the child, which
35shall include a determination of whether the child will be returned
36to the child’s home and, if so, when, within the time limits of
37subdivision (a) of Section 361.5. After considering the relevant
38and admissible evidence, the court shall order the return of the
39child to the physical custody of his or her parent or legal guardian
40unless the court finds, by a preponderance of the evidence, that
P446  1the return of the child to his or her parent or legal guardian would
2create a substantial risk of detriment to the safety, protection, or
3physical or emotional well-being of the child. The social worker
4shall have the burden of establishing that detriment. At the
5permanency hearing, the court shall consider the criminal history,
6obtained pursuant to paragraph (1) of subdivision (f) of Section
716504.5, of the parent or legal guardian subsequent to the child’s
8removal to the extent that the criminal record is substantially related
9to the welfare of the child or the parent’s or legal guardian’s ability
10to exercise custody and control regarding his or her child, provided
11that the parent or legal guardian agreed to submit fingerprint images
12to obtain criminal history information as part of the case plan. The
13court shall also determine whether reasonable services that were
14designed to aid the parent or legal guardian to overcome the
15problems that led to the initial removal and continued custody of
16the child have been provided or offered to the parent or legal
17guardian. For each youth 16 years of age and older, the court shall
18also determine whether services have been made available to assist
19him or her in making the transition from foster care to independent
20living. The failure of the parent or legal guardian to participate
21regularly and make substantive progress in court-ordered treatment
22programs shall be prima facie evidence that return would be
23detrimental. In making its determination, the court shall review
24and consider the social worker’s report and recommendations and
25the report and recommendations of any child advocate appointed
26pursuant to Section 356.5, shall consider the efforts or progress,
27or both, demonstrated by the parent or legal guardian and the extent
28to which he or she availed himself or herself of services provided,
29taking into account the particular barriers to an incarcerated,
30institutionalized, detained, or deported parent’s or legal guardian’s
31access to those court-mandated services and ability to maintain
32contact with his or her child, and shall make appropriate findings
33pursuant to subdivision (a) of Section 366.

34Regardless of whether the child is returned to his or her parent
35or legal guardian, the court shall specify the factual basis for its
36decision. If the child is not returned to a parent or legal guardian,
37the court shall specify the factual basis for its conclusion that the
38return would be detrimental. The court also shall make a finding
39pursuant to subdivision (a) of Section 366. If the child is not
40returned to his or her parent or legal guardian, the court shall
P447  1consider, and state for the record, in-state and out-of-state
2placement options. If the child is placed out of the state, the court
3shall make a determination whether the out-of-state placement
4continues to be appropriate and in the best interests of the child.

5(g) If the time period in which the court-ordered services were
6provided has met or exceeded the time period set forth in
7subparagraph (A), (B), or (C) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (a)
8of Section 361.5, as appropriate, and a child is not returned to the
9custody of a parent or legal guardian at the permanency hearing
10held pursuant to subdivision (f), the court shall do one of the
11following:

12(1) Continue the case for up to six months for a permanency
13review hearing, provided that the hearing shall occur within 18
14months of the date the child was originally taken from the physical
15custody of his or her parent or legal guardian. The court shall
16continue the case only if it finds that there is a substantial
17probability that the child will be returned to the physical custody
18of his or her parent or legal guardian and safely maintained in the
19home within the extended period of time or that reasonable services
20have not been provided to the parent or legal guardian. For the
21purposes of this section, in order to find a substantial probability
22that the child will be returned to the physical custody of his or her
23parent or legal guardian and safely maintained in the home within
24the extended period of time, the court shall be required to find all
25of the following:

26(A) That the parent or legal guardian has consistently and
27regularly contacted and visited with the child.

28(B) That the parent or legal guardian has made significant
29progress in resolving problems that led to the child’s removal from
30the home.

31(C) The parent or legal guardian has demonstrated the capacity
32and ability both to complete the objectives of his or her treatment
33plan and to provide for the child’s safety, protection, physical and
34emotional well-being, and special needs.

35For purposes of this subdivision, the court’s decision to continue
36the case based on a finding or substantial probability that the child
37will be returned to the physical custody of his or her parent or legal
38guardian is a compelling reason for determining that a hearing
39held pursuant to Section 366.26 is not in the best interests of the
40child.

P448  1The court shall inform the parent or legal guardian that if the
2child cannot be returned home by the next permanency review
3hearing, a proceeding pursuant to Section 366.26 may be instituted.
4The court may not order that a hearing pursuant to Section 366.26
5be held unless there is clear and convincing evidence that
6reasonable services have been provided or offered to the parent or
7legal guardian.

8(2) Continue the case for up to six months for a permanency
9review hearing, provided that the hearing shall occur within 18
10months of the date the child was originally taken from the physical
11custody of his or her parent or legal guardian, if the parent has
12been arrested and issued an immigration hold, detained by the
13United States Department of Homeland Security, or deported to
14his or her country of origin, and the court determines either that
15there is a substantial probability that the child will be returned to
16the physical custody of his or her parent or legal guardian and
17safely maintained in the home within the extended period of time
18or that reasonable services have not been provided to the parent
19or legal guardian.

20(3) For purposes of paragraph (2), in order to find a substantial
21probability that the child will be returned to the physical custody
22of his or her parent or legal guardian and safely maintained in the
23home within the extended period of time, the court must find all
24of the following:

25(A) The parent or legal guardian has consistently and regularly
26contacted and visited with the child, taking into account any
27particular barriers to a parent’s ability to maintain contact with his
28or her child due to the parent’s arrest and receipt of an immigration
29hold, detention by the United States Department of Homeland
30Security, or deportation.

31(B) The parent or legal guardian has made significant progress
32in resolving the problems that led to the child’s removal from the
33home.

34(C) The parent or legal guardian has demonstrated the capacity
35or ability both to complete the objectives of his or her treatment
36plan and to provide for the child’s safety, protection, physical and
37emotional well-being, and special needs.

38(4) Order that a hearing be held within 120 days, pursuant to
39Section 366.26, but only if the court does not continue the case to
40the permanency planning review hearing and there is clear and
P449  1convincing evidence that reasonable services have been provided
2or offered to the parents or legal guardians. On and after January
31, 2012, a hearing pursuant to Section 366.26 shall not be ordered
4if the child is a nonminor dependent, unless the nonminor
5dependent is an Indian child and tribal customary adoption is
6recommended as the permanent plan.

7(5) Order that the child remain in long-term foster care, but only
8if the court finds by clear and convincing evidence, based upon
9the evidence already presented to it, including a recommendation
10by the State Department of Social Services when it is acting as an
11adoption agency or by a county adoption agency, that there is a
12compelling reason for determining that a hearing held pursuant to
13Section 366.26 is not in the best interests of the child because the
14child is not a proper subject for adoption and has no one willing
15to accept legal guardianship. For purposes of this section, a
16recommendation by the State Department of Social Services when
17it is acting as an adoption agency or by a county adoption agency
18that adoption is not in the best interests of the child shall constitute
19a compelling reason for the court’s determination. That
20recommendation shall be based on the present circumstances of
21the child and shall not preclude a different recommendation at a
22later date if the child’s circumstances change. On and after January
231, 2012, the nonminor dependent’s legal status as an adult is in
24and of itself a compelling reason not to hold a hearing pursuant to
25Section 366.26. The court may order that a nonminor dependent
26who otherwise is eligible pursuant to Section 11403 remain in a
27planned, permanent living arrangement.

28If the court orders that a child who is 10 years of age or older
29remain in long-term foster care, the court shall determine whether
30the agency has made reasonable efforts to maintain the child’s
31relationships with individuals other than the child’s siblings who
32are important to the child, consistent with the child’s best interests,
33and may make any appropriate order to ensure that those
34relationships are maintained.

35If the child is not returned to his or her parent or legal guardian,
36the court shall consider, and state for the record, in-state and
37out-of-state options for permanent placement. If the child is placed
38out of the state, the court shall make a determination whether the
39out-of-state placement continues to be appropriate and in the best
40interests of the child.

P450  1(h) In any case in which the court orders that a hearing pursuant
2to Section 366.26 shall be held, it shall also order the termination
3of reunification services to the parent or legal guardian. The court
4shall continue to permit the parent or legal guardian to visit the
5child pending the hearing unless it finds that visitation would be
6detrimental to the child. The court shall make any other appropriate
7orders to enable the child to maintain relationships with individuals,
8other than the child’s siblings, who are important to the child,
9consistent with the child’s best interests. When the court orders a
10termination of reunification services to the parent or legal guardian,
11it shall also order that the child’s caregiver receive the child’s birth
12certificate in accordance with Sections 16010.4 and 16010.5.
13Additionally, when the court orders a termination of reunification
14services to the parent or legal guardian, it shall order, when
15appropriate, that a child who is 16 years of age or older receive
16his or her birth certificate.

17(i) (1) Whenever a court orders that a hearing pursuant to
18Section 366.26, including, when, in consultation with the child’s
19tribe, tribal customary adoption is recommended, shall be held, it
20shall direct the agency supervising the child and the county
21adoption agency, or the State Department of Social Services when
22it is acting as an adoption agency, to prepare an assessment that
23shall include:

24(A) Current search efforts for an absent parent or parents or
25legal guardians.

26(B) A review of the amount of and nature of any contact between
27the child and his or her parents or legal guardians and other
28members of his or her extended family since the time of placement.
29Although the extended family of each child shall be reviewed on
30a case-by-case basis, “extended family” for the purpose of this
31subparagraph shall include, but not be limited to, the child’s
32siblings, grandparents, aunts, and uncles.

33(C) An evaluation of the child’s medical, developmental,
34scholastic, mental, and emotional status.

35(D) A preliminary assessment of the eligibility and commitment
36of any identified prospective adoptive parent or legal guardian,
37including the prospective tribal customary adoptive parent,
38particularly the caretaker, to include a social history including
39screening for criminal records and prior referrals for child abuse
40or neglect, the capability to meet the child’s needs, and the
P451  1understanding of the legal and financial rights and responsibilities
2of adoption and guardianship. If a proposed guardian is a relative
3of the minor, the assessment shall also consider, but need not be
4limited to, all of the factors specified in subdivision (a) of Section
5361.3 and in Section 361.4.

6(E) The relationship of the child to any identified prospective
7adoptive parent or legal guardian, the duration and character of
8the relationship, the degree of attachment of the child to the
9prospective relative guardian or adoptive parent, the relative’s or
10adoptive parent’s strong commitment to caring permanently for
11the child, the motivation for seeking adoption or guardianship, a
12statement from the child concerning placement and the adoption
13or guardianship, and whether the child, if over 12 years of age,
14has been consulted about the proposed relative guardianship
15arrangements, unless the child’s age or physical, emotional, or
16other condition precludes his or her meaningful response, and if
17so, a description of the condition.

18(F) A description of efforts to be made to identify a prospective
19adoptive parent or legal guardian, including, but not limited to,
20child-specific recruitment and listing on an adoption exchange
21within the state or out of the state.

22(G) An analysis of the likelihood that the child will be adopted
23if parental rights are terminated.

24(H) In the case of an Indian child, in addition to subparagraphs
25(A) to (G), inclusive, an assessment of the likelihood that the child
26will be adopted, when, in consultation with the child’s tribe, a
27tribal customary adoption, as defined in Section 366.24, is
28recommended. If tribal customary adoption is recommended, the
29assessment shall include an analysis of both of the following:

30(i) Whether tribal customary adoption would or would not be
31detrimental to the Indian child and the reasons for reaching that
32conclusion.

33(ii) Whether the Indian child cannot or should not be returned
34to the home of the Indian parent or Indian custodian and the reasons
35for reaching that conclusion.

36(2) (A) A relative caregiver’s preference for legal guardianship
37over adoption, if it is due to circumstances that do not include an
38unwillingness to accept legal or financial responsibility for the
39child, shall not constitute the sole basis for recommending removal
P452  1of the child from the relative caregiver for purposes of adoptive
2placement.

3(B) Regardless of his or her immigration status, a relative
4caregiver shall be given information regarding the permanency
5options of guardianship and adoption, including the long-term
6benefits and consequences of each option, prior to establishing
7legal guardianship or pursuing adoption. If the proposed permanent
8plan is guardianship with an approved relative caregiver for a
9minor eligible for aid under the Kin-GAP Program, as provided
10for in Article 4.7 (commencing with Section 11385) of Chapter 2
11of Part 3 of Division 9, the relative caregiver shall be informed
12about the terms and conditions of the negotiated agreement
13pursuant to Section 11387 and shall agree to its execution prior to
14the hearing held pursuant to Section 366.26. A copy of the executed
15negotiated agreement shall be attached to the assessment.

16(j) If, at any hearing held pursuant to Section 366.26, a
17guardianship is established for the minor with an approved relative
18caregiver, and juvenile court dependency is subsequently
19dismissed, the minor shall be eligible for aid under the Kin-GAP
20Program, as provided for in Article 4.5 (commencing with Section
2111360) or Article 4.7 (commencing with Section 11385), as
22applicable, of Chapter 2 of Part 3 of Division 9.

23(k) As used in this section, “relative” means an adult who is
24related to the minor by blood, adoption, or affinity within the fifth
25degree of kinship, including stepparents, stepsiblings, and all
26relatives whose status is preceded by the words “great,”
27“great-great,” or “grand,” or the spouse of any of those persons
28even if the marriage was terminated by death or dissolution. If the
29proposed permanent plan is guardianship with an approved relative
30caregiver for a minor eligible for aid under the Kin-GAP Program,
31as provided for in Article 4.7 (commencing with Section 11385)
32of Chapter 2 of Part 3 of Division 9, “relative” as used in this
33section has the same meaning as “relative” as defined in
34subdivision (c) of Section 11391.

35(l) For purposes of this section, evidence of any of the following
36circumstances may not, in and of itself, be deemed a failure to
37provide or offer reasonable services:

38(1) The child has been placed with a foster family that is eligible
39to adopt a child, or has been placed in a preadoptive home.

P453  1(2) The case plan includes services to make and finalize a
2permanent placement for the child if efforts to reunify fail.

3(3) Services to make and finalize a permanent placement for
4the child, if efforts to reunify fail, are provided concurrently with
5services to reunify the family.

6(m) The implementation and operation of the amendments to
7subdivisions (c) and (g) enacted at the 2005-06 Regular Session
8shall be subject to appropriation through the budget process and
9by phase, as provided in Section 366.35.

10

SEC. 201.  

Section 366.22 of the Welfare and Institutions Code
11 is amended to read:

12

366.22.  

(a) When a case has been continued pursuant to
13paragraph (1) or (2) of subdivision (g) of Section 366.21, the
14permanency review hearing shall occur within 18 months after the
15date the child was originally removed from the physical custody
16of his or her parent or legal guardian. After considering the
17admissible and relevant evidence, the court shall order the return
18of the child to the physical custody of his or her parent or legal
19guardian unless the court finds, by a preponderance of the evidence,
20that the return of the child to his or her parent or legal guardian
21would create a substantial risk of detriment to the safety, protection,
22or physical or emotional well-being of the child. The social worker
23shall have the burden of establishing that detriment. At the
24permanency review hearing, the court shall consider the criminal
25 history, obtained pursuant to paragraph (1) of subdivision (f) of
26Section 16504.5, of the parent or legal guardian subsequent to the
27child’s removal, to the extent that the criminal record is
28substantially related to the welfare of the child or the parent’s or
29legal guardian’s ability to exercise custody and control regarding
30his or her child, provided that the parent or legal guardian agreed
31to submit fingerprint images to obtain criminal history information
32as part of the case plan. The failure of the parent or legal guardian
33to participate regularly and make substantive progress in
34court-ordered treatment programs shall be prima facie evidence
35that return would be detrimental. In making its determination, the
36court shall review and consider the social worker’s report and
37recommendations and the report and recommendations of any child
38advocate appointed pursuant to Section 356.5; shall consider the
39efforts or progress, or both, demonstrated by the parent or legal
40guardian and the extent to which he or she availed himself or
P454  1herself of services provided, taking into account the particular
2barriers of an incarcerated or institutionalized parent’s or legal
3guardian’s access to those court-mandated services and ability to
4maintain contact with his or her child; and shall make appropriate
5findings pursuant to subdivision (a) of Section 366.

6Whether or not the child is returned to his or her parent or legal
7guardian, the court shall specify the factual basis for its decision.
8If the child is not returned to a parent or legal guardian, the court
9shall specify the factual basis for its conclusion that return would
10be detrimental. If the child is not returned to his or her parent or
11legal guardian, the court shall consider, and state for the record,
12in-state and out-of-state options for the child’s permanent
13placement. If the child is placed out of the state, the court shall
14make a determination whether the out-of-state placement continues
15to be appropriate and in the best interests of the child.

16Unless the conditions in subdivision (b) are met and the child is
17not returned to a parent or legal guardian at the permanency review
18hearing, the court shall order that a hearing be held pursuant to
19Section 366.26 in order to determine whether adoption, or, in the
20case of an Indian child, in consultation with the child’s tribe, tribal
21customary adoption, guardianship, or long-term foster care is the
22most appropriate plan for the child. On and after January 1, 2012,
23a hearing pursuant to Section 366.26 shall not be ordered if the
24child is a nonminor dependent, unless the nonminor dependent is
25an Indian child, and tribal customary adoption is recommended as
26the permanent plan. However, if the court finds by clear and
27convincing evidence, based on the evidence already presented to
28it, including a recommendation by the State Department of Social
29Services when it is acting as an adoption agency or by a county
30adoption agency, that there is a compelling reason, as described
31in paragraph (5) of subdivision (g) of Section 366.21, for
32determining that a hearing held under Section 366.26 is not in the
33best interests of the child because the child is not a proper subject
34for adoption and has no one willing to accept legal guardianship,
35the court may, only under these circumstances, order that the child
36remain in long-term foster care. On and after January 1, 2012, the
37nonminor dependent’s legal status as an adult is in and of itself a
38compelling reason not to hold a hearing pursuant to Section 366.26.
39The court may order that a nonminor dependent who otherwise is
40eligible pursuant to Section 11403 remain in a planned, permanent
P455  1living arrangement. If the court orders that a child who is 10 years
2of age or older remain in long-term foster care, the court shall
3determine whether the agency has made reasonable efforts to
4maintain the child’s relationships with individuals other than the
5child’s siblings who are important to the child, consistent with the
6 child’s best interests, and may make any appropriate order to ensure
7that those relationships are maintained. The hearing shall be held
8no later than 120 days from the date of the permanency review
9hearing. The court shall also order termination of reunification
10services to the parent or legal guardian. The court shall continue
11to permit the parent or legal guardian to visit the child unless it
12finds that visitation would be detrimental to the child. The court
13shall determine whether reasonable services have been offered or
14provided to the parent or legal guardian. For purposes of this
15subdivision, evidence of any of the following circumstances shall
16not, in and of themselves, be deemed a failure to provide or offer
17reasonable services:

18(1) The child has been placed with a foster family that is eligible
19to adopt a child, or has been placed in a preadoptive home.

20(2) The case plan includes services to make and finalize a
21permanent placement for the child if efforts to reunify fail.

22(3) Services to make and finalize a permanent placement for
23the child, if efforts to reunify fail, are provided concurrently with
24services to reunify the family.

25(b) If the child is not returned to a parent or legal guardian at
26the permanency review hearing and the court determines by clear
27and convincing evidence that the best interests of the child would
28be met by the provision of additional reunification services to a
29parent or legal guardian who is making significant and consistent
30progress in a court-ordered residential substance abuse treatment
31program, or a parent recently discharged from incarceration,
32institutionalization, or the custody of the United States Department
33of Homeland Security and making significant and consistent
34progress in establishing a safe home for the child’s return, the court
35may continue the case for up to six months for a subsequent
36permanency review hearing, provided that the hearing shall occur
37within 24 months of the date the child was originally taken from
38the physical custody of his or her parent or legal guardian. The
39court shall continue the case only if it finds that there is a
40substantial probability that the child will be returned to the physical
P456  1custody of his or her parent or legal guardian and safely maintained
2in the home within the extended period of time or that reasonable
3services have not been provided to the parent or legal guardian.
4For the purposes of this section, in order to find a substantial
5probability that the child will be returned to the physical custody
6of his or her parent or legal guardian and safely maintained in the
7home within the extended period of time, the court shall be required
8to find all of the following:

9(1) That the parent or legal guardian has consistently and
10regularly contacted and visited with the child.

11(2) That the parent or legal guardian has made significant and
12consistent progress in the prior 18 months in resolving problems
13that led to the child’s removal from the home.

14(3) The parent or legal guardian has demonstrated the capacity
15and ability both to complete the objectives of his or her substance
16abuse treatment plan as evidenced by reports from a substance
17abuse provider as applicable, or complete a treatment plan
18postdischarge from incarceration, institutionalization, or detention,
19or following deportation to his or her country of origin and his or
20her return to the United States, and to provide for the child’s safety,
21protection, physical and emotional well-being, and special needs.

22For purposes of this subdivision, the court’s decision to continue
23the case based on a finding or substantial probability that the child
24will be returned to the physical custody of his or her parent or legal
25guardian is a compelling reason for determining that a hearing
26held pursuant to Section 366.26 is not in the best interests of the
27child.

28The court shall inform the parent or legal guardian that if the
29child cannot be returned home by the subsequent permanency
30review hearing, a proceeding pursuant to Section 366.26 may be
31instituted. The court may not order that a hearing pursuant to
32Section 366.26 be held unless there is clear and convincing
33evidence that reasonable services have been provided or offered
34to the parent or legal guardian.

35(c) (1) Whenever a court orders that a hearing pursuant to
36Section 366.26, including when a tribal customary adoption is
37recommended, shall be held, it shall direct the agency supervising
38the child and the county adoption agency, or the State Department
39of Social Services when it is acting as an adoption agency, to
40prepare an assessment that shall include:

P457  1(A) Current search efforts for an absent parent or parents.

2(B) A review of the amount of and nature of any contact between
3the child and his or her parents and other members of his or her
4extended family since the time of placement. Although the
5extended family of each child shall be reviewed on a case-by-case
6basis, “extended family” for the purposes of this subparagraph
7shall include, but not be limited to, the child’s siblings,
8grandparents, aunts, and uncles.

9(C) An evaluation of the child’s medical, developmental,
10scholastic, mental, and emotional status.

11(D)  A preliminary assessment of the eligibility and commitment
12of any identified prospective adoptive parent or legal guardian,
13particularly the caretaker, to include a social history including
14screening for criminal records and prior referrals for child abuse
15or neglect, the capability to meet the child’s needs, and the
16understanding of the legal and financial rights and responsibilities
17of adoption and guardianship. If a proposed legal guardian is a
18relative of the minor, the assessment shall also consider, but need
19not be limited to, all of the factors specified in subdivision (a) of
20Section 361.3 and Section 361.4.

21(E) The relationship of the child to any identified prospective
22adoptive parent or legal guardian, the duration and character of
23the relationship, the degree of attachment of the child to the
24prospective relative guardian or adoptive parent, the relative’s or
25adoptive parent’s strong commitment to caring permanently for
26the child, the motivation for seeking adoption or legal guardianship,
27a statement from the child concerning placement and the adoption
28or legal guardianship, and whether the child, if over 12 years of
29age, has been consulted about the proposed relative guardianship
30arrangements, unless the child’s age or physical, emotional, or
31other condition precludes his or her meaningful response, and if
32so, a description of the condition.

33(F) An analysis of the likelihood that the child will be adopted
34if parental rights are terminated.

35(G) In the case of an Indian child, in addition to subparagraphs
36(A) to (F), inclusive, an assessment of the likelihood that the child
37will be adopted, when, in consultation with the child’s tribe, a
38tribal customary adoption, as defined in Section 366.24, is
39recommended. If tribal customary adoption is recommended, the
40assessment shall include an analysis of both of the following:

P458  1(i) Whether tribal customary adoption would or would not be
2detrimental to the Indian child and the reasons for reaching that
3conclusion.

4(ii) Whether the Indian child cannot or should not be returned
5to the home of the Indian parent or Indian custodian and the reasons
6for reaching that conclusion.

7(2) (A) A relative caregiver’s preference for legal guardianship
8over adoption, if it is due to circumstances that do not include an
9unwillingness to accept legal or financial responsibility for the
10child, shall not constitute the sole basis for recommending removal
11of the child from the relative caregiver for purposes of adoptive
12placement.

13(B) Regardless of his or her immigration status, a relative
14caregiver shall be given information regarding the permanency
15options of guardianship and adoption, including the long-term
16benefits and consequences of each option, prior to establishing
17legal guardianship or pursuing adoption. If the proposed permanent
18plan is guardianship with an approved relative caregiver for a
19minor eligible for aid under the Kin-GAP Program, as provided
20for in Article 4.7 (commencing with Section 11385) of Chapter 2
21of Part 3 of Division 9, the relative caregiver shall be informed
22about the terms and conditions of the negotiated agreement
23pursuant to Section 11387 and shall agree to its execution prior to
24the hearing held pursuant to Section 366.26. A copy of the executed
25negotiated agreement shall be attached to the assessment.

26(d) This section shall become operative January 1, 1999. If at
27any hearing held pursuant to Section 366.26, a legal guardianship
28is established for the minor with an approved relative caregiver,
29and juvenile court dependency is subsequently dismissed, the minor
30shall be eligible for aid under the Kin-GAP Program, as provided
31for in Article 4.5 (commencing with Section 11360) or Article 4.7
32(commencing with Section 11385), as applicable, of Chapter 2 of
33Part 3 of Division 9.

34(e) As used in this section, “relative” means an adult who is
35related to the child by blood, adoption, or affinity within the fifth
36degree of kinship, including stepparents, stepsiblings, and all
37relatives whose status is preceded by the words “great,”
38“great-great,” or “grand,” or the spouse of any of those persons
39even if the marriage was terminated by death or dissolution. If the
40proposed permanent plan is guardianship with an approved relative
P459  1caregiver for a minor eligible for aid under the Kin-GAP Program,
2as provided for in Article 4.7 (commencing with Section 11385)
3of Chapter 2 of Part 3 of Division 9, “relative” as used in this
4section has the same meaning as “relative” as defined in
5 subdivision (c) of Section 11391.

6(f) The implementation and operation of the amendments to
7subdivision (a) enacted at the 2005-06 Regular Session shall be
8subject to appropriation through the budget process and by phase,
9as provided in Section 366.35.

10

SEC. 202.  

Section 366.25 of the Welfare and Institutions Code
11 is amended to read:

12

366.25.  

(a) (1) When a case has been continued pursuant to
13subdivision (b) of Section 366.22, the subsequent permanency
14review hearing shall occur within 24 months after the date the
15child was originally removed from the physical custody of his or
16her parent or legal guardian. After considering the relevant and
17admissible evidence, the court shall order the return of the child
18to the physical custody of his or her parent or legal guardian unless
19the court finds, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the return
20of the child to his or her parent or legal guardian would create a
21substantial risk of detriment to the safety, protection, or physical
22or emotional well-being of the child. The social worker shall have
23the burden of establishing that detriment. At the subsequent
24permanency review hearing, the court shall consider the criminal
25history, obtained pursuant to paragraph (1) of subdivision (f) of
26Section 16504.5, of the parent or legal guardian subsequent to the
27child’s removal to the extent that the criminal record is substantially
28related to the welfare of the child or parent’s or legal guardian’s
29ability to exercise custody and control regarding his or her child
30provided that the parent or legal guardian agreed to submit
31fingerprint images to obtain criminal history information as part
32of the case plan. The failure of the parent or legal guardian to
33participate regularly and make substantive progress in court-ordered
34treatment programs shall be prima facie evidence that return would
35be detrimental. In making its determination, the court shall review
36and consider the social worker’s report and recommendations and
37the report and recommendations of any child advocate appointed
38pursuant to Section 356.5; shall consider the efforts or progress,
39or both, demonstrated by the parent or legal guardian and the extent
40to which he or she availed himself or herself of services provided;
P460  1and shall make appropriate findings pursuant to subdivision (a) of
2Section 366.

3(2) Whether or not the child is returned to his or her parent or
4legal guardian, the court shall specify the factual basis for its
5decision. If the child is not returned to a parent or legal guardian,
6the court shall specify the factual basis for its conclusion that return
7would be detrimental. If the child is not returned to his or her parent
8or legal guardian, the court shall consider and state for the record,
9in-state and out-of-state options for the child’s permanent
10placement. If the child is placed out of the state, the court shall
11make a determination whether the out-of-state placement continues
12to be appropriate and in the best interests of the child.

13(3) If the child is not returned to a parent or legal guardian at
14the subsequent permanency review hearing, the court shall order
15that a hearing be held pursuant to Section 366.26 in order to
16determine whether adoption, or, in the case of an Indian child,
17tribal customary adoption, guardianship, or long-term foster care
18is the most appropriate plan for the child. On and after January 1,
192012, a hearing pursuant to Section 366.26 shall not be ordered if
20the child is a nonminor dependent, unless the nonminor dependent
21is an Indian child and tribal customary adoption is recommended
22as the permanent plan. However, if the court finds by clear and
23convincing evidence, based on the evidence already presented to
24it, including a recommendation by the State Department of Social
25Services when it is acting as an adoption agency or by a county
26adoption agency, that there is a compelling reason, as described
27in paragraph (5) of subdivision (g) of Section 366.21, for
28determining that a hearing held under Section 366.26 is not in the
29best interest of the child because the child is not a proper subject
30 for adoption or, in the case of an Indian child, tribal customary
31adoption, and has no one willing to accept legal guardianship, then
32the court may, only under these circumstances, order that the child
33remain in long-term foster care. On and after January 1, 2012, the
34nonminor dependent’s legal status as an adult is in and of itself a
35compelling reason not to hold a hearing pursuant to Section 366.26.
36The court may order that a nonminor dependent who otherwise is
37eligible pursuant to Section 11403 remain in a planned, permanent
38living arrangement. If the court orders that a child who is 10 years
39of age or older remain in long-term foster care, the court shall
40determine whether the agency has made reasonable efforts to
P461  1maintain the child’s relationships with individuals other than the
2child’s siblings who are important to the child, consistent with the
3child’s best interests, and may make any appropriate order to ensure
4that those relationships are maintained. The hearing shall be held
5no later than 120 days from the date of the subsequent permanency
6review hearing. The court shall also order termination of
7reunification services to the parent or legal guardian. The court
8shall continue to permit the parent or legal guardian to visit the
9child unless it finds that visitation would be detrimental to the
10child. The court shall determine whether reasonable services have
11been offered or provided to the parent or legal guardian. For
12purposes of this paragraph, evidence of any of the following
13circumstances shall not, in and of themselves, be deemed a failure
14to provide or offer reasonable services:

15(A) The child has been placed with a foster family that is eligible
16to adopt a child, or has been placed in a preadoptive home.

17(B) The case plan includes services to make and finalize a
18permanent placement for the child if efforts to reunify fail.

19(C) Services to make and finalize a permanent placement for
20the child, if efforts to reunify fail, are provided concurrently with
21services to reunify the family.

22(b) (1) Whenever a court orders that a hearing pursuant to
23Section 366.26 shall be held, it shall direct the agency supervising
24the child and the county adoption agency, or the State Department
25of Social Services when it is acting as an adoption agency, to
26prepare an assessment that shall include:

27(A) Current search efforts for an absent parent or parents.

28(B) A review of the amount of, and nature of, any contact
29between the child and his or her parents and other members of his
30or her extended family since the time of placement. Although the
31extended family of each child shall be reviewed on a case-by-case
32basis, “extended family” for the purposes of this paragraph shall
33include, but not be limited to, the child’s siblings, grandparents,
34aunts, and uncles.

35(C) An evaluation of the child’s medical, developmental,
36scholastic, mental, and emotional status.

37(D) A preliminary assessment of the eligibility and commitment
38of any identified prospective adoptive parent or legal guardian,
39including a prospective tribal customary adoptive parent,
40particularly the caretaker, to include a social history including
P462  1screening for criminal records and prior referrals for child abuse
2or neglect, the capability to meet the child’s needs, and the
3understanding of the legal and financial rights and responsibilities
4of adoption and guardianship. If a proposed legal guardian is a
5relative of the minor, the assessment shall also consider, but need
6not be limited to, all of the factors specified in subdivision (a) of
7Section 361.3 and in Section 361.4.

8(E) The relationship of the child to any identified prospective
9adoptive parent or legal guardian, including a prospective tribal
10customary adoptive parent, the duration and character of the
11relationship, the degree of attachment of the child to the prospective
12relative guardian or adoptive parent, the relative’s or adoptive
13parent’s strong commitment to caring permanently for the child,
14the motivation for seeking adoption or legal guardianship, a
15statement from the child concerning placement and the adoption
16or legal guardianship, and whether the child, if over 12 years of
17age, has been consulted about the proposed relative guardianship
18arrangements, unless the child’s age or physical, emotional, or
19other condition precludes his or her meaningful response, and if
20so, a description of the condition.

21(F) An analysis of the likelihood that the child will be adopted
22if parental rights are terminated.

23(G) In the case of an Indian child, in addition to subparagraphs
24(A) to (F), inclusive, an assessment of the likelihood that the child
25will be adopted, when, in consultation with the child’s tribe, a
26tribal customary adoption, as defined in Section 366.24, is
27recommended. If tribal customary adoption is recommended, the
28assessment shall include an analysis of both of the following:

29(i) Whether tribal customary adoption would or would not be
30detrimental to the Indian child and the reasons for reaching that
31conclusion.

32(ii) Whether the Indian child cannot or should not be returned
33to the home of the Indian parent or Indian custodian and the reasons
34for reaching that conclusion.

35(2) (A) A relative caregiver’s preference for legal guardianship
36over adoption, if it is due to circumstances that do not include an
37unwillingness to accept legal or financial responsibility for the
38child, shall not constitute the sole basis for recommending removal
39of the child from the relative caregiver for purposes of adoptive
40placement.

P463  1(B) Regardless of his or her immigration status, a relative
2caregiver shall be given information regarding the permanency
3options of guardianship and adoption, including the long-term
4benefits and consequences of each option, prior to establishing
5legal guardianship or pursuing adoption. If the proposed permanent
6plan is guardianship with an approved relative caregiver for a
7minor eligible for aid under the Kin-GAP Program, as provided
8for in Article 4.7 (commencing with Section 11385) of Chapter 2
9of Part 3 of Division 9, the relative caregiver shall be informed
10about the terms and conditions of the negotiated agreement
11pursuant to Section 11387 and shall agree to its execution prior to
12the hearing held pursuant to Section 366.26. A copy of the executed
13negotiated agreement shall be attached to the assessment.

14(c) If, at any hearing held pursuant to Section 366.26, a
15guardianship is established for the minor with an approved relative
16caregiver, and juvenile court dependency is subsequently
17dismissed, the minor shall be eligible for aid under the Kin-GAP
18Program, as provided for in Article 4.5 (commencing with Section
1911360) or Article 4.7 (commencing with Section 11385), as
20applicable, of Chapter 2 of Part 3 of Division 9.

21(d) As used in this section, “relative” means an adult who is
22related to the minor by blood, adoption, or affinity within the fifth
23degree of kinship, including stepparents, stepsiblings, and all
24relatives whose status is preceded by the words “great,”
25“great-great,” or “grand,” or the spouse of any of those persons
26even if the marriage was terminated by death or dissolution. If the
27proposed permanent plan is guardianship with an approved relative
28caregiver for a minor eligible for aid under the Kin-GAP Program,
29as provided in Article 4.7 (commencing with Section 11385) of
30Chapter 2 of Part 3 of Division 9, “relative” as used in this section
31has the same meaning as “relative” as defined in subdivision (c)
32of Section 11391.

33(e) The implementation and operation of subdivision (a) enacted
34at the 2005-06 Regular Session shall be subject to appropriation
35through the budget process and by phase, as provided in Section
36366.35.

37

SEC. 203.  

Section 4141 of the Welfare and Institutions Code
38 is amended to read:

39

4141.  

(a) (1) Each state hospital shall update its injury and
40illness prevention plan at least once a year to include necessary
P464  1safeguards to prevent workplace safety hazards in connection with
2workplace violence associated with patient assaults on employees.

3(2) Updated injury and illness prevention plans shall address,
4but shall not be limited to, all of the following:

5(A) Control of physical access throughout the hospital and
6grounds.

7(B) Alarm systems.

8(C) Presence of security personnel.

9(D) Training.

10(E) Buddy systems.

11(F) Communication.

12(G) Emergency responses.

13(3) (A) The department shall submit the updated injury and
14illness prevention plans to the Legislature every two years.

15(B) (i) The requirement for submitting the updated injury and
16illness prevention plans imposed pursuant to subparagraph (A) is
17inoperative four years after the date the first report is due, pursuant
18to Section 10231.5 of the Government Code.

19(ii) Updated injury and illness prevention plans submitted
20pursuant to subparagraph (A) shall be submitted in compliance
21with Section 9795 of the Government Code.

22(b) Each state hospital shall establish an injury and illness
23prevention committee comprised of hospital management and
24employees designated by the hospital’s director in consultation
25with the employee bargaining units. The committee shall be
26responsible for providing recommendations to the hospital director
27for updates to the injury and illness prevention plan. The committee
28shall meet at least four times per year.

29(c) Each state hospital shall develop an incident reporting
30procedure that can be used, at a minimum, to develop reports of
31patient assaults on employees and assist the hospital in identifying
32risks of patient assaults on employees. Data obtained from the
33incident reporting procedures shall be accessible to staff. The
34incident reporting procedure shall be designed to provide hospital
35management with immediate notification of reported incidents.
36The hospital shall provide for timely and efficient responses and
37investigations to incident reports made under the incident reporting
38procedure. Incident reports shall also be forwarded to the injury
39and illness prevention committee established pursuant to
40subdivision (b).

P465  1

SEC. 204.  

Section 4427.5 of the Welfare and Institutions Code
2 is amended to read:

3

4427.5.  

(a) (1) A developmental center shall immediately
4report the following incidents involving a resident to the local law
5enforcement agency having jurisdiction over the city or county in
6which the developmental center is located, regardless of whether
7the Office of Protective Services has investigated the facts and
8circumstances relating to the incident:

9(A) A death.

10(B) A sexual assault, as defined in Section 15610.63.

11(C) An assault with a deadly weapon, as described in Section
12245 of the Penal Code, by a nonresident of the developmental
13center.

14(D) An assault with force likely to produce great bodily injury,
15as described in Section 245 of the Penal Code.

16(E) An injury to the genitals when the cause of the injury is
17undetermined.

18(F) A broken bone when the cause of the break is undetermined.

19(2) If the incident is reported to the law enforcement agency by
20telephone, a written report of the incident shall also be submitted
21to the agency, within two working days.

22(3) The reporting requirements of this subdivision are in addition
23to, and do not substitute for, the reporting requirements of
24mandated reporters, and any other reporting and investigative
25duties of the developmental center and the department as required
26by law.

27(4) This subdivision does not prevent the developmental center
28from reporting any other criminal act constituting a danger to the
29health or safety of the residents of the developmental center to the
30local law enforcement agency.

31(b) (1) The department shall report to the agency described in
32subdivision (i) of Section 4900 any of the following incidents
33involving a resident of a developmental center:

34(A) Any unexpected or suspicious death, regardless of whether
35the cause is immediately known.

36(B) Any allegation of sexual assault, as defined in Section
3715610.63, in which the alleged perpetrator is a developmental
38center or department employee or contractor.

39(C) Any report made to the local law enforcement agency in
40the jurisdiction in which the facility is located that involves
P466  1physical abuse, as defined in Section 15610.63, in which a staff
2member is implicated.

3(2) A report pursuant to this subdivision shall be made no later
4than the close of the first business day following the discovery of
5the reportable incident.

6(c) The department shall do both of the following:

7(1) Annually provide written information to every developmental
8center employee regarding all of the following:

9(A) The statutory and departmental requirements for mandatory
10reporting of suspected or known abuse.

11(B) The rights and protections afforded to individuals’ reporting
12of suspected or known abuse.

13(C) The penalties for failure to report suspected or known abuse.

14(D) The telephone numbers for reporting suspected or known
15abuse or neglect to designated investigators of the department and
16to local law enforcement agencies.

17(2) On or before August 1, 2001, in consultation with employee
18organizations, advocates, consumers, and family members, develop
19a poster that encourages staff, residents, and visitors to report
20suspected or known abuse and provides information on how to
21make these reports.

22

SEC. 205.  

Section 4648 of the Welfare and Institutions Code
23 is amended to read:

24

4648.  

In order to achieve the stated objectives of a consumer’s
25individual program plan, the regional center shall conduct activities,
26including, but not limited to, all of the following:

27(a) Securing needed services and supports.

28(1) It is the intent of the Legislature that services and supports
29assist individuals with developmental disabilities in achieving the
30greatest self-sufficiency possible and in exercising personal
31choices. The regional center shall secure services and supports
32that meet the needs of the consumer, as determined in the
33consumer’s individual program plan, and within the context of the
34individual program plan, the planning team shall give highest
35preference to those services and supports which would allow
36 minors with developmental disabilities to live with their families,
37adult persons with developmental disabilities to live as
38independently as possible in the community, and that allow all
39consumers to interact with persons without disabilities in positive,
40meaningful ways.

P467  1(2) In implementing individual program plans, regional centers,
2through the planning team, shall first consider services and supports
3in natural community, home, work, and recreational settings.
4Services and supports shall be flexible and individually tailored
5to the consumer and, where appropriate, his or her family.

6(3) A regional center may, pursuant to vendorization or a
7contract, purchase services or supports for a consumer from any
8individual or agency which the regional center and consumer or,
9where appropriate, his or her parents, legal guardian, or
10conservator, or authorized representatives, determines will best
11accomplish all or any part of that consumer’s program plan.

12(A) Vendorization or contracting is the process for identification,
13selection, and utilization of service vendors or contractors, based
14on the qualifications and other requirements necessary in order to
15provide the service.

16(B) A regional center may reimburse an individual or agency
17for services or supports provided to a regional center consumer if
18the individual or agency has a rate of payment for vendored or
19contracted services established by the department, pursuant to this
20division, and is providing services pursuant to an emergency
21vendorization or has completed the vendorization procedures or
22has entered into a contract with the regional center and continues
23to comply with the vendorization or contracting requirements. The
24director shall adopt regulations governing the vendorization process
25to be utilized by the department, regional centers, vendors, and
26the individual or agency requesting vendorization.

27(C) Regulations shall include, but not be limited to: the vendor
28application process, and the basis for accepting or denying an
29application; the qualification and requirements for each category
30of services that may be provided to a regional center consumer
31through a vendor; requirements for emergency vendorization;
32procedures for termination of vendorization; the procedure for an
33individual or an agency to appeal any vendorization decision made
34by the department or regional center.

35(D) A regional center may vendorize a licensed facility for
36exclusive services to persons with developmental disabilities at a
37capacity equal to or less than the facility’s licensed capacity. A
38facility already licensed on January 1, 1999, shall continue to be
39vendorized at their full licensed capacity until the facility agrees
40to vendorization at a reduced capacity.

P468  1(E) Effective July 1, 2009, notwithstanding any other provision
2of law or regulation to the contrary, a regional center shall not
3newly vendor a State Department of Social Services licensed
424-hour residential care facility with a licensed capacity of 16 or
5more beds, unless the facility qualifies for receipt of federal funds
6under the Medicaid Program.

7(4) Notwithstanding subparagraph (B), a regional center may
8contract or issue a voucher for services and supports provided to
9a consumer or family at a cost not to exceed the maximum rate of
10payment for that service or support established by the department.
11If a rate has not been established by the department, the regional
12center may, for an interim period, contract for a specified service
13or support with, and establish a rate of payment for, any provider
14of the service or support necessary to implement a consumer’s
15individual program plan. Contracts may be negotiated for a period
16of up to three years, with annual review and subject to the
17availability of funds.

18(5) In order to ensure the maximum flexibility and availability
19of appropriate services and supports for persons with
20developmental disabilities, the department shall establish and
21maintain an equitable system of payment to providers of services
22and supports identified as necessary to the implementation of a
23consumer’s individual program plan. The system of payment shall
24include provision for a rate to ensure that the provider can meet
25the special needs of consumers and provide quality services and
26supports in the least restrictive setting as required by law.

27(6) The regional center and the consumer, or where appropriate,
28his or her parents, legal guardian, conservator, or authorized
29representative, including those appointed pursuant to subdivision
30(d) of Section 4548, subdivision (b) of Section 4701.6, or
31subdivision (e) of Section 4705, shall, pursuant to the individual
32program plan, consider all of the following when selecting a
33provider of consumer services and supports:

34(A) A provider’s ability to deliver quality services or supports
35which can accomplish all or part of the consumer’s individual
36program plan.

37(B) A provider’s success in achieving the objectives set forth
38in the individual program plan.

39(C) Where appropriate, the existence of licensing, accreditation,
40or professional certification.

P469  1(D) The cost of providing services or supports of comparable
2quality by different providers, if available, shall be reviewed, and
3the least costly available provider of comparable service, including
4the cost of transportation, who is able to accomplish all or part of
5the consumer’s individual program plan, consistent with the
6particular needs of the consumer and family as identified in the
7individual program plan, shall be selected. In determining the least
8costly provider, the availability of federal financial participation
9shall be considered. The consumer shall not be required to use the
10least costly provider if it will result in the consumer moving from
11an existing provider of services or supports to more restrictive or
12less integrated services or supports.

13(E) The consumer’s choice of providers, or, where appropriate,
14the consumer’s parents’, legal guardian’s, authorized
15representative’s, or conservator’s choice of providers.

16(7) No service or support provided by any agency or individual
17 shall be continued unless the consumer or, where appropriate, his
18or her parents, legal guardian, or conservator, or authorized
19representative, including those appointed pursuant to subdivision
20(d) of Section 4548, subdivision (b) of Section 4701.6, or
21subdivision (e) of Section 4705, is satisfied and the regional center
22and the consumer or, when appropriate, the person’s parents or
23legal guardian or conservator agree that planned services and
24supports have been provided, and reasonable progress toward
25objectives have been made.

26(8) Regional center funds shall not be used to supplant the
27budget of any agency which has a legal responsibility to serve all
28members of the general public and is receiving public funds for
29providing those services.

30(9) (A) A regional center may, directly or through an agency
31acting on behalf of the center, provide placement in, purchase of,
32or follow-along services to persons with developmental disabilities
33in, appropriate community living arrangements, including, but not
34limited to, support service for consumers in homes they own or
35lease, foster family placements, health care facilities, and licensed
36community care facilities. In considering appropriate placement
37alternatives for children with developmental disabilities, approval
38by the child’s parent or guardian shall be obtained before placement
39is made.

P470  1(B) Effective July 1, 2012, notwithstanding any other provision
2of law or regulation to the contrary, a regional center shall not
3purchase residential services from a State Department of Social
4Services licensed 24-hour residential care facility with a licensed
5capacity of 16 or more beds. This prohibition on regional center
6purchase of residential services shall not apply to any of the
7following:

8(i) A residential facility with a licensed capacity of 16 or more
9beds that has been approved to participate in the department’s
10Home and Community Based Services Waiver or another existing
11waiver program or certified to participate in the Medi-Cal program.

12(ii) A residential facility service provider that has a written
13agreement and specific plan prior to July 1, 2012, with the
14vendoring regional center to downsize the existing facility by
15transitioning its residential services to living arrangements of 15
16beds or less or restructure the large facility to meet federal
17Medicaid eligibility requirements on or before June 30, 2013.

18(iii) A residential facility licensed as a mental health
19rehabilitation center by the State Department of Mental Health or
20successor agency under any of the following circumstances:

21(I) The facility is eligible for Medicaid reimbursement.

22(II) The facility has a department-approved plan in place by
23June 30, 2013, to transition to a program structure eligible for
24federal Medicaid funding, and this transition will be completed by
25June 30, 2014. The department may grant an extension for the date
26by which the transition will be completed if the facility
27demonstrates that it has made significant progress toward transition,
28and states with specificity the timeframe by which the transition
29will be completed and the specified steps that will be taken to
30accomplish the transition. A regional center may pay for the costs
31of care and treatment of a consumer residing in the facility on June
3230, 2012, until June 30, 2013, inclusive, and, if the facility has a
33department-approved plan in place by June 30, 2013, may continue
34to pay the costs under this subparagraph until June 30, 2014, or
35until the end of any period during which the department has granted
36an extension.

37(III) There is an emergency circumstance in which the regional
38center determines that it cannot locate alternate federally eligible
39services to meet the consumer’s needs. Under such an emergency
40circumstance, an assessment shall be completed by the regional
P471  1center as soon as possible and within 30 days of admission. An
2individual program plan meeting shall be convened immediately
3following the assessment to determine the services and supports
4needed for stabilization and to develop a plan to transition the
5consumer from the facility into the community. If transition is not
6expected within 90 days of admission, an individual program plan
7meeting shall be held to discuss the status of transition and to
8determine if the consumer is still in need of placement in the
9facility. Commencing October 1, 2012, this determination shall
10be made after also considering resource options identified by the
11statewide specialized resource service. If it is determined that
12emergency services continue to be necessary, the regional center
13shall submit an updated transition plan that can cover a period of
14up to 90 days. In no event shall placements under these emergency
15circumstances exceed 180 days.

16(C) (i) Effective July 1, 2012, notwithstanding any other
17provision of law or regulation to the contrary, a regional center
18shall not purchase new residential services from institutions for
19mental disease, as described in Part 5 (commencing with Section
205900) of Division 5, for which federal Medicaid funding is not
21available.

22(ii) The prohibition described in clause (i) shall not apply to
23emergencies, as determined by the regional center, when a regional
24center cannot locate alternate federally eligible services to meet
25the consumer’s needs. As soon as possible within 30 days of
26 admission due to an emergency, an assessment shall be completed
27by the regional center. An individual program plan meeting shall
28be convened immediately following the assessment, to determine
29the services and supports needed for stabilization and to develop
30a plan to transition the consumer from the facility to the
31community. If transition is not expected within 90 days of
32admission, an emergency individual program plan meeting shall
33be held to discuss the status of transition and to determine if the
34consumer is still in need of placement in the facility. If emergency
35services continue to be necessary, the regional center shall submit
36an updated transition plan to the department for an extension of
37up to 90 days. Placement shall not exceed 180 days.

38(iii) Regional centers shall complete a comprehensive
39assessment of any consumer residing in an institution for mental
40disease as of July 1, 2012, for which federal Medicaid funding is
P472  1not available. The comprehensive assessment shall be completed
2prior to the consumer’s next scheduled individual program plan
3meeting and shall include identification of the services and supports
4needed and the timeline for identifying or developing those services
5needed to transition the consumer back to the community. Effective
6October 1, 2012, the regional center shall also consider resource
7options identified by the statewide specialized resource service.
8For each individual program plan meeting convened pursuant to
9this subparagraph, the clients’ rights advocate for the regional
10center shall be notified of the meeting and may participate in the
11meeting unless the consumer objects on his or her own behalf.

12(D) Each person with developmental disabilities placed by the
13regional center in a community living arrangement shall have the
14rights specified in this division. These rights shall be brought to
15the person’s attention by any means necessary to reasonably
16communicate these rights to each resident, provided that, at a
17minimum, the Director of Developmental Services prepares,
18provides, and requires to be clearly posted in all residential
19facilities and day programs a poster using simplified language and
20pictures that is designed to be more understandable by persons
21with cognitive disabilities and that the rights information shall also
22be available through the regional center to each residential facility
23and day program in alternative formats, including, but not limited
24to, other languages, braille, and audio tapes, when necessary to
25meet the communication needs of consumers.

26(E) Consumers are eligible to receive supplemental services,
27including, but not limited to, additional staffing, pursuant to the
28process described in subdivision (d) of Section 4646. Necessary
29additional staffing that is not specifically included in the rates paid
30to the service provider may be purchased by the regional center if
31the additional staff are in excess of the amount required by
32regulation and the individual’s planning team determines the
33additional services are consistent with the provisions of the
34individual program plan. Additional staff should be periodically
35reviewed by the planning team for consistency with the individual
36program plan objectives in order to determine if continued use of
37the additional staff is necessary and appropriate and if the service
38is producing outcomes consistent with the individual program plan.
39Regional centers shall monitor programs to ensure that the
40additional staff is being provided and utilized appropriately.

P473  1(10) Emergency and crisis intervention services, including, but
2not limited to, mental health services and behavior modification
3services, may be provided, as needed, to maintain persons with
4developmental disabilities in the living arrangement of their own
5choice. Crisis services shall first be provided without disrupting a
6person’s living arrangement. If crisis intervention services are
7unsuccessful, emergency housing shall be available in the person’s
8home community. If dislocation cannot be avoided, every effort
9shall be made to return the person to his or her living arrangement
10of choice, with all necessary supports, as soon as possible.

11(11) Among other service and support options, planning teams
12shall consider the use of paid roommates or neighbors, personal
13assistance, technical and financial assistance, and all other service
14and support options which would result in greater self-sufficiency
15for the consumer and cost-effectiveness to the state.

16(12) When facilitation as specified in an individual program
17plan requires the services of an individual, the facilitator shall be
18of the consumer’s choosing.

19(13) The community support may be provided to assist
20individuals with developmental disabilities to fully participate in
21community and civic life, including, but not limited to, programs,
22services, work opportunities, business, and activities available to
23persons without disabilities. This facilitation shall include, but not
24be limited to, any of the following:

25(A) Outreach and education to programs and services within
26the community.

27(B) Direct support to individuals which would enable them to
28more fully participate in their community.

29(C) Developing unpaid natural supports when possible.

30(14) When feasible and recommended by the individual program
31planning team, for purposes of facilitating better and cost-effective
32services for consumers or family members, technology, including
33telecommunication technology, may be used in conjunction with
34other services and supports. Technology in lieu of a consumer’s
35in-person appearances at judicial proceedings or administrative
36due process hearings may be used only if the consumer or, when
37appropriate, the consumer’s parent, legal guardian, conservator,
38or authorized representative, gives informed consent. Technology
39may be used in lieu of, or in conjunction with, in-person training
40for providers, as appropriate.

P474  1(15) Other services and supports may be provided as set forth
2in Sections 4685, 4686, 4687, 4688, and 4689, when necessary.

3(16) Notwithstanding any other provision of law or regulation
4to the contrary, effective July 1, 2009, regional centers shall not
5purchase experimental treatments, therapeutic services, or devices
6that have not been clinically determined or scientifically proven
7to be effective or safe or for which risks and complications are
8unknown. Experimental treatments or therapeutic services include
9experimental medical or nutritional therapy when the use of the
10product for that purpose is not a general physician practice. For
11regional center consumers receiving these services as part of their
12individual program plan (IPP) or individualized family service
13plan (IFSP) on July 1, 2009, this prohibition shall apply on August
141, 2009.

15(b) (1) Advocacy for, and protection of, the civil, legal, and
16service rights of persons with developmental disabilities as
17established in this division.

18(2) Whenever the advocacy efforts of a regional center to secure
19or protect the civil, legal, or service rights of any of its consumers
20prove ineffective, the regional center or the person with
21developmental disabilities or his or her parents, legal guardian, or
22other representative may request the area board to initiate action
23under the provisions defining area board advocacy functions
24established in this division.

25(c) The regional center may assist consumers and families
26directly, or through a provider, in identifying and building circles
27of support within the community.

28(d) In order to increase the quality of community services and
29protect consumers, the regional center shall, when appropriate,
30take either of the following actions:

31(1) Identify services and supports that are ineffective or of poor
32quality and provide or secure consultation, training, or technical
33assistance services for any agency or individual provider to assist
34that agency or individual provider in upgrading the quality of
35services or supports.

36(2) Identify providers of services or supports that may not be
37in compliance with local, state, and federal statutes and regulations
38and notify the appropriate licensing or regulatory authority, or
39request the area board to investigate the possible noncompliance.

P475  1(e) When necessary to expand the availability of needed services
2of good quality, a regional center may take actions that include,
3but are not limited to, the following:

4(1) Soliciting an individual or agency by requests for proposals
5or other means, to provide needed services or supports not presently
6available.

7(2) Requesting funds from the Program Development Fund,
8pursuant to Section 4677, or community placement plan funds
9designated from that fund, to reimburse the startup costs needed
10to initiate a new program of services and supports.

11(3) Using creative and innovative service delivery models,
12including, but not limited to, natural supports.

13(f) Except in emergency situations, a regional center shall not
14provide direct treatment and therapeutic services, but shall utilize
15appropriate public and private community agencies and service
16providers to obtain those services for its consumers.

17(g) Where there are identified gaps in the system of services
18and supports or where there are identified consumers for whom
19no provider will provide services and supports contained in his or
20her individual program plan, the department may provide the
21services and supports directly.

22(h) At least annually, regional centers shall provide the
23consumer, his or her parents, legal guardian, conservator, or
24authorized representative a statement of services and supports the
25regional center purchased for the purpose of ensuring that they are
26delivered. The statement shall include the type, unit, month, and
27cost of services and supports purchased.

28

SEC. 206.  

Section 4684.53 of the Welfare and Institutions
29Code
is amended to read:

30

4684.53.  

(a) The State Department of Developmental Services
31and the State Department of Social Services shall jointly implement
32a licensing program to provide special health care and intensive
33support services to adults in homelike community settings.

34(b) The program shall be implemented through approved
35community placement plans, as follows:

36(1) For closure of Agnews Developmental Center, through the
37following regional centers:

38(A) The San Andreas Regional Center.

39(B) The Regional Center of the East Bay.

40(C) The Golden Gate Regional Center.

P476  1(2) All regional centers involved in the closure of the Lanterman
2Developmental Center, as determined by the State Department of
3Developmental Services.

4(3) All regional centers transitioning developmental center
5residents to placements in the community.

6(c) Each ARFPSHN shall possess a community care facility
7license issued pursuant to Article 9 (commencing with Section
81567.50) of Chapter 3 of Division 2 of the Health and Safety Code,
9and shall be subject to the requirements of Chapter 1 (commencing
10with Section 80000) of Division 6 of Title 22 of the California
11Code of Regulations, except for Article 8 (commencing with
12Section 80090).

13(d) For purposes of this article, a health facility licensed pursuant
14to subdivision (e) or (h) of Section 1250 of the Health and Safety
15Code may place its licensed bed capacity in voluntary suspension
16for the purpose of licensing the facility to operate an ARFPSHN
17if the facility is selected to participate pursuant to Section 4684.58.
18Consistent with subdivision (a) of Section 4684.50, any facility
19licensed pursuant to this section shall serve up to five adults. A
20facility’s bed capacity shall not be placed in voluntary suspension
21until all consumers residing in the facility under the license to be
22suspended have been relocated. A consumer shall not be relocated
23unless it is reflected in the consumer’s individual program plan
24developed pursuant to Sections 4646 and 4646.5.

25(e) Each ARFPSHN is subject to the requirements of
26Subchapters 5 to 9, inclusive, of Chapter 1 of, and Subchapters 2
27and 4 of Chapter 3 of, Division 2 of Title 17 of the California Code
28of Regulations.

29(f) Each ARFPSHN shall ensure that an operable automatic fire
30sprinkler system is installed and maintained.

31(g) Each ARFPSHN shall have an operable automatic fire
32sprinkler system that is approved by the State Fire Marshal and
33that meets the National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) 13D
34standard for the installation of sprinkler systems in single- and
35two-family dwellings and manufactured homes. A local jurisdiction
36shall not require a sprinkler system exceeding this standard by
37amending the standard or by applying standards other than NFPA
3813D. A public water agency shall not interpret this section as
39changing the status of a facility from a residence entitled to
P477  1residential water rates, nor shall a new meter or larger connection
2pipe be required of the facility.

3(h) Each ARFPSHN shall provide an alternative power source
4to operate all functions of the facility for a minimum of six hours
5in the event the primary power source is interrupted. The alternative
6power source shall comply with the manufacturer’s
7recommendations for installation and operation. The alternative
8power source shall be maintained in safe operating condition, and
9shall be tested every 14 days under the full load condition for a
10minimum of 10 minutes. Written records of inspection,
11performance, exercising period, and repair of the alternative power
12source shall be regularly maintained on the premises and available
13for inspection by the State Department of Developmental Services.

14

SEC. 207.  

Section 4792.1 of the Welfare and Institutions Code
15 is repealed.

16

SEC. 208.  

Section 5008 of the Welfare and Institutions Code
17 is amended to read:

18

5008.  

Unless the context otherwise requires, the following
19definitions shall govern the construction of this part:

20(a) “Evaluation” consists of multidisciplinary professional
21analyses of a person’s medical, psychological, educational, social,
22financial, and legal conditions as may appear to constitute a
23problem. Persons providing evaluation services shall be properly
24qualified professionals and may be full-time employees of an
25agency providing evaluation services or may be part-time
26employees or may be employed on a contractual basis.

27(b) “Court-ordered evaluation” means an evaluation ordered by
28a superior court pursuant to Article 2 (commencing with Section
295200) or by a court pursuant to Article 3 (commencing with Section
305225) of Chapter 2.

31(c) “Intensive treatment” consists of such hospital and other
32services as may be indicated. Intensive treatment shall be provided
33by properly qualified professionals and carried out in facilities
34qualifying for reimbursement under the California Medical
35Assistance Program (Medi-Cal) set forth in Chapter 7 (commencing
36with Section 14000) of Part 3 of Division 9, or under Title XVIII
37of the federal Social Security Act and regulations thereunder.
38Intensive treatment may be provided in hospitals of the United
39States government by properly qualified professionals. Nothing
P478  1in this part shall be construed to prohibit an intensive treatment
2facility from also providing 72-hour treatment and evaluation.

3(d) “Referral” is referral of persons by each agency or facility
4providing intensive treatment or evaluation services to other
5agencies or individuals. The purpose of referral shall be to provide
6for continuity of care, and may include, but need not be limited
7to, informing the person of available services, making appointments
8on the person’s behalf, discussing the person’s problem with the
9agency or individual to which the person has been referred,
10appraising the outcome of referrals, and arranging for personal
11escort and transportation when necessary. Referral shall be
12considered complete when the agency or individual to whom the
13person has been referred accepts responsibility for providing the
14necessary services. All persons shall be advised of available precare
15services which prevent initial recourse to hospital treatment or
16aftercare services which support adjustment to community living
17following hospital treatment. These services may be provided
18through county welfare departments, the State Department of State
19Hospitals, Short-Doyle programs, or other local agencies.

20Each agency or facility providing evaluation services shall
21 maintain a current and comprehensive file of all community
22services, both public and private. These files shall contain current
23agreements with agencies or individuals accepting referrals, as
24well as appraisals of the results of past referrals.

25(e) “Crisis intervention” consists of an interview or series of
26interviews within a brief period of time, conducted by qualified
27professionals, and designed to alleviate personal or family
28situations which present a serious and imminent threat to the health
29or stability of the person or the family. The interview or interviews
30may be conducted in the home of the person or family, or on an
31inpatient or outpatient basis with such therapy, or other services,
32as may be appropriate. Crisis intervention may, as appropriate,
33include suicide prevention, psychiatric, welfare, psychological,
34legal, or other social services.

35(f) “Prepetition screening” is a screening of all petitions for
36court-ordered evaluation as provided in Article 2 (commencing
37with Section 5200) of Chapter 2, consisting of a professional
38review of all petitions; an interview with the petitioner and,
39whenever possible, the person alleged, as a result of mental
40disorder, to be a danger to others, or to himself or herself, or to be
P479  1gravely disabled, to assess the problem and explain the petition;
2when indicated, efforts to persuade the person to receive, on a
3voluntary basis, comprehensive evaluation, crisis intervention,
4referral, and other services specified in this part.

5(g) “Conservatorship investigation” means investigation by an
6agency appointed or designated by the governing body of cases in
7which conservatorship is recommended pursuant to Chapter 3
8(commencing with Section 5350).

9(h) (1) For purposes of Article 1 (commencing with Section
105150), Article 2 (commencing with Section 5200), and Article 4
11(commencing with Section 5250) of Chapter 2, and for the purposes
12of Chapter 3 (commencing with Section 5350), “gravely disabled”
13means either of the following:

14(A) A condition in which a person, as a result of a mental
15disorder, is unable to provide for his or her basic personal needs
16for food, clothing, or shelter.

17(B) A condition in which a person has been found mentally
18incompetent under Section 1370 of the Penal Code and all of the
19following facts exist:

20(i) The indictment or information pending against the defendant
21at the time of commitment charges a felony involving death, great
22bodily harm, or a serious threat to the physical well-being of
23another person.

24(ii) The indictment or information has not been dismissed.

25(iii) As a result of a mental disorder, the person is unable to
26understand the nature and purpose of the proceedings taken against
27him or her and to assist counsel in the conduct of his or her defense
28in a rational manner.

29(2) For purposes of Article 3 (commencing with Section 5225)
30and Article 4 (commencing with Section 5250), of Chapter 2, and
31for the purposes of Chapter 3 (commencing with Section 5350),
32“gravely disabled” means a condition in which a person, as a result
33of impairment by chronic alcoholism, is unable to provide for his
34or her basic personal needs for food, clothing, or shelter.

35(3) The term “gravely disabled” does not include intellectually
36disabled persons by reason of being intellectually disabled alone.

37(i) “Peace officer” means a duly sworn peace officer as that
38term is defined in Chapter 4.5 (commencing with Section 830) of
39Title 3 of Part 2 of the Penal Code who has completed the basic
40training course established by the Commission on Peace Officer
P480  1Standards and Training, or any parole officer or probation officer
2specified in Section 830.5 of the Penal Code when acting in relation
3to cases for which he or she has a legally mandated responsibility.

4(j) “Postcertification treatment” means an additional period of
5treatment pursuant to Article 6 (commencing with Section 5300)
6of Chapter 2.

7(k) “Court,” unless otherwise specified, means a court of record.

8(l) “Antipsychotic medication” means any medication
9customarily prescribed for the treatment of symptoms of psychoses
10and other severe mental and emotional disorders.

11(m) “Emergency” means a situation in which action to impose
12treatment over the person’s objection is immediately necessary
13for the preservation of life or the prevention of serious bodily harm
14to the patient or others, and it is impracticable to first gain consent.
15It is not necessary for harm to take place or become unavoidable
16prior to treatment.

17

SEC. 209.  

Section 5328.03 of the Welfare and Institutions
18Code
is amended to read:

19

5328.03.  

(a) (1) Notwithstanding Section 5328 of this code,
20Section 3025 of the Family Code, or paragraph (2) of subdivision
21(c) of Section 56.11 of the Civil Code, a psychotherapist who
22knows that a minor has been removed from the physical custody
23of his or her parent or guardian pursuant to Article 6 (commencing
24with Section 300) to Article 10 (commencing with Section 360),
25inclusive, of Chapter 2 of Part 1 of Division 2 shall not release
26mental health records of the minor patient and shall not disclose
27mental health information about that minor patient based upon an
28authorization to release those records or the information signed
29by the minor’s parent or guardian. This restriction shall not apply
30if the juvenile court has issued an order authorizing the parent or
31guardian to sign an authorization for the release of the records or
32information after finding that such an order would not be
33detrimental to the minor patient.

34(2) Notwithstanding Section 5328 of this code or Section 3025
35of the Family Code, a psychotherapist who knows that a minor
36has been removed from the physical custody of his or her parent
37or guardian pursuant to Article 6 (commencing with Section 300)
38to Article 10 (commencing with Section 360), inclusive, of Chapter
392 of Part 1 of Division 2 shall not allow the parent or guardian to
40inspect or obtain copies of mental health records of the minor
P481  1patient. This restriction shall not apply if the juvenile court has
2issued an order authorizing the parent or guardian to inspect or
3obtain copies of the mental health records of the minor patient
4after finding that such an order would not be detrimental to the
5minor patient.

6(b) For purposes of this section, the following definitions apply:

7(1) “Mental health records” means mental health records as
8defined by subdivision (b) of Section 123105 of the Health and
9Safety Code.

10(2) “Psychotherapist” means a provider of health care as defined
11in Section 1010 of the Evidence Code.

12(c) (1) When the juvenile court has issued an order described
13in paragraph (1) of subdivision (a), the parent or guardian seeking
14the release of the minor’s mental health records or information
15about the minor shall present a copy of the court order to the
16psychotherapist before any records or information may be released
17pursuant to the signed authorization.

18(2) When the juvenile court has issued an order described in
19paragraph (2) of subdivision (a), the parent or guardian seeking to
20inspect or obtain copies of the mental health records of the minor
21patient shall present a copy of the court order to the psychotherapist
22and shall comply with subdivisions (a) and (b) of Section 123110
23of the Health and Safety Code before the parent or guardian is
24allowed to inspect or obtain copies of the mental health records of
25the minor patient.

26(d) Nothing in this section shall be construed to prevent or limit
27a psychotherapist’s authority under subdivision (a) of Section
28123115 of the Health and Safety Code to deny a parent’s or
29guardian’s written request to inspect or obtain copies of the minor
30patient’s mental health records, notwithstanding the fact that the
31juvenile court has issued an order authorizing the parent or guardian
32 to sign an authorization for the release of the mental health records
33or information about that minor patient, or to inspect or obtain
34copies of the minor patient’s health records. Liability for a
35 psychotherapist’s decision not to release records, not to disclose
36information about the minor patient, or not to allow the parent or
37guardian to inspect or obtain copies of the mental health records
38pursuant to the authority of subdivision (a) of Section 123115 of
39the Health and Safety Code shall be governed by that section.

P482  1(e) Nothing in this section shall be construed to impose upon a
2psychotherapist a duty to inquire or investigate whether a child
3has been removed from the physical custody of his or her parent
4or guardian pursuant to Article 6 (commencing with Section 300)
5to Article 10 (commencing with Section 360), inclusive, of Chapter
62 of Part 1 of Division 2 when a parent or guardian presents the
7minor’s psychotherapist with an order authorizing the parent or
8guardian to sign an authorization for the release of information or
9the mental health records regarding the minor patient or authorizing
10the parent or guardian to inspect or obtain copies of the mental
11health records of the minor patient.

12

SEC. 210.  

Section 6254 of the Welfare and Institutions Code
13 is amended to read:

14

6254.  

Wherever provision is made in this code for an order of
15commitment by a superior court, the order of commitment shall
16be in substantially the following form:


17

 

In the Superior Court of the State of California
For the County of ____

   

   

  

The People

For the Best Interest and Protection of

   

⎫
⎪
⎪





Order for Care,
Hospitalization,
or Commitment

as a    ,

⎪

 

⎪

and Concerning

    and      

⎬
⎪

   , Respondents

⎪

   

⎭

 

  The petition dated ________, alleging that ________, having been presented to this court on the ________ day of ________, 20__, and an order of detention issued thereon by a judge of the superior court of this county, and a return of the said order:

 And it further appearing that the provisions of Sections 6250 to 6254, inclusive, of the Welfare and Institutions Code have been complied with;

 And it further appearing that Dr. ________ and Dr. ________, two regularly appointed and qualified medical examiners of this county, have made a personal examination of the alleged ________, and have made and signed the certificate of the medical examiners, which certificate is attached hereto and made a part hereof;

 Now therefore, after examination and certificate made as aforesaid, the court is satisfied and believes that ________ is a ________ and is so ________.

 It is ordered, adjudged, and decreed:

 That ________ is a ________ and that _he

 * (a) Be cared for and detained in ________, a county psychiatric hospital, a community mental health service, or a licensed sanitarium or hospital for the care of the mentally disordered until the further order of the court, or

 * (b) Be cared for at ________, until the further order of the court, or

  * (c) Be committed to the State Department of State Hospitals for placement in a state hospital, or

  * (d) Be committed to a facility of the Department of Veterans Affairs or other agency of the United States, to wit: ________ at ________.

 It is further ordered and directed that ________ of this county, take, convey, and deliver ________ to the proper authorities of the hospital or establishment designated herein to be cared for as provided by law.

 Dated this ________ day of ________, 20__.

   

Judge of the Superior Court  

 * Strike out when not applicable.

P483 22

 

23

SEC. 211.  

Section 7295 of the Welfare and Institutions Code
24 is amended to read:

25

7295.  

(a) To ensure its safety and security, a state hospital that
26is under the jurisdiction of the State Department of State Hospitals,
27as listed in Section 4100, may develop a list of items that are
28deemed contraband and prohibited on hospital grounds and control
29and eliminate contraband on hospital grounds.

30(b) The State Department of State Hospitals shall develop a list
31of items that shall be deemed contraband at every state hospital.

32(c) A state hospital shall form a contraband committee,
33comprised of hospital management and employees designated by
34the hospital’s director, to develop the list of contraband items. The
35committee shall develop the list with the participation of patient
36representatives, or the patient government of the hospital, if one
37is available, and the Office of Patients’ Rights.

38(d) Each hospital’s list of contraband items developed pursuant
39to subdivision (a), and the statewide list of contraband items
P484  1developed pursuant to subdivision (b), are subject to review and
2approval by the Director of State Hospitals or his or her designee.

3(e) A list of contraband items developed pursuant to subdivision
4(a) shall be updated and subject to review and approval by the
5director of the department, or his or her designee, no less often
6than every six months.

7(f) If an item presents an emergent danger to the safety and
8security of a facility, the item may be placed immediately on a
9contraband list by the Director of State Hospitals or the executive
10director of the state hospital, but this placement shall be reviewed
11by the contraband committee, if applicable, and approved by the
12Director of State Hospitals or his or her designee within six weeks.

13(g) The lists of contraband items developed pursuant to this
14section shall be posted prominently in every unit of the hospital
15and throughout the hospital, and provided to a patient upon request.

16(h) The lists of contraband items developed pursuant to this
17section shall be posted on the hospital’s Internet Web site.

18(i) For the purposes of this section, “contraband” means
19materials, articles, or goods that a patient is prohibited from having
20in his or her possession because the materials, articles, or goods
21present a risk to the safety and security of the facility.

22(j) Notwithstanding Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section
2311340) of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code,
24the hospital and the department may implement, interpret, or make
25specific this section without taking regulatory action.

26

SEC. 212.  

Section 12306 of the Welfare and Institutions Code,
27as amended by Section 36 of Chapter 439 of the Statutes of 2012,
28is amended to read:

29

12306.  

(a) The state and counties shall share the annual cost
30of providing services under this article as specified in this section.

31(b) Except as provided in subdivisions (c) and (d), the state shall
32pay to each county, from the General Fund and any federal funds
33received under Title XX of the federal Social Security Act available
34for that purpose, 65 percent of the cost of providing services under
35this article, and each county shall pay 35 percent of the cost of
36providing those services.

37(c) For services eligible for federal funding pursuant to Title
38XIX of the federal Social Security Act under the Medi-Cal program
39and, except as provided in subdivisions (b) and (d), the state shall
40pay to each county, from the General Fund and any funds available
P485  1for that purpose, 65 percent of the nonfederal cost of providing
2services under this article, and each county shall pay 35 percent
3of the nonfederal cost of providing those services.

4(d) (1) For the period of July 1, 1992, to June 30, 1994,
5inclusive, the state’s share of the cost of providing services under
6this article shall be limited to the amount appropriated for that
7purpose in the annual Budget Act.

8(2) The department shall restore the funding reductions required
9by subdivision (c) of Section 12301, fully or in part, as soon as
10administratively practicable, if the amount appropriated from the
11General Fund for the 1992-93 fiscal year under this article is
12projected to exceed the sum of the General Fund expenditures
13under Section 14132.95 and the actual General Fund expenditures
14under this article for the 1992-93 fiscal year. The entire amount
15of the excess shall be applied to the restoration. Services shall not
16be restored under this paragraph until the Department of Finance
17has determined that the restoration of services would result in no
18additional costs to the state or to the counties relative to the
19combined state appropriation and county matching funds for
20in-home supportive services under this article in the 1992-93 fiscal
21year.

22(e)  This section shall become operative only if Chapter 45 of
23the Statutes of 2012 is deemed inoperative pursuant to Section 15
24of that chapter.

25

SEC. 213.  

Section 12306 of the Welfare and Institutions Code,
26as amended by Section 37 of Chapter 439 of the Statutes of 2012,
27is amended to read:

28

12306.  

(a) The state and counties shall share the annual cost
29of providing services under this article as specified in this section.

30(b) Except as provided in subdivisions (c) and (d), the state shall
31pay to each county, from the General Fund and any federal funds
32received under Title XX of the federal Social Security Act available
33for that purpose, 65 percent of the cost of providing services under
34this article, and each county shall pay 35 percent of the cost of
35providing those services.

36(c) For services eligible for federal funding pursuant to Title
37XIX of the federal Social Security Act under the Medi-Cal program
38and, except as provided in subdivisions (b) and (d), the state shall
39pay to each county, from the General Fund and any funds available
40for that purpose, 65 percent of the nonfederal cost of providing
P486  1services under this article, and each county shall pay 35 percent
2of the nonfederal cost of providing those services.

3(d) (1) For the period of July 1, 1992, to June 30, 1994,
4inclusive, the state’s share of the cost of providing services under
5this article shall be limited to the amount appropriated for that
6purpose in the annual Budget Act.

7(2) The department shall restore the funding reductions required
8by subdivision (c) of Section 12301, fully or in part, as soon as
9administratively practicable, if the amount appropriated from the
10General Fund for the 1992-93 fiscal year under this article is
11projected to exceed the sum of the General Fund expenditures
12under Section 14132.95 and the actual General Fund expenditures
13under this article for the 1992-93 fiscal year. The entire amount
14of the excess shall be applied to the restoration. Services shall not
15be restored under this paragraph until the Department of Finance
16has determined that the restoration of services would result in no
17additional costs to the state or to the counties relative to the
18combined state appropriation and county matching funds for
19in-home supportive services under this article in the 1992-93 fiscal
20year.

21(e) For the period during which Section 12306.15 is operative,
22each county’s share of the costs of providing services pursuant to
23this article specified in subdivisions (b) and (c) shall remain, but
24the County IHSS Maintenance of Effort pursuant to Section
2512306.15 shall be in lieu of that share.

26(f) This section shall become inoperative only if Chapter 45 of
27the Statutes of 2012 is deemed inoperative pursuant to Section 15
28of that chapter.

29

SEC. 214.  

Section 14005.27 of the Welfare and Institutions
30Code
is amended to read:

31

14005.27.  

(a) Individuals enrolled in the Healthy Families
32Program pursuant to Part 6.2 (commencing with Section 12693)
33of Division 2 of the Insurance Code on June 27, 2012, and who
34are determined eligible to receive benefits pursuant to subdivisions
35(a) and (b) of Section 14005.26, shall be transitioned into Medi-Cal,
36pursuant to this section.

37(b) To the extent necessary and for the purposes of carrying out
38the provisions of this section, in performing initial eligibility
39determinations for children enrolled in the Healthy Families
40Program pursuant to Part 6.2 (commencing with Section 12693)
P487  1of Division 2 of the Insurance Code, the department shall adopt
2the option pursuant to Section 1902(e)(13) of the federal Social
3Security Act (42 U.S.C. Sec. 1396a(e)(13)) to allow the department
4or county human services departments to rely upon findings made
5by the Managed Risk Medical Insurance Board (MRMIB)
6regarding one or more components of eligibility. The department
7shall seek federal approval of a state plan amendment to implement
8this subdivision.

9(c) To the extent necessary, the department shall seek federal
10approval of a state plan amendment or a waiver to provide
11presumptive eligibility for the optional targeted low-income
12category of eligibility pursuant to Section 14005.26 for individuals
13presumptively eligible for or enrolled in the Healthy Families
14Program pursuant to Part 6.2 (commencing with Section 12693)
15of Division 2 of the Insurance Code. The presumptive eligibility
16shall be based upon the most recent information contained in the
17individual’s Healthy Families Program file. The timeframe for the
18presumptive eligibility shall begin no sooner than January 1, 2013,
19and shall continue until a determination of Medi-Cal eligibility is
20made, which determination shall be performed within one year of
21the individual’s Healthy Families Program annual review date.

22(d) (1) The California Health and Human Services Agency, in
23consultation with the Managed Risk Medical Insurance Board, the
24State Department of Health Care Services, the Department of
25Managed Health Care, and diverse stakeholders groups, shall
26provide the fiscal and policy committees of the Legislature with
27a strategic plan for the transition of the Healthy Families Program
28pursuant to this section by no later than October 1, 2012. This
29strategic plan shall, at a minimum, address all of the following:

30(A) State, county, and local administrative components which
31facilitate a successful subscriber transition such as communication
32and outreach to subscribers and applicants, eligibility processing,
33 enrollment, communication, and linkage with health plan providers,
34payments of applicable premiums, and overall systems operation
35functions.

36(B) Methods and processes for diverse stakeholder engagement
37throughout the entire transition, including all phases of the
38transition.

P488  1(C) State monitoring of managed care health plans’ performance
2and accountability for provision of services, and initial quality
3indicators for children and adolescents transitioning to Medi-Cal.

4(D) Health care and dental delivery system components such
5as standards for informing and enrollment materials, network
6adequacy, performance measures and metrics, fiscal solvency, and
7related factors that ensure timely access to quality health and dental
8care for children and adolescents transitioning to Medi-Cal.

9(E) Inclusion of applicable operational steps, timelines, and key
10milestones.

11(F) A time certain for the transfer of the Healthy Families
12Advisory Board, as described in Part 6.2 (commencing with Section
1312693) of Division 2 of the Insurance Code, to the State
14Department of Health Care Services.

15(2) The intent of this strategic plan is to serve as an overall guide
16for the development of each plan for each phase of this transition,
17pursuant to paragraphs (1) to (8), inclusive, of subdivision (e), to
18ensure clarity and consistency in approach and subscriber
19continuity of care. This strategic plan may also be updated by the
20California Health and Human Services Agency as applicable and
21provided to the Legislature upon completion.

22(e) (1) The department shall transition individuals from the
23Healthy Families Program to the Medi-Cal program in four phases,
24as follows:

25(A) Phase 1. Individuals enrolled in a Healthy Families Program
26health plan that is a Medi-Cal managed care health plan shall be
27enrolled in the same plan no earlier than January 1, 2013, pursuant
28to the requirements of this section and Section 14011.6, and to the
29extent the individual is otherwise eligible under this chapter and
30Chapter 8 (commencing with Section 14200).

31(B) Phase 2. Individuals enrolled in a Healthy Families Program
32managed care health plan that is a subcontractor of a Medi-Cal
33managed health care plan, to the extent possible, shall be enrolled
34into a Medi-Cal managed health care plan that includes the
35individuals’ current plan pursuant to the requirements of this
36section and Section 14011.6, and to the extent the individuals are
37otherwise eligible under this chapter and Chapter 8 (commencing
38with Section 14200). The transition of individuals described in
39this subparagraph shall begin no earlier than April 1, 2013.

P489  1(C) Phase 3. Individuals enrolled in a Healthy Families Program
2plan that is not a Medi-Cal managed care plan and does not contract
3or subcontract with a Medi-Cal managed care plan shall be enrolled
4in a Medi-Cal managed care plan in that county. Enrollment shall
5include consideration of the individuals’ primary care providers
6pursuant to the requirements of this section and Section 14011.6,
7and to the extent the individuals are otherwise eligible under this
8chapter and Chapter 8 (commencing with Section 14200). The
9transition of individuals described in this subparagraph shall begin
10no earlier than August 1, 2013.

11(D) Phase 4.

12(i) Individuals residing in a county that is not a Medi-Cal
13managed care county shall be provided services under the Medi-Cal
14fee-for-service delivery system, subject to clause (ii). The transition
15of individuals described in this subparagraph shall begin no earlier
16than September 1, 2013.

17(ii) In the event the department creates a managed health care
18system in the counties described in clause (i), individuals residing
19in those counties shall be enrolled in managed health care plans
20pursuant to this chapter and Chapter 8 (commencing with Section
2114200).

22(2) For the transition of individuals pursuant to subparagraphs
23(A), (B), (C), and (D) of paragraph (1), implementation plans shall
24be developed to ensure state and county systems readiness, health
25plan network adequacy, and continuity of care with the goal of
26ensuring there is no disruption of service and there is continued
27access to coverage for all transitioning individuals. If an individual
28is not retained with his or her current primary care provider, the
29implementation plan shall require the managed care plan to report
30to the department as to how continuity of care is being provided.
31Transition of individuals described in subparagraphs (A), (B), (C),
32and (D) of paragraph (1) shall not occur until 90 days after the
33department has submitted an implementation plan to the fiscal and
34policy committees of the Legislature. The implementation plans
35shall include, but not be limited to, information on health and
36dental plan network adequacy, continuity of care, eligibility and
37enrollment requirements, consumer protections, and family
38notifications.

P490  1(3) The following requirements shall be in place prior to
2implementation of Phase 1, and shall be required for all phases of
3the transition:

4(A) Managed care plan performance measures shall be integrated
5and coordinated with the Healthy Families Program performance
6standards including, but not limited to, child-only Healthcare
7Effectiveness Data and Information Set (HEDIS) measures, and
8measures indicative of performance in serving children and
9adolescents. These performance measures shall also be in
10compliance with all performance requirements under the
11Knox-Keene Health Care Service Plan Act of 1975 (Chapter 2.2
12(commencing with Section 1340) of Division 2 of the Health and
13Safety Code) and existing Medi-Cal managed care performance
14measurements and standards as set forth in this chapter and Chapter
158 (commencing with Section 14200) of Title 22 of the California
16Code of Regulations, and all-plan letters, including, but not limited
17to, network adequacy and linguistic services, and shall be met prior
18to the transition of individuals pursuant to Phase 1.

19(B) Medi-Cal managed care health plans shall allow enrollees
20to remain with their current primary care provider. If an individual
21does not remain with the current primary care provider, the plan
22shall report to the department as to how continuity of care is being
23provided.

24(4) (A) As individuals are transitioned pursuant to
25subparagraphs (A), (B), (C), and (D) of paragraph (1), for
26individuals residing in all counties except the Counties of
27Sacramento and Los Angeles, their dental coverage shall transition
28to fee-for-service dental coverage and may be provided by their
29current provider if the provider is a Medi-Cal fee-for-service dental
30provider.

31(B) For individuals residing in the County of Sacramento, their
32dental coverage shall continue to be provided by their current
33dental managed care plan if their plan is a Medi-Cal dental
34managed care plan. If their plan is not a Medi-Cal dental managed
35care plan, they shall select a Medi-Cal dental managed care plan.
36If they do not choose a Medi-Cal dental managed care plan, they
37shall be assigned to a plan with preference to a plan with which
38their current provider is a contracted provider. Any children in the
39Healthy Families Program transitioned into Medi-Cal dental
40managed care plans shall also have access to the beneficiary dental
P491  1exception process, pursuant to Section 14089.09. Further, the
2Sacramento advisory committee, established pursuant to Section
314089.08, shall be consulted regarding the transition of children
4in the Healthy Families Program into Medi-Cal dental managed
5care plans.

6(C) (i) For individuals residing in the County of Los Angeles,
7for purposes of continuity of care, their dental coverage shall
8continue to be provided by their current dental managed care plan
9if that plan is a Medi-Cal dental managed care plan. If their plan
10is not a Medi-Cal dental managed care plan, they may select a
11Medi-Cal dental managed care plan or choose to move into
12Medi-Cal fee-for-service dental coverage.

13(ii) It is the intent of the Legislature that children transitioning
14to Medi-Cal under this section have a choice in dental coverage,
15as provided under existing law.

16(5) Dental health plan performance measures and benchmarks
17shall be in accordance with Section 14459.6.

18(6) Medi-Cal managed care health and dental plans shall report
19to the department, as frequently as specified by the department,
20specified information pertaining to transition implementation,
21enrollees, and providers, including, but not limited to, grievances
22related to access to care, continuity of care requests and outcomes,
23and changes to provider networks, including provider enrollment
24 and disenrollment changes. The plans shall report this information
25by county, and in the format requested by the department.

26(7) The department may develop supplemental implementation
27plans to separately account for the transition of individuals from
28the Healthy Families Program to specific Medi-Cal delivery
29systems.

30(8) The department shall consult with the Legislature and
31stakeholders, including, but not limited to, consumers, families,
32consumer advocates, counties, providers, and health and dental
33plans, in the development of implementation plans described in
34paragraph (3) for individuals who are transitioned to Medi-Cal in
35Phase 2, Phase 3, and Phase 4, as described in subparagraphs (B),
36(C), and (D) of paragraph (1).

37(9) (A) The department shall consult and collaborate with the
38Department of Managed Health Care in assessing Medi-Cal
39managed care health plan network adequacy in accordance with
40the Knox-Keene Health Care Service Plan Act of 1975 (Chapter
P492  12.2 (commencing with Section 1340) of Division 2 of the Health
2and Safety Code) for purposes of the developed transition plans
3pursuant to paragraph (2) for each of the phases.

4(B) For purposes of individuals transitioning in Phase 1, as
5described in subparagraph (A) of paragraph (1), network adequacy
6shall be assessed as described in this paragraph and findings from
7this assessment shall be provided to the fiscal and appropriate
8policy committees of the Legislature 60 days prior to the effective
9date of implementing this transition.

10(10) The department shall provide monthly status reports to the
11fiscal and policy committees of the Legislature on the transition
12commencing no later than February 15, 2013. This monthly status
13transition report shall include, but not be limited to, information
14on health plan grievances related to access to care, continuity of
15care requests and outcomes, changes to provider networks,
16including provider enrollment and disenrollment changes, and
17eligibility performance standards pursuant to subdivision (n). A
18final comprehensive report shall be provided within 90 days after
19completion of the last phase of transition.

20(f) (1) The department and MRMIB shall work collaboratively
21in the development of notices for individuals transitioned pursuant
22to paragraph (1) of subdivision (e).

23(2) The state shall provide written notice to individuals enrolled
24in the Healthy Families Program of their transition to the Medi-Cal
25program at least 60 days prior to the transition of individuals in
26Phase 1, as described in subparagraph (A) of paragraph (1) of
27 subdivision (e), and at least 90 days prior to transition of
28individuals in Phases 2, 3, and 4, as described in subparagraphs
29(B), (C), and (D) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (e).

30(3) Notices developed pursuant to this subdivision shall ensure
31individuals are informed regarding the transition, including, but
32not limited to, how individuals’ systems of care may change, when
33the changes will occur, and whom they can contact for assistance
34when choosing a Medi-Cal managed care plan, if applicable,
35including a toll-free telephone number, and with problems they
36may encounter. The department shall consult with stakeholders
37regarding notices developed pursuant to this subdivision. These
38notices shall be developed using plain language, and written
39translation of the notices shall be available for those who are
P493  1limited English proficient or non-English speaking in all Medi-Cal
2threshold languages.

3(4) The department shall designate department liaisons
4responsible for the coordination of the Healthy Families Program
5and may establish a children’s-focused section for this purpose
6and to facilitate the provision of health care services for children
7enrolled in Medi-Cal.

8(5) The department shall provide a process for ongoing
9stakeholder consultation and make information publicly available,
10including the achievement of benchmarks, enrollment data,
11utilization data, and quality measures.

12(g) (1) In order to aid the transition of Healthy Families Program
13enrollees, MRMIB, on the effective date of the act that added this
14section and continuing through the completion of the transition of
15Healthy Families Program enrollees to the Medi-Cal program,
16shall begin requesting and collecting from health plans contracting
17with MRMIB pursuant to Part 6.2 (commencing with Section
1812693) of Division 2 of the Insurance Code, information about
19each health plan’s provider network, including, but not limited to,
20the primary care and all specialty care providers assigned to
21individuals enrolled in the health plan. MRMIB shall obtain this
22information in a manner that coincides with the transition activities
23described in subdivision (d), and shall provide all of the collected
24information to the department within 60 days of the department’s
25request for this information to ensure timely transitions of Healthy
26Family Program enrollees.

27(2) The department shall analyze the existing Healthy Families
28Program delivery system network and the Medi-Cal fee-for-service
29provider networks, including, but not limited to, Medi-Cal dental
30providers, to determine overlaps of the provider networks in each
31county for which there are no Medi-Cal managed care plans or
32dental managed care plans. To the extent there is a lack of existing
33Medi-Cal fee-for-service providers available to serve the Healthy
34Families Program enrollees, the department shall work with the
35Healthy Families Program provider community to encourage
36participation of those providers in the Medi-Cal program, and
37develop a streamlined process to enroll them as Medi-Cal
38providers.

39(3) (A) MRMIB, within 60 days of a request by the department,
40shall provide the department any data, information, or record
P494  1concerning the Healthy Families Program as is necessary to
2implement the transition of enrollment required pursuant to this
3section.

4(B) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, all of the
5following shall apply:

6(i) The term “data, information, or record” shall include, but is
7not limited to, personal information as defined in Section 1798.3
8of the Civil Code.

9(ii) Any data, information, or record shall be exempt from
10disclosure under the California Public Records Act (Chapter 3.5
11(commencing with Section 6250) of Division 7 of Title 1 of the
12Government Code) and any other law, to the same extent that it
13was exempt from disclosure or privileged prior to the provision
14of the data, information, or record to the department.

15(iii) The provision of any such data, information, or record to
16the department shall not constitute a waiver of any evidentiary
17privilege or exemption from disclosure.

18(iv) The department shall keep all data, information, or records
19provided by MRMIB confidential to the full extent permitted by
20law, including, but not limited to, the California Public Records
21Act (Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 6250) of Division 7
22of Title 1 of the Government Code), and consistent with MRMIB’s
23contractual obligations to keep the data, information, or records
24confidential.

25(h) This section shall be implemented only to the extent that all
26necessary federal approvals and waivers have been obtained and
27the enhanced rate of federal financial participation under Title XXI
28of the federal Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. Sec. 1397aa et seq.)
29is available for targeted low-income children pursuant to that act.

30(i) (1) The department shall exercise the option pursuant to
31Section 1916A of the federal Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. Sec.
321396o-1) to impose premiums for individuals described in
33subdivision (a) of Section 14005.26 whose family income has been
34determined to be above 150 percent and up to and including 200
35percent of the federal poverty level, after application of the income
36disregard pursuant to subdivision (b) of Section 14005.26. The
37department shall not impose premiums under this subdivision for
38individuals described in subdivision (a) of Section 14005.26 whose
39family income has been determined to be at or below 150 percent
40of the federal poverty level, after application of the income
P495  1disregard pursuant to subdivision (b) of Section 14005.26. The
2department shall obtain federal approval for the implementation
3of this subdivision.

4(2) All premiums imposed under this section shall equal the
5family contributions described in paragraph (2) of subdivision (d)
6of Section 12693.43 of the Insurance Code and shall be reduced
7in conformity with subdivisions (e) and (f) of Section 12693.43
8of the Insurance Code.

9(j) The department shall not enroll targeted low-income children
10described in this section in the Medi-Cal program until all
11necessary federal approvals and waivers have been obtained, or
12no sooner than January 1, 2013.

13(k) (1) To the extent the new budget methodology pursuant to
14paragraph (6) of subdivision (a) of Section 14154 is not fully
15operational, for the purposes of implementing this section, for
16individuals described in subdivision (a) whose family income has
17been determined to be at or below 150 percent of the federal
18poverty level, as determined pursuant to subdivision (b), the
19department shall utilize the budgeting methodology for this
20population as contained in the November 2011 Medi-Cal Local
21Assistance Estimate for Medi-Cal county administration costs for
22eligibility operations.

23(2) For purposes of implementing this section, the department
24shall include in the Medi-Cal Local Assistance Estimate an amount
25for Medi-Cal eligibility operations associated with the transfer of
26Healthy Families Program enrollees eligible pursuant to subdivision
27(a) of Section 14005.26 and whose family income is determined
28to be above 150 percent and up to and including 200 percent of
29the federal poverty level, after application of the income disregard
30pursuant to subdivision (b) of Section 14005.26. In developing an
31estimate for this activity, the department shall consider the
32projected number of final eligibility determinations each county
33will process and projected county costs. Within 60 days of the
34passage of the annual Budget Act, the department shall notify each
35county of their allocation for this activity based upon the amount
36allotted in the annual Budget Act for this purpose.

37(l) When the new budget methodology pursuant to paragraph
38(6) of subdivision (a) of Section 14154 is fully operational, the
39new budget methodology shall be utilized to reimburse counties
P496  1for eligibility determinations made for individuals pursuant to this
2section.

3(m) Except as provided in subdivision (b), eligibility
4determinations and annual redeterminations made pursuant to this
5section shall be performed by county eligibility workers.

6(n) In conducting the eligibility determinations for individuals
7pursuant to this section and Section 14005.26, the following
8reporting and performance standards shall apply to all counties:

9(1) Counties shall report to the department, in a manner and for
10a time period determined by the department, in consultation with
11the County Welfare Directors Association, the number of
12applications processed on a monthly basis, a breakout of the
13applications based on income using the federal percentage of
14poverty levels, the final disposition of each application, including
15information on the approved Medi-Cal program, if applicable, and
16the average number of days it took to make the final eligibility
17determination for applications submitted directly to the county and
18from the single point of entry (SPE).

19(2) Notwithstanding any other law, the following performance
20standards shall be applied to counties for eligibility determinations
21for individuals eligible pursuant to this section:

22(A) For children whose applications are received by the county
23human services department from the SPE, the following standards
24shall apply:

25(i) Applications for children who are granted accelerated
26enrollment by the SPE shall be processed according to the
27timeframes specified in subdivision (d) of Section 14154.

28(ii) Applications for children who are not granted accelerated
29enrollment by the SPE due to the existence of an already active
30Medi-Cal case shall be processed according to the timeframes
31specified in subdivision (d) of Section 14154.

32(iii) For applications for children who are not described in clause
33(i) or (ii), 90 percent shall be processed within 10 working days
34of being received, complete and without client errors.

35(iv) If an application described in this section also contains
36adults, and the adult applicants are required to submit additional
37information beyond the information provided for the children, the
38county shall process the eligibility for the child or children without
39delay, consistent with this section while gathering the necessary
40information to process eligibility for the adults.

P497  1(B) The department, in consultation with the County Welfare
2Directors Association, shall develop reporting requirements for
3the counties to provide regular data to the state regarding the
4timeliness and outcomes of applications processed by the counties
5that are received from the SPE.

6(C) Performance thresholds and corrective action standards as
7set forth in Section 14154 shall apply.

8(D) For applications received directly by the county, these
9applications shall be processed by the counties in accordance with
10the performance standards established under subdivision (d) of
11Section 14154.

12(3) This subdivision shall be implemented no sooner than
13January 1, 2013.

14(4) Twelve months after implementation of this section pursuant
15to subdivision (e), the department shall provide enrollment
16information regarding individuals determined eligible pursuant to
17subdivision (a) to the fiscal and appropriate policy committees of
18the Legislature.

19(o) (1) Notwithstanding Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section
2011340) of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code,
21for purposes of this transition, the department, without taking any
22further regulatory action, shall implement, interpret, or make
23specific this section by means of all-county letters, plan letters,
24plan or provider bulletins, or similar instructions until the time
25regulations are adopted. It is the intent of the Legislature that the
26department be allowed temporary authority as necessary to
27implement program changes until completion of the regulatory
28process.

29(2) To the extent otherwise required by Chapter 3.5
30(commencing with Section 11340) of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title
312 of the Government Code, the department shall adopt emergency
32regulations implementing this section no later than July 1, 2014.
33The department may thereafter readopt the emergency regulations
34pursuant to that chapter. The adoption and readoption, by the
35department, of regulations implementing this section shall be
36deemed to be an emergency and necessary to avoid serious harm
37to the public peace, health, safety, or general welfare for purposes
38of Sections 11346.1 and 11349.6 of the Government Code, and
39the department is hereby exempted from the requirement that it
P498  1describe facts showing the need for immediate action and from
2review by the Office of Administrative Law.

3(p) To implement this section, the department may enter into
4and continue contracts with the Healthy Families Program
5administrative vendor, for the purposes of implementing and
6maintaining the necessary systems and activities for providing
7health care coverage to optional targeted low-income children in
8the Medi-Cal program for purposes of accelerated enrollment
9application processing by single point of entry,
10noneligibility-related case maintenance and premium collection,
11maintenance of the Health-E-App Web portal, call center staffing
12and operations, certified application assistant services, and
13reporting capabilities. To further implement this section, the
14department may also enter into a contract with the Health Care
15Options Broker of the department for purposes of managed care
16enrollment activities. The contracts entered into or amended under
17this section may initially be completed on a noncompetitive bid
18basis and are exempt from the Public Contract Code. Contracts
19thereafter shall be entered into or amended on a competitive bid
20basis and shall be subject to the Public Contract Code.

21(q) (1) If at any time the director determines that this section
22or any part of this section may jeopardize the state’s ability to
23receive federal financial participation under the federal Patient
24Protection and Affordable Care Act (Public Law 111-148), or any
25amendment or extension of that act, or any additional federal funds
26that the director, in consultation with the Department of Finance,
27determines would be advantageous to the state, the director shall
28give notice to the fiscal and policy committees of the Legislature
29and to the Department of Finance. After giving notice, this section
30or any part of this section shall become inoperative on the date
31that the director executes a declaration stating that the department
32has determined, in consultation with the Department of Finance,
33that it is necessary to cease to implement this section or a part or
34parts thereof in order to receive federal financial participation, any
35increase in the federal medical assistance percentage available on
36or after October 1, 2008, or any additional federal funds that the
37director, in consultation with the Department of Finance, has
38determined would be advantageous to the state.

39(2) The director shall retain the declaration described in
40paragraph (1), shall provide a copy of the declaration to the
P499  1Secretary of the State, the Secretary of the Senate, the Chief Clerk
2of the Assembly, and the Legislative Counsel, and shall post the
3declaration on the department’s Internet Web site.

4(3) In the event that the director makes a determination under
5paragraph (1) and this section ceases to be implemented, the
6children shall be enrolled back into the Healthy Families Program.

7

SEC. 215.  

Section 14043.25 of the Welfare and Institutions
8Code
, as added by Section 8 of Chapter 797 of the Statutes of
92012, is amended to read:

10

14043.25.  

(a) The application form for enrollment, the provider
11agreement, and all attachments or changes to either, shall be signed
12under penalty of perjury.

13(b) The department may require that the application form for
14enrollment, the provider agreement, and all attachments or changes
15to either, submitted by an applicant or provider licensed pursuant
16to Division 2 (commencing with Section 500) of the Business and
17Professions Code, the Osteopathic Initiative Act, or the
18Chiropractic Initiative Act, be notarized.

19(c) Application forms for enrollment, provider agreements, and
20all attachments or changes to either, submitted by an applicant or
21provider not subject to subdivision (b) shall be notarized. This
22 subdivision shall not apply with respect to providers under the
23In-Home Supportive Services program.

24(d) The department shall collect an application fee for
25enrollment, including enrollment at a new location or a change in
26location. The application fee shall not be collected from individual
27physicians or nonphysician practitioners, from providers that are
28enrolled in Medicare or another state’s Medicaid program or
29Children’s Health Insurance Program, from providers that submit
30proof that they have paid the applicable fee to a Medicare
31contractor or to another state’s Medicaid program, or pursuant to
32an exemption or waiver pursuant to federal law. The application
33fee collected shall be in the amount calculated by the federal
34Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services in effect for the
35calendar year during which the application for enrollment is
36received by the department.

37(e) (1) This section shall become operative on the effective date
38of the state plan amendment necessary to implement this section,
39as stated in the declaration executed by the director pursuant to
40paragraph (2).

P500  1(2) Upon approval of the state plan amendment necessary to
2implement this section, the director shall execute a declaration, to
3be retained by the director and posted on the department’s Internet
4Web site, that states this approval has been obtained and the
5effective date of the state plan amendment. The department shall
6transmit a copy of the declaration to the Legislature.

7

SEC. 216.  

Section 14043.7 of the Welfare and Institutions
8Code
, as amended by Section 21 of Chapter 797 of the Statutes of
92012, is amended to read:

10

14043.7.  

(a) The department may make unannounced visits
11to an applicant or to a provider for the purpose of determining
12whether enrollment, continued enrollment, or certification is
13warranted, or as necessary for the administration of the Medi-Cal
14program. At the time of the visit, the applicant or provider shall
15be required to demonstrate an established place of business
16appropriate and adequate for the services billed or claimed to the
17Medi-Cal program, as relevant to his or her scope of practice, as
18indicated by, but not limited to, the following:

19(1) Being open and available to the general public.

20(2) Having regularly established and posted business hours.

21(3) Having adequate supplies in stock on the premises.

22(4) Meeting all local laws and ordinances regarding business
23licensing and operations.

24(5) Having the necessary equipment and facilities to carry out
25day-to-day business for his or her practice.

26(b) An unannounced visit pursuant to subdivision (a) shall be
27prohibited with respect to clinics licensed under Section 1204 of
28the Health and Safety Code, clinics exempt from licensure under
29Section 1206 of the Health and Safety Code, health facilities
30licensed under Chapter 2 (commencing with Section 1250) of
31Division 2 of the Health and Safety Code, and natural persons
32licensed or certified under Division 2 (commencing with Section
33500) of the Business and Professions Code, the Osteopathic
34Initiative Act, or the Chiropractic Initiative Act, unless the
35department has reason to believe that the provider will defraud or
36abuse the Medi-Cal program or lacks the organizational or
37administrative capacity to provide services under the program.

38(c) Failure to remediate significant discrepancies in information
39provided to the department by the provider or significant
40discrepancies that are discovered as a result of an announced or
P501  1unannounced visit to a provider, for purposes of enrollment,
2continued enrollment, or certification pursuant to subdivision (a)
3shall make the provider subject to temporary suspension from the
4Medi-Cal program, which shall include temporary deactivation of
5the provider’s number, including all business addresses used by
6the provider to obtain reimbursement from the Medi-Cal program.
7The director shall notify in writing the provider of the temporary
8suspension and deactivation of provider numbers, which shall take
9effect 15 days from the date of the notification. Notwithstanding
10Section 100171 of the Health and Safety Code, proceedings after
11the imposition of sanctions in this subdivision shall be in
12accordance with Section 14043.65.

13(d) This section shall become inoperative on the effective date
14of the necessary state plan amendment, as stated in the declaration
15executed by the director pursuant to Section 14043.7 as added by
16Section 22 of the act that added this subdivision, and is repealed
17on the January 1 of the following year. The department shall post
18the declaration on its Internet Web site and transmit a copy of the
19declaration to the Legislature.

20

SEC. 217.  

Section 14043.7 of the Welfare and Institutions
21Code
, as added by Section 22 of Chapter 797 of the Statutes of
222012, is amended to read:

23

14043.7.  

(a) The department may make unannounced visits
24to an applicant or to a provider for the purpose of determining
25whether enrollment, continued enrollment, or certification is
26warranted, or as necessary for the administration of the Medi-Cal
27program. If an unannounced site visit is conducted by the
28department for any enrolled provider, the provider shall permit
29access to any and all of their provider locations. If a provider fails
30to permit access for any site visit, the application shall be denied
31and the provider shall be subject to deactivation. At the time of
32the visit, the applicant or provider shall be required to demonstrate
33an established place of business appropriate and adequate for the
34services billed or claimed to the Medi-Cal program, as relevant to
35his or her scope of practice, as indicated by, but not limited to, the
36following:

37(1) Being open and available to the general public.

38(2) Having regularly established and posted business hours.

39(3) Having adequate supplies in stock on the premises.

P502  1(4) Meeting all local laws and ordinances regarding business
2licensing and operations.

3(5) Having the necessary equipment and facilities to carry out
4day-to-day business for his or her practice.

5(b) An unannounced visit pursuant to subdivision (a) shall be
6prohibited with respect to clinics licensed under Section 1204 of
7the Health and Safety Code, clinics exempt from licensure under
8Section 1206 of the Health and Safety Code, health facilities
9 licensed under Chapter 2 (commencing with Section 1250) of
10Division 2 of the Health and Safety Code, and natural persons
11licensed or certified under Division 2 (commencing with Section
12500) of the Business and Professions Code, the Osteopathic
13Initiative Act, or the Chiropractic Initiative Act, unless the
14department has reason to believe that the provider will defraud or
15abuse the Medi-Cal program or lacks the organizational or
16administrative capacity to provide services under the program.

17(c) Failure to remediate significant discrepancies in information
18provided to the department by the provider or significant
19discrepancies that are discovered as a result of an announced or
20unannounced visit to a provider, for purposes of enrollment,
21continued enrollment, or certification pursuant to subdivision (a)
22shall make the provider subject to temporary suspension from the
23Medi-Cal program, which shall include temporary deactivation of
24the provider’s number, including all business addresses used by
25the provider to obtain reimbursement from the Medi-Cal program.
26The director shall notify in writing the provider of the temporary
27suspension and deactivation of provider numbers, which shall take
28effect 15 days from the date of the notification. Notwithstanding
29Section 100171 of the Health and Safety Code, proceedings after
30the imposition of sanctions in this subdivision shall be in
31accordance with Section 14043.65.

32(d) (1) This section shall become operative on the effective
33date of the state plan amendment necessary to implement this
34section, as stated in the declaration executed by the director
35pursuant to paragraph (2).

36(2) Upon approval of the state plan amendment necessary to
37implement this section under Section 455.416 of Title 42 of the
38Code of Federal Regulations, the director shall execute a
39 declaration, to be retained by the director and posted on the
40department’s Internet Web site, that states that this approval has
P503  1been obtained and the effective date of the state plan amendment.
2The department shall transmit a copy of the declaration to the
3Legislature.

4

SEC. 218.  

Section 14132.275 of the Welfare and Institutions
5Code
is amended to read:

6

14132.275.  

(a) The department shall seek federal approval to
7establish the demonstration project described in this section
8pursuant to a Medicare or a Medicaid demonstration project or
9waiver, or a combination thereof. Under a Medicare demonstration,
10the department may contract with the federal Centers for Medicare
11and Medicaid Services (CMS) and demonstration sites to operate
12the Medicare and Medicaid benefits in a demonstration project
13that is overseen by the state as a delegated Medicare benefit
14administrator, and may enter into financing arrangements with
15CMS to share in any Medicare program savings generated by the
16demonstration project.

17(b) After federal approval is obtained, the department shall
18establish the demonstration project that enables dual eligible
19 beneficiaries to receive a continuum of services that maximizes
20access to, and coordination of, benefits between the Medi-Cal and
21Medicare programs and access to the continuum of long-term
22services and supports and behavioral health services, including
23mental health and substance use disorder treatment services. The
24purpose of the demonstration project is to integrate services
25authorized under the federal Medicaid Program (Title XIX of the
26federal Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. Sec. 1396 et seq.)) and the
27federal Medicare Program (Title XVIII of the federal Social
28Security Act (42 U.S.C. Sec. 1395 et seq.)). The demonstration
29project may also include additional services as approved through
30a demonstration project or waiver, or a combination thereof.

31(c) For purposes of this section, the following definitions shall
32apply:

33(1) “Behavioral health” means Medi-Cal services provided
34 pursuant to Section 51341 of Title 22 of the California Code of
35Regulations and Drug Medi-Cal substance abuse services provided
36pursuant to Section 51341.1 of Title 22 of the California Code of
37Regulations, and any mental health benefits available under the
38Medicare Program.

39(2) “Capitated payment model” means an agreement entered
40into between CMS, the state, and a managed care health plan, in
P504  1which the managed care health plan receives a capitation payment
2for the comprehensive, coordinated provision of Medi-Cal services
3and benefits under Medicare Part C (42 U.S.C. Sec. 1395w-21 et
4seq.) and Medicare Part D (42 U.S.C. Sec. 1395w-101 et seq.),
5and CMS shares the savings with the state from the improved
6provision of Medi-Cal and Medicare services that reduces the cost
7of those services. Medi-Cal services include long-term services
8and supports as defined in Section 14186.1, behavioral health
9services, and any additional services offered by the demonstration
10site.

11(3) “Demonstration site” means a managed care health plan that
12is selected to participate in the demonstration project under the
13capitated payment model.

14(4) “Dual eligible beneficiary” means an individual 21 years of
15age or older who is enrolled for benefits under Medicare Part A
16(42 U.S.C. Sec. 1395c et seq.) and Medicare Part B (42 U.S.C.
17Sec. 1395j et seq.) and is eligible for medical assistance under the
18Medi-Cal State Plan.

19(d) No sooner than March 1, 2011, the department shall identify
20health care models that may be included in the demonstration
21project, shall develop a timeline and process for selecting,
22financing, monitoring, and evaluating the demonstration sites, and
23shall provide this timeline and process to the appropriate fiscal
24and policy committees of the Legislature. The department may
25implement these demonstration sites in phases.

26(e) The department shall provide the fiscal and appropriate
27policy committees of the Legislature with a copy of any report
28submitted to CMS to meet the requirements under the
29demonstration project.

30(f) Goals for the demonstration project shall include all of the
31following:

32(1) Coordinate Medi-Cal and Medicare benefits across health
33care settings and improve the continuity of care across acute care,
34long-term care, behavioral health, including mental health and
35substance use disorder services, and home- and community-based
36services settings using a person-centered approach.

37(2) Coordinate access to acute and long-term care services for
38dual eligible beneficiaries.

P505  1(3) Maximize the ability of dual eligible beneficiaries to remain
2in their homes and communities with appropriate services and
3supports in lieu of institutional care.

4(4) Increase the availability of and access to home- and
5community-based services.

6(5) Coordinate access to necessary and appropriate behavioral
7health services, including mental health and substance use disorder
8services.

9(6) Improve the quality of care for dual eligible beneficiaries.

10(7) Promote a system that is both sustainable and person and
11family centered by providing dual eligible beneficiaries with timely
12access to appropriate, coordinated health care services and
13community resources that enable them to attain or maintain
14personal health goals.

15(g) No sooner than March 1, 2013, demonstration sites shall be
16established in up to eight counties, and shall include at least one
17county that provides Medi-Cal services via a two-plan model
18pursuant to Article 2.7 (commencing with Section 14087.3) and
19at least one county that provides Medi-Cal services under a
20county-organized health system pursuant to Article 2.8
21(commencing with Section 14087.5). The director shall consult
22with the Legislature, CMS, and stakeholders when determining
23the implementation date for this section. In determining the
24counties in which to establish a demonstration site, the director
25shall consider the following:

26(1) Local support for integrating medical care, long-term care,
27and home- and community-based services networks.

28(2) A local stakeholder process that includes health plans,
29providers, mental health representatives, community programs,
30consumers, designated representatives of in-home supportive
31services personnel, and other interested stakeholders in the
32development, implementation, and continued operation of the
33demonstration site.

34(h) In developing the process for selecting, financing,
35monitoring, and evaluating the health care models for the
36demonstration project, the department shall enter into a
37memorandum of understanding with CMS. Upon completion, the
38memorandum of understanding shall be provided to the fiscal and
39appropriate policy committees of the Legislature and posted on
40the department’s Internet Web site.

P506  1(i) The department shall negotiate the terms and conditions of
2the memorandum of understanding, which shall address, but are
3not limited to, the following:

4(1) Reimbursement methods for a capitated payment model.
5Under the capitated payment model, the demonstration sites shall
6meet all of the following requirements:

7(A) Have Medi-Cal managed care health plan and Medicare
8dual eligible-special needs plan contract experience, or evidence
9of the ability to meet these contracting requirements.

10(B) Be in good financial standing and meet licensure
11requirements under the Knox-Keene Health Care Service Plan Act
12of 1975 (Chapter 2.2 (commencing with Section 1340) of Division
132 of the Health and Safety Code), except for county-organized
14health system plans that are exempt from licensure pursuant to
15Section 14087.95.

16(C) Meet quality measures, which may include Medi-Cal and
17Medicare Healthcare Effectiveness Data and Information Set
18measures and other quality measures determined or developed by
19the department or CMS.

20(D) Demonstrate a local stakeholder process that includes dual
21eligible beneficiaries, managed care health plans, providers, mental
22health representatives, county health and human services agencies,
23designated representatives of in-home supportive services
24personnel, and other interested stakeholders that advise and consult
25with the demonstration site in the development, implementation,
26and continued operation of the demonstration project.

27(E) Pay providers reimbursement rates sufficient to maintain
28an adequate provider network and ensure access to care for
29beneficiaries.

30(F) Follow final policy guidance determined by CMS and the
31department with regard to reimbursement rates for providers
32pursuant to paragraphs (4) to (7), inclusive, of subdivision (o).

33(G) To the extent permitted under the demonstration, pay
34noncontracted hospitals prevailing Medicare fee-for-service rates
35for traditionally Medicare-covered benefits and prevailing
36Medi-Cal fee-for-service rates for traditionally Medi-Cal-covered
37benefits.

38(2) Encounter data reporting requirements for both Medi-Cal
39and Medicare services provided to beneficiaries enrolling in the
40demonstration project.

P507  1(3) Quality assurance withholding from the demonstration site
2payment, to be paid only if quality measures developed as part of
3the memorandum of understanding and plan contracts are met.

4(4) Provider network adequacy standards developed by the
5department and CMS, in consultation with the Department of
6Managed Health Care, the demonstration site, and stakeholders.

7(5) Medicare and Medi-Cal appeals and hearing processes.

8(6) Unified marketing requirements and combined review
9process by the department and CMS.

10(7) Combined quality management and consolidated reporting
11process by the department and CMS.

12(8) Procedures related to combined federal and state contract
13management to ensure access, quality, program integrity, and
14financial solvency of the demonstration site.

15(9) To the extent permissible under federal requirements,
16implementation of the provisions of Sections 14182.16 and
1714182.17 that are applicable to beneficiaries simultaneously eligible
18for full-scope benefits under Medi-Cal and the Medicare Program.

19(10) (A) In consultation with the hospital industry, CMS
20approval to ensure that Medicare supplemental payments for direct
21graduate medical education and Medicare add-on payments,
22including indirect medical education and disproportionate share
23hospital adjustments continue to be made available to hospitals
24for services provided under the demonstration.

25(B) The department shall seek CMS approval for CMS to
26continue these payments either outside the capitation rates or, if
27contained within the capitation rates, and to the extent permitted
28under the demonstration project, shall require demonstration sites
29to provide this reimbursement to hospitals.

30(11) To the extent permitted under the demonstration project,
31the default rate for noncontracting providers of physician services
32shall be the prevailing Medicare fee schedule for services covered
33by the Medicare Program and the prevailing Medi-Cal fee schedule
34for services covered by the Medi-Cal program.

35(j) (1) The department shall comply with and enforce the terms
36and conditions of the memorandum of understanding with CMS,
37as specified in subdivision (i). To the extent that the terms and
38conditions do not address the specific selection, financing,
39monitoring, and evaluation criteria listed in subdivision (i), the
40department:

P508  1(A) Shall require the demonstration site to do all of the
2following:

3(i) Comply with additional site readiness criteria specified by
4the department.

5(ii) Comply with long-term services and support requirements
6in accordance with Article 5.7 (commencing with Section 14186).

7(iii) To the extent permissible under federal requirements,
8comply with the provisions of Sections 14182.16 and 14182.17
9that are applicable to beneficiaries simultaneously eligible for
10full-scope benefits under both Medi-Cal and the Medicare Program.

11(iv) Comply with all transition of care requirements for Medicare
12Part D benefits as described in Chapters 6 and 14 of the Medicare
13Managed Care Manual, published by CMS, including transition
14timeframes, notices, and emergency supplies.

15(B) May require the demonstration site to forgo charging
16premiums, coinsurance, copayments, and deductibles for Medicare
17Part C and Medicare Part D services.

18(2) The department shall notify the Legislature within 30 days
19of the implementation of each provision in paragraph (1).

20(k) The director may enter into exclusive or nonexclusive
21contracts on a bid or negotiated basis and may amend existing
22managed care contracts to provide or arrange for services provided
23under this section. Contracts entered into or amended pursuant to
24this section shall be exempt from the provisions of Chapter 2
25(commencing with Section 10290) of Part 2 of Division 2 of the
26Public Contract Code and Chapter 6 (commencing with Section
2714825) of Part 5.5 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government
28Code.

29(l) (1) (A) Except for the exemptions provided for in this
30section, the department shall enroll dual eligible beneficiaries into
31a demonstration site unless the beneficiary makes an affirmative
32choice to opt out of enrollment or is already enrolled on or before
33June 1, 2013, in a managed care organization licensed under the
34Knox-Keene Health Care Service Plan Act of 1975 (Chapter 2.2
35(commencing with Section 1340) of Division 2 of the Health and
36Safety Code) that has previously contracted with the department
37as a primary care case management plan pursuant to Article 2.9
38(commencing with Section 14088) to provide services to
39beneficiaries who are HIV positive or who have been diagnosed
P509  1with AIDS or in any entity with a contract with the department
2pursuant to Chapter 8.75 (commencing with Section 14591).

3(B) Dual eligible beneficiaries who opt out of enrollment into
4a demonstration site may choose to remain enrolled in
5fee-for-service Medicare or a Medicare Advantage plan for their
6Medicare benefits, but shall be mandatorily enrolled into a
7Medi-Cal managed care health plan pursuant to Section 14182.16,
8except as exempted under subdivision (c) of Section 14182.16.

9(C) (i) Persons meeting requirements for the Program of
10All-Inclusive Care for the Elderly (PACE) pursuant to Chapter
118.75 (commencing with Section 14591) or a managed care
12organization licensed under the Knox-Keene Health Care Service
13Plan Act of 1975 (Chapter 2.2 (commencing with Section 1340)
14of Division 2 of the Health and Safety Code) that has previously
15contracted with the department as a primary care case management
16plan pursuant to Article 2.9 (commencing with Section 14088) to
17provide services to beneficiaries who are HIV positive or who
18have been diagnosed with AIDS, may select either of these
19managed care health plans for their Medicare and Medi-Cal benefits
20if one is available in that county.

21(ii) In areas where a PACE plan is available, the PACE plan
22shall be presented as an enrollment option, included in all
23enrollment materials, enrollment assistance programs, and outreach
24programs related to the demonstration project, and made available
25to beneficiaries whenever enrollment choices and options are
26presented. Persons meeting the age qualifications for PACE and
27who choose PACE shall remain in the fee-for-service Medi-Cal
28and Medicare programs, and shall not be assigned to a managed
29care health plan for the lesser of 60 days or until they are assessed
30for eligibility for PACE and determined not to be eligible for a
31PACE plan. Persons enrolled in a PACE plan shall receive all
32Medicare and Medi-Cal services from the PACE program pursuant
33to the three-way agreement between the PACE program, the
34department, and the federal Centers for Medicare and Medicaid
35Services.

36(2) To the extent that federal approval is obtained, the
37department may require that any beneficiary, upon enrollment in
38a demonstration site, remain enrolled in the Medicare portion of
39the demonstration project on a mandatory basis for six months
40from the date of initial enrollment. After the sixth month, a dual
P510  1eligible beneficiary may elect to enroll in a different demonstration
2site, a different Medicare Advantage plan, fee-for-service Medicare,
3PACE, or a managed care organization licensed under the
4Knox-Keene Health Care Service Plan Act of 1975 (Chapter 2.2
5(commencing with Section 1340) of Division 2 of the Health and
6 Safety Code) that has previously contracted with the department
7as a primary care case management plan pursuant to Article 2.9
8(commencing with Section 14088) to provide services to
9beneficiaries who are HIV positive or who have been diagnosed
10with AIDS, for his or her Medicare benefits.

11(A) During the six-month mandatory enrollment in a
12demonstration site, a beneficiary may continue receiving services
13from an out-of-network Medicare provider for primary and
14specialty care services only if all of the following criteria are met:

15(i) The dual eligible beneficiary demonstrates an existing
16relationship with the provider prior to enrollment in a
17demonstration site.

18(ii) The provider is willing to accept payment from the
19demonstration site based on the current Medicare fee schedule.

20(iii) The demonstration site would not otherwise exclude the
21provider from its provider network due to documented quality of
22care concerns.

23(B) The department shall develop a process to inform providers
24and beneficiaries of the availability of continuity of services from
25an existing provider and ensure that the beneficiary continues to
26receive services without interruption.

27(3) (A) Notwithstanding subparagraph (A) of paragraph (1), a
28dual eligible beneficiary shall be excluded from enrollment in the
29 demonstration project if the beneficiary meets any of the following:

30(i) The beneficiary has a prior diagnosis of end-stage renal
31disease. This clause shall not apply to beneficiaries diagnosed with
32end-stage renal disease subsequent to enrollment in the
33demonstration project. The director may, with stakeholder input
34and federal approval, authorize beneficiaries with a prior diagnosis
35of end-stage renal disease in specified counties to voluntarily enroll
36in the demonstration project.

37(ii) The beneficiary has other health coverage, as defined in
38paragraph (4) of subdivision (b) of Section 14182.16.

39(iii) The beneficiary is enrolled in a home- and community-based
40waiver that is a Medi-Cal benefit under Section 1915(c) of the
P511  1federal Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. Sec. 1396n(c)), except for
2persons enrolled in Multipurpose Senior Services Program services.

3(iv) The beneficiary is receiving services through a regional
4center or state developmental center.

5(v) The beneficiary resides in a geographic area or ZIP Code
6not included in managed care, as determined by the department
7and CMS.

8(vi) The beneficiary resides in one of the Veterans’ Homes of
9California, as described in Chapter 1 (commencing with Section
101010) of Division 5 of the Military and Veterans Code.

11(B) (i) Beneficiaries who have been diagnosed with HIV/AIDS
12may opt out of the demonstration project at the beginning of any
13month. The State Department of Public Health may share relevant
14data relating to a beneficiary’s enrollment in the AIDS Drug
15Assistance Program with the department, and the department may
16share relevant data relating to HIV-positive beneficiaries with the
17State Department of Public Health.

18(ii) The information provided by the State Department of Public
19Health pursuant to this subparagraph shall not be further disclosed
20by the State Department of Health Care Services, and shall be
21subject to the confidentiality protections of subdivisions (d) and
22(e) of Section 121025 of the Health and Safety Code, except this
23information may be further disclosed as follows:

24(I) To the person to whom the information pertains or the
25designated representative of that person.

26(II) To the Office of AIDS within the State Department of Public
27Health.

28(C) Beneficiaries who are Indians receiving Medi-Cal services
29in accordance with Section 55110 of Title 22 of the California
30Code of Regulations may opt out of the demonstration project at
31the beginning of any month.

32(D) The department, with stakeholder input, may exempt specific
33categories of dual eligible beneficiaries from enrollment
34requirements in this section based on extraordinary medical needs
35of specific patient groups or to meet federal requirements.

36(4) For the 2013 calendar year, the department shall offer federal
37Medicare Improvements for Patients and Providers Act of 2008
38(Public Law 110-275) compliant contracts to existing Medicare
39Advantage Special Needs Plans (D-SNP plans) to continue to
40provide Medicare benefits to their enrollees in their service areas
P512  1as approved on January 1, 2012. In the 2013 calendar year,
2beneficiaries in Medicare Advantage and D-SNP plans shall be
3exempt from the enrollment provisions of subparagraph (A) of
4 paragraph (1), but may voluntarily choose to enroll in the
5demonstration project. Enrollment into the demonstration project’s
6managed care health plans shall be reassessed in 2014 depending
7on federal reauthorization of the D-SNP model and the
8department’s assessment of the demonstration plans.

9(5) For the 2013 calendar year, demonstration sites shall not
10offer to enroll dual eligible beneficiaries eligible for the
11demonstration project into the demonstration site’s D-SNP.

12(6) The department shall not terminate contracts in a
13demonstration site with a managed care organization licensed
14under the Knox-Keene Health Care Service Plan Act of 1975
15(Chapter 2.2 (commencing with Section 1340) of Division 2 of
16the Health and Safety Code) that has previously contracted with
17the department as a primary care case management plan pursuant
18to Article 2.9 (commencing with Section 14088) to provide services
19to beneficiaries who are HIV positive beneficiaries or who have
20been diagnosed with AIDS and with any entity with a contract
21pursuant to Chapter 8.75 (commencing with Section 14591), except
22as provided in the contract or pursuant to state or federal law.

23(m) Notwithstanding Section 10231.5 of the Government Code,
24the department shall conduct an evaluation, in partnership with
25CMS, to assess outcomes and the experience of dual eligibles in
26these demonstration sites and shall provide a report to the
27Legislature after the first full year of demonstration operation, and
28annually thereafter. A report submitted to the Legislature pursuant
29to this subdivision shall be submitted in compliance with Section
309795 of the Government Code. The department shall consult with
31stakeholders regarding the scope and structure of the evaluation.

32(n) This section shall be implemented only if and to the extent
33that federal financial participation or funding is available.

34(o) It is the intent of the Legislature that:

35(1) In order to maintain adequate provider networks,
36demonstration sites shall reimburse providers at rates sufficient to
37ensure access to care for beneficiaries.

38(2) Savings under the demonstration project are intended to be
39achieved through shifts in utilization, and not through reduced
40reimbursement rates to providers.

P513  1(3) Reimbursement policies shall not prevent demonstration
2sites and providers from entering into payment arrangements that
3allow for the alignment of financial incentives and provide
4opportunities for shared risk and shared savings in order to promote
5appropriate utilization shifts, which encourage the use of home-
6and community-based services and quality of care for dual eligible
7beneficiaries enrolled in the demonstration sites.

8(4) To the extent permitted under the demonstration project,
9and to the extent that a public entity voluntarily provides an
10intergovernmental transfer for this purpose, both of the following
11shall apply:

12(A) The department shall work with CMS in ensuring that the
13capitation rates under the demonstration project are inclusive of
14funding currently provided through certified public expenditures
15supplemental payment programs that would otherwise be impacted
16by the demonstration project.

17(B) Demonstration sites shall pay to a public entity voluntarily
18providing intergovernmental transfers that previously received
19reimbursement under a certified public expenditures supplemental
20payment program, rates that include the additional funding under
21the capitation rates that are funded by the public entity’s
22intergovernmental transfer.

23(5) The department shall work with CMS in developing other
24reimbursement policies and shall inform demonstration sites,
25providers, and the Legislature of the final policy guidance.

26(6) The department shall seek approval from CMS to permit
27the provider payment requirements contained in subparagraph (G)
28of paragraph (1) and paragraphs (10) and (11) of subdivision (i),
29and Section 14132.276.

30(7) Demonstration sites that contract with hospitals for hospital
31services on a fee-for-service basis that otherwise would have been
32traditionally Medicare services will achieve savings through
33utilization changes and not by paying hospitals at rates lower than
34prevailing Medicare fee-for-service rates.

35(p) The department shall enter into an interagency agreement
36with the Department of Managed Health Care to perform some or
37all of the department’s oversight and readiness review activities
38specified in this section. These activities may include providing
39consumer assistance to beneficiaries affected by this section and
40conducting financial audits, medical surveys, and a review of the
P514  1adequacy of provider networks of the managed care health plans
2participating in this section. The interagency agreement shall be
3updated, as necessary, on an annual basis in order to maintain
4functional clarity regarding the roles and responsibilities of the
5Department of Managed Health Care and the department. The
6department shall not delegate its authority under this section as
7the single state Medicaid agency to the Department of Managed
8Health Care.

9(q) (1) Beginning with the May Revision to the 2013-14
10Governor’s Budget, and annually thereafter, the department shall
11report to the Legislature on the enrollment status, quality measures,
12and state costs of the actions taken pursuant to this section.

13(2) (A) By January 1, 2013, or as soon thereafter as practicable,
14the department shall develop, in consultation with CMS and
15stakeholders, quality and fiscal measures for health plans to reflect
16the short- and long-term results of the implementation of this
17section. The department shall also develop quality thresholds and
18milestones for these measures. The department shall update these
19measures periodically to reflect changes in this program due to
20implementation factors and the structure and design of the benefits
21and services being coordinated by managed care health plans.

22(B) The department shall require health plans to submit
23Medicare and Medi-Cal data to determine the results of these
24measures. If the department finds that a health plan is not in
25compliance with one or more of the measures set forth in this
26section, the health plan shall, within 60 days, submit a corrective
27action plan to the department for approval. The corrective action
28plan shall, at a minimum, include steps that the health plan shall
29take to improve its performance based on the standard or standards
30with which the health plan is out of compliance. The plan shall
31establish interim benchmarks for improvement that shall be
32expected to be met by the health plan in order to avoid a sanction
33pursuant to Section 14304. Nothing in this subparagraph is intended
34to limit Section 14304.

35(C) The department shall publish the results of these measures,
36including via posting on the department’s Internet Web site, on a
37quarterly basis.

38(r) Notwithstanding Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section
3911340) of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code,
40the department may implement, interpret, or make specific this
P515  1section and any applicable federal waivers and state plan
2amendments by means of all-county letters, plan letters, plan or
3provider bulletins, or similar instructions, without taking regulatory
4action. Prior to issuing any letter or similar instrument authorized
5pursuant to this section, the department shall notify and consult
6with stakeholders, including advocates, providers, and
7beneficiaries. The department shall notify the appropriate policy
8and fiscal committees of the Legislature of its intent to issue
9instructions under this section at least five days in advance of the
10issuance.

11

SEC. 219.  

Section 14132.276 of the Welfare and Institutions
12Code
is amended to read:

13

14132.276.  

For nursing facility services provided under the
14demonstration project as established in Section 14132.275, to the
15extent these provisions are authorized under the memorandum of
16understanding specified in subdivision (j) of Section 14132.275,
17the following shall apply:

18(a) The demonstration site shall not combine the rates of
19payment for post-acute skilled and rehabilitation care provided by
20a nursing facility and long-term and chronic care provided by a
21nursing facility in order to establish a single payment rate for dual
22eligible beneficiaries requiring skilled nursing services.

23(b) The demonstration site shall pay nursing facilities providing
24post-acute skilled and rehabilitation care or long-term and chronic
25care rates that reflect the different level of services and intensity
26required to provide these services.

27(c) For the purposes of determining the appropriate rate for the
28type of care identified in subdivision (b), the demonstration site
29shall pay no less than the recognized rates under Medicare and
30Medi-Cal for these service types.

31(d) With respect to services under this section, the demonstration
32site shall not offer, and the nursing facility shall not accept, any
33discounts, rebates, or refunds as compensation or inducements for
34the referral of patients or residents.

35(e) It is the intent of the Legislature that savings under the
36demonstration project be achieved through shifts in utilization,
37and not through reduced reimbursement rates to providers.

38(f) In order to encourage quality improvement and promote
39appropriate utilization incentives, including reduced
40rehospitalization and shorter lengths of stay, for nursing facilities
P516  1providing the services under this section, the demonstration sites
2may do any of the following:

3(1) Utilize incentive or bonus payment programs that are in
4addition to the rates identified in subdivisions (b) and (c).

5(2) Opt to direct beneficiaries to facilities that demonstrate better
6performance on quality or appropriate utilization factors.

7

SEC. 220.  

Section 14169.32 of the Welfare and Institutions
8Code
is amended to read:

9

14169.32.  

(a) There shall be imposed on each general acute
10care hospital that is not an exempt facility a quality assurance fee,
11provided that a quality assurance fee under this article shall not be
12imposed on a converted hospital.

13(b) The quality assurance fee shall be computed starting on July
141, 2011, and continue through and including December 31, 2013.

15(c) Subject to Section 14169.34, upon receipt of federal
16approval, the following shall become operative:

17(1) Within 10 business days following receipt of the notice of
18federal approval from the federal government, the department shall
19send notice to each hospital subject to the quality assurance fee,
20and publish on its Internet Web site, the following information:

21(A) The date that the state received notice of federal approval.

22(B) The fee percentage for each subject fiscal year.

23(2) The notice to each hospital subject to the quality assurance
24fee shall also state the following:

25(A) The aggregate quality assurance fee after the application of
26the fee percentage for each subject fiscal year.

27(B) The aggregate quality assurance fee.

28(C) The amount of each payment due from the hospital with
29respect to the aggregate quality assurance fee.

30(D) The date on which each payment is due.

31(3) The hospitals shall pay the aggregate quality assurance fee
32after application of the fee percentage for all subject fiscal years
33in 10 installments. The department shall establish the date that
34each installment is due, provided that the first installment shall be
35due no earlier than 20 days following the department sending the
36notice pursuant to paragraph (1), and the installments shall be paid
37at least one month apart, but if possible, the installments shall be
38paid on a quarterly basis.

39(4) Notwithstanding any other provision of this section, the
40amount of each hospital’s aggregate quality assurance fee after
P517  1the application of the fee percentage for each subject fiscal year
2that has not been paid by the hospital before December 15, 2013,
3pursuant to paragraphs (3) and (8), shall be paid by the hospital
4no later than December 15, 2013.

5(5) (A) Notwithstanding subdivision (l) of Section 14169.31,
6for the purpose of determining the installments under paragraph
7(3), the department shall use an interim fee percentage as follows:

8(i) One hundred percent for subject fiscal year 2011-12 until
9the federal government has approved or disapproved additional
10capitation payments described in Section 14169.5 for that subject
11fiscal year.

12(ii) One hundred percent for subject fiscal year 2012-13 until
13the federal government has approved or disapproved additional
14capitation payments described in Section 14169.5 for that subject
15fiscal year.

16(iii) Fifty percent for subject fiscal year 2013-14 until the federal
17government has approved or disapproved additional capitation
18payments described in Section 14169.5 for that subject fiscal year.

19(B) The director may use a lower interim fee percentage for
20each subject fiscal year under this paragraph as the director, in his
21or her discretion, determines is reasonable in order to generate
22sufficient but not excessive installment payments to make the
23payments described in subdivision (b) of Section 14169.33.

24(6) The director shall determine the final fee percentage for each
25subject fiscal year within 15 days of the approval or disapproval,
26in whole or in part, by the federal government of all changes to
27the capitation rates of managed health care plans requested by the
28department to implement Section 14169.5 for that subject fiscal
29year, but in no event later than December 1, 2013. At the time the
30director determines the final fee percentage for a subject fiscal
31year, the director shall also determine the amount of future
32installment payments of the quality assurance fee for each hospital
33subject to the fee, if any are due. The amount of each future
34installment payment shall be established by the director with the
35objective that the total of the installment payments of the quality
36assurance fee due from a hospital shall equal the director’s estimate
37for each subject fiscal year for the hospital of the aggregate quality
38assurance fee after the application of the fee percentage.

39(7) The director, within 15 days of determining the final fee
40percentage for a subject fiscal year pursuant to paragraph (6), shall
P518  1send notice to each hospital subject to the quality assurance fee of
2the following information:

3(A) The final fee percentage for each subject fiscal year for
4which the final fee percentage has been determined.

5(B) The fee percentage determined under paragraph (5) for each
6subject fiscal year for which the final fee percentage has not been
7determined.

8(C) The aggregate quality assurance fee after application of the
9fee percentage for each subject fiscal year.

10(D) The director’s estimate of total quality assurance fee
11payments due from the hospital under this article whether or not
12paid. This amount shall be the sum of the aggregate quality
13assurance fee after application of the fee percentage for each
14subject fiscal year using the fee percentages contained in the notice.

15(E) The total quality assurance fee payments that the hospital
16has made under this article.

17(F) The amount, if any, by which the total quality assurance fee
18payments due from the hospital under this article as described in
19subparagraph (C) exceed the total quality assurance fee payments
20that the hospital has made under this article.

21(G) The amount of each remaining installment of the quality
22assurance fee, if any, due from the hospital and the date each
23installment is due. This amount shall be the amount described in
24subparagraph (F) divided by the number of installment payments
25remaining.

26(8) Each hospital that is sent a notice under paragraph (7) shall
27pay the additional installments of the quality assurance fee that
28are due, if any, in the amounts and at the times set forth in the
29notice unless superseded by a subsequent notice from the
30department.

31(9) The department shall refund to a hospital paying the quality
32assurance fee the amount, if any, by which the total quality
33assurance fee payments that the hospital has made under this article
34for all subject fiscal years exceed the total quality assurance fee
35payments due from the hospital under this article within 30 days
36of the date on which the notice is sent to the hospital under
37paragraph (7).

38(d) The quality assurance fee, as paid pursuant to this section,
39shall be paid by each hospital subject to the fee to the department
40for deposit in the Hospital Quality Assurance Revenue Fund.
P519  1Deposits may be accepted at any time and will be credited toward
2the program period.

3(e) This section shall become inoperative if the federal Centers
4for Medicare and Medicaid Services denies approval for, or does
5not approve before July 1, 2014, the implementation of the quality
6assurance fee pursuant to this article or the supplemental payments
7to private hospitals described in Sections 14169.2 and 14169.3,
8and either or both provisions cannot be modified by the department
9pursuant to subdivision (d) of Section 14169.33 in order to meet
10the requirements of federal law or to obtain federal approval.

11(f) In no case shall the aggregate fees collected in a federal fiscal
12year pursuant to this section and Sections 14167.32 and 14168.32
13exceed the maximum percentage of the annual aggregate net patient
14revenue for hospitals subject to the fee that is prescribed pursuant
15to federal law and regulations as necessary to preclude a finding
16that an indirect guarantee has been created.

17(g) (1) Interest shall be assessed on quality assurance fees not
18paid on the date due at the greater of 10 percent per annum or the
19rate at which the department assesses interest on Medi-Cal program
20overpayments to hospitals that are not repaid when due. Interest
21shall begin to accrue the day after the date the payment was due
22and shall be deposited in the Hospital Quality Assurance Revenue
23Fund.

24(2) In the event that any fee payment is more than 60 days
25overdue, a penalty equal to the interest charge described in
26paragraph (1) shall be assessed and due for each month for which
27the payment is not received after 60 days.

28(h) When a hospital fails to pay all or part of the quality
29assurance fee on or before the date that payment is due, the
30department may immediately begin to deduct the unpaid assessment
31and interest from any Medi-Cal payments owed to the hospital,
32or, in accordance with Section 12419.5 of the Government Code,
33from any other state payments owed to the hospital until the full
34amount is recovered. All amounts, except penalties, deducted by
35the department under this subdivision shall be deposited in the
36Hospital Quality Assurance Revenue Fund. The remedy provided
37to the department by this section is in addition to other remedies
38available under law.

P520  1(i) The payment of the quality assurance fee shall not be
2considered as an allowable cost for Medi-Cal cost reporting and
3reimbursement purposes.

4(j) The department shall work in consultation with the hospital
5community to implement this article and Article 5.228
6(commencing with Section 14169.1).

7(k) This subdivision creates a contractually enforceable promise
8on behalf of the state to use the proceeds of the quality assurance
9fee, including any federal matching funds, solely and exclusively
10for the purposes set forth in this article as they existed on
11September 16, 2011, to limit the amount of the proceeds of the
12quality assurance fee to be used to pay for the health care coverage
13of children to the amounts specified in this article, to limit any
14 payments for the department’s costs of administration to the
15amounts set forth in this article on September 16, 2011, to maintain
16and continue prior reimbursement levels as set forth in Section
1714169.12 on September 16, 2011, and to otherwise comply with
18all its obligations set forth in Article 5.228 (commencing with
19Section 14169.1) and this article provided that amendments that
20arise from, or have as a basis, a decision, advice, or determination
21by the federal Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services relating
22to federal approval of the quality assurance fee or the payments
23set forth in this article or Article 5.228 (commencing with Section
2414169.1) shall control for the purposes of this subdivision.

25(l) (1) Effective January 1, 2014, the rates payable to hospitals
26and managed health care plans under Medi-Cal shall be the rates
27then payable without the supplemental and increased capitation
28payments set forth in Article 5.228 (commencing with Section
2914169.1).

30(2) The supplemental payments and other payments under
31Article 5.228 (commencing with Section 14169.1) shall be regarded
32as quality assurance payments, the implementation or suspension
33of which does not affect a determination of the adequacy of any
34rates under federal law.

35(m) (1) Subject to paragraph (2), the director may waive any
36or all interest and penalties assessed under this article in the event
37that the director determines, in his or her sole discretion, that the
38hospital has demonstrated that imposition of the full quality
39assurance fee on the timelines applicable under this article has a
40high likelihood of creating a financial hardship for the hospital or
P521  1a significant danger of reducing the provision of needed health
2care services.

3(2) Waiver of some or all of the interest or penalties under this
4subdivision shall be conditioned on the hospital’s agreement to
5make fee payments, or to have the payments withheld from
6payments otherwise due from the Medi-Cal program to the hospital,
7on a schedule developed by the department that takes into account
8the financial situation of the hospital and the potential impact on
9services.

10(3) A decision by the director under this subdivision is not
11subject to judicial review.

12(4) If fee payments are remitted to the department after the date
13determined by the department to be the final date for calculating
14the final supplemental payments under this article and Article
155.228 (commencing with Section 14169.1), the fee payments shall
16be retained in the fund for purposes of funding supplemental
17payments supported by a hospital quality assurance fee program
18implemented under subsequent legislation, provided, however,
19that if supplemental payments are not implemented under
20subsequent legislation, then those fee payments shall be deposited
21in the Distressed Hospital Fund.

22(5) If during the implementation of this article, fee payments
23that were due under Article 5.21 (commencing with Section
2414167.1) and Article 5.22 (commencing with Section 14167.31),
25or Article 5.227 (commencing with Section 14168.31), are remitted
26to the department under a payment plan or for any other reason,
27and the final date for calculating the final supplemental payments
28under those articles has passed, those fee payments shall be
29deposited in the fund to support the uses established by this article.

30

SEC. 221.  

Section 14182 of the Welfare and Institutions Code
31 is amended to read:

32

14182.  

(a) (1) In furtherance of the waiver or demonstration
33project developed pursuant to Section 14180, the department may
34require seniors and persons with disabilities who do not have other
35health coverage to be assigned as mandatory enrollees into new
36or existing managed care health plans. To the extent that enrollment
37is required by the department, an enrollee’s access to
38fee-for-service Medi-Cal shall not be terminated until the enrollee
39has been assigned to a managed care health plan.

40(2) For purposes of this section:

P522  1(A) “Other health coverage” means health coverage providing
2the same full or partial benefits as the Medi-Cal program, health
3coverage under another state or federal medical care program, or
4health coverage under contractual or legal entitlement, including,
5but not limited to, a private group or indemnification insurance
6program.

7(B) “Managed care health plan” means an individual,
8organization, or entity that enters into a contract with the
9department pursuant to Article 2.7 (commencing with Section
1014087.3), Article 2.81 (commencing with Section 14087.96),
11Article 2.91 (commencing with Section 14089), or Chapter 8
12(commencing with Section 14200).

13(b) In exercising its authority pursuant to subdivision (a), the
14department shall do all of the following:

15(1) Assess and ensure the readiness of the managed care health
16plans to address the unique needs of seniors or persons with
17disabilities pursuant to the applicable readiness evaluation criteria
18and requirements set forth in paragraphs (1) to (8), inclusive, of
19subdivision (b) of Section 14087.48.

20(2) Ensure the managed care health plans provide access to
21providers that comply with applicable state and federal laws,
22including, but not limited to, physical accessibility and the
23provision of health plan information in alternative formats.

24(3) Develop and implement an outreach and education program
25for seniors and persons with disabilities, not currently enrolled in
26Medi-Cal managed care, to inform them of their enrollment options
27and rights under the demonstration project. Contingent upon
28available private or public dollars other than moneys from the
29General Fund, the department or its designated agent for enrollment
30and outreach may partner or contract with community-based,
31nonprofit consumer or health insurance assistance organizations
32with expertise and experience in assisting seniors and persons with
33disabilities in understanding their health care coverage options.
34Contracts entered into or amended pursuant to this paragraph shall
35be exempt from Chapter 2 (commencing with Section 10290) of
36Part 2 of Division 2 of the Public Contract Code and any
37implementing regulations or policy directives.

38(4) At least three months prior to enrollment, inform
39beneficiaries who are seniors or persons with disabilities, through
40a notice written at no more than a sixth grade reading level, about
P523  1the forthcoming changes to their delivery of care, including, at a
2minimum, how their system of care will change, when the changes
3will occur, and who they can contact for assistance with choosing
4a delivery system or with problems they encounter. In developing
5this notice, the department shall consult with consumer
6representatives and other stakeholders.

7(5) Implement an appropriate cultural awareness and sensitivity
8training program regarding serving seniors and persons with
9disabilities for managed care health plans and plan providers and
10staff in the Medi-Cal Managed Care Division of the department.

11(6) Establish a process for assigning enrollees into an organized
12delivery system for beneficiaries who do not make an affirmative
13selection of a managed care health plan. The department shall
14develop this process in consultation with stakeholders and in a
15manner consistent with the waiver or demonstration project
16developed pursuant to Section 14180. The department shall base
17plan assignment on an enrollee’s existing or recent utilization of
18providers, to the extent possible. If the department is unable to
19make an assignment based on the enrollee’s affirmative selection
20or utilization history, the department shall base plan assignment
21on factors, including, but not limited to, plan quality and the
22inclusion of local health care safety net system providers in the
23plan’s provider network.

24(7) Review and approve the mechanism or algorithm that has
25been developed by the managed care health plan, in consultation
26with their stakeholders and consumers, to identify, within the
27earliest possible timeframe, persons with higher risk and more
28complex health care needs pursuant to paragraph (11) of
29subdivision (c).

30(8) Provide managed care health plans with historical utilization
31data for beneficiaries upon enrollment in a managed care health
32plan so that the plans participating in the demonstration project
33are better able to assist beneficiaries and prioritize assessment and
34care planning.

35(9) Develop and provide managed care health plans participating
36in the demonstration project with a facility site review tool for use
37in assessing the physical accessibility of providers, including
38specialists and ancillary service providers that provide care to a
39high volume of seniors and persons with disabilities, at a clinic or
40provider site, to ensure that there are sufficient physically
P524  1accessible providers. Every managed care health plan participating
2in the demonstration project shall make the results of the facility
3site review tool publicly available on their Internet Web site and
4shall regularly update the results to the department’s satisfaction.

5(10) Develop a process to enforce legal sanctions, including,
6but not limited to, financial penalties, withholding of Medi-Cal
7payments, enrollment termination, and contract termination, in
8order to sanction any managed care health plan in the
9demonstration project that consistently or repeatedly fails to meet
10performance standards provided in statute or contract.

11(11) Ensure that managed care health plans provide a mechanism
12for enrollees to request a specialist or clinic as a primary care
13provider. A specialist or clinic may serve as a primary care provider
14if the specialist or clinic agrees to serve in a primary care provider
15role and is qualified to treat the required range of conditions of the
16enrollee.

17(12) Ensure that managed care health plans participating in the
18demonstration project are able to provide communication access
19to seniors and persons with disabilities in alternative formats or
20through other methods that ensure communication, including
21assistive listening systems, sign language interpreters, captioning,
22written communication, plain language, or written translations and
23oral interpreters, including for those who are limited
24English-proficient, or non-English speaking, and that all managed
25care health plans are in compliance with applicable cultural and
26linguistic requirements.

27(13) Ensure that managed care health plans participating in the
28demonstration project provide access to out-of-network providers
29for new individual members enrolled under this section who have
30an ongoing relationship with a provider if the provider will accept
31the health plan’s rate for the service offered, or the applicable
32Medi-Cal fee-for-service rate, whichever is higher, and the health
33plan determines that the provider meets applicable professional
34standards and has no disqualifying quality of care issues.

35(14) Ensure that managed care health plans participating in the
36demonstration project comply with continuity of care requirements
37in Section 1373.96 of the Health and Safety Code.

38(15) Ensure that the medical exemption criteria applied in
39counties operating under Chapter 4.1 (commencing with Section
4053800) or Chapter 4.5 (commencing with Section 53900) of
P525  1Subdivision 1 of Division 3 of Title 22 of the California Code of
2Regulations are applied to seniors and persons with disabilities
3served under this section.

4(16) Ensure that managed care health plans participating in the
5demonstration project take into account the behavioral health needs
6of enrollees and include behavioral health services as part of the
7enrollee’s care management plan when appropriate.

8(17) Develop performance measures that are required as part
9of the contract to provide quality indicators for the Medi-Cal
10population enrolled in a managed care health plan and for the
11subset of enrollees who are seniors and persons with disabilities.
12These performance measures may include measures from the
13Healthcare Effectiveness Data and Information Set (HEDIS) or
14measures indicative of performance in serving special needs
15 populations, such as the National Committee for Quality Assurance
16(NCQA) Structure and Process measures, or both.

17(18) Conduct medical audit reviews of participating managed
18care health plans that include elements specifically related to the
19care of seniors and persons with disabilities. These medical audits
20shall include, but not be limited to, evaluation of the delivery
21model’s policies and procedures, performance in utilization
22management, continuity of care, availability and accessibility,
23member rights, and quality management.

24(19) Conduct financial audit reviews to ensure that a financial
25statement audit is performed on managed care health plans annually
26pursuant to the Generally Accepted Auditing Standards, and
27conduct other risk-based audits for the purpose of detecting fraud
28and irregular transactions.

29(20) Ensure that managed care health plans maintain a dedicated
30liaison to coordinate with the department, affected providers, and
31new individual members for all of the following purposes:

32(A) To ensure a mechanism for new members to obtain
33continuity of care as described in paragraph (13).

34(B) To receive notice, including that a new member has been
35denied a medical exemption as described in paragraph (15), which
36is required to include the name or names of the requesting provider,
37and ensure that the provider’s ability to treat the member is
38continued as described in paragraphs (11) and (13), if applicable,
39or, if not applicable, ensure the member is immediately referred
40to a qualified provider or specialty care center.

P526  1(C) To assist new members in maintaining an ongoing
2relationship with a specialist or specialty care center when the
3specialist is contracting with the plan and the assigned primary
4care provider has approved a standing referral pursuant to Section
51374.16 of the Health and Safety Code.

6(21) Ensure that written notice is provided to the beneficiary
7and the requesting provider if a request for exemption from plan
8enrollment is denied. The notice shall set out with specificity the
9reasons for the denial or failure to unconditionally approve the
10request for exemption from plan enrollment. The notice shall
11inform the beneficiary and the provider of the right to appeal the
12decision, how to appeal the decision, and if the decision is not
13appealed, that the beneficiary shall enroll in a Medi-Cal plan and
14how that enrollment shall occur. The notice shall also include
15information of the possibility of continued access to an
16out-of-network provider pursuant to paragraph (13). A beneficiary
17who has not been enrolled in a plan shall remain in fee-for-service
18Medi-Cal if a request for an exemption from plan enrollment or
19appeal is submitted, until the final resolution. The department shall
20also require the plans to ensure that these beneficiaries receive
21continuity of care.

22(22) Develop a process to track a beneficiary who has been
23denied a request for exemption from plan enrollment and to notify
24the plan, if applicable, of the denial, including information
25identifying the provider. Notwithstanding paragraph (12) of
26subdivision (c), the plan shall immediately refer the beneficiary
27for a risk assessment survey and an individual care plan shall be
28developed within 10 days, including authorization for 30 days of
29continuity of prescription drugs.

30(c) Prior to exercising its authority under this section and Section
3114180, the department shall ensure that each managed care health
32plan participating in the demonstration project is able to do all of
33the following:

34(1) Comply with the applicable readiness evaluation criteria
35and requirements set forth in paragraphs (1) to (8), inclusive, of
36subdivision (b) of Section 14087.48.

37(2) Ensure and monitor an appropriate provider network,
38including primary care physicians, specialists, professional, allied,
39and medical supportive personnel, and an adequate number of
40accessible facilities within each service area. Managed care health
P527  1plans shall maintain an updated, accurate, and accessible listing
2of a provider’s ability to accept new patients and shall make it
3available to enrollees, at a minimum, by phone, written material,
4and Internet Web site.

5(3) Assess the health care needs of beneficiaries who are seniors
6or persons with disabilities and coordinate their care across all
7settings, including coordination of necessary services within and,
8where necessary, outside of the plan’s provider network.

9(4) Ensure that the provider network and informational materials
10meet the linguistic and other special needs of seniors and persons
11with disabilities, including providing information in an
12understandable manner in plain language, maintaining toll-free
13telephone lines, and offering member or ombudsperson services.

14(5) Provide clear, timely, and fair processes for accepting and
15acting upon complaints, grievances, and disenrollment requests,
16including procedures for appealing decisions regarding coverage
17or benefits. Each managed care health plan participating in the
18demonstration project shall have a grievance process that complies
19with Section 14450, and Sections 1368 and 1368.01 of the Health
20and Safety Code.

21(6) Solicit stakeholder and member participation in advisory
22groups for the planning and development activities related to the
23provision of services for seniors and persons with disabilities.

24(7) Contract with safety net and traditional providers as defined
25in subdivisions (hh) and (jj) of Section 53810, of Title 22 of the
26California Code of Regulations, to ensure access to care and
27services. The managed care health plan shall establish participation
28standards to ensure participation and broad representation of
29traditional and safety net providers within a service area.

30(8) Inform seniors and persons with disabilities of procedures
31for obtaining transportation services to service sites that are offered
32by the plan or are available through the Medi-Cal program.

33(9) Monitor the quality and appropriateness of care for children
34with special health care needs, including children eligible for, or
35enrolled in, the California Children’s Services Program, and seniors
36and persons with disabilities.

37(10) Maintain a dedicated liaison to coordinate with each
38regional center operating within the plan’s service area to assist
39members with developmental disabilities in understanding and
P528  1accessing services and act as a central point of contact for
2questions, access and care concerns, and problem resolution.

3(11) At the time of enrollment apply the risk stratification
4mechanism or algorithm described in paragraph (7) of subdivision
5(b) approved by the department to determine the health risk level
6of beneficiaries.

7(12) (A) Managed care health plans shall assess an enrollee’s
8current health risk by administering a risk assessment survey tool
9approved by the department. This risk assessment survey shall be
10performed within the following timeframes:

11(i) Within 45 days of plan enrollment for individuals determined
12to be at higher risk pursuant to paragraph (11).

13(ii) Within 105 days of plan enrollment for individuals
14determined to be at lower risk pursuant to paragraph (11).

15(B) Based on the results of the current health risk assessment,
16managed care health plans shall develop individual care plans for
17higher risk beneficiaries that shall include the following minimum
18components:

19(i) Identification of medical care needs, including primary care,
20specialty care, durable medical equipment, medications, and other
21needs with a plan for care coordination as needed.

22(ii) Identification of needs and referral to appropriate community
23resources and other agencies as needed for services outside the
24scope of responsibility of the managed care health plan.

25(iii) Appropriate involvement of caregivers.

26(iv) Determination of timeframes for reassessment and, if
27necessary, circumstances or conditions that require redetermination
28of risk level.

29(13) (A) Establish medical homes to which enrollees are
30assigned that include, at a minimum, all of the following elements,
31which shall be considered in the provider contracting process:

32(i) A primary care physician who is the primary clinician for
33the beneficiary and who provides core clinical management
34functions.

35(ii) Care management and care coordination for the beneficiary
36across the health care system including transitions among levels
37of care.

38(iii) Provision of referrals to qualified professionals, community
39resources, or other agencies for services or items outside the scope
40of responsibility of the managed care health plan.

P529  1(iv) Use of clinical data to identify beneficiaries at the care site
2with chronic illness or other significant health issues.

3(v) Timely preventive, acute, and chronic illness treatment in
4the appropriate setting.

5(vi) Use of clinical guidelines or other evidence-based medicine
6when applicable for treatment of beneficiaries’ health care issues
7or timing of clinical preventive services.

8(B) In implementing this section, and the Special Terms and
9Conditions of the demonstration project, the department may alter
10the medical home elements described in this paragraph as necessary
11to secure the increased federal financial participation associated
12with the provision of medical assistance in conjunction with a
13health home, as made available under the federal Patient Protection
14and Affordable Care Act (Public Law 111-148), as amended by
15the federal Health Care and Education Reconciliation Act of 2010
16(Public Law 111-152), and codified in Section 1945 of Title XIX
17of the federal Social Security Act. The department shall notify the
18appropriate policy and fiscal committees of the Legislature of its
19intent to alter medical home elements under this section at least
20five days in advance of taking this action.

21(14) Perform, at a minimum, the following care management
22and care coordination functions and activities for enrollees who
23are seniors or persons with disabilities:

24(A) Assessment of each new enrollee’s risk level and health
25needs shall be conducted through a standardized risk assessment
26survey by means such as telephonic, Web-based, or in-person
27communication or by other means as determined by the department.

28(B) Facilitation of timely access to primary care, specialty care,
29durable medical equipment, medications, and other health services
30needed by the enrollee, including referrals to address any physical
31or cognitive barriers to access.

32(C) Active referral to community resources or other agencies
33for needed services or items outside the managed care health plans
34responsibilities.

35(D) Facilitating communication among the beneficiaries’ health
36care providers, including mental health and substance abuse
37providers when appropriate.

38(E) Other activities or services needed to assist beneficiaries in
39optimizing their health status, including assisting with
P530  1self-management skills or techniques, health education, and other
2modalities to improve health status.

3(d) Except in a county where Medi-Cal services are provided
4by a county-organized health system, and notwithstanding any
5other provision of law, in any county in which fewer than two
6existing managed care health plans contract with the department
7to provide Medi-Cal services under this chapter, the department
8may contract with additional managed care health plans to provide
9Medi-Cal services for seniors and persons with disabilities and
10other Medi-Cal beneficiaries.

11(e) Beneficiaries enrolled in managed care health plans pursuant
12to this section shall have the choice to continue an established
13patient-provider relationship in a managed care health plan
14participating in the demonstration project if his or her treating
15provider is a primary care provider or clinic contracting with the
16managed care health plan and agrees to continue to treat that
17beneficiary.

18(f) The department may contract with existing managed care
19health plans to operate under the demonstration project to provide
20or arrange for services under this section. Notwithstanding any
21other provision of law, the department may enter into the contract
22without the need for a competitive bid process or other contract
23proposal process, provided the managed care health plan provides
24written documentation that it meets all qualifications and
25requirements of this section.

26(g) This section shall be implemented only to the extent that
27federal financial participation is available.

28(h) (1) The development of capitation rates for managed care
29health plan contracts shall include the analysis of data specific to
30the seniors and persons with disabilities population. For the
31purposes of developing capitation rates for payments to managed
32care health plans, the director may require managed care health
33plans, including existing managed care health plans, to submit
34financial and utilization data in a form, time, and substance as
35deemed necessary by the department.

36(2) (A) Notwithstanding Section 14301, the department may
37incorporate, on a one-time basis for a three-year period, a
38risk-sharing mechanism in a contract with the local initiative health
39plan in the county with the highest normalized fee-for-service risk
40score over the normalized managed care risk score listed in Table
P531  11.0 of the Medi-Cal Acuity Study Seniors and Persons with
2Disabilities (SPD) report written by Mercer Government Human
3Services Consulting and dated September 28, 2010, if the local
4initiative health plan meets the requirements of subparagraph (B).
5The Legislature finds and declares that this risk-sharing mechanism
6will limit the risk of beneficial or adverse effects associated with
7a contract to furnish services pursuant to this section on an at-risk
8basis.

9(B) The local initiative health plan shall pay the nonfederal
10share of all costs associated with the development, implementation,
11and monitoring of the risk-sharing mechanism established pursuant
12to subparagraph (A) by means of intergovernmental transfers. The
13nonfederal share includes the state costs of staffing, state
14contractors, or administrative costs directly attributable to
15implementing subparagraph (A).

16(C) This subdivision shall be implemented only to the extent
17federal financial participation is not jeopardized.

18(i) Persons meeting participation requirements for the Program
19of All-Inclusive Care for the Elderly (PACE) pursuant to Chapter
208.75 (commencing with Section 14591), may select a PACE plan
21if one is available in that county.

22(j) Persons meeting the participation requirements in effect on
23January 1, 2010, for a Medi-Cal primary care case management
24(PCCM) plan in operation on that date, may select that PCCM
25plan or a successor health care plan that is licensed pursuant to the
26Knox-Keene Health Care Service Plan Act of 1975 (Chapter 2.2
27(commencing with Section 1340) of Division 2 of the Health and
28Safety Code) to provide services within the same geographic area
29 that the PCCM plan served on January 1, 2010.

30(k) Notwithstanding Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section
3111340) of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code,
32the department may implement, interpret, or make specific this
33section and any applicable federal waivers and state plan
34amendments by means of all-county letters, plan letters, plan or
35provider bulletins, or similar instructions, without taking regulatory
36action. Prior to issuing any letter or similar instrument authorized
37pursuant to this section, the department shall notify and consult
38with stakeholders, including advocates, providers, and
39beneficiaries. The department shall notify the appropriate policy
40and fiscal committees of the Legislature of its intent to issue
P532  1instructions under this section at least five days in advance of the
2issuance.

3(l) Consistent with state law that exempts Medi-Cal managed
4care contracts from Chapter 2 (commencing with Section 10290)
5of Part 2 of Division 2 of the Public Contract Code, and in order
6to achieve maximum cost savings, the Legislature hereby
7determines that an expedited contract process is necessary for
8contracts entered into or amended pursuant to this section. The
9contracts and amendments entered into or amended pursuant to
10this section shall be exempt from Chapter 2 (commencing with
11Section 10290) of Part 2 of Division 2 of the Public Contract Code
12and the requirements of State Administrative Management Manual
13Memo 03-10. The department shall make the terms of a contract
14available to the public within 30 days of the contract’s effective
15date.

16(m) In the event of a conflict between the Special Terms and
17Conditions of the approved demonstration project, including any
18attachment thereto, and any provision of this part, the Special
19Terms and Conditions shall control. If the department identifies a
20specific provision of this article that conflicts with a term or
21condition of the approved waiver or demonstration project, or an
22attachment thereto, the term or condition shall control, and the
23department shall so notify the appropriate fiscal and policy
24committees of the Legislature within 15 business days.

25(n) In the event of a conflict between the provisions of this
26article and any other provision of this part, the provisions of this
27article shall control.

28(o) Any otherwise applicable provisions of this chapter, Chapter
298 (commencing with Section 14200), or Chapter 8.75 (commencing
30with Section 14591) not in conflict with this article or with the
31terms and conditions of the demonstration project shall apply to
32this section.

33(p) To the extent that the director utilizes state plan amendments
34or waivers to accomplish the purposes of this article in addition
35to waivers granted under the demonstration project, the terms of
36the state plan amendments or waivers shall control in the event of
37a conflict with any provision of this part.

38(q) (1) Enrollment of seniors and persons with disabilities into
39a managed care health plan under this section shall be accomplished
40using a phased-in process to be determined by the department and
P533  1shall not commence until necessary federal approvals have been
2acquired or until June 1, 2011, whichever is later.

3(2) Notwithstanding paragraph (1), and at the director’s
4discretion, enrollment in Los Angeles County of seniors and
5persons with disabilities may be phased-in over a 12-month period
6using a geographic region method that is proposed by Los Angeles
7County subject to approval by the department.

8(r) A managed care health plan established pursuant to this
9section, or under the Special Terms and Conditions of the
10demonstration project pursuant to Section 14180, shall be subject
11to, and comply with, the requirement for submission of encounter
12data specified in Section 14182.1.

13(s) (1) Commencing January 1, 2011, and until January 1, 2014,
14the department shall provide the fiscal and policy committees of
15the Legislature with semiannual updates regarding core activities
16for the enrollment of seniors and persons with disabilities into
17managed care health plans pursuant to the pilot program. The
18semiannual updates shall include key milestones, progress toward
19the objectives of the pilot program, relevant or necessary changes
20to the program, submittal of state plan amendments to the federal
21Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services, submittal of any
22federal waiver documents, and other key activities related to the
23mandatory enrollment of seniors and persons with disabilities into
24managed care health plans. The department shall also include
25updates on the transition of individuals into managed care health
26plans, the health outcomes of enrollees, the care management and
27coordination process, and other information concerning the success
28or overall status of the pilot program.

29(2) (A) The requirement for submitting a report imposed under
30paragraph (1) is inoperative on January 1, 2015, pursuant to Section
3110231.5 of the Government Code.

32(B) A report to be submitted pursuant to paragraph (1) shall be
33submitted in compliance with Section 9795 of the Government
34Code.

35(t) The department, in collaboration with the State Department
36of Social Services and county welfare departments, shall monitor
37the utilization and caseload of the In-Home Supportive Services
38(IHSS) program before and during the implementation of the pilot
39program. This information shall be monitored in order to identify
P534  1the impact of the pilot program on the IHSS program for the
2affected population.

3(u) Services under Section 14132.95 or 14132.952, or Article
47 (commencing with Section 12300) of Chapter 3 that are provided
5to individuals assigned to managed care health plans under this
6section shall be provided through direct hiring of personnel,
7contract, or establishment of a public authority or nonprofit
8consortium, in accordance with and subject to the requirements of
9Section 12302 or 12301.6, as applicable.

10(v) The department shall, at a minimum, monitor on a quarterly
11basis the adequacy of provider networks of the managed care health
12plans.

13(w) The department shall suspend new enrollment of seniors
14and persons with disabilities into a managed care health plan if it
15determines that the managed care health plan does not have
16sufficient primary or specialty providers to meet the needs of their
17enrollees.

18

SEC. 222.  

Section 14182.16 of the Welfare and Institutions
19Code
is amended to read:

20

14182.16.  

(a) The department shall require Medi-Cal
21beneficiaries who have dual eligibility in Medi-Cal and the
22Medicare Program to be assigned as mandatory enrollees into new
23or existing Medi-Cal managed care health plans for their Medi-Cal
24benefits in counties participating in the demonstration project
25pursuant to Section 14132.275.

26(b) For the purposes of this section and Section 14182.17, the
27following definitions shall apply:

28(1) “Dual eligible beneficiary” means an individual 21 years of
29age or older who is enrolled for benefits under Medicare Part A
30(42 U.S.C. Sec. 1395c et seq.) or Medicare Part B (42 U.S.C. Sec.
311395j et seq.), or both, and is eligible for medical assistance under
32the Medi-Cal State Plan.

33(2) “Full-benefit dual eligible beneficiary” means an individual
3421 years of age or older who is eligible for benefits under Medicare
35Part A (42 U.S.C. Sec. 1395c et seq.), Medicare Part B (42 U.S.C.
36Sec. 1395j et seq.), and Medicare Part D (42 U.S.C. Sec.
371395w-101), and is eligible for medical assistance under the
38Medi-Cal State Plan.

39(3) “Managed care health plan” means an individual,
40organization, or entity that enters into a contract with the
P535  1department pursuant to Article 2.7 (commencing with Section
214087.3), Article 2.81 (commencing with Section 14087.96), or
3Article 2.91 (commencing with Section 14089), of this chapter,
4or Chapter 8 (commencing with Section 14200).

5(4) “Other health coverage” means health coverage providing
6the same full or partial benefits as the Medi-Cal program, health
7coverage under another state or federal medical care program
8except for the Medicare Program (Title XVIII of the federal Social
9Security Act (42 U.S.C. Sec. 1395 et seq.)), or health coverage
10under a contractual or legal entitlement, including, but not limited
11to, a private group or indemnification insurance program.

12(5) “Out-of-network Medi-Cal provider” means a health care
13provider that does not have an existing contract with the
14beneficiary’s managed care health plan or its subcontractors.

15(6) “Partial-benefit dual eligible beneficiary” means an
16individual 21 years of age or older who is enrolled for benefits
17under Medicare Part A (42 U.S.C. Sec. 1395c et seq.), but not
18Medicare Part B (42 U.S.C. Sec. 1395j et seq.), or who is eligible
19for Medicare Part B (42 U.S.C. Sec. 1395j et seq.), but not
20Medicare Part A (42 U.S.C. Sec. 1395c et seq.), and is eligible for
21medical assistance under the Medi-Cal State Plan.

22(c) (1) Notwithstanding subdivision (a), a dual eligible
23beneficiary is exempt from mandatory enrollment in a managed
24care health plan if the dual eligible beneficiary meets any of the
25following:

26(A) Except in counties with county-organized health systems
27operating pursuant to Article 2.8 (commencing with Section
2814087.5), the beneficiary has other health coverage.

29(B) The beneficiary receives services through a foster care
30program, including the program described in Article 5
31(commencing with Section 11400) of Chapter 2.

32(C) The beneficiary is under 21 years of age.

33(D) The beneficiary is not eligible for enrollment in managed
34care health plans for medically necessary reasons determined by
35the department.

36(E) The beneficiary resides in one of the Veterans’ Homes of
37California, as described in Chapter 1 (commencing with Section
381010) of Division 5 of the Military and Veterans Code.

P536  1(F) The beneficiary is enrolled in any entity with a contract with
2the department pursuant to Chapter 8.75 (commencing with Section
314591).

4(G) The beneficiary is enrolled in a managed care organization
5licensed under the Knox-Keene Health Care Service Plan Act of
61975 (Chapter 2.2 (commencing with Section 1340) of Division
72 of the Health and Safety Code) that has previously contracted
8with the department as a primary care case management plan
9pursuant to Article 2.9 (commencing with Section 14088).

10(2) A beneficiary who has been diagnosed with HIV/AIDS is
11not exempt from mandatory enrollment, but may opt out of
12managed care enrollment at the beginning of any month.

13(d) Implementation of this section shall incorporate the
14provisions of Section 14182.17 that are applicable to beneficiaries
15eligible for benefits under Medi-Cal and the Medicare Program.

16(e) At the director’s sole discretion, in consultation with
17stakeholders, the department may determine and implement a
18phased-in enrollment approach that may include Medi-Cal
19beneficiary enrollment into managed care health plans immediately
20upon implementation of this section in a specific county, over a
2112-month period, or other phased approach. The phased-in
22enrollment shall commence no sooner than March 1, 2013, and
23not until all necessary federal approvals have been obtained.

24(f) To the extent that mandatory enrollment is required by the
25department, an enrollee’s access to fee-for-service Medi-Cal shall
26not be terminated until the enrollee has selected or been assigned
27to a managed care health plan.

28(g) Except in a county where Medi-Cal services are provided
29by a county organized health system, and notwithstanding any
30other law, in any county in which fewer than two existing managed
31health care plans contract with the department to provide Medi-Cal
32services under this chapter that are available to dual eligible
33beneficiaries, including long-term services and supports, the
34department may contract with additional managed care health plans
35to provide Medi-Cal services.

36(h) For partial-benefit dual eligible beneficiaries, the department
37shall inform these beneficiaries of their rights to continuity of care
38from out-of-network Medi-Cal providers pursuant to subparagraph
39(G) of paragraph (5) of subdivision (d) of Section 14182.17, and
40that the need for medical exemption criteria applied to counties
P537  1operating under Chapter 4.1 (commencing with Section 53800) of
2Subdivision 1 of Division 3 of Title 22 of the California Code of
3Regulations may not be necessary to continue receiving Medi-Cal
4services from an out-of-network provider.

5(i) The department may contract with existing managed care
6health plans to provide or arrange for services under this section.
7Notwithstanding any other law, the department may enter into the
8contract without the need for a competitive bid process or other
9contract proposal process, provided that the managed care health
10plan provides written documentation that it meets all of the
11qualifications and requirements of this section and Section
1214182.17.

13(j) The development of capitation rates for managed care health
14plan contracts shall include the analysis of data specific to the dual
15eligible population. For the purposes of developing capitation rates
16for payments to managed care health plans, the department shall
17require all managed care health plans, including existing managed
18care health plans, to submit financial, encounter, and utilization
19data in a form, at a time, and including substance as deemed
20necessary by the department. Failure to submit the required data
21shall result in the imposition of penalties pursuant to Section
2214182.1.

23(k) Persons meeting participation requirements for the Program
24of All-Inclusive Care for the Elderly (PACE) pursuant to Chapter
258.75 (commencing with Section 14591) may select a PACE plan
26if one is available in that county.

27(l) Except for dual eligible beneficiaries participating in the
28demonstration project pursuant to Section 14132.275, persons
29meeting the participation requirements in effect on January 1,
302010, for a Medi-Cal primary case management plan in operation
31on that date, may select that primary care case management plan
32or a successor health care plan that is licensed pursuant to the
33Knox-Keene Health Care Service Plan Act of 1975 (Chapter 2.2
34(commencing with Section 1340) of Division 2 of the Health and
35Safety Code) to provide services within the same geographic area
36that the primary care case management plan served on January 1,
372010.

38(m) The department may implement an intergovernmental
39transfer arrangement with a public entity that elects to transfer
40public funds to the state to be used solely as the nonfederal share
P538  1of Medi-Cal payments to managed care health plans for the
2provision of services to dual eligible beneficiaries pursuant to
3Section 14182.15.

4(n) To implement this section, the department may contract with
5public or private entities. Contracts or amendments entered into
6under this section may be on an exclusive or nonexclusive basis
7and on a noncompetitive bid basis and shall be exempt from all of
8the following:

9(1) Part 2 (commencing with Section 10100) of Division 2 of
10the Public Contract Code and any policies, procedures, or
11regulations authorized by that part.

12(2) Article 4 (commencing with Section 19130) of Chapter 5
13of Part 2 of Division 5 of Title 2 of the Government Code.

14(3) Review or approval of contracts by the Department of
15General Services.

16(o) Any otherwise applicable provisions of this chapter, Chapter
178 (commencing with Section 14200), or Chapter 8.75 (commencing
18with Section 14591) not in conflict with this section or with the
19Special Terms and Conditions of the waiver shall apply to this
20section.

21(p) The department shall, in coordination with and consistent
22with an interagency agreement with the Department of Managed
23Health Care, at a minimum, monitor on a quarterly basis the
24adequacy of provider networks of the managed care health plans.

25(q) The department shall suspend new enrollment of dual eligible
26beneficiaries into a managed care health plan if it determines that
27the managed care health plan does not have sufficient primary or
28specialty care providers and long-term services and supports to
29meet the needs of its enrollees.

30(r) Managed care health plans shall pay providers in accordance
31with Medicare and Medi-Cal coordination of benefits.

32(s) This section shall be implemented only to the extent that all
33federal approvals and waivers are obtained and only if and to the
34extent that federal financial participation is available.

35(t) Notwithstanding Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section
3611340) of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code,
37the department may implement, interpret, or make specific this
38section and any applicable federal waivers and state plan
39amendments by means of all-county letters, plan letters, plan or
40provider bulletins, or similar instructions, without taking regulatory
P539  1action. Prior to issuing any letter or similar instrument authorized
2pursuant to this section, the department shall notify and consult
3with stakeholders, including advocates, providers, and
4beneficiaries. The department shall notify the appropriate policy
5and fiscal committees of the Legislature of its intent to issue
6instructions under this section at least five days in advance of the
7issuance.

8(u) A managed care health plan that contracts with the
9department for the provision of services under this section shall
10ensure that beneficiaries have access to the same categories of
11licensed providers that are available under fee-for-service
12Medicare. Nothing in this section shall prevent a managed care
13health plan from contracting with selected providers within a
14category of licensure.

15

SEC. 223.  

Section 15630 of the Welfare and Institutions Code
16 is amended to read:

17

15630.  

(a) Any person who has assumed full or intermittent
18responsibility for the care or custody of an elder or dependent
19adult, whether or not he or she receives compensation, including
20administrators, supervisors, and any licensed staff of a public or
21private facility that provides care or services for elder or dependent
22adults, or any elder or dependent adult care custodian, health
23practitioner, clergy member, or employee of a county adult
24protective services agency or a local law enforcement agency, is
25a mandated reporter.

26(b) (1) Any mandated reporter who, in his or her professional
27capacity, or within the scope of his or her employment, has
28observed or has knowledge of an incident that reasonably appears
29to be physical abuse, as defined in Section 15610.63, abandonment,
30abduction, isolation, financial abuse, or neglect, or is told by an
31elder or dependent adult that he or she has experienced behavior,
32including an act or omission, constituting physical abuse, as defined
33in Section 15610.63, abandonment, abduction, isolation, financial
34abuse, or neglect, or reasonably suspects that abuse, shall report
35the known or suspected instance of abuse by telephone or through
36a confidential Internet reporting tool, as authorized by Section
3715658, immediately or as soon as practicably possible. If reported
38by telephone, a written report shall be sent, or an Internet report
39shall be made through the confidential Internet reporting tool
40established in Section 15658, within two working days:

P540  1(A) If the suspected or alleged abuse is physical abuse, as
2defined in Section 15610.63, and the abuse occurred in a long-term
3care facility, except a state mental health hospital or a state
4developmental center, the following shall occur:

5(i) If the suspected abuse results in serious bodily injury, a
6telephone report shall be made to the local law enforcement agency
7immediately, and no later than within two hours of the mandated
8reporter observing, obtaining knowledge of, or suspecting the
9physical abuse, and a written report shall be made to the local
10ombudsman, the corresponding licensing agency, and the local
11law enforcement agency within two hours of the mandated reporter
12observing, obtaining knowledge of, or suspecting the physical
13abuse.

14(ii) If the suspected abuse does not result in serious bodily injury,
15a telephone report shall be made to the local law enforcement
16agency within 24 hours of the mandated reporter observing,
17obtaining knowledge of, or suspecting the physical abuse, and a
18written report shall be made to the local ombudsman, the
19corresponding licensing agency, and the local law enforcement
20agency within 24 hours of the mandated reporter observing,
21obtaining knowledge of, or suspecting the physical abuse.

22(iii) When the suspected abuse is allegedly caused by a resident
23with a physician’s diagnosis of dementia, and there is no serious
24bodily injury, as reasonably determined by the mandated reporter,
25drawing upon his or her training or experience, the reporter shall
26report to the local ombudsman or law enforcement agency by
27telephone, immediately or as soon as practicably possible, and by
28written report, within 24 hours.

29(iv) When applicable, reports made pursuant to clauses (i) and
30(ii) shall be deemed to satisfy the reporting requirements of the
31federal Elder Justice Act of 2009, as set out in Subtitle H of Title
32VI of the federal Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act
33(Public Law 111-148), Section 1418.91 of the Health and Safety
34 Code, and Section 72541 of Title 22 of the California Code of
35Regulations. When a local law enforcement agency receives an
36initial report of suspected abuse in a long-term care facility
37pursuant to this subparagraph, the local law enforcement agency
38may coordinate efforts with the local ombudsman to provide the
39most immediate and appropriate response warranted to investigate
40the mandated report. The local ombudsman and local law
P541  1enforcement agencies may collaborate to develop protocols to
2implement this subparagraph.

3(B) Notwithstanding the rulemaking provisions of Chapter 3.5
4(commencing with Section 11340) of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title
52 of the Government Code, or any other law, the department may
6implement subparagraph (A), in whole or in part, by means of
7all-county letters, provider bulletins, or other similar instructions
8without taking regulatory action.

9(C) If the suspected or alleged abuse is abuse other than physical
10abuse, and the abuse occurred in a long-term care facility, except
11a state mental health hospital or a state developmental center, a
12telephone report and a written report shall be made to the local
13ombudsman or the local law enforcement agency.

14(D) With regard to abuse reported pursuant to subparagraphs
15(A) and (C), the local ombudsman and the local law enforcement
16agency shall, as soon as practicable, except in the case of an
17emergency or pursuant to a report required to be made pursuant
18to clause (v), in which case these actions shall be taken
19immediately, do all of the following:

20(i) Report to the State Department of Public Health any case of
21known or suspected abuse occurring in a long-term health care
22facility, as defined in subdivision (a) of Section 1418 of the Health
23and Safety Code.

24(ii) Report to the State Department of Social Services any case
25of known or suspected abuse occurring in a residential care facility
26for the elderly, as defined in Section 1569.2 of the Health and
27Safety Code, or in an adult day program, as defined in paragraph
28(2) of subdivision (a) of Section 1502 of the Health and Safety
29Code.

30(iii) Report to the State Department of Public Health and the
31California Department of Aging any case of known or suspected
32abuse occurring in an adult day health care center, as defined in
33subdivision (b) of Section 1570.7 of the Health and Safety Code.

34(iv) Report to the Bureau of Medi-Cal Fraud any case of known
35or suspected criminal activity.

36(v) Report all cases of known or suspected physical abuse and
37financial abuse to the local district attorney’s office in the county
38where the abuse occurred.

39(E) If the suspected or alleged abuse occurred in a state mental
40hospital or a state developmental center, the report shall be made
P542  1to designated investigators of the State Department of State
2Hospitals or the State Department of Developmental Services, or
3to the local law enforcement agency.

4(i) Except in an emergency, the local law enforcement agency
5shall, as soon as practicable, report any case of known or suspected
6criminal activity to the Bureau of Medi-Cal Fraud.

7(ii) Mandated reporters of the State Department of
8Developmental Services shall immediately report suspected abuse
9to the Office of Protective Services or to the local law enforcement
10agency.

11(F) If the abuse has occurred any place other than one described
12in subparagraph (A), the report shall be made to the adult protective
13services agency or the local law enforcement agency.

14(2) (A) A mandated reporter who is a clergy member who
15acquires knowledge or reasonable suspicion of elder or dependent
16adult abuse during a penitential communication is not subject to
17paragraph (1). For purposes of this subdivision, “penitential
18communication” means a communication that is intended to be in
19confidence, including, but not limited to, a sacramental confession
20made to a clergy member who, in the course of the discipline or
21practice of his or her church, denomination, or organization is
22authorized or accustomed to hear those communications and under
23the discipline tenets, customs, or practices of his or her church,
24denomination, or organization, has a duty to keep those
25communications secret.

26(B) This subdivision shall not be construed to modify or limit
27a clergy member’s duty to report known or suspected elder and
28dependent adult abuse if he or she is acting in the capacity of a
29care custodian, health practitioner, or employee of an adult
30protective services agency.

31(C) Notwithstanding any other provision in this section, a clergy
32member who is not regularly employed on either a full-time or
33part-time basis in a long-term care facility or does not have care
34or custody of an elder or dependent adult shall not be responsible
35for reporting abuse or neglect that is not reasonably observable or
36discernible to a reasonably prudent person having no specialized
37training or experience in elder or dependent care.

38(3) (A) A mandated reporter who is a physician and surgeon,
39a registered nurse, or a psychotherapist, as defined in Section 1010
P543  1of the Evidence Code, shall not be required to report, pursuant to
2paragraph (1), an incident if all of the following conditions exist:

3(i) The mandated reporter has been told by an elder or dependent
4adult that he or she has experienced behavior constituting physical
5abuse, as defined in Section 15610.63, abandonment, abduction,
6isolation, financial abuse, or neglect.

7(ii) The mandated reporter is not aware of any independent
8evidence that corroborates the statement that the abuse has
9occurred.

10(iii) The elder or dependent adult has been diagnosed with a
11mental illness or dementia, or is the subject of a court-ordered
12conservatorship because of a mental illness or dementia.

13(iv) In the exercise of clinical judgment, the physician and
14surgeon, the registered nurse, or the psychotherapist, as defined
15in Section 1010 of the Evidence Code, reasonably believes that
16the abuse did not occur.

17(B) This paragraph shall not be construed to impose upon
18mandated reporters a duty to investigate a known or suspected
19incident of abuse and shall not be construed to lessen or restrict
20any existing duty of mandated reporters.

21(4) (A) In a long-term care facility, a mandated reporter shall
22not be required to report as a suspected incident of abuse, as defined
23in Section 15610.07, an incident if all of the following conditions
24exist:

25(i) The mandated reporter is aware that there is a proper plan
26of care.

27(ii) The mandated reporter is aware that the plan of care was
28properly provided or executed.

29(iii) A physical, mental, or medical injury occurred as a result
30of care provided pursuant to clause (i) or (ii).

31(iv) The mandated reporter reasonably believes that the injury
32was not the result of abuse.

33(B) This paragraph shall not be construed to require a mandated
34reporter to seek, nor to preclude a mandated reporter from seeking,
35information regarding a known or suspected incident of abuse prior
36to reporting. This paragraph shall apply only to those categories
37of mandated reporters that the State Department of Public Health
38determines, upon approval by the Bureau of Medi-Cal Fraud and
39the state long-term care ombudsman, have access to plans of care
P544  1and have the training and experience necessary to determine
2whether the conditions specified in this section have been met.

3(c) (1) Any mandated reporter who has knowledge, or
4reasonably suspects, that types of elder or dependent adult abuse
5for which reports are not mandated have been inflicted upon an
6elder or dependent adult, or that his or her emotional well-being
7is endangered in any other way, may report the known or suspected
8instance of abuse.

9(2) If the suspected or alleged abuse occurred in a long-term
10care facility other than a state mental health hospital or a state
11developmental center, the report may be made to the long-term
12care ombudsman program. Except in an emergency, the local
13ombudsman shall report any case of known or suspected abuse to
14the State Department of Public Health and any case of known or
15suspected criminal activity to the Bureau of Medi-Cal Fraud, as
16soon as is practicable.

17(3) If the suspected or alleged abuse occurred in a state mental
18health hospital or a state developmental center, the report may be
19made to the designated investigator of the State Department of
20State Hospitals or the State Department of Developmental Services
21or to a local law enforcement agency. Except in an emergency,
22the local law enforcement agency shall report any case of known
23or suspected criminal activity to the Bureau of Medi-Cal Fraud,
24as soon as is practicable.

25(4) If the suspected or alleged abuse occurred in a place other
26than a place described in paragraph (2) or (3), the report may be
27made to the county adult protective services agency.

28(5) If the conduct involves criminal activity not covered in
29subdivision (b), it may be immediately reported to the appropriate
30law enforcement agency.

31(d) If two or more mandated reporters are present and jointly
32have knowledge or reasonably suspect that types of abuse of an
33elder or a dependent adult for which a report is or is not mandated
34have occurred, and there is agreement among them, the telephone
35report or Internet report, as authorized by Section 15658, may be
36made by a member of the team selected by mutual agreement, and
37a single report may be made and signed by the selected member
38of the reporting team. Any member who has knowledge that the
39member designated to report has failed to do so shall thereafter
40make the report.

P545  1(e) A telephone report or Internet report, as authorized by
2Section 15658, of a known or suspected instance of elder or
3dependent adult abuse shall include, if known, the name of the
4person making the report, the name and age of the elder or
5dependent adult, the present location of the elder or dependent
6adult, the names and addresses of family members or any other
7adult responsible for the elder’s or dependent adult’s care, the
8nature and extent of the elder’s or dependent adult’s condition, the
9date of the incident, and any other information, including
10information that led that person to suspect elder or dependent adult
11abuse, as requested by the agency receiving the report.

12(f) The reporting duties under this section are individual, and
13no supervisor or administrator shall impede or inhibit the reporting
14duties, and no person making the report shall be subject to any
15sanction for making the report. However, internal procedures to
16facilitate reporting, ensure confidentiality, and apprise supervisors
17and administrators of reports may be established, provided they
18are not inconsistent with this chapter.

19(g) (1) Whenever this section requires a county adult protective
20services agency to report to a law enforcement agency, the law
21 enforcement agency shall, immediately upon request, provide a
22copy of its investigative report concerning the reported matter to
23that county adult protective services agency.

24(2) Whenever this section requires a law enforcement agency
25to report to a county adult protective services agency, the county
26adult protective services agency shall, immediately upon request,
27provide to that law enforcement agency a copy of its investigative
28report concerning the reported matter.

29(3) The requirement to disclose investigative reports pursuant
30to this subdivision shall not include the disclosure of social services
31records or case files that are confidential, nor shall this subdivision
32be construed to allow disclosure of any reports or records if the
33disclosure would be prohibited by any other provision of state or
34federal law.

35(h) Failure to report, or impeding or inhibiting a report of,
36physical abuse, as defined in Section 15610.63, abandonment,
37abduction, isolation, financial abuse, or neglect of an elder or
38dependent adult, in violation of this section, is a misdemeanor,
39punishable by not more than six months in a county jail, by a fine
40of not more than one thousand dollars ($1,000), or by both that
P546  1fine and imprisonment. Any mandated reporter who willfully fails
2to report, or impedes or inhibits a report of, physical abuse, as
3defined in Section 15610.63, abandonment, abduction, isolation,
4financial abuse, or neglect of an elder or dependent adult, in
5violation of this section, if that abuse results in death or great bodily
6injury, shall be punished by not more than one year in a county
7jail, by a fine of not more than five thousand dollars ($5,000), or
8by both that fine and imprisonment. If a mandated reporter
9intentionally conceals his or her failure to report an incident known
10by the mandated reporter to be abuse or severe neglect under this
11section, the failure to report is a continuing offense until a law
12enforcement agency specified in paragraph (1) of subdivision (b)
13discovers the offense.

14(i) For purposes of this section, “dependent adult” shall have
15the same meaning as in Section 15610.23.

16

SEC. 224.  

Section 15650 of the Welfare and Institutions Code
17 is amended to read:

18

15650.  

(a) Investigation of reports of known or suspected
19instances of abuse in long-term care facilities shall be the
20responsibility of the bureau, the local law enforcement agency,
21and the long-term care ombudsman program.

22(b) Investigations of known or suspected instances of abuse
23outside of long-term care facilities shall be the responsibility of
24the county adult protective services agency, unless another public
25agency is given responsibility for investigation in that jurisdiction,
26and the local law enforcement agency.

27(c) The investigative responsibilities set forth in this section are
28in addition to, and not in derogation of or substitution for, the
29investigative and regulatory responsibilities of licensing agencies,
30such as the State Department of Social Services Community Care
31Licensing Division and the State Department of Public Health
32Licensing and Certification Division and their authorized
33representatives.

34(d) Other public agencies involved in the investigation of abuse
35or advocacy of respective client populations, or both, include, but
36shall not be limited to, the State Department of State Hospitals and
37the State Department of Developmental Services. Other public
38agencies shall conduct or assist in, or both, the investigation of
39reports of abuse of elder and dependent adults within their
P547  1jurisdiction in conjunction with county adult protective services,
2local ombudsman programs, and local law enforcement agencies.

3(e) Each county adult protective services agency shall maintain
4an inventory of all public and private service agencies available
5to assist victims of abuse, as defined by Section 15610.07. This
6inventory shall be used to refer victims in the event that the county
7adult protective services agency cannot resolve the immediate
8needs of the victim, and to serve the victim on a long-term,
9followup basis. The intent of this section is to acknowledge that
10limited funds are available to resolve all suspected cases of abuse
11reported to a county adult protective services agency.

12(f) Each local ombudsman program shall maintain an inventory
13of all public and private agencies available to assist long-term care
14residents who are victims of abuse, as defined by Section 15610.07.
15This inventory shall be used to refer cases of abuse in the event
16that another agency has jurisdiction over the resident, the abuse is
17verified and further investigation is needed by a law enforcement
18or licensing agency, or the program does not have sufficient
19resources to provide immediate assistance. The intent of this section
20 is to acknowledge that ombudsman responsibility in abuse cases
21is to receive reports, determine the validity of reports, refer verified
22abuse cases to appropriate agencies for further action as necessary,
23and follow up to complete the required report information. Other
24ombudsman services shall be provided to the resident, as
25appropriate.

26

SEC. 225.  

Section 18969 of the Welfare and Institutions Code
27 is amended to read:

28

18969.  

(a) There is hereby created in the State Treasury a fund
29which shall be known as the State Children’s Trust Fund. The fund
30shall consist of funds received from a county pursuant to Section
3118968, funds collected by the state and transferred to the fund
32pursuant to subdivision (b) of Section 103625 of the Health and
33Safety Code and Article 2 (commencing with Section 18711) of
34Chapter 3 of Part 10.2 of Division 2 of the Revenue and Taxation
35Code, grants, gifts, or bequests made to the state from private
36sources to be used for innovative and distinctive child abuse and
37neglect prevention and intervention projects, and money
38appropriated to the fund for this purpose by the Legislature. The
39State Registrar may retain a percentage of the fees collected
P548  1pursuant to Section 103625 of the Health and Safety Code, not to
2exceed 10 percent, in order to defray the costs of collection.

3(b) Money in the State Children’s Trust Fund, upon
4appropriation by the Legislature, shall be allocated to the State
5Department of Social Services for the purpose of funding child
6abuse and neglect prevention and intervention programs. The
7department may not supplant any federal, state, or county funds
8with any funds made available through the State Children’s Trust
9Fund.

10(c) The department may establish positions as needed for the
11purpose of implementing and administering child abuse and neglect
12prevention and intervention programs that are funded by the State
13Children’s Trust Fund. However, the department shall use no more
14than 5 percent of the funds appropriated pursuant to this section
15for administrative costs.

16(d) No State Children’s Trust Fund money shall be used to
17supplant state General Fund money for any purpose.

18(e) It is the intent of the Legislature that the State Children’s
19Trust Fund provide for all of the following:

20(1) The development of a public-private partnership by
21encouraging consistent outreach to the private foundation and
22corporate community.

23(2) Funds for large-scale dissemination of information that will
24promote public awareness regarding the nature and incidence of
25child abuse and the availability of services for intervention. These
26public awareness activities shall include, but not be limited to, the
27production of public service announcements, well-designed posters,
28pamphlets, booklets, videos, and other media tools.

29(3) Research and demonstration projects that explore the nature
30and incidence and the development of long-term solutions to the
31problem of child abuse.

32(4) The development of a mechanism to provide ongoing public
33awareness through activities that will promote the charitable tax
34deduction for the trust fund and seek continued contributions.
35These activities may include convening a philanthropic roundtable,
36developing literature for use by the State Bar for dissemination,
37and whatever other activities are deemed necessary and appropriate
38to promote the trust fund.

39

SEC. 226.  

Section 1 of Chapter 357 of the Statutes of 2012 is
40amended to read:

P549  1

SECTION 1.  

(a) The sum of six hundred twenty-four thousand
2six hundred seventy-one dollars and eighty-six cents ($624,671.86)
3is hereby appropriated from the fund specified in subdivision (b)
4to the Executive Officer of the California Victim Compensation
5and Government Claims Board for the payment of claims accepted
6by the board pursuant to the schedule set forth in subdivision (b).

7(b) Pursuant to subdivision (a), claims accepted by the California
8Victim Compensation and Government Claims Board shall be paid
9pursuant to the following schedule:


10

 

Total for Fund: General Fund (0001)

   

 $593,372.28
Total for Fund: Item 2660-001-0042 Budget Act of 2012, Program 20.10

   $9,330.35

Total for Fund: Item 2740-001-0044 Budget Act of 2012, Program 11

   $3,055.15

Total for Fund: Item 4260-001-0001 Budget Act of 2012, Program 20

   $6,131.34

Total for Fund: Item 5180-111-0001 Budget Act of 2012, Program 25.15

   $3,117.59

Total for Fund: Item 7100-001-0185 Budget Act of 2012, Program 21

   $9,665.15

P549 23

 

24

SEC. 227.  

Section 1 of Chapter 513 of the Statutes of 2012 is
25amended to read:

26

SECTION 1.  

This act shall be known and may be cited as
27Kathy’s Law.

28

SEC. 228.  

Section 1 of Chapter 541 of the Statutes of 2012 is
29amended to read:

30

SECTION 1.  

The Legislature finds and declares all of the
31following:

32(a) The coho salmon (Oncorhynchus kisutch) is a fish native to
33many northern California coastal streams and consists of two
34distinct Evolutionary Significant Units (ESU), the Southern
35Oregon/Northern California Coast (SONCC) and the Central
36California Coast (CCC) ESUs. The historical range of the SONCC
37ESU includes coastal rivers and tributaries in Del Norte, Siskiyou,
38Humboldt, Trinity, Mendocino, and Lake Counties. The historical
39range for the CCC ESU includes coastal rivers and tributaries in
40parts of Humboldt, Mendocino, Sonoma, Napa, Marin, Solano,
P550  1Contra Costa, San Francisco, Alameda, San Mateo, Santa Clara,
2and Santa Cruz Counties.

3(b) All coho salmon runs in California have declined
4dramatically over the past 40 to 50 years. Population numbers,
5including hatchery stocks, were estimated at 6 to 15 percent of
61940 levels in 2004. Since 2004, populations in all monitored
7streams have continued to decline with an estimated 1 percent
8remaining of the original population. While a few coastal rivers,
9such as the Russian River, did show an increase in population for
102011, it is not yet known whether the increase is sustainable, and
11the species remains at critical risk of extinction.

12(c) Both the SONCC and the CCC ESUs are listed pursuant to
13the federal Endangered Species Act of 1973 (16 U.S.C. Sec. 1531
14et seq.) and the California Endangered Species Act (Chapter 1.5
15(commencing with Section 2050) of Division 3 of the Fish and
16Game Code). The populations south of the San Francisco Bay are
17listed as endangered and considered to be virtually extinct. The
18populations between San Francisco Bay and Punta Gorda to the
19north are listed as endangered, and the populations from Punta
20Gorda to the Oregon border are listed as threatened.

21(d) California’s salmon populations need freshwater habitat that
22includes cold and clean water, appropriate water depth, quantity,
23and flow velocities, upland and riparian vegetation to stabilize soil
24and shade, clean gravel for spawning and egg rearing, large woody
25debris to provide resting and hiding places, adequate food, and
26varied channel forms.

27(e) An urgency exists due to the extraordinarily small numbers
28of coho salmon remaining in California. In order to prevent their
29extinction from northern California waters, it is imperative that
30habitat restoration efforts be expedited and increased as soon as
31possible.

32(f) Therefore, it is the intent of the Legislature in enacting this
33policy that the Department of Fish and Wildlife seek agreements
34and partnerships with state and federal agencies to efficiently and
35effectively permit habitat enhancement projects necessary to
36prevent the extinction of coho salmon populations in California
37coastal watersheds and that the Department of Fish and Wildlife
38expedite and streamline the permitting and approval of coho salmon
39habitat enhancement projects, including, in particular, large woody
40debris restoration projects, in northern California streams.

P551  1(g) By eliminating barriers to fish passage, stabilizing banks,
2increasing stream channel complexity, and otherwise restoring and
3enhancing habitat, these projects will result in a net benefit to coho
4salmon and other species.

5

SEC. 229.  

Section 2 of Chapter 719 of the Statutes of 2012 is
6amended to read:

7

SEC. 2.  

This act is an urgency statute necessary for the
8immediate preservation of the public peace, health, or safety within
9the meaning of Article IV of the Constitution and shall go into
10immediate effect. The facts constituting the necessity are:

11This authorization is required to begin construction on the
12memorial as quickly as possible to coincide with Portuguese
13Heritage Month, established by Resolution Chapter 24 of the
14Statutes of 2010.

15

SEC. 230.  

Any section of any act enacted by the Legislature
16during the 2013 calendar year that takes effect on or before January
171, 2014, and that amends, amends and renumbers, adds, repeals
18and adds, or repeals a section that is amended, amended and
19renumbered, added, repealed and added, or repealed by this act,
20shall prevail over this act, whether that act is enacted prior to, or
21subsequent to, the enactment of this act. The repeal, or repeal and
22addition, of any article, chapter, part, title, or division of any code
23by this act shall not become operative if any section of any other
24act that is enacted by the Legislature during the 2013 calendar year
25and takes effect on or before January 1, 2014, amends, amends
26and renumbers, adds, repeals and adds, or repeals any section
27contained in that article, chapter, part, title, or division.



O

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